Allen RZC

REVISION OF ZOOLOGY CONCEPT (RZC) Serial Page
No.
CONTENT No.
1. Structural organisation in animals 01-07
2. Animal Kingdom 08-12
3. Digestion and Absorption 13-18
4. Breathing and Exchange of Gases 19-24
5. Body Fluids and Circulation 25-29
6. Excretory products and Their elimination 30-35
7. Movement and Locomotion 36-39
8. Neural control and Coordination 40-44
9. Chemical Coordination and Integration 45-48
10. Human reproduction and
Reproductive Health 49-54
11. Human Health & Disease 55-58
12. Evolution 59-62
13. Domestication of Animal 63-64
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ALLEN REVISION OF ZOOLOGY CONCEPT (RZC) 1
REVISION OF ZOOLOGY CONCEPT (RZC)

STRUCTURAL ORGANISATION IN ANIMALS
1. In earthworm blood corpuscles are produced 7. Trapped dust particles are pushed out of
by :- respiratory tract by
(1) Lateral heart (2) Blood Gland (1) Mast cell (2) Plasma Cells
(3) Anterior loop (4) Blood vessel (3) Cilia (4) Fibroblasts
2. Mark the false statement regarding the heart of 8. "Stratum germinativum" consists of
cockroach ?
(1) Squamous epithelium
(1) Heart lies mid dorsally (2) Cuboidal epithelium
(2) It is 13 chambered
(3) Ciliated epithelium
(3) It is neurogenic (4) Columnar epithelium
(4) It is myogenic
9. Epithelial cells of the intestine are involved in
3. Stomodeal valve prevents regurgitation of food absorption because :-
partially digested food from
(1) Pinocytic vesicles are found
(1) Midgut into crop
(2) Microvilli are found
(2) Pre-oral cavity
(3) Zymogen granules are found
(3) Midgut into hind gut
(4) Phagocytic vesicles are found.
(4) None of these
10. The epithelium present in the inner layer of
4. Position of head in relation of body axis of stomach and intestine is
cockroach is known as :- (1) Columnar (2) Squamous
(1) Epignathous (2) Hypognathous
(3) Cuboidal (4) Ciliated
(3) Prognathus (4) All of these 11. The cells of connective tissue which do not
5. Which of the following junctions help to stop secret the matrix are :-
substances from leaking across a tissue ?
(1) Mast cells
Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\BIOLOGY AT ITS PEAK\ZOOLOGY_ENGLISH.P65
(1) Adhering junction (2) Gap junction

(2) Fibroblasts
(3) Tight Junction (4) Both (1) & (2)
(3) Macrophages
6. Presence of tissue in a multicellular organism
(4) All of the above
ensures :-
12. The most widely distributed connective tissue
(1) Faster development in the animals body is:-
(2) Division of labour
(1) Areolar (2) Adipose
(3) Higher reproductive potential (3) Cartilage (4) Tendons & ligament
(4) Body strength
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2 REVISION OF ZOOLOGY CONCEPT (RZC) ALLEN
13. Which type of muscles show peristaltic 20. Which of the following is mismatched ?
movements in the gastro intestinal tract?
(1) Clitellum - 14 - 16 segment in mature
(1) Striated (2) Smooth earthworm
(3) Cardiac (4) Skeletal (2) Female genital pore - mid-ventral line of 14th
segment
14. Which one of the following contains the largest
quantity of extracellular material ? (3) Pair of male genital pore - Dorsal lateral sides
of the 18th segments
(1) Striated muscle
(4) Setae - Present in each segment except - Ist,
(2) Areolar tissue
last and clitellar segments
(3) Striated Epithelium
21. How many types of tissue our heart is made of?
(4) Myelinated nerve fibres
(A) Epithelial (B) Connective
15. Earthworm can feel the vibrations of the ground
(C) Muscular (D) Nervous.
due to the presence of
(1) A only (2) A and B only
(1) Buccal receptor (2) Photoreceptor
(3) A, B & C (4) A, B, C & D
(3) Epidermal receptor (4) Chemoreceptor
22. Conglobate organ is a part of male reproductive
16. The surface area of intestine in earthworm is
system of :-
greatly increased by the presence of :-
(1) Prawn (2) Cockroach
(1) Gizzard
(3) Earthworm (4) Frog
(2) Typhlosole
23. Structure that helps the Cockroach to walk on
(3) Buccal Cavity
the smooth surface is :
(4) Calciferous glands
(1) Trochanter (2) Plantulae
17. In earthworm, haemoglobin is present in the
(3) Cardo (4) Scape
dissolved state in
24. Which of the two parts in cockroach are
(1) Lymph (2) Plasma
fundamentaly similar in function ?
(3) Bile (4) Blood corpuscles
(1) Anal style and labrum
18. In earthworm, the humic acid is neutralised in
(2) Maxillae and anal cerci
stomach by the secretion of :-
(3) Maxillae & Legs

(1) Prostate gland (2) Blood gland
(4) Mandibles and gizzard
(3) Calciferous gland (4) Gizzard
25. In cockroach elytra are articulated to the
19. In earthworm 14th to 16th segments are
tergites of.
covered by a prominent dark band of
glandular tissue called :- (1) Prothorax
(2) Mesothorax
(1) Typhlosole (2) Gizzard
(3) Metathorax
(3) Prostomium (4) Clitellum
(4) Abdomen
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26. Which pair of movement is not perfomed by 32. Choose wrong statement with respect to
frog? connective tissue:-
(1) It is most abundant tissue in the body of
(1) Burrowing
complex animals.
(2) Climbing & Running (2) In all connective tissue including blood the
(3) Leaping & Walking cell secretes fibers of structural protein
called collagen or elastin.
(4) Leaping & Burrowing
(3) Cartilage, bone and blood are various types
27. What is correct about the most common species of specialized connective tissue.
of Frog in India? (4) Loose connective tissue is present beneath the
(1) Colour of dorsal side is olive green skin.
33. Which is not a character of Periplaneta?
(2) 5 digits in forelimbs & 4 digits in hindlimb
(1) Segmented body
(3) Male Frog lacks vocal cords
(2) Jointed legs
(4) Performs hibernation but not aestivation (3) Compound eyes
28. The length of alimentary canal of adult frog is:- (4) 1- pair wings
34. Identify the incorrectly matched pair:
(1) Long as it is carnivore
(1) Gizzard – Digestive system
(2) Long as it is herbivore (2) Malpighian tubules – Excretory system
(3) Short as it is carnivore (3) Spiracles – Circulatory system
(4) Short as it is herbivore (4) Ganglia – Nervous system

35. Match the epithelial tissue given in column-I
29. Respiration in tadpole of frog takes place by
with its location given in column-II and choose
(1) Lungs (2) Gills the correct option.
(3) Buccal cavity (4) Skin Column I Column II
(Epithelial tissue) (Location)
30. Vasa-efferentia in male frog opens into :
A Cuboidal I Epidermis of skin
(1) Vas-deferens (2) Bidder's canal
B Ciliated II Inner lining of
(3) Cloaca (4) Urino-genital dnet blood vessels
31. Identify given diagram and choose structure C Columnar III Inner surface of
which represents this condition:- gall bladder
D Squamous IV Inner lining of

fallopian tube
E Keratinized V Lining of
squamous pancreatic duct
(1) A – V; B – IV; C – II, D – III; E – I
(2) A – III; B – IV; C – V, D – II; E – I
(1) Cartilage (2) Ligament
(3) A – V; B – IV; C – III, D – II; E – I
(3) Skin (4) Bone
(4) A – III; B – IV; C – V, D – I; E – II
E
36. Match column-I (type of epithelium) with 38. In the given diagram of areolar connective
column-II (Description) and choose the correct tissue, the different cells and parts have been
option. marked by alphabets (A, B, C & D). Choose
the answer in which these alphabets correctly
Column I Column II
(Types of epithelium) (Description) match with the parts and cells they indicate.
A Squamous I It is composed of a
epithelium single-layer of cube-like A
cells B
B Cuboidal II Have cilia on their free C
epithelium surface
C Columnar III It is composed of a
epithelium single layer of tall and D
slender cells
(1) A-Adipocyte, B-Collagen fibres,
D Ciliated epithelium IV It is made up of a single
thin layer of flattened C-Microfilament, D-Mast cells
cells with irregular (2) A-Macrophage, B-Collagen fibres,
boundaries
C-Microfilament, D-Mast cells
(1) A – IV; B – I; C – III, D – II
(3) A-Macrophage, B-Collagen fibres,
(2) A – I; B – IV; C – III, D – II
C-Microtubule, D-RBC
(3) A – IV; B – I; C – II, D – III
(4) A-Macrophage, B-Fibroblast, C-Collagen
(4) A – IV; B – III; C – I, D – II
fibres, D-Mast cells
37. Match the types of connective tissue given in
column-I with their examples given in column-II 39. The following figure shows the external features
and choose the correct option. of cockroach with few structure labelled as
A, B, C, D & E.
Column I Filiform antennae
Column II
(Types of connective Compound eye Head
(Examples)
tissue) A
D
A Loose connective I Tendons and B
tissue ligaments Prothoracie leg
Hind wing
C
B Dense regular II Skin Mesothoracic leg
tissue
Metathoracic leg Abdomen
C Dense irregular III Cartilage,
E
tissue bones, blood
D Specialized IV Fibroblasts, Identify A to E
connective tissue macrophages (1) A-Mesothrorax, B-Pronotum,
and mast cells
C-Metathorax, D-Tegmina, E-Anal style
(2) A-Pronotum, B-Metathorax,
(1) A – I; B – IV; C – II, D – III
C-Mesothorax, D-Tegmina, E-Sterna
(2) A – I; B – IV; C – III, D – II
(3) A-Pronotum, B-Mesothorax,
(3) A – IV; B – I; C – II, D – III
C-Metathorax, D-Tegmina, E-Anal cerci
(4) A – IV; B – II; C – I, D – III (4) A-Pronotum, B-Mesothorax,
C-Metathorax, D-Tegmina, E-Anal style
E
40. The given figure shows the nephridial system 42. Haversian canal system is a feature of -
of earthworm and answer the question. (1) Mammalian spongy bone
(2) Mammalian compact bone
(3) Avian compact bone
X (4) Reptilian compact bone
43. The diagram given below represents the
reproductive organ of male cockroach. Choose
the correct labelling of the part of marked as
A, B, C and D.
Select the option which shows the correct A

C B
identification and the function of the structure D
marked as "X".
(1) A-8th sternum, B-Anal cercus,
(1) Lateral heart - It is a blood pumping organ
C-10th tergum, D-Anal style
(2) Calciferous glands - They neutralize the
(2) A-10 th tergum, B-Anal cercus,
humic acid present in humus.
(3) Nephridia - It regulates the volume and C-Anal style, D-8th sternum
composition of the body fluids. (3) A-Anal style, B-Anal cercus,
(4) Blood glands - They produce blood cells C-10th tergum, D-8th sternum
and haemoglobin which is dissolved in (4) A-Anal cercus, B-8 th sternum,
blood plasma.
C-10th tergum, D-Anal style
41. A student was given a sample of two tissues.
44. Identify figures-I and II :-
He observes the tissues under the microscope
and draws their figures (1 and 2) as shown Collagen
Matrix fibre
below. Fibroblast
Matrix
Collagen Fibroblast
1 2 fibre
Fig-I Fig-II
Identify the tissues (1 and 2)

(1) 1 : Columnar cells bearing cilia;
Figure-I Figure-II
2 : Unicellular glandular epithelium
(1) Dense regular Dense irregular
(2) 1 : Cuboidal cells bearing cilia; connective tissue connective tissue
2 : Multicellular glandular epithelium (2) Loose irregular Loose regular
(3) 1 : Compound cells bearing cilia; connective tissue connective tissue
2 : Unicellular glandular epithelium (3) Adipose tissue Specialized
(4) 1 : Columnar cells bearing cilia; connective tissue
(4) Connective tissue Areolar tissue
2 : Multicellular glandular epithelium
proper
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45. The figure given below shows the head region (2) A-Crop, B-Gizzard, C-Hepatic caecae,
of cockroach. Identify A to F. D-Malpighian tubules
A (3) A-Crop, B-Gizzard, C-Malpighian tubules,
Antennae B
D-Hepatic caecae
(4) A-Gizzard, B-Crop, C-Malpighian tubules,
D
D-Hepatic caecae
C
E 47. The given figure shows open circulatory
F system of cockroach with structures marked as
A, B and C. Which structure is a 13 pair of wing
(1) A-Compound eye, B-Ocellus, C-Maxilla, shaped involuntary muscles and mantain blood
circulation ?
D-Mandible, E-Labrum, F-Labium
(2) A-Ocellus, B-Compounds eye, A

Haemocoel
C-Mandible, D-Maxilla,, E-Labrum, C
F-Labium
(3) A-Ocellus, B-Compound eye, C-Mandible,
D-Maxilla, E-Labium, F-Labrum B

(4) A-Ocellus, B-Compound eye, C-Maxilla,
D-Mandible, E-Labrum, F-Labium
46. The given shows the digestive system of (1) A (2) B

cockroach with few structure marked as A, B, (3) C (4) Both A and B
C and D. 48. Identify the figure with its correct function :-
Pharynx
Salivary gland
Salivary reservoir
Oesophagus
A
B
C
(1) Areolar connective tissue - Serves as a
Midgut support framework for epithelium.

D (2) Adipose tissue - Store fats act as heat
Rectum insulators
Ileum
(3) Dense regular tissue - Provide flexibility
Colon
(4) Dense irregular tissue - Provide strength
Identify structure A to D.
(1) A-Gizzard, B-Crop, C-Hepatic caecae, and elasticity
D-Malpighian tubules
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49. The following figures A, B and C are types of 50. The blood of cockroach contains no respiratory
muscle tissue. Identify A, B and C :- pigment. It means that :-
(1) cockroach does not respire
(2) respiration is anaerobic
(3) oxygen goes directly into tissues by
diffusion
(4) oxygen goes directly into tissues by
A B C intracellular capillary system
(1) A-Smooth muscle, B-Cardiac muscle,
C-Skeletal muscle
(2) A-Skeletal muscle, B-Smooth muscle,
C-Cardiac muscle
(3) A-Cardiac muscle, B-Smooth muscle,
C-Skeletal muscle
(4) A-Smooth muscle, B-Skeletal muscle,
C-Cardiac muscle
BIOLOGY ANSWER KEY

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 4 1 2 3 2 3 2 2 1 3 1 2 2 1
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 2 2 3 4 3 4 2 2 4 2 2 1 3 2 2
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 2 2 4 3 3 1 3 4 3 4 4 2 1 1 2
Que. 46 47 48 49 50
Ans. 2 3 2 2 4
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ANIMAL KINGDOM
1. Excretory organs of Arthropods are :- 10. Tissue level of body organization is present in
(1) Malpighian tubules (2) Coxal glands phylum :-
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Nephridia (1) Platyhelminthes (2) Aschelminthes
(3) Annelida (4) Coelenterata
2. Example of living fossil is :-
11. Pseudocoelom is present in :-
(1) Anopheles (2) Locusta
(1) Platyhelminthes (2) Annelida
(3) Limulus (4) Aedes
(3) Arthropoda (4) Aschelminthes
3. Pneumatic bones are present in :-
12. Identify the phylum in which animals are
(1) Corvus (2) Psittacula
Bilaterally symmetrical, Triploblastic,
(3) Hyla (4) Both (1) and (2)
Acoelomate and have organ level of
4. Metameric segmentation is found in phylum :-
organisation?
(1) Coelenterata (2) Porifera
(1) Aschelminthes (2) Platyhelminthes
(3) Platyhelminthes (4) Annelida
(3) Annelida (4) Arthropoda
5. Notochord is :-
13. Features of aschelminthes are :-
(1) Ectodermal in origin
(2) Endodermal in origin (1) Tissue level of organisation & Acoelomate
(3) Mesodermal in origin (2) Organ Level of organisation & Acoelomate
(4) Some part is ectodermal and some part is (3) Organ system level of organisation and
of endodermal origin coelomate
6. All protozoans are :- (4) Organ system level of organisation and
(1) Autotrophs and live as predators Pseudocoelomate
(2) Autotrophs and live as parasite 14. Locomotory structure in annelida are :-
(3) Heterotrophs and live as predator or parasite (1) Parapodia
(4) Heterotrophs and live as only predator. (2) Setae
7. Disease which has a staggering effect on (3) Longitudinal and Circular muscles
human population is :- (4) All of these
(1) Typhoid (2) Common cold
15. Circulatory system of arthropods is :-
(3) Mumps (4) Malaria
(1) Closed type
8. Collar cells or choanocytes are found in :-
(2) Open type
(1) Lining of spongocoel
(3) Some members have closed and some have

(2) Lining of canals.
open circulatory system.
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Absent
(4) Outer layer of body wall. 16. Larvae and adults of Echinoderms have
9. Fertilization and development in sponges is :- respectively :-
(1) External & direct (1) Radial and bilateral symmetry
(2) External & Indirect (2) Bilateral and radial Symmetry
(3) Internal & direct (3) Both have radial symmetry
(4) Internal & indirect (4) Both have bilateral symmetry
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17. Excretory organ of hemichordates are known 23. Air sacs of birds helps in :-
as:- (1) Gaseous exchange
(1) Nephridia (2) Green gland (2) Internal perspiration
(3) Proboscis gland (4) organ of Bojanus (3) Respiration but never in gaseous exchange
18. Worm like, fossorial marine animals are found (4) Both (2) and (3)
in- 24. Reptilian origin of birds are marked by :-
(1) Arthropoda (1) Presence of pneumatic bones
(2) Echinodermata (2) Presence of feathers
(3) Mollusca (3) Oil gland at the base of tail
(4) Hemichordata (4) Presence of scales on hind limbs
19. Four pairs of gills with an operculum is present 25. Egg laying mammals connect :-
in :- (1) Mammalia to aves
(1) Trygon (2) Myxine
(2) Mammalia to reptilia
(3) Clarias (4) Pristis
20. Body of amphibians is generally divided into:- (3) Mammalia to amphibia
(4) Mammalia to bony fish
(1) Head, and tail
26. Features used for animal classifications are :-
(2) Head, neck and tail
(1) Arrangement of cells and body symmetry.
(3) Head and trunk
(2) Nature of Coelom and pattern of alimentary
(4) Head, neck, trunk and tail
canal
21. Epidermal scales are found in :-
(3) Patterns of digestive, circulatory and
(1) Hemidactylus (2) Ichthyophis reproductive systems.
(3) Scoliodon (4) Betta (4) All of the above
22. Match the column-I and column-II and select 27. Select the correct option with the reference of
the correct answer ? pseudocoelomate animals:
(1) These animals are diploblastic
Column-I Column-II (2) They may be free living or parasitic in plants
(1) Chameleon (i) Garden Lizard and animals
(3) They have blind-sac body plan
(2) Calotes (ii) Wall lizard (4) These animals are gregarious in habit
(3) Hemidactylus (iii) Tree lizard 28. How many statements are correct for second
largest phylum?
(4) Bungarus (iv) Krait (A) Animals of this phylum are terrestrial or
(v) Viper only marine.
(B) The mouth contains a file-like rasping
(1) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-v organ for feeding called radula.
(2) 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iv (C) They are bilaterally symmetrical and
enterocoelomate animals.
(3) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iv
(D) Animals have only open type of blood
(4) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-v vascular system.
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
E
29. Study the given list of animals: 35. Presence of dry and cornified skin with scales
Aurelia, Lepisma, Petromyzon, Hippocampus, and scutes is character of:
Asterias, Sting ray (1) Aves (2) Mammalia
How many true fish are in the given list ?
(3) Reptilia (4) Amphibia
(1) 4 (2) 6
36. Which of the following is an oviparous
(3) 2 (4) 3
30. Which of the following is the most distinctive mammal?
feature of echinodermata? (1) Ornithorhynchus (2) Macropus
(1) Presence of larva (3) Pteropus (4) Macaca
(2) Organ system level of body organization 37. Identify the character of class- Aves:
(3) Presence of water vascular system (1) Skin is dry and generally without glands
(4) All of these
(2) They are able to maintain a constant body
31. Which of the following animal is connecting
temperature
link between non chordates and chordates?
(1) Ascidia (2) Myxine (3) Fertilization is internal
(3) Balanoglossus (4) Branchiostoma (4) All of these
32. Presence of sucking and circular mouth without 38. Read the following characters:
jaws is character of: -They have two pairs of limbs
(1) Osteichthyes (2) Chondrichthyes - Homoiothermous and heart is four-chambered
(3) Cephalochordata (4) Cyclostomata - Fertilization is internal
33. Match the column I with column II: - Different types of teeth are present in jaw
Column-I Column-II Above characters belong to-
(1) Aves (2) Reptilia
A Saw fish i Magur
(3) Mammalia (4) Amphibia
B Fresh water fish ii Limbless amphibian 39. Study the given table and select the correct
C Cuttle fish iii Pristis option:
D Ichthyophis iv Trygon Animal Character Taxa
v Sepia Phylum -
(1) Lancelet Exclusively marine
Cephalochordata
A B C D
Close type of Division -
(1) iv i v ii (2) Hagfish
circulatory system Gnathostomata
(2) i iii iv v
Skin is moist,
(3) iii i v ii (3) Hyla Class - Amphibia
Oviparous
(4) iii iv v i Skin is moist,

(4) Struthio Class - Aves
34. Identify the correct option for sea horse: fertilization is internal
(1) It is a fresh water fish
40. Identify the correct match:
(2) Mouth is located ventrally and skin is
(1) Ophiura – Brittle star – Arthropoda
covered with cycloid scales
(3) It has bony endoskeleton and air bladder (2) Dentalium – Chiton – Mollusca
is present
(3) Limulus – King crab – Echinodermata
(4) Gill slits are separate and without
(4) Ancylostoma – Hookworm – Aschelminthes
operculum
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41. Study the given animal and select the correct A B C

option for this animal: (1) Sycon Euspongia Spongilla
(2) Euspongia Spongilla Sycon
(3) Spongilla Sycon Euspongia
(4) Euspongia Sycon Spongilla
44. Identify the figure A, B and C and choose the
correct option :-
(1) It respires by tracheal system

(2) Presence of three pairs of legs
(3) Bilateral symmetry and triploblastic
(4) All of these
42. Refer the given figures A, B, C and D and
identify the option which shows their correct
name.
A B C
(1) A-Male Ascaris, B-Hirudinaria (leech),
C-Neries
A B (2) A-Female Ascaris, B-Nereis,
C-Hirudinaria (leech)
(3) A-Female Ascaris, B-Hirudinaria (leech),
C-Nereis
(4) A-Male Ascaris, B-Nereis,

C D C-Hirudinaria (leeach)
A B C D
(1) Pleurobrachia Cnidoblast Aurelia Adamsia 45. Identify the animals shows in the given figures
(2) Aurelia Adamsia Cnidoblast Pleurobrachia
(3) Cnidoblast Pleurobrachia Adamsia Aurelia A, B and C from options given below :-
(4) Adamsia Aurelia Pleurobrachia Cnidoblast
43. Examine the figure A, B and C. In which one

of the four options all the items A, B and C are
correctly identified?
A B C
(1) A-Octopus, B-Asterias, C-Ophiura
B (2) A-Asterias, B-Ophiura, C-Octopus
A
(3) A-Echinus, B-Octopus, C-Ophiura
(4) A-Ophiura, B-Echinus, C-Octopus

C
E
46. Refer the figure A, B and C and choose the 47. Which of the following animals body is
correct option which shows animals that covered by calcareous shell and unsegmented
regulate buoyancy with the help of air bladder:- with a distinct head, muscular foot, and visceral
hump ?
(1) (2)
A B C
(3) (4)
(1) A and B (2) A and C
(3) B and C (4) All of the above
BIOLOGY ANSWER KEY

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 3 4 4 1 3 4 3 4 4 4 2 4 4 2
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 2 3 4 3 3 1 3 3 4 2 4 2 1 3 3
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 3 4 3 3 3 1 4 3 3 4 3 2 1 3 1
Que. 46 47
Ans. 1 3
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DIGESTION AND ABSORPTION

1. Match the column-I and column-II and select 5. Given figure shows structure of alimentary canal
the correct option ? of human. Identify the labelled parts (P – S), match,
them with their function and select correct
Column-I Column-II option?
(i) Synthesis of glycogen.
Inadequate (ii) Stores and makes concentrated bile juice.
(i) Vomiting (a)
enzyme secretion (iii) In herbivores, cellulose digestion.
(iv) Mastication of food.
Irregular bowel
(ii) Diarrhoea (b)
movement S
Increase liquidity
(iii) Constipation (c)
of faecal discharge P
Q
(iv) Indigestion (d) A feeling of nausea
Option :- R
(1) i–a ; ii–c ; iii–b ; iv–d Option :-
(2) i–d ; ii–b ; iii–c ; iv–a
P Q R S
(3) i–d ; ii–c ; iii–b ; iv–a
(4) i–a ; ii–b ; iii–c ; iv–d
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
2. Which organ is mainly affected in jaundice ? (2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(1) Gall Bladder (2) Liver
(3) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) Lungs (4) Kidney
(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
3. Read the following four statements (a – d) and
select the option which includes all the correct 6. Given below the diagrammatic representation
ones ? of "T.S. of Gut". Select the correct option in
(a) Scatole gives foul odour to the faeces. which labelled part and their comments are not
(b) No significant digestive activities occur in matched correctly ?
large intestine. Option :-
A
(c) Serosa is made up by tunica adventitia and
mesothelium. C
(d) pH of succus entericus is 1.5 to 3.0. B

D
Option :-
(1) only a & b (2) only b & c
(1) A = serosa :- outer most layer and is made up of
(3) a, b & d (4) a, b & c thin mesothelium with some connective tissues.
4. "Steapsin" is the group of :- (2) B = Submucosa :- It is made up of loose
(1) carbohydrate digesting enzymes in pancreatic connective tissue containing nerves, blood &
juice. lymph vessels.
(3) D = Mucosa :- This layer forms irregular,
(2) Protein digesting enzymes in gastric juice
finger like Folds in stomach.
(3) Fat digesting enzymes in pancreatic enzymes (4) C = Muscularis layer :- It is formed by striated
(4) Fat soluble vitamins muscles and usually arranged into an inner
longitudinal and outer circular layer.
E
7. Enamel is composed principally of :- 10. Select the correct option which gives correct
(1) Ca-phosphate matching of the end products of digestion in human
(2) Ca-sulphate with the site and mechanism of absorption ?
(3) Ca-chloride
End product Site of Mechanism of
(4) Na-phosphate of digestion Absorption Absorption
8. Match the column-I, II and III and select the
1. Galactose Buccal cavity Active absorption
correct option
2. Proline Stomach Passive absorption
Column-I Column-II Column-III
Fatty acids
A. salivary (a) Emulsification 3. + Small intestine Active absorption
(i) Acinar cells
gland of fat Glycerol
B. Brunner's (ii) Submandibular (b) Secretion of 4. Glucose Small intestine Active absorption
gland gland pancreatic juice
(c) Secretion of 11. What is the correct function of enterokinase ?

(iii) Submucosa of
C. Pancreas nonenzymatic (1) It stimulates the secretion of pancreatic juice
duodenum
alkaline juice
containing enzymes
D. Bile (iv) sodium
(d) Wharton's duct (2) It inhibits the mobility of stomach
juice glychocolate
(3) It activates trypsinogen into trypsin
(1) A-ii-c ; D-iv-b ; C-iii-a ; B-i-d
(4) It digests or hydrolyses protein into Amino
(2) C-i-c ; B-ii-b ; A-iv-d ; D-iii-a acids
(3) A-ii-d ; D-iv-a ; C-i-b ; B-iii-c
12. Given below the list of enzymes :-
(4) D-iv-a ; C-i-c ; B-ii-b ; A-iii-d
9. Given below the diagram of large intestine in Disaccharidase, Dipeptidase, Nuclease,
Pepsinogen, Lipase and nucleosidase.
which some parts are labelled by A, B, C and D.
Select the option in which all the parts are Two enzymes are not involved as ingredients
of intestinal juice find out the name of enzymes
correctly labelled ?
and select the correct option ?
D
(1) Nuclease and nucleosidase
(2) Dipeptidase and pepsinogen
C A (3) Nuclease and pepsinogen
B
(4) Lipase and pepsinogen
13. Lysozyme is secreted through :-
(a) Brunner's gland
Option :- A B C D (b) Paneth cells

Ascending Transversal (c) Salivary gland
(1) Tenia coli Haustra
colon colon (d) Gastric gland
Descending Ascending Sigmoid (e) Tear gland
(2) Huastra
colon colon colon
Out of these which are the correct sources of
(3)
Ascending
Haustra
Descending Transversal lysozyme?
colon colon colon
Option :-
Transversal Sigmoid Ascending
(4) Haustra (1) a and b (2) b, c and e
colon colon colon
(3) c and d (4) a, d and e
E
14. Glucose, galactose and amino acids are 18. Which one of the following four secretions is
absorbed through :- correctly matched with its source, target and
(1) Active transportation
nature of action ?
(2) Passive transportation
(3) Facilitate diffusion Secretion Source Target Action
(4) Simple diffusion (1) Enterokinase Duodenum Gall Release of
15. Identify a,b,c,d and e in the given diagram:- bladder bile juice
(2) Gastrin Stomach Oxyntic Production of
a lining cells HCl
(3) Salivary Salivary Mouth Breakdown
b amylase gland of starch into
c
maltose
d
e (4) Rennin Saliva Small Emulsification
intestine of fats
19. Match column I (food type) with column II their
(enzymes) and choose the correct option.
(1) a-Serosa, b-longitudinal, c-circular,
d-submucosa, e-mucosa Column I Column II
(2) a-Serosa, b- circular, c-longitudinal, (Food type) (Enzymes)
d-submucosa, e-mucosa A Starch I Nucleases
(3) a-mucosa, b- longitudinal, c-circular,
d-submucosa, e-serosa B Protein II Lipase
(4) a-mucosa, b- circular, c-longitudinal, C Fats III Amylase
d-submucosa, e-serosa
16. Which one of the following statements is true D Nucleic acid IV Trypsin
regarding digestion and absorption of food in (1) A – III; B – IV; C – II, D – I
humans ?
(2) A – I; B – IV; C – III, D – IV
(1) About 60% of starch is hydrolysed by
salivary amylase in our mouth. (3) A – II; B – III; C – IV, D – V
(2) Oxyntic cells in our stomach secrete the (4) A – IV; B – I; C – II, D – III
proenzyme pepsinogen. 20. The given figure shows a section of small
(3) Glucose and amino acids are absorbed
intestinal mucosa showing villi. What is the
through intestinal mucosa with the help of
function of structure marked as I in the given
carrier ions like Na+.
(4) Chylomicrons are small lipoprotein figure ?
particles that are transported from intestine
into blood capillaries.
17. Which of the following is not the function of (I)

digestive system ?
(1) It allows your body to get the nutrients and
energy it needs from the food you eat.
(2) It breaks down large food molecules into
smaller molecules that can be used by cells.
(3) It converts foods to larger substances that (1) To absorb amino acids
can be absorbed and used by the cells of
(2) To carry blood
the body.
(4) It converts food into soluble and diffusible (3) To absorb fat
products that can be absorbed by the blood. (4) To transport glucose
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21. Which of the following best describes the role 24. Study the statement given below and answer
of the structure marked as Y in the given figure? the question "Even though the contents of
stomach are very acidic, the stomach usually
does not cause damage to itself".
Identify the reasons (i to iv) given below which
Y are responsible for the above statement.
(i) The release of gastric juices is controlled
to avoid too high a concentration.
(ii) The stomach lining is quick to repair itself.
(iii)Mucus forms a thick protective coating for
the stomach.
(iv)Food and water dilute the gastric juices.
(1) Connect the mouth to the stomach in which (1) (i), (ii) and (iii) (2) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
starch continues to be digest. (3) (i) and (iv) only (4) All of the above
(2) Mucus is secreted to protect the oesophagus 25. Intrinsic factor is secreted by
from the stomach enzymes. (1) Parietal cells and essential for absorption
(3) Digestive enzymes are secreted as food of Vit-A.
passes from the oesophagus to the stomach. (2) Chief cells and essential for absorption of
(4) Connects the mouth to the stomach and has Vit-B12
no function in chemical digestion. (3) Oxyntic cells and essential for absorption
22. Which of the following is the correct of Vit-B12
chronological order for flow of food from (4) Peptic cells and essential for absorption of
mouth to anus ? Vit-B12
(1) Oesophagus ® Stomach ® Small intestine 26. Absorption of water, simple sugars and alcohol
® Large intestine take place.
(2) Large intestine ® Oesophagus ® Stomach (1) Mouth (2) Colon
® Small intestine (3) Stomach (4) All of these
(3) Small intestine ® Large intestine ® 27. Inadequate enzymes, over-eating and spicy
Oesophagus ® Stomach food causes.
(4) Stomach ® Small intestine ® Large (1) Diarrhoea (2) Vomiting
intestine ® Oesophagus (3) Constipation (4) Indigestion
23. Following are given parts of small and large 28. Dental formula in human being is represented
intestine. by
(i) Cecum (ii) Colon (1) Arrangement of teeth in each half of the
(iii) Jejunum (iv) Rectum upper and lower jaw in the order I, C, PM,
(v) Duodenum (vi) Ileum M
Choose the arrangement that lists the structures (2) Number of teeth only in complete upper
in the order food passes through them from jaw
the small intestine to the anus. (3) Number of teeth only in complete lower
(1) (i) – (ii) – (iii) – (iv) – (v) – (vi) jaw
(2) (v) – (iii) – (vi) – (i) – (ii) – (iv) (4) Number of teeth in upper half jaw and
(3) (iv) – (v) – (ii) – (iii) – (i) – (vi) complete lower jaw
(4) (iii) – (v) – (vi) – (ii) – (i) – (iv)
E
29. What is correct position of stomach in human 33. The diagram given below shows the human
body? digestive system. Few structure are marked as
I, II, III and IV. Which region of the human
(1) In the lower right portion of abdominal
digestive system produce bile juice?
cavity.
(2) In the upper left portion of thoracic cavity
(3) In the upper right portion of abdominal

cavity
(4) In the upper left portion of abdominal cavity I

30. Choose the correct answer for salivary gland II
III
(1) These glands situated just outside the buccal IV
cavity
(2) Sub-maxillary glands are situated at the

junction of jaw (1) I (2) II (3) III (4) IV
34. Refer the given diagram of digestive system to
(3) These are three pairs in human being
answer the question :-
(4) All of these
31. Select the correct option for hepatic lobule
(1) These are structural and functional unit of

largest endocrine glands
(2) Each lobule is covered by a thin connective x

tissue sheath called Glisson's capsule
(3) Cells of hepatic lobule synthesize bile juice

and insulin hormone
(4) All of these

32. Which of the following is correct in reference Which of the following is associated with the
of pancreas? structure marked as "x"?
(1) It is situated between the limbs of the 'C' (1) It is a small blind sac which hosts some
shaped duodenum symbiotic microorganism.

(2) It is a compound elongated organ and its
(2) The undigested, unabsorbed substances
exocrine part secretes an acidic pancreatic
enter into this structure through ileo-ceacal
juice valve.
(3) Its endocrine portion secretes hormones
(3) It helps in mechanical churning and
insulin and glucagon
chemical digestion of food.
(4) All of these
(4) Both (1) and (3)
E
35. Sphincter of Oddi controls the flow of digestive 36. Which two ducts are responsible for the
juice by guarding which duct? formation of a duct that carry bile from the gall
bladder and conduct it into the first section of
1 4 the small intestine?
2
1 4
3
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
3
(1) 1 and 2 (2) 2 and 3
(3) 3 and 4 (4) 4 and 1
BIOLOGY ANSWER KEY

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 14
Ans. 3 2 4 3 3 4 1 3 1 4 3 3 2 1 1
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 3 3 3 1 3 1 1 2 4 3 3 4 1 4 4
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36
Ans. 2 3 1 3 3 4
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BREATHING AND EXCHANGE OF GASES

1. Read the following statements and select the 5. At the alveolar site where different CO 2
incorrect ? compounds like carbamino compound,
(1) Respiratory rhythm centre present in bicarbonates etc. are dissociated and release the
medulla region. CO2. Find out the suitable factor which responsible
(2) A chemosensitive area is highly sensitive for dissociation for CO2-compounds ?
to CO2 & H+.
(1) PCO2 is high (2) PCO2 is low
(3) Pneumotaxic centre can reduce the duration
of inspiration and there by decrease the (3) Bohr's effect (4) High H+ concentration
respiratory rate. 6. Given below the diagram represents the
(4) The role oxygen in the regulation of respiratory exchange of gases at the alveolar level and
rhythm is quite insignificant. tissue level in which several parts are labelled
2. Read the following statements:- by alphabetes A, B, C & D. Select the correct
(A) It is a chronic disorder option regarding them.
(B) Major cause of it is cigarette smoking.
(C) Alveolar walls are damaged lungs
(D) Respiratory surface is decreased. A B

(E) It is due to inflammation of bronchi &
C D
bronchioles.
How many of the above statements are correct Body cells
about "emphysema" disorder ?
(1) A is the pulmonary vein in which PO 2 &
(1) Two (2) Three (3) Four (4) All
PCO2 are respectively 95 & 45 mmHg.
3. What will happen when pneumotaxic centre
provides weak signal? (2) B is the systemic artery in which PO2 &
(1) Respiratory rate will be increased PCO2 are quite similar with PO2 & PCO2
(2) Respiratory rate will be decreased pulmonary artery respectively.
(3) Respiratory rate will not change (3) C is the systemic vein in which PCO2 & PO2
(4) Respiratory rate will be more increased are 45 mmHg and 40 mmHg respectively
4. Match the following column-I and column-II
and select the correct option? (4) D is the pulmonary artery in which PO2 & PCO2
are 97 mmHg and 40 mmHg. respectively.
Column-I Column-II 7. During the stranceous conditions 100 ml

oxygenated blood transport the .....(A).... ml of O2

(A) Eupnoea. (i) O2 conc. low at tissue level
while .......(B)........ ml O2 delivers to the body
(B) Hypoxia (ii) Decreased respiratory rate tissues.
Fill in the blanks and select the correct option?
(C) Anoxia (iii) Normal respiratory rate
(1) A = 20 ml and B = 5 ml
(D) Bradypnoea (iv) O2 Conc. absent at tissue level
(2) A = 20 ml and B = 15 ml.
(3) A = 100 ml and B = 25 ml.
(1) C-iii, D-ii, A-iv, B-i (2) C-ii, D-iv, A-i, B-iii
(3) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii (4) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i (4) A = 25 ml and B = 4 ml.
E
8. Given below the three oxyhaemoglobin 11. The contraction of ................ muscles lifts up
dissociation curves A, B and C are plotted at the ribs and outward movement of sternum
different conditions of body temperature. causing an increase in the volume of thoracis
chamber at the dorso-ventral axis.
C
® % saturation of Hb
97 A Which muscles are responsible for above

B statement ?
75
with O2
(1) External intercostal muscles.

50
(2) internal intercostal muscles.
(3) Phrenic muscles.
(4) Abdominal muscles.
30 40 95 12. Vocal cords are attached between :-
® PO2 (mmHg)
(1) Thyroid and cricoid cartilages.
On the basis of above 'ODC' which is the curve (2) Thyroid and arytenoid cartilages.
plotted at the condition the body-temperature (3) Cricoid and arytenoid cartiloges.
below to the 37° C ? (4) Cricoid and cartilages of sentorini.
(1) Curve -A 13. Which has least diameter from following ?
(2) Curve-B (1) Respiratory bronchioles
(3) Curve - C (2) Terminal bronchioles
(4) Both curve A & B (3) Alveolar duct
9. Which pulmonary capacity is correctly (4) Secondary bronchi
matched with its formula and value ? 14. Given figure shows respiratory system of
human in which some parts are labelled through
Option Respiratory Formula Value
capacity P, Q, R and S. Select the option in which
labelled part is not correctly matched with its
1. Functional ERV + TV 2300 ml
their function or property ?
residual
capacity R
Q
2. Expiratory TV + ERV 1200 ml.
capacity
3. Vital ERV + 4000 ml S
capacity IRV + TV
4. Total lung RV + IRV 5800 ml. P
capacity + ERV
(1) R = Epiglottis : It is a cartilagenous flap like

10. Respiratory rate increases during :- structure and covers the glottis during
(a) The time of Fever. deglutination.
(b) The time of Fear (2) Q = Tracheal Rings: They prevents the
(c) High CO2 concentration in venous blood. collapsing of trachea.
(d) Low pH of arterial blood. (3) P= Diaphragm :- Muscular septum and main
Out of these, which are correct situation? muscles of breathing mechanism.
(1) Only a & b (2) Only c & d (4) S = Alveoli :- Forms the conduction zone and
(3) a, b & d (4) a, b & c functional unit of lungs.
E
15. What will be the PO2 and PCO2 in the atmospheric 20. Select the correct option for conducting
air compared to those in the alveolar air? system of respiratory system?
(1) PO lesser, PCO higher
2 2 (1) It is noncollapsable part.
(2) PO higher, PCO lesser
2 2
(2) It is the site of actual diffusion of oxygen
(3) PO higher, PCO higher and carbondioxide between blood and
2 2
atmospheric air.
(4) PO lesser, PCO lesser
2 2
(3) it clears the air from foreign particles and
16. Match the column I with column II
humidifies.
Column-I Column-II (4) Both 1 and 3.
A Tracheal tubes I Scorpion 21. Thoracic chamber is formed by :-
B Gills II Frog Dorsally Ventrally Laterally
C Moist skin III Insect (1) Sternum Ribs Ribs
D Book lungs IV Aquatic arthropods (2) Vertebral column Sternum Diaphragm
A B C D (3) Vertebral column Sternum Ribs

(1) III IV II I Vertebral
(4) Sternum Ribs
(2) III I IV II column
(3) IV III II I
(4) IV II I III 22. Inspiration can occur if
17. Which of the following statement is correct? (1) intrapulmonary pressure is higher than
(1) Flatworms exchange Oxygen with the atmospheric pressure.

carbondioxide by simple diffusion over (2) intrapulmonary pressure and atmospheric
their entire body surface. pressure are equal.
(2) Larynx is a bony box which help in sound (3) intrapulmonary pressure is less than
production. atmospheric pressure.
(3) Epiglottis is made up of collagen fibrous (4) muscles of diaphragm relaxes.

connective tissue. 23. Select the correct option for expiration?
(4) in birds larynx is a sound producing organ. (1) expiration is a passive process.
(2) during this process diaphragm and sternum
18. What is the function of pleural fluid?
returns to their normal position.
(1) reduces friction on the lung surface.
(3) intrapulmonary pressure is slightly
(2) protection from external shocks.

higher to the atmospheric pressure.
(3) provide moisture. (4) all of the above.
(4) all of the above. 24. In which of the following respiratory volume is
19. Which of the following part of respiratory correctly match with their value?
system form exchange part? Volume Value (in ml)
(1) external nostrils to terminal bronchioles. (1) IRV 250 - 300
(2) alveoli and their ducts. (2) ERV 1000 - 1100
(3) larynx to primary bronchi. (3) TV 1100 - 1200
(4) primary bronchi to terminal bronchioles. (4) RV 500
E
25. (A) inspiratory capacity. 31. Respiration is the physiological process in

(B) expiratorycapacity. which :-
(C) functional residual capacity. (1) breathing occur.
Choose the correct option for A , B and C ? (2) breathing and external respiration occurs.
(1) A–TV+ERV,B–TV+IRV,C–ERV+RV (3) only inspiration occurs.
(2) A–TV+ERV,B–TV+ERV,C–TV+IRV (4) breathing , external respiration and cellular
(3) A–TV+IRV,B–TV+ERV,C–ERV+RV respiration occurs.
32. The primary role of oxygen in body is to :-
(4) A–TV+ERV,B–TV+IRV,C–ERV+RV
(1) help to build amino acids.
26. Which of the following statement is correct
(2) allow glycolysis within the mitochondria of
about alveoli?
the cell.
(1) alveoli are primary sites for gaseous
(3) accept electrons in the electron transport
exchange.
system.
(2) its walls are one celled thick.
(4) facilitate lipolysis within the adipose cells.
(3) partial pressure of oxygen in alveoli is
33. Neither the trachea nor the bronchi contain :-
104 mm Hg.
(1) hyaline cartilage.
(4) all of the above.
(2) goblet cells.
27. How many amount of oxygen deliver to tissue
by every 100 ml of oxygenated blood ? (3) ciliated columnar epithelium.
(1) 5 ml (2) 25 ml (4) simple squamous epithelium.

(3) less than 1 ml (4) more than 50 ml 34. When 1200 ml , air is left in the lungs , it is
28. Consider the given statements and select correct called :-
statement for transport of oxygen? (1) Tidal volume.
(a) seventy percent of oxygen is carried as (2) Inspiratory reserve volume.
bicarbonates. (3) Vital capacity.
(b) about ninty seven percent of oxygen is (4) Residual volume.
transported by RBCs in blood. 35. Asthama is caused due to :-
(c) it is carried by haemoglobin as carb-amino (1) infection of lungs.
haemoglobin.
(2) bleeding into pleural cavity.
(1) a , b (2) b , c
(3) infection of trachea.
(3) only b (4) only c
(4) spasm of bronchial muscles.
29. Pneumotaxic center is found in :-
36. Oxyhemoglobin dissociates into oxygen and
(1) pons region of brain.

deoxyhemoglobin at tissue level due to :-
(2) medulla region of brain.
(1) low oxygen pressure in tissues.
(3) cerebrum region of brain.
(2) high oxygen pressure in tissues.
(4) optic lobes.
(3) equal oxygen pressure inside and outside tissue.
30. Chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are
(4) all times irrespective of oxygen pressure.
damaged is :-
(1) Asthama. 37. At which thoracic vertebrae does trachea divide
into right and left primary bronchii?
(2) Emphysema.
(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 9 (4) 4
(3) Pneumonia.
(4) Occupational respiratory disorders.
E
38. Which of the following structure is present (1) raise in pCO2

inside the larynx of the respiratory system? (2) fall in pH.
(1) Glottis (2) Epiglottis
(3) raise in temperature.
(3) Vocal cords (4) Gullet
(4) All of the above.
39. If a large number of people are enclosed in a
43. The mucus produced by the goblet cells
room then :-
(a) moistens the incoming air
(1) oxygen decreases and CO2 increases.
(2) oxygen increases and CO2 decreases. (b) trap the fine dust particles
(3) oxygen and CO 2 decreases. (c) filter out large dust particles
(4) oxygen and CO2 increases. (d) warms the incoming air
40. Identify the type of pulmonary volume / capacity (1) a , b , c are correct.
on the basis of quantity of air present in the
(2) only a is correct.
lungs given below.
(3) b and d are correct.
(I) 1100 ml to 1200 ml.
(II) 500 ml. (4) a and c are incorrect.
(III) 5000 ml to 6000 ml. 44. How much amount of carbondioxide is
Choose the correct option ? transported by plasma?
(1) I – Vital capacity , II – Functional residual (1) 75 % to 78%
capacity , III – Residual volume (2) 5% to 7%
(2) I – Residual volume , II – Tidal volume ,
(3) 20% to 25%
III – Total lung capacity
(4) 93%
(3) I – Expiratory capacity , II – Inspiratory
capacity , III – Residual volume 45. The given diagram represents the human
(4) I – Tidal volume , II – Inspiratory reserve respiratory system with few structures labelled
volume , III – Expiratory reserve volume as I, II, III and IV.
41. How many layers are present in the diffusion
membrane of alveolar capillary ?
(1) 5 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 4 I
42. Shifting of the curve to right takes place in the II III

case of IV
The exchange of gases takes place in which

labelled structure?
(1) I (2) II
(3) III (4) IV
E
46. In the given diagram of human respiratory 48. In the given diagram of human respiratory
system what is the function of structure marked system, few parts are marked as I, II, III, IV, V
as X ? & VI. Choose the correct combination of
labelling from the given options?
X
I
III
V II
VI
IV
(1) To prevent food from entering into trachea. (1) I-Nose, II-Bronchus, III-Larynx,
IV-Diaphragm, V-Trachea, VI-Lung
(2) To filter and warm the air.
(2) I-Nose, II-Larynx, III-Bronchus,
(3) To help in exchange of gases. IV-Lung, V-Diaphragm, VI-Trachea
(4) To catch dust and bacteria. (3) I-Mouth, II-Trachea, III-Larynx,
47. In the given diagram of human respiratory IV-Lung, V-Diaphragm, VI-Bronchus
system which marked label (I, II, III & IV) is (4) I-Mouth, II-Diaphragm, III-Trachea,
the common passageway where the nasal and IV-Bronchi, V-Larynx, VI-Lung
oral cavities meet? 49. In the given figure, label A represents _______
while label B represents ________.
I II
III A
B
IV
(1) I (2) II (3) III (4) IV

(1) A-Trachea, B-Bronchus
(2) A-Alveolus, B-Bronchiole
(3) A-Bronchiole, B-Trachea
(4) A-Trachea, B-Bronchiole
BIOLOGY ANSWER KEY

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 3 2 3 2 3 2 3 3 3 1 2 3 4 2
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 1 1 4 2 4 3 3 4 2 3 4 1 3 1 2
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 4 3 4 4 4 1 1 3 1 2 3 4 1 1 4
Que. 46 47 48 49
Ans. 1 2 1 1
E
BODY FLUIDS AND CIRCULATION

1. Which is required for the conversion of inactive 6. "Lacteals" are the lymph capillaries which are
prothrombin into active thrombin during found in :-
(1) Large intestine (2) Small intestine
coagulation of blood ?
(3) Neck region (4) Right leg
(1) Fibrinogen
(2) Thromboplastin 7. In given below figure, identify A, B, C and D:-
(3) Thrombokinase (B)
Kidney (C)
(4) Antihaemophilic globulin
IVC
2. "Erythroblastosis foetalis" is a disorder in which:-
O2 Blood De O2 Blood
(1) Foetus undergoes blood cancer
(A)
(2) Foetus would be die due to excessive loss of blood De O2 Blood
(3) Foetus would be suffered by severe anaemia
and jaundice (D)
(4) Adult would be suffered by severe anaemia and
jaundice Option A B C D
3. In RBCs, cytoskeleton is found as the form of
(1) Renal Hepatic Renal Abdominal
"stromatin". It is made up of :- portal artery vein parts &
(1) Fat, carbohydrate & mucopolysaccharides vein hind limbs
(2) Fat, starch & carbohydrate (2) Renal Renal Renal Alimentary
portal artery vein canal
(3) Fat, protein & cholesterol vein
(4) Protein, starch and glycerol (3) Renal Renal Renal Abdominal
4. (a) It is colourless fluid containing specialized portal artery vein parts &
lymphocytes. vein hind limbs
(b) It is important carrier for nutrients, hormones (4) Renal Renal Renal Gut wall
etc. artery vein portal
vein
(c) It has clotting capacity.
(d) It has not RBC, WBC and platelets. 8. Select the correct pathway of pulmonary
(e) Exchange of nutrients, gases etc. between the
circulation ?
blood and the cells always occurs through this Pulmonary vein
(1) Rt. ventricle Lungs
fluid. CO 2 Blood
Pulmonary artery
(f) It has more No. of WBC than blood. O2 Blood Left atrium.
Pulmonary artery
How many statements are correct for lymph ? (2) Rt. ventricle Lungs
CO 2 Blood
(1) Two (2) Three Pulmonary vein
O2 Blood Left atrium.
(3) Four (4) Five
Aorta
5. Lymphatic system of human and frog are (3) Lt. ventricle Body tissues
O2 Blood
respectively :- Vena cava
CO2 Blood Rt. Ventricle.
(1) Open type and close type
(2) Closed type and open type (4) Lt. atrium ® Lt. Ventricle O2 Blood Body tissues
(3) Open type and open type CO2 Blood
Rt. atrium ® Rt. ventricle.
(4) Close type and close type
E
9. A special system of blood vessels is present in Option :-
our body exclusively for the circulation of blood
(1) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
to and from the cardiac musculature. Such type
of blood circulation is known as :- (2) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii)
(1) Pulmonary circulation (3) A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iii)
(2) Systemic circulation
(4) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(i), D-(ii)
(3) Coronary circulation
(4) Double circulation 14. High blood pressure affects our vital organs like:-
10. Which is the condition of valves occured (a) Heart (b) Kidney
during isovolumetric contraction of ventricle in
(c) Spleen (d) Brain
cardiac cycle ?
(1) Closure of semilunar valves and opening of (e) Liver
AV valves occur. Which are mainly affected ?
(2) Closure of AV valves and semilunar valves
(1) a, b & d (2) a, b & c
are still close.
(3) Opening of semilunar valves and opening (3) c, d & e (4) b, c & d
of AV valves. 15. An artificial pacemaker is implanted under
(4) Opening of semilunar valves and closing subcutaneous tissue and connected to the heart
of AV valves.
in patients of :-
11. Match the followings and select the correct option?
A. Papillary muscles a. Atrial wall (1) Having 90% blockage in the two main
B. Comb muscles b. Ventricular wall coronary arteries
C. Semilunar valve c. Endocardium
(2) Having a very high blood pressure
D. Endothelium d. Tricuspid valve
Option :- (3) With irregularity in the heart rhythm
(1) A-a, B-b, C-d, D-c (2) D-b, C-d, B-a, A-c (4) Suffering from arteriosclerosis
(3) A-b, B-a, C-d, D-c (4) A-b, B-a, C-c, D-d
16. Tick mark the correct statements ?
12. What happens when right chordae tendinae are
cut down ? (1) Weak condition of heart leads to bradycardia
(1) Deoxygenated blood starts the back flow in (2) Vagal secretion leads to tachycardia
heart.
(3) Strong condition of heart leads to bradycardia
(2) The rate of pumping of deoxygenated blood
into pulmonary arches become slower. (4) Excessive lose of blood leads to decrease
(3) The rate of pumping of oxygenated blood heart beat
into aortic arches become slower 17. Neural signal through parasympathatic nervous
(4) Oxygenated blood stats the back flow in
system can :-
heart
(a) Increase the heart beat rate.
13. Match the column-I and column-II and choose
(b) Decrease the heart beat rate.

the correct option ?
(c) Increase the strength of ventricular
Column-I Column-II
contraction.
A. Cardiac arrest (i) Heart is not (d) Decrease the speed of conduction of action
pumping blood
potential.
effectively
(e) Increase cardiac output.
B. Heart failure (ii) Heart muscles are
suddenly damaged (f) Decrease cardiac output.
C. Heart attack (iii) Acut chest pain Option :-
(1) b, c & e (2) a, d & f
D. Angina pectoris (iv) Heart stop beating
(3) b, d & f (4) a, c & e
E
18. Which is the hormone decreased heart beat rate 23. Open type of circulatory system is found in
thereby decreased the cardiac output ? (1) Toad (2) Prawn
(3) Lizard (4) Pigeon
(1) Thyroxin (2) Sympathin
24. Blood will lose maximum Oxygen when pass
(3) Acetylcholin (4) Adrenellin through
19. Given below the list of animals they have open (1) alveolar capillaries (2) left atrium
typed of circulatory system :- (3) arteries (4) tissue capillaries
(A) Ascidia (B) Cockroach 25. As compared to artery , a vein has
(C) Earthworm (D) Prawn (1) thinner walls (2) larger lumen
(3) less musculature (4) all of the above
(E) Silver fish (F) Snail
26. Normally , the greater portion of circulating
(G) Squid
blood is present in the
Which is the correct option with respect to (1) heart (2) Large arteries
animal having open circulatory system ? (3) Capillaries (4) Large veins
Option :- 27. The given figure represents the pathway of
(1) B, C, D & F (2) A, B, D & F blood throughout the body
(3) C, D, E & G (4) B, D, E & G

20. The component of cardiac tissue having the
highest propagation velocity is :-
(1) Purkinje fibres (2) AV node
(3) Bundle of His (4) AV bundle
21. ECG depicts the depolarization and
Identify the correct of marked a , b , c and d
repolarization processes during the cardiac (1) a – artery
cycle. In the ECG of a normal healthy (2) b – pulmonary vein
individual one of following waves is not (3) c – pulmonary artery
represented. (4) d – systemic vein
(1) Depolarization of atria 28. If due to some injury chordae tendenae of the
bicuspid valve of the human heart is partially
(2) Repolarization of atria
nonfunctional , what will be the immediate
(3) Depolarization of ventricles
effect?
(4) Repolarization of ventricles (a) the flow of blood into the pulmonary artery
22. Match column I with column II: will be reduced
Column-I Column-II
(b) the flow of blood into the aorta will be
slowed down
(a) Eosinophils (i) Coagulation
(c) the pacemaker will stop working
(b) RBC (ii) Universal Recipient (d) the blood will tend to flow back into the
(c) AB Group (iii) Resist Infections left atrium
(1) a and b (2) b and c
(d) Platelets (iv) Contraction of Heart (3) b and d (4) c and d
(e) Systole (v) Gas transport 29. Which of the following events takes place in
a b c d e cardiac cycle after the end of first heart sound
and before the onset of second heart sound?
(1) iii v ii i iv
(1) atrial systole and ventricular systole
(2) iii v i ii iv
(2) atrial systole and ventricular diastole
(3) iii v ii iv i (3) atrial diastole and ventricular systole
(4) iii ii iv v i (4) joint diastole
E
30. In order for the blood to flow from right (c) arteries are thin walled and have narrow
ventricle to left ventricle in mammalian heart, lumen as compared to veins
it must flow through (d) the stage of cardiac cycle where all the four
(I) RIGHT VENTRICLE chambers are in relaxed stage is called joint
(II) PULMONARY VEINS Diastole
(III) LEFT ATRIUM How many of the above statements are
(IV) LUNGS correct?
(V) PULMONARY ARTERIES (1) one (2) two (3) three (4) four
(1) I–V–IV–II–III (2) I–II–III–IV–V 34. Which of the following statements are
(3) III–V–I–II–IV (4) III–II–I–IV–V incorrect?
31. Which of the following statements are (1) among all the four chambers of heart left
incorrect? ventricle has the thickest walls
(1) among all the four chambers of heart left (2) contraction of the ventricle in the heart
ventricle has the thickest walls begins by the command from SA node
(2) contraction of the ventricle in the heart (3) QRS complex in ECG is related with
begins by the command from SA node ventricular contraction and atrial relaxation
(3) QRS complex in ECG is related with (4) hardening of the arteries due to deposition
ventricular contraction and atrial relaxation of cholesterol is called arteriosclerosis
(4) human heart is myogenic 35. Blood clotting is initiated by
32. Match the following columns and choose the (1) Ca ions and thromboplastin
correct answer from the options given below (2) Prothrombin and thromboplastin
(3) Ca ions and fibrinogen
Column-I Column-II
(4) fibrinogen and thromboplastin
Most abundant white blood cells 36. Total number of valves in human heart are
(A) Erythrocytes (i) and the main phagocytic cell of (1) four (2) six
the blood
(3) seven (4) eleven
(B) Eosinophils (ii) Least abundant white blood cells 37. Significance of heart valves is
Resist infections and are (1) to allow the flow of blood in one direction,
(C) Monocyte (iii)
associated with allergic reactions i.e. from ventricles to atria and from the
Blood cells that count ventricles to the pulmonary artery or aorta
(D) Neutrophils (iv)
haemoglobin and transport oxygen
(2) to allow the flow of blood in one direction,
Specialized antibody producing i.e. from atria to ventricles and from the
(E) Basophils (v)
white blood cells
ventricles to the pulmonary artery or aorta
A B C D E (3) to allow the flow of blood in one direction,
(1) iv iii v i ii i.e. from atria to ventricles and from the

(2) i ii iii iv v pulmonary artery or aorta to the ventricles
(3) ii iii i v iv (4) to allow the flow of blood in one direction,
(4) iv i ii iii v
i.e. from ventricles to atria and from the
33. Given below are four statements regarding
pulmonary artery or aorta to the ventricles
human blood vascular system
38. Systemic heart comprises
(a) there is no role of Calicum ions in
(1) Left atrium and left ventricle
blood clotting
(b) cardiac output is the amount of blood (2) Left atrium and right atrium
pumped by each ventricle in one second (3) Right atrium and left ventricle
(4) Left atrium and right ventricle
E
39. For safe blood transfusions Which labelled structure receives carbon
(1) Donors RBC should not contain antibodies dioxide rich blood from the body ?
against recipient serum (1) I (2) II
(2) Recepient serum should not contain antigens (3) III (4) IV
against donors antibodies 44. Refer the given figure of human heart and
(3) Recepient serum should not contain identify the chamber (marked as 1, 2, 3 & 4)
antibodis against donors RBCs which receives most of the blood returning
(4)Recepient RBCs should not contain from the brain.
antibodies against donors antigens
40. Ruptured RBCs cannot be trapped at one of
the following sites
(1) Blood (2) Liver 4
(3) Bone marrow (4) Spleen 1
41. When the heart muscle is suddenly damaged 3 2
by an inadequate blood supply . This condition
is called
(1) Angina pectoris (2) Heart failure (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) Heart attack (4) Heart arrest (3) 3 (4) 4
42. First heart sound is associated with the closure 45. The given figure represents diagrammatic
of _____valves whereas second heart sound presentation of an ECG. Each peak in the ECG
is associated with the closure of is identified with a letter from P to T that
_______valves. corresponds to a specific electrical activity of
(1) semilunar , atrioventricular the heart.
(2) atrioventricular , semilunar R
(3) bicuspid , tricuspid
(4) tricuspid , bicuspid P T
Q S
43. The given diagram represents human heart with
four chambers labelled as I, II, III & IV ? Which of the following letter shows the
incorrec activity of heart ?
(1) QRS - Depolarization of the ventricles
(2) R wave - Marks the beginning of the systole
(3) P - Electrical excitation (or depolarization)
I
III of the atria
II
(4) T wave - Return of the ventricles from
IV excited to normal state (repolarization)
BIOLOGY ANSWER KEY

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 3 3 3 4 2 3 2 3 2 3 1 2 1 3
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 3 3 3 2 1 2 1 2 4 4 4 3 3 3 1
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 3 1 1 3 1 1 2 1 3 1 3 2 3 4 2
E
EXCRETORY PRODUCTS AND THEIR ELIMINATION

1. Tick mark the correct option ? 4. Which one is the primary function of sweat
glands in human?
(1) Aquatic amphibians ® Ammonotelic.
(1) To facilitate a cooling effect on the body
(2) Terrestrial amphibians ® Uricotelic surface.
(2) To help in removal of some of the wastes like
(3) Marine fishes ® Ammonotelic
NaCl, urea, Lactic acid etc.
(4) Land snail ® Ureotelic. (3) It helps in osmoregulation.
2. Read the following four statements (A-D) and (4) It maintains the NaCl in our body fluid.
select the correct option ones ? 5. Dialysing unit (Artificial kidney) contains a
fluid which is almost same as plasma except that
(A) The medulla is divided into a few conical
it has -
masses projecting into the calyces.
(1) High nutrients
(B) The cortex extends in between the medullary (2) High nitrogenous wastes.
pyramids as canal columns called columns of (3) No nitrogenous wastes
bertini.
(4) High NaCl & urea
(C) Kidneys are blackish brown, bean shaped 6. Match the abnormal conditions given in
structures situated between the levels of last column-A, with their explanations given in
thoracic and third lumbar vertebra close to the column-B and select the correct option ?
ventral inner wall of the abdominal cavity. Column-A Column-B
(D) Each kidney of an adult human measures (A) Uremia (i) Accumulation
10-12 cm in length, 5-7 cm in width, of urea in urine
2-3 cm in thickness with an average weight (B) Renal calculi (ii) Accumulation of
of 120-170 gm. uric acid in joints.
(C) Glomerulone- (iii) Mass of crystallised
(1) Statements A, B & C
phritis salt within kidney
(2) Statements B, C & D (D) Gout (iv) Inflammation in
glomeruli.
(3) Statement A, B & D
(v) Accumulation of
(4) Statement B and C urea in blood.
3. Which are the excretory products of liver from (1) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i (2) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
following ? (3) A-v, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii (4) A-v, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
(a) Urea (b) Cholesterol. 7. We have to observe that glucose and ketone
bodies pass through urine in a person. Such
(c) Bilirubin (d) Biliverdin condition indicates the sign of :-
(e) Bilesalts (1) Diabetes insipidus
(2) Glomerulonephritic
(f) Degraded steroid hormones.
(3) Diabetes mellitus
(1) a, b, c, d & e (2) b, c, d & f (4) Renal failure.
(3) Only 'c' and 'd' (4) All
E
8. Read the following statements (a-e) and select 12. Given below the diagrammatic representation of
the correct option which includes all the correct a nephron and vasa recta showing counter-
ones? current mechanism in which some substances
(a) Micturition is a reflex process are labelled by alphabates A, B and C. These
(b) pH of human urine is approximately 6.0. substances are exchanged between 'Loop of
(c) 25-30 mg of urea is excreted out per day Henle' and vasa-recta. Select the correct option
along with urine. in which labelled alphabetes are correctly given?
(d) An adult human excretes 1 to 1.5 litres of
urine per day. DL of Al of VR Al of VR Collecting
(e) During the micturition reflex contract motor LOH Al of duct
LOH A
signal provides to urethral sphincter and
B A
simultaneously relaxation signal provides
A
to smooth muscles of wall of urinary B A
A
bladder. A
B A
(1) Statements a, b and c
(2) statements b, c and e C
(3) statements a, b and d
(4) statements c, d and e
(1) A = NaCl (2) A = Water
9. The functioning of the kidneys is efficiently
B = Urea B = Urea
monitered and regulated by :-
(1) Neural feedback mechanism C = Water C = NaCl
(2) Hormonal feedback mechanism (3) A = NaCl (4) A = Urea
(3) Renal feedback mechanism B = Water B = Water
(4) Both 1 & 2 C = Urea D = NaCl
10. Which of the following statements is correct ? 13. Read the following points with respect to distal
(1) ADH : Prevents conversion of convoluted tubule of nephron :-
angiotensinogen in blood to angiotensin. (a) Its wall is made up by simple cuboidal
(2) Aldosterone :- Facilitates water reabsorption. epithelium.
(3) ANF :- Enhance Na+ reabsorption. (b) Conditional reabsorption of H2O & NaCl takes
place in it.
(4) Renin :- Causes vasodilation.
(c) It is also capable of reabsorption of HCO3– ions.
11. Which one is incorrect about mechanism of
conentration of the filtrate ? (d) It helps in Na+–K+ balance in blood.
(1) NaCl is transported by the ascending limb (e) It also helps in maintainance of pH of body
fluid.
of 'Loop of Henle' which is the exchanged
with the descending limb of vasa-recta. How many points are correct ?
(2) Osmolisity of medullary interstitium (1) Two (2) Three (3) One (4) All
gradually increases towards inner medulla 14. Substances like amino acid and glucose in the
i.e. 300 to 1200 Mosmol L–1 . filtrate are reabsorbed .....(A)..... in the tubular
(3) The proximity between the 'Loop of Henle' epithelial cells whereas the nitrogenous wastes
product are reabsorbed by .....(B)...... What are the
and vasa recta as well as counter current in
A & B and select the correct option ?
then help in maintaining the osmolarity of
medullary interstitium. (1) A = Actively; B = passively
(4) Small amount of urea enter in the thick (2) A = Passively; B = Actively
segment of ascending limb of 'Loop of (3) A = Actively; B = Actively
Henle' which is transported back by (4) A = Passively; B = Passively
collecting duct.
E
15. Fill in the blanks :- a b c d

(a) The glomerular capillary blood pressure (1) true true true false
cause filteration of blood through 3 layers
i.e. the ......(a)...... of glomerular blood (2) false true false false
vessel, the ......(b)...... of bowman's capsule (3) True false false true
and .....(c).... between these two layers. (4) false true true false
(b) On an average .....(d)..... of blood is filtered
18. Which type of tissue is found in PCT and DCT?
by the kidney per minute which constitute
roughly.........(e)..... of the blood pumped-out (1) simple cuboidal brush border and simple
by each ventricle of the heart in a minute. squamous
a b c d e (2) simple cuboidal brush border and simple
1. Endothelium Epithelium Basement 600-800 ml 1/8th cuboidal ciliated
membrane
(3) simple cuboidal brush border and simple
2. Epithelium Endothelium Basement 1100-1200 ml 1/5th
membrane cuboidal
3. Endothelium Epithelium Basement 1100-1200ml 1/5th (4) simple cuboidal brush border and simple
membrane
squamous
4. Endothelium Epithelium Basement 1500 ml 1/4th
membrane 19. Read the given terms and select the correct
16. Match the items of column I with those of option with their appropriate explaination
column II : (a) uremia
(b) ANF
Column-I Column-II
(c) micturition
(a) Ammonotelism (i) Birds
(d) glycosuria
(b) Bowman's (ii) Water reabsorption (1) (a) accumulation of urea in blood
capsule
(b) process of release of urine and it is a
(c) Micturition (iii) Bony fish
involuntary process
(d) Uricotelism (iv) Urinary bladder (2) (b) release from atria of heart
(e) ADH (v) Renal tubule (c) process by which urine is concentrated
a b c d e (3) (d) presence of glucose in urine
(1) iii v i iv ii (b) can cause dilation of blood vessels
(2) iii v iv i ii (4) (a) accumulation of uric acid in blood
(3) i v iv iii ii (d) presence of glucose in urine
(4) iii v iv ii i 20. JGA plays a complex regulatory role
17. Consider the given statements and choose the when

correct option (1) there is fall in glomerular blood pressure
(a) many bony fishes , tadpole larva of frog and (2) ADH secretion is maximum
terrestrial insects areammonotelic in nature
(3) glucose level is high in blood
(b) in frog kidneys are mesonephric
(4) vitamin C absorption is minimum
(c) GFR falls –activation of JG cells –
21. JG cells of Juxta glomerular apparatus release
release rennin—GFR normal
to
(d) NaCl is transported by the ascending
limb of Henles loop which is exchanged (1) ANF (2) Rennin
with the ascending portion of vasa recta (3) ADH (4) Renin
E
22. Match the columns 26. How many statements are correct ?
(a) vasa recta is absent or highly reduced in
Column-I Column-II
cortical nephrons
A Sweat glands I Sterols , hydrocarbons
(b) ammonia is less toxic as compared to urea
B Sebaceous glands II Carbondioxide and requires large amount of water for its
C Liver III Cholesterol , bilirubin elimination
(c) GFR in a healthy individual is approximately
D Lungs IV NaCl , small amount of urea
125 ml / minute
A B C D (d) PCT also help to maintain the pH and ionic
(1) I III IV II balance of the body fluid
(2) III I IV II (1) one (2) two (3) three (4) four
(3) IV I III II 27. What will happen when excessive loss of fluid
from the body then ?
(4) IV III II I
(1) activates receptors which stimulates the
23. Identify the correct combination
hypothalamus to release ADH from the
(1) Green glands – crustacean – uricotelic neuro hypophysis
(2) Malpighian tubule – insect – uricotelic (2) osmoreceptors switch off and secretion of
(3) Nephridia – annelida – uricotelic vasopressin reduces
(3) release of aldosterone from adrenal medulla
(4) Flame cells – Aschelminthes - ammonotelic
(4) angiotensinogen is converted into
24. Which of the following is incorrect option?
angiotensin-I
(1) inflammation of glomeruli of kidney is 28. Study the given chart and choose the correct
called glomerulonephritis option with appropriate alphabets
(2) the epithelial cells of Bowmans capsule are
called podocytes
(3) PCT and DCT of nephron are situated
in the cortical region of kidney
(4) the ascending limb of loop of henle is
permeable to water but allows transport
electrolytes only actively
25. Select the correct option with the reference of
A B C
hemodialysis
(1) when glucose concentration is high in blood (1) PNS urethral relaxation
than glucose molecules are removed by Sphincter
hemodialysis (2) CNS urethral relaxation
(2) anticoagulant like heparin used during Sphincter

hemodialysis (3) CNS urethral contraction
Sphincter
(3) it is also used for removal of ketone bodies
(4) PNS urethral contraction
during diabetes mellitus
Sphincter
(4) all of the above
E
29. Kidneys do not help in 37. Glomerular filtration is possible if

(1) osmoregulation (1) afferent arteriole has more diameter than
the efferent arteriole
(2) maintaninig body temperature
(2) afferent arteriole has less diameter than the
(3) maintaining composition of body plasma
efferent arteriole
(4) regulation of body pH
(3) both have the same diameter
30. Renal cortex contain cup like structure called (4) afferent capillaries have more diameter than
(1) loop of henle (2) renal capsule efferent capillaries
(3) Bowmans capsule (4) glomerulus capsule 38. A patient who excretes large quantity of sodium
31. On the concave side of the each kidney there is in urine has diseased
a depression called (A) where (B) enters (1) adrenal medulla
(2) adrenal cortex
(1) hilus , renal vein (2) hilus , renal artery
(3) thymus
(3) hilus , ureter (4) hilus , urinary bladder (4) parathyroid
32. If the kidney fails to function 39. Bowmans capsule is lined by
(1) other organs can carry all the functions of (1) ciliated cuboidal epithelium
excretion for some times (2) simple squamous epithelium
(2) renal failure becomes a life threatening (3) nonciliated cuboidal epithelium
event (4) nonciliated columnar epithelium
40. A person passes excessive urine and drinks a
(3) they rapidly degenerate their nephrons
lot of water but his glucose level is normal. It is
(4) cells store their own metabolic wastes until
due to
the kidney functions again
(1) increased secretion of glucagon
33. Which of the following blood vessel contain
(2) fall in glucose released in urine
maximum amount of urea?
(3) reduction in insulin secretion
(1) dorsal aorta (2) hepatic vein (4) reduction in vasopressin secretion by
(3) renal artery (4) hepatic artery posterior pituitary
34. Glucose and 75% water is absorbed in 41. The yellow color of urine is due to
(1) proximal convoluted tubule (1) uric acid (2) urea
(2) distal convoluted tubule (3) urochrome (4) melanin
42. The main function of loop of henle is the
(3) collecting duct
reabsorption of water from the contents of renal
(4) loop of henle
tubules . In which of the following will the loop
35. The synthesis of urea in liver takes place by

of Henle be poorly developed or even absent?
(1) ornithine cycle (2) Krebs cycle (1) deseret mouse (2) carnivorous bird
(3) Glycolysis (4) Coris cycle (3) fresh water fish (4) garden lizard
36. Which of the following part of nephron is least 43. If kidneys fail to absorb water , the effect on
permeable to water? tissue would
(1) Proximal convoluted tubule (1) remains unaffected
(2) Descending limb of loop of henle (2) shrink and shrivel
(3) ascending limb of loop of henle (3) absorb water from blood plasma
(4) collecting duct (4) take more oxygen from blood
E
44. Identify A , B , C and D Directions for (Q. 47-49) : Refer the given
diagrammatic representation of a nephron of
human excretory system and answer the
following questions.
Afferent Efferent
arteriole arteriole
A
B E
F
C
X Y
47. The label X represents __________ that

A B C D function in ___________.
(1) water NaCl NaCl Urea (1) Vasa recta- Reabsorption of water, minerals
(2) NaCl Water NaCl Urea and digestive end products.
(3) water water NaCl urea (2) Henle's loop - Filtration of plasma leaving
(4) urea water water NaCl the blood.
45. Inflammation of glomeruli in kidney is called (3) Vasa recta - Filtration of plasma leaving the
(1) glomerulonephritis (2) renal calculi blood
(3) diabetes insipidus (4) diabetes mellitus (4) Henle's loop - Reabsorption of water,
46. The given figure shows the longitudinal section minerals and digestive end products.
of kidney with few structures labelled as I, II, 48. Which blood component would not usually
III & IV identify renal vein in the given figure. pass through the membranes from region A to
region B ?
IV
(1) Mineral salts (2) Red blood cells
(3) Urea (4) Water
I
II 49. After the blood enters the kideney, it travels to
III the __________.
(1) A (2) B
(3) C (4) D
(1) I (2) II (3) III (4) IV
BIOLOGY ANSWER KEY

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 1 3 2 1 3 3 3 3 4 2 4 3 4 1 3
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 2 2 3 3 1 4 3 2 4 2 3 1 2 2 3
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 2 2 2 1 1 3 1 2 2 4 3 3 2 1 1
Que. 46 47 48 49
Ans. 2 1 2 1
E
MOVEMENT AND LOCOMOTION

1. The number of bones in the lower jaw of human 5. The pectoral and pelvic girdles and the bones
is : of limb form :-
(1) 1 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 8 (1) Axial skeleton
(2) Appendicular skeleton
2. Out of 'X' pairs of ribs in humans only 'Y' pairs
(3) Visceral skeleton
are true ribs. Select the option that correctly
(4) Outer skeleton
represents values of X and Y and provides their
6. In children the bones are more flexible and
explanation.
brittle because their bones have :-
True ribs are attached dorsally to (1) Large quantity of salts and little organic
(1) X=12,Y=7 vertebral column and ventrally to substance
the sternum
(2) Large quantity of organic substances and little
True ribs are attached dorsally to salts
(2) X=12,Y=5 vertebral column and sternum on
the two ends (3) Well developed Haversian system
(4) Large number of osteoblasts
True rubs are dorsally attached to
(3) X=24,Y=7 vertebral column but are free on 7. In mammals each half of pectoral girdle consists
ventral side of:-
True ribs are dorsally attached to (1) Supra scapula (2) Scapula
(4) X=24,Y=12 vertebral column but are free on (3) Coracoid (4) All the above
ventral side
8. When the head of humerus fits into glenoid
3. Symphysis contains :- cavity, joint is :-
(1) Hyaline cartilage (2) Fibrous cartilage (1) Ball and socket joint(2) Hinge joint
(3) Pivot joint (4) Saddle joint
(3) Calcified cartilage (4) Elastic cartilage
9. Which of the following pairs, is correctly
4. Choose the correct option regarding a normal
matched?
human :-
(1) Hinge joint – Between vertebrae
A. The skull is dicondylic (2) Gliding joint – Between zygapophyses of the
B. Metacarpals are five in numbers successive vertebrae
C. Patella is a cup-shaped bone covering the knee (3) Cartilaginous joint – Skull bones
dorsally (4) Fibrous joint – Between phalanges
10. See the figure of actin (thin) filaments. Identify

D. Scapula is a large triangular flat bone,
A, B and C
situated on the ventral side of the thorax
E. The pelvic girdle has two coxal bones
(1) A and E are wrong
(1) A – Troponin, B – Tropomyosin, C– F-actin
(2) A and B are wrong
(2) A – Troponin, B – Tropomyosin, C– F-Myosin
(3) B and E are wrong (3) A – Troponin, B – Myosin, C– F-Tropomyosin
(4) C and D are wrong (4) A – Tropomyosin, B – Troponin, C– F-actin
E
11. The dark bands (Black bands) of a skeletal 16. Which one of the following statements is true?
muscle are known as :-
(1) Head of humerus bone articulates with
(1) Anisotropic or A-band
(2) Isotropic or I-band acetabulum of pectoral girdle
(3) Z-band (2) Head of humerus bone articulates with
(4) Both in A and I-band glenoid cavity of pectoral girdle
12. Match the following and mark the correct
(3) Head of humerus bone articulates with a
option:-
Column-I Column-II cavity called acetabulum of pelvic girdle
A. Sternum i. Synovial fluid (4) Head of humerus bone articulates with
B. Glenoid Cavity ii. Vertebrae
glenoid cavity of pelvic girdle
C. Freely movable joint iii. Pectoral girdle
17. A sarcomere is best described as a :-
D. Cartilagenous joint iv. Flat bones
(1) movable structural unit within a myofibril
Option :-
bounded by H zones.
(1) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
(2) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii (2) fixed structural unit within a myofibril
(3) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii bounded By Z lines.
(4) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii (3) fixed structural unit within a myofibril
13. Macrophages and leucocytes exhibit :- bounded by A bands.
(1) Ciliary movement (4) movable structural unit within a myofibril
(2) Flagellar movement bounded by Z lines.
(3) Amoeboid movement 18. An example of gliding joint is :-
(4) Gliding movement (1) humerus and glenoid cavity
14. Which one of the following is not a disorder of (2) femur and tibio-fibula
bone ? (3) occipital condyle and odontoid process
(1) Arthritis (4) zygapophyses of adjacent vertebrae
(2) Osteoporosis
19. Function of long bones in adult mammals is to
(3) Rickets
provide :-
(4) Atherosclerosis
(1) support only
15. Which one of the following statement is
(2) support and produce RBCs only
incorrect?
(3) support and produce WBCs only
(1) Heart muscles are striated and involuntary.
(4) support and produce RBCs and WBCs
(2) The muscles of hands and legs are striated

and voluntary. 20. In humans, coccyx is formed by the fusion of:-
(3) The muscles located in the inner walls of (1) 3 vertebra (2) 4 vertebra
alimentary canal are striated and involunatry. (3) 5 vertebra (4) vertebra
(4) Muscles located in the reproductive tracts 21. Which of the following vertebrae are fused ?
are unstriated and involuntary. (1) Cervical (2) Sacral
(3) Lumbar (4) Thoracic
E
22. Hyoid bone is located :- 28. Which one of the following is the correct
description of certain part of a normal human
(1) at the top of the buccal cavity
skeleton ?
(2) at the floor of the buccal cavity (1) Parietal bone and the temporal bone of the
(3) in front of the skull skull are joined by fibrous joint.
(4) behind the skull (2) First vertebra is axis which articulates with
the occipital condyles.
23. Part of the body having a single pair of bones
(3) The 9th and 10th pairs of ribs are called the
is called :-
floating ribs.
(1) pelvic girdle (2) external ear (4) Glenoid cavity is a depression to which the
(3) wrist (4) lower jaw thigh bone articulates.
24. Which of the following is a single U shaped 29. The given diagram of human skeleton system
shows types of ball and socket joint. Joints which
bone, present at the base of the buccal cavity
are marked as I, II, III, IV and V identify the
and it is also included in the skull ?
(1) Hyoid (2) Malleus I
(3) Sacrum (4) Scapula

II
25. Which of the following statement is incorrect ?
(1) All movements lead to locomotion III
(2) Ciliary movement help in passage of ova
IV
through female reproductive tract
(3) Microfilaments are involved in amoeboid
movement V
(4) In Paramecium, the cilia help in movement
of food through cytopharynx and in
locomotion as well
26. Which of the following is not the feature of red (1) I and II (2) II and IV
muscle fibres ? (3) III and IV (4) IV and V
(1) They have plenty of mitochondria 30.
(2) They have high content of myoglobin
(3) They have high amount of sarcoplasmic
reticulum
(4) They are called aerobic muscles
27. Read the following statements (A to D) and IV
select the one option that contains both correct I
statements.
A. Z-line is present in the centre of the light II

III
band.
B. Thin filaments are firmly attached to the
M-line.
C. The central part of thick filaments, not
overlapped by thin filaments is called Z-
band. I II III IV
D. Light band contains only thin filaments. (1) Clavicle Ulna Radius Humerus
(1) A and D (2) B and C (2) Humerus Radius Ulna Scapula
(3) A and C (4) B and D (3) Scapula Radius Ulna Clavicle
(4) Humerus Ulna Radius Scapula
E
31. Which two bones in the given figure form a

I II III IV
hinge joint ? (1) Tibia Fibula Radius Ulna
(2) Radius Ulna Fibula Tibia
(3) Ulna Radius Tibia Fibula
(4) Fibula Tibia Radius Ulna
34. The given figure represents the cross bridge
IV
I cycle in skeletal muscle. What does the step B
in the figure represents ?
II
III
Myosin head ADP
(high-energy P1
configuration)
A
Thin filament
(1) I and II (2) I and III
(3) I and IV (4) II and III ATP ADP Thick filament ADP
hydrolysis
32. The label X in the given figure of an actin P1
filament represents D B
X
ATP
Myosin head
ATP (low-energy
configuration)
(1) actin (2) myosin

C
(3) tropomyosin (4) troponin
33. The given diagram shows a human skeleton.
(1) Attachment of myosin head to actin forming
Which of the following correctly identifies the
cross bridge.
bones marked as I, II, III & IV ?
(2) Release of phosphate. Myosin changes
shape to pull actin.
(3) Attachment of new ATP to myosin head.
The cross bridge detaches.
I (4) Splitting of ATP into ADP and Pi. Myosin
II cocks into its high energy conformation.
III
IV
BIOLOGY ANSWER KEY

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 1 1 2 4 2 2 4 1 2 1 1 2 3 4 3
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 2 4 4 4 2 2 2 1 1 1 3 1 1 2 2
Que. 31 32 33 34
Ans. 2 4 2 2
E
NEURAL CONTROL AND COORDINATION

1. The photosensitive compounds in the human 7. Which of the following statement is not
eyes is composed of A (a protein) and B correct:-
(an aldehyde of vitamin A). Light induces (A)During conduction of impulse, stimulus
dissociation of retinal from opsin resulting in induced permeability to Na+ is extermely
changes in the structure of C :- short lived.
(1) A-Retinal, B-Opsin, C-Retinal (B) Resting membrane potential of the
(2) A-Opsin, B-Opsin, C-Retinal membrane at the site of excitation is
(3) A-Retinal, B-Opsin, C-Opsin maintained by influx of Na+.
(4) A-Opsin, B-Retinal, C-Opsin (C) Na+–K+ pump transports, 3 Na+ to outside
and 2K+ to inside of axon.
2. Macula lutea is present in :-
(D)Neuron recognise information of nerve
(1) Slightly above the posterior pole of eye ball
impulse but never transmit it.
(2) At posterior pole of eye lateral to the blind
(E) Positive charge on inner axonal membrane
spot
is due to out flux and influx of K+.
(3) At anterior pole of eye lateral to the blind
(1) A, B & E (2) B, D and E
spot
(3) A, D and E (4) A, B, D and E
(4) Slightly below the anterior pole of eye ball 8. Neurotransmitter in chemical synapses :-
3. Scala media is filled with :- (1) Released by synaptic vesicle in post
(1) Blood & lymph (2) Perilymph synaptic membrane and received by
(3) Endolymph receptors in pre synaptic membrane
(4) Serous & mucus fluid (2) Are released in synaptic cleft and always
4. Semi circular canals are :- have excitatory effect.
(1) Three is number and lies at right angle to (3) Attached to receptor in post synaptic
each other membrane & transmit inpulse faster than
(2) Three in number & present in cochlea near electrical synapse.
helicotrema. (4) Released by synaptic vesicle through
(3) Present in middle ear presynaptic membrane in synaptic cleft &
(4) Four in number and at right angle to chach received by receptors in post synaptic
other. membrane
5. Crista ampullaris and macula in internal ear are 9. Which of the following option is correctly
responsible for :- matched :-
(1) Both hearing & equilibrium of the body (1) Cerebellar hemisphere – corpus callosum
(2) Maintenance of balance of the body & posture – smallest commissure
(3) Perception of vision (2) Complex regions (cerebral cortex) –
Associtation area – memory &
(4) Collection of sound vibrations.
communication
6. Which of the following statement is correct :-
(3) Forebrain – hypothalamus – intelligence
(1) Neural system of cockroach consists of
and memory
network of neuron only.
(4) Midbrain – thalamus – largest choroid
(2) Afferent nerve fibre transmit impulse from
pleasus
CNS to peripheral tissues
10. Brain stem is formed by :-
(3) Autonomous nervous system is divided into (1) Hypothalamus, mid brain & Cerebellum
somatic neural system and peripheral (2) Carpora quadrigemina, thalamus &
neural system. medulla oblangata
(4) Neural system of almost all animals is (3) Diencephalon, Pons and cerebellum
composed of highly specialised neurons (4) Mid brain, pons & medulla oblangata
which can detect, receive & transmit impulse
E
11. Which of the following cranial nerves are pure 17. Structure in brain which is surrounded by
sensory in nature :- cerebrum and major coordinating centre for
(1) Olfactory, optic and vagus sensory and motor signaling :-
(2) Olfactory, abducens and accessory spinal (1) Epithalamus (2) Crura cerebri
(3) Olfactory, optic and auditory (3) Thalamus (4) Aqueduct sylvins
(4) Optic, trochlear and Hypoglossal 18. Hearing sound waves become weak at :-
12. Reflex action is :- (1) Base of cochlea (2) Apex of cochlea
(1) Involuntary, without conscious effort or (3) Ear drum (4) Eustachian tube
19. What is the correct sequence of eyeball layers
thought and require involvement of a part
from outside to inside?
of the CNS.
(1) sclera – retina –choroid
(2) Involuntary, with conscious effort &
(2) choroid – sclera –retina
thought & does not require involvement of
(3) choroid – retina – sclera
a part of the CNS
(4) sclera – choroid – retina
(3) Both voluntary and involuntary, without
20. Tube that connects the middle ear cavity with
thought but with conscious effort & involve
the pharynx is called
part of the CNS. (1) Eustachian tube (2) semicircular canal
(4) Involuntary, without thought but with (3) cochlea (4) crus communie
consious effort, does not involve CNS. 21. Which of the following is true for cochlea?
13. During reflex action which neuron transports (1) it is coiled portion of membranous
sensory stimuli towards spinal cord? labyrinth and filled with perilymph
(1) Multipolar neuron (2) the space within cochlea is called scala
(2) Pseudounipolar neuron media is filled with endolymph
(3) Unipolar neuron (3) malleus is attached to the tympanic
(4) Bipolar neuron membrane
14. Which of the following statement is correct :- (4) both 2 and 3
(1) Electrical synapses are rare in our body 22. The saccule and utricle contain a projecting
(2) Neurons are excitable cells because their ridge called
membranes are in a polarised state. (1) macula (2) cristae
(3) Piamater is outermost menings is in contact (3) organ of Corti (4) ampulla
with brain tissues. 23. Which of the following statement is not correct
(4) 1 & 2 both regarding exciting stage of neuron?
15. Corpora quadrigemina, the four round (1) Generation of action potential
swellings are present :- (2) More permeability of Na+ comparatively K+
(1) On ventral portion of mid brain (3) Depolarisation of axonal membrane
(2) On lower region of pons (4) More negative charge inside
24.
(3) In front of hypothalamus Consider the given statements

(4) On the dorsal portion of midbrain (a) integrated system in our body, coordinate
16. The A receive signal from a sensory organ all activities of the organs
& transmit the impulse via a dorsal nerve root (b) neural part of integrated system provides
into the CNS. The B then carries signals from chemical integration
(c) endocrine part of integrated system provides
CNS to the effector. A & B in the above
organized connectivity for quick
statement are:-
coordination
(1) A - Excitor, B - Receptor
(1) a and b are true,c is false
(2) A - Afferent, B - Efferent
(2) a is true , b and c are false
(3) A - Effector, B - Receptor
(3) a and c are true,b is false
(4) A - Receptor, B - Efferent
(4) c is true , a and b are false
E
25. Which of the following is true for human neural 31. Read the following
system? - conductivity -excitability
(1) it is ectodermal in origin -contractibility -elasticity
(2) somatic neural system relays impulse from -all or none
CNS to skeletal muscle How many properties are shown by nerve cell?
(3) neurons show unidirectional conduction of (1) two (2) three (3) four (4) five
impulse 32. Which of the following is not the function of
(4) all of these hypothalamus?
26. Which of the following is absent in nerve cell? (1) control body temperature
(1) mitrochondria (2) Nissl granules (2) synthesis of hormones which are released
(3) nucleus (4) Centriole by neurohypophysis
27. When outer surface of the axonal membrane (3) storage of memory and seat of intelligence
possesses a positive charge while its surface is (4) control to secretion and inhibition of
negatively charged is called hormones of adenohypopysis
(1) depolarization 33. Observe the given diagram and select the correct
(2) polarization option regarding labeled part A
(3) excitable stage of neuron
(4) both 2 and 3
28. Choose the correct option with reference of
structure with their characteristic and location
Structure Characteristic Location
Medullated nerve fibres
conductivity
(1) Neuron are found in CNS
excitability
formed by schwann cell
(2) Midbrain
Consist of 4 Between forebrain and (1) it may be either excitatory or inhibitory
optic lobes pons
(2) it is synthesized by mitochondria
Secretion of On ventral surface of
(3) Hypothalamus
hormones cerebellum
(3) it is stored in synaptic vesicle of synaptic knob
(4) all of these
highly vascular
(4) Piamater outer most Around brain 34. Identify A , B , C and D in the given diagram
meninx
29. Which of the following is incorrect for the
neuron?
(1) dendrites and axon contain Nissl granules
(2) energy consumption is less during
conduction of impulse on myelinated
neuron as compare to the non-myelinated
neuron
(3) bipolar neurons are found in the retina of

eye A B C D
(4) unmyelinated nerve fiber is enclosed by a
Medulla Spinal cord
Schwann cell (1) Pons cerebellum
oblongata
30. During repolarisation outer surface of axonal
Medulla
membrane is positively charged due to (2) Cerebellum Spinal cord Pons
oblongata
(1) efflux of Na+ ions
(2) efflux of Cl– ions Medulla
(3) Cerebellum Pons Spinal cord
oblongata
(3) efflux of K+ ions
(4) influx of K+ ions Medulla
(4) Pons Cerebellum Spinal cord
oblongata
E
35. Match the column I with column II (4) A - effector; B - motor nerve;
Column-I Column-II C - ventral horn; D - interneuron;

E - dorsal horn; F - sensory nerve;
(A) Amygdala (I) Largest part of brain
G - receptor
(B) Cerebrum (II) Midbrain
38. In the given diagram which stage of
(C) Cerebellum (III) Limbic lobe conduction of nerve impulse through nerve
(D) Corpora quadregemina (IV) Hindbrain fibre is observed?
A B C D + K
+
3Na
+
K Channel
(1) II I III IV + +
Na K
(2) III I IV II +
Na Channel +
2K VGC VGC
Na + ATP ADP + iP
(3) III IV I II
(4) IV III II I (1) Polarization
36. Which of the following region of brain is
(2) Resting potential
incorrectly paired with its function?
(3) Repolarization
(1) Hypothalamus - autonomic control
(2) Limbic system - emotional behaviour (4) Depolarization
(3) Cerebellum - voluntary control of muscle 39. Given below is a diagrammatic cross section
(4) Medulla oblongata - homeostatic control of a single loop of human cochlea with few part
37. The following diagram represent the reflex arc. labelled as A, B, C & D.
Identify the parts labelled as A, B, C, D, E, F
and G choose the correct option
A C
B
B
A D
F
G E D
(1) A - receptor; B - sensory nerve;
C - dorsal horn; D - interneuron; Which one of the following options correctly
E - ventral horn; F - motor nerve; represents the name of three different parts ?
G - effector (1) A : Perilymph, B : Tectorial membrane,

C : Endolymph
(2) A - receptor; B - sensory nerve;
(2) B : Tectorial membrane, C : Perilymph,
C - ventral horn; D - interneuron;
D : Secretory cells
E - dorsal horn; F - motor nerve;
(3) A : Endolymph, D : Sensory hair cells,
G - effector
A : Serum
(3) A - effector; B - motor nerve;
(4) D : Sensory hair cells, A : Endolymph,
C - dorsal horn; D - interneuron; B : Tectorial membrane
E - ventral horn; F - sensory nerve;
G - effector
E
40. The given diagram chows the axon terminal 41. The given diagram shows different parts of a
and synapse with few part labelled as A, B, C human eye with one part labeled as X.
& D. Choose the correct combination of
labelling from the given options.
X
Ca+2
B
Axon of D
presynaptic
neuron
A
C Which of the following statement is correct
Ion channel
regarding label X?
Ion channel
(closed) (open)
(1) It is the opening in lens that permits light
into the inner chambers of the eye.
(1) A - Synaptic vesicle, B - Axon terminal, (2) It is the coloured portion of vascular tunic.
C - Synaptic cleft, D - Postsynaptic (3) It is a biconcave structure that changes
membrane shape to bring objects into focus.
(2) A - Axon terminal, B - synaptic vesicle, (4) It is thick, jelly-like substance in the
C - Postsynaptic membrane, D - Synaptic posterior compartment of the eye.
cleft. 42. Refer the given figure of ear with few structure
(3) A - Synaptic vesicle, B - Synaptic cleft, marked as I, II, III & IV. Which labelled
C -Axon terminal, D - Post synaptic structure receuve vibrations and converts it into
membrane voltage?
(4) A - Post synaptic membrane, B - Axon
terminal, C - Synaptic vesicle, D - Synaptic
cleft
I III
II
IV
(1) I (2) II (3) III (4) IV
BIOLOGY ANSWER KEY

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 4 1 3 1 2 4 2 4 2 4 3 1 2 4 4
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 4 3 2 4 1 2 1 4 2 4 4 4 2 1 3
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42
Ans. 2 3 4 1 2 3 1 3 1 1 2 3
E
CHEMICAL COORDINATION AND INTEGRATION

1. Consider the given diagrammatic 2. Receptor for protein hormones are located
representation of the mechanism of action for (1) In cytoplam
2 categories of hormones. In which of the (2) On cell surface
following option correct answer for blanks A
(3) In nucleus
to I are indicated
(4) On endoplasmic reticulum
3. Which one of the following flows directly into
blood from the seat of its production to act on an
organ away from it
(1) Enzyme (2) Hormone (Renin)
(3) Blood (4) Lymph
4. Select the right match of endocrine gland and
their hormones among the options given below
A. Pineal i. Epinephrine
B. Thyroid ii. Melatonin
C. Ovary iii. Estrogen
D. Adrenal medulla iv. Tetraiodothyronine
Options
(1) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
(2) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
(3) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii
(4) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i
(1) A-Steroid hormone, B-Enzyme, 5. Listed below are the hormones of anterior
C-Secondary messenger, D-Non-steroid pituitary origin. Tick the wrong entry
hormone, E-Nucleus, F-Hormone - enzyme (1) Growth hormone
complex, G-Genome, H-mRNA, I-protein (2) Follicle stimulating hormone
(2) A-Steroid hormone, B-Receptor, C-Primary
(3) Oxytocin
messenger, D-Non-steroid hormone,
(4) Adrenocorticotrophic hormone
E-Nucleus, F-Hormone-receptor complex,
G-Genome, H-mRNA, I-protein 6. Naina is about to face an interview. But during

the first five minutes before the interview she
(3) A-Non-Steroid hormone, B-Receptor,
C-Secondary messenge, D-Steroid experiences sweating, increased rate of heart beat,
hormone,E-Nucleus, F-Hormone receptor respiration etc. Which hormone is responsible for
complex,G-Genome, H-mRNA, I-Protein her restlessness.
(4) A-Steroid hormone, B-Receptor, (1) Estrogen and progestoerone
C-Secondary messenger, D-Non-steroid (2) Oxytocin and vasopressin
hormone, E-Nucleus, F-Hormone-receptor (3) Adrenaline and noradrenaline
complex, G-Genome, H-mRNA, I-protein
(4) Insulin and glucagons
E
7. Hormones are called chemical signals that 11. The correct set of a single endocrine gland
stimulate specific target tissues. Their specificity hormone is.
is due to the presence of signal receiving (1) Oxytocin, prolactin, ACTH
'receptors' only in the respective target tissues.
(2) Oxytocin, vasopressin, ANF
Where are these receptors present in case of
(3) Thyroxin, secretin, ACTH
hormones of protein nature.
(4) Epinephrin, cortisol, ICSH
(1) Extra cellular matrix
12. Antidiuretic hormone secretion increases when
(2) Blood
the hypothalamus is stimulated by:
(3) Plasma membrane
(1) Angiotensin receptors
(4) Nucleus (2) Glucose receptors
8. Choose the correct answer among the following (3) Osmoreceptors
options. (4) Renin receptors
A. Epinephrine i. Increase in muscle growth 13. Which of the following hormone has no action
B. Testosterone ii. Decrease in blood pressure on gene expression?
C. Glucagon iii. Decrease in liver glycogen (1) Cortisol (2) Aldosterone
content (3) Progesterone (4) Glucagon
D. Atrial natriuretic iv. Increase heart beat 14.
factor
Options
(1) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv
(2) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii
(3) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(4) A-i, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii
Which of the function is not related with above
9. Blood calcium level is a resultant of how much
gland?
dietary calcium is absorbed, how much calcium
(1) Sugar metablism
is lost in the urine, how much bone dissolves
(2) Fight or flight response
releasing calcium into the blood and how much
(3) Electrolyte balance
calcium from blood enters in tissue. A number of
(4) Ca+2 regulation
factors play an important role in these processes.

15. Select the correct matching of gland with
Mark the one which has no role. hormone and function
(1) Vitamin D (2) Parathyroid hormone Endocrine Hormone Function
(3) Thyrocalcitonin (4) Thymosin gland
10. All the following tissues in mammals except (1) Parathyroid Thyrocalcitonin Ca+2 regulation
one consists of a central 'medullary' region (2) Pancreas Insulin Hypoglycemia
surrounded by a cortical region.
(3) Pineal Melanin Pigmentation
(1) Ovary (2) Adrenal
(4) Thymus Thyroxine Immunity
(3) Liver (4) Kidney
E
16. Which of the following statement is wrong 19. A decrease in the level of estrogen and
related to pituitary gland? progesterone causes :-
(1) Degeneration in neuron of posterior, part (1) growth and dilation of myometrium
cause diabetes insipidus. (2) growth of endometrium
(2) Oxytocin is released from anterior pituitary (3) constriction of uterine blood vessels
(3) anterior pituitary is related with body growth leading to sloughing of endometrium or
(4) Hypothalamus regulates directly posterior uterine epithelium
pituitary (4) release of ovum from the ovary
17.
20. ADH, responsible for reabsorption of water and
reduction of urine secretion, is synthesized by:-
(1) posterior pituatary gland
(2) juxtaglomerular apparatus
(3) hypothalamus
(4) anterior pituitary gland
21. Pick the odd one out from each given words
and then matches it with correct options.
The above gland X is not related with following
I. Thyroid, Adrenal, Pituitary, Prostate
function
II. Cretinism, Goitre, Myxodema, Scurvy
(1) Metabolism
III. Insulin, Blood sugar, Adrenaline, Thyroxine
(2) Metamorphosis
IV. Estrogen, Progesterone, Testosterone,
(3) Erythropoiesis
Prolactin
(4) Immuno suppression
(1) I-Prostate, II-Scurvy, III-Blood sugar,
18. Match the hormones given in column-I with the IV-Prolactin
terms given in column-II
(2) I-Adrenal, II-Goitre, III-Insulin,
IV-Prolactin
Column-I Column-II
(3) I-Thyroid, II-Cretinism, III-Adrenaline,
A ADH I Pituitary
IV-Estrogen
B ACTH II Mineralocorticoid
(4) I-Pituitary, II-Myxodema, III-Thyroxine,
C Aldosterone III Diabetes mellitus IV-Progesterone

D Insulin IV Diabetes insipidus 22. The hormones that initiate ejection of milk,
Vasodilator in stimulates milk production and growth of
E Adrenaline V
skeletal muscle ovarian follicles, are respectively known as :-
(1) PRL, OT and LH
(1) A–I, B–IV, C–II, D–III, E–V
(2) OT, PRL and FSH
(2) A–IV, B–II, C–I, D–III, E–V
(3) LH, PRL and FSH
(3) A–IV, B–I, C–II, D–III, E–V
(4) PRH, OT and LH
(4) A–IV, B–I, C–III, D–II, E–V
E
23. The given diagram represents the location of (3) Thymosin Decreased level of blood
human endocrine glands I, II, III, IV and V. sugar.
(4) Adrenaline Excessive loss of sodium in
I extracellular fluid.
25. The Hypophyseal portal system transports
II
releasing and inhibiting hormones from the
III hypothalamus into which of the following parts
marked as I, II, III and IV.
I
IV
Which of the following is correctly matched

with their secretions ?
IV
Hormones Their secretions
I Melatonin
III
II Thymosin
III Epinephrine II
IV Aldosterone (1) I (2) II (3) III (4) IV
V Testosterone 26. Which endocrine gland secretes the hormone
(1) I, II and III only (2) I, IV and V only that causes the abnormalities shown in the
(3) II, IV and V only (4) II, III and V only below picture ?
24. The hormone released by label "X" in the given
2m
figure helps to restore Y. Identify X and Y.
1m
X Y (1) Hypothalamus
(1) Thyroxine To much calcium in the (2) Pancreas

blood. (3) Adenohypophysis
(2) PTH Lowered levels of calcium in (4) Neurohypophysis
blood.
BIOLOGY ANSWER KEY

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 2 2 4 3 3 3 1 4 3 1 3 4 4 2
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26
Ans. 2 4 3 3 3 1 2 2 2 2 3
E
HUMAN REPRODUCTION & REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH

1. In which year Indian government had legalized 7. Find out the option which represents incorrect
the MTP ? match :-
(1) 1973 (2) 1970 (1) Sertoli cells - Nutrition to the germ cells
(2) Male germ cells - by meiotic division form
(3) 1971 (4) 1917
sperms
2. MTP is considered safe up to how many weeks
(3) Interstitial cells - Secrete androgens
of pregnancy :-
(4) Immunologically competent cells present in
(1) Six weeks (2) Eight weeks
seminiferous tubules
(3) Twelve weeks (4) Eighteen week
8. How many structures are intratesticular:
3. Which one of the following is not a method of Retetestis, vasa efferentia, epididymis, vas
contraception :- deferens, ejaculatory duct. :-
(1) Multiload -375 (1) 2 (2) 3
(2) Condoms (3) 1 (4) 5
(3) Pills of combination of oxytocin and 9. Which one of the following gland release
vasopressin lubricant at the time of coitus ?
(4) Lippes loop (1) Seminal visicles
4. Which of the following is a wrong match (2) Bulbourethral glands
between the type of contraception and its (3) Prostate gland
function? (4) Both (1) and (3)
Contraceptive Method Function 10. In human females, ovaries are primary sex
(1) Contraceptive pills –Suppress the secretions organs because :-
of gonadotropins (1) Produce female gametes
(2) Secrete Female sex hormones
(2) IUDs – Inhibit the implantation
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(3) Natural methods – Avoid chances of ovum &
(4) Have role in lactation
sperm meeting
11. Find out incorrect match :-
(4) Sterilisation – Inhibits gamete formation
(1) Ampulla - widest part of fallopian tube
5. Which one of the following can not be detected
(2) Cervix and vagina - Birth canal
in a developing foetus by amniocentesis ?
(3) Uterine endometrium - non glandular
(1) Sex of the foetus (4) Uterus - Inverted pear shape
(2) Down Syndrome 12. Which one of the following structure is not a
(3) Metabolic disorders part of female external genitalia :-

(4) Cleft palate (1) Labia majora (2) Labia minora
6. Which one of the following statement is not (3) Hymen (4) Cervical canal
correct about testis ? 13. Which hormone regulates spermatogenesis and
(1) About 250 testicular lobules in each testes also binds to receptors of leydig cells :-
(2) Spermatogonia are the immature male germ (1) Luteinizing hormone
cells of testes. (2) Testosterone
(3) Width of testes is about 4 cm to 5 cm. (3) Follicle stimulating hormone
(4) Testes are extra abdominal in human males. (4) Progesterone
E
14. Which statement is not true about oogenesis :- Select the correct option
(1) Follicular atresia occurs due to apoptosis (1) a and b only (2) b only
(2) Granulosa cells form 2 layers : Theca interna (3) a, b, c and e (4) a, b, c and d
and theca externa. 19. Which one of the following hormone mainly
(3) The cumulus oophorus is derived from a layer helps in parturition . :-
of granulosa cells surrounding the oocyte. (1) progesterone
(4) oocyte goes through the 2nd meiotic division (2) Thyroid hormone
before being released from the ovary. (3) oxytocin
15. Match the hormone in column I with their (4) Luteinizing hormone
function in column II :- 20. Blood flowing in the umbilical cord of
mammalian embryo is :-
Column-I Column-II
(1) 100% foetal
Increases secretory nature of (2) 50% maternal and 50% foetal
(a) FSH (p)
endometrium
(3) 100% maternal
Develops female secondary sexual
(b) LH (q) (4) 75% foetal and 25% maternal
characters
21. Drugs such as thalidomide taken by woman in
(c) Progesterone (r) Contraction of uterine wall
first trimester of pregnancy cause all the
(d) Estrogen (s) Development of corpus luteum following malformations in the developing
(t) Follicular development embryo except:-
(1) Limb deformity
(1) a-t, b-s, c-p, d-q (2) a-s, b-t, c-q, d-p
(2) Teratogenesis
(3) a-s, b-r, c-q, d-t (4) a-t, b-p, c-q, d-s
(3) Phocomelia
16. Which one of the following is incorrect
(4) Heart disorders
matching pair :-
22. Secretions from which one of the following are
(1) Development of corpus luteum- In secretory
rich in fructose, calcium and some enzymes :-
phase
(1) Liver
(2) Menstrual flow - Break down of myometrium
(2) Pancreas
(3) Ovulation - LH and FSH attain peak level
(3) Salivary glands
(4) Proliferative phase - maturation of graffian
(4) Male accessory glands
follicle
23. In which of the following method of
17. Which one of the following acrosomal enzyme
contraception no medicines devices are used?
dissolve the zona pellucida of ovum. :-
(1) Hyaluronidase (1) Lactational amenorrhea
(2) Acrosin (2) Coitus withdrawal
(3) Corona penetrating enzyme (3) Periodic abstinence

(4) Erepsin (4) All of the above
18. Placenta acts as an endocrine structure and 24. Which contraceptive method inhibit ovulation
produce several harmones like :- and implantation as well as after the quality of
(a) Human chorionics gonadotropin (hCG) cervical mucus to prevent/retard entry of
(b) Human placental lactogen (hPL) sperm?
(c) Estrogen (1) Copper T (2) Oral contraceptives
(d) Progesterone (3) Condoms (4) cervical cap
(e) LH
E
25. Which hormones is not involved in progress 30. The figure given below shows a flowchart on
of induction of parturition? spermatogenesis. Identify the correct label
(1) Cortisol marked as A, B, C and D.
Chromosomes
(2) Estrogen Number
At Puberty Per Cell
(3) Oxytocin Spermatogoni
46
(4) Prolactin A
26. Oral contraceptive pills act- Primary spermatocytes
(1) By preventing sperm motility B

(2) By preventing ovulation
Secondary spermatocytes
23
(3) By inhibiting motility of cilia of fallopian
C
tube
Spermatids
(4) All of the above 23
27. Which event does not occur if fertilization not

Spermatozoa (D)
occur in menstrual cycle.
(1) Progesterone is decreased after 22nd day. (1) A : 1 st meiotic division; B : 2 nd meiotic
division; C : Differentiation; D : 23.
(2) Corpus luteum degenerates.
(2) A : 2nd meiotic division; B : Differentiation;
(3) Degeneration and shedding of
C : 1st meiotic division; D : 46.
endometrium.
(4) Degeneration of ovary (3) A : Differentiation; B : 2nd meiotic division;
C : 1st meiotic division; D : 46.
28. The male sex accessory ducts include
(4) A : Mitosis differentiation; B : 1st meiotic
(1) Rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis,
division; C : 2 nd meiotic division; D : 23.
bulbourethral, prostate
(2) vasa efferentia, epididymis, seminal vesicle 31. Study the given statement and answer the
question. If pregnancy doesn't happen,
(3) vas deference, rete testis, vasa efferentia,
"During 'P' phase of the menstrual cycle, the
epididymis
'Q' starts to degenerate usually around day 22
(4) epididymis, seminal vesicle, vas deference,
in a 28-day cycle. The drop in 'R' levels causes
vasa efferentia
the lining of the uterus to fall away. This is
29. Find the incorrect statement? known as 's'.
(1)HCG, HPL and relaxin are produced in Identify P, Q, R and S.
women only during pregnancy (1) P ® Menstrual, Q ® Graafian follicle,

(2)Blastocyst is embedded in the endometrium R ® Estrogen, S ® Menarche
of the uterus and it leads to pregnancy (2) P ® Luteal, Q ® Corpus luteum,
(3)The first sign of growing fetus may be R ® Progesterone, S ® Menstruation
noticed by listening to the heart sound (3) P ® Ovulatory, Q ® Endometrium,
carefully through the stethoscope. R ® Follicle stimulating hormone,
(4)The first movement of fetus & appearance S ® Menopause
of hair in the head are observed during 6th (4) P ® Follicular, Q ® Secondary oocyte,
month. R ® Luteinizing hormone, S ® Menstruation
E
32. The given diagram shows a human female's 37. Fertilization can only occurs if :-
reproductive system. Select the part (labelled (1) sperm reaches to the ampullary – isthmic
as A, B, C & D) where semen is released into junction before the ovum.
the female by the penis during copulation. (2) ovum reaches to the ampullary – isthmic
junction before sperm.
(3) Sperms are transported to the uterus and
B ovum to the fallopian tube simultaneously.
(4) Sperms and ovum are transported
A simultaneously to the ampulla
38. The given figure shows the male reproductive
system. Some structures are marked as A, B, C
C
and D. Identify the structure whose removal will
cause lack of lubrication during coitus.
D
(1) A (2) B
A
(3) C (4) D
B
33. The placenta is formed from the ________ of C
the embryo and the ________ of the mother.
(1) uterus, trophoblast
(2) chorion, endometrium
D
(3) endometrium, chorion (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D
(4) inner cell mass, endometrium 39. Given below is a diagramatic sketch of a portion
of human male reproductive system. Select the
34. ________ is a sticky white or yellow fluid
correct set of the names of the parts marked as
secreted by the breast during the second half A, B, C and D.
of pregnancy and for a few days after birth,
before breast milk comes in.
A
(1) Placenta (2) Colostrum B
C
(3) Egg yolk (4) Blood cells D
35. Which of the following is not a paired structure
in male ?
(1) Urethra (2) Vas deferens
(3) Epididymis (4) Ejaculatory duct

36. Study the statement given below and answer
A B C D
the question. "Vigorous contraction of the 'X' (1) Ureter Seminal Prostate Bulbourethral
at the end of the 'Y' causes expulsion of the vesicle
(2) Ureter Prostateq Seminal Bulbourethral
foetus." Identify X and Y :- vesicle gland
(3) Vas Seminal Prostate Bulbourethral
(1) X - Vagina ; Y - Fertilisation
deferens vesicle gland
(2) X - Uretrus ; Y - Pregnancy (4) Vas Seminal Bulbourethral prostate
deferens gland
(3) X - Placenta ; Y - Implantation
(4) X - Embryo ; Y - Ovulation
E
40. Given below is the diagrammatic sectional view 42. Which of the following hormone cause
of seminfiferous tubule with their parts marked endometrial thickening?
as A, B, C and D. Select the option which shows (1) estrogen
the correct identification of the structure with (2) estrogen and progesterone
its characteristics. (3) progesterone only
(4) relaxin
A 43. The figure given below shows the various
B events occurring during a menstrual cycle with
C few structures marked as A, B, C and D. Which
of the following options shows the correct
D
labeling?
(1) A : Spermatozoa, secretes testicular
hormones that control spermatogenesis
(2) B : Spermatogonium, it is also caled germ
called which undergo meiotic division to A
from spermatozoa.
(3) C : Interstitial cells, present in the interstitial
spaces and store and transport the sperms
from the testis to the outside through th
B
urethra.
(4) D : Sertoli cells, it maintains low temperature
of the testis.
Menses
41. Identify the figure(A) show sectional view
below and match with its characteristics (B) and Days
its location (C).
C D E
(1) A®LH, B®Ovulation, C®Menstruation,
D®Proliferative phase, E®Luteal phase

(2) A®FSH, B®Implantation,
A B C C®Follicular phase,
(1) Graafian Involved in Ovary
follicle the formation D®Menstruation phase, E®Luteal phase

of ovum
(3) A®Estrogen, B®Parturition,
(2) Seminiferous Involved in Testis
tubule the formation C®Luteal phase, D-Follicular phase,
of sperm
(3) Ovum Process of Graafian E-Follicular phase
surrounded fertilization follicle
(4) A®Progesterone, B®Fertilization,
by sperm
(4) Mammary Involved in Female C®Menstruation phase,
gland milk reproductive
secretion system D®Secretory phase, E-Follicular phase
E
44. The given diagram shows the uterine tubes of 46. The given figure shows one of the elements
four women (P, Q, R and S). releasing intrauterine device. Select the option
which shows the correct identification of the
complete blockage
partial blockage
device and its feature.
complete blockage complete blockage
(1) CuT; suppress sperm motilyty and its

In which two women is fertilization impossible fertilizing capacity.
at present? (2) CuT; make uterus unsuitable for the
(1) P and Q (2) Q and R
attachment of blastocysts.
(3) R and S (4) S and P
45. In the given figure which marked number (3) Lippes loop; protect the users from
(1, 2, 3, 4) is operated for terminal contracting AIDS and STDs.
contraception. (4) LNG-20; acts as spermicidal means and
decrease the contraceptive efficiency.
3
4
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\BIOLOGY AT ITS PEAK\ZOOLOGY_ENGLISH.P65
BIOLOGY ANSWER KEY

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 3 3 3 4 4 3 4 1 2 3 3 4 1 2 1
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 2 2 4 3 1 4 4 4 2 4 2 4 3 4 4
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
Ans. 2 4 2 2 1 2 4 4 3 2 2 2 1 3 1
Que. 46
Ans. 1
E
HUMAN HEALTH & DISEASE

1. Choose the correct pair :- 5. Neoplastic transformation by DNA damage can
(1) Physical barriers – HCL in stomach, saliva be brought about by several factors. Choose the
in mouth factors which lead to oncogenic transformation
(2) Cellular barrier – PMNL, NK cells with in exposed cells :-
(3) Physiological barriers – Mucosa of gut,
(a) U.V. rays (b) X-rays
urinogenital tract
(4) Cytokine barriers – Exotoxins (c) gama-rays (d) Tobacco smoke
2. Thalassemic child needed repeated blood (e) Retrovirus

transfusions, got infected by HIV and it (1) a, b, c (2) a, b, c, d
deteriorated child's immunity. Read the following
questions :- (3) a, b, d (4) b, d
(A) HIV virus attacks which types of cells 6. Read the following paragraph containing four
(B) Why did the increased number of the HIV blanks, A, B, C, D. Non-ionizing radiation like
virus deteriorate child immunity A cause DNA damage leading to neo plastic
(C) Which cells is/are called as HIV factory transformation. B is the most feared property
of maligant tumors. Computed tomography uses
(D) Which test showed that the infective virus is
HIV C to generate a three dimensional image of the
internal of an object. D uses strong magnetic
Choose the option with all correct answer for A,
B, C, D :- fields and non-ionizing rediation to accurately
detect pathological and physiological changes in
(1) A - T4 cells, B - HIV destroys T4 cells and
macrophages, C - macrophages, D - Elisa the living tissue :-
(2) A - T4 and macrophages, B - HIV depletes Choose the option which correctly fill in the
macrophages, C - Helper T-cells, D - Elisa blanks A, B, C, D.
(3) A - T4 cells with CD4 receptors, B - HIV A B C D
depletes T 4 cells count, C - Macrophage,
D - Elisa
(1) UV Metastasis X-rays CT
(4) A - T4 cells, B - HIV depletes all T4 cells,
(2) X-rays Metastasis X-rays MRI
C - Helper T cells, D - Western blot
(3) UV Metastasis X-rays MRI
3. There is always a time lag between the infection
and appearance of AIDS symptoms. This period (4) UV Contact X-rays MRI
may vary from :- inhibition
(1) 5 to 10 years (2) 1 - 2 months 7. Sexually transmitted disease is :-

(3) 3 - 4 months (4) 5 - 10 months (1) Hepatitis A
4. The AIDS virus has :- (2) Hepatitis, B
(1) DS DNA (2) DS RNA (3) Hepatitis E
(3) SS RNA (4) SS DNA (4) Filariasis
E
8. Find correct match :- 12. The diagram given here the standard ECG of
a normal person. The P wave represent the :-
Column-I Column-II
R
(A) Gynaecomastia (i) AA + XO
P Q S T
(B) Turner's (ii) AA + XXY
syndrome
(1) Initiation of the ventricular contraction
(C) Down's (iii) Autosomal
syndrome recessive gene (2) Ending of ventricular systole
(D) Thalessemia (iv) AA + 1 + XX/XY
(3) Atrial repolarisation
(1) A - (ii), B - (i), C - (iv), D - (iii)
(4) Contraction of both the atria
(2) A - (ii), B - (i), C - (iii), D - (iv)
13. Match these columns with regards to innate
(3) A - (i), B - (ii), C - (iv), D - (iii) immunity:
(4) A - (iv), B - (i), C - (ii), D - (iii)
EXAMPLE BARRIER
9. Which of the following STD can not be cured
(A) Gastric juice, saliva (i) Cytokine
by antibiotics :- tears & sweat
(1) Clamydiasis (2) Gonorrhaea (B) Interferons (ii) Physical
(3) Genital herpes (4) Syphilis (first stage) (C ) Mucosa & skin (iii) Cellular
10. In a standard ECG which one of the following (D) PMNL-Neutrophils (iv) physiological
monocyte, NK-Cell
alphabetes is the correct representation of the
respective activity of the human heart :-
(1) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
(1) S-start of systole
(2) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
(2) T-end of diastole
(3) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
(3) P-depolarisation of the atria
(4) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii
(4) R-repolorisation of ventricles
14. Find out the incorrect matching of disease,
11. Given below is the ECG of a normal human,
pathogen and mode of transmission:
which one of its components is correctly
interpreted below :- Disease Pathogen Transmission
R
(1) Common Rhino virus Droplet infection
cold
P Q S T
(2) Malaria Plasmodium female Aedes
mosquito
(1) Peak P and peak R together - systolic and
(3) Pneumonia Streptococcus Droplet infection
distolic blood pressure pneumoniae
(2) Peak P - initiation of left atrial contraction only (4) Typhoid Salmonella Contaminated
(3) Complex QRS - one complete pulse typhi food & water
(4) Peak T - initiation of total cardiac contraction
E
15. Read the following statement (A-D) 19. Consider the given statements and select the
(A) Haemophilus influenzae infects the alveoli true ones
of lungs. (A)health could be designed as a state of
complete physical , mental and social well
(B) Intestinal perforation and death may occur
being
in severe cases of typhoid
(B) pathogens can enter our body by various
(C) Rhino virus infect the nose and respiratory
means, multiply and not interfere with
passage but not the lungs
normal vital activities
(D) Symptoms of amoebiasis are abdominal (C) Salmonella typhi is a pathogenic virus
pain and cramps stool with excess mucous which causes typhoid fever
and blood clots. (D) Plague and diphtheria are bacterial disease
How many of the above statements are correct. in man
(1) One (2) Two (1) A and B (2) C and D
(3) Three (4) Four (3) A and D (4) A,C and D
16. Withdrawal symptoms are characterized by 20. How many diseases are caused by bacteria?
(a) Reckless behavior (b) Anxiety Common cold, Pneumonia, Malaria, Dengue,
Leshmaniasis, Typhoid, Chikungunya, Tetanus
(c) Nausea (d) Vandalism
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) 6 (4) 2
(e) Sweating (f) Violence
21. Select the symptoms of the disease caused by
(g) Shakiness
round worm
(1) a,d,f (2) a,d,e,g
(1) internal bleeding and scaly lesions on
(3) b,c,e,g (4) d,e,f
various parts of body
17. Choose the incorrect statement from given
(2) muscular pain and sustained high fever
below:
(3) fever , anemia and internal bleeding
(1) The cell mediated immune response is
responsible for graft rejection (4) blockage of the intestinal passage and
(2) Metastasis is the most feared property of sustained high fever
malignant tumour 22. Which of the following disease is caused by
(3) Cocain and L.S.D. are sedatives protozoans?
(4) T-cell do not form antibody but help B-cell (1) Ringworm and amoeboic dysentery
produce them (2) Malaria and trichomoniasis
18. Which one of the following statement is (3) Genital warts and Chlamydiasis
incorrect? (4) Amoeboic dysentry and genital herpes
(1) The injection containing preformed 23. Identify the correct option
antibodies provide passive immunity to the
Disease Symptoms Caused by
host.
- increase in appetite Salmonella
(1) Typhoid
(2) Hepatitis-B vaccine produced from yeast by - chill and high fever typhii
recombination DNA technology - cough and headache Streptococcus
Pneumonia and
(2) - in severe cases the lips may pneumoniae
(3) The causative agent of AIDS, HIV common cold
turn gray to bluish in color
retrovirus enters helper T-lymphocyte thus - slowly developing chronic Wuchereria
(3) Filariasis
reducing their numbers inflammation of the organs Malayi
(4) Cannabinoids are always taken by injection. Progressive decrease

Bacterium
(4) AIDS in the number of helper
T-lymphocytes
E
24. Which of the following option is correct for 28. Which of the following option properly define
cancer?
innate immunity?
(1) Cells of malignant tumor grow very rapidly
invading and damaging the surrounding (1) immunity that is pathogen specific
normal tissue (2) immunity that is produced by artificial method
(2) Benign tumor does not exhibit the locality (3) immunity that is nonspecific for pathogen
character
(3) Cancer cells show metagenesis (4) immunity that is specific but present at the
(4) All of the above time of birth
25. Which of the following option is true for 29. Identify the molecules (a) and (b) given below
opioids
and select the right option giving their source
(1) they bind to specific opioid receptors
present in nervous system and use.
(2) obtained from Papaver somniferum
(3) obtained from coca plant CH3
N
(4) Both 1 and 2 O
26. Choose the incorrect option CH3
(1) response of antibodies is also called O
humoral immune response (a) H
O
(2) Colostrum provide passive immunity
(3) B lymphocytes produces an army of protein
H O
in response to pathogens in our blood to
fight against them
OH
(4) spleen , tonsils and payers patches of
small intestine and appendix are primary
lymphoid organs (b)
O
27. Match the following columns and choose the H
correct answer from the options given below
Column I Column II Molecule Source Use
(1) (a) Cocaine Erythroxylum Accelerates
A Physical barrier i PMNL coca the transport
of dopamine
B Physiological barrier ii Interferons (2) (b) Heroin Cannabis Depressant
sativa and slows
C Cellular barrier iii Acid in stomach
down body
Mucus coating of functions
D Cytokine barrier iv (3) (b) Cannabiniod Atropa Produces
epithelial lining
belladonna hallucinations
A B C D (4) (a) Morphine Papaver Sedativa and
somniferum pain killer

(1) iv iii i ii
(2) iv i ii iii
(3) iii ii iv i
(4) ii iv iii I
BIOLOGY ANSWER KEY

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 2 3 1 3 2 3 2 1 3 3 3 4 3 2 4
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29
Ans. 3 3 4 3 2 3 2 3 1 4 4 1 3 4
E
EVOLUTION
1. Theory of Natural selection given by Darwin 7. When more than one adaptive radiation
is based on :- appeared to have occured in an isolated
(1) Inheritance of acquired characters geographical area, it is called as :-
(2) Random mutation (1) Divergent evolution
(3) Use and disuse of organs (2) Convergent evolution
(3) Anthropogenic evolution
(4) Enormous power of fertility in organisms,
(4) Saltation
struggle for existence and survival of fittest
8. Tasmanian wolf and placental wolf appear
2. The first cellular form of life possibly originated
similar due to :-
about :- (1) Chemical evolution
(1)1000 mya (2) 2500 mya (2) Divergent evolution
(3) 2000 mya (4) 1500 mya (3) Biochemical evolution
3. Select the correct option among the following (4) Convergent evolution
statements :- 9. "Darwin's finches" are an excellent example of:-
(a) The fitness, according to Darwin, refers (1) Connecting links (2) Adaptive radiation
ultimately and only to reproductive fitness (3) Seasonal migration (4) Brood Parasitism
(b) Those who are better fit in an environment, 10. Similarities in organism with different genotype
leave more progeny than others. indicates :-
(c) Alfred Wallace, a Biochemist worked in (1) Micro evolution (2) Macro evolution
Malay Archpelago. (3) Divergent evolution (4) Convergent evolution
11. Select the correct matching pair from column-I
(d) The geological history of earth closely
and column-II :-
corelates with the biological history of
earth. Column-I Column-II
(1) Only a and c (2) Only a, b and c 1 Darwin's finches Galapagos island
(3) Only a, b and d (4) Only b, c and d of South America
4. Archaeopteryx is connecting link between :-
2 Bandicoot Placental
(1) Reptiles and mammals mammal
(2) Birds and reptiles
3 Analogous Similar in origin
(3) Annelids and Arthropods
structures
(4) Amphibian and fishes
5. All the following are examples of homologous 4 Bobcat Marsupial
mammal
organs except :-
(1) Arm of man and flipper of whale 12. Read the names of animals given below and
(2) Brain of vertebrates select the correct option with respect to their
(3) Eye of an octopus and eye of a mammal category and the type of evolution they
(4) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendrils of represent :-
cucurbita
Sugar glider, Koala, Wombat, Flying squirrel,
6. The convergent evolution of two species is
Tiger cat and Bobcat :-
usually associated with :-
(1) Analogous organs (1) 4 are marsupial - convergetnt evolution
(2) Different habitat (2) 5 are marsupial - parallel evolution
(3) Homologous organs (3) 4 are marsupial - geographical isolation
(4) A recent common ancestor (4) 4 are marsupial - adaptive radiation
E
13. Read the following statements and answer as 17. Find out correct matching pair between
per instructions : column-I and II :-
(a) Mutations are random and directionless Column-I Column-II
(b) According to Darwin evolution is a single Human ancestor Cranial capcity
step process.
(a) Homo habalis (i) 900cc
(c) Stabilising natural selection divides the
population into two populations. (b) Neanderthal man (ii) 1600cc
(d) Seed ferns are the ancestors of monocots
(c) Homo erectus (iii) 650-800cc
and dicots.
How many of above statements are correct ? (d) Cromagnon man (iv) 1400cc
(1) One (2) Two (3) Four (4) Three (1) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i (2) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
14. Select the wrong one from the given statements (3) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i (4) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(a) Some land reptiles went back into water to 18. The story of evolution of modern man in
evolve into fish like reptiles probably 200 respect to brain and language appears as :-
(1) Convergent evolution(2) Adaptive radiation
mya.
(3) Divergent evolution (4) Parallel evolution
(b) Sauropsids rise to modern days reptiles and
19. Read the following statements and select which
mammals.
is correct :-
(c) About 65mya the dinosaurs suddenly (1) Evolution is not a stochastic process.
disappeared from the earth. (2) Stegosaurs had 3 rows of bony plates on its
(d) The first mammals were like whales. back
Options : (3) Dryopithecus was more ape like while
(1) a and b (2) c and d Ramapithecus was more man like
(3) b and d (4) a and c (4) The evolution of fish like reptiles
15. Select the correct option for below statements? Ichthyosaurs took 300 mya
(a) Natural selection is based on certain 20. Select the match between column I and II :-
observations which are factual. Column-I Column-II
(b) The essence of Darwinian theory about The first cellular form
(1) 3000 million years ago
evolution is natural selection of life appeared
(c) Acquired characters do not inherit, (2) Neanderthal Man brain size -1400cc
according to Lamarck (3) Dinosaurs extinct about 75 mya
(d) Hugo de-vries believed in single step large
(4) Louis Pasteur Theory of special creation
mutation
21. Select the correct option which is right match
Options :
between column-I and column-II :-
(1) Only a and b (2) Only c and d
Column-I Column-II
(3) Only b and c (4) Only a, b and d
Golden period of Ancestor of
16. Which of the following statement is correct ? (A ) (i)
fishes mammals
(1) Homo erectus lived in east and central Asia (B) Analogous organs (ii) Tool maker man
and used hides to protect their bodies (C) Homo habilis (iii) Similar in function
(2) Agriculture came around 18000 yrs back (D ) Synapsids (iv) Devonian period
(3) The skull of modern human resembles more (1) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
closely to baby chimpanzee than adult
(2) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii
chimpanzee
(3) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i
(4) Australopithecus probably lived in North
(4) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii
America.
E
22. Which one of the following factor can not affect 29. The Oparin-Haldane theory was experimentally
Hardy Weinberg's equilibrium? proved by:
(1) Natural selection (1) Darwin (2) Miller
(2) Mutations (3) Pasteur (4) deVries
(3) Genetic drift 30. Darwin’s finches are an example of:
(4) Random mating (1) Adaptive radiation
23. The forelimbs of various mammals perform (2) Convergent evolution
different functions according to their habitat (3) Retrogressive evolution
but still they have same patterns of bones within (4) Artificial selection
their anatomy. This is an example of: 31. Which among the following has largest brain
(1) Analogous organs that have evolved due capacity?
to divergent evolution (1) Australopithecus
(2) Homologous organs that have evolved (2) Homo habilis
due to convergent evolution (3) Neanderthal man
(3) Homologous organs that have evolved (4) Homo erectus
due to divergent evolution 32. Which is a character of Neanderthal man?
(4) Analogous organs that have evolved due (1) First human-like being
to convergent evolution (2) Brain capacity 900cc
24. A population may get deviation from (3) They buried their dead
Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, if it: (4) They started agriculture
(1) Shows random mating 33. The given diagram represents Miller's
(2) Doesn’t show gene migration experiment. Choose the correct combination of
(3) Shows natural selection labelling A, B, C and D :-
(4) Doesn’t show gene recombination
25. A process in which organisms of different A
origins, develop similar adaptations towards a
common habitat, is called as:
(1) Divergent evolution
(2) Convergent evolution Spark
(3) Adaptive radiation D discharge
(4) Natural selection
Mixture
26. If change in gene frequencies in a population
of gases Water out
occurs by chance, than it is called as: (B)
(1) Natural selection (2) Gene flow
Water in
(3) Gene migration (4) Genetic drift
27. In a population of 2000 individuals, 500 belong
to genotype AA, 500 to aa and remaining to Aa.
Water containing
What is the frequency of allele A in this Boiling organic compound
water C
population?
(1) 0.3 (2) 0.5 (3) 0.6 (4) 0.25 (1) A-Electrodes, B-NH 3 +H2 +H2O+CH4 ,
28. Which of the following are analogous C-liquid water in trap, D-Vacuum pump
structures? (2) A-Electrodes, B-NH3 +H2+CO2+CH4 ,
(1) Forelimbs of mammals C-liquid water in trap, D-Vacuum pump
(2) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of (3) A-Electrodes, B-NH3 +H2O,
cucurbita C-liquid water in trap, D-Tap
(3) Kidneys of man and malpighian tubules of (4) A-Electrodes, B-NH3 +O2+H2O + CH4 ,
cockroach C-liquid water in trap, D-Vacuum pump
(4) All of the above
E
34. The diversity within the wild bird species in the (1) Convergent evolution
diagram below can best be explained by which (2) Parallel evolution
process? (3) Recapitulation
(4) Divergent evolution
36. Following is the diagrammatic representation
of the operation of natural selection of different
traits. Which of the following option correctly
identifies all the three graphs A, B and C.
Common Ancestor
Peak gets higher

and narrower
Phenotypes
(A)
Number of individuals
favoured by
natural Medium-sized
with phenotype
Peak shifts in
selection individuals
on direction
(1) Natural selection are favoured
(2) Ecological succession

(3) Adaptive radiation
(B)
(4) Both (1) and (3)
35. The given diagram of marsupials of Australia Two peaks form
provides an example of :-
(C)
Flying Tasmanian
phalanger wolf Banded
anteater
A B C
Australian
Marsupials (1) Directional Stabilizing Disruptive
Koala (2) Stabilizing Directional Disruptive
Marsupial rat (3) Disruptive Stabilizing Directional
Kangaroo (4) Directional Disruptive Stabilizing
BIOLOGY ANSWER KEY

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 4 3 3 2 3 1 2 4 2 4 1 4 2 3 4
Que. 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. 3 2 4 3 2 1 4 3 3 2 4 2 3 2 1
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36
Ans. 3 3 1 4 4 2
E
DOMESTICATION OF ANIMAL
1. Which of the following method of breeding 6. Find out the correct match from the following
increases the homozygosity:- table :-
(1) Inbreeding (2) Out-breeding Column-I Column-II Column-III
(3) Cross- breeding (4) Out- crossing (i) Apis indica Indian mona Mild in
2. What is the main aim of animal breeding in bee nature
animal husbandry :-
(ii) Apis dorsata Bhringa bee Aggressive
(1) Increasing the yield of animals
nature
(2) Increasing the number of animals
(iii) Apis mellifera European bee Mild in nature
(3) Improving the desirable qualities of the
produce (1) (i) only (2) (i) and (ii)
(4) Both (1) and (3) (3) (i) and (iii) (4) only (iii)
3. How many fishes in the list given below are 7. Consider the following four statements (a-d)
marine? and select the option which includes all the
correct ones only :-
Catla, Pomfret, Salmon, Hilsa, Rohu,
Mackerel, Sardine (a) Poultry farm include, chicken, ducks, turkey
and geese.
(1) Six (2) Three
(b) Fisheries has an important place in Indian
(3) Four (4) Five
economy.
4. Which of the following process helps in
(c) Stilbestrol is synthetic progesterone and
overcome several problems of normal mating?
induces lactation in sterile animals
(1) Out-crossing (d) The care & management of pigs is called as
(2) MOET PIGGERY
(3) Artificial insemination Option:
(4) Hypophysation (1) Statements (b), (c) and (d)
5. Match the column-A with column - B and find (2) Statements (a), (b) and (d)
the correct answer ? (3) Statements (c) and (d)
(4) Statements (a), (c) and (d)
Column -A Column -B
(A) Pebrine (i) Aspergillus 8. Read the following four statements (a – d) :
disease flavus (a) Fisheries include rearing, catching and
(B) Aflatoxicosis (ii) Bacillus selling of fishes, mollusca etc.
anthrasis (b) More then 70 percent of the world livestock

(C) Foot and (iii) Nosema bombysis population is in India and China.
mouth disease (c) Milk yield is primarily dependent on the
(D) Anthrax (iv) Picorna virus quality of breeds in the farm.
(d) The feeding of cattle should be carried out
(1) A - iv, B - iii C - ii D-i
in scientific manner.
(2) A - iii, B-i C - ii D - iv
How many of the above statements are right ?
(3) A - iii, B-i C - iv D - ii
(1) Four (2) One
(4) A - iv, B-i C - iii D - ii (3) Two (4) Three
E
9. Find out the correct match from the following 12. Which disease causing agent may drastically
table :- affect the production of poultry farm?
(1) Virus (2) Insects
Column-I Column-II Column-III
(3) Protozoa (4) Helminthis
(i) Mulberry Bombyx Mulberry 13. Out-crossing is a strategy of animal breeding
silk mori
programmes, which is done :
(ii) Eri silk Antheria Castor (1) To expose the harmful recessive genes
roylei
(2) To Accumulate the beneficial genes
(iii) Muga silk Antheria Oak (3) To remove the inbreeding depression
assama
(4) To increase homozygosity in animals
(1) Only (ii) (2) (ii) and (iii) 14. Cross-breeding is mating of:
(3) (i) and (iii) (4) Only (i) (1) Animal of two different breeds of different
10. If the food source is in the direction of sun and species
distance is about 90 metre from hive, then honey (2) Animals of two different breeds of same
bee will convey the direction by :- species
(1) Clockwise round dance (3) Superior animals of same breed
(4) Superior animals of two different species
(2) Upright down tail waging dance
15. Among the following edible fishes which is a
(3) Anticlockwise round dance
fresh water fish?
(4) Opposite to 2 option (1) Catla (2) Hilsa
11. Which one of the following pair is mismatched? (3) Sardines (4) Mackerel
(1) Apis – Beewax (2) Bombyx – Silk
(3) Leghorn – Eggs (4) Musca – Honey
BIOLOGY ANSWER KEY

Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. 1 4 4 3 3 3 2 1 3 4 4 1 3 2 1
E
E
ALLEN
IMPORTANT NOTES
REVISION OF ZOOLOGY CONCEPT (RZC)
65

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REVISION OF ZOOLOGY CONCEPT (RZC) Serial Page

1. Structural organisation in animals 01-07

2. Animal Kingdom 08-12

3. Digestion and Absorption 13-18

4. Breathing and Exchange of Gases 19-24

5. Body Fluids and Circulation 25-29

6. Excretory products and Their elimination 30-35

7. Movement and Locomotion 36-39

8. Neural control and Coordination 40-44

9. Chemical Coordination and Integration 45-48

10. Human reproduction and

Reproductive Health 49-54

11. Human Health & Disease 55-58

12. Evolution 59-62

13. Domestication of Animal 63-64

REVISION OF ZOOLOGY CONCEPT (RZC)

(1) Adhering junction (2) Gap junction

(3) Maxillae & Legs

(4) Short as it is herbivore (4) Ganglia – Nervous system

D Squamous IV Inner lining of

Select the option which shows the correct A

Identify the tissues (1 and 2)

(2) A-Ocellus, B-Compounds eye, A

(3) A-Ocellus, B-Compound eye, C-Mandible,

D-Maxilla, E-Labium, F-Labrum B

D-Mandible, E-Labrum, F-Labium

46. The given shows the digestive system of (1) A (2) B

Midgut support framework for epithelium.

BIOLOGY ANSWER KEY

(3) Some members have closed and some have

(3) Mollusca (3) Oil gland at the base of tail

(4) Hemichordata (4) Presence of scales on hind limbs

D Ichthyophis iv Trygon Animal Character Taxa

(4) iii iv v i Skin is moist,

41. Study the given animal and select the correct A B C

(1) It respires by tracheal system

(3) A-Female Ascaris, B-Hirudinaria (leech),

(4) A-Male Ascaris, B-Nereis,

43. Examine the figure A, B and C. In which one

(3) A-Echinus, B-Octopus, C-Ophiura

(4) A-Ophiura, B-Echinus, C-Octopus

Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\BIOLOGY AT ITS PEAK\ZOOLOGY_ENGLISH.P65

BIOLOGY ANSWER KEY

DIGESTION AND ABSORPTION

(d) pH of succus entericus is 1.5 to 3.0. B

(c) Secretion of 11. What is the correct function of enterokinase ?

Option :- A B C D (b) Paneth cells

17. Which of the following is not the function of (I)

(2) In the upper left portion of thoracic cavity

(3) In the upper right portion of abdominal

(4) In the upper left portion of abdominal cavity I

(2) Sub-maxillary glands are situated at the

31. Select the correct option for hepatic lobule

(1) These are structural and functional unit of

(2) Each lobule is covered by a thin connective x

(3) Cells of hepatic lobule synthesize bile juice

(4) All of these

shaped duodenum symbiotic microorganism.

Z:\NODE02\B0B0-BA\BIOLOGY AT ITS PEAK\ZOOLOGY_ENGLISH.P65

BIOLOGY ANSWER KEY

BREATHING AND EXCHANGE OF GASES

(D) Respiratory surface is decreased. A B

Column-I Column-II 7. During the stranceous conditions 100 ml