Technical English 2 (Legal Forms)

(Atty. Juris Giovanni A. De Asis, MPA)

Note: this reviewer contains 100 multiple choice questions which were selected from different sources
like but not limited to (a) Technical English 2 or legal forms books, (b) previous Criminology board
examinations, (c) relevant laws and rules, (d) reviewers of successful board exam passers, (e) online
lectures of different lecturers, and (f) jurisprudence in Remedial law. The questions and choices are
deemed to be the most popular and most likely to be part of your exam based on different sources. All
important concepts about Technical English 2 (Legal Forms) are included.

A board exam coverage “CRIMINAL JURISPRUDENCE, PROCEDURE AND EVIDENCE(20%)”which contains

the subjects Criminal Procedure, Evidence and Court Testimony is also part of this reviewer to better
understand Technical English 2 (legal forms). In the past, some of questions about the aforementioned
subjects asked matters related to Technical English 2 (legal forms), thus, it is important to master this
subject (legal forms). However, if you want to learn more about the other subjects, you should read also
the reviewers given to you by other lecturers.

CRIMINAL PROCEDURE EVIDENCE

LEGAL FORMS

COURT TESTIMONY

A Venn diagram showing the mother subjects of Technical english 2 (Legal Forms). The Mastery of the
subject Technical english 2 (Legal Forms) will help you with above-mentioned board exam subjects.
Questions:

1. These are prototypes of any documents or forms used in a legal transaction or judicial
proceedings, which contain important matters conveyed in technical terminologies and
presented in a suitable and systematic order in accordance with the circumstances of any case.
a. Legal writing
b. Legal forms
c. Legal logic
d. Statutory construction
2. Legal forms include forms in the following, except
a. Ordinary Civil Actions
b. Special Civil Actions
c. Special Proceedings
d. None of the above
3. It is a remedy by which a party seeks to establish a status, a right, or a particular
fact.
a. Ordinary civil actions
b. Criminal actions
c. Special proceedings
d. Special civil action
4. is an informal and summary investigation conducted by a public prosecutor in criminal case
involving persons arrested and detained without the benefit of a warrant of arrest.
a. sworn statement
b. affidavit
c. inquest
d. complaint
5. is a document containing facts related to a legal proceeding made under
oath.
a. sworn statement
b. affidavit
c. inquest
d. complaint
6. These are types of verified, formal sworn statement of fact signed by an affiant or
author, and witnessed by a notary public.
a. sworn statement
b. affidavit
c. inquest
d. complaints
7. A mandate requiring the appearance of the defendant in the action in court under the penalty
of having judgment entered (against him or her) for failure to do so.
a. Judgment
b. Summons
c. affidavit of desistance
d. Trial
8. is a legal and binding document of written testimony of a witness
as a way for evidence to be presented to the court.
a. Affidavit of arrest
b. Affidavit of desistance
 c. Complaint
d. Affidavit of witness
9. A subpoena directed to a person requiring him/her to attend and testify at the hearing or trial of
a case
a. Ad testificandum
b. Search warrant
c. Duces tecum
d. Affidavit
10. A written order for a person to appear in court bringing with him/her personal property
described in that order.
a. Ad testificandum
b. Search warrant
c. Duces tecum
d. Affidavit
11. A written order directed to a peace officer to search for personal property described therein and
bring it before the court.
a. Ad testificandum
b. Search warrant
c. Duces tecum
d. Affidavit
12. The following are parts of an Affidavit of Complaint, except
a. the name of the accused
b. the designation of the offense by the statute
c. the acts or omissions complained of as constituting the offense
d. the place where the accused was born.
13. An affidavit is composed of the following parts, except
a. Attestation
b. Signature
c. Statement of Truth
d. None of the above
14. An affidavit where the complainant states that he/she didn’t really intend to institute the case
and he/she is no longer interested in testifying or prosecuting.
a. Affidavit of arrest
b. Affidavit of desistance
c. Complaint
d. Affidavit of witness
15. This refers to a statement given under oath and penalty under perjury. It states about facts and
circumstances about the arrest, the information which led to the arrest, and the observation
made before and after the arrest. This is filled out by the arresting officer.
a. Affidavit of arrest
b. Affidavit of desistance
c. Complaint
d. Affidavit of witness
16. This is an accusation in writing charging a person with an offense, subscribed by the prosecutor
and filed with the court
a. Complaint
b. Information
c. Subpoena
 d. Affidavit
17. A witness’s sworn out-of-court testimony. It is used to gather information as part of the
discovery process and, in limited circumstances, may be used at trial.
a. Subpoena
b. Deposition of witness
c. Affidavit of witness
d. Affidavit of desistance
18. is a legal filing where a party to a lawsuit requests the court to review a prior decision and
consider issuing a new or different decision in light of that review
a. Motion for reconsideration
b. Attestation
c. Search warrant
d. Deposition of witness
19. One that is executed in accordance with the Code of Commerce or any Mercantile Law,
containing disposition of commercial rights or obligations.
a. Commercial document
b. Holographic wills
c. Notarial wills
d. Private document
20. These statements are correct, except
a. Police reports can serve as raw materials from which record systems can be adopted.
b. Police reports likewise serve as a gauge for good police performance.
c. Police reports make police investigators efficient in their jobs.
d. Police reports can be used for future reference.
21. A formal reading of a criminal charging document in the presence of the defendant, to inform
them of the charges against them. In response to arraignment, the accused is expected to enter
plea.
a. Arraignment
b. Judgment
c. Trial
d. Service of sentence
22. SPO1 (patrolman) Matiyaga was promoted to the next rank by his Commanding Officer, on the
strength of his recommendation. He gave a blow-out to his friends. Three months passed and he
was still receiving the same salary. What form of communication is missing?
a. Memorandum
b. Special order
c. Approval by his CO
d. Written confirmation
23. It explains best what a police report is.
a. daily operational occurrences
b. exact narrations of facts
c. police records
d. reaffirming what took place
24. What is the sworn written statement charging a person with an offense, subscribed by the
offended party, any peace officer or other employee of the government or government
institution in change of the enforcement or execution of the law violated?
a. Deposition
b. Complaint
 c. Police blotter
d. Information
25. For offense falling under the jurisdiction of Municipal Trial Courts and Municipal Circuit trial
courts, prosecution is instituted
a. By filling a compliant with the Regional Trial Court
b. By filing a complaint directly with the court
c. By filling a complaint with the chief of Police in the municipality
d. By filling a complaint with the fiscal for preliminary investigation
26. What should be conducted in order to determine whether a case falls under the jurisdiction of
the regional Trial Court?
a. Inquest proceeding
b. Preliminary conference
c. Preliminary investigation
d. Search and Seizure
27. The nature of complaint against any PNP member is called
a. Individual Complaint
b. Public Complaint
c. Citizen’s Complaint
d. Administrative Complaint
28. This statement is incorrect, except
a. A police report that carries lies or half truth statements is still a police report.
b. A police report can be submitted as time allows.
c. Accurateness of a police report can be based partly on the use of our senses.
d. Adverbs are modifiers.
29. A final police report can only be submitted, and the case considered closed and solved when
suspect was arrested and charged, witnesses are willing to testify in court, and,
a. police investigator was summoned to appear in court.
b. statements taken were corroborated by witnesses
c. evidence were gathered and preserved for the prosecution of the case.
d. Judge to handle the case was already appointed.
30. All statements are incorrect, except
a. the relevance of the police report depends on how it relays the exclusive objective
b. verbs are modifiers
c. keeping an open mind in reporting, makes the report fair
d. sometimes report writers should result to one’s opinion.
31. kind of document executed by a person in authority and by private parties but notarized by
competent officials.
a. private document
b. commercial document
c. public document
d. official document
32. It sets forth the name of the court, the title of the action indicating the names of the parties, and
the docket number which is usually left in blank, as the Clerk of Court has to assign yet a docket
number.
a. Caption
b. Body
c. Prayer
d. Acknowledgement
33. It reflects the designation, the allegations of the party’s claims or defenses.
a. Caption
b. Body
c. Prayer
d. Acknowledgement
34. the specific request for judgment, relief and/or damages at the conclusion of a complaint or
petition.
a. Caption
b. Body
c. Prayer
d. Acknowledgement
35. the written statements of the respective claims and defenses of the parties submitted to the
court for appropriate judgment
a. Pleading
b. Certification against forum shopping
c. Caption
d. Answer
36. is any claim by one party against a co-party arising out of the transaction or occurrence that is
the subject matter either of the original action or of a counterclaim therein. Such cross-claim
may cover all or part of the original claim.
a. Counterclaim
b. Intervention
c. Cross-claim
d. Third-party complaint
37. is any claim which a defending party may have against an opposing party.
a. Counterclaim
b. Intervention
c. Cross-claim
d. Third-party complaint
38. A claim that a defending party may, with leave of court, file against a person not a party to the
action.
a. Counterclaim
b. Intervention
c. Cross-claim
d. Third-party complaint
39. A remedy by which a third party, not originally impleaded in the proceedings, becomes a litigant
therein for a certain purpose: to enable the third party to protect or preserve a right or interest
that may be affected by those proceedings.
a. Counterclaim
b. Intervention
c. Cross-claim
d. Third-party complaint
40. A certification under oath by the plaintiff or principal party in the complaint or other initiatory
pleading asserting a claim for relief or in a sworn certification annexed thereto and
simultaneously filed therewith, that he has not theretofore commenced any action or filed any
claim involving the same issues in any court, tribunal or quasi-judicial agency.
a. Certification against forum shopping
b. Quo warranto
 c. Interpleader
d. Declaratory relief
41. a writ of inquiry that determines whether or not there is legal right to a public office, position, or
franchise and may be instituted against an individual or entity, as the case may be.
a. Certification against forum shopping
b. Quo warranto
c. Interpleader
d. Declaratory relief
42. A remedy whereby a person who has property in his possession or has an obligation to render
wholly or partially, without claiming any right in both, comes to court and asks that the
defendants who have made upon him conflicting claims upon the same property or who
consider themselves entitled to demand compliance with the obligation be required to litigate
among themselves in order to determine who is entitled to the property or payment of the
obligation.
a. Certification against forum shopping
b. Quo warranto
c. Interpleader
d. Declaratory relief
43. An action by any person interested in a deed, will, contract or other written instrument,
executive order or resolution, to determine any question of construction or validity arising from
the instrument, executive order or regulation, or statute, and for a declaration of his rights and
duties thereunder.
a. Certification against forum shopping
b. Quo warranto
c. Interpleader
d. Declaratory relief
44. Right of a government to take ownership of estate assets or unclaimed property when an
individual dies with no will and heirs
a. Escheat
b. Habeas corpus
c. Mandamus
d. Prohibition
45. Writ directed to a person detaining another and commanding that person to produce the body
of the prisoner at a certain time and place and to state the cause of his/her capture and
detention
a. Escheat
b. Habeas corpus
c. Mandamus
d. Prohibition
46. Judicial writ issued as a command to an inferior court or ordering a person to perform a public
or statutory duty
a. Escheat
b. Habeas corpus
c. Mandamus
d. Prohibition
47. An extraordinary remedy available to compel any tribunal, corporation, board, or person
exercising judicial or ministerial functions, to desist from further proceeding in an action or
 matter when the proceedings in such tribunal, corporation, board or person are without or in
excess of jurisdiction or with grave abuse of discretion.
a. Escheat
b. Habeas corpus
c. Mandamus
d. Prohibition
48. Public figure authorized by government to administer oaths, authenticate contracts,
acknowledge deeds, certify documents, etc.
a. Police officer
b. Doctor
c. Notary public
d. Electrician
49. The crimes of adultery and concubinage shall not be prosecuted except upon a complaint
filed by the:
a. Offended children
b. Offended spouse
c. Fiscal
d. Private prosecutor
50. the security given for the release of a person in custody of the law, furnished by
him or a bondsman, to guarantee his appearance before any court.
a. Bribe money
b. Allowance
c. “Padulas”
d. Bail
51. Before or after conviction by the Metropolitan Trial Court, Municipal Trial Court, or Municipal
Circuit Trial Court and before conviction by the Regional Trial Court of an offense not punishable
by death, reclusion perpetua, or life imprisonment all persons in custody shall be admitted to
bail as a matter of:
a. Right
b. Discretion
c. Optional
d. If the price is right
52. It is an offense which, under the law existing at the time of its commission and of the
application for admission to bail may be punished with death.
a. Continuing offense
b. Transitory crime
c. Complex crime
d. Capital offense
53. It is an undertaking constituted as a lien on the real property given as security for the amount of
bail.
a. Cash bond
b. Corporate surety
c. Property bond
d. Recognizance
54. The accused has the right to a public trial. However, the judge may exclude the public from the
courtroom if:
a. the judge wants to sleep first
b. the judge wants to eat first
 c. evidence to be produced is offensive to decency or public morals
d. there is a prejudicial question and the judge wants to review his notes first
55. Jurisdiction of the court over the person of the accused is acquired by the following EXCEPT:
a. upon his voluntary appearance in court
b. upon the arrest of the accused
c. upon his release from detention
d. none of the above
56. Which among the following is (illegal) will not justify arrest without a warrant?
a. Hot pursuit
b. Continuing crime
c. Arrest based on probable cause
d. Mere suspicion
57. An application for or admission to bail shall not bar the accused from challenging the validity of
his arrest or the legality of the warrant issued therefore , or from assailing the absence of a
preliminary investigation, provided that he raises them
a. Before entering his plea
b. Immediately after entering his plea
c. After conviction
d. None of the above
58. Which department or body of the government has the power to order a change of venue of trial
so as to avoid a miscarriage of justice?
a. Supreme court
b. Department of justice
c. Congress
d. Office of the president
59. How do you make an application for search warrant?
a. by motion and set the case for hearing
b. by announcing it on television
c. upon application with the proper court and heard ex parte
d. upon application with the fiscal and heard in chambers
60. The Judiciary Reorganization Act (BP 129) was approved in
a. January 1, 1932
b. November 2, 2019
c. August 14, 1981
d. February 27, 1889.
61. It is an act that EXPANDED the jurisdiction of Regional Trial Courts, Municipal Trial Courts and
other lower courts in the Philippines.
a. RA7691
b. RA7438
c. RA8551
d. RA8485
62. Who acts as the alter ego of the judge who takes charge of the business of the court and
supervises all other court staff?
a. PAO lawyer
b. prosecutor
c. clerk of court
d. chief of police
63. A person lawfully arrested may also be searched for dangerous weapons or anything which may
have been used or constitute proof in the commission of an offense without search warrant.
This describes:
a. search incidental to a lawful arrest
b. “hulidap”
c. search incidental to unlawful arrest
d. None of the above
64. These are facts and circumstances that would lead a reasonably discreet and prudent man to
believe that an offense has been committed and that the object sought to be seized is in the
place sought to be searched.
a. proximate cause
b. probable cause
c. affidavit
d. suspicion
65. In case of heavy work schedule or lack of public prosecutor, the private prosecutor may be
authorized in writing by the __________ to prosecute the case subject to the approval of the
court.
a. chief prosecution office
b. regional state prosecutor
c. judge
d. either a or b
66. It is the taking of a person into custody in order that he may be bound to answer for the
commission of an offense.
a. arrest
b. search
c. seizure
d. custodial investigation
67. It refers to any questioning initiated by law enforcement officers after a person has been taken
into custody otherwise deprived of his freedom of action in any significant way
a. arrest
b. search
c. seizure
d. custodial investigation
68. It pertains to the adjudication by the court that the accused is guilty or not guilty of the offense
charged and the imposition on him of the proper penalty.
a. acquittal
b. armageddon
c. trial
d. judgment
69. When may the court grant a new trial or reconsideration?
a. anytime before judgment of conviction becomes final
b. after judgment of conviction becomes final
c. before pleading to the complaint or information
d. before the accused begins to serve his sentence
70. There are three (3) types of criminal procedure which among the following is NOT one of
them?
a. accusatorial
b. inquisitorial
 c. industrial
d. mixed
71. Factum probans means
a. preponderance of evidence
b. ultimate fact
c. evidentiary fact
d. sufficiency of evidence
72. The place of trial or geographical location in which an action or proceeding should be brought.
a. jurisdiction
b. jurisprudence
c. venue
d. Prison
73. The process whereby the accused and the prosecutor in a criminal case work out a mutually
satisfactory disposition on the case subject to court approval.
a. Arraignment
b. plea bargaining
c. preliminary investigation
d. trial
74. It is an inquiry or proceeding for the purpose of determining whether there is sufficient ground
to engender a well founded belief that an offense has been committed and the offender is
probably guilty thereof and should be held for trial.
a. pre-trial
b. arraignment
c. preliminary investigation
d. plea bargaining
75. A form of evidence supplied by written instruments or derived from conventional symbols, such
as letters, by which ideas are represented on material substances.
a. documentary evidence
b. testimonial evidence
c. material evidence
d. real evidence
76. It means as the power to try and decide, or hear and determine a cause.
a. Court
b. Jail
c. Jurisdiction
d. Justice
77. Is the course of action or process whereby accusations are brought before a court of justice to
determine the innocence or guilt of the accused?
a. Trial
b. Prosecution
c. Pre-trial
d. Arraignment
78. is a logbook with hard bound cover that contains the daily register of all crime incident reports,
official summary of arrests and other significant events reported in a police station.
a. Police blotter
b. Legal forms
c. Judgment
d. Affidavit
79. evidenced addressed to the senses of the court that are capable of being exhibited, examined or
viewed by the court. This includes but not limited to fingerprints, body fluid, explosives,
hazardous chemicals, soil/burned debris, bombs, electronic parts used in the commission of the
crime.
a. testimonial evidence
b. material evidence
c. real evidence
d. Physical evidence
80. A kind of document which is executed by a private person without the intervention of a notary
public, or of competent public official, by which some disposition of agreement is proved.
a. commercial document
b. official document
c. public document
d. private document
81. A kind of evidence which proves the fact in issue without aid of inference or presumptions.
a. Competent evidence
b. Character evidence
c. Corroborative evidence
d. Direct evidence
82. An evidence which is not excluded by law
a. Competent evidence
b. Character evidence
c. Corroborative evidence
d. Direct evidence
83. A term used in the law of evidence to describe any testimony or document submitted for the
purpose of proving that a person acted in a particular way on a particular occasion based on the
character or disposition of that person.
a. Competent evidence
b. Character evidence
c. Corroborative evidence
d. Direct evidence
84. An evidence that strengthens or confirms already existing evidence.
a. Competent evidence
b. Character evidence
c. Corroborative evidence
d. Direct evidence
85. It provides that the rights of a party cannot be prejudiced by an act, declaration, or omission of
another
a. “Res Inter Alios Acta” Rule
b. Testimonial evidence
c. Hearsay evidence
d. Best evidence rule
86. It consists of statements that are made in court by witnesses and that are offered as proof of the
matter asserted, or of what is being discussed.
a. “Res Inter Alios Acta” Rule
b. Testimonial evidence
c. Hearsay evidence
d. Best evidence rule
87. An evidence of a statement that was made other than by a witness while testifying at the
hearing and that is offered to prove the truth of the matter stated.
a. “Res Inter Alios Acta” Rule
b. Testimonial evidence
c. Hearsay evidence
d. Best evidence rule
88. It states that a party seeking to prove the content of a writing, recording, or photograph must
produce the original unless an exception applies.
a. “Res Inter Alios Acta” Rule
b. Testimonial evidence
c. Hearsay evidence
d. Best evidence rule
89. The authority of the court to take cognizance of a case in the first instance is known as
a. original jurisdiction
b. appellate jurisdiction
c. general jurisdiction
d. delegated jurisdiction
90. The legal authority of a court to entertain whatever type of case comes up within the
geographical area over which its power extends.
a. original jurisdiction
b. appellate jurisdiction
c. general jurisdiction
d. delegated jurisdiction
91. A kind of jurisdiction which gives a court the power to reverse or modify the the lower court's
decision
a. original jurisdiction
b. appellate jurisdiction
c. general jurisdiction
d. delegated jurisdiction
92. The idea that the requisite elements of a crime must be proven before an individual can be
convicted of committing the crime.
a. Physical evidence
b. Direct evidence
c. Corpus delicti
d. Testimonial evidence
93. The person who issues a warrant of arrest
a. The president
b. Police officer
c. Judge
d. Pilot
94. Failure to appear in court after receiving a subpoena will subject a person to the following
punishments except
a. Contempt of court
b. Arrest
c. Fines
d. Physical labor
95. The following are official notices for the appearance of a person in court at a specific
time and place except
 a. Summons
b. Subpoena
c. Appearance notice
d. Notice of appeal
96. Which statement is not true about warrant of arrest?
a. Clerks of court may issue warrant of arrest.
b. A warrant of arrest has a prescriptive period.
c. Private persons are authorized to effect warrantless arrest.
d. Police officers can execute both warrantless arrest and arrest with warrant.
97. An information refers to an accusation in writing charging a person with an offense,
subscribed by the prosecutor and filed with the ______.
a. Chief of police
b. Department of justice
c. Court
d. President
98. In taking sworn statements, the police officer should comply with _________ of the 1987
Constitution. It states that “any person under custodial investigation for the commission of an
offense shall have the right to remain silent and to have a competent and independent counsel.
He / she must be provided with one. These rights cannot be waived except in writing and in the
presence of counsel. No torture, force or violence, threat, intimidation or any means which
influences the free will shall be used against him/her. Secret detention places, solitary,
incommunicado, or other similar forms of detention are prohibited.
a. Section 12, Article lll
b. Section 1, Art. III
c. Section 12, Article VI
d. Section 2, Article VIII
99. It is a written, out-of-court statement taken before a notary public or any person authorized to
administer oath.
a. Judicial affidavit
b. Complaint
c. Information
d. Subpoena
100. Affidavit of Arresting Officers, affidavit of Complaint, affidavit of witness, application for
Search Warrant, complaint, information, and deposition of witness are examples of
a. Legal forms
b. Court decisions
c. Business forms
d. Laws

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