CHST

Date:01/25/14
CHSTprep V2.0
Question Number: 1
PROGRAM MANAGEMENT :Site Safety & Contract Specs
When designing a safety program, it is essential that psychological factors like individual differences, motivation,
emotion, attitudes and _____________ be considered.
1) Reward
2) Punishment
3) Learning
4) Negativism
The correct answer is: 3
Learning underlies much of what makes for differences and similarities among people. Through learning, people have
developed certain kinds of psychological needs, habitual patterns of behavior, ways of reacting to emotion, and the
attitudes which brought them into the workplace. It is essential to consider learning because training is a major
consideration in safety programming.
Copyright 2013, DataChem Software, Westboro, MA
Question Number: 2
In organizing and implementing a successful safety and loss control program, it is essential that you:
1) Obtain adequate funding.

2) Get top management support and participation.
3) Acquire an environmental health and safety staff.
4) Promulgate a formal safety policy and program to support it.
An effective safety program must begin at the top. Only top management can assign the responsibility for safety and
loss control and ensure its performance. Also, top management can implement the controls of the workplace
environment along with worker operations that will control accidents.
Question Number: 3
The least likely reason accidents generally occur is a result of:

1) Personality factors.
2) Environmental factors.
3) Physical limitations.
4) Lack of a safety policy or program.
Accident causation is very diverse, but generally each accident is a result of a combination of factors.
Question Number: 4
Section 5(a)(1) of the OSH Act:
1) Gives OSHA the RIGHT OF ENTRY.

2) Defines responsibility for research.
3) Is the GENERAL DUTY CLAUSE.
4) Both 1 and 3
Section 5(a)(1) of the OSHA Act covers the GENERAL DUTY CLAUSE and specifies the requirement that
employers keep their workplaces free from recognized serious hazards.
Question Number: 5
The following clause from the OSH Act of 1970 is known as: "...of employment which are free from recognized
hazards that are causing or likely to cause death or serious physical harm to his employees."
1) "Recognized Hazard Clause"

2) "General Duty Clause"
3) "OSHA General Hazard Clause"
4) "Death or Injury Clause"
This clause gives OSHA broad ranging regulatory license. It is known as the "General Duty Clause." If there is a
serious hazard for which OSHA does not have a specific standard, it (OSHA) can cite the employer using the General
Duty Clause and require the hazard to be abated.
Question Number: 6
What is the most important factor in accident prevention?
1) Written program
2) Training
3) Safety Engineers
4) Management support
The most critical element of any accident prevention program is management support. Without this support the
program cannot succeed.
Question Number: 7
Which of the following sections of the 1970 Occupational Safety and Health Act is referred to as the General Duty
Clause?
1) 29 CFR 1910
2) 11(c)
3) 5(a)(1)
4) 29 CFR 1926
The General Duty Clause in the OSHA Act is 5(a)(1).
Question Number: 8
The term "cradle to grave" is associated with what legislative act?

1) TSCA
2) RCRA
3) HMTA
4) SARA
The Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976 as amended by the Solid Waste Disposal Act Amendments of
1980 and the Hazardous and Solid Waste Amendments of 1984 establishes a comprehensive program for Federal and
State regulation of solid waste management and disposal. The manifest system ( 40 CFR 262 Subpart B) as part of the
"cradle to grave" program tracks shipments of hazardous waste from the generator through the transporter to the
treatment, storage, or disposal facility.
Question Number: 9
Community Right-To-Know is associated with what legislative act?
1) CERCLA
2) RCRA
3) SARA TITLE III
4) TSCA
The Superfund Amendments and Reauthorization Act (SARA) Title III (The Emergency Planning and Community
Right-To-Know Act of 1986) sets extensive reporting requirements and requires emergency planning for over 360
extremely hazardous substances. The purpose of SARA Title III is to ensure a free flow of accurate information with
the community so that an appropriate emergency response can be planned and executed.
Question Number: 10
The Asbestos Hazard Emergency Response Act :
1) Is Title II of CERCLA.
2) Is Title II of TSCA.
3) Requires the removal of ACM from all school buildings.
4) Regulates ACM in all public and privately owned buildings.

The AHERA regulations found at 40 CFR Part 763-Subpart E apply to school buildings. However, such regulations do
not mandate removal of all asbestos from school buildings.
Question Number: 11
SPCC Plans apply to which type(s) of facilities?
1) Hazardous waste TSD facilities

2) Large quantities hazardous waste generators
3) Petroleum storage facilities, with certain exceptions
4) Any facility where hazardous substances are stored in amounts exceeding their respective reportable quantities
SPCC plan requirements under the Clean Water Act are currently applicable to non-transportation related oil storage
facilities. The regulatory provisions are found at 40 CFR Part 112. Hazardous waste generators and TSD facilities
come under RCRA contingency plan requirements, although they could be subject to SPCC requirements for virgin or
waste oil storage.
Question Number: 12
The "Cradle to Grave" aspects of the RCRA program refer to:
1) Regulation of hazardous wastes from the point of generation through their ultimate disposal.
2) An extensive network of government-owned and operated treatment facilities.
3) Requirements to pay Federal environmental taxes on the purchase of hazardous chemicals and the land disposal of
hazardous wastes.
4) Extensive requirements for health and safety, including medical monitoring of those employees handling
hazardous chemicals and/or hazardous wastes.
The RCRA regulations establishing cradle to grave control of hazardous wastes are found at 40 CFR Parts 260-271.

Question Number: 13
Anticipating and controlling hazards are best accomplished:
1) Twenty-four hours following a workplace inspection.

2) Any time before a pilot process is closed to production.
3) At all design stages of an activity.
4) After an accident has occurred.
Anticipating and controlling hazards at the design stages of an activity is the cornerstone of a safety program. The
ultimate goal for any safety program (occupation, systems, product) is to design environments and equipment and to
set up job procedures so that employee exposure to injury will be either eliminated or controlled as completely as
possible.
Question Number: 14
Why is it a good idea to have a formal safety and health statement of policy?
1) Safety and health should be of primary concern to everybody.

2) It is the starting point for all activities in the safety and health program.
3) It expresses management's attitude toward safety and health.
4) It publicizes the safety and health function.
The formal safety and health statement of policy is an endorsement of top management's commitment and support. It
is management's expression of the direction to be followed.
Question Number: 15
A safety program begins by:
1) Developing a policy statement.

2) Assuring compliance with all OSHA standards.
3) Soliciting support of the Facilities Department.
4) Training all employees.
Management must develop a policy statement that clearly defines managements support and the role each member of
the organization must take.
Question Number: 16
As manager, how would you discipline a minor rule infraction?
1) Oral reprimand
2) Written reprimand
3) Ignore it
4) Suspension
The most logical way to deal with a minor rule infraction is some sort of oral reprimand for the first offense.
Question Number: 17
What is the key to effective safety management?
1) Compliance with OSHA standards

2) Establishing accountability
3) Engineering control of workplace hazards
4) Safety committees
Management must hold supervisors accountable for the unsafe acts committed by the employees they supervise.
Question Number: 18
Large companies institute fleet safety programs:
1) To prevent accidents.
2) To control insurance costs.
3) For public relations purposes.
4) Because it is the right thing to do.
The primary reason for a fleet safety program is to prevent accidents. Additional benefits quick to follow the control
of accidents is meeting its moral obligation to the employee and to the public. Control of accidents has a direct affect
upon insurance premiums which fluctuate with accident frequency and dollar losses sustained by the fleet.
Question Number: 19
In what ways should safety be managed differently from other company functions?
1) Cannot set goals

2) Personal contacts are more important
3) Budget support is not there
4) Safety is not managed differently
The management of a safety program should not differ from any other program -- set goals and plan, organize and
control to achieve them. The more the safety program's goals and management style are understood the more support
there will be for the program.
Question Number: 20
Which of the following components is fundamental in evaluating the success of any management program?
1) A clear presentation of the program results

2) The clear definition of the goals and priorities necessary to manage the program
3) The unit cost of the program results
4) The measurement of the program results against accepted criteria

Whether the management program is an operations, maintenance, or safety program, the fundamental component
necessary to evaluate the success of the program is the comparison of the results against the accepted criteria. The
other items are useful, but success is based on achieving the desired results.
Question Number: 21
A clause in a contract in which one party agrees to assume liabilities, losses, or expenses of another is known as a:
1) Deductible clause.
2) Hold harmless agreement.
3) Exemption.
4) Assumption of risk clause.
This type of agreement is known as a "hold harmless agreement".
Question Number: 22
The elements of a contract include all of the following EXCEPT:
1) Competent parties
2) Subject matter
3) Mutuality of agreement
4) Monetary duty
The elements of a contract include: competent parties, subject matter, legal consideration, mutuality of agreement, and
mutuality of obligation.
Question Number: 23
Contract employers have specific responsibilities under the OSHA Process Safety Standard. Among these
responsibilities are the following with the exception of:
1) Assure employees are trained in work practices

2) Assure employees are instructed in Emergency Action Plan
3) Conduct process hazard analysis of contract work
4) Advise facility employer of unique hazards discovered
The contract employer is not required to perform the process hazard analysis. It is the employer who owns the
applicable process responsibility to conduct the process hazard analysis. The other answers are contract employer
responsibilities.
Question Number: 24
Your firm has hired a general contractor to manage all phases of a building construction project on your facility. From
a job-site safety perspective, which of the following are considered subcontractors?
1) The firm from whom the general contractor rents the construction trailers
2) The firm that supplies the general contractor with custom-fabricated ventilation ducts for the building's air
handling system
3) The firm that supplies the general contractor with standard pre-stressed concrete beams for the building's structure
4) The firm that provides on-call confined space rescue services for the general contractor
29 CFR 1926.13 (c) clearly defines a subcontractor as a person or firm that provides custom-fabricated construction
items for a specific construction project.
Question Number: 25
In addition to emergency fire safety plans, fire protection equipment should be provided. Which of the following is
most correct?
1) Fire protection equipment is required at all worksites. As soon as the project has advanced to the state of being
able to trap a worker in a fire situation, fire extinguishers must be placed in strategic locations.
2) Fire protection equipment is required at all worksites. When a fire department is immediately available, no further
equipment is required.
3) Fire protection equipment is required at all worksites. The placement of fire extinguishers, along with a local fire
department provides adequate protection to prevent any loss of life.
4) Fire protection equipment is required at all worksites. The equipment required may range from fire extinguishers
to standpipe and hose system with the water supply to support it.
Fire protection equipment is required at all worksites whenever there are workers present, regardless of the state of the
project. The minimum requirement is to provide fire extinguishers in accordance with NFPA 10. Additional
requirements may exist depending on the individual circumstance of the project.
Goetsch, D. L.(2003). Construction Safety and Health. Upper Saddle River, NJ: Prentice Hall. 211.
Question Number: 26
There are four classes of fires. Class D fires are:
1) Fires involving combustible metals such as magnesium and sodium.

2) Fires in wiring, fuse boxes, energized electrical equipment, computers, and other electrical sources.
3) Fires in oils, gasoline, some paints, lacquers, grease, solvents, and other flammable liquids.
4) Fires in paper, cloth, wood, rubber, and many plastics.
Class D fires consist of fires involving combustible metals such as magnesium and sodium.
Goetsch, D. L.(2003). Construction Safety and Health. Upper Saddle River, NJ: Prentice Hall.
Question Number: 27
Construction scrap and waste materials must be removed from the immediate work area as work progresses. Work is
progressing on the 4 th floor of a new structure. Waste materials can be best removed by:
1) Providing an enclosed chute to allow wastes to be dropped to an appropriate waste dumpster at ground level.
th
2) Designating and barricading a waste collection site at ground level and clearly indicating at the 4 floor level
where waste should be dropped to the area below.
3) Ensuring that all waste material is carefully carried down the ladder to prevent hazards from falling objects.
th
4) Providing a waste dumpster on the 4 floor level.
Waste materials must be removed from the immediate work area as work progresses. When debris and waste is
dropped from heights greater than 20 feet, an enclosed chute must be provided.
Question Number: 28
A typical three wire electrical circuit is color coded. Typical color coding is which of the following?
1) The black wire is the current carrying wire, the neutral wire is green and the ground wire is bare.
2) The white wire is the current carrying wire, the neutral wire is red and the ground wire is green.
3) The black wire is the current carrying wire, the neutral wire is white and the ground wire is green.
4) The black wire is the current carrying wire, the neutral wire is white and the ground wire is red.
The current carrying wire is black or red, the neutral wire is white and ground wire is green or bare.
Question Number: 29
Electrical equipment will continue to operate if:
1) The neutral wire is disconnected.

2) The current carrying wire is disconnected.
3) The ground wire is disconnected.
4) The current carrying wire is shorted to ground.

The ground wire is not necessary to complete the circuit with the load of the electrical equipment. Electrical
equipment can be operated with the ground wire disconnected. An example of this would be when the third prong on a
three wire extension cord is missing.
Question Number: 30
Guarding of energized electrical parts is the primary method of protecting workers from electrical hazards. Guarding is
required for:
1) Energized parts carrying 50 volts or greater and, in areas where there is standing water, energized parts carrying
greater than 12.5 volts.
2) All energized parts.
3) Energized parts carrying 50 volts or greater.
4) Energized parts carrying 100 volts or greater.
Energized parts carrying 50 volts or more must be guarded to prevent accidental contact.
Question Number: 31
The leading causes of employee injuries on scaffolds are which of the following?
I. Planking and support failure

II. Slipping
III. Misconduct of the injured employee
IV. Impact of falling objects
V. Safety belt failure
1) I and II
2) I, II, and III
3) I, II, and IV
4) I, II, and V

Most scaffolding-related injuries are caused by planking failure, support failure, slipping and impact of a falling
object.
Question Number: 32
A platform supported by hangers (stirrups) suspended by two ropes from overhead supports and equipped with a
means to permit the platform to be raised and lowered is a:
1) Catenary suspended scaffold.

2) Two-point (swing stage) suspended scaffold.
3) Needle Beam suspended scaffold.
4) Multi-point Adjustable suspended scaffold.
A two-point (swing stage) suspended scaffold is a platform supported by hangers (stirrups) suspended by two ropes
from overhead supports and equipped with a means to permit the platform to be raised and lowered.
(2006). OSHA Scaffolding. OSHA eTool: Scaffolding. Retrieved 3/18/06.

Question Number: 33
A platform suspended by one rope from an overhead support and equipped with a means to permit the platform to be
moved to desired working levels is a:
1) Single-point Adjustable suspended scaffold.

Single-point adjustable is a platform suspended by one rope from an overhead support and equipped with a means to
permit the platform to be moved to desired working levels.

Question Number: 34
A platform supported by two essentially horizontal and parallel ropes attached to structural members of a building is
called a(n):
1) Interior Hung suspended scaffold.

Catenary suspended scaffold is a platform supported by two essentially horizontal and parallel ropes attached to
structural members of a building. Additional vertical pickups may also provide support.

Question Number: 35
A platform(s) suspended by more than two ropes from overhead supports and equipped with a means to permit the
platform to be raised and lowered is a(n):

Multi-point Adjustable suspended scaffold is a platform(s) suspended by more than two ropes from overhead supports
and equipped with a means to permit the platform to be raised and lowered. It includes chimney hoists.
Question Number: 36
A platform suspended from the ceiling or roof structure by fixed-length supports is a(n):

4) Float suspended scaffold
An interior hung suspended scaffold is a platform suspended from the ceiling or roof structure by fixed-length
supports.
Question Number: 37
A platform suspended from needle beams is a(n):

The needle beam suspended scaffold is a platform suspended from needle beams.

Question Number: 38
A two-point or multi-point adjustable suspension scaffold with a series of platforms at various levels resting on
common stirrups is a(n):

4) Multi-level suspended scaffold.
A multi-level suspended scaffold is a two-point or multi-point adjustable suspension scaffold with a series of
platforms at various levels resting on common stirrups.

Question Number: 39
A braced platform resting on two parallel bearers and hung from overhead supports by ropes of fixed length is a(n):
1) Float suspended scaffold.

3) Multi-level suspended scaffold.
A float (ship) suspended scaffold is a braced platform resting on two parallel bearers and hung from overhead
supports by ropes of fixed length.

Question Number: 40
Supported scaffolds are required to support their own weight plus:
1) Ten times the intended load.

2) Six times the intended load.
3) 2.5 times the 300 pounds for each worker that will be on the scaffold.
4) Four times the intended load.

Supported scaffolds are required to support their own weight plus four times their maximum intended weight.
Maximum intended weight includes all persons, materials and equipment.
Question Number: 41
Suspended scaffolds are required to support their own weight plus:
1) Six times the intended load.

2) Ten times the intended load.
3) Five times the intended load.
4) 2.5 times the 300 pounds for each worker that will be on the scaffold.
Suspended scaffolds are required to support their own weight plus 6 times their maximum intended weight. Maximum
intended weight includes all persons, materials and equipment.
Question Number: 42
Scaffolding platforms are required to be constructed within certain constraints, with few exceptions. The allowable
gap between planking is:
1) 0.5 inches.
2) 1 inch..
3) 2 inches.
4) 2.5 inches.
Planking on scaffolding must be placed such that gaps between planks are no more than one inch wide. The one inch
maximum gap can only be exceeded in order to fit around supporting structures or other situations where an
alternative method is not available.
Question Number: 43
Scaffold widths, with few exceptions, must be:
1) 12 inches wide.
2) At least 18 inches wide.
3) Hip width.
4) Shoulder width.
Most scaffold walkways and platforms are supposed to be a minimum of 18 inches wide. When the area is too narrow
to provide adequate space, workers must be protected by guardrails or fall arrest systems. Pump jack scaffolds, top
plate brackets and ladder jack scaffolds may be a minimum of 12 inches wide.
Question Number: 44
When guard rails or fall arrest systems are not provided, the front edge of the scaffold must be _____________ away
from the face of the structure, with few exceptions.
1) Flush.
2) 12 inches.
3) 14 inches.
4) 18 inches.
The front edge of a scaffold must be within 14 inches of the face of the structure. Alternatively, guard rails or fall
arrest systems may be used. Outrigger scaffolds are required to be within 3 inches and scaffolds for plastering and
lathing are allowed up to 18 inches.
Question Number: 45
A widely recognized protocol utilized to prevent the transmission of the HIV virus is called:
1) Aids quarantine.
2) Universal precautions.
3) Aids awareness.
4) HBV vaccination.
The terminology "universal precautions" is a set of work practices adopted by health care and related workers to
prevent the spread of the HIV and other pathogenic organisms.
29 CFR 1910.1030 (d)(1)
Question Number: 46
PRP is an acronym for:
1) Perpetually Responsible Party.

2) Potentially Responsible Party.
3) Principal's Responsibility Provision.
4) Person Receiving Prison (Sentence).
PRP has become a common term in the discussion of responsibility for environmental contamination. In the United
States, the EPA allows the use of the word "potentially" in front of the term "responsible party" in the CERCLA
context.
Question Number: 47
Joint and several liability defines a scope of liability in the United States. The practical meaning of joint and several
liability is best described as:
1) All responsible parties must jointly contribute to clean-up costs, to the extent of their volumetric share of the
wastes at the site.
2) Each and every responsible party could be held individually liable for the entire cost of the clean-up.
3) NPL sites where there are multiple responsible parties must act jointly, through generator committees, to severally
apportion costs amongst themselves.
4) EPA must allocate costs among responsible parties in a manner that reflects both the volume and toxicity of their
wastes, as well as the difficulty of clean-up.
The liability provisions under Section 107 of CERCLA are strict, joint and several, and retroactive in application.
Question Number: 48
Strict liability can refer to the standard of liability in the United States. The practical implications of strict liability in
cases of environmental contamination are best described as:
1) The liability applies regardless of fault, and the government does not have to prove intent or negligence on the part
of the responsible party.
2) Compliance with laws and regulations in effect at the time of disposal does not matter.
3) The government does not need to prove that a responsible party's waste at the site actually was released or caused
harm.
4) All of the above
The liability provisions of CERCLA are found at Section 107, and are strict, joint and several, and retroactive.
Question Number: 49
A standard that specifies an objective to be obtained but does not require a specific method is called a:
1) Design standard.
2) Performance standard.
3) Vertical standard.
4) Horizontal standard.

A performance standard sets the objective to be obtained but leaves the details of how to achieve the objective up to
the company or organization.
Question Number: 50
You have been assigned to supervise a construction project in a state other than your own. You have never worked in
the state before and ask a colleague what you should know about occupational safety regulations in the state. Your
colleague tells you not to worry, "the state has an approved state plan with OSHA." This means that:
1) The state has been granted authority to accept and approve safety and health plans from companies working within
the state. As long as a company has an approved plan, OSHA will not inspect the company's work sites.
2) The state has been granted authority to enact regulations, independent of federal regulations and enforce those
regulations.
3) State employees and work sites are exempt from federal OSHA regulations when the state has an approved state
plan.
4) The state has been granted authority to implement and enforce an occupational safety and health program in place
of the federal program.
The state has been granted authority to implement and enforce an occupational safety and health program in place of
the federal program. The state is required to implement regulations that are equal to the federal regulations. States are
also required to apply the state occupational safety and health programs to state employees and work sites.
Hagan, Philip E., et.al., (2009). Accident Prevention Manual for Business & Industry: Administration & Programs,
13th Edition. Itasca, IL: National Safety Council. 329.
Question Number: 51
The United States federal agency tasked with responsibility for overseeing and enforcing safety and health in
businesses is:
1) OSHA.
2) FDA.
3) EPA.
4) MSHA.
The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) is the federal agency tasked with overseeing and
enforcing safety and health in U.S. businesses.
Most countries have an equivalent government organization.
The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) is the federal agency tasked with overseeing and enforcing safety and
health of food and drug products.
The Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) is the federal agency tasked with overseeing and enforcing protection of
the environment.
The Mine Safety and Health Administration (MSHA) is tasked with overseeing and enforcing safety and health of
U.S. miners.
Question Number: 52
There are a number of United States federal agencies that regulate the use of radioactive materials in the work
environment. These agencies include:
1) FDA, OSHA, EEOC

2) EPA, OSHA, USAID
3) CFTC, NRC
4) OSHA, NRC
OSHA and NRC are the primary regulating agencies for the use of radioactive materials at the work site.
OSHA - Occupation Safety and Health Administration.

NRC - Nuclear Regulatory Commission
EPA - Environmental Protection Agency
EEOC - Equal Employment Opportunity Commission
USAID - Agency for International Development
CFTC - Commodity Futures Trading Commission
FDA - Food and Drug Administration
ICRP - International Commission on Radiological Protection
Question Number: 53
The OSH Act and OSHA regulations and standards provide for a series of:
1) Employer and employee rights and responsibilities.
2) Employer responsibilities and employee rights.
3) Employer responsibilities.
4) Employer responsibilities to provide for the rights given employees.
The OSH Act and regulations provide for both employer and employee rights and responsibilities.
Different countries will have similar laws and regulations establishing varying duties and responsibilities between
employers and employees.
Question Number: 54
Construction activities that involve the renovation or demolition of existing facilities often have unique hazards as a
result of the previous construction operations and maintenance. One unique consideration is equipment containing
ozone depleting substances. When removing old equipment that may contain an ozone depleting substance you must:
1) Notify the regional office of the appropriate regulatory authority to request a certified specialist for removal of the
ozone depleting substance.
2) Use a properly trained and/or certified worker who uses certified recycling and recovery equipment to remove any
ozone depleting substances.
3) Carefully remove the equipment without releasing the ozone depleting substance and send the equipment to a
landfill with the capability of removing the ozone depleting substance.
4) Release the ozone depleting substance slowly through a brazing torch to ensure that the ozone depleting substance
is destroyed when released.
Ozone depleting substances in equipment that will no longer be used must be removed by a properly trained and/or
certified worker using certified recycling and recovery equipment. Release of ozone depleting substance contributed to
the degradation of the ozone layer in the atmosphere.
EPA: (2005). Managing Your Environmental Responsibilities: A Planning Guide for Construction. Washington, DC:
U.S. Government Printing Office.64.
Question Number: 55
Misfires involving cap and fuse shall not be handled and shall be isolated for at least:
1) 10 minutes.
2) 45 minutes.
3) 1 hour.
4) 8 hours.
Misfires present a considerable hazard.
If a misfire is found, the blaster shall provide proper safeguards for excluding all employees from the danger
zone.
No other work shall be done except that necessary to remove the hazard of the misfire and only those employees
necessary to do the work shall remain in the danger zone.
No attempt shall be made to extract explosives from any charged or misfired hole; a new primer shall be put in
and the hole re-blasted. If refiring of the misfired hole presents a hazard, the explosives may be removed by
washing out with water or, where the misfire is under water, blown out with air.
If there are any misfires while using cap and fuse, all employees shall remain away from the charge for at least 1
hour. Misfires shall be handled under the direction of the person in charge of the blasting. All wires shall be
carefully traced and a search made for unexploded charges.
No drilling, digging, or picking shall be permitted until all missed holes have been detonated or the authorized
representative has approved that work can proceed.
(1996). OSHA Construction - Blasting. OSHA Const. Safety Outreach Program: Blasting. Retrieved 9/1/2010.
Question Number: 56
The point where the blade of a table saw engages the wood to be cut is called the:
1) Cut point.
2) Pinch point.
3) Hazard area.
4) Point of operation.
The point of operation is the area on a machine where work is performed. [1910.212(a)(3)(i)]
(2010). OSHA Machine Guarding eTool. OSHA Machine Guarding eTool. Retrieved 9/1/2010.
Question Number: 57
Fundamental in negotiation (in any situation) is understanding:
1) The education and experience background of the one representing the other side .
2) The basic perspective of the other position .
3) How you yourself are perceived by the one representing the other side.
4) All of the above
When entering into a negotiation, you will be unable to come to a win-win arrangement until you understand the basic
perspective of the other side. Sometimes, both sides realize that each shares each other's perspective, and the
negotiation proceeds very smoothly. When this common understanding is missing, the negotiation can become
adversarial.
Question Number: 58
Management accountability means all of the following EXCEPT:
1) Managers and supervisors have the most influence on management systems and must change them when they are
found to be working inadequately.
2) Managers and supervisors are accountable for their line employees' safety and safety performance, and such
accountability is manifested in the managers' and supervisors' performance appraisals.
3) Managers and supervisors are accountable for the costs associated with risk management as well as the cost of
losses.
4) Managers and supervisors are accountable for their line employees' safety while off duty.
Though management accountability does not follow employees when they leave for home, a well-designed safety and
health program will influence employees to live and work safely outside of the workplace.
Question Number: 59
When designing a safety program, it is essential that psychological factors like individual differences, motivation,
emotion, attitudes, and ________________ be considered.
1) Reward
2) Punishment
3) Learning
4) Negativism
Question Number: 60
TRADITIONAL safety program components utilized to influence employee attitudes and behavior are identified with:
1) Written procedures.
2) Posters, booklets, awards.
3) Education and training.
4) Provision of free personal protective equipment.
Traditional safety programs attempt to communicate with employees for the purpose of motivating them to change
their attitudes, or better yet, their behavior. To do this, posters, booklets, slide shows, displays, signs, bulletin boards,
awards, dinners, and prizes are utilized.
Question Number: 61
Safety behavior modification programs have the following purpose:
1) Eliminate unsafe acts

2) Increase safe acts
3) Both 1 and 2
4) None of the above
Behavior modification programs generally try to eliminate unsafe acts and increase safe acts.
Peterson, Dan (2001). Safety Management: A Human Approach3rd Edition. American Society of Safety Engineers.
Question Number: 62
A pattern of behavior associated with a distinctive social position is commonly referred to as a:
1) Status
2) Role
3) Class
4) Caste
Each society has many social categories which are referred to as roles, of which; each is associated with a particular
behavioral pattern.
Question Number: 63
In occupational safety, ________________ are particularly important from the point of view of hazard identification
and recognition through various warning systems.
1) Anthropometric considerations
2) Visual displays
3) Population stereotypes
4) Codings
In the man-machine system, man functions as a controller. For many situations, a generalized response is given, like
expecting a light switch to be turned on with an upward movement and off with a downward movement, or turning a
dial clockwise to obtain an increase. Such responses are called population stereotypes, a behavioral response common
to nearly everyone in a certain population.
Question Number: 64
In behavioral terms, "ABC" refers to:
1) Activator, behavior, consequence.

2) Attitude, behavior, consequence.
3) A nice way of saying, "keep it simple stupid".
4) The ease with which people's behavior can be understood.
ABC refers to the activator, behavior, consequence model of behavior.
Geller, E. Scott (1996). The Psychology Of Safety. Chilton Book Co.
Question Number: 65
Behavior is most influenced by:
1) Activators
2) Consequences
3) Discipline
4) Feedback
While all four answers have an impact on behavior, consequences, in general, have the most impact. Discipline and
feedback can be considered types of consequences, but there are others to be considered including positive
reinforcement and reward.
Question Number: 66
A supervisor's job responsibilities include the "3-E's" principles. Which of the following would NOT be included
under the "3-E's"?
1) Making sure employees comply with safety rules and procedures
2) Instructing employees how to work safely
3) Establishing a safety program
4) Determining ways for eliminating injury/illness potential from the job
The supervisor's job involves:
ENGINEERING - to determine the most effective way of doing the job and designing the injury/illness potential out
of the job.
EDUCATION - to instruct the employee in the right method, and through training, improve job skill, knowledge, and
behavior.
ENFORCEMENT - to ensure the employee follows the prescribed work practice and complies with safety rules and
procedures.
Question Number: 67
Experience has indicated that the most effective way to reduce accidents is:
1) Training employees to be more safety conscious.

2) Behavior modification.
3) Designing safety features into systems.
4) Job rotation.
Hazards can be more effectively reduced or eliminated through system design, whereas hazard reduction through
changing human behavior is limited and requires continuous reinforcement.
Question Number: 68
In the analysis of variance:

1) The total sum of squares of deviations from the grand mean is equal to the sum of squares of deviations between
treatment means and the grand mean minus the sum of squares of deviations within treatments.
2) The total standard deviation is equal to the sum of the standard deviation for the treatment effect plus the standard
deviation of the random error.
3) The degrees of freedom are additive.
4) A basic population model can be constructed to represent the behavior of the experimentation.
The degrees of freedom for the treatments plus the degrees of freedom for the error will sum to the total degrees of
freedom.
Question Number: 69
As an effective manager, how would you discipline an employee's first minor safety rule infraction?
1) Oral reprimand
2) Written reprimand
3) Ignore it
4) Suspension
The most logical way to deal with a minor rule infraction is some sort of oral reprimand for the first offense. Ignoring
it will not cause a change in employee behavior, and a formal reprimand/suspension will likely cause employee
dissention.
Question Number: 70
Arrange the following steps in hazard control in the proper sequence:
(1) Guard the hazard

(2) Engineer the hazard out if possible
(3) Educate personnel
1) 2,1,3
2) 3,1,2
3) 1,2,3
4) 3,2,1
The proper sequence in hazard control is to engineer out, guard, and educate.
Question Number: 71
Which of the following is the best way to reduce unsafe acts?
1) The swift and sure application of negative reinforcement for unsafe acts
2) Studying the behavior pattern and its underlying root causes
3) Consistently applying positive consequences to reinforce appropriate behavior
4) Encouraging behavior avoidance through the application of rewards
Studies have shown that the systematic positive reinforcement of appropriate behavior (including behavioral changes)
is highly effective toward improving employee attitudes and behavior.
Question Number: 72
A technique that utilizes a method of developing job procedures that includes a systematic task analysis that examines
each step, and preventive or corrective actions required to ensure a safe operation is called:
1) Job safety analysis.

2) Task analysis.
3) Operability study.
4) Systematic task analysis.
Job safety analysis is a technique that utilizes a method of developing job procedures that includes a systematic task
analysis that examines each step, and preventive or corrective actions required to ensure a safe operation.
Question Number: 73
PROGRAM MANAGEMENT :Site Safety Plan, Hazards & Controls
Hazard control can be accomplished in a variety of ways. Common methods of hazard control include: using personal
protective equipment, reducing exposure, designing out the hazard and eliminating the hazard by substitution or
automation. What is the order of precedence of these hazard control methods from highest to lowest?
1) Using personal protective equipment, designing out the hazard, and eliminating the hazard by substitution or
automation, reducing exposure.
2) Eliminating the hazard by substitution or automation, designing out the hazard, reducing exposure, and using
personal protective equipment.
3) Designing out the hazard, eliminating the hazard by substitution or automation, reducing exposure, and using
personal protective equipment.
4) Designing out the hazard, eliminating the hazard by substitution or automation, using personal protective
equipment, and reducing exposure.
Common methods of hazard control, in order of precedence, are: designing out the hazard, eliminating the hazard by
substitution or automation, reducing exposure, and using personal protective equipment.
Tompkins, N. C.(2004). Basics of Safety and Health [Revised] . USA: National Safety Council. 15.
Question Number: 74
Machine Guarding is a form of:
1) Designing out the hazard.

2) Reducing exposure.
3) Use of personal protective equipment.
4) Eliminating the hazard by substitution.
Machine guarding is a form of reducing the exposure. When machine guarding is provided, the hazard still exists.
Guarding reduces the potential for worker exposure to the hazard.
Question Number: 75
Effective safety and health activities:
1) Are incorporated into the operations of the business and are integrated in already functioning activities when ever
possible.
2) Are supported by trained and qualified safety professionals and are accomplished in a manner to guarantee
independence from already existing activities, which may be performed incorrectly.
3) Provide a substantial check and balance to already existing activities when performed independently by a third
party.
4) Will disrupt business activities and cause trades people to delay completion of their work.
Effective safety and health activities are incorporated into the operations of the business and are integrated in already
functioning activities when ever possible. Many existing activities in a business are already safety related. This is
particularly true with maintenance activities such as a periodic inspection of electrical equipment.
Question Number: 76
Businesses are responsible to their owners, stockholders, etc. The main purpose of most businesses is to assure a
continued positive cash flow. An effective safety program supports the financial stability of a business by:
1) Accomplishing a requirement of the law, regardless of the cost to the business.

2) Providing strong management oversight and control of employees.
3) Preventing the costs associated with OSHA violations.
4) Increasing productivity of employees, reducing injuries and illnesses, eliminating lost production due to down
time.
An effective safety program supports the financial stability of a business by increasing productivity of employees,
reducing injuries and illnesses, eliminating lost production due to down time. There are considerable areas of direct
cost that can result from an ineffective safety and health program including the: time lost from work due to injuries,
cost of replacement employees, supervisory time to address injuries, cost to train replacement employees, cost of
damaged and destroyed equipment, damaged and destroyed product, and loss of production.
Question Number: 77
Safety and health professionals are sometimes available to construction supervisors. When a safety and health
professional is available:
1) The construction supervisor should provide the safety and health professional with copies of safety inspection
reports to show that the construction supervisor is doing their job.
2) The construction supervisor should allow the safety and health manager full access to the job site and focus on
getting the construction completed.
3) The construction supervisor should request the safety and health professional perform all safety responsibilities on
the job site.
4) The construction supervisor should request the assistance of the safety and health professional to evaluate complex
and unusual situations.
When a safety and health professional is available, they are one more member of the team. The construction
supervisor should request the assistance of the safety and health professional to evaluate complex and unusual
situations. The construction supervisor should also provide the safety and health professional a briefing on any special
job site hazards.
Question Number: 78
Supervisors play an important role is workers' compensation reduction. In order to reduce workers' compensation
costs, a supervisor should:
1) Exhibit compassion toward injured employees, support the employer's return-to-work programs, and thoroughly
investigate reports of fraud.
2) Maintain communication with injured employees, push employees to return to work to maximize the company's
productivity, and thoroughly investigate accidents.
3) Maintain communication with injured employees, push employees to return to work to maximize the company's
productivity, and thoroughly investigate reports of fraud.
4) Exhibit compassion toward injured employees, maintain communication with injured employees, support the
employer's return-to-work programs, and thoroughly investigate accidents.
Strategies that have proven effective in minimizing workers' compensation costs are:
Maintaining communication with injured employees that are off work

Supporting the employer's return-to-work programs
Investigate and determine the cause of accidents to prevent future occurrences
Question Number: 79
A hearing conservation program consist of:
1) The training of employees in the time limits of exposures.

2) Assessing noise hazards, controlling exposures, issuance of PPE, training and monitoring of employees and
recordkeeping.
3) The issuance of appropriately selected and fitted PPE including ear plugs and ear muffs.
4) The careful calculation of time weighted exposures and the changing of employees when they reach the maximum
allowable dose.
A hearing conservation program consist of assessing noise hazards, controlling exposures, issuance of appropriate
PPE, training and education of employees, monitoring and evaluation of employees and recordkeeping.
Question Number: 80
Hazard control is addressed in a hierarchical fashion. The most preferred method for controlling hazards is to provide
engineering controls of the hazard. An example of engineering controls are:
1) The changing of work shifts to have high noise operations performed when most workers are not present at the job
site.
2) The accomplishment of a full area noise survey by a licensed professional engineer.
3) The use of carefully engineered electronic hearing protection.
4) Reducing the noise at the source through the installation of a muffler.
Examples of engineering controls are the installation of a muffler, the installation of vibration dampening devices, or
the use of acoustical sound absorbing materials.

Question Number: 81
In construction, fall protection is required for:
1) All workers exposed to fall hazards at a working height greater than 6 feet.
2) All workers exposed to fall hazards at a working height greater than 6 feet except where determined to not be
financially feasible by the supervisor.
3) All workers exposed to fall hazards at a working height greater than 6 feet except where determined to not be
feasible by a competent person.
4) All workers exposed to fall hazards at a working height greater than 6 feet except where determined to create an
equal or lesser hazard.
There are some instances when fall protection may not be feasible or may create a greater hazard if used. This
determination must be made by a competent person.
Question Number: 82
The Domino Theory of Accident Causation theorizes that:
1) Injuries and accidents are a result of the interactions between person, machine and environment.
2) Injuries and accidents are caused by human error as result of overload, inappropriate response or inappropriate
activities.
3) Injuries and accidents are caused by human error as result of overload, ergonomics traps or a decision to err.
4) Injuries and accidents are caused by preceding factors and that the removal of one of the factors would prevent the
accident.
The Domino Theory , developed by Herbert W. Heinrich in the 1920's, postulates that injuries and accidents are
caused by preceding factors and that the removal of one of the factors would prevent the accident. This theory is
considered outdated but is the basis for much of modern day safety theory.
The Human Factors Theory of Accident Causation postulates that injuries and accidents are caused by human error
as result of overload, inappropriate response or inappropriate activities.
The Accident/Incident Theory of Accident Causation , developed by Dan Peterson, postulates that injuries and
accidents are caused by human error as result of overload, ergonomics traps or a decision to err. This theory builds on
the Human Factors Theory.
The Systems Theory of Accident Causation postulates that injuries and accidents are a result of the interactions
between person, machine and environment.
The Combination Theory of Accident Causation postulates that injuries and accidents are a result of one or more of
the causes described by the various theories.
The Behavioral Theory of Accident Causation postulates that injuries and accidents are caused by undesirable
behaviors and can be prevented by promoting desirable behaviors
Question Number: 83
The Human Factors Theory of Accident Causation theorizes that:
accident.
activities.
the human factors theory.
behaviors and can be prevented by promoting desirable behaviors.

Question Number: 84
Heat stress management is best accomplished by:
1) Ensuring workers understand the signs of heat stress and importance of hydration and increase rest break
frequencies.
2) Assuring that only persons that have passed stress tests work in high heat stress environments.
3) Provide salt tablets and water to allow workers to perform full duties.
4) Monitor workers, provide hydration and food when worker activity decreases, and ensure high volume water
intake.
Effective heat stress management can include:
Training about heat stress and preventative strategies

Frequent, small quantity hydration
Encourage co-worker observation for sings and symptoms
Provide special assessment of workers with medical conditions or medications that may be susceptible
Encourage healthy lifestyles
Adjust expectations of employees that have suffered heat stress
Provide for fans or other air moving options and engineering controls for sources of heat
Place limits of exposure times such as increase rest break frequency
Use PPE where possible
Question Number: 85
Flammable and combustible liquid storage tanks should be identified with the NFPA 704 system. In the following
diamond what do the colored sections represent?
1) Red represents the flammability hazard, blue the water solubility, yellow the health hazard and white is for special
reactivity information.
2) Red represents the flammability hazard, blue the chemical hazard, yellow the reactivity hazard and white is to
indicate if a material is water reactive or not.
3) Red represents the fire hazard, blue the health hazard, yellow the pH hazard and white is for special information.
4) Red represents the flammability hazard, blue the health hazard, yellow the reactivity hazard and white is for special
information.
Red represents the flammability hazard, blue the health hazard, yellow the reactivity hazard and white is for special
information which include water reactive and oxidizer.
Question Number: 86
Storage of materials is an important area of consideration for safety. Improperly stored material can cause accidents.
An important technique for storing materials is:
1) To keep all hazardous materials stored together.

2) To perform hand stacking of all materials to assure an adequate stacking.
3) To ensure adequate stacking, racking, blocking and interlocking.
4) To carefully remove all strapping and ties immediately upon delivery of materials.
Materials that will be stored in tiers must be adequately stacked, racked, blocked and interlocked. Hazardous materials
must be segregated to ensure incompatible materials are not stored together. Mechanical handling should be used
whenever appropriate to prevent materials handling injuries. Securing strapping and ties should remain in place until
materials are required. Once strapping or ties are removed, the material must be evaluated to determine if it must be
rearranged to prevent accidents.
Question Number: 87
A hole is defined in OSHA fall protection standards as:

1) An opening in the floor, roof, or other walking surface that provides enough space for a person to fall through.
2) An opening in the floor, roof, or other walking surface that is one foot or more in its least dimension.
3) An opening in the floor, roof, or other walking surface that is 2 inches or more in its least dimension.
4) An opening or excavation in the floor, roof, or other walking surface that is greater than 4 inches in the least
dimension.
A hole is defined as an opening in the floor, roof, or other walking surface that is 2 inches or more in its least
dimension.
Question Number: 88
A safety system in which a competent person is responsible for recognizing and warning employees of fall hazards is
a:
1) Warning line system.

2) Safety-monitoring system.
3) Controlled access zone system.
4) Competent person system.
Safety-monitoring system is a safety system in which a competent person is responsible for recognizing and warning
employees of fall hazards.
(1998). OSHA Fall Protection. Fall Protection in Construction . Retrieved 3/19/06, OSHA-Fall Protection in
Construction.
http://www.osha.gov/Publications/osha3146.pdf
Copy and paste the above URL address into your web browser to access this document.
Question Number: 89
A trench excavation in Type A soils may use a slope supporting system. What slope ratio of horizontal to vertical is
required to adequately protect workers?
1) 0.75 to 1
2) 1 to 1
3) 1.5 to 1
4) 2 to 1
Type A soils require a minimum slope of ¾ to 1 or 0.75 to 1.
(2006). OSHA Tech Manual Excavations. OSHA Technical Manual, Sect V Ch 2. Retrieved 3/21/06
Question Number: 90
A trench excavation in Type B soils may use a slope supporting system. What slope ratio of horizontal to vertical is
1) 0.75 to 1
2) 1 to 1
3) 1.5 to 1
4) 2 to 1
Type B soils require a minimum slope of 1 to 1.
Question Number: 91
A trench excavation in Type C soils may use a slope supporting system. What slope ratio of horizontal to vertical is
1) 0.75 to 1
2) 1 to 1
3) 1.5 to 1
4) 2 to 1
Type C soils require a minimum slope of 1.5 to 1.
Question Number: 92
Sloping and benching are valuable methods to make trenches safe for workers. Sloping and benching may be used:
1) In trenches up to 15 feet deep.

4) In all trenches as long as the ratio is matched to the type of soil.
Sloping and benching may be used in trenches up to 20 feet deep.
Question Number: 93
Emergency exits are required from trenches as follows:
1) A ladder or other appropriate methods shall be provided for worker egress from trenches 4 feet deep and more at
least every 25 feet of lateral travel distance.
A ladder or other appropriate methods shall be provided for worker egress from trenches 4 feet deep and more at least
every 25 feet of lateral travel distance.
Question Number: 94
Trenches require properly designed and installed protective systems. Which of the following is accurate?
1) As long as the OSHA sloping ratio is met for the type of soil, the slope system is adequate for all trenches.
2) Trench boxes may be used in conjunction with sloping, as long as the sloping begins at the top edge of the trench
box.
3) Protective systems that meet the tabular requirements of the OSHA Standards or manufacturers recommended
usages are adequate for trenches up to 20 feet deep.
4) Design of sloping and benching systems begins at the edge of the trench as long as the spoil pile is 2 feet from the
edge.
Protective systems that meet the tabular requirements of the OSHA Standards or manufacturers recommended usages
are adequate for trenches up to 20 feet deep. Any excavation 20 feet or greater in depth is required to have a protective
system that is designed or approved by a registered professional engineer.
Question Number: 95
Slab designs in lift slab construction must be performed by:
1) A competent concrete and masonry foreman or a licensed professional engineer with expertise on lift-slab
construction.
2) A competent person designated by the employer.
3) A mason.
4) A licensed professional engineer with expertise on lift-slab construction.
Slabs in lift-slab construction must be designed by a licensed professional engineer with expertise in lift-slab
construction.
Question Number: 96
Masonry walls present special hazards and must:
1) Be supported when more than 8 feet in height, until permanent supporting elements are in place.
2) Never extend beyond 8 feet in height.
3) Be supported when more than 6 feet in height, until permanent supporting elements are in place.
4) Be protected by a 4 foot wide limited access zone until the masonry has adequately set to prevent collapse.
Masonry walls present special hazards and must be supported when more than 8 feet in height, until permanent
supporting elements are in place. Additionally, a limited access zone that is the height of the wall plus 4 feet wide
must be established until the wall is adequately supported.

Question Number: 97
Concrete is:
1) Innocuous except for the extreme weight when wet.

2) Can only cause minor irritation on contact with skin or temporary coughing when the dust is breathed.
3) A respiratory hazard while in dust form. Once wet, there is little hazard from concrete.
4) An irritant, caustic and respirator hazard.
Concrete presents a number of chemical hazards that can result in simple irritation on contact with skin, severe skin
damage, and lung injuries including silicosis and lung cancer.
(2004). OSHA Concrete Manufacturing, Publication 3221. OSHA Concrete Manufacturing. Retrieved 3/23/2006,
OSHA Concrete Manufacturing.
http://www.osha.gov/Publications/3221_Concrete.pdf
Question Number: 98
Jacks used in lift slab construction shall:
1) Be used within the manufacturer established rated capacity.

2) Be used within the manufacturer established rated capacity, unless tested and certified by the owner under a lifting
device certification program.
3) Be made of a high grade metal with minimal moving parts.
4) Be provided with preventive maintenance performed by the manufacturer.
29 CFR 1926.705 (b)

Jacks/lifting units shall be marked to indicate their rated capacity as established by the manufacturer.
29 CFR 1926.705 (c)

Jacks/lifting units shall not be loaded beyond their rated capacity as established by the manufacturer.
(2011). OSHA Construction Regulations. Safety and Health Regulations for Construction . Retrieved 1/24/12

Question Number: 99
A twelve foot masonry wall has been placed with temporary supports until adjacent walls are placed. The adjoining
walls will provide permanent support of the twelve foot wall. A limited access zone for the wall must be provided
until adequate support is provided to the wall. The limited access zone must extend how many feet from the base of
the wall?
1) 8 feet
2) 12 feet
3) 14 feet
4) 16 feet
Masonry walls present special hazards and must be supported when more than 8 feet in height, until permanent
supporting elements are in place. A limited access zone that is the height of the wall plus 4 feet wide must be
established until the wall is adequately supported.
Question Number: 100

A ten story steel frame structure is being constructed. Connectors are working on the third story floor level of the
structure. The connector:
1) Must tie off with an approved full body harness.

2) Must be provided with a tie off point and the connector must make the decisions as whether to tie off.
3) Has no fall protection requirements below the 30 foot height.
4) Above 15 feet, is required to be protected by a fall protection system and must be directly tied off when above 30
feet.
A 15-foot trigger height for fall protection applies to most steel erection workers. A 30 foot trigger height applies for
connectors. Connectors working between 15 feet and 30 feet must be given the means to tie-off. Connector determines
when/if to tie-off.
(2006). OSHA Steel Erection. OSHA Steel Erection eTool. Retrieved 3/21/06, OSHA Steel Erection eTool
EPA: (2005). Managing Your Environmental Responsibilities: A Planning Guide for Construction. Washington, DC:
U.S. Government Printing Office.

If a site-specific erection plan is to be developed, it shall include:
I. Sequence of erection activity

II. Crane and derrick selection criteria
III. Steel manufacturer certifications
IV. A list of qualified and competent persons
V. Rescue or emergency response
1) I, II, III and IV

2) I, II, III and V
3) I, II, IV and V
4) I, III, IV and V
Components of a site-specific erection plan [Non-mandatory Appendix A]:
A site-specific erection plan is developed during one or more pre-construction conferences and site inspections
involving the erector, the controlling contractor, and others such as the project engineer and the fabricator. In this
process, the following elements are considered:
The sequence of erection activity, developed in coordination with the controlling contractor
A description of the crane and derrick selection and placement procedures
A description of steel erection activities and procedures
A description of the fall protection procedures that will be used to comply with 1926.760
A description of the falling object protection procedures that will be used to comply with 1926.759
A description of the special procedures required for hazardous non-routine tasks
A certification for each employee who has received training for performing steel erection operations as required
by 1926.761
A list of the qualified and competent persons
A description of the procedures that will be utilized in the event of rescue or emergency response
In addition, the plan should include identification of the site and project, and be signed and dated by the qualified
person(s) responsible for its preparation and modification.
(2006). OSHA Steel Erection. OSHA Steel Erection eTool. Retrieved 3/21/06

As metal decking is secured and construction progresses, holes may be cut in metal decking to accomplish project
objectives. When holes are cut in metal decking they:
1) Are to be limited to 12 inch width at there minimum dimension.
2) Are to be immediately and permanently filled with the intended equipment or structure, or they are to be covered.
3) Are only allowed once steel erection workers have completed the area.
4) Must be covered immediately if a worker could fall through them.
When holes are cut in metal decking they are to be immediately and permanently filled with the intended equipment or
structure, or they are to be covered.

Covers placed over decking holes in steel erection:
1) Must be of sufficient weight to prevent it from blowing away and be clearly marked with the word "Hole" or
"Cover".
2) Shall be secured with sheet metal screws to the decking and painted with a bright colored, non-skid paint.
3) Fit tightly around all protrusions.
4) Secured to prevent displacement and painted with high visibility paint or marked with the appropriate word.
All covers must be:
Secured when installed to prevent accidental displacement by the wind, equipment or employees
[1926.754(e)(3)(ii)]
Painted with high-visibility paint, or
Marked with the word "HOLE" or "COVER" to provide warning of the hazard [1926.754(e)(3)(iii)].

Underground operations must consider the hazards of potentially gassy operations and gassy operations. Gassy
operations refer to:
1) An underground operation where natural sources of toxic, asphyxiant and flammable gases are present.
2) An underground operation where flammable gas leaking from the strata has ignited.
3) Tunnel operations involving the use of gasoline powered equipment which can rapidly create a toxic atmosphere
from carbon monoxide.
4) Operations in a tunnel near a formally leaking underground storage tank.
Underground construction operations shall be classified as gassy if:
Air monitoring discloses 10 % or more of the lower explosive limit for methane or other flammable gases
measured at 12 inches (304.8 mm) + or - inch (6.35 mm) from the roof, face, floor or walls in any underground
work area for three consecutive days: or
There has been an ignition of methane or other flammable gases emanating from the strata that indicates the
presence of such gases: or
The underground construction operation is both connected to an underground work area which is currently
classified as gassy and is also subject to a continuous course of air containing the flammable gas concentration.
Declassification to potentially gassy operations. Underground construction gassy operations may be declassified to
Potentially Gassy when air monitoring results remain under 10 percent of the lower explosive limit for methane or
other flammable gases for three consecutive days.
(2003). OSHA Underground Construction (Tunneling), Publication 3221. OSHA Underground Construction.
Retrieved 3/23/06

What is the method used for decompressing under emergency circumstances? In this procedure, the employees are
brought to atmospheric pressure with a very high gas tension in the tissues and then immediately recompressed in a
second and separate chamber or lock.
1) Decanting.
2) Emergency decompression.
3) Hyperbaric process.
4) Recompression transition.
"Decanting"-A method used for decompressing under emergency circumstances. In this procedure, the employees are
brought to atmospheric pressure with a very high gas tension in the tissues and then immediately recompressed in a
second and separate chamber or lock.
Retrieved 3/23/06

Which of the following is an air- and water-tight diaphragm placed across the upper part of a compressed air tunnel
between the face and bulkhead, in order to prevent flooding the crown of the tunnel between the upper part of the
tunnel and the bulkhead, thus providing a safe means of refuge and exit from a flooding or flooded tunnel?
1) Infiltration barrier.
2) Safety screen.
3) Flooding crown.
4) Refuge diaphragm.
"Safety screen"-An air- and water-tight diaphragm placed across the upper part of a compressed air tunnel between
the face and bulkhead, in order to prevent flooding the crown of the tunnel between the safety screen and the
bulkhead, thus providing a safe means of refuge and exit from a flooding or flooded tunnel.
Retrieved 3/23/06

Working within pressurized environments such as caissons, create serious hazards. If a worker experiences an illness
within a pressurized caisson, the worker should:
1) Be carefully removed, treated and transported in accordance with the directions of the on-site construction project
physician.
2) Be carefully removed, provided emergency treatment and transported to the nearest medical facility with a
hyperbaric chamber.
3) Be carefully removed, provided emergency treatment and transported to the nearest medical facility with a
decompression sickness treatment capability.
4) Be rapidly removed, treated and transported to the nearest medical facility with a hyperbaric chamber to minimize
permanent damage.
Project sites where workers will be working within pressurized environments such as a caisson are required to have a
qualified and licensed physician competent in monitoring workers in pressurized environments. The physician must
also be competent in the treatment of decompression illnesses. Injuries and illnesses occurring in the pressurized
environment must be handled in accordance with the direction of the physician.

Demolition of pre-stressed concrete members of structures should:
1) Progress in a manner that carefully considers the stored energy existing on the members.
2) Progress in a manner that provides for the slow methodical demolition of the member from one end to the other.
3) Progress carefully along the pre-stressed areas to ensure full separation. All personnel must be cleared out prior to
final separation.
4) Progress carefully, working from the center of the member towards the outer edges.
Demolition of pre-stressed members of a structure should not be performed without a full evaluation by a professional
engineer. The instructions and plans developed by the engineer must be followed. Tremendous energy can be stored
in pre-stressed concrete members.
(1996). OSHA Demolition Outreach. OSHA Construction Safety and Health Outreach Progr . Retrieved 3/31/06,
OSHA Construction Safety and Health Outreach Program-Demolition

Concrete members (such as walls, panels, slabs, columns, and beams) which have been formed, cast, and cured before
final placement in a structure are called:
1) Shop constructed concrete.

2) Lift slabs.
3) Drop-in-place concrete.
4) Pre-cast concrete.
Pre-cast concrete: Concrete members (such as walls, panels, slabs, columns, and beams) which have been formed,
cast, and cured before final placement in a structure.
Lift slab: A method of concrete construction in which floor and roof slabs are cast on or at ground level and lifted into
position using jacks.
(2006). OSHA Construction eTool. OSHA Construction eTool. Retrieved 3/31/06


A one minute series of long horn blasts at a blasting site is a(n):
1) All clear signal indicating that blasting is complete and the site is safe from explosives.
2) Blast signal issued one minute prior to the blast.
3) Incorrect signal and has no meaning relative to blasting.
4) Warning signal issued five minutes prior to blasting.
WARNING SIGNAL - A 1-minute series of long blasts 5 minutes prior to blast signal.
BLAST SIGNAL - A series of short blasts 1 minute prior to blast shot.
ALL CLEAR SIGNAL - A prolonged blast following the inspection of blast area.
(1996). OSHA Construction - Blasting. OSHA Const. Safety Outreach Program: Blasting. Retrieved 3/31/06

A one minute series of short horn blasts at a blasting site is a(n):


A single prolonged horn blasts at a blasting site is a(n):

Misfires involving cap and fuse shall not be handled and shall be isolated for at least:
1) 10 minutes.
2) 45 minutes.
3) 1 hour.
4) 8 hours.
MISFIRES - 29 CFR 1926.911
If a misfire is found, the blaster shall provide proper safeguards for excluding all employees from the danger
zone.
No attempt shall be made to extract explosives from any charged or misfired hole; a new primer shall be put in
and the hole re-blasted. If refiring of the misfired hole presents a hazard, the explosives may be removed by
washing out with water or, where the misfire is under water, blown out with air.
If there are any misfires while using cap and fuse, all employees shall remain away from the charge for at least 1
hour. Misfires shall be handled under the direction of the person in charge of the blasting. All wires shall be
carefully traced and a search made for unexploded charges.

The key driver for ionizing radiation safety is called:
1) ALARA
2) LASER
3) NRC
4) Time/Distance/Shielding
ALARA is an acronym for As Low As Reasonably Achievable. In radiation safety, ALARA is the safety mantra. All
ionizing radiation exposures are required to be kept below specific regulatory limits and lower when reasonably
achievable - ALARA.
(2006). OSHA Electric Power eTool. OSHA Electric Power eTool. Retrieved 3/31/06

An employee who locks out or tags out machines or equipment in order to perform servicing or maintenance on that
machine or equipment is a(n):
1) Affected employee.
2) Attendant.
3) Authorized employee
4) Competent person.
Authorized employee: An employee who locks out or tags out machines or equipment in order to perform servicing or
maintenance on that machine or equipment. An affected employee becomes an authorized employee when that
employee's duties include performing servicing or maintenance covered under this section.
Affected employee : An employee whose job requires him or her to operate or use a machine or equipment on which
servicing or maintenance is being performed under lockout or tagout, or whose job requires him or her to work in an
area in which such servicing or maintenance is being performed.
Attendant: An employee assigned to remain immediately outside the entrance to an enclosed or other space to render
assistance as needed to employees inside the space.

An employee whose job requires him or her to operate or use a machine or equipment on which servicing or
maintenance is being performed under lockout or tagout, or whose job requires him or her to work in an area in which
such servicing or maintenance is being performed is a(n)
1) Affected employee.
2) Attendant.
3) Authorized employee
Authorized employee: An employee who locks out or tags out machines or equipment in order to perform servicing or
maintenance on that machine or equipment. An affected employee becomes an authorized employee when that
employee's duties include performing servicing or maintenance covered under this section.
Affected employee : An employee whose job requires him or her to operate or use a machine or equipment on which
servicing or maintenance is being performed under lockout or tagout, or whose job requires him or her to work in an
area in which such servicing or maintenance is being performed.
Attendant: An employee assigned to remain immediately outside the entrance to an enclosed or other space to render
assistance as needed to employees inside the space.

A continuous membrane, either vertical or horizontal, such as a wall or floor assembly, that is designed and
constructed with specified fire resistance rating to limit the spread of fire and that will also restrict the movement of
smoke is called a(n):
1) Horizontal separation.
2) Area separation wall.
3) Fire barrier.
4) Fire curtain.
Fire Barrier : A continuous membrane, either vertical or horizontal, such as a wall or floor assembly, that is designed
and constructed with specified fire resistance rating to limit the spread of fire and that will also restrict the movement
of smoke. Such barriers can have protected openings.

A method of preventing oxidation (rusting) of exposed metal structures, such as bridges and pipelines, by imposing
between the structure and the ground a small electrical voltage that opposes the flow of electrons and that is greater
than the voltage present during oxidation is called:
1) Charge initiation.
2) Electron protection.
3) Ground flow charge protection.
4) Cathodic protection.
Cathodic protection: A method of preventing oxidation (rusting) of exposed metal structures, such as bridges and
pipelines, by imposing between the structure and the ground a small electrical voltage that opposes the flow of
electrons and that is greater than the voltage present during oxidation.

A rung attached at intervals along a structural member and used for foot placement during climbing or standing is a:
1) Step potential.
2) Step bolt.
3) Ladder rung.
4) Climbing hold.
Step bolt: A bolt or rung attached at intervals along a structural member and used for foot placement during climbing
or standing.
Step Potential: The voltage between the feet of a person standing near an energized grounded object. It is equal to the
difference in voltage, given by the voltage distribution curve, between two points at different distances from the
"electrode". A person could be at risk of injury during a fault simply by standing near the grounding point.

Electrical circuits can be considered safe to work on once:
1) All appropriate lockout and tag out actions have been taken.
2) Lockout and tag out of breakers and cutoffs have been performed and energy storage devices have been drained.
3) Power sources have been isolated and the circuit has been tested.
4) The local electrician has surveyed the work site.
The one method that can verify that no electrical hazard exists in a circuit is to test the circuit to verify that it is not
energized. In conjunction with proper isolation of power sources, testing is necessary to assure that a circuit is safely
de-energized.
(2002). Electrical Safety Student Manual. DHHS/NIOSH Electrical Safety Student Manual. Retrieved 4/6/2006,
DHHS/NIOSH.
http://www.cdc.gov/niosh/pdfs/02-123.pdf

When working around power lines with pipes, ladders, lifts, cranes, etc., a minimum distance must be maintained from
the power lines. That distance is:
1) 5 ft.
2) 8 ft.
3) 10 ft.
4) 12 ft.
Shocks and electrocutions occur where physical barriers are not in place to prevent contact with the wires. When
dump trucks, cranes, work platforms, or other conductive materials (such as pipes and ladders) contact overhead
wires, the equipment operator or other workers can be killed. If you do not maintain required clearance distances from
powerlines, you can be shocked and killed. (The minimum distance for voltages up to 50kV is 10 feet. For voltages
over 50kV, the minimum distance is 10 feet plus 4 inches for every 10 kV over 50kV.) Never store materials and
equipment under or near overhead powerlines.
DHHS/NIOSH.

Energized electrical parts are required to be isolated. Which of the following are considered isolation techniques?
I. Providing a secured cabinet around the parts

II. Elevating the parts to 8 feet or more
III. Providing GFCI
IV. Providing a fenced enclosure around the parts
V. Elevating the parts to 10 feet or more
1) I, II and IV
2) I, IV and V
3) III, IV and V
4) I, III, IV and V
Electrical hazards exist when wires or other electrical parts are exposed. These hazards need to be controlled to create
a safe work environment. Isolation of energized electrical parts makes them inaccessible unless tools and special
effort are used. Isolation can be accomplished by placing the energized parts at least 8 feet high and out of reach, or
by guarding. Guarding is a type of isolation that uses various structures-like cabinets, boxes, screens, barriers, covers,
and partitions-to close-off live electrical parts.
DHHS/NIOSH.

Which of the following situations requires grounding?
1) A double insulated electric drill.

2) The metal junction box at the far end of a clothes closet.
3) The metal eye-bolt holding the service line at the peak of the roof of a house.
4) Plumbing fixtures.
Equipment needs to be grounded under any of these circumstances:
The equipment is within 8 feet vertically and 5 feet horizontally of the floor or walking surface.
The equipment is within 8 feet vertically and 5 feet horizontally of grounded metal objects you could touch.
The equipment is located in a wet or damp area and is not isolated.
The equipment is connected to a power supply by cord and plug and is not double-insulated.
DHHS/NIOSH.

Machine guards shall:

1) Be put on all machines regardless of outcome.
2) Be attached to the machine or elsewhere.
3) Be fixed in place to prevent removal.
4) Prevent all possible injuries.
Machine guards are required to be attached to the machine. If that is not possible they are required to be attached
elsewhere (e.g. the floor where the machine is located). Guards are not supposed to be installed such that they create
potential hazards. Many guards are not fixed in a stationary manner because they would be ineffective or would
prevent the machine from working properly. No guard can prevent all injuries.
(2006). OSHA Machine Guarding eTool. OSHA Machine Guarding eTool. Retrieved 4/13/06

The point where the blade of a table saw engages the wood to be cut is called the:
1) Cut point.
2) Pinch point.
3) Hazard area.
The point of operation is the area on a machine where work is performed. [1910.212(a)(3)(i)]

A type of safeguard in which an employee must perform an overt act in order to enter the danger area is a:
1) Barricade.
2) Awareness barrier.
3) Interlock.
4) Banner guard.

An awareness barrier serves as a reminder to a person that he or she is approaching the danger area. Although the
barrier does not physically prevent a person from entering the danger area, it calls attention to it. For an employee to
enter the danger area, an overt act must take place, that is, the employee must either reach or step over, under or
through the barrier. Generally, awareness barriers are not considered adequate when continual exposure to the hazard
exists.

Most machinery sold today has appropriate guarding designed and installed by the manufacturer. Older machines or
machines without guarding and machines that have had guarding removed:
1) May not be used in the work place.

2) May be used if the original manufacturer did not provide guarding.
3) May be used if new guards, provided by the manufacturer are installed.
4) May only be used if new guards are installed that meet the machine guarding requirements. Guards may be
manufacturer supplied or shop-built.
Today many builders of single-purpose machines provide point-of-operation and power transmission safeguards as
standard equipment. However, not all machines in use have built-in safeguards provided by the manufacturer.
Guards designed and installed by the builder offer two main advantages:
They usually conform to the design and function of the machine.

They can be designed to strengthen the machine in some way or to serve some additional functional purposes.
User-built guards are sometimes necessary for a variety of reasons. They have these advantages:
Often, with older machinery, they are the only practical safeguarding solution.
They may be the only choice for mechanical power transmission apparatus in older plants, where machinery is
not powered by individual motor drives.
They permit options for point-of-operation safeguards when skilled personnel design and make them.
They can be designed and built to fit unique and even changing situations.
They can be installed on individual dies and feeding mechanisms.
Design and installation of machine safeguards by plant personnel can help to promote safety consciousness in
the workplace.
User-built guard disadvantages:
User-built guards may not conform well to the configuration and function of the machine.
There is a risk that user-built guards may be poorly designed or built.

The use of automated feeding and ejection methods with machines is a valuable injury prevention action. When a
machine has an automated feeding and ejection process for the feed stock:
1) The automated actions can only be used if they are fully automated.
2) Full machine guarding is still required unless push sticks or blocks are used.
3) Full machine guarding is still required.
4) Machine guarding is only required for those hazard points on the machine that do not have automated feeding and
ejection.
Many feeding and ejection methods do not require the operator to place his or her hands in the danger area. In some
cases, no operator involvement is necessary after the machine is set up. In other situations, operators can manually
feed the stock with the assistance of a feeding mechanism. Properly designed ejection methods do not require any
operator involvement after the machine starts to function. Using these feeding and ejection methods does not eliminate
the need for guards and devices. Guards and devices must be used wherever they are necessary and possible in order
to provide protection from exposure to hazards.

A change schedule is the part of the written respirator program. Which of the following are proper means for
determining when to change a respirator cartridge?
I. Conduct experimental tests.

II. Wait for detection of chemical odor by the wearer.
III. Use the manufacturer's recommendation.
IV. Wait for detection of chemical odor for those chemicals that have an odor threshold below the PEL.
V. Use a math model.
1) I, II, and III

2) I, III, and V
3) I, II, III, and IV
4) I, III, IV, and V

A change schedule is the part of the written respirator program which says how often cartridges should be replaced
and what information was relied upon to make this judgment. A cartridge's useful service life is how long it provides
adequate protection from harmful chemicals in the air. The service life of a cartridge depends upon many factors,
including environmental conditions, breathing rate, cartridge filtering capacity, and the amount of contaminants in the
air. It is suggested that employers apply a safety factor to the service life estimate to assure that the change schedule is
a conservative estimate.
(2006). Respiratory Protection eTool. Respiratory Protection eTool. Retrieved 4/16/06

The flow of electrons through a conductor is called:
1) Current.
2) Cycle.
3) Energized.
4) Ground.
Current is the flow of electrons through a conductor, measured in amperes (amps). If the current flows back and forth
through a conductor, it is called alternating current (AC). If the current flows in one direction only, as in a car battery,
it is called direct current (DC). AC is most widely used because it is possible to increase ("step up") or decrease ("step
down") the current through a transformer. For example, when current from an overhead power line is run through a
pole-mounted transformer, it can be stepped down to normal household current. Also, alternating current can travel
enormous distances with little loss of voltage, or power.
Cycle: When alternating current flows back and forth through a conductor, it is said to cycle. In each cycle, the
electrons flow first in one direction, then the other. In the United States, the normal rate for power transmission is 60
cycles per second, or 60 Hertz (Hz).
Energize: To direct electric current through a conductor. Power lines and wires can be intentionally energized (or
de-energized) to carry current to an electrical device. But conductive surfaces which are unintentionally energized,
like the metal case of a tool, the metal housing of a circuit box, or a metal object such as an aluminum ladder, present
a danger of electrocution.
Ground: A conducting connection, intentional or unintentional, between an electrical circuit or equipment and the
earth, or to some conducting body that serves in place of the earth.
(1996). OSHA Construction - Power Transmission. OSHA Const. Safety Outreach Program: Power Transmission.
Retrieved 3/31/06

Common law requires employers to:
1) Provide a workplace free of hazards.

2) Compensate employees for workplace injuries.
3) Provide a workplace that is reasonably safe.
4) Applies to employees NOT employers.
Common law only requires the employer to provide a workplace that is reasonably safe.

Definitions associated with hazardous waste operations and emergency response are found in which of the following
standards or codes?
1) 29 CFR 1910.120 (a)

2) 29 CFR 1910.1200 (a)
3) NFPA 49
4) NFPA 72
Mandatory definitions associated with hazardous waster operations and emergency response are found in 29 CFR
1910.120(a), also called the Hazardous Waste Operations and Emergency Response (HAZWOPER) standard.

When does the employer have to administer an effective hearing conservation program according to OSHA
regulations?
1) When 8hr. TWA exceeds 90dB on the A scale

4) When 8hr. TWA exceeds 90dB on the B scale
The employer must initiate an audiometric testing program as well as other testing. At 90 dBA TWA the employer
must implement engineering controls unless proven by engineering studies not to be feasible.
29 CFR 1910.95

The definition of safety when applied to a construction site means:
1) Identifying, evaluating and eliminating or controlling workplace hazards.

2) Identifying, evaluating and eliminating workplace hazards.
3) Ensuring that all workers are free of any hazard or danger while at the workplace.
4) Ensuring that all employees, subcontractors and site visitors are protected from hazards (e.g., power tools and
exposed nails).
Work place safety is the identification, evaluation and elimination or control of workplace hazards. It is not possible
to eliminate all hazards. Many tasks can not be accomplished if the hazards are eliminated. When a hazard can not be
eliminated it is required to be controlled.

Companies should provide a safe workplace because:
1) The Occupational Safety and Health Administration will assess substantial fines on the company.
2) Workplace injuries and illnesses can result in poor public relations, affecting the company's ability to get new
business.
3) A low occurrence of workplace injuries and illnesses will result in the company attracting better employees.
4) Workplace injuries and illnesses result in tremendous direct and indirect costs to the company and the employee.
Workplace injuries and illnesses result in tremendous direct and indirect costs to the company and the employee.
According to the National Safety Council, in 2002, a workplace death cost, on average, $1.1 million and a disabling
injury cost $33,000. The indirect costs include the effect of losing a trained and capable employee permanently or
during the rehabilitation period, the effect psychological on other employees and the costs associated with regulatory
investigations, fines and corrective actions.

The federal agency tasked with responsibility for overseeing and enforcing safety and health in businesses is:
1) OSHA.
2) FDA.
3) EPA.
4) MSHA.
The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA ) is the federal agency tasked with overseeing and
enforcing safety and health in U.S. businesses.
The Food and Drug Administration ( FDA) is the federal agency tasked with overseeing and enforcing safety and
health of food and drug products.
The Environmental Protection Agency ( EPA) is the federal agency tasked with overseeing and enforcing protection of
the environment.
The Mine Safety and Health Administration ( MSHA) is tasked with overseeing and enforcing safety and health of
U.S. miners.

Many successful companies have found that the best way to accomplish the company's safety responsibilities is:
1) Use special safety checklists for all hazardous activities.

2) Conduct daily safety meetings.
3) Incorporate safety related activities into business operations.
4) Force all employees to take safety training and punish those that have accidents.
Companies that have been most successful in achieving high levels of employee safety are often the same companies
that are very successful businesses. Theses companies incorporate safety related activities and requirements into their
business operations. Safety is made a part of the job, not another job.

Which of the following industry sectors is the most dangerous?
1) Construction
2) Aerospace
3) Mining
4) Manufacturing
Construction is the most dangerous industry sector. Construction jobs account for approximately 5% of the work force
in the U.S and for 17% of the workplace fatalities. One employee in seven is injured each year.

According to the National Safety Council, workplace accidents are responsible for ____________ deaths per year.
1) 10
2) 100
3) 1000
4) 10,000
More than 10,000 workplace accidental deaths occurred in 2000.
(2000). Accident Facts. : National Safety Council.

An effective safety and health program is accomplished through a number of elements. Which of the following best
describes the elements of an effective safety and health program?
1) Clearly defined company rules, procedures and requirements, trained workers, committed management, supervisors
and employees.
2) Clearly defined company rules, procedures and requirements, trained workers, committed management that assures
employees are reprimanded when they do not follow the rules.
3) Company rules, procedures and requirements that clearly define training requirements and actions that will be
taken when employees violate the rules.
4) Clearly defined company rules, procedures and requirements, trained workers, committed management and
supervisors.
An effective safety program requires clearly defined company rules, procedures and requirements. However, without
the efforts of all levels of a company including the managers, supervisors and employees, rules and procedures are not
of great value. A safe and healthy job site is the result of a team effort to know the rules, follow the rules and to
identify and eliminate hazards.

A simple definition of ethics is: moral principles or practice. Professional ethics require consideration of additional
areas including culture, professional values, acceptable standards of behavior and legality, among others. All
professionals face ethical dilemmas in the performance of their work. Some day-to-day ethical dilemmas are simple to
determine the correct course of action, others are not as clear.
You are the supervisor at the site of a sewer pipe installation. The final connections have been made. All workers have
been moved out of the 10 foot deep excavation and the trench boxes have been loaded on a truck and left the site. The
heavy equipment operator (the best in the region) has moved the backhoe out of the way and brought up the front end
loader to fill the hole. You have just enough time to close the hole to meet a deadline that will result in your company
receiving a sizable bonus. Any delays could result in a loss of the bonus. A subcontractor suddenly realizes that they
have left their expensive laser pipe level in the hole. Which of the following is the best decision?
1) Refuse to put anybody else at risk and enter the hole yourself to retrieve the equipment.
2) Tell the subcontractor that it was their responsibility to remove their equipment while the trench boxes were still in
place. Direct the heavy equipment operator to fill the hole to meet the deadline.
3) Tell the subcontractor that you are going to get a drink of water and will be back in five minutes.
4) Have the heavy equipment operator retrieve the backhoe and fish out the equipment.

The best answer of the four is "D": Have the heavy equipment operator retrieve the backhoe and fish out the
equipment. Entering an unprotected 10 foot deep excavation is clear violation of the regulations. Any decision that
clearly violates legal standards is not ethical. If an option is legal then another good measure is to determine if it is
balanced. The decision to tell the subcontractor, "tough - it is your own fault," is not clearly balanced. Considering the
information in the problem, a highly skilled backhoe operator will likely be able to fish out the equipment without
damaging it and still have a chance of completing the project on time.

There are many models and definitions of ethics. The Council on Certification of Health, Environmental and Safety
Technologists has defined a Code of Ethics for the Safety Trained Supervisor. The STS Code of Ethics can be found
on the CCHEST website at www.cchest.org.
Which of the following best describes an expectation of the STS Code of Ethics?
1) Perform their supervisory roles in a manner to protect their employer.

2) Perform their safety roles using their knowledge and skills to further the safety of employees, employers, the
public and the environment.
3) Avoiding circumstances that might compromise their employer or their employees.
4) Maintaining confidentiality of all information that might impugn their employer or client.
"Perform their safety roles using their knowledge and skills to further the safety of employees, employers, the public
and the environment" best describes an expectation of the STS Code of Ethics.
(2006). CCHEST. Council on Certification of Health, Environmental. Retrieved 3/1/06, CCHEST

Ionizing radiation can not be seen, felt or tasted. People often have an unexplainable fear of radiation. When a
radiation hazard exists on a job site:
1) All workers need to be informed of the hazards and where they exist and any workers that are concerned about the
radiation must be allowed to leave the area.
2) All workers need to be informed of the hazards and where they exist and any workers that are concerned about the
radiation must be provided with relevant information.
3) To prevent undue employee stress and concern, only those workers that will be working with the source of the
radiation need to be informed of the hazards.
4) To prevent undue employee stress and concern, only those workers that will be working with the source of the
radiation need to be informed of the hazards. The site supervisor must answer any employee questions about
radiation.
All workers need to be informed of the hazards and where they exist and any workers that are concerned about the
radiation must be provided with relevant information.

There are a number of federal agencies that regulate the use of radioactive materials. These agencies include:
1) FDA, OSHA, EEOC

2) EPA, OSHA, USAID
3) CFTC, NRC
4) OSHA, NRC
OSHA and NRC are the primary regulating agencies for the use of radioactive materials at the work site.
OSHA - Occupation Safety and Health Administration,
NRC - Nuclear Regulatory Commission,
EPA - Environmental Protection Agency
EEOC - Equal Employment Opportunity Commission
USAID - Agency for International Development
CFTC - Commodity Futures Trading Commission
FDA - Food and Drug Administration

Non-ionizing radiation is:
1) A form of radiation that does not have sufficient energy to shatter atoms or ionize them. It encompasses a broad
spectrum that includes visible and invisible radiation.
2) A form of radiation that does not have sufficient energy to shatter atoms or ionize them and therefore is not
particularly hazardous.
3) A form of radiation that does not have sufficient energy to shatter atoms or ionize them and is invisible to the
naked eye.
4) Includes the radio frequencies and is only dangerous when working with sensitive electronics and with explosives.
A form of radiation that does not have sufficient energy to shatter atoms or ionize them. It encompasses a broad
spectrum that includes visible and invisible radiation. Non-ionizing radiation does have the potential to harm people.

Non-ionizing radiation includes:
1) Frequency (RF), microwave, x-ray, visible light, infrared, radio, and laser.
2) Microwave, extremely low frequency, neutron, infrared, radio frequency (RF), and laser.
3) Visible light, infrared, radio frequency (RF), microwave, extremely low frequency, and laser.
4) Laser, infrared, radio frequency (RF), neutron, extremely low frequency, and visible light.
Visible light, infrared, radio frequency (RF), microwave, extremely low frequency, and laser are all examples of
non-ionizing radiation. Neutron and x-ray radiation are forms of ionizing radiation.

MSDS is an acronym for:
1) Material Safety Data Sheet.

2) Material Substance/Dangerous Substance.
3) Material Substance Distribution Status.
4) Material Safety Development Sheet.
Material Safety Data Sheet: Prepared by the manufacturer, the MSDS provides information regarding the safety and
chemical properties and (if necessary) the long-term storage, handling, and disposal of the product. Among other
factors, the MSDS describes the hazardous components of a product; how to treat leaks, spills, and fires, and how to
treat improper human contact with the product. (APICS Dictionary 11 th Edition)

Lead is a hazardous material often encountered in construction activities, particularly in renovation and demolition of
structures built prior to 1978. Lead exposure in construction occurs via:
1) Inhalation.
2) Dirt, metal and fire arms.
3) Injection.
4) Inhalation and ingestion.
Workers are exposed to lead through inhalation of dusts, fumes or mists and through ingestion.

Overexposure to lead occurring over a period of time can result in damage to the body's internal systems. Exposure
that occurs over time is referred to as:
1) Inhalation exposure.
2) Chronic exposure.
3) Acute exposure.
4) Transient exposure.
Chronic exposures occur over time. Acute exposure is a short term or instantaneous exposure.

Which of the following is the most critical condition?
1) Heat exhaustion
2) Heat stroke
3) The amputation of a finger
4) Puncture wound of a foot
Heat stroke is an immediately life threatening situation that will result in death if proper treatment is not obtained. The
amputation of a finger, while a terrible event, seldom presents an immediate threat to the life of the victim. All
situations require appropriate first aid and additional medical attention.

According to contemporary motivation theory, the strongest motivator is:
1) Fear of a boss.
2) Status.
3) Recognition of achievement.
4) Pay.
Current theory holds that recognition of achievement is the single most important motivator.

The process of determining safety goals, allowing supervisors a chance to perform, providing assistance along the way
and rewarding them according to their progress is known as:
1) Management by Exception.
2) Safety by Objective.
3) OSHA Star Program.
4) Motivation-Hygiene Theory.
Safety by Objective is the process of determining safety goals, allowing supervisors a chance to perform, providing
assistance along the way and rewarding them according to their progress.

In conducting a safety and health audit you ask for workers' compensation cost data and find the location's experience
modification rate to be 0.55. How would you rate the location's safety and health performance with respect to this
measure?
1) Excellent
2) Good
3) Fair
4) Poor
The experience modification is developed from the location's injury/illness frequency and severity rate and the
industry rate. If the plant had the same experience as the industry as a whole, the experience modification rate would
be 1. Since this plant had an experience modification rate of 0.55 it would be considered excellent.

Workers' Compensation insurance premiums are determined by three rating systems namely, retrospective rating,
experience rating and:
1) Modification factor.
2) Manual (or state) rating.
3) Loss exposure rating.
4) Prospective experience rating.
The first step in the rate making process is to determine a basis for potential loss. With Workers' Compensation, it is
obtained from the payroll i.e. the number of employees, the number of hours worked and pay rate. Different types of
work entail various degrees of hazard (e.g. an office worker versus machine operator and the establishment of job
classifications). Like industries have similar or matching classifications. Manual rates are governed by the experience
of the industry, reported annually by insurance carriers.

Workers' Compensation is determined by:
1) Federal law.
2) Casualty insurance companies.
3) State law.
4) Unions.
Workers' Compensation is required by state law as are its benefits. Although the laws and benefits may vary between
the 50 states that have Workers' Compensation, there is agreement on its basic principles.

What is the key to effective safety management?
1) Compliance with OSHA standards

2) Establishing accountability
3) Engineering control of workplace hazards
4) Safety committees
Management must hold supervisors accountable for the unsafe acts committed by the employees they supervise.
Accountability produces interest and attention. The result is a more effective program.

Every person has a legal duty to exercise due care for the safety of others and to avoid injury to others if possible.
This principle is called:
1) Exercise of due care.

2) Slight care.
3) Non gross negligence.
4) Great care.
Exercise of due care is the principle that every person has a legal duty to exercise due care for the safety of others and
to avoid injury to others if possible.

Employee rights concerning the abatement date of an OSHA violation include:
1) Appeal abatement date.

2) Ignore abatement date.
3) Speed up abatement date.
4) Set abatement date.
Employees may appeal the abatement date of an OSHA violation if they are unhappy with it. This is covered by 29
CFR 1903.17

What is a disadvantage of having an external group evaluate the safety program?
1) More objective
2) Fresh perspective
3) Image as "critics"
4) Non-prejudicial
A real problem with having external people evaluate the program is the fact that they will be perceived as "critics"
rather than as teammates.

What is one disadvantage of having an internal safety program evaluation group?
1) Evaluation staff knows plant workers

2) Less obtrusive audit
3) Potentially less objective
4) Harder to work with
One main drawback of an internal safety program audit group is the fact that they are less likely to be totally objective
due to personal knowledge.

For the purpose of protecting workers in trenches, the type of soil is required to assess risk. A primary factor in
differing types of soil is:
1) Depth
2) Cohesiveness
3) Width
4) Soil weight
A soil's cohesiveness is critical to its stability in a trench or excavation.
29 CFR 1926 Subpart P, Appendix A.

In addition to shoring and shielding, what basic type of protective method is permitted to protect workers from a
trench cave-in?
1) Sloping
2) Limiting the workers' exposure times in the trench
3) Posting a competent person as a safety observer outside the trench
4) Training
Other accepted methods of protection include sloping or benching. Sloping and benching decrease the effective depth
of the trench.
29 CFR 1926.652 (b)

The point of operation for any machine tool is:
1) The place where a guard is usually placed .

2) Where one moving part passes another.
3) The place where work is done on material.
4) Both 1 and 2
Point of operation is the area on a machine where work is actually performed upon the material being processed. This
is generally an area where injury can occur.
29 CFR 1910.212 (a)(3)


PROGRAM MANAGEMENT :Site Specific JSA's
Generally, the person that knows the most about how to accomplish a task is:
1) The supervisor.
2) The worker.
3) Management.
4) The company founder.
The worker that performs the task is usually the most knowledgeable person about what is involved in accomplishing
the task, issues that occur in doing a task and things that might affect performing the task. The worker that does the
task should be trained and authorized to assist in the safety programs.

The single leading cause of workplace accidental deaths is:
1) Fire.
2) Electrical shock.
3) Motor vehicle accidents.
4) Poisoning.
Motor vehicle accidents are the single biggest cause of workplace accidental deaths, accounting for approximately
35% or more. Falls are the second leading cause accounting for more than 10%. All other individual causes account
for single digit percentages.

The leading cause of workplace injuries is:
1) Falls.
2) Overexertion.
3) Struck by or against.
4) Electrocution.
Overexertion is the leading cause of workplace injuries, accounting for as much as 30% or more, followed by impact
injuries (struck by or against) and falls.

Industry death rates are based on the number of deaths per 100,000 workers in a given year. Which industry category
has the highest death rate?
1) Mining and quarrying

2) Construction
3) Manufacturing
4) Agriculture
Mining and quarrying has the highest death rate, followed by (in order of next highest to lowest):
Agriculture
Construction
Transportation/public utilities
Government
Manufacturing
Services
Trade
Thus, construction has the third highest industry death rate.

The most frequently injured part of the body is which of the following?
1) Eyes
2) Hands
3) Legs and fingers
4) Back
The back is the most frequently injured part of the body, followed by (in order of next highest to lowest):
Legs and fingers

Arms and multiple parts of the body
Trunk
Hands
Eyes/head/feet
Neck/toes/body system

Chemical burn injuries are a type of injury most prevalent in construction and manufacturing. Most chemical burn
injuries in construction occur while workers are:
1) Laying concrete or applying plaster.

2) Preparing metals surfaces for paint.
3) Cleaning equipment, tools, and vehicles.
4) Charging batteries.
Most chemical burns occur during cleaning activities. Chemicals frequently found in construction include: acids and
alkalies, soaps/detergents and cleaning compounds, solvents and degreasers, calcium hydroxide, potassium hydroxide,
and sulfuric acid.

One of the most common causes of burn injuries in construction is from:
1) Hot water and steam.

2) Handling tar or asphalt.
3) Fires for keeping warm in the winter.
4) Hot exhaust pipes.
The most common causes of burn injuries in construction are welding, cutting with a torch, and handling tar or
asphalt.

The Human Factor Theory of Accident Causation postulates that accidents are caused by human error. Three factors
that lead to human error in this theory are:
Overload: A person's capacity is overloaded by the combination of responsibilities (assigned tasks), environmental
conditions (noise, lighting), internal issues (personal issues such as emotional stress), and situational conditions (high
risk task, unclear direction).
Inappropriate response or incompatibility: When a person responds to a situation in a manner that creates a hazard
or causes an accident, they have responded inappropriately. Incompatibility refers to the use of an incorrect tool,
poorly sized workstation or task chair, too long of a reach and similar incompatible person-tool matches.
Inappropriate activities: Performing a task without the required training and performing a task after under estimating
the level of risk are examples of inappropriate action.
Which of the following is an example of inappropriate activity?
1) A worker is responsible for receiving materials at the worksite. A shipment of materials has been received, packed
in numerous boxes. After unsuccessfully looking for a box cutter, the worker uses his own pocket knife. When
opening the third box, the worker punctures a container of drain cleaner and receives a minor acid burn.
2) A worker has been assigned to be the fire watch during a welding activity. A work truck must be moved into the
area. Since the worker is already required to be there, the supervisor asks the worker to direct the truck driver into
the tight space. While the worker is directing the truck, a fire ignites and spreads into a nearby wall.
3) A worker discovers a fire in an electrical junction box. The worker has seen fire extinguishers used on TV and
grabs the nearest fire extinguisher to put out the fire. The worker is electrocuted when the water stream from the
fire extinguisher contacts a live electrical circuit.
4) A confined space entry attendant is working with a confined space entrant going into a manhole next to a busy
street. During the entry, the attendant can not see the entrant because of the bright sunlight outside the manhole and
the darkness inside the manhole. The attendant is unaware that the entrant slipped and was knocked unconscious.
The worker was not trained and knowledgeable in the use of fire extinguishers

Exposures are usually measured over a period of time. Worker exposure limits for a work day are generally provided
on the basis of:
1) TLV
2) PEL
3) TWA
4) IDLH
Worker exposure limits are provided on the basis of a TWA or time weighted average. TWA indicates that the
exposure is the weighted average over a specified time period. When the exposure limit is for a work place, it is
understood to be based on an 8-hour day, unless otherwise specified.

A threshold shift is the point at which:
1) A change occurs in the hearing threshold of an individual.

2) A change in the elevation occurs at the threshold of a doorway.
3) A fall hazard occurs at the edge of an open sided walkway.
4) The sound level has increased causing the potential for hearing loss.
A threshold shift is the term used to describe the change in hearing ability of an individual. OSHA considers a change
from a baseline audiogram of 10 dB or more at 200, 300, and 4000 Hz in either ear to be a standard threshold shift.

Which statement best describes radiation?
1) Radiation is a potential hazard on construction sites. Radiation can not be seen, felt, smelled or tasted.
2) Radiation is a potential hazard in the construction of nuclear power plants, otherwise, this horrible material is not
an issue.
3) Radiation is a common hazard on construction sites during weld evaluation. There are no other practical uses for
radiation in construction.
4) The greatest hazard from radiation is a respiratory hazard. Breathing radiation significantly increases the potential
for lung cancer.
Radiation is a potential hazard on construction sites. Radiation can not be seen, felt, smelled or tasted. Radiation is not
a material that can be moved from one place to another and can not be breathed. Radiation has multiple potential uses
in a construction site including non-destructive testing of welds, density testing of soils, and as a key part of the
operation of ionizing smoke detectors and Tritium exit signs. A very important differentiation is between radiation and
radioactive material. Radiation is the "energy" emitted from radioactive materials. Radioactive materials can
contribute to contamination, can be ingested or inhaled. Radiation can not cause contamination, be ingested or inhaled.

Radiation associated with radioactive materials and x-ray machines is:
1) Non-ionizing radiation.
2) Ionizing radiation.
3) Considerable more hazardous than toxic materials.
4) Detected through the use of thermal meters.
Radiation associated with radioactive materials and x-ray machines is ionizing radiation.

Which of the following is an example of a potential source of non-ionizing radiation at a construction site?
1) The x-ray device used by a non-destructive testing firm evaluating critical welds.
2) A soil density meter containing Cesium 137, used to verify compaction.
3) A laser leveler used to ensure proper installation height of a dropped ceiling.
4) A jack hammer used to break up concrete pads.
Lasers produce non-ionizing radiation. Laser is actually an acronym: Light Amplification by the Stimulated Emission
of Radiation. X-ray devices and byproduct materials such as Cesium 137 produce ionizing radiation.

What does the following symbol represent?
1) Bomb shelter
2) Air toxin hazard
3) Ionizing radiation
4) Pesticide
The magenta tri-foil symbol with yellow background represents an ionizing radiation hazard.

Tiny particles in air resulting for the condensation of material that has been volatized by heat is referred to as:
1) Smoke.
2) Fumes.
3) Mists.
4) Gases.
Dusts are particles of solid materials generated by a physical interaction with solid materials.
Fumes are tiny particles in air resulting for the condensation of material that has been volatized by heat.
Smoke is particles of incomplete combustion of carbonaceous materials.
Aerosols are tiny particles of liquid or solid materials suspended in air.
Mists are tiny droplets of liquid suspended in air.
Gases are formless fluids. They are neither solid nor liquid.
Vapors are the gaseous phase of materials that are normally liquid or solid at normal temperatures.

Particles of solid materials generated by a physical interaction with solid materials are referred to as:
1) Gases.
2) Mists.
3) Smoke.
4) Dusts.
Aerosols tiny particles of liquid or solid materials suspended in air.

Particles of incomplete combustion of carbonaceous materials are referred to as:
1) Smoke.
2) Vapors.
3) Dusts.
4) Gases.

The gaseous phase of materials are referred to as:
1) Smoke.
2) Dusts.
3) Vapors.
4) Aerosols.

Tiny particles of liquid or solid materials suspended in air are referred to as:
1) Vapors.
2) Aerosols.
3) Gases.
4) Dusts.
Vapors are the gaseous phase of materials that are usually liquid or solid at normal temperatures.

Fall protection is required for all construction workers:
1) Where a platform that is higher than 4 feet is not protected by a guardrail.

2) Where there is a potential to fall from a working level higher than 6 feet.
3) Where there is an open sided platform from which a worker can fall.
4) Where there is a potential to fall from the working level.
In construction, the fall protection standard is triggered by a working level height of 6 feet.
Goetsch, D. L.(2003). Construction Safety and Health. Upper Saddle River, NJ: Prentice Hall.190.

An employee has been working at a construction site where the ambient temperature is 98° Fahrenheit. The employee
begins to complain of stomach cramps and is having trouble focusing. The workers shirt is wet from sweating but
there is no perspiration on the workers face which is red and feels warm or hot to the touch. The worker may be
experiencing:
1) A heart attack.
2) A drug overdose.
3) Heat exhaustion.
4) Heat stroke.
The description of the worker presents signs and symptoms of heat stroke. Heat stroke is an immediately life
threatening situations and emergency medical help must be summoned immediately, usually by calling 911.

Most commercial buildings built prior to 1979 will have electrical equipment containing PCBs. PCBs are most likely
to be found in:
1) Fluorescent light fixtures.

2) Emergency generator oil reservoirs.
3) High voltage electrical cables.
4) Uninterruptible power supplies.
The ballasts in fluorescent light fixtures manufactured before July 2, 1979 are very likely to contain PCBs. These
ballasts require special disposal and should not be placed in regular solid waste.
EPA: (2005). Managing Your Environmental Responsibilities: A Planning Guide for Construc. Washington, DC: U.S.
Government Printing Office. 56.

Asbestos is considered non-friable when:
1) Sanding, grinding or cutting produces fibers in the air.

2) The asbestos containing material is not reduced to dust through hand pressure.
3) The asbestos containing material can be reduced to dust by hand pressure.
4) The asbestos containing material contains chrysotile or crocidolite.
Asbestos containing material is considered to be friable when it is able to be reduced to dust through the application of
hand pressure. Therefore, if it can not be reduced to dust through the application of hand pressure, it is non-friable.
Asbestos presents a hazard when the asbestos fibers are inhaled.

Workers exposed to heat stress require special consideration to assure they do not experience heat related injury or
illness. Assessment of the heat stress hazard is often accomplished using the:
1) Sun/Shade thermometer.
2) WBGT.
3) Core body temperature.
4) NWS.
The WBGT or wet-bulb globe temperature provides a measure of the effect of temperature and humidity. This is a
more accurate assessment of heat hazard than a plain thermometer reading.

Fire is a hazard in every work environment. Some work activities and environments present a greater fire risk. For fire
to occur these things must be present:
1) Flame, oxygen and fuel.
2) Combustion, fuel and oxygen.
3) Oxygen, fuel and heat.
4) Ignition, air and gases.
For a fire to occur, the traditional theory states that there must be oxygen, fuel and heat, called the fire triangle. Fuel
can not burn without an oxidizing agent and heat is required for ignition. The modern version is the fire tetrahedron. In
the fire tetrahedron, the forth element is a chemical reaction.

The three colored areas of the NFPA 704 placard will contain a number. The number will:
1) Be from 1 to 4 with 1 being a minimal hazard and 4 being the highest hazard.
2) Be from 0 to 4 with 0 being a no hazard and 4 being the highest hazard.
3) Be from 1 to 5 with 1 being no hazard and 5 being the highest hazard.
4) Be from 0 to 5 with 0 being a minimal hazard and 5 being the highest hazard.
The NFPA 704 system uses the number 0 to 4. 0 is no hazard and 4 is the highest hazard.

There are four classes of fires. Class A fires are:

Type A fires consist of fires in paper, cloth, wood, rubber, and many plastics.
(2006). Fire Extinguisher Basics. OSHA-Fire Extinguisher Basics. Retrieved 3/13/06

Which of the following would be an appropriate extinguisher to use on a fire involving a can of gasoline?
1) A fire extinguisher labeled A.

2) A fire extinguisher labeled C.
3) A fire extinguisher labeled D.
4) A fire extinguisher labeled A and B.
While the gasoline fire constitutes a Class B fire, an extinguisher labeled "B", "A&B" "B&C" or "A, B and C" should
be used.

A natural gas supply line to a cafeteria was broken during a cable laying operation. The gas supply has been
controlled and the gas line has been excavated. The line is 4.5 feet below the surface. The soil is determined to be of
Type B. What requirements must be met for safe entry?
1) A slope of 1 to 1 must be provided for Type B soils and a ladder placed ever 25 feet of lateral distance.
2) The excavation is less than 5 feet deep so no shoring or sloping is required. A ladder must be provided every 25
feet and combustible gas monitoring must be performed.
3) Since the trench is less than 5 feet deep there are no trenching requirements applicable to this activity.
4) Install a trench box, ventilate the excavation and complete the repair.
There should be no need for cave-in protection. Since the trench is more than 4 feet deep, it does require a ladder or
other means for egress. Even though the gas has been turned off, there may be gas trapped in the soils that can enter
the trench, combustible gas readings need to be taken before and during work activities.

A device that is attached to the steel joist to allow the bolting of the bridging to the steel joist is called a:
1) Bridging terminus.
2) Pre-bolt.
3) Bridging clip.
4) Anchor pin.
Bridging clip means a device that is attached to the steel joist to allow the bolting of the bridging to the steel joist.

A wall, beam, tandem joists or other element at an end or intermediate point(s) of a line of bridging that provides an
anchor point for the steel joist bridging is called a(n):
1) Bridging clip terminal.

2) Bridging terminus point.
3) Pre-bolt point.
4) Anchor pin access.
Bridging terminus point means a wall, beam, tandem joists (with all bridging installed and a horizontal truss in the
plane of the top chord), or other element at an end or intermediate point(s) of a line of bridging that provides an
anchor point for the steel joist bridging.

A lift that requires more than one crane or derrick is a:
1) Dual lift.
2) Critical lift.
3) Multi-crane, coordinated lift.
4) Prohibited lift.
Critical lift means a lift that (1) exceeds 75 percent of the rated capacity of the crane or derrick, or (2) requires the use
of more than one crane or derrick.

An airtight structure separating the working chamber from free air or from another chamber under a lesser pressure
than the working pressure is a(n):
1) Pressure lock.
2) Emergency lock.
3) Caisson.
4) Bulkhead.
"Bulkhead"-An airtight structure separating the working chamber from free air or from another chamber under a
lesser pressure than the working pressure.
Retrieved 3/23/06

The space or compartment under air pressure in which the work is being done is a(n):
1) Project chamber.
2) Operations chamber.
3) Working chamber.
4) Pressure chamber.

"Working chamber "-The space or compartment under air pressure in which the work is being done.
Retrieved 3/23/06

A device that detects an insulation failure by comparing the amount of current flowing to electrical equipment with the
amount of current returning from the equipment. Whenever the difference is greater than 5 milliamps, the device
interrupts the flow of electricity. This device is a:
1) Fuse.
2) Breaker.
3) Ground-fault Circuit Interrupter.
4) Cut-off.
GFCI (Ground-fault circuit interrupter) is a device that detects an insulation failure by comparing the amount of
current flowing to electrical equipment with the amount of current returning from the equipment. Whenever the
difference is greater than 5 milliamps, the GFCI trips and thereby interrupts the flow of electricity.
Fuse: A protective device which allows a piece of metal to become part of a circuit. The metal melts under heat
created by excessive current, thereby interrupting the circuit and preventing the flow of electricity from exceeding the
circuit's current-carrying capacity.
Circuit breaker: A protective device which automatically opens, or trips, a circuit, without damage to itself, when the
current exceeds a predetermined level.

The breaking of boulders by firing a charge of explosives that has been loaded in a drill hole is called:
1) Blasting.
2) Block holing.
3) Boulder Charges.
4) Mud-capping.
Block Holing: The breaking of boulders by firing a charge of explosives that has been loaded in a drill hole.
Mud-Capping: (sometimes known as bulldozing, adobe blasting, or dobying). The blasting of boulders by placing a
quantity of explosives against a rock, boulder, or other object without confining the explosives in a drill hole.

The blasting of boulders by placing a quantity of explosives against a rock, boulder, or other object without confining
the explosives in a drill hole is called:
1) Mud-capping.
2) Block holing.
3) Blasting.
4) Boulder Charges.
Block Holing. The breaking of boulders by firing a charge of explosives that has been loaded in a drill hole.

The creation of a pocket in the bottom of a drill hole by the use of a moderate quantity of explosives in order that
larger quantities or explosives may be inserted therein is called:
1) Bottoming.
2) Caisson.
3) Springing.
4) Stemming.

Springing: The creation of a pocket in the bottom of a drill hole by the use of a moderate quantity of explosives in
order that larger quantities or explosives may be inserted therein.
Stemming: A suitable inert incombustible material or device used to confine or separate explosives in a drill hole, or
to cover explosives in mud-capping.

The current-carrying capacity of conductors or equipment is called:
1) Ammeter.
2) Ampacity.
3) Becquerel.
4) Currency
Ampacity: The current-carrying capacity of conductors or equipment, expressed in amperes.
Ammeter: An electric meter used to measure current, calibrated in amperes.
Becquerel: The SI unit of intrinsic radioactivity in a material. One Bq measures one disintegration per second and is
thus the activity of a quantity of radioactive material which averages one decay per second. (In practice, GBq or TBq
are the common units.)

The naturally-occurring ionizing radiation which every person is exposed to, arising from the earth's crust (including
radon) and from cosmic radiation is called:
1) Atmospheric radiation.
2) Background radiation.
3) Full-spectrum radiation.
4) Natural radiation.

Background radiation: The naturally-occurring ionizing radiation which every person is exposed to, arising from the
earth's crust (including radon) and from cosmic radiation.

A family of chemicals composed primarily of carbon, hydrogen, chlorine, and fluorine whose principal applications
are that of refrigerants and industrial cleansers and whose principal drawback is the tendency to destroy the Earth's
protective ozone layer are generally known as:
1) CHCFs.
2) Chlorine-Oxygen degraders.
3) Chlorinated solvents.
4) ODSs.
Chlorofluorocarbons also known as CFCs, HCFCs, and ODSs (Ozone Depleting Substances): A family of chemicals
composed primarily of carbon, hydrogen, chlorine, and fluorine whose principal applications are that of refrigerants
and industrial cleansers and whose principal drawback is the tendency to destroy the Earth's protective ozone layer.

Electrolyte is:
1) The light emitted from the process of electrolysis.

2) A light weight electrical system for construction.
3) A special electric light.
4) A liquid conductor of electricity.
Electrolyte: A liquid conductor of electricity.

Any material that can be burned to make energy is called a:
1) Fuel.
2) Combustibles.
3) Type A material.
4) Fire load.
Fuel: Any material that can be burned to make energy.

Hazardous atmosphere is an atmosphere that may expose employees to the risk of death, incapacitation, impairment of
ability to self-rescue (that is, escape unaided from an enclosed space), injury, or acute illness. Which of the following
are viewed as hazardous atmospheres by OSHA?
I. Flammable gas in excess of 10 percent of its lower flammable limit (LFL)

II. Airborne combustible dust which obscures vision at a distance of 5 feet (1.52 m) or less
III. Atmospheric oxygen concentration below 19.5 percent
IV. An atmospheric IDLH condition
V. Atmospheric oxygen concentration above 25 percent
1) I and II.
2) I, II and III.
3) I, II, III and IV.
4) I, II, III, IV and V.
Hazardous atmosphere: An atmosphere that may expose employees to the risk of death, incapacitation, impairment
of ability to self-rescue (that is, escape unaided from an enclosed space), injury, or acute illness from one or more of
the following causes:
* Flammable gas, vapor, or mist in excess of 10 percent of its lower flammable limit (LFL);
* Airborne combustible dust at a concentration that meets or exceeds its LFL; Note: This concentration may be
approximated as a condition in which the dust obscures vision at a distance of 5 feet (1.52 m) or less.
* Atmospheric oxygen concentration below 19.5 percent or above 23.5 percent;
* Atmospheric concentration of any substance for which a dose or a permissible exposure limit is published and
which could result in employee exposure in excess of its dose or permissible exposure limit;
Note: An atmospheric concentration of any substance that is not capable of causing death, incapacitation, impairment
of ability to self-rescue, injury, or acute illness due to its health effects is not covered by this definition.
* Any other atmospheric condition that is immediately dangerous to life or health.
Note: For air contaminants for which OSHA has not determined a dose or permissible exposure limit, other sources of
information, such as Material Safety Data Sheets that comply with the Hazard Communication Standard, 1910.1200,
published information, and internal documents can provide guidance in establishing acceptable atmospheric
conditions.

Outermost layer of insulating material of a cable or wire is called the:
1) Shield.
2) Cover.
3) Resistor.
4) Jacket.
Jacket: Outermost layer of insulating material of a cable or wire.

High wind presents a hazardous condition. Which of the following would be considered a high wind hazard?
1) Work documents are blown out of the work area after an employee loses control of them.
2) An employee exposed to being blown from elevated locations.
3) Wind blowing at 25 mile per hour, causing roofing materials to be blown off a roof.
4) Any time wind exceeds 30 mile per hour.
High wind : A wind of such velocity that the following hazards would be present:
An employee would be exposed to being blown from elevated locations, or

An employee or material handling equipment could lose control of material being handled, or
An employee would be exposed to other hazards not controlled by the standard involved.
Note: Winds exceeding 40 miles per hour (64.4 kilometers per hour), or 30 miles per hour (48.3 kilometers per hour) if
material handling is involved, are normally considered as meeting this criteria unless precautions are taken to protect
employees from the hazardous effects of the wind.

Run of cables from the power company's aerial power lines to the point of connection to a customer's premises is
called the:
1) Service drop.
2) Service Connectors.
3) Conductors.
4) Service Entrance.
Service Drop: Run of cables from the power company's aerial power lines to the point of connection to a customer's
premises.
Service Conductors: The supply conductors that extend from the street main or transformers to the service equipment
of the premises being supplied.
Service Entrance Conductors: (Overhead) The service conductors between the terminals of the service equipment
and a point usually outside the building, clear of building walls, where they are joined by tap or splice to the service
drop.
Service Entrance Conductors: (Underground) The service conductors between the terminals of the service
equipment and the point of connection to the service lateral.
Service Equipment : The necessary equipment, usually consisting of a circuit breaker or switch and fuses and their
accessories, located near the point entrance of supply conductors to a building and intended to constitute the main
control and cutoff means for the supply to the building.

While conducting a daily inspection of subcontractor work at your job site, you see sparks and observe a
subcontractor worker fall to the ground while using power tools. You should:
1) Secure sources of electricity, send someone to call for emergency services, check the victim for respirations and
pulse, and start CPR as appropriate.
2) Immediately send someone to call for emergency services, check the victim for respirations and pulse, start CPR
as appropriate and make the patient comfortable.
3) Send someone to call for emergency services, check the victim for respirations and pulse, and start CPR as
appropriate.
4) Check the victim for respirations and a pulse, send someone to call for emergency services, remove the victim
from the work area and start CPR as appropriate.
It is critical that the source of electricity that caused the shock be secured to prevent yourself and others from being
shocked while helping the victim. If the victim is still in contact with an energized electrical circuit, rescuers can be
shocked when they touch the victim.
DHHS/NIOSH.

Current that does not return through the intended path but instead goes to ground is called:
1) Lost current.
2) A short.
3) A grounded circuit.
4) Leakage current.

Leakage current: Current that does not return through the intended path but instead "leaks" to ground.
DHHS/NIOSH.

Conductors and cables must be marked by the manufacturer to show:
1) The maximum voltage, AWG, insulation type and allowable services.

2) The AWG, manufacturer's name and maximum current.
3) The maximum voltage, AWG and insulation type.
4) The maximum voltage, maximum current, AWG and manufacturers name.
Conductors and cables must be marked by the manufacturer to show the following:
Maximum voltage capacity

AWG size
Insulation-type letter
The manufacturer's name or trademark
DHHS/NIOSH.

All machines consist of three fundamental areas. The three areas are:
1) The cutting surface, the power switch, and the operating controls.
2) The point of operation, the power switch, and the safety guards.
3) The cutting surface, the power transmission device, and the safety guards.
4) The point of operation, the power transmission device, and the operating controls.
All machines consist of three fundamental areas; the point of operation, the power transmission device, and the
operating controls. Despite all machines having the same basic components, their safeguarding needs widely differ
due to varying physical characteristics and operator involvement.

The place where work is performed on the material by the power tool, such as cutting, shaping, boring, or forming of
stock, is called the:
2) Power transmission point.
3) Work point of contact.
4) Contact point of operation.
The point of operation is where work is performed on the material, such as cutting, shaping, boring, or forming of
stock.
The power transmission apparatus is all components of the mechanical system which transmit energy to the part of the
machine performing the work. These components include flywheels, pulleys, belts, connecting rods, couplings, cams,
spindles, chains, cranks, and gears.

An oxygen deficient atmosphere exist when the oxygen concentration in air is at or below:
1) 15%
2) 18.5%
3) 19.5%
4) 20.9%
Oxygen Deficient Atmosphere: An atmosphere with an oxygen content below 19.5% by volume. OSHA Definition

Asbestos exposure is divided into four Classes which are:
1) In order of least hazardous to most hazardous from Class 1 to Class 4.

2) In order of most hazardous to least hazardous from Class I to Class IV.
3) In order of least hazardous to most hazardous from Class I to Class IV.
4) Not relevant to exposure hazard.
Class I Asbestos Work : Activities involving the removal of TSI and surfacing ACM and PACM.
Class II Asbestos Work : Activities involving the removal of ACM which is not thermal system insulation or
surfacing material. This includes, but is not limited to, the removal of asbestos-containing wallboard, floor tile and
sheeting, roofing and siding shingles, and construction mastics.
Class III Asbestos Work : Repair and maintenance operations, where "ACM," including TSI and surfacing ACM and
PACM, may be disturbed.
Class IV Asbestos Work : Maintenance and custodial construction activities during which employees contact but do
not disturb ACM or PACM and activities to clean up dust, waste and debris resulting from Class I, II and III activities.
(1996). Significant Issues in the New Asbestos Standard. Significant Issues in the New Asbestos Standard. Retrieved
04/18/06

When using cartridge respirators in high humidity, the effect to the service life of the cartridge is generally:
1) To decrease the service life.
2) To increase the service life.
3) To have no impact on the service life.
4) Cartridge respirators should never be used in high humidity environments.
Relative Humidity is a measure of the amount of water vapor the air will hold at a specified temperature and is
expressed in percentage values. Since warmer air will hold more water than colder air, the same relative humidity at a
higher temperature represents a significantly greater amount of moisture. High relative humidity is a significant
negative factor in the capacity of organic vapor cartridges since the large quantity of water vapor will compete with the
organic vapors for active sites on the adsorbent. Most of the laboratory work determining adsorbent capacity has been
performed at a low relative humidity of 50% at approximately 70° F.

What is JSA?
1) Procedure of reviewing methods, hazards, and safety

2) A type of job description
3) A private company
4) Joint Safety Authority
Job Safety Analysis is a written procedure for reviewing job methods, uncovering hazards, and recommending safe
procedures.

Relative humidity is determined using :
1) Wet bulb and dry bulb temperatures.

2) WBGT and GBT.
3) Dry bulb to GBT.
4) Wet bulb and dry bulb with psychometric chart.
To calculate relative humidity, first determine the wet bulb and dry bulb temperatures, then use a psychometric chart
to determine Relative Humidity.

The coefficient of variation of an asbestos sampling technique has been estimated to be 0.22. The coefficient of
variation for charcoal tube sampling has been estimated to be 0.10. This means asbestos air sampling is:
1) More variable.
2) Less variable.
3) Does not relate to variability of the data.
4) No decision can be made based on the data given.
The coefficient of variation is the standard deviation divided by the true value times 100. This means that the higher
the coefficient of variation, the more variability there are in the data.

A welder was exposed to 270 µg Pb/m 3 for 75 minutes while burning bolts, 40 µg Pb/m 3 for 3 hours and 19 minutes
when welding painted steel, and 600 µg Pb/m 3 for 30 minutes when using an abrasive blaster to remove lead
containing paint. The balance of his 8-hour day was 1.5 µg Pb/m 3. What was his TWA?
1) 43.4 µg Pb/m3
2) 47.9 µg Pb/m3
3) 96.8 µg Pb/m3
4) 100.5 µg Pb/m 3
Set up the following table:

JOB C(µg/m3) * T(min) = CT (&µg/m3)( min)
Burning 270 ppm * 75 = 20,250
Welding 40 ppm * 199 = 7,960
Blasting 600 ppm * 30 = 18,000
Other 1.5 ppm * 176 = 264
46,474 µg/m3 (min)/480 min = 96.8 µg Pb/m3

In heat stress science and calculation of heat stress on the body, metabolism is always:
1) Negative.
2) Positive.
3) Can be both positive and negative.
4) Always negative; can never be positive.
In heat stress science, heat gains by the body by metabolism are positive.

Which of the following would react with a strong oxidizing agent?
1) Fe
2) Freon 22
3) O2
4) SiO2
Iron (Fe) reacts readily with oxidizing agents like oxygen to form rust. O 2 is an oxidizer and SiO2 is unreactive to
oxidizing agents. Freons are noted for their relative unreactive nature.

The term for the interaction of two toxins where the combined effect is greater than the sum is:
1) Additive.
2) Synergistic.
3) Potentiation.
4) Antagonistic.
Synergistic effects occur when two substances act together to produce a toxic effect greater than the sum of each. For
example, asbestos exposure and cigarette smoking produces cancer risk much greater than the sum of each risk.
Additive effects are the sum of each substance on the body. Potentiation is where one substance has no effect unless
combined with a second substance, antagonistic effects occur when two substances interfere with each others effects,
giving an overall lesser effect.

The volatility of a chemical refers to the:
1) Capacity of a liquid to form vapors.

2) Degree of flammability of a chemical.
3) Exothermic reaction of a liquid.
4) Endothermic reaction of a liquid.
Volatility refers to the capacity of a liquid to form vapors, which can be measured through its vapor pressure.
Flammability of a liquid is increased if it is more volatile, but non-flammable liquids can be volatile also. Exothermic
and endothermic reactions are not related to volatility.

Concentration of gases and vapors may be given as:

1) Parts per million by weight.
2) Particles per million by volume.
3) Parts per million by volume.
4) Particles per million by weight.
Gas and vapor concentrations in air are expressed in a volume/volume ratio. Based on toxicity, irritation, and other
factors, the volume of gas or vapor is compared to one million parts of air. Particulates are used for solid
contaminants. Weight/volume ratios are used for particulates.

What is tuberculosis caused by?
1) Virus
2) Bacteria
3) Protozoa
4) Spirochete
Tuberculosis is caused by mycobacterium tuberculosis, which is a bacillus bacteria. Viruses and protozoa are not
bacteria and do not cause tuberculosis. Spirochetes are bacteria, but of a different type and shape than the bacteria that
causes tuberculosis.

Tuberculosis is spread by which one of the following?
1) Sex
2) Contaminated blood
3) Airborne droplet nuclei
4) Fomites
Tuberculosis is a bacterial disease which is spread by airborne droplet nuclei containing the infectious bacteria in
closed air spaces. TB is not spread by sex or contaminated blood or blood products.

A person infected with TB:
1) Always shows symptoms.

2) Not always test positive.
3) Can spread disease with no symptoms.
4) May never show symptoms.
People infected with tuberculosis may never develop active TB. 5-15% develop active disease within the first 2 years
of primary infection. Therefore, the symptoms may never be evident. When the infected person is not showing
symptoms, they are not infectious and cannot spread the disease. TB infected people always test positive for TB.

Tuberculosis outbreaks have increased in recent years because of all of the following EXCEPT:
1) Non-compliance with drug therapy

2) Contaminated blood supply
3) Multi-drug resistant bacteria
4) Human immunodeficiency virus
Tuberculosis is not transmitted by contaminated blood. Infected people who do not comply with the proper drug
therapy cause an increase in drug resistant bacteria. Many HIV infected patients develop TB from exposure to
airborne droplet nuclei in hospitals.

Ultrasonic noise can not be heard by the human ear. What does the ear hear during ultrasonic operation?
1) Ultrasonic noise
2) Subharmonic noise
3) ELF noise
4) You think you hear something
You actually hear subharmonics of the ultrasonic noise which are generated in your hearing range. An ultrasonic
welder emitting noise at 20 kHz (human limit) will be heard at 10 kHz, the first subharmonic.

A sound is considered Ultrasonic if it has a frequency in excess of which of the following?
1) 5,000 Hz
2) 20,000 Hz
3) 200 Hz
4) 10,000 Hz
The frequency of human hearing is from 20 - 20,000 hz. Anything above 20,000 is considered Ultrasonic.

Sound can be transmitted through all of the following media EXCEPT:
1) Water
2) Steel
3) Lead
4) Vacuum
Sound waves cause physical vibrations in the media through which they propogate. There is no media in a vacuum.

The density of an unknown gas at 85°C and 720 mm Hg pressure is 2.75 gm per liter. What is the molecular mass of
the gas?
1) 0.32 gm
2) 85.4 gm
3) 3.08 gm
4) Not enough information given
Temperature is 85+273 = 358° K.

Pressure is 720/760 = 0.947 atm.
From PV = nRT calculate number of moles in 1 liter.

n/v = P/RT = 0.947/(0.0821)(358) = 0.0322
Since 0.0322 mole weighs 2.75 gm, 1 mole weighs 2.75/0.0322, or 85.4 gm.

Nine grams of a gas occupies 11.5 liters at a pressure of 35.0 cm Hg. What is the volume, when the pressure is
increased to 55.0 cm Hg?
1) 7.32 liters
2) 18.07 liters
3) 8.37 liters
4) 17.52 liters
From:
P2 V2 = P1V1
V2 = P1 V1/P2
Pressure changes to 55/35 of the original pressure.
Volume changes to 35/55 of the original volume.
Final Volume = 35/55 (initial volume) = (35/55)(11.5)
Final Volume = 7.32 liters

A simple series circuit consists of five resistors: 5 ohms, 10 ohms, 15 ohms, 5 ohms and 25 ohms. What is the total
circuit resistance?
1) 1.65 ohms
2) 120 ohms
3) 60 ohms
4) 165 ohms
In a series circuit:
R = R1 + R2 + R3 + ... Rn
R = 5 + 10 + 15 + 5 + 25
R = 60

What is the power rating of an electric motor which draws a current of 3 amps at 40 ?
1) 120 watts
2) 30 watts
3) 360 watts
4) 380 watts
Use the formula:

Power = Amps2 * Resistance
P = I2 * R
P = (3)2 * 40
P = 9 * 40
P = 360 watts
To Check:
P=E*I
P = 120 * 3

A charge of 30 coulombs is sent through a resistor with a 120 volts potential. What is the energy in joules/sec (watts)?
1) 4
2) 108
3) 3,300
4) 3,600
Using Ohms Law:

W = Watts, E = Volts, I = Amps
W=E*I
W = 120 * 30
W = 3,600

A man is standing on an elevated scaffold measuring 18 ft from the top of the scaffold to the floor. The wheels of the
scaffold are locked. The scaffold is 6 ft wide at the base. The height from the ceiling of the building to the floor is 24
ft. The man weighs 200 lbs. The scaffold weighs 400 lbs. The man is pushing on a bar joist at the roof to move the
scaffold. What force did the man exert to upset the scaffold?
1) 50 lbs.
2) 75 lbs.
3) 100 lbs.
4) 150 lbs.
Sketch the problem.
The scaffold will be upset at the point when the moment resulting from the man pushing on the joist is equal to the
moment resulting from the weight of the scaffold plus the weight of the man. Assume the man is standing in the center
of the scaffold platform. The total force that will be required to overturn the scaffold is equal to the 400 pounds of the
scaffold plus the 200 pounds of the man multiplied by the 3 foot distance that the combined load center is from the
edge of the bottom of the scaffold. (Moment = Force * Distance)
The man is pushing against the bar joist a total distance of 24 feet from the point of contact between the scaffold and
the floor. Therefore, the force that the man must exert to upset the scaffold is equivalent to the Moment divided by the
Distance. The resultant equation is F 1D1 = F2 D2, from the OHST/CHST Examination Reference Handout.
F1 equals the force of the man pushing

D1 equals the distance to the floor
F equals the weight of the scaffold plus the weight of the man
2
D2 equals the distance from the center of the scaffold to the edge
(F1 )(24) = (600)(3)

F1 = 1800/24
F1 = 75 lbs

A 2000 lb. load is suspended via a two legged sling making an angle of 30° with the horizontal. What is the tension of
each leg?
1) 4000 lbs
2) 500 lbs
3) 1000 lbs
4) 2000 lbs
Use the Law of Sines formula:

Sine = Opp / Hyp
Sin 30° = 1000 / Hyp
Hyp. = 1000 / 0.5 = 2000 lbs.

Determine the power in watts of a motor that is required to operate a hoist which is used to lift a load of 200 lbs. to a
height of 55 feet in 10 seconds?
1) 746 watts
2) 2 watts
3) 1100 watts
4) 1492 watts
Power = Force * Distance / Time

P= 200 lbs * 55 ft / 10 seconds
P= 1,100 ft lbs. / sec. (2 HP)
Note: 1 HP = 550 ft lbs / sec which is 746 watts
Therefore: 2 HP is 1492 watts.

A substance which accelerates the speed of a chemical reaction without changing its own composition is called:
1) Reactors.
2) Enhancers.
3) Masses.
4) Catalyst.
Catalysts are substances which accelerate the speed of a chemical reaction without changing its own composition.

A motor is rated at 1.5 amps at 115 volts. What is the resistance?
1) 66
2) 77
3) 88
4) 99
Use Ohm's Law: E = I * R

115 = 1.5 * R
77 = R

If water weighs 8.34 lbs / gallon and 100 gallons are moved up from the bottom to the top of a 100 foot tank, what
work is done?
1) 94,380 ft lbs
2) 49,320 ft lbs
3) 38,560 ft lbs
4) 83,400 ft lbs
Use the formula: W = FD

F = 8.34 lbs / gal. * 100 gal = 834
D = 100 ft
W = 834 lbs. * 100 ft. = 83,400 ft lbs

The inverse square law as applied to illumination states:
1) The light source as received varies inversely as the square of the power.
2) The light intensity of the source varies inversely as the distance in lumens.
3) Light intensity on a surface varies inversely with the square of the distance between source and surface.
4) Surface illumination varies directly with the inverse square of the distance.
Light intensity on a surface varies inversely with the square of the distance between source and surface.

What external hazard level does Alpha Radiation have on the body?
1) Low
2) Medium
3) High
4) No hazard
See matrix:
RADIATION TYPE EXTERNAL INTERNAL
Alpha Low High
Beta Medium Medium
Gamma High Medium-Low

Which one of the following statements is correct?
1) A2 = B2 + C2 + 2BC COS A
2) A2 = B2 + C2 - 2BC COS A
3) A2 = B2 - C2 + 2AB COS A
4) A2 = B2 + C2 - 2AC COS B
A2 = B2 + C2 - 2BC COS A
(Law of Cosines)

A three-legged sling is supported from a single point and attaches to a 1000 lb. steel cylindrical object at three
equidistant points along the cylinder's circumference (i.e., the attachment points on the steel cylinder are 120 degrees
apart). The center of gravity of the cylinder runs through its center. When attached to this steel cylinder, each leg of
the sling creates a 30 degree angle with respect to the load. What is the tension in each leg of the sling?
1) 333 lbs
2) 385 lbs
3) 577 lbs
4) 667 lbs
Tension (one leg) = 1/3 of Total load/sin 30°

Tension (one leg) = 1/3 of 1,000 lbs/sin 30°
Tension (one leg) = 333.3/0.05
Tension (one leg) = 667 lbs.
When you have the angle of each leg of the sling with respect to the load (or with respect to the horizontal), divide the
load by the sine of the angle.

If a force acting on a surface is applied in a direction perpendicular to that surface then the force is called:
1) Uni-directional force.
2) Normal force.
3) Perpendicular force.
4) Friction force.
If a force acting on a surface is applied in a direction perpendicular to that surface, then the force is called normal
force.

All of the following are true about solvents under the grouping of Halogenated Hydrocarbons EXCEPT:
1) Trichloroethylene - affects CNS, liver, causes dermatitis and may cause personality changes
2) Freons - primarily an asphyxiant hazard although some freons at high concentrations can cause cardiac arrythmia
3) Carbon Tetrachloride - highly toxic - affects kidneys, liver, CNS and GI tract - is suspect carcinogen
4) Glutaraldehyde - severe eye and respiratory irritant
Glutaraldehyde is a solvent under the grouping of aldehydes.

Diesel fuel is pumped into a tank at a rate of 150 gpm. If the tank has a diameter of 18 ft and is 27 ft high, what will
be the duration of the filling process if the tank started empty?
1) 45 minutes
2) 1.3 hours
3) 5.7 hours
4) 22.9 hours
The tank has a volume of 6,871 ft 3 . This volume converts to 51,564 gallons (note that
there are slightly more than 7.5 gallons per cubic foot). If the tank is filling at a rate of 150 gpm, then the filling
process will take nearly 344 minutes, or 5.7 hours.

The lower flammability limit for toluene is 1.2%. What is the airborne concentration (in ppm) of toluene if your
properly calibrated combustible gas meter reads 12%?
1) 12 ppm
2) 144 ppm
3) 1,440 ppm
4) 12,000 ppm
Your combustible gas meter reads 12% of the lower flammability limit. This means that the airborne concentration is
12% of the way to 1.2%. Therefore, multiply 1.2% by 12%, and multiply the ensuing result by 1,000,000 parts.
0.12 * 0.012 * 1,000,000 parts = 1,440 ppm.

What are the dimensions of a 10 in. high, square-shaped concrete basin designed to hold 40,000 gallons of water?
1) 13.5 ft by 13.5 ft
2) 63.2 ft by 63.2 ft
3) 80.1 ft by 80.1 ft
4) 219.1 ft by 219.1 ft
First, convert gallons into cubic feet.

40,000 gal * 1 ft 3 /7.481 gal = 5,347 ft3 .
Next, convert the height into feet.

10 in. * 1 ft/12 in. = 0.83 ft.
Since volume is length * width * height, then divide the volume (5,347 ft 3) by the height to get the cross sectional area
of the basin.
Since the basin is square, simply take the square root of this to get the dimensions of the basin.
5347 ft3 = 0.83 ft * width * length.

6,416 ft2 = width * length (width and length are equal since it is a square)
6,416 ft2 = width2
width = 80.1 ft = length

A charcoal tube sample was taken by drawing 40 liters of air through the tube which was then analyzed for benzene.
If 0.5 mg of benzene was found on the tube, what was the concentration of benzene in the air sample assuming STP?
(MW of benzene is 78)
1) 3.92 ppm
2) 4.10 ppm
3) 3.50 ppm
4) 4.05 ppm
Since 1 m 3 = 1,000 liters

40 liters = 0.040 m 3
0.5 mg/0.040 m 3 = 12.5 mg/m3
Next convert mg/m3 to ppm.

ppm = [(mg/m3 ) * 24.45] / MW
ppm = (12.5 mg/m3 * 24.45) / 78 = 3.92 ppm

What volume of phosphorus oxychloride would be needed to attain a concentration of 25 ppm in a 50 ft 3 container?
(SG of phosphorus oxychloride is 1.675 and MW is 153)
1) 2.9 ml
2) 0.13 ml
3) 1.3 ml
4) 117 ml
First convert ft 3 to m 3 .
50 ft3 /35.3 ft3/m3 =1.4 m3
Determine mg/m 3 by converting from ppm.

mg/m3 = (25 ppm * 153) / 24.45 = 156.4 mg/m 3
156.4 mg/m3 * 1.4 m 3 = 219 mg = 0.219 g
Divide by specific gravity to get volume.

0.219 g / 1.675 g/ml = 0.13 ml

Compute the TWA concentration from the following data taken during the day shift of a worker.
6:00 am - 9:00 am ... 100 ppm

9:00 am - 11:00 am ...200 ppm
11:00 am - 12:00 pm .... 0 ppm
12:00 pm - 2:00 pm ...100 ppm
1) 105 ppm
2) 109 ppm
3) 111 ppm
4) 113 ppm
TWA = (C1 T1 + C2 T2 + C3T3 + C4T4 )/(T1+T 2+T 3+T 4)

where C1 = concentration during T1
T1 = Time at concentration C 1
C2 = Concentration during T2
T2 = Time at concentration C 2, etc...
TWA = [(100 ppm * 3 hr) + (200 ppm *2 hr) + (0 ppm * 1 hr) + 100 ppm * 2 hr)] / (3 hr + 2 hr + 1 hr + 2 hr) = 112.5
ppm

What is the wet bulb-globe temperature to which an industrial assembly worker is exposed if the following
temperatures are obtained:
Dry bulb = 89ºF
Natural wet bulb = 84ºF
Globe = 81ºF
1) 83.9ºF
2) 83.1ºF
3) 84.0ºF
4) 84.7ºF
Use the WBGT formula for indoor applications.

WBGT = 0.7 WB + 0.3 GT,
Where:
WB is the temperature reading from the natural wet bulb and GT is the the globe temperature.
WBGT = (0.7 * 84ºF) + (0.3 * 81ºF)
WBGT = 83.1ºF

A flammable gas detected in a confined space registers 10% by volume of the atmosphere. How many parts per
million (ppm) does this equal?
1) 100 ppm
2) 1,000 ppm
3) 10,000 ppm
4) 100,000 ppm
To convert any gas concentration to parts per million, simply multiply the percentage expressed as a decimal by
1,000,000. In this problem, 0.10 * 1,000,000 ppm = 100,000 ppm.

An electrician assures you that the standard duplex wall receptacle is wired correctly. She shows you on her
multimeter (properly set for AC voltage) that the voltage across the brass-colored terminal and the terminal labeled
with a "W" is 115 V. Do you agree with her assurance that the receptacle is wired correctly?
1) Yes
2) No. Ask her to test the voltage across the brass-colored terminal and the green-colored terminal. If it reads 115 V,
then agree with her assurance.
3) No. Ask her to test the voltage across the "W"-labeled terminal and the green-colored terminal. If it reads 115 V,
then agree with her assurance.
4) No. Ask her to test the voltage across the "W"-labeled terminal and the green-colored terminal. If it reads 0 V, then
agree with her assurance.
There should be no voltage across the grounded conductor ("W"-labeled terminal) and the ground wire (green-colored
terminal). If there is voltage, then the white wire and the black wire (hot wire) are reversed. NFPA 70 Article 200-10
(National Electric Code) describes the identification of terminals.

A door hinge fails 4 times out of 1,000,000 operations. What is the failure rate?
1) 4 x 10 -7
2) 4 x 10 -9
3) 4 x 10 -6
4) 4 x 10 -5
Failure Rate = 4 failures / 1,000,000 attempts = 4 x 10 -6

When a fuel and oxidizer reacts so rapidly on being mixed at room temperature that combustion starts immediately
without an outside ignition source, it is known as:
1) Hypergolic
2) Explosive
3) Adiabatic
4) Flammable
The term "Hypergolic reaction" is a reaction where heat initially emitted will initiate combustion with no other
ignition source required.

PROGRAM MANAGEMENT :Codes, Standards, & Best Practices
A basic safeguard involving storage of potentially hazardous chemicals is:
1) Automatic sprinkler protection.

2) Segregation.
3) Grounding and bonding.
4) Class I Division 2 wiring.
Non-compatible chemicals, such as those that may react violently on mixing (such as acids with organic solvents or
oxidizers with organic solvents) should be separated by a solid partition in major storage areas, or by a distance of not
less than 20 feet. Detailed requirement for the storage, handling and use of chemicals can be found in the Uniform
Building Code (Chapter 9) and the Uniform Fire Code (Article 51).

Whenever flammable or combustible liquids are transferred from one container to another:
1) Both containers shall be effectively bonded and grounded.

2) Only the dispensing container shall be bonded and the other container shall be grounded.
3) Both containers need only be grounded.
4) Both containers need only be bonded.
To prevent discharge sparks of static electricity, it is necessary to both ground and bond each container.

In an industrial transformer, "primary" side is described by any of the following EXCEPT:
1) Direct feed from power lines

2) Last part of transformer to see current
3) Most likely part of transformer to cause a fatality
4) First part of transformer to see current
The "primary" side of a transformer receives the highest voltage from the city lines and then steps the voltage down.

What is an example of an unfired pressure vessel?
1) Boiler
2) Steam jacketed kettle
3) Any vessel directly experiencing flame
4) Copper jacketed steam kettle
An unfired pressure vessel does not have a direct flame impacting it. A steam jacketed kettle is one example.

The "Superfund" law deals with:

1) Worker safety.
2) Toxic waste sites.
3) PCBs.
4) Carcinogens.
The Superfund law was written to force clean-up of sites contaminated with toxic materials. Sites are prioritized and
those of highest priority are listed on the NPL (National Priority List). Money is set aside to clean these sites up if the
responsible parties cannot be found or refuse to clean it up.

The Toxic Substance Control Act serves to:
1) Control pesticides.
2) Control carcinogens.
3) Regulate chemical development, distribution and marketing.
4) Regulate Toxic Use Reduction.
TSCA was developed to regulate new chemicals entering the market. It does not address waste materials.

TLV's (Threshold Limit Values) are to be used for:
1) Evaluation or control of community air pollution hazards.

2) Estimating the potential toxicity of contaminants.
3) Practice of industrial hygiene as guidelines.
4) Governmental standards.
TLV's are intended to be used in the practice of industrial hygiene as guidelines or recommendations in the control of
potential health hazards. TLV's are specifically not intended to be used for other purposes, including the other answers
given.

Polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs) are specifically regulated under which federal environmental statute?
1) RCRA
2) CWA
3) TSCA
4) CERCLA
PCBs are mentioned by name in the Toxic Substances Control Act of 1976. In fact, the perceived threats posed by
widespread distribution of PCB residues in the environment led to the passage of TSCA. PCB regulations under the
authority of TSCA can be found at 40 CFR Part 761.

TSCA has the authority to regulate which aspects of the chemical industry?
1) Manufacturing and processing

2) Distribution, storage and usage
3) Disposal
4) All of the above
EPA is given very broad authority under TSCA to deal with "unreasonable risks" posed by chemicals.

In a survey conducted to determine the causes of occupational dermatitis, it was found the highest percentage of cases
was attributed to exposure from:
1) Petroleum products and greases.
2) Solvents.
3) Metals and metal plating.
4) Rubber and its compounds.
Petroleum products and greases (18.8%) was more than double that of solvents (7.8%), triple that of metals and metal
plating (6%), and more than 5 times that of rubber and its compounds (3.2%).

The occupation most likely to encounter metal fume fever is which of the following?
1) Electroplater
2) Welder
3) Fireman
4) Miner
Metal fume fever is an acute condition of short duration caused by a brief high exposure to the freshly generated
fumes of metals, such as zinc or magnesium or their oxides. Symptoms appear from four to twelve hours following
exposure and consist of fever and shaking chills.

Which of the following ergonomically related orthopedic problems leads to the greatest morbidity and cost?
1) Carpal tunnel syndrome

2) Low back syndrome
3) Ganglion formation
4) TRIGGER finger
Statistics indicate that low back pain is responsible for more lost time than any other ergonomic related problem.
About one third of all disabling injuries are due to manual handling of objects.

Boilers and unfired pressure vessels are designed, constructed, tested and installed in accordance with which code?
1) NFPA
2) ANSI
3) ASME
4) ASTM
Design, construction, testing, and installation of boilers and unfired pressure vessels are covered by applicable
sections of the American Society of Mechanical Engineers' (ASME) Boiler and Pressure Vessel code. This ASME
code is referenced by applicable OSHA regulations.

As part of a valid and complete hazard communications program the employer must do all of the following except:
1) Prepare MSDS's for all substances in the process

2) Have MSDS's for substances with employee exposure
3) Have a written Hazard Communications Program
4) Train employees in the hazards of the chemicals
Employers are not required to prepare MSDS's for the substances they use. The manufacturer has that responsibility.
The employer is required to have MSDS's on hand and readily available to the employee for all the substances to
which they might be exposed.

When employees are required to work in trenches 4 feet deep or more, an adequate means of exit must be located no
more than _____ feet of lateral travel.
1) 30 feet
2) 25 feet
3) 20 feet
4) 15 feet
When employees are required to be in trenches four (4) feet deep or more, an adequate means of exit, such as a ladder
or steps, shall be provided and located so as to require no more than 25 feet of lateral travel. 29 CFR 1926.651 (h)

The boom indicator on a mobile crane:
1) Provides the angle of the boom.

2) Shows the safe load with the boom at any angle.
3) Indicates load capacity.
4) Signals when the crane is out of balance.
A boom indicator is a device that shows the angle of the boom. The boom angle is used in conjunction with the crane
load chart to determine safe loads. Modern load measuring systems for cranes allow for real-time direct reading of
actual crane load and can provide output warnings indicating that the rated capacity is approaching. Such devices can
even be integrated with the crane controls to stop the crane operation.

In preparing the battery for a powered lifter always:
1) Add acid to water.

2) Add water to acid.
3) Ground the lifter.
4) Check tire pressure.

To prepare a battery "AAA" - always add acid to water to prevent splattering. (Remember: "Do as you oughta, add
acid to watta.")

One problem associated with flux-cored arc welding of stainless steel is the production of aerosols containing:
1) Nickel and Chromium.

2) Carbon and Nickel.
3) Fluorides, Nickel and Chromium.
4) Copper, Nickel and Acid gases.
Welding fumes can contain constituents of the material being welded and the consumable materials (e.g. flux).
Stainless steel welding results in fumes containing nickel and chromium. Often flux is used which contain fluorides.
These fluorides are also released into the air during the welding process.
Blunt, J., and Balchin, N.C., Health and Safety in Welding and Allied Processes , 5th ed.
Finch, R., Welder's Handbook: A Complete Guide to MIG, TIG, ARC and Oxyacetylene Welding.

Sources of ozone include any of the following EXCEPT:
1) Electric arc welding

2) Office photocopying machines
3) Ultraviolet quartz lamps
4) VDT Monitors
Ozone can be produced by the interaction of ultraviolet light, electric arcs and oxygen. Sources of ultraviolet light or
electric arcs such as arc welding, photocopy machines, laser printers and ultraviolet lamps produce ozone. VDT
Monitors do not produce ozone.

In mechanics, the term equilibrium implies that:
1) The body of concern must be at rest.

2) The body of concern is in constant motion.
3) The body of concern is either at rest or moving with constant velocity.
4) All forces acting on the body are not at rest.
The body of concern is either at rest or moving with a constant velocity. Newton's Second Law of Motion sets the
relationship between the applied forces and motion.
F = ma
m stands for the mass of the body
a is the acceleration vector
F is the net or resultant force vector.

Which of the following hydrocarbons has the lowest molecular weight?
1) Octane
2) Butane
3) Decane
4) Ethane
One ethane molecule has 2 carbon atoms and six hydrogen atoms. The sequence for alkanes is:
NAME NUMBER OF CARBON ATOMS

Methane 1
Ethane 2
Propane 3
Butane 4
Pentane 5
Hexane 6
Heptane 7
Octane 8
Nonane 9
Decane 10

The tendency of one gas or vapor to disperse into or mix with another gas or vapor is known as:
1) Rate of mix.
2) Rate of Volatility.
3) Diffusion.
4) Propagation.
The rate of diffusion depends on the density of the vapor or gas as compared with that of air, which is a given value of
1.

A load of 500 lbs is supported by a two-leg sling. If the legs of the sling make an angle of 60° with the load, what
force is exerted on each leg of the sling?
1) 144.3 lbs
2) 288.7 lbs
3) 433.0 lbs
4) 500.0 lbs
Drawing a sketch is advisable. The sketch would show a 500 lb load acting vertically, which can be indicated by a
vertical line. The legs of the sling are at a 60° angle, forming an equilateral triangle. At the base of the equilateral
triangle, draw a second one to form a parallelogram (four 60° right triangles butted together). The sketch should now
show each leg of the sling as the resultant of two forces, one acting vertically, the other horizontally. The full vertical
line of the parallogram represents the full 500 lb load and l/2 of it, the vertical leg of one right triangle, 250 lbs.
Using trigonometry:
sine of angle = opposite side/hypotenuse
transposing ...
leg of sling (hypotenuse) = (250 lbs opposite side)/sin 60°
leg of sling (hypotenuse) = 250/0.866
leg of sling (hypotenuse) = 288.7 lbs.

The smallest of the following measures is which of the following?
1) 0.432 km
2) 0.432 x 10 6 mm
3) 4.32 x 104 m
4) 0.432 x 10 4 cm
Converting the choices to one unit, the meter:
1) 4.32 x 102 m
2) 4.32 x 102 m
3) 4.32 x 104 m
4) 4.32 x 101 m
Of the foregoing, 4.32 x 101 m is the smallest.

How far will an object fall in 4 seconds?
1) 64 feet
2) 97 feet
3) 129 feet
4) 258 feet
Knowing that gravity = 32.2 ft/sec 2

Known quantities are substituted into the formula:
d(distance) = l/2 at 2 = l/2 gt 2

d = l/2 * 32.2 ft/sec 2 * (4 sec)2 = 257.6 ft or 258 ft.

If a bar magnet were to be pulverized into dust, the particles would:
1) Become unmagnetized.
2) Become tiny bar magnets.
3) Neutralize each other.
4) 1 and 3
In a magnetized body, a large number of tiny molecular magnets are arranged so that their north poles face one end of
the body, while their south poles face the opposite end. If the bar magnet were broken in two, each piece will be found
to be a complete magnet having a north and south pole. Breaking these pieces into smaller fragments, no matter how
small, they will be a bar magnet. This fact suggests that pieces, the size of molecules, would be a bar magnet having a
north and south pole.

To what volume will 100 ft 3 of gas of 20°C expand if it is heated at constant pressure to 60°C?
1) 113.65 ft 3
2) 300 ft 3
3) 333.3 ft 3
4) 166.66 ft 3
Solution:
T1 = 20°C
T1 = 20° + 273°
T1 = 293° K
T2 = 60° C
T2 = 60° + 273°
T2 = 333° K
Substituting known quantities in the formula:

V1 /V2 = T1 /T2
100/V 2 = 293/333
293(V2 ) = 333(100)
V2 = 113.65 ft 3

Blood is carried to the heart by the:
1) Arteries.
2) Capillaries.
3) Spleen.
4) Veins.
The veins carry blood to the heart.

An automobile traveling 55 mi/hr is slowing up at the rate of 5 mi/hr/sec. How many seconds will it take to stop?
1) 11 sec
2) 0.09 sec
3) 6 sec
4) 0.40 sec
Newton's Law:
V (velocity) = A (acceleration) * t (time) applies. Initial velocity is substituted for final velocity when a moving body
is being negatively accelerated.
V = at or t = V/a = 55/5.

How much horsepower is expended by a gasoline engine driving a winch used to raise a 2200 lb fixture a distance of
20 ft in 10 seconds?
1) 0.13 hp
2) 1.30 hp
3) 4 hp
4) 8 hp
Horsepower is obtained from the formula:
Work (ft lb)/(time (sec) * 550)
Work = Force * Distance

2200 lb * 20 ft = 44000 ft lb
H.P. = 44000/(10 * 550) = 8 hp
Note: Had the time been given in minutes, 33,000 would have been the divisor instead of 550.

A wheelbarrow contains a load of 216 lb at an average distance of 1.5 ft from the axle. If the shaft of the wheelbarrow
is 4 ft long, what is the force exerted upward by the fulcrum?
1) 45 lb
2) 67.5 lb
3) 135 lb
4) 180 lb
Since the wheelbarrow is in equilibrium, the forces pulling it upward are equal to the sum of the forces pulling it
downward.
The downward force = load = 216 lb

The upward force = (216 * 1.5)/4 = 81 lb
Therefore the fulcrum must exert an upward force of 216 - 81 = 135 lb.

A quantity of air exerts a pressure of 720 mm of mercury when it occupies a volume of 50 cc. This air is compressed
until it exerts a pressure of 810 mm. If the temperature is kept constant, what would be the volume of the gas after
compression?
1) 22.2 cc
2) 44.4 cc
3) 66.6 cc
4) 88.8 cc
If the temperature of a confined gas is kept constant, its volume will vary inversely as its pressure. This may be
expressed by the following formula:
P1 V1 = P2 V2
729 (50) = (810) V2
V2 = 44.4 cc

A rectangular barge, 10 ft wide and 40 ft long sinks 6 inches deeper in the water after a truck is loaded on it. What is
the weight of the truck?
1) 1.57 ton
2) 3.13 ton
3) 6.25 ton
4) 12.5 ton
A floating body will displace its own weight of the fluid in which it is immersed. The additional volume of water
displaced by the barge after the truck is loaded on it is equal to:
10 ft * 40 ft * 6/12 ft = 200 ft 3
Since:
1 ft3 of water weights 62.4 lb
Then:
200 ft3 * 62.4 lb/ft3 = 12,500 lb/ 2,000 lb = 6.25 ton

At a depth of 1000 ft, what is the pressure on the deck of a submarine? (The density of salt water is 64.4 lb/ft 3 )
1) 32,200 lb/ft3
2) 16,100 lb/ft3
3) 447.2 lb/sq in
4) 670.81 lb/sq in
Liquid pressure is due to the weight of the liquid. A dense liquid will exert more pressure on bodies immersed in it
than will a lighter liquid. Pressure on the deck of the submarine is equal to the column of fluid (height or depth) acting
on it times the density of the fluid.
Pressure = 1000 ft * 64.4lb/ft 3 = 64,400lb/ft2

Since 1 ft2 = 144 sq in
64,400/144 = 447.2 lb/sq in.

Materials which cannot be divided into simpler chemical entities are called:
1) Elements.
2) Atoms.
3) Molecules.
4) Compounds.
Elementary solids, liquids or gaseous matter which cannot be further decomposed into simpler substances by chemical
means are called elements. At the present time, there are 103 recognized elements.

The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom is called:

1) Neutrons.
2) Atomic weight.
3) Avogadro's number.
4) Atomic number.
The number of protons in the nucleus is the atomic number. It defines the elemental identity of the atom.

The number of protons combined with the number of neutrons approximates:
1) Avogadro's number.
2) Atomic weight.
3) Gram molecular weight.
4) Atomic number.
The number of protons combined with the number of neutrons approximates the atomic weight. The atomic weight of
an atom is proportional to its physical mass.

The particle whose mass is closest to that of the electron is the:
1) Neutron.
2) Neutrino.
3) Proton.
4) Positron.
A positron is a particle which has the same weight as an electron, but is electrically positive rather than negative. It is
not stable in matter because it reacts readily with an electron to give two gamma rays.

Atoms of an element with different atomic weights are called:
1) Electrons.
2) Isotopes.
3) Inert elements.
4) Matter.
An isotope is one or more atomic species of an element differing in atomic weight, but having the same atomic
number. Each contains the same number of protons, but a different number of neutrons.

Convert 0°C to °Kelvin.
1) 32°K
2) 100°K
3) 273°K
4) 0°K
Ideal Gas law equations must have temperature converted to °Kelvin (K). The conversion rule is °K = °C + 273.

What is the atomic weight of phosgene (COCl 2 ) given the following atomic weights?
Carbon - 12
Oxygen - 16
Chlorine - 35
1) 98
2) 63
3) 105
4) 89
12 + 16 + 35 + 35 = 98
1 Carbon + 1 Oxygen + 2 Chlorines

Nine grams of a gas occupies 11.5 liters at a pressure of 35.0 cm Hg. What is the volume, when the pressure is
increased to 55.0 cm Hg?
1) 7.32 liters
2) 18.07 liters
3) 8.37 liters
4) 17.52 liters
From P2 V2 = P1 V1
V2 = P1 V1 /P2
Pressure changes of 55/35 of the original pressure. Volume changes to 35/55 of the original volume.
Final Volume = 35/55 (initial volume) = (35/55)(11.5) = 7.32 liters

One gram molecular weight of a gaseous substance occupies what amount of space at STP?
1) 20 liters
2) 22.4 liters
3) 14 liters
4) 10 liters

An ideal gas occupies 22.4 liters at STP. This is derived from the ideal gas law (PV = nRT) where n is defined as 1
mol and the conditions are standard temperature and pressure (STP = 1 atm and 0°C). R is chosen as 0.082 l-atm /
k-mol since we are interested in liters.
PV = nRT
V = nRT/P
V = [1 mol * (0.082 l-atm/K-mol) * 273° K]/1 atm = 22.4 liters.

What is atomic mass?
1) Proton number
2) Neutron number
3) Total number of neutrons plus protons
4) Average mass of naturally occurring isotopes
Actually the correct designation should be "nuclear mass." It is the sum of the number of protons and the number of
neutrons to yield the mass of a particular nuclide. Atomic weight, which is a noninteger number (usually), is obtained
by averaging the masses of the naturally occurring isotopes of the element.

What will the final pressure be if you have 75 mm Hg of SF 6, 45 mm Hg CH4, 60 mm Hg CO, and 120 mm Hg of N 2?
1) 200 mm Hg
2) 400 mm Hg
3) 300 atm
4) 300 mm Hg
Pt = 75 mm Hg + 120 mm Hg + 45 mm Hg + 60 mm Hg
Pt = 300 mm Hg

Calculate the density of air in units of mg/cm 3 under standard Industrial Hygiene condition.
1) 1.18 mg/cm3
2) 1.08 mg/cm3
3) 1.25 mg/cm3
4) 1.12 mg/cm3
Density (p) of air = Pressure air * Mass air / RT air

p = 1 atm * 28.96 g/mole/0.08205 L-atm/mole K * 298°K
p = 1.1838 mg/cm 3 = 1.1838 g/L

The movement of liquids or vapors through a garment material that occurs on a molecular level is called:
1) Penetration.
2) Diffusion.
3) Convection.
4) Permeation.
Permeation involves sorption of the chemical into the surface of the material, diffusion through the material and
desorption on the opposite side. Penetration is the passage of vapors or liquids through zippers, seams, holes, etc.

Convert 100 ounces per 1000 cubic feet to milligrams per liter.
1) 0.1 mg/L
2) 10 mg/L
3) 100 mg/L
4) 1000 mg/L
100 oz/1000ft 3 = (100 oz/L * 28.35 g/oz * 1000mg/g) / (1000 ft 3 * 28.317 L/ft3 ) = 100 mg/L

Given one mole of an ideal gas at a temperature of 0°C, and at a pressure of 1 atm, calculate the volume that this gas
will occupy.
1) 22.4 L/mole
2) 24 L/mole
3) 20 L/mole
4) 25 L/mole
Use ideal gas law:

PV = nRT
V = nRt/P = 1 mole * 0.08205 liter-atm/mole K * 273°K / 1 atm = 22.4 L/mole, the molecular volume at 273°K

Given one mole of an ideal gas at a temperature of 25°C, and a pressure of 1 atm, calculate the volume occupied by
the gas.
1) 22.4 L/mole
2) 24.5 L/mole
3) 20 L/mole
4) 24 ml/mole
V= nRT/P
V = 1 mole * 0.08205 liter -atm/mole K * 298°K / 1 atm
V = 24.46 L/mole, the molecular volume at 298°K

When OSHA decides to inspect a workplace:
1) OSHA will advise the employer at least three days prior to the inspection.
2) OSHA may conduct the inspection unannounced.
3) OSHA may conduct an unannounced inspection or schedule the inspection with the employer. It is important to
maintain good relations with the local OSHA office to ensure advance notice of announced inspections.
4) The employer may direct the time and place at which OSHA may conduct their inspections.
OSHA will typically conduct inspections unannounced. It is a crime to provide an employer prior notice of an
unannounced inspection. OSHA compliance officers are authorized by the OSH Act to inspect a work place once they
have presented their credentials. Employers may require that OSHA obtain a judicial warrant before allowing them
entry to the work site (however, this is not recommended).

When OSHA conducts a workplace inspection, the employer should expect:
1) That the OSHA compliance officer will tour the work area and then announce his presence in order to interview
employees, review records, take pictures, and hold a closing conference.
2) That the OSHA compliance officer will present their credentials, provide an opening conference explaining the
reason and purpose of the inspection, tour the work areas of interest, interview employees, review records, take
pictures, and hold a closing conference. The employer is permitted to take pictures of everything the compliance
officer photographs and listen to all employee interviews.
3) That the OSHA compliance officer will present their credentials, provide an opening conference explaining the
reason and purpose of the inspection, tour the work areas of interest, interview employees, review records, take
pictures, and hold a closing conference.
4) That the OSHA compliance officer will present their credentials, and then require that the employer allow them to
tour the work area, unescorted.
When OSHA conducts a workplace inspection, the employer should expect that the OSHA compliance officer will
present their credentials, provide an opening conference explaining the reason and purpose of the inspection, tour the
work areas of interest, interview employees, review records, take pictures, and hold a closing conference. OSHA
compliance officers are not authorized to access private, controlled property without announcing their presence. They
are allowed to view, photograph and videotape anything that is visible from a public right-of-way. While employers
can require that compliance officer's be escorted in the work area, they must allow the compliance officer to conduct
private interviews with employees.

Which of the following characteristics of consequences have the most influence on increasing desired behaviors?
1) Negative, future, uncertain

2) Negative, immediate, certain
3) Positive, future, certain
4) Positive, immediate, certain
Consequences which are positive, immediate, and certain have the most impact on behavior.

In behavioral terms, safety management can be considered a continuous fight against human nature because:
1) Positive consequences of unsafe behavior tend to be immediate and certain.

2) Negative consequences of unsafe behavior tend to be uncertain.
3) Both 1 and 2
The positive consequences of unsafe behavior tend to be immediate and certain, for example, more comfort in not
wearing personal protective equipment. In addition, the negative consequences of unsafe behavior, such as having an
accident, are uncertain.


Which of the following is NOT generally considered part of a behavioral observation process?
1) Identification of behaviors to observe

2) Engineering controls
3) Conduct of observations
4) Provide feedback on results
A behavioral observation process generally consists of identifying the behaviors to be observed, conducting the
observations, and providing feedback on the results.

In a behavioral observation process, the principle method of feedback is usually considered to be which of the
following?
1) Posting group data on percent of safe behaviors observed

2) Discipline when an employee is seen doing something incorrectly
3) Posting individual employee results
4) Supervisors are informed of their group's performance
In a behavioral observation process, feedback is generally given by posting group results such as the percent of safe
behaviors observed.

The psychologist considered to be the "father" of behavior modification is:
1) Sigmund Freud
2) B. F. Skinner
3) Douglas McGregor
4) Frederick Herzberg
B. F. Skinner is generally considered to be the father of behavioralism.
Peterson, Dan (2001). Safety Management: A Human Approach.3rd Edition. American Society of Safety Engineers.

Which of the following statements is NOT true concerning human behavior?
1) There is no such person as an average person.

2) Best approach is to design systems to fit percentiles of the population.
3) In fitting personnel to a job consider both the physical and personality characteristics.
4) Attitude is an important characteristic of fitting the worker to the task.
Attitude is not an important characteristic of fitting the worker to the task.

In behavioral terms, a safety poster:
1) Is an activator.
2) Is "visual noise".
3) Has no impact on behavior .
4) All of the above

As an activator which serves to direct desired behavior, safety posters have only a small impact on behavior.

A manager who utilizes an external reward and punishment system to affect performance is a _________ manager.
1) Theory X
2) Theory Y
3) Theory Z
4) Theory A
Theory X holds that people must be motivated to work by external reward and punishment.

There are several management theories of motivation, such as Theory X and Theory Y. Which one of the following is
NOT true?
1) Theory X - The worker is uninterested and unmotivated to work.

2) Theory Y - The worker is interested and motivated to work.
3) Job Enrichment Theory of Herzberg - Work environment, benefits, and work conditions are all-important.
4) Job Enrichment Theory of Herzberg - Work must be meaningful, must provide recognition, give responsibility, and
allow for professional growth in order to motivate the worker.
Answer 3 incorrectly identifies Herzberg's Job Enrichment Theory. Herzberg believed that hygiene issues (such as
work environment, benefits and work conditions) are necessary before motivation and resultant productivity increases
can occur but do not result in motivation. Instead, workers are motivated by work that is meaningful, provides
recognition, gives responsibility, and allows for professional growth.

When designing a safety program, it is essential that psychological factors like: 1) individual differences 2) motivation
3) emotion 4) attitudes and 5)_____________ be considered.
1) Reward
2) Punishment
3) Learning
4) Negativism

According to contemporary motivation theory, the strongest motivator is:
1) Fear of a boss.
2) Status.
3) Recognition of achievement.
4) Pay.
Current theory holds that recognition of achievement is the single most important motivator.

The concept of "hierarchy of needs" was developed by:
1) Freud
2) Maslow
3) Jung
4) MacGregor
Maslow's hierarchy of needs is a critical component of many management theories dealing with human needs.

Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs - biological - security - social - ego/status - self-realization. Once a lower need is met, a
person seeks the next higher need. All of the following factors complicate hierarchical motivation EXCEPT:
1) Multiple Motivation - People are often motivated by more than one need - for example, seeking recognition from
fellow workers and supervisor.
2) Psychosocial Needs - These are continuing needs such as recognition and affection.
3) Conflicting Motives - Some motives can cause conflict - for example, desiring a promotion but fearing
responsibilities.
4) Withdrawal Needs - Removes self from situation - physically or psychologically.
Withdrawal Needs is not one of the factors complicating hierarchical motivation.

The theory on human motivation which declares that workers are uninterested in and unmotivated toward work; to
motivate them to work, a system of rewards and punishments is necessary, applies to:
1) McGregor's Theory Y
2) McGregor's Theory X
3) Herzberg's Job-enrichment Theory
4) Likert's Theory
In an attempt to analyze how management personnel view human motivation, McGregor evolved the notion there are
two basic ways in which management can view the worker:
Theory X - assumes the worker is essentially uninterested and unmotivated to work.

Theory Y - assumes the worker is basically interested and motivated to work.

Traditional safety program components utilized to influence employee attitudes and behavior are identified with:
2) Posters, booklets, green stamps.
3) Education and Training.
awards, dinners, prizes and even green stamps are utilized.

PROGRAM MANAGEMENT :Unanticipated Hazards - Weather, etc.
In the application of principles of guarding, what does Zero Mechanical State (ZMS) mean?
1) All energy sources neutralized

2) All electrical energy off
3) Guards are not effective
4) All electrical energy locked and tagged out
ZMS is discussed in ANSI Z241.1-1981 as the state with all energy sources neutralized.

It is generally accepted that accidents:

1) Are all preventable.
2) Only 50% are preventable.
3) Are unexpected events that can not be controlled.
4) Can be prevented, but where absolute prevention is not possible, take steps to reduce severity.
Each of the answers is a history of accident prevention. The prevalent concept in the early 1900's was that no more
than 50% of all accidents were preventable. In the 1940's, it changed to a concept that all were preventable, and finally
to today's more realistic theory that not all accidents can be prevented, but in those cases where absolute prevention is
not possible, steps can be taken to reduce the severity of the damage or injury.

Which of these circumstances would you expect to have the highest likelihood of producing a severe injury?
1) Routine, planned work

2) Production work
3) Low energy sources
4) Non-routine work
Experience has shown that severe injuries occur in non-routine work, non-production work, high energy work, or
construction.

Special hazard terminology has been developed for cranes and derricks. What is the correct term for an undetected
hazard, created as a result of the crane's design or by the crane's use?
1) Dormant
2) Armed
3) Active
4) 2 or 3
A dormant hazard is an undetected hazard created either by the crane's design or crane use. Armed and Active are
other types of crane and derrick hazards.

The prime necessity for a system safety analysis is which of the following?
1) System models
2) Management cooperation
3) CAD/CAM
4) Highly paid consultants
A system safety analysis must have models of the involved system. Before analysis of safety can be made, a model of
the system must be constructed.

The scientific study of how, when, where, and why an illness distributes itself over time in a population describes:
1) Biogenetics.
2) Epidemiology.
3) Etiology.
4) Health physics.
Epidemiology is a science that investigates the distribution and causes of disease. Epidemiologists study the interplay
between the physical environment, biological effects, and social phenomena that relate to human health and illness in
the workplace.

In determining the probability of a cause/effect relationship between an illness and an agent in the workplace, the first
consideration must be to:
1) Examine the interplay between the physical environment and biological effects.
2) Examine dose relationships in terms of time and place.
3) Establish that a disease condition does exist.
4) Determine toxicity of chemical agent.
The first consideration in determining the probability of a cause/effect relationship between an illness and an agent in
the workplace is to establish that a disease condition does exist or that the particular manifestations of the disease are
the result of exposure to a specific harmful agent.

Evaluate the following to predict which set of circumstances will produce severe injuries if they are not identified and
controlled.
1) Routine work tasks

2) Unusual and/or non routine work tasks
3) Supervised assembly operations
4) Mass-producing machine shop
A number of recent studies have shown that severe injuries are fairly predictable in certain situations. One of these
involve unusual, non routine work. This includes the job that happens occasionally, a one-of-a-kind situation. Non
routine work may arise in factory operations, but normal controls that apply to routine work have little effect in the
non routine situation.

The National Priorities List (NPL) consists of:
1) Impacted waterways where water quality standards are not being met.
2) Facilities which have applied for or are in the process of obtaining environmental permits.
3) Sites where EPA is to focus investigation and enforcement actions under CERCLA.
4) Urban areas not meeting NAAQS.
The NPL consists of sites (termed "superfund sites") that were identified and listed on the NPL in accordance with the
procedures found in the National Contingency Plan (NCP), and that will be further investigated, evaluated, and
possibly remediated in accordance with the NCP. The NPL and NCP were established in Section 105 of CERCLA.
The actual NCP, which contains the NPL, can be found at 40 CFR Part 300. Cost recovery action under CERCLA
Section 107, or the issuance of response order to PRPs are ever present possibilities at NPL sites.

A ground fault circuit interrupter functions by:
1) Breaking the circuit.

2) Control switches.
3) Monitoring voltage.
4) Monitoring current.
A ground fault circuit interrupter functions by monitoring current.

A person who is aware of a danger and its extent, and knowingly exposes himself, assumes all risks and can not
recover damages even though he is injured through no fault of his own. This principle is known as:
1) Joint tort.
2) Contributor negligence.
3) Fright without physical contact.
4) Assumption of risk.
The principle of "Assumption of risk" allows people to knowingly be exposed to hazards and not be eligible for
damage awards. As you can imagine, there is much litigation in this area.

The growing concept that a manufacturer of a product is liable for injuries due to defects, without a necessity for a
plaintiff to show negligence or fault is known as:
1) Care.
2) Liability.
3) Strict liability.
4) Tort.
The concept that a manufacturer is liable for injuries due to defects or use of its products regardless of negligence is
"Strict Liability".

A person who keeps, maintains, transports, or stores a dangerous creature, device or substance is liable for injury or
damage, regardless of fault, even when he exercises due care. This principle is known as:
1) Care.
2) Dangerous Privity.
3) Dangerous instrumentality.
4) Res ipsa loquitur.
If a person keeps, transports etc. dangerous "things," they can be held liable under the principle known as "Dangerous
Instrumentality".

A generic process of evaluating competing courses of action by examining the dollar costs of certain abatement
actions versus the dollar value of the benefits received is called:
1) Prime cost assessment.
2) Cost analysis.
3) Cost benefit analysis.
4) Risk management.
Cost benefit analysis is a generic process of evaluating competing courses of action by examining the dollar costs of
certain abatement actions versus the dollar value of the benefits received.

A two piece block and tackle with 5 parts of rope to lift a weight of 3,000 pounds requires how much force for lift (no
friction)?
1) 500
2) 600
3) 700
4) 800
To determine force, divide total weight by the number of rope parts.

3,000/5 = 600 pounds

As a safety professional you are notified that some rigid metal conduit is warm to the touch. What is your suspicion?
1) Short in system
2) Transformer is undersized
3) Aluminum wire
4) Current flow is too high
This would probably indicate that current flow is too high in the conduit. It would also indicate some action and
investigation should take place.

Which of the following is a commonly used insulating oil for older transformers found to have severe environmental
problems?
1) PCBs
2) PCPs
3) MICs
4) TLVs
PCBs (polychlorinated biphenyls) were commonly used in transformers prior to the 1970's. They are now known to
have significant adverse environmental impact.

Electrical shock intensity and effects will depend on the:
1) Age of the conductor.

2) Length of the conductor.
3) Current path, frequency and duration.
4) Voltage drop across the conductor.
Electrical shock intensity and effects depends on the current path, frequency and duration.

A megohm meter is used to measure:

1) Low resistance.
2) Leakage current.
3) High resistance.
4) Resistance constants.
A megohm meter is used to measure high resistance.

12!/9! equals:
1) 1 -1/3
2) 3
3) 12*11*10
4) 12! 3!
The factorial of 12 divided by the factorial of 9 is: (where * means times)

(12*11*10*9*8*7*6*5*4*3*2*1) / (9*8*7*6*5*4*3*2*1) = 12*11*10

An 80 electric lamp, a 150 lamp and a 240 lamp are connected in parallel to a 120 volt circuit. What is the
total current flowing in the circuit?
1) 1.4 amps
2) 2.8 amps
3) 4.2 amps
4) 5.6 amps
In a parallel circuit 1/R = 1/R1 + 1/R2 = 1/R3 etc.

In applying ohms to each branch of the circuit, remember that the voltage across all branches is the same.
I =E/R1 + E/R2 + E/R3
I =120/80 + 120/150 + 120/240 = 1.5 + 0.8 + 0.5 = 2.8 amps

If the circumference of a circle is 8.0 inches, its area is:
1) 5.1 in 2
2) 8 in 3
3) 16 in 2
4) 32 in 2
The circumference of a circle with radius r is (2)( π)(r). A circle having a circumference of 8 inches must then have a
radius = 4/π inches.
The area of a circle = (π)( r2 )
Substituting 4/π for r, we get Area = π(4/π)2 which is equal to 16/ π = 5.1 sq inches.

The amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of 1 pound of water 1°F is called:
1) Specific heat.
2) Calorie.
3) B.T.U.
4) Kelvin Scale.
The British Thermal unit (B.T.U.) is the amount of heat that is required to raise the temperature of 1 pound of water
1°F.

A light meter, used to measure the intensity of surface illumination, provides readings measured in:
1) Lumens.
2) Watts per foot.
3) Foot-candles.
4) Candle power.
A light meter is the instrument used to measure the intensity of surface illuminations. Readings are measured in
foot-candles. By definition, a foot-candle is the illumination at a point of a surface which is one foot, and
perpendicular to a uniform point source of one candle. More briefly, a foot-candle is a unit of illumination.

When atmospheric water vapor condenses in the air, it always results in leaving the surrounding air temperature:
1) Unchanged.
2) Cooler.
3) Warmer.
4) Either cooler or warmer, depending on time of the day.
In order to vaporize a liquid, it must be heated and whenever it reverts back to a liquid state through condensation, it
must give up heat. In this case, the heat that is given off to the surrounding air warms it.

Carbon monoxide is particularly dangerous because:
1) It inhibits blood cells in carrying oxygen.

2) It is not easily transferred in cellular respiration.
3) It is a systemic poison that inhibits enzyme generation.
4) It paralyzes the respiratory centers of the brain.
Of all the gases that have poisonous effects upon man and animals, carbon monoxide is the most widely encountered.
It exerts its effects by combining with the hemoglobin of the blood and interrupting the normal oxygen supply to the
body tissues.

Which of the following will reduce the rate of reaction?
1) Removing one of the products as a precipitate

2) Removing one of the products as a gas
3) Reducing the concentration of one of the reactants
4) Removing one of the products as a slightly ionized substance
Reducing reactant concentration tends to retard the rate of reaction of a chemical process. On the other hand, if a
product is removed, the chemical equilibrium is perturbed and the reactants will continue to react.

The element inorganic compounds do not contain is which of the following?
1) Carbon
2) Nitrogen
3) Oxygen
4) Hydrogen
Inorganic is the term used to designate compounds that generally do not contain carbon. Exceptions are carbon
monoxide and carbon dioxide.

The greater the frequency of sound waves:
1) The lower the pitch of the sound.

2) The louder the sound.
3) The softer the sound.
4) The higher the pitch of the sound.
Frequency is directly related to pitch. The higher pitched a sound is, the higher is its frequency, conversely, low
pitched sounds have low frequencies.

Which of the following types of electromagnetic radiation has the shortest wavelength?
1) Infrared light
2) Ultraviolet light
3) Visible light
4) Gamma waves
Gamma rays have the shortest wavelength. This is followed by ultraviolet light, visible light and infrared light.

Critical pressure is defined as the:
1) Point where temperature inversion occurs.

2) Absolute pressure at 473°K.
3) Point where no liquid-vapor phase transition occurs.
4) Pressure of freezing water.
The critical pressure of a substance is that pressure at which no liquid-vapor phase transition occurs for any
temperature.

Solve the following problem: (6! * 6!)/(3! * 2!)
1) 47
2) 4320
3) 43200
4) 432000
The factorial (!) notation indicates that you multiply all numbers less than or equal to the number.
i.e. 6! = 6 * 5 * 4 * 3 * 2 * 1 = 720
The problem then becomes:
(720 * 720)/(6 * 2) = 518,400/12 = 43,200

Specific gravity of a liquid is defined as:
1) Always equal to the density.

2) Mass per unit volume of substance.
3) Ratio of weight of volume to weight of equal volume H 2O.
4) Always equal to the mass.
Specific gravity is the ratio of the mass of one volume of a substance to that of a similar volume of water. Therefore,
if a liquid has a specific gravity of 1.2, it is 1.2 times more dense than water.

You have a piston with an outside force on it of 4,000 psi. If you increase the force to 8,000 psi, what will be the new
volume with all other factors constant?
1) 1/2
2) 1/4
3) 1/8
4) 2 times
Utilize the gas law:

P1 * V 1 = P2* V 2 (T Constant).
Therefore, if you increase P 2 times, V must decrease proportionately.
V2 = V1 (P1)/(P2) where P2 = 2P1
V2 = V1 (P1)/(2P1)
V2 = V1 /(2)
V2 = 1/2 V1

What volume would 100cc of CO occupy at 70°F and 1 atm occupy at 150°F and 2 atm?
1) 100cc
2) 65cc
3) 57.7cc
4) 52.9cc
P1 V1 / T1 = P2V2/T2
70°F = 21°C = 294°K
150°F = 66°C = 339°K
V1 = P2 V2T1 / P1T2
V1 = (1 atm * 100cc * 339°K) / (2 atm * 294°K) = 57.7 cc

A worker is exposed to xylene during her 8-hour work day in the following concentrations: 2 hours at 100 ppm; 2
hours at 150 ppm; and 4 hours at 50 ppm. What is her time-weighted-average exposure? (M.W. = 106)
1) 50 ppm
2) 56 ppm
3) 77 ppm
4) 88 ppm
ppm = ((2 hours * 100 ppm) + (2 * 150) + (4 * 50))/8 hours

ppm = (200+300+200)/8
ppm = 87.5

How much acetone would have to be evaporated in a room 25 ft * 25 ft * 25 ft to give a final concentration of 25 ppm
at STP? (S.G. = 0.79, M.W. = 58)
1) 25.6 ml
2) 27.9 ml
3) 33.2 ml
4) 45.7 ml
First determine room volume:
25 ft * 25 ft * 25 ft = 15,625 ft 3
15625 ft3/35.3 ft3 /M 3 = 442.6 M3
Determine mg/M 3 equivalent of 25 ppm

mg/M 3 = 25 * 58/24.45 = 59.3
59.3 mg/M3 * 442.6 M 3 = 26,246 mg = 26.246 g
26.246 g/0.79g/ml = 33.2 ml

Given one mole of an ideal gas at a temperature of 0°C, and at a pressure of 1 atm, calculate the volume that this gas
will occupy.
1) 22.4 L/mole
2) 24 L/mole
3) 20 L/mole
4) 25 L/mole
Use ideal gas law:

PV = nRT
V = nRt/P = 1 mole * 0.08205 liter-atm/mole K * 273°K / 1 atm = 22.4 L/mole
This is the molecular volume at 273°K.

Given one mole of an ideal gas at a temperature of 25°C, and a pressure of 1 atm, calculate the volume occupied by
the gas.
1) 22.4 L/mole
2) 24.5 L/mole
3) 20 L/mole
4) 24 ml/mole
V= nRT/P
V= 1 mole * 0.08205 liter-atm/mole K * 298°K / 1 atm
V= 24.46 L/mole, the molecular volume at 298°K.

Daltons Law of Partial Pressure states that the total pressure of a mixture:
1) Is equal to the sum of the partial pressures.

2) Is equal to a fraction of the partial pressures.
3) Does not equal the total pressure.
4) Is less than the total pressure.

Daltons Law of Partial Pressure states that at constant temperature, the total pressure exerted by a mixture of gases in
a definite volume is equal to the sum of the individual pressures.
Pt =P1 +P2 +P3....

The correct allowance for ends of platforms is crucial to prevent accidents and injuries. The requirements for ends of
platforms fewer than 10 feet in length are:
1) Extend beyond the center line of the support at least 6 inches but not more than 12 inches.
2) Extend beyond the center line of the support at least 1 inch but not more than 6 inches.
3) Extend beyond the center line of the support at least 12 inches but not more than 18 inches.
4) Overlap the support and not extend beyond 12 inches.
Platforms fewer than 10 feet in length must extend past the centerline of the support at least 6 inches but not more
than 12 inches. For platforms more than 10 feet in length, the minimum extension is 6 inches and maximum is 18
inches. The exception to the 6 inch minimum is to use appropriate cleats, hooks or other devices that will secure the
platform to the support. The exception to the maximum extension is for platforms that are specifically designed so that
the cantilevered end can support a worker.

Materials used for platforms should be finished such that:
1) All sides and edges of the material are easily inspected for defects and damage.
2) The surface is covered with a non-slip finish.
3) The top or bottom surfaces are easily inspected for defects and damage.
4) All sides are covered with a light colored opaque paint to allow easy identification of damage and defects.
Platform materials must be easily inspected to assure there are no defects or damage. The top and bottom surfaces
may not be covered with an opaque finish. Edges are allowed to be covered to allow for identification, grading and
other markings.

Guys, ties and braces are a key component of scaffold construction. Guys, ties and braces should be used:
1) When the height of a scaffold exceeds 4 time the width of the scaffold.
2) When a scaffold is obviously unstable.
3) When the height of a scaffold exceeds the height of the building.
4) When the height of the scaffold is 5 times the length of the scaffold.
Guys, ties or braces must be used whenever a scaffold height exceeds 4 times the width of the base. Guys, ties and
braces may be used on shorter scaffolds if the situation warrants their use.

A scaffold is constructed to the roof of a 3 story buildings and runs the full length of the building, which is 72 feet
long. The base of the scaffold is on hard ground and sturdy. The base extends 6 feet from the building. Which of the
following applies?
1) Workers on the scaffold must use fall arrest systems when higher than 6 feet off the ground.
2) The scaffold must be constructed of tube and coupler or fabricated frame design.
3) Platform planks must be one inch thick.
4) The scaffold requires guys, ties or braces.
The scaffold height is more than 4 times the width of the base and therefore requires guys, ties or braces.
3 stories = 3 x 10 (estimate 10 feet per story) = 30 feet tall
The base is not more than 6 feet wide.
30 ÷ 6 = 5 which is greater than 4


Fall protection is an important part of a safety program. Falls are the leading cause of death in the construction
industry. When not addressed under another section of OSHA standards, fall protection must be provided for workers:
1) At all times, without exception.

2) At all times that they are exposed to fall hazards except when they are performing inspection, investigation or
assessment of workplace conditions before the start of work or after work has been completed or when it is
practically not feasible.
assessment of workplace conditions before the start of work, during work progression or after work has been
completed.
assessment of workplace conditions before the start of work or after work has been completed.
The fall protection standard requires that fall protection be provided to workers at all times that they are exposed to
fall hazards except when they are performing inspection, investigation or assessment of workplace conditions before
the start of work or after work has been completed. Additional exceptions exist in other subparts that address fall
protection for specific types of work activities including: scaffolding, cranes and derricks, steel erection, electrical
transmission and distribution, and stairways and ladders.

A bulge in the bottom of the cut which is caused by the downward pressure created by the weight of adjoining soil is
called:
1) Boiling.
2) Bulging.
3) Heaving.
4) Topping.

Bottom heaving or squeezing is caused by the downward pressure created by the weight of adjoining soil. This
pressure causes a bulge in the bottom of the cut, as illustrated in the drawing. Heaving and squeezing can occur even
when shoring or shielding has been properly installed.
(2006). OSHA Tech Manual Excavations. OSHA Technical Manual, Sect V Ch 2. Retrieved 3/21/06.

A condition that is evidenced by an upward water flow into the bottom of the cut if called:
1) Boiling.
2) Bulging.
3) Heaving.
4) Squeezing.
Boiling is evidenced by an upward water flow into the bottom of the cut. A high water table is one of the causes of
boiling. Boiling produces a "quick" condition in the bottom of the cut, and can occur even when shoring or trench
boxes are used.

Identify the class of cohesive soils with an unconfined compressive strength of 1.5 tons per square foot (tsf) (144 kPa)
or greater. Examples are often: clay, silty clay, sandy clay, clay loam and, in some cases, silty clay loam and sandy
clay loam.
1) TYPE A SOILS
2) TYPE B SOILS
3) TYPE C SOILS
4) TYPE D SOILS
TYPE A SOILS are cohesive soils with an unconfined compressive strength of 1.5 tons per square foot (tsf) (144
kPa) or greater. Examples of Type A cohesive soils are often: clay, silty clay, sandy clay, clay loam and, in some
cases, silty clay loam and sandy clay loam. (No soil is Type A if it is fissured, is subject to vibration of any type, has
previously been disturbed, is part of a sloped, layered system where the layers dip into the excavation on a slope of 4
horizontal to 1 vertical (4H:1V) or greater, or has seeping water.
TYPE B SOILS are cohesive soils with an unconfined compressive strength greater than 0.5 tsf (48 kPa) but less than
1.5 tsf (144 kPa). Examples of other Type B soils are: angular gravel; silt; silt loam; previously disturbed soils unless
otherwise classified as Type C; soils that meet the unconfined compressive strength or cementation requirements of
Type A soils but are fissured or subject to vibration; dry unstable rock; and layered systems sloping into the trench at a
slope less than 4H:1V (only if the material would be classified as a Type B soil).
TYPE C SOILS are cohesive soils with an unconfined compressive strength of 0.5 tsf (48 kPa) or less. Other Type C
soils include granular soils such as gravel, sand and loamy sand, submerged soil, soil from which water is freely
seeping, and submerged rock that is not stable. Also included in this classification is material in a sloped, layered
system where the layers dip into the excavation or have a slope of four horizontal to one vertical (4H:1V) or greater.

Identify the class of cohesive soils with an unconfined compressive strength greater than 0.5 tsf (48 kPa) but less than
1.5 tsf (144 kPa). Examples are: angular gravel; silt; silt loam.
1) TYPE A SOILS
2) TYPE B SOILS
3) TYPE C SOILS
4) TYPE D SOILS

Identify the class of cohesive soils with an unconfined compressive strength of 0.5 tsf (48 kPa) or less. These soils
include granular soils such as gravel, sand and loamy sand, submerged soil, soil from which water is freely seeping,
and submerged rock that is not stable. Also included in this classification is material in a sloped, layered system where
the layers dip into the excavation or have a slope of four horizontal to one vertical (4H:1V) or greater.
1) TYPE A SOILS
2) TYPE B SOILS
3) TYPE C SOILS
4) TYPE D SOILS

Expectable methods of testing soil to assess protective requirements in excavations include:
I. The Shearvane
II. The thumb test
III. The wet thread test
IV. The pocket penetrometer
V. The visual test
1) I, III and IV
2) III, IV and V
3) I, III, IV and V
4) I, II, III, IV and V
All are expectable test methods.

The following figure is an example of what type of trench support system?
1) Bench
2) Lay back
3) Shield
4) Slope
This is an example of a slope system. The slope appears to be a 1 to 1 slope indicating the soil is at least of Type B.

An area in which certain work (for example, initial installation and placement of metal decking) may take place
without the use of guardrail systems, personal fall-arrest systems, fall-restraint systems, or safety-net systems and
where access to the zone is controlled is called a(n):
1) Controlled decking zone.

2) Leading edge metal decking zone.
3) Fall protection zone.
4) Exclusion zone.
Controlled Decking Zone (CDZ) means an area in which certain work (for example, initial installation and placement
of metal decking) may take place without the use of guardrail systems, personal fall-arrest systems, fall-restraint
systems, or safety-net systems and where access to the zone is controlled.
(2006). OSHA Steel Erection. OSHA Steel Erection eTool. Retrieved 3/21/06.

Solid web structural members in steel erection shall be supported by the hoisting line until:
1) They have been secured to the satisfaction of the Connector.

2) They have been tack welded or secured with at least one wrench tightened bolt at each connection.
3) They have been secured by at least two bolts per connection that have been wrench tightened.
4) They have been secured with all bolts at each connector and the bolts have been wrench tightened.
Solid web structure in steel erection shall be supported by the hoisting line until they have been secured by at least two
bolts per connection that have been wrench tightened. Alternatively, they may be secured or support to an equivalent
level as determined by the project structural engineer of record.

In underground construction activities, a chamber through which materials and equipment pass from one air pressure
environment into another is a:
1) Work pass-through.
2) Medical lock.
3) Materials lock.
4) Toll chamber.
"Materials lock "-A chamber through which materials and equipment pass from one air pressure environment into
another.
Retrieved 3/23/06.

A condition during which exposure to compressed air is limited to a single continuous working period followed by a
single decompression in any given 24-hour period; the total time of exposure to compressed air during the single
continuous working period is not interrupted by exposure to normal atmospheric pressure, and a second exposure to
compressed air does not occur until at least 12 consecutive hours of exposure to normal atmospheric pressure has
elapsed since the employee has been under pressure is a:
1) Work shift condition.

2) Shift condition.
3) Day condition.
4) Normal condition.
"Normal condition"-One during which exposure to compressed air is limited to a single continuous working period
followed by a single decompression in any given 24-hour period; the total time of exposure to compressed air during
the single continuous working period is not interrupted by exposure to normal atmospheric pressure, and a second
exposure to compressed air does not occur until at least 12 consecutive hours of exposure to normal atmospheric
pressure has elapsed since the employee has been under pressure.
Retrieved 3/23/06.

An explosive charge which failed to detonate is a:
1) Dud.
2) Failed charge.
3) Misfire.
4) Springer.
Misfire: An explosive charge which failed to detonate.
MISFIRES - 29 CFR 1926.911
If a misfire is found, the blaster shall provide proper safeguards for excluding all employees from the danger zone.
No attempt shall be made to extract explosives from any charged or misfired hole; a new primer shall be put in and the
hole re-blasted. If refiring of the misfired hole presents a hazard, the explosives may be removed by washing out with
water or, where the misfire is under water, blown out with air.
If there are any misfires while using cap and fuse, all employees shall remain away from the charge for at least 1 hour.
Misfires shall be handled under the direction of the person in charge of the blasting. All wires shall be carefully traced
and a search made for unexploded charges.

A physical obstruction such as tapes, cones, or A-frame type wood or metal structures intended to provide a warning
about and to limit access to a hazardous area is a:
1) Barricade.
2) Barrier.
3) Restraint.
4) Warning sign.
Barricade: A physical obstruction such as tapes, cones, or A-frame type wood or metal structures intended to provide
a warning about and to limit access to a hazardous area.
Barrier: A physical obstruction which is intended to prevent contact with energized lines or equipment or to prevent
unauthorized access to a work area.
Warning Signs: Display signs warning unqualified persons to 'keep out' at entrances to rooms and spaces where
hazards are present.
(2006). OSHA Electric Power eTool. OSHA Electric Power eTool. Retrieved 3/31/06.

A physical obstruction which is intended to prevent contact with energized lines or equipment or to prevent
unauthorized access to a work area is a:
1) Barricade.
2) Barrier.
3) Restriction.
4) Warning device.
Barricade: A physical obstruction such as tapes, cones, or A-frame type wood or metal structures intended to provide
a warning about and to limit access to a hazardous area.
Barrier: A physical obstruction which is intended to prevent contact with energized lines or equipment or to prevent
unauthorized access to a work area.

The lowest concentration of material that will propagate a flame from an ignition source through a mixture of
flammable gas or combustible dust dispersion with a gaseous oxidizer is the:
1) LFL.
2) UEL.
3) LDL.
4) LIL.
Lower Flammable Limit (LFL): The lowest concentration of material that will propagate a flame from an ignition
source through a mixture of flammable gas or combustible dust dispersion with a gaseous oxidizer.

A substation that receives electric power from a nearby generating facility and uses a large power transformer to
increase the voltage for transmission to distant locations is a:
1) Distribution substation.
2) Transmission substation.
3) Transformer substation.
4) Step-up transmission substation.
Substations: A high-voltage electric system facility. It is used to switch generators, equipment, and circuits or lines in
and out of a system. It also is used to change AC voltages from one level to another, and/or change alternating current
to direct current or direct current to alternating current.
Step-up Transmission Substation: Receives electric power from a nearby generating facility and uses a large power
transformer to increase the voltage for transmission to distant locations.
Step-down Transmission Substation: These substations are located at switching points in an electrical grid. They
connect different parts of a grid and are a source for subtransmission lines.
Distribution Substation: These are located near to the end-users. Distribution substation transformers change the
subtransmission voltage to lower levels for use by end-users.

When a worker contacts an energized electrical wire of a 220 volt circuit, the worker:
1) Will receive an electrical shock.

2) May receive an electrical shock.
3) Will not receive an electrical shock.
4) Will die of electrocution.
Simple contact with an energized circuit does not necessarily result in an electrical shock being received. A circuit
must be completed meaning that the worker must also be in contact with a ground or circuit of a different voltage. If
the worker is not in contact with a ground, the worker will not complete a circuit and current will not pass through the
worker.
DHHS/NIOSH.

A worker will be shocked if the worker:

1) Comes in contact with a live electrical circuit.
2) Is not using electrical personal protective equipment.
3) Completes a circuit through the worker's body.
4) Does not lock out all breakers and cutoffs.
A worker will only be shocked if a worker completes a circuit through the worker's body. The body can complete a
circuit without coming into physical contact with a live circuit if the electricity arcs to the worker's body. Electrical
PPE must be properly rated and maintained to prevent electrical shock. Simply locking our breakers and cutoffs does
not guarantee electrical safety. Many electrical systems have components that store electricity (e.g., capacitors), until
the storage devices are drained, an electrical shock hazard remains.
DHHS/NIOSH.

Signs of an overloaded circuit include:
I. Tripped circuit breaker

II. A blown fuse
III. Tripped GFCI
IV. Extension cords that are warm to the touch
V. Frayed insulation on conductors
1) I, II and III
2) I, II and IV
3) III, IV and V
There are "clues" that electrical hazards exist. For example, if a GFCI keeps tripping while you are using a power tool,
there is a problem. Don't keep resetting the GFCI and continue to work. You must evaluate the "clue" and decide what
action should be taken to control the hazard. There are a number of other conditions that indicate a hazard.
Tripped circuit breakers and blown fuses show that too much current is flowing in a circuit. This condition could
be due to several factors, such as malfunctioning equipment or a short between conductors. You need to
determine the cause in order to control the hazard.
An electrical tool, appliance, wire, or connection that feels warm may indicate too much current in the circuit or
equipment. You need to evaluate the situation and determine your risk.
An extension cord that feels warm may indicate too much current for the wire size of the cord. You must decide
when action needs to be taken. A cable, fuse box, or junction box that feels warm may indicate too much current
in the circuits.
A burning odor may indicate overheated insulation.
Worn, frayed, or damaged insulation around any wire or other conductor is an electrical hazard because the
conductors could be exposed. Contact with an exposed wire could cause a shock. Damaged insulation could
cause a short, leading to arcing or a fire. Inspect all insulation for scrapes and breaks. You need to evaluate the
seriousness of any damage you find and decide how to deal with the hazard.
A GFCI that trips indicates there is current leakage from the circuit. First, you must decide the probable cause of
the leakage by recognizing any contributing hazards. Then, you must decide what action needs to be taken.
DHHS/NIOSH.

A portable heater is rated at 3,000 watts and requires a 120 volts circuit. What gauge wired extension cord should be
used for this heater?
amps = watts / volts
746 watts = 1 horsepower
Watts = energy per second
The larger the gauge number, the smaller the wire.
#10 AWG = 30 amps max
1) #10
2) #12
3) #14
4) #16
3000 watts ÷ 120 volts = 25 amps.

Using the table above, 25 amps corresponds to a #12 gauge wire.
DHHS/NIOSH.

Commercial diving operations are a specialty area but the need for divers is not uncommon in construction. When
diving operations are taking place:
1) There must be a hyperbaric chamber at or near the site.

2) All members of the dive team must be trained in first aid and CPR.
3) There must be a dive rescue team standing by.
4) All divers must be trained to a minimum of recreational diver certification.
All members of a dive team must be trained in CPR and first aid by a certified trainer.

The IMDG Code, IMO Classification, is appropriate to:
1) International Material Design Grades.

2) International Mine Design Guidelines.
3) International Maritime Dangerous Goods.
4) International Material Dangerous Goods.
The IMDG (International Maritime Dangerous Goods) Code assigns divisions, classes, and codes to materials in
shipment. These are explosives, flammables, oxidizers, poisons, corrosives, and other regulated substances.

The main reason for safety inspections is to:
1) Identify unsafe acts.

2) Determine compliance with OSHA standards.
3) Prepare for insurance audits.
4) Identify and correct workplace hazards.
The main purpose of safety inspections is to identify hazards and correct them.

The pressure at which a pressure containment device would fail structurally is called:
1) Maximum pressure.
2) Absolute pressure.
3) Bursting pressure.
4) Failure pressure.
"Bursting pressure" is defined in 29 CFR 1910.410, Subpart T.

An oxygen-enriched atmosphere in a confined space is defined as:

1) 19.5 % O2 by volume.
2) 20.5 % O2 by volume.
3) 21.5 % O2 by volume.
4) 23.5 % O2 by volume.
"Oxygen Enriched Atmosphere" is more than 23.5% O 2 by volume, per 29 CFR 1910.146.

The displacement of the atmosphere in a permit-required confined space by a non-combustible gas to such an extent
that the resulting atmosphere is non-combustible is called:
1) Inerting.
2) Stabilizing.
3) Venting.
4) Forced gas venting.
"Inerting" is the process of displacing combustible gases with noncombustible gases, per 29 CFR 1910.146.

Drivers of any size vehicle which transports hazardous materials that require placarding must pass the pre-trip skills
and written test to obtain a:
1) Class I license.
2) Class II license.
3) CDL.
4) 1 or 2 above
Under the terms of the Commercial Motor Vehicle Act, anyone driving a vehicle more than 26,000 pounds, or
transports more than 15 people including the driver, or transports hazardous materials that require placards must pass
the pre-trip skills and written test to obtain a Commercial Driver's License (CDL).

A truck driver transporting hazardous material must know which of the following?
1) Rest stops
2) Emergency Fist Aid
3) Nature of cargo
4) CPR
The truck driver is legally obligated to know the nature of the cargo being transported.

Common job risk factors for the development of Cumulative Trauma Disorder (CTD) include all of the following
EXCEPT:
1) Excessive force
2) Abnormal postures
3) Mechanical compression
4) Repetition
Although repetition contributes to the development of CTD, it is the repetition of the risk factors such as excessive
force, abnormal postures, and mechanical compression that eventually causes the injury. Repetition is a compounding
factor that contributes to the risk for developing CTD.

The definition of tensile strength on an object or of a material is:

1) The force which distorts it from its original shape.
2) The breaking strength when exposed to tensile force.
3) 1/4 of the sheer strength.
4) The sheer strength cubed.
The tensile strength is the same as the breaking strength of a material when exposed to a stretching force.

Which part of the body is the main one involved in maintaining the body's heat balance?
1) Lungs
2) Heart
3) Skin
4) Hair
Skin is the site of most thermoregulation activities including sweating, conductive and radiant heat transfer.

Acetylene can be described as:
1) Colorless gas with slight garlic-like odor.

2) Pungent, irritating greenish-yellow gas.
3) Faint yellow liquid.
4) White powder, chlorine-like odor.
Acetylene is a colorless gas with a slight garlic-like odor.

An instrument that detects a mixture of flammable vapors when air is passed over a heated electric filament is called:
1) Wheatstone bridge.
2) Resistance bridge.
3) Combustible gas indicator.
4) Gas detector.
A combustible gas indicator is the instrument which operates on this principle. A Wheatstone bridge is the actual
internal mechanism which provides the instrument with data.

If water weighs 8.34 lb/gal, what work is required to move 300 gallons of water from a 400 ft. deep mine?
1) 1,000,200 ft-lbs
2) 1,000,400 ft-lbs
3) 1,000,600 ft-lbs
4) 1,000,800 ft-lbs
Use the formula:

W=F*D
Where:
W = Work, F = Force, D = Distance
W = (8.34 * 300)(400) = 1,000,800 ft-lbs.

At a distance of 5 miles, an office building has an angle of elevation of 2°. Find the height of the building.
1) 922 ft
2) 561 ft
3) 434 ft
4) 4,340 ft
Use the formula for Tangent:

Tan 2 = Opp / Adj
Tan 2 = x / 26400
x = Tan 2 * 26400
x = 922

How long is a stay wire of a smokestack if at a distance of 80 feet from the base it makes an angle of 65° with the
ground?
1) 163
2) 16.3
3) 18.9
4) 189
Use the Cosine Law formula:
Cos 65° = Adj / Hyp

Cos 65° = 80 / x
x = 80 / .4226 x = 189.3 ft

PROGRAM MANAGEMENT :Emergency Response Plan
Which group of specially trained employees, who have been delegated by their employer, are most qualified to
respond to an emergency in which a drum of hazardous substance has been ruptured?
1) Paramedics
2) Nurses
3) HAZMAT team
4) First aid team
In this example, the only choice that explicitly had the required knowledge would be the HAZMAT - hazardous
materials response team. The HAZMAT team is given the proper training that covers the necessary information to
control and handle chemical substances, spills and leaks safely, including information on the proper personal
protective equipment and procedures that safeguard employees against hazards and toxic substances exposure.

If a SCBA is worn in an atmosphere that is immediately dangerous to life and health, the employee must:
1) Wear a safety harness and lifeline.

2) Have a standby worker with a canister respirator.
3) Have an escape pack.
4) Not go into the area.
In the event of an emergency, a safety harness and lifeline is the means of quickly removing the person from the
hazardous atmosphere.

What precaution should be taken during an electrical storm?
1) Stand by a tall tree.

2) Stand by a metal fence.
3) Seek shelter within a grounded metal building.
4) Seek shelter within a non-grounded non-metal building.
A precaution to take during an electrical storm includes seeking shelter within a grounded metal building. Answers 1
and 2 should always be avoided. Answer 4 would be the best place to seek shelter if a grounded metal building were
unavailable.

Accidental contact with 60 hertz current of 5 to 25 milliamperes can cause which of the following?
1) Death in most adults

2) Ventricular fibrillation
3) Harmless exposure
4) Paralysis
Victims may become paralyzed with accidental contact with 60 hertz of current in the range of 5 to 25 milliamperes.

The major cause of fire-related deaths is attributed to:
1) Inhalation of smoke.
2) Seared lungs.
3) Carbon Monoxide.
4) Burn trauma.
Statistics maintained by the National Safety Council (NSC) and the National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) show
carbon monoxide to be the leading cause of fire-related deaths. Carbon monoxide, a gas, inhibits blood cells in
carrying oxygen to the body tissues. Of all the gases that have poisonous effects upon man and animals, carbon
monoxide is the most widely encountered.

In the theory of fire extinguishment, all of the following are believed appropriate, EXCEPT:
1) Extinguishment by cooling
2) Extinguishment by oxygen dilution
3) Extinguishment by fuel removal
4) Extinguishment by fire break
Per the NFPA Fire Protection Handbook, all of the above but "extinguishment by fire break" are appropriate.

What is the most critical period in Crisis Management?
1) First 24 hours
2) First week
3) First month
4) First year
It is generally considered that the first 24 hours of any crisis are critical. Management's function is to explain problem,
control rumors and control panic.

What type of emergencies would you expect to find at a TSD site?
1) Those involving hazardous substances

2) Those involving trash or rubbish
3) Those dealing with fire and similar life threatening conditions
4) Those involving gas cylinders
Treatment, storage and disposal (TSD) sites are required by law (OSHA, TSCA, CERCLA) to have an emergency
response plan for all emergencies involving hazardous substances. Hazardous waste operations and emergency
response, 29 CFR 1910.120 is the standard that details program requirements.

A command post established for managing a hazardous chemical spill should contain at a minimum all of the
following EXCEPT:
1) Two radios
2) Spill clean-up equipment
3) Phone
4) Facility MSDS's
A command post is set up away from the spill area, therefore the spill cleanup equipment needs to be at the spill scene,
not at the command post.

Of the following, which is most important in responding to a toluene spill?
1) Turn off all electrical equipment in the area.

2) Stop the leak.
3) Contain the spill.
4) Establish the hot zone and call the spill team.
Toluene vapors are flammable and may be ignited by sparks or hot surfaces from the electrical equipment.

In the case of short term spills, in-place protection is used when?

1) Evacuating the public would cause lesser risks
2) Evacuating the public would cause greater risks
3) Is not recommended
4) Is not feasible of short term spills
In-place protection is used when evacuating the public would cause greater risks or when an evacuation cannot be
performed. (1993 Emergency Response Handbook)

The National Response Center (NRC) is operated by which of the following?
1) DOE
2) USCG
3) OSHA
4) SARA III
The National Response Center is operated by the U.S. Coast Guard.

Any foreseeable act that places a rescuer in the same danger as an injured person the rescuer is attempting to aid is
considered negligence by the person who committed the initial act. This principle is called:
1) Foreseeability.
2) Foreseeabililty applied to rescue.
3) Foreseeable for safety.
4) Inherent danger.
The principle of "Foreseeability applied to rescue" allows damages to rescuer if someone could have foreseen that
their actions were going to cause an incident where aid would be needed.

In the late 1980s and early 1990s, which vaccine was identified as important for personnel at risk of exposure to
bloodborne pathogens?
1) Tetanus
2) HIV
3) HBV
4) HAV
The Hepatitis B vaccine was determined to be critical to offer to healthcare workers. In 1991 it was made mandatory
for workers at risk of exposure to bloodborne pathogens in the United States.
29 CFR 1910.1030 (f)(1)

OSHA has developed a standard for Emergency Action Plans (29 CFR 1910.38) for protection of employees during
emergencies and Hazardous Waste Operations, Emergency Response (29 CFR 1910.120) for responding to and
addressing hazardous materials emergencies. Which of the following program elements is NOT common to both
standards?
1) Training requirements
2) Medical surveillance
3) Personal protective equipment selection
4) Escape procedures and routes
Medical surveillance (physical examinations) is required for most hazardous waste, TSD (treatment, storage and
disposal), and HAZMAT (hazardous materials) employees. It is used to monitor employees for adverse exposure to
harmful substances. Reference 29 CFR 1910.120 (f), for more detail on medical surveillance. General evacuation
plans that are directed at removing employees from the hazard rather than directing employees to respond to and
address an emergency do not result in activities that require medical surveillance.

Which group of specially trained employees, who have been delegated by their employer, is qualified to respond to an
emergency in which a drum of hazardous substance has been ruptured?
1) ER Team
2) PEO Team
3) HAZMAT Team
4) Any of the above
All of the above groups, given the proper training that covers the necessary information to control and handle
chemical substances, spills, and leaks safely, including information on the proper personal protective equipment and
procedures that safeguard employees against hazards and toxic substances exposure, can respond to a ruptured drum
of a hazardous substance.
ERT = emergency response team

PEO = plant emergency organization
HAZMAT = hazardous materials response team

A HAZMAT team is:
1) Typical fire brigade.

2) An organized group of employees, who are expected to handle and control leaks or spills of hazardous substances.
3) An emergency medical surveillance team.
4) An emergency medical treatment team.
OSHA's Hazardous Waste Operations and Emergency Response standard (HAZWOPER), defines a "hazardous
materials response (HAZMAT) team" as an organized group of employees, designated by the employer, who are
expected to perform work to handle and control potential leaks or spills of hazardous substances. Specifically spelled
out is that a HAZMAT team is not a typical fire brigade.
29 CFR 1910.120 (a)(3).

Which group of specially trained employees, who have been delegated by their employer, are most qualified to
respond to an emergency in which a drum of hazardous substance has ruptured?
1) Paramedics
2) Nurses
3) HAZMAT team
4) First aid team
The HAZMAT team has been given the proper training that covers the necessary information to control and handle
chemical substances, spills, and leaks safely, including information on the proper personal protective equipment and
procedures that safeguard employees against hazards and toxic substances exposure. In this example, the only choice
that explicitly has the required knowledge would be the HAZMAT team - hazardous materials response team.

A flood destroys your company's operations facility. After the emergency management issues are addressed, your
company implements several plans to 1) recover critical files and information that had been stored offsite, 2) set up a
temporary facility from which operations can be conducted, and 3) inform customers of the situation and how they
will be served. These plans are among examples of a comprehensive loss control activity called:
1) Emergency management/emergency response.

2) Situational awareness.
3) Business interruption recovery/business continuity.
4) Inland marine preparedness.
Business continuity planning is a key part of a loss control program. Such plans should include recovering corporate
information, setting up operations, and financing temporary operations until a new facility can be commissioned.
Depending upon the risk of a natural disaster, some companies purchase business interruption insurance to help
finance operations.

Your company is planning a new corporate office and training center. This center will include a large meeting room
that can be subdivided into smaller meeting rooms with movable walls. What is one of the commonly overlooked
items when designing such facilities?
1) The facility needs to be classified as a place of assembly.

2) Emergency exit provisions must be made for each area subdivided by movable walls.
3) The facility may be used by the public.
4) Generally these facilities have cooking facilities that must be treated as a restaurant.
Often overlooked is the need to provide emergency egress from areas subdivided by movable walls, particularly when
several scenarios of subdivision are possible.

An on-site incident commander requires all of the following training EXCEPT:
1) Knowledge of and ability to implement the employer's incident command system.

2) Knowledge of and implementation of the employer's emergency response plan.
3) Knowledge and understanding of the importance of decontamination procedures.
4) Ability to perform specialized control, containment, and confinement operations.
All of the answers are training required for an on-site incident commander except Answer 4). This is required for a
hazardous materials specialist employee.
29 CFR 1910.120 (q)(6)(v)

Planning for spills, explosions, etc. is considered:

2) Containment planning.
3) Emergency planning.
4) Backing up.

Emergency planning includes planning for spills, explosions, etc.

Your company has an emergency brigade established under 29 CFR 1910.156. As your plant has expanded, the roles
and capabilities of your company's fire brigade have also expanded. To promote community goodwill and to provide
an opportunity to interact with the local volunteer fire department, your company is seeking an opportunity to provide
its fire suppression, rescue, and emergency medical services to the community within the local fire district. What is a
common method for outlining the roles, responsibilities, and communication channels between your company's fire
brigade and the community fire district should this be agreeable to the community?
1) Fire fighting agreement

2) Mutual aid agreement
3) Agreement of contracted services
4) Emergency response agreement
These types of agreements are called mutual aid agreements. The terms of these agreements detail what (if any)
compensation will occur as a result of a request for an emergency response by both parties as well as chains of
command, communication channels, and other policy-related information.

CHEMTREC is an arm of the Chemical Manufacturers Association (CMA) that provides:
1) Emergency response information.

2) Hazard profiles of chemicals in non-emergency situations.
3) Cleanup facilities for its members.
4) Information system consultants to the semiconductor industry.
CHEMTREC is a highly successful program of the CMA to assist in response to HAZMAT incidents.

PROGRAM MANAGEMENT :Accident/Incident Investigation
Prior to the enactment of workers compensation laws and the OSH Act, employees could file civil suits to force
employers to provide a safe work environment or to provide reimbursement for on-the-job injuries. The enactment of
the OSH Act provided a national "standard of care" for the provision of a safe workplace. As a result employers and
supervisors:
1) Have a level of protection from civil and criminal prosecution when an employee action has caused the accident.
2) Can not be sued by employees.
3) Have a level of protection from civil and criminal prosecution.
4) Have a level of protection from civil and criminal prosecution except in cases of willful violation or gross
negligence.
Willful violations of a standard by an employer can result in criminal prosecution and conviction of an individual or a
company. Additionally, some prosecutors are beginning to file criminal manslaughter, reckless conduct or assault and
battery charges in willful cases resulting in serious injury or death. Generally, when an employer acts in good faith,
has made all reasonable effort to comply with requirements and has acted in an ethical manner, civil and criminal
prosecution will not occur or will not be successful.
Tompkins, N. C.(2004). Basics of Safety and Health [Revised] . USA: National Safety Council. 3-4.

Workers' Compensation insurance premiums are often determined using a company's experience modification rate
(EMR). A complex formula is used to calculate a company's EMR. A company begins with an EMR of 1.00. If a
company has below average workers compensation claims, the EMR will go down. If a company has greater than
average worker's compensation claims, the EMR goes up. Which of the following statements is most accurate?
1) Company A has an EMR of 1.21 and Company B has an EMR of 1.13. Company B will likely pay a lower rate for
its workers compensation insurance than Company A.
2) Company XYZ has an EMR of 1.00. Company XYZ is a new company.
3) A company with a low EMR is indicative of a company with a poor safety and health program.
4) A company's EMR is never useful in evaluating the companies safety and health program effectiveness.
EMRs are used by the insurance industry to determine workers' compensation premiums. The higher the EMR the
higher the premium.

When determining the costs of an accident, the ____________ is the easiest to determine.
1) Direct costs.
2) Indirect costs.
3) Lost productivity of other workers.
4) Long term impact after the worker returns to work.
Direct costs are the easiest costs to determine. Direct costs include actual costs of medical treatment, wage
replacement, and cost of repairs and replacement of equipment and materials.

Some of the most common contributing factors in construction accidents are:
1) Physical hazards, human factors, poor communication, environmental hazards, personal protective equipment
failure.
2) Environmental hazards, poor communication, criminal action, physical hazards, inadequate or missing procedures.
3) Poor communication, human factors, environmental hazards, physical hazards, inadequate or missing procedures.
4) Human factors, illiteracy, environmental hazards, physical hazards, inadequate or missing procedures.
The most common contributing factors to accidents in construction are poor communication, human factors,
environmental hazards, physical hazards, inadequate or missing procedures.

The Human factor theory of accident causation postulates that accidents are caused by human error. Three factors that
lead to human error in this theory are:
Overload: A person's capacity is overloaded by the combination of responsibilities (assigned tasks), environmental
conditions (noise, lighting), internal issues (personal issues such as emotional stress), and situational conditions (high
risk task, unclear direction).
Inappropriate response or incompatibility: When a person responds to a situation in a manner that creates a hazard
or causes an accident, they have responded inappropriately. Incompatibility refers to the use of an incorrect tool,
poorly sized workstation or task chair, too long of a reach and similar incompatible person-tool matches.
Inappropriate activities: Performing a task without the required training and performing a task after under estimating
the level of risk are examples of inappropriate action.
Which of the following is an example of inappropriate response or incompatibility?
1) A worker is responsible for receiving materials at the worksite. A shipment of materials has been received, packed
in numerous boxes. After unsuccessfully looking for a box cutter, the worker uses his own pocket knife. When
opening the third box, the worker punctures a container of drain cleaner and receives a minor acid burn.
2) A worker is assigned to carry roofing shingles from the storage area to a staging area. The worker picks up one
package and decides he can carry two at a time. On the third trip, the worker feels a tinge in his back and suddenly
falls to his knees in pain.
3) A worker has been assigned to be the fire watch during a welding activity. A work truck must be moved into the
area. Since the worker is already required to be there, the supervisor asks the worker to direct the truck driver into
the tight space. While the worker is directing the truck, a fire ignites and spreads into a nearby wall.
4) A confined space entry attendant is working with a confined space entrant going into a manhole next to a busy
street. During the entry, the attendant can not see the entrant because of the bright sunlight outside the manhole and
the darkness inside the manhole. The attendant is unaware that the entrant slipped and was knocked unconscious.
The pocket knife was an incompatible tool for opening boxes. The blade was too long and able to puncture the
contents. A box cutter would have been a compatible tool.

Workers compensation was developed to provide:
1) A balance between worker's need to have medical and recovery expenses covered for workplace injuries and
illnesses and the employer's need to have limits on their financial liability and legal expenses.
2) A method for employees to get the money they deserve when they get hurt on the job.
3) Employers with a way to avoid paying employees what they deserve for their work place injuries.
4) A balanced method for employers to pay medical and recovery expenses for employees who have experienced
workplace injuries and illnesses to guarantee that they return to work for the employer.
Workers' compensation was developed to provide injured employees with appropriate compensation without having to
resort to law suits. The theory of workers' compensation is to provide workers that have experienced an injury or
illness on the job with the necessary medical and living expenses during treatment and recovery, while protecting the
employer from excessive liability. Worker's compensation is designed to be a no-fault system.

Workers' compensation laws require that the cost of workers' compensation be covered by the employer. There are a
number of factors that influence the rates of workers' compensation insurance. Which of the following is most
accurate?
1) Worker's compensation rates vary greatly from state to state and may be affected by the type of work performed.
2) Worker's compensation rates are based on the type of work performed. Two employers in the same line of
business, located in the same state, will have the same basic workers' compensation insurance rates.
3) Worker's compensation rates vary greatly from state to state and may be affected by: the number of employees,
risk of the work performed, injury and accident history of the employer, estimated future losses, and quality of
employer's safety program.
4) Worker's compensation rates are determined using information such as: the number of employees, risk of the work
performed, injury and accident history of the employer, estimated future losses, and quality of employer's safety
program. A company with locations in multiple states will be assessed a workers' compensation rate based on the
number of employees at each site as long as the work performed at each site is similar.
Worker's compensation rates vary greatly from state to state and may be affected by: the number of employees, risk of
the work performed, injury and accident history of the employer, estimated future losses, and quality of employer's
safety program. In addition to the differences between employers, each state has differing laws and regulations that
affect the rates.

Workers' compensation is important for workers and employers. Unfortunately, there are people who take advantage
of the system. Which of the following statements is most true?
1) Supervisors play an important role in detecting possible fraud. Supervisors who identify signs of workers'
compensation fraud, such as, a lack of witnesses to the accident, the employee continues active participation in
sports or the employee is never at home after filing a claim, the supervisor should investigate the employee's claim.
2) Supervisors have no responsibility for detecting possible fraud. Supervisors who identify signs of workers'
sports or the employee is never at home after filing a claim, the supervisor should remain silent to protect
themselves from lawsuits.
3) Supervisors play an important role in detecting possible fraud. Supervisors who identify signs of workers'
sports or the employee is never at home after filing a claim, should advise the company's workers' compensation
office.
4) Supervisors have no responsibility for detecting possible fraud. Supervisors are only responsible for assisting
injured employees with completing workers' compensation claims forms.
Supervisors play an important role in detecting possible fraud. Supervisors who identify signs of workers'
compensation fraud, such as, a lack of witnesses to the accident, the employee continues active participation in sports
or the employee is never at home after filing a claim, should advise the company's workers' compensation office. In
most cases, supervisors should not confront workers. An employer's personnel office or workers' compensation office
should follow-up on and investigate possible fraud. It is also important to remember that signs of fraud do not
guarantee that fraud is being committed.

Accident reports are an important responsibility of the construction supervisor. When completing accident reports,
which of the following rules are important?
I. Clearly indicate all employees and equipment that were involved.

II. Document all rules and procedures that were not being followed.
III. Provide an opinion on the validity of witness statements.
IV. Be brief and succinct, document the facts that clearly indicate the cause.
V. Include all pertinent facts.
1) I, II, III, IV, V

2) I, II, III, V
3) III, IV
4) I, II, V
Accident reports should be comprehensive and factual, documenting all facts surrounding the circumstances of the
accident. The report should be objective and impartial, opinions of the validity of witness statements do not belong in
the report. The people and equipment involved in the accident need to be clearly documented along with the recording
of any applicable procedures that were and were not being followed. Any causal factors identified should be listed and
recommendations for corrective actions documented.
The accident report provides a primary source for obtaining factual information about the accident in further
investigations, reviews and insurance claims.

The Accident Injury Theory of Accident Causation theorizes that:
accident.
activities.

The Systems Theory of Accident Causation theorizes that:
accident.
activities.
The Domino Theory , developed by Herbert W. Heinrich in the 1920s, postulates that injuries and accidents are

When a worker comes in contact with a live electrical circuit, the worker will:
1) Become part of the circuit and may or may not be shocked.

2) Become part of the circuit and be shocked.
3) Be safe if the worker is standing on wood.
4) Experience a heart attack if the worker completes the circuit to ground.

When a worker comes in contact with a live electrical circuit, the worker becomes part of the circuit. The degree to
which the worker is potentially injured depends on a number of factors including the conductivity of the worker to a
ground source, the path that the electricity follows through the workers body and the current that travels through the
worker. If the worker is fully insulated from ground, the worker does not complete the circuit and will not be shocked.
Moisture is a key factor in determining conductivity with workers. Moist skin is far more conductive than dry skin.
Wood, which is not generally very conductive, becomes conductive when wet. The path through the worker's body
will play a roll and the injuries caused by electricity. Generally, the heart is only affected if the path of the electricity
travels through the heart.

An employee is inured in an aerial lift accident. You are assigned to interview the employee in the hospital. The
employee advises that he entered the lift basket and began to raise the basket. After rising approximately 6 feet, the lift
appeared to stall and suddenly raised 2 to 3 feet. The employee was thrown from the basket and landed on the ground.
Did the employee take the required safety precautions prior to operating the lift?
1) Yes.
2) No. The employee did not properly use the body belt and lanyard.
3) No. The employee did not properly test the lift prior to use.
4) No. The employee was not trained to operate the lift.
Based on the information available, the only accurate conclusion that can be made is that the employee did not
properly use the body belt and lanyard. Workers in aerial lifts are required to use a body belt and lanyard at all times
while in the lift. The lanyard is required to be secured to the boom or within the basket. Had the worker been properly
secured, the worker would not have landed on the ground.

A supervisor is assigned the responsibility to investigate an accident involving a crane. The supervisor decides to start
with a review of the relevant records. What records should the supervisor obtain?
I. Operator and competent person training records
II. Employer determined equipment specifications
III. Maintenance records and daily inspection log
IV. Manufacturer specifications
V. Employer bills and payments for maintenance
1) I, III, IV and V
2) I, II, III and V
3) I, III and IV
4) I, II and III
Records that are required, related to cranes used in construction are:
Operator and competent persons training records

Daily inspection logs
Maintenance records
Annual inspection records
Manufacturer specifications
Under safety regulations, there is not a requirement for financial records to be maintained and they generally should
not have a place in a safety investigation of an accident. The employer does not make a determination of the
specifications of a crane; the manufacturer's specifications are used.

In underground construction activities, there is a special chamber in which employees are treated for decompression
illness. It may also be used in pre-employment physical examinations to determine the adaptability of the prospective
employee to changes in pressure. What is it?
1) Escape lock.
2) Test lock.
3) Sickness lock.
4) Medical lock.
"Medical lock "-A special chamber in which employees are treated for decompression illness. It may also be used in
pre-employment physical examinations to determine the adaptability of the prospective employee to changes in
pressure.
Retrieved 3/23/06

Alterations in the environment due to the presence or activities of humans are referred to as:
1) Active Environment.
2) Anthropogenic.
3) Environmental Attenuation.
4) Human/Environment impact.
Anthropogenic: Referring to alterations in the environment due to the presence or activities of humans.

The minimum voltage required to cause an arc between electrodes separated by a gas or liquid insulation is called:
1) Voltage limit.
2) Arc-over voltage.
3) Jump voltage.
4) Break-through voltage.
Arc-over Voltage: The minimum voltage required to cause an arc between electrodes separated by a gas or liquid
insulation.

Propagation of a combustion zone through a fuel-oxidizer mixture at a rate that is less than the speed of sound in the
un-reacted medium and capable of producing a significant increase in pressure is called a:
1) Deflagration.
2) Detonation.
3) Explosion.
4) Fuel-oxygen propagation model.
Deflagration: Propagation of a combustion zone through a fuel-oxidizer mixture at a rate that is less than the speed of
sound in the un-reacted medium and capable of producing a significant increase in pressure.

The lowest temperature at which a liquid in an open container will give off sufficient vapors to burn once ignited is
called:
1) Burn temperature.
2) Flash temperature.
3) Fire point.
4) Flash point.
Fire point: The lowest temperature at which a liquid in an open container will give off sufficient vapors to burn once
ignited. It generally is slightly above the flash point.
Flash point: The lowest temperature at which a liquid can form an ignitable mixture in air near the surface of the
liquid. The lower the flash point, the easier it is to ignite the material. Until the fire point is reached, there may not be a
sustained combustion after ignition.

The amount of damage caused to a worker due to electrical shock is directly related to the:
1) Voltage.
2) Resistance.
3) Skin surface area affected.
4) Current.
The current is what causes damage. Damaging and fatal current can be received at lower voltages.
DHHS/NIOSH.

The scattering of molten metal resulting from a high amperage arc is called:
1) An arc-blast.
2) An electrical explosion.
3) Molten metal electrical failure.
4) A complex arch.
Arc-blasts occur when powerful, high-amperage currents arc through the air. Arcing is the luminous electrical
discharge that occurs when high voltages exist across a gap between conductors and current travels through the air.
This situation is often caused by equipment failure due to abuse or fatigue. Temperatures as high as 35,000° F have
been reached in arc-blasts.
There are three primary hazards associated with an arc-blast.
(1) Arcing gives off thermal radiation (heat) and intense light, which can cause burns. Several factors affect the degree
of injury, including skin color, area of skin exposed, and type of clothing worn. Proper clothing, work distances, and
overcurrent protection can reduce the risk of such a burn.
(2) A high-voltage arc can produce a considerable pressure wave blast. A person 2 feet away from a 25,000-amp arc
feels a force of about 480 pounds on the front of the body. In addition, such an explosion can cause serious ear
damage and memory loss due to concussion. Sometimes the pressure wave throws the victim away from the arc-blast.
While this may reduce further exposure to the thermal energy, serious physical injury may result. The pressure wave
can propel large objects over great distances. In some cases, the pressure wave has enough force to snap off the heads
of steel bolts and knock over walls.
(3) A high-voltage arc can also cause many of the copper and aluminum components in electrical equipment to melt.
These droplets of molten metal can be blasted great distances by the pressure wave. Although these droplets harden
rapidly, they can still be hot enough to cause serious burns or cause ordinary clothing to catch fire, even if you are 10
feet or more away.
DHHS/NIOSH.

The primary reason for investigating accidents is:
1) To assess responsibility.
2) To prevent future occurrences.
3) For liability protection.
4) For worker's compensation.
Investigations should be performed to identify root causes and contributory causes in an effort to prevent reoccurrence
of the accident.

Accident investigations should be focused on finding:
1) Conclusions.
2) Facts.
3) Recommendations.
4) Responsibility.
The facts of the accident provide the insight into causes that can be addressed to prevent future occurrence.

Accidents should be investigated by:
1) An independent third party.

2) The supervisor.
3) The companies designated representative.
4) An employee team.
Companies need to establish a policy and procedure for investigating accidents. The policy should designate how
investigators will be selected.

The first steps of an investigation should be to:
1) Secure the scene, detain witnesses and film all emergency response activities.
2) Secure the accident scene, interview witnesses, record the evidence and document the scene.
3) Secure the accident scene, interview witnesses and document the scene.
4) Secure the accident scene, record the evidence, document the scene and identify witnesses.
The first steps of an investigation should be to secure the accident scene, record the evidence, document the scene and
identify witnesses. This would be followed by interviewing the witnesses.

Your are investigating an accident involving a piece of building equipment. A worker was shocked after securing the
equipment power supply. You discover that the equipment had been repaired one month earlier by a different shift.
The workers that repaired the equipment would be considered:
1) Ancillary personnel (they did not witness the accident).

2) Tertiary witnesses.
3) Potentially involved persons.
4) Suspects.
A tertiary witness is a person who was not present during any part of the accident or response but has relevant
information.
A primary witness is an eyewitness to the accident.
A secondary witness is a witness who did not see the accident happen but was in the vicinity when it occurred and
saw the immediate aftermath.

Injuries requiring first aid only are not required to be recorded on the Log of Work-Related Injuries and Illnesses.
Which of the following is required to be reported?
1) A cut that is treated by cleaning and applying a self-adhesive bandage.

2) A cut that is treated by cleaning and applying a self-adhesive bandage, but requires a tetanus shot.
3) A sprained wrist that is wrapped with an elastic bandage with a preformed plastic wrist splint.
4) An injured thumb that requires drilling of the thumb nail to relieve pressure.
Use of elastic bandages is considered first aid only, but the use of rigid immobilization devices is considered greater
than first aid treatment.

Negligence is generally defined as:
1) Fault.
2) Lack of ability to protect.
3) Intentional reckless conduct.
4) Failure to take reasonable care.
Negligence is the failure to take reasonable care or to perform duties in a manner to prevent harm.

The concept, that a person knew or should have known, which holds a person liable for actions that result in damage
is called:
1) Liability.
2) Proximate cause
3) Tort.
4) Foreseeability.
FORESEEABILITY is a key issue in determining an individual's liability. If an individual could not have reasonably
foreseen that someone might be harmed by his or her actions, then there may be no liability.

Shortly following a gas manifold cleaning operation in which alcohol was used, an explosion, followed by fire
occurred. The cause was traced to which of the following?
1) Hydrogen
2) Oxygen
3) Nitrogen
4) Chlorine
Oxygen is the oxidizer and it participates in the combustion with the alcohol.

The purpose of this analysis is to identify casual factors relating to a accident or near-miss. The technique goes
beyond the direct causes to identify the fundamental reasons for the event?
1) Management Oversight and Risk Tree

2) Root Cause Analysis
3) Event Tree Analysis
4) Fault Tree Analysis
Root Cause Analysis considers "why" statements to determine root cause categories. The objective is to find one root
cause that is the fundamental reason behind a set of related shortcomings.

Occupational accidents usually result from:
1) Physical limitations.
2) Personality differences.
3) Combination of factors.
4) Environmental conditions.
Behind every accident, there lie many contributing factors, causes and subcauses. The theory of multiple causation
states that these factors combine in random fashion, causing accidents.

The tendency for an individual to give up - to withhold any sense of emotional or personal involvement in the
situation is called:
1) Resignation.
2) Aggression.
3) Regression.
4) Reactivity.
Resignation is the tendency for an individual to give up - to withhold any sense of emotional or personal involvement
in the situation.

Which of the following is not an accident investigation technique?
1) STEP
2) MORT
3) RCA
4) THERP
THERP is not an accident investigation technique. One of the older and more widely used methods of evaluating
human performance, THERP is the Technique for Human Error Rate Prediction, and was developed by A. D. Swain
during the 1960's.

Barrier Analysis is utilized within which of the following accident investigation techniques?
1) Sequential Time Plotting
2) Critical Incident Technique
3) Root Cause Analysis and Management Oversight and Risk Tree
4) Event Analysis
Root Cause Analysis utilizes Barrier Analysis as one technique to help develop information concerning event flow.
Management Oversight and Risk Tree also applies Barrier Analysis when evaluating energy flow.

Heinrich's domino theory of accidents included:
1) Worker, perception, physical, social, injury.

2) The five B's.
3) Social, fault, unsafe act, accident, injury.
4) Men, machine, money, capital, accident.
Heinrich's domino theory involved social, fault, unsafe act, accident, and injury.

Heinrich's ratio of no injury accidents to minor injuries to major injuries is which of the following?
1) 100-20-1
2) 200-30-10
3) 300-29-1
4) 600-58-1
Heinrich wrote that for every 300 no injury accidents, there are 29 minor and 1 major injury accidents.

In worker's compensation cases involving hearing loss, the term low fence is often heard. Low fence also varies by
state. What is the meaning of this term?
1) Minimum noise level the worker must be able to hear

2) Hearing threshold level at which impairment begins
3) Minimum acceptable dollar value related to the loss
4) Maximum acceptable dollar value related to the loss
Low fence is the minimum threshold level at which hearing impairment begins (in that particular state).

In workers compensation cases for hearing loss the term high fence is often used. High fence also varies by state.
What is the meaning of the term high fence?
1) Point the worker must reach

2) Point of 100% hearing impairment
High fence is a term that describes the point of 100% hearing loss. High fence varies according to state law.

When an injured person's care for his own safety was less than that reasonable for a prudent person under existing
conditions, he is considered negligent and the defendant will not be held liable. This principle is known as:
1) Privity.
2) Contributory negligence.
3) Joint tort.
4) Assumption of risk.
The principle above describes "Contributory Negligence". The injured person contributed to the injury because he took
less than reasonable care.

When an injury is caused by two or more persons, each of which failed in a legal duty, they are in:
1) Fault.
2) Contributory fault.
3) Contributory negligence.
4) Joint tort liability.
When two parties contributed to an injury to another party they have "Joint Tort Liabilities".

At one time it was considered that a plaintiff could not recover damages unless injury was due to physical contact.
This principle has been modified or repudiated over the years to permit a plaintiff to collect damages for neurological
or emotional disturbances that occurred without physical injury. This principle is known as:
1) Fright without physical contact.

2) Privity without contact.
3) Strict liability.
4) Tort.
The concept of "Fright without physical contact", as the words imply, allow for damages in cases where there was
emotional or similar damage and no physical injury was made.

Non-regulatory consequences of failure to adequately clean up chemical releases include all EXCEPT:
1) Decreased property values

2) Difficulties in selling the affected property
3) Reduced collateral value of the property in borrowing situations
4) Reduced charges to waste disposal budget
Answers 1, 2, and 3 are possible. Answer 4 is not - most likely, costs will increase. Chemical contamination can cause
a property to have a negative economic value because the costs of remediation exceed the market value of the
property, once remediated. There are legal/regulatory consequences as well.

Any of the following are major cause(s) of electrical shock EXCEPT:
1) Ungrounded frames or inadequate grounding of frames on noncurrent-carrying parts of electrical machinery and
tools
2) Inadequate protection of exposed current-carrying parts of electrical installations
3) Inadequate insulation of electrical conductors
4) GFCI
Listed are the three major causes of electrical shock as reported by OSHA in their student manual "Guide to Voluntary
Compliance". The National Electric Code (NEC) provides instructions for eliminating shock hazard from the
workplace.
GFCI stands for Ground Fault Circuit Interrupter and prevents electrical shocks.

What does a "Bird Cage" in a wire rope usually signify?
1) Repeated bending over sheaves

2) Jumping a sheave
3) Fatigue
4) Sudden release of tension and rebound
A "bird cage" signifies that the wire rope was subjected to a sudden release of tension. (per the "Accident Prevention
Manual")

The products produced when water is electrolyzed are which of the following?
1) H2O2
2) H2 and O 2
3) H+ and OH-
4) H2O2 and H+
A controlled electrical charge on a container of water will convert the water to hydrogen gas (H 2) and oxygen gas (O 2
).

Given a two-leg sling (each leg makes a 60º angle with respect to the load) supporting 20,000 lb, what is the tension
on the left sling leg?
1) 8,754 lb
2) 9,967 lb
3) 11,547 lb
4) 12,333 lb

Remember that you must divide the load by 2 because this is a two-leg sling. Your sketch should include a figure with
a triangle with 10,000 lb as the side opposite the 60 º angle. The hypotenuse leg (the tension in the sling leg itself) is
calculated using the sine trigonometric identity.
sine of angle = opposite leg length / hypotenuse leg length

10,000 lb / sin 60 º = 10,000 lb /0.8660 = 11,547 lb

Given that the volume of a gas at 45°C is 79.5 ml, what would the volume be at 0°C?
Use Charles' Law to determine new volume.
1) 6.83 ml
2) 68.3 ml
3) 78.3 ml
4) 88.5 ml
Charles' Law states that volume is proportional to absolute temperature i.e. V 2 = V1 * (T 2/T1 ). In this way, if the
temperature rises volume increases. If temperature decreases the volume will decrease. Using the data given in the
problem we get:
V2 = 79.5 ml * (273/318)
V2 = 68.3 ml

How much acetone would have to be evaporated into a room 15 ft * 12 ft * 10 ft to give a final concentration of 10
ppm at STP? (S.G. = 0.79, M.W. = 58)
1) 1.53 ml
2) 1.01 ml
3) 1.95 ml
4) 1.33 ml
15 ft * 12 ft * 10 ft = 1800 ft 3
1800 ft3/ 35.3 ft3 /M 3 = 51 M3
mg/M 3 = (ppm * MW)/24.45 = (10 * 58)/24.45 = 23.7mg/M 3
23.7 mg/M3 * 51 M 3 = 1208.7 mg or 1.21 g
1.21 g/0.79 g/ml = 1.53 ml

Which of the following is not a chemical asphyxiant?
1) Aniline
2) Sodium nitrite
3) Hydrogen cyanide
4) Argon
Argon is a simple asphyxiant. The other chemicals are all chemical asphyxiants.

Line employee accountability means all of the following EXCEPT:
1) Line employees are expected to determine the job safety requirements and implement them.
2) Line employees are expected to abide by safe work practices without constant supervision.
3) Line employees are expected to report unsafe work conditions when such conditions are detected.
4) Line employees are expected to report near misses and accidents when they occur.
Line employees have never been required to determine the job safety requirements. This is one of the roles of
supervisors.

Change analysis is:
1) A method for understanding how an incident occurred.

2) A method for understanding how a change in a system could cause problems later on.
3) A method of understanding how a management system change will affect the system.
4) All of the above
Change analysis is an excellent investigative tool for incident investigation as well as a proactive tool for performing
risk assessments when a system change is anticipated.

The analytical technique called 5-Whys is used to identify:
1) Root causes of incidents.

2) Human behavior characteristics.
3) Behavior-based safety rules.
4) Human errors.
5-Whys is a qualitative analytical technique to identify the root causes of an incident sequence. Once the causal
factors (discreet human errors and equipment malfunctions that led to the loss event) are known, a 5-Whys analysis
can be performed on each causal factor to determine "Why" the causal factor was allowed to exist.

Which of the following is NOT true concerning critical incident technique when evaluating human behavior?
1) Take a structured sample of employees.

2) Interview to collect accident information on near misses, difficulties in operations, and conditions that could have
resulted in death or property loss.
3) Incidents are classed into hazard categories and problem areas or behaviors are identified.
4) Periodically repeat the procedure as conditions or populations change.

Taking a RANDOM sample of employees is a critical incident technique when evaluating human behavior.

Which one of the following is NOT true concerning behavior sampling when evaluating human behavior?
1) Use a behavior or activity sampling sheet.

2) Do walk-around inspections and record the number and types of behavior observed.
3) Make the observations at the same time each day.
4) Calculate the percentage of times certain behaviors are observed.
Making observations at DIFFERENT times of the day, days of week, and shifts is true when using behavior sampling.

This technique utilizes a six-step process to analyze and control human errors. The process involves selecting an
event, identifying the tasks associated with the event, separating specific behaviors of each task and assigning basic
error rates. This is called a(n):
1) Behavioral assessment.
2) Job safety analysis (JSA).
3) Technique for human error rate prediction (THERP).
4) Operability study.
"Technique for human error rate prediction", (THERP) utilizes a six-step process to analyze and control human errors.

When you are interviewing a person associated with a recent high-consequence incident, what fundamental law of
human behavior must you consider at all times?
1) The person being interviewed will tell you what he or she views is in his or her best interests.
2) The person being interviewed can be subpoenaed to provide you any information you think he or she is hiding.
3) The person being interviewed will lie to you if you hit upon critical information.
4) The person being interviewed will only cooperate in the presence of an attorney or other representative.
Though the other items may be true from time to time, when conducting an incident investigation, remember that the
person being interviewed will likely describe things that he or she perceives is in his or her best interest to discuss.
This means that if the person being interviewed believes that the incident investigation is in his or her best interests,
the interviewer will likely obtain the information sought. If the person being interviewed believes that job reprisals,
legal action, or other adverse things will occur, the quality of the information obtained during an interview will likely
be degraded.

The analytical technique called 5-Whys is used to identify:
1) Root causes of incidents.

2) Human behavior characteristics.
3) Behavior-based safety rules.
4) Human errors.
5-Whys is a qualitative analytical technique to identify the root causes of an incident sequence. Once the causal
factors (discreet human errors and equipment malfunctions that led to the loss event) are known, a 5-Whys analysis
can be performed on each causal factor to determine "Why" the causal factor was allowed to exist.

Heinrich's Domino Theory of Accidents included:
1) Worker, perception, physical, social, injury.

2) The five B's.
3) Social, fault, unsafe act, accident, injury.
4) Men, machine, money, capital, accident .
Heinrich's Domino Theory involved social, fault, unsafe act, accident, injury.

Heinrich's ratio of no injury accidents to minor injuries to major injuries is which of the following?
1) 100-20-1
2) 200-30-10
3) 300-29-1
4) 600-58-1
Heinrich wrote that for every 300 no injury accidents, there are 29 minor and 1 major injury accidents.

It is possible to reduce incidents involving human error by:
1) Carefully screening job applicants.

2) Furnishing workers with personal protective equipment.
3) Providing training and education to workers and line supervisors.
4) Improving workplace conditions.
It is generally agreed the largest majority of incidents leading to an accident are attributed to unsafe acts rather than
unsafe conditions. Although general estimates of many of the mental and emotional states that cause accidents (like
indifference, resentment of authority, disregard of danger, undue haste, anger, impatience, boredom) are not reliable,
there is consensus that effective training and education will prevent many of the human errors (unsafe acts) that arise
from mental and emotional states.

WORKSITE AUDITING :Worksite Assessment - Hazard ID
A good approach to identifying and controlling hazards is best accomplished through a structured process. A
step-by-step approach might include:
1) Collect and analyze data, outline work processes, focus on hazard areas, assess the risk, develop controls for
unsafe conditions, prioritize implementation of controls.
2) Investigate accidents, identify causes, correct causes, evaluate repeat accidents to determine if corrections were
affective.
3) Implement an employee recommendation program, assess recommendations, address hazards, develop controls for
unsafe conditions, prioritize implementation of controls.
4) Identify hazards with employee surveys, assess survey results, prioritize corrective actions.
Hazard identification is a crucial aspect of injury prevention. Generally, the first step to identifying hazards is to
collect and analyze data. Data is typically collected from a number of sources and may include: injury records,
accident investigations, employees, and surveys. Work processes are outlined to provide a complete perspective of the
business activities. Hazard areas are focused on identifying risks. Potential for exposure and hazards are evaluated for
risk level by assessing the significance of potential outcomes and the probability of outcome. Each hazard needs to
have a method for eliminating or controlling the hazard identified. And finally, the hazards have to be prioritized for
implementing the identified methods of elimination or control.

A nondestructive testing company is hired to evaluate the welds of a pipe at the construction site that you are
managing. The company technician arrives on site and begins to set up for the evaluation. Work is being performed by
a number of other subcontractor personnel in the area of the pipe. Which of the following is most accurate?
1) Non-destructive testing is a specialized field. Subcontractors performing nondestructive testing should be qualified
and take responsibility for the safety of their operations. The site supervisor should not interfere with the
technician's operations.
2) Non-destructive testing is a specialized field. Non-destructive testing often incorporates the use of ionizing
radiation. The technician is responsible for ensuring that the testing is completed and can always be relied upon to
perform operations safely.
3) Non-destructive testing is a specialized field. While destructive testing presents significant physical hazards,
nondestructive testing is safe and allows for other work to progress.
4) Non-destructive testing is a specialized field. Subcontractors performing nondestructive testing should be qualified
and take responsibility for the safety of their operations. The site supervisor should coordinate with the technician
to understand the potential hazards and verify that proper safety measures are implemented.
Non-destructive testing is a very specialized field. Subcontractors performing nondestructive testing should be
qualified and take responsibility for the safety of their operations. The site supervisor should coordinate with the
technician to understand the potential hazards and verify that proper safety measures are implemented. The site
supervisor is responsible for verifying safety of all operations under their purview. Depending on the nondestructive
test method used, significant hazards to surrounding personnel could exist during the testing operations. The site
supervisor has a responsibility to verify that the technician is knowledgeable and performs the operations in a safe
manner.

Construction activities have the potential to cause sediment and erosion problems with stormwater. Construction
activities require the issuance of a stormwater permit if:
1) There is any potential for rain to transport sediment into nearby waterways.
2) An area equal to or greater than one acre of land is disturbed.
3) An area equal to or greater than five acres of land is disturbed.
4) An area equal to or greater than one acre of land is disturbed and there are "at risk" waters nearby.
Federal regulations require that a stormwater permit be obtained if an area of one acre or more is to be disturbed. If a
permit is required, a sediment and erosion control plan will have to be developed and specific protective actions,
inspections, maintenance and records will be required.

result of the previous construction operations and maintenance. One unique consideration is equipment containing
ozone depleting substances. When removing old equipment that may contain an ozone depleting substance you must:
1) Notify the regional office of the EPA to request a certified specialist for removal of the ozone depleting substance.
2) Use a certified worker who uses certified recycling and recovery equipment to remove any ozone depleting
substances.
3) Carefully remove the equipment without releasing the ozone depleting substance and send the equipment to a
landfill with the capability of removing the ozone depleting substance.
4) Release the ozone depleting substance slowly through a brazing torch to ensure that the ozone depleting substance
is destroyed when released.
Ozone depleting substances in equipment that will no longer be used must be removed by a certified worker using
certified recycling and recovery equipment.
Government Printing Office.64.

Asbestos containing material is classed into three categories: Friable, Category I non-friable, and Category II
non-friable. Which of the following statements is most correct?
1) Friable asbestos is always RACM while the two categories of non-friable asbestos are RACM only if handled in
certain ways.
2) Friable asbestos is always RACM and the two categories of non-friable asbestos are never RACM.
3) All categories of asbestos are RACM.
4) Friable asbestos is regulated while the two categories of non-friable asbestos are RACM.
RACM stands for "Regulated Asbestos Containing Material." Friable asbestos is always regulated. The two categories
of non-friable asbestos are only regulated if they are handled in a manner that will generate dust or cause them to
become friable such as sawing, grinding or abrading.

For a fire to occur, an ignition source is required. Which of the following consititute an ignition source?
I. Power tools
II. Radiant heat space heater
III. Arc welding
IV. Wood framing activities using hand tools only
V. Linseed oil soaked rags
1) I, II, III
2) I, II, III, IV
3) I, II, III, V
All five examples represent potential ignition sources. Any and all electrical equipment present a potential ignition
source thus I, II and III are potential sources. Wood framing activities without the use of power tools still present
ignition sources from the striking of nails with hammers, generating sparks. Linseed oil soaked rags can generate
enough heat to self ignite.

There are four classes of fires. Class C fires are:

Class C fires consist of fires in wiring, fuse boxes, energized electrical equipment, computers, and other electrical
sources.

MIG and TIG welding incorporate a gas in the welding process. The gas introduces what hazard to the work?
1) Fire
2) Toxicity
3) Explosion
4) Asphyxiation
Inert gases are used in MIG and TIG welding. Inert gases do not burn and are not toxic. When confined in an enclosed
space, inert gases displace oxygen and can create an asphyxiation hazard.

Hazard determination in welding is accomplished by evaluating the:
1) Welding method and materials to be welded along with the physical location.
2) Welding rod material and gases used along with the physical layout of the area.
3) Physical location, the methods of welding present similar hazards and so are not relevant.
4) Welder's physical capabilities, knowledge and experience with the particular metals involved.
The welding method to be used and the metals to be welded are key to identifying the potential hazards of a welding
operation. Different methods present different hazards. Additionally, the type of metals to be welded can create
greater hazards. The physical layout of the location is important to assessing ventilation, fire hazards, and risk to
non-welding personnel.

The potential difference between two points in an electrical circuit is measured in:
1) Amps
2) Hertz
3) Ohms
4) Volts
Volts are the measurement of the potential difference between two points in an electrical circuit.
Amps are the measure of the flow of electrons or current.
Ohms are the measure of resistance to the flow of electrons.
Hertz is the measure of frequency. With regard to electricity, United Sates alternating current (AC) cycles 60 times
per second.
Watts are a measure of power and power is equal to volts multiplies by current.

The unit of measure of electrical current is:
1) Amps
2) Ohms
3) Volts
4) Watts
per second.

A unit of measure of power is:
1) Amps
2) Ohms
3) Volts
4) Watts
per second.

The method commonly used for control of hazardous energy sources is referred to as:
1) LOTO
2) VETO
3) SAFE
4) BEWARE
Lock out/Tag out (LOTO) is the method commonly used for control of hazardous energy sources when work is being
performed.

A supported scaffold consisting of a platform(s) resting on bearers, the outside ends of which are supported on runners
secured to a single row of posts or uprights, and the inner ends of which are supported on or in a structure or building
wall is a:
1) Ladder jack scaffold.

2) Pole scaffold.
3) Fabricated frame scaffold.
4) Pump jack scaffold.
A pole scaffold is a supported scaffold consisting of a platform(s) resting on bearers, the outside ends of which are
supported on runners secured to a single row of posts or uprights, and the inner ends of which are supported on or in a
structure or building wall.

A rooftop supported scaffold consisting of a platform resting on angular-shaped supports is a:
1) Pole scaffold.
4) Roof bracket scaffold.
A roof bracket scaffold is a rooftop supported scaffold consisting of a platform resting on angular-shaped supports.

A supported or suspended scaffold consisting of a platform(s) supported by tubing, erected with coupling devices
connecting uprights, braces, bearers, and runners is a:
1) Tube and coupler scaffold.

2) Pole scaffold.
Tube and coupler scaffold: A supported or suspended scaffold consisting of a platform(s) supported by tubing,
erected with coupling devices connecting uprights, braces, bearers, and runners.

A supported scaffold consisting of a platform supported by vertical poles and movable support brackets is a:
1) Pole scaffold.
4) Pump jack scaffold.
A pump jack scaffold is a supported scaffold consisting of a platform supported by vertical poles and movable support
brackets.

A supported scaffold consisting of a platform resting on brackets attached to ladders is a:
1) Pole scaffold.
A ladder jack scaffold is a supported scaffold consisting of a platform resting on brackets attached to ladders.

A scaffold consisting of a platform(s) supported on fabricated end frames with integral posts, horizontal bearers, and
intermediate members is a:

2) Tube and coupler scaffold.
4) Pole scaffold.
A fabricated frame scaffold is a scaffold consisting of a platform(s) supported on fabricated end frames with integral
posts, horizontal bearers, and intermediate members.

Construction workers who will work with and on scaffolds must be trained. Retraining is required when:
I. Changes at the work site create conditions that change the hazards and risks
II. Changes take place in the scaffolding or fall protection equipment
III. Every 6 months
IV. When an employees actions indicate a need for refresher training
V. When an OSHA inspection occurs
1) I, II and IV
3) I, II, IV and V
Retraining is required when changes at the work site create conditions that the employee has not been previously
trained for, changes take place in the scaffolding or fall protection equipment that the employee has not been
previously trained for, or when an employees actions indicate a need for refresher training.

The trigger height for the fall protection standard in construction is:
1) 4 feet.
2) 5 feet.
3) 6 feet.
4) 10 feet.
The trigger height is 6 feet. Other sections of OSHA standards modify this for some specific work activities
Goetsch, D. L.(2003). Construction Safety and Health. Upper Saddle River, NJ: Prentice Hall. 272

Cranes require frequent and periodic inspections. Frequent inspections required for cranes include:
1) Daily pre-operational site and crane inspection, pre-start-up inspection and crane operation inspection.
2) Monthly certification inspection and daily pre-operational site and crane inspection, pre-start-up inspection and
crane operation inspection.
3) Annual, monthly and weekly certification inspections and daily pre-operational site and crane inspection,
pre-start-up inspection and crane operation inspection.
4) Monthly and annual certification inspections.
Frequent inspections to be conducted by a competent person involve all inspections related to the daily use of the
crane. Inspections should be accomplished for the site, the crane and the hoisting equipment prior to lifting operations.
Inspections should also be conducted during operations to ensure that only qualified people perform the operations
and the operations are performed properly.

A total system of support for freshly placed or partially cured concrete, including the mold or sheeting that is in
contact with the concrete as well as all supporting members including shores, hardware, braces, and related hardware
is a:
1) Bull float.
2) Formwork.
3) Lift Slab.
4) Precast Concrete.
Formwork is the total system of support for freshly placed or partially cured concrete, including the mold or sheeting
that is in contact with the concrete as well as all supporting members including shores, hardware, braces, and related
hardware.
(1998). OSHA Concrete and Masonry. OSHA Pub 3106 Concrete and Masonry Construction. Retrieved 03/21/06

Lifting vertically a slab (or group of slabs) from one location to another during a lift-slab construction operation is a:
1) Precast Operation.
2) Reshoring Operation.
3) Jacking Operation.
4) Bull Float Operation.
A jacking operation is the lifting vertically of a slab (or group of slabs) from one location to another -- for example,
from the casting location to a temporary (parked) location, or from a temporary location to another temporary location,
or to the final location in the structure -- during a lift-slab construction.

A method of concrete construction in which floor and roof slabs are cast on or at ground level and, using jacks, are
moved into position is a:
1) Shoring method.
2) Precast Method.
3) Bull float method.
4) Lift Slab Method.
Lift slab is a method of concrete construction in which floor and roof slabs are cast on or at ground level and, using
jacks, are moved into position.

Concrete members (such as walls, panels, slabs, columns, and beams) that have been formed, cast, and cured prior to
final placement in a structure are:
1) Reshored.
2) Precast Concrete.
3) Lift slabs.
4) Bull floated.
Precast concrete are concrete members (such as walls, panels, slabs, columns, and beams) that have been formed, cast,
and cured prior to final placement in a structure.

The construction operation in which shoring equipment is placed, as the original forms and shores are removed in
order to support partially cured concrete and construction loads is called:
1) Reshoring.
2) Precasting.
3) Early forming.
4) Bull floating.
Reshoring is the construction operation in which shoring equipment (also called reshores or reshoring equipment) is
placed, as the original forms and shores are removed in order to support partially cured concrete and construction
loads.

Crossed bridging that is bolted to a steel joist or joists is:
1) Anchored bridging.
2) Accomplished with a bridging clip.
3) Horizontal truss plane.
4) Bolted diagonal bridging.
Bolted diagonal bridging means diagonal bridging that is bolted to a steel joist or joists.

Steel joist bridging connected to a bridging terminus point is:
1) Bolted diagonal bridging.

2) Accomplished with a bridging clip.
3) Horizontal truss plane.
4) Anchored bridging.
Anchored bridging means that the steel joist bridging is connected to a bridging terminus point.

An entity that has the overall responsibility for the construction of the project-its planning, quality, and completion is
the:
1) Controlling contractor.
2) Project engineer.
3) Qualified person.
Controlling contractor means a prime contractor, general contractor, construction manager or any other legal entity
that has the overall responsibility for the construction of the project-it's planning, quality, and completion. The
controlling contractor has specific responsibilities under the steel erection standard.

The individual responsible for the design of structural steel framing and whose seal appears on the structural contract
documents is the:
2) Project Structural engineer.
Project structural engineer of record means the registered, licensed professional responsible for the design of structural
steel framing and whose seal appears on the structural contract documents.

Construction members pre-stressed before the application of the superimposed loads and having all cables or tendons
fully bonded to the concrete or grouted within ducts are Category:
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
There are four main categories of pre-stressed construction members. The category, or categories, should be
determined before attempting demolition, bearing in mind that any pre-stressed structure may contain elements of
more than one category.
Category 1. Members pre-stressed before the application of the superimposed loads and having all cables or tendons
fully bonded to the concrete or grouted within ducts.
Category 2. As Category 1, but having the tendons left ungrouted. This type of construction can sometimes be
recognized from the access points which may have been provided for inspection of the cables and anchors. More
recently, unbonded tendons have been used in the construction of beams, slabs, and other member; these tendons are
protected by grease and surrounded by plastic sheathing, instead of the usual metal duct.
Category 3. Members that are pre-stressed progressively as the building construction proceeds and the dead load
increases, using bonded tendons, as Category 1.
Category 4. As Category 3, but using unbonded tendons, as Category 2.
Examples of construction using members of Categories 3 or 4 are relatively rare up to this time. However, they may be
found, for example, in the podium of a tall building or some types of bridges. They require that particular care be
taken in demolition.
(1996). OSHA Demolition Outreach. OSHA Construction Safety and Health Outreach Progr . Retrieved 3/31/06

Members that are pre-stressed progressively as the building construction proceeds and the dead load increases, using
unbonded tendons; these tendons are protected by grease and surrounded by plastic sheathing, instead of the usual
metal duct is which Category?
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4
There are four main categories of pre-stressed construction members. The category, or categories, should be
determined before attempting demolition, bearing in mind that any pre-stressed structure may contain elements of
more than one category.
Category 1. Members pre-stressed before the application of the superimposed loads and having all cables or tendons
fully bonded to the concrete or grouted within ducts.
Category 2. As Category 1, but having the tendons left ungrouted. This type of construction can sometimes be
recognized from the access points which may have been provided for inspection of the cables and anchors. More
recently, unbonded tendons have been used in the construction of beams, slabs, and other member; these tendons are
protected by grease and surrounded by plastic sheathing, instead of the usual metal duct.
Category 3. Members that are pre-stressed progressively as the building construction proceeds and the dead load
increases, using bonded tendons, as Category 1.
Category 4. As Category 3, but using unbonded tendons, as Category 2.
Examples of construction using members of Categories 3 or 4 are relatively rare up to this time. However, they may be
found, for example, in the podium of a tall building or some types of bridges. They require that particular care be
taken in demolition.
(1996). OSHA Demolition Outreach. OSHA Construction Safety and Health Outreach Progr . Retrieved 3/31/06

The action taken to free equipment from any electric connection and/or electric charge is called:
1) De-energize.
2) Safe.
3) Guard.
4) Ground.
De-energize: To free from any electric connection and/or electric charge.
Guarding: Placement of live parts of electrical equipment where they cannot accidentally be contacted, such as in a
vault, behind a shield, or on a raised platform, to which only qualified persons have access.
Grounding: To prevent the buildup of hazardous voltages in a circuit by creating a low-resistance path to earth or
some other ground plane.

The blasting operation by which the rock formation is dislodged from its natural location is called:
1) Mud-capping.
2) Primary blasting.
3) Secondary blasting.
4) Stemming.
Primary Blasting: The blasting operation by which the original rock formation is dislodged from its natural location.
Secondary Blasting: The reduction of oversize material by the use of explosives to the dimension required for
handling, including mud-capping and block holing.

The reduction of oversize material by the use of explosives to the dimension required for handling is called:
1) Mud-capping.
2) Primary blasting.
3) Secondary blasting.
4) Stemming.
Secondary Blasting: The reduction of oversize material by the use of explosives to the dimension required for
handling, including mud-capping and block holing.
Primary Blasting: The blasting operation by which the original rock formation is dislodged from its natural location.

The amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of one pound of water from 60° F to 61° F at one
atmosphere pressure is a:
1) Boule.
2) BTU.
3) CANDU.
4) Watt.

British thermal unit (Btu): The amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of one pound of water from
60° F to 61° F at one atmosphere pressure.
CANDU: Canadian deuterium uranium reactor, moderated and (usually) cooled by heavy water.
Boule: A sausage-shaped synthetic single-crystal mass grown in a special furnace, pulled and turned at a rate
necessary to maintain the single-crystal structure during growth.
Watt (W): The unit of electric power, or amount of work (J), done in a unit of time. One ampere of current flowing at
a potential of one volt produces one watt of power.

The reciprocal of resistance. It is the ratio of current passing through a material to the potential difference at its ends.
This is called:
1) Conductance.
2) Conduction band.
3) Conductivity.
4) Concentricity.
Conductance: The reciprocal of resistance. It is the ratio of current passing through a material to the potential
difference at its ends.
Conduction band or Conduction level: Energy level at which electrons are not bound to (orbiting) a specific atomic
nucleus but are free to wander among the atoms. An energy band in which electrons can move freely in a solid,
producing a net transport of charge.
Conductivity: The ability of a material to conduct electric current. It is expressed in terms of the current per unit of
applied voltage. It is the reciprocal of resistivity.
Conductor: A wire or combination of wires not insulated from one another, suitable for carrying electric current.

The ability of a material to conduct electric current. It is expressed in terms of the current per unit of applied voltage.
This is called:
1) Conductance.
2) Conduction band.
3) Conductivity.
4) Concentricity.
Conductance: The reciprocal of resistance. It is the ratio of current passing through a material to the potential
difference at its ends.
Conduction band or Conduction level: Energy level at which electrons are not bound to (orbiting) a specific atomic
nucleus but are free to wander among the atoms. An energy band in which electrons can move freely in a solid,
producing a net transport of charge.
Conductivity: The ability of a material to conduct electric current. It is expressed in terms of the current per unit of
applied voltage. It is the reciprocal of resistivity.
Conductor: A wire or combination of wires not insulated from one another, suitable for carrying electric current.

The state of being whole, unbroken is called:
1) Shorted.
2) Complete.
3) Closed circuitry.
4) Continuity.
Continuity: The state of being whole, unbroken.

A wall separating buildings or subdividing a building to prevent the spread of fire and having a fire resistance rating
and structural stability is called a:
1) Area of refuge wall.

2) Fire barrier wall.
3) Fire stop.
4) Fire wall.
Fire Barrier Wall: A wall separating buildings or subdividing a building to prevent the spread of fire and having a
fire resistance rating and structural stability. The telltale criteria of a fire barrier wall that sets it apart from other fire
separation is the structural stability.

The amount of combustibles present in a given area, expressed in Btu/ft 2 (kJ/m2 ), is the:
1) Fire loading.
2) Combustible mass.
3) Fire hazard.
4) Fire point.
Fire loading: The amount of combustibles present in a given area, expressed in Btu/ft 2 (kJ/m2 ). Fire loading is
important in assessing risk and is a key design factor in fire protection systems like fire sprinklers.

The time, in minutes or hours, that materials and assemblies used as opening protection have withstood a fire exposure
in testing is called the:
1) Burn through time.
2) Listing.
3) Assembly rating.
4) Fire protection rating.
Fire protection rating: The time, in minutes or hours, that materials and assemblies used as opening protection have
withstood a fire exposure as established in accordance with test procedures of NFPA 252, Standard Methods of Fire
Tests of Door Assemblies, and NFPA 257, Standard on Fire Test for Window and Glass Block assemblies, as
applicable.

One billion watts is a:
1) Gigawatt.
2) Terrawatt.
3) Kilowatt.
4) Megawatt.
Gigawatt (GW): One billion watts. One million kilowatts. One thousand megawatts.

One millionth of a unit is a:
1) Milli.
2) Mega.
3) Micro.
4) Pico.

Micro: One millionth of a unit (e.g., microsievert is 10 -6 Sv).

The direct conversion of light into electricity is referred to as:
1) Solar powered.
2) Photovoltaic.
3) Photoconversion.
4) Solar conversion.
Photovoltaic: Pertaining to the direct conversion of light into electricity.

Circuit breakers are an over-current protection device that automatically shuts off the current in a circuit if an overload
occurs. Circuit breakers are provided in electrical circuits for the purpose of:
1) Preventing workers from overloading circuits by plugging in too many tools.

2) Protecting the circuit and building or equipment from excessive damage during an overload.
3) Protecting people from electrocution.
4) Protecting upstream devices from an overload condition.
The temperature of the wires can be high enough to cause a fire. If their insulation melts, arcing may occur. Arcing
can cause a fire in the area where the overload exists, even inside a wall. In order to prevent too much current in a
circuit, a circuit breaker or fuse is placed in the circuit. If there is too much current in the circuit, the breaker "trips"
and opens like a switch. If an overloaded circuit is equipped with a fuse, an internal part of the fuse melts, opening the
circuit. Both breakers and fuses do the same thing: open the circuit to shut off the electrical current.
Circuit breakers and fuses do not provided adequate protection to prevent electrocution. A properly maintained
grounding system or GFCI is required to prevent electrocution.
DHHS/NIOSH.

Collars, couplings, cams, clutches, flywheels, shaft ends, spindles, meshing gears, and horizontal or vertical shafting
are all examples of what type of hazard?
1) Impact hazard.
2) Nip point.
3) Rotating motion.
4) Shearing action.
Rotating motion can be dangerous; even smooth, slowly rotating shafts can grip hair and clothing, and through minor
contact force the hand and arm into a dangerous position. Injuries due to contact with rotating parts can be severe.
Collars, couplings, cams, clutches, flywheels, shaft ends, spindles, meshing gears, and horizontal or vertical shafting
are some examples of common rotating mechanisms which may be hazardous. The danger increases when projections
such as set screws, bolts, nicks, abrasions, and projecting keys or set screws are exposed on rotating parts.

A hazard created between rotating and tangentially moving parts is referred to as a:
1) Shearing.
2) Rotating motion.
3) Pinch point.
4) Nip point.
In-running nip point hazards are caused by the rotating parts on machinery. There are three main types of in-running
nips.
Parts can rotate in opposite directions while their axes are parallel to each other. These parts may be in contact
(producing a nip point) or in close proximity. In the latter case, stock fed between two rolls produces a nip point.
As seen here, this danger is common on machines with intermeshing gears, rolling mills, and calendars.
Nip points are also created between rotating and tangentially moving parts. Some examples would be: the point
of contact between a power transmission belt and its pulley, a chain and a sprocket, and a rack and pinion.
Nip points can occur between rotating and fixed parts which create a shearing, crushing, or abrading action.
Examples are: spoked handwheels or flywheels, screw conveyors, or the periphery of an abrasive wheel and an
incorrectly adjusted work rest and tongue.

When power is applied to a slide (ram) for the purpose of blanking, drawing, or stamping metal or other materials the
action is referred to as:
1) Impact action.
2) Pushing action.
3) Punching action.
4) Cutting action.
Punching action results when power is applied to a slide (ram) for the purpose of blanking, drawing, or stamping metal
or other materials. The danger of this type of action occurs at the point of operation where stock is inserted, held, and
withdrawn by hand. Typical machines used for punching operations are power presses and iron workers.

When applying power to a slide in order to trim or shear metal or other materials, the action is referred to as:
1) Shearing action.
2) Impact cutting.
3) Knife action.
4) Cutting action.

Shearing action involves applying power to a slide or knife in order to trim or shear metal or other materials. A hazard
occurs at the point of operation where stock is actually inserted, held, and withdrawn. Examples of machines used for
shearing operations are mechanically, hydraulically, or pneumatically powered shears.

Machine safeguarding can be very challenging. There are six basic requirements of safeguards. Which of the
following are requirements of safeguards?
I. Safeguards shall be colored yellow or red.

II. Safeguards shall prevent contact with dangerous parts.
III. Safeguards shall create no interference with accomplishing the task.
IV. Safeguards shall be secure to prevent removal or defeating by workers.
V. Allow safe lubrication of moving parts.
1) II and IV
2) I, II, IV, and V
3) II, III, IV, and V
4) I, II, III, IV, and V
Safeguards must meet these minimum general requirements:
Prevent contact: The safeguard must prevent hands, arms, and any other part of a worker's body from making contact
with dangerous moving parts. A good safeguarding system eliminates the possibility of of the operator or another
worker placing parts of their bodies near hazardous moving parts.
Secure: Workers should not be able to easily remove or tamper with the safeguard, because a safeguard that can easily
be made ineffective is no safeguard at all. Guards and safety devices should be made of durable material that will
withstand the conditions of normal use. They must firmly be secured to the machine.
Protect from falling objects: The safeguard should ensure that no objects can fall into moving parts. A small tool
which is dropped into a cycling machine could easily become a projectile that could strike and injure someone.
Create no new hazards: A safeguard defeats its own purpose if it creates a hazard of its own such as a shear point, a
jagged edge, or an unfinished surface which can cause a laceration. The edges of guards. for instance, should be rolled
or bolted in such a way that they eliminate sharp edges.
Create no interference: Any safeguard which impedes a worker from performing the job quickly and comfortably
might soon be overridden or disregarded. Proper safeguarding can actually enhance efficiency as it can relieve the
worker's apprehensions about injury.
Allow safe lubrication: If possible, one should be able to lubricate the machine without removing the safeguards.
Locating oil reservoirs outside the guard, with a line leading to the lubrication point, will reduce the need for the
operator or maintenance worker to enter the hazardous area.

The physical activity of fire suppression, rescue or both, inside of buildings or enclosed structures which are involved
in a fire situation beyond the incipient stage is called:
1) Fire brigade operations.

2) Post incipient firefighting.
3) Incipient fire response.
4) Interior structural firefighting.
Interior Structural Firefighting: The physical activity of fire suppression, rescue or both, inside of buildings or
enclosed structures which are involved in a fire situation beyond the incipient stage. (See 29 CFR 1910.155) OSHA
Definition

You are using a multi-gas meter to monitor a confined space prior to entry by your work crew. The meter is properly
calibrated and operational. The current readings indicate 19.5% oxygen, 7% LEL and 0.0% hydrogen sulfide. Based
on the readings you conclude the following:
1) The oxygen level and hydrogen levels are safe for entry.
2) Explosive or flammable gases are present above safe levels.
3) Oxygen, flammable gases and hydrogen sulfide are all within safe levels.
4) The oxygen level is safety for entry.
Many flammable gas detectors employ a classic "Wheatstone Bridge" which heats the sampled air to identify the
percent lower explosive limit. The method relies on the oxygen concentration in the sampled air and has been
calibrated based on standard atmospheric concentration of 20.9%. Flammability readings are not considered accurate
when oxygen is not at standard atmospheric concentrations.

High noise can cause temporary and permanent hearing loss. Hearing protection is used to protect against exposure to
high noise. The degree of sound protection provided by a specific hearing protection product is called:
1) Hertz.
2) Attenuation.
3) Audiometric level.
4) Hearing threshold level.
Attenuation is the estimated degree of protection provided by a specific hearing protection product. Attenuation is
typically shown in units of decibels.

Which of the following most accurately completes this statement? Hard hats should be worn by workers _____.
1) Only when a worker is working below other workers.

2) Only when there is the possibility of materials falling from a work surface more than 6 feet above a worker.
3) Only when there is a hazard of impact to a worker's head.
4) Only when an employee is concerned about head hazards.
Hardhats should be worn when ever there is a potential for an impact to a workers head, whether the hazard results
from falling objects, projectiles or `bump' hazards.

When selecting a hard hat, it is important to assure that the hard hat is designed to meet the requirements of the work
environment. One way to know that a hard hat has been designed and manufactured to provide the protection that it is
required to provide is by:
1) The label indicating that it is approved by OSHA.

2) The clear indication of the `listing' of the product as meeting ANSI Z89.1.
3) The clear indication of approval by NIOSH to meet NIOSH 331-59.
4) The clear indication that the hard hat has been verified by OSHA to meeting the requirements of 29 CFR 1926.100.
OSHA does not approve or verify products. NIOSH does not test or certify hard hats. Hard hats are requirements of
the American National Standards Institute (ANSI) Z89.1. Manufacturers of hard hats submit their products to
independent testing laboratories to be tested against the ANSI standard and receive a `listing.' The product can then be
imprinted or labeled as such.

An employee is assigned the responsibility of using a powered hand grinder to smooth burs at welds along a handrail.
The worker is required to wear the following PPE:
1) A welding helmet.
2) A safety belt.
3) Flash protection.
4) Safety glasses.
Safety glasses or spectacles are appropriate PPE for basic light grinding operations. They provide protection from
flying particles. Goggles or a face shield would also provide equal or better protection. (29 CFR 1926.102(a)(5))

A worker is assigned to mix a 2-part epoxy for use in a specialized laboratory flooring application. The worker should
wear which of the following PPE?
1) Goggles, gloves impervious to the epoxy components and mixture and potentially a respirator.
2) Goggles over safety glasses, cotton gloves, safety belt and respirator.
3) Safety glasses, liquid tight gloves and potentially a respirator.
4) A face shield, gloves impervious to the epoxy resin mixture and potentially a respirator.
The proper PPE would consist of goggles or a face shield or both; gloves that are impervious to the 2 component parts
of the epoxy along with the mixture of the two components; and a respirator might be required depending on the
conditions at the work site.
29 CFR 1926.95
29 CFR 1926.102
29 CFR 1926.103

Respirators are a critical component of a personal protective equipment program. Respirators are used to protect
workers from hazards in the air they breathe. Which of the following is most accurate?
1) Air supply respirators are the simplest of all respirators to use and maintain.
2) Air filtering respirators are appropriate for removing contaminants from the air.
3) Air filtering respirators are appropriate for use in confined spaces containing Hydrogen Sulfide and 17% oxygen.
4) Air supply respirators can filer out IDLH level contaminants.
Air filtering respirators remove contaminants from the air. When using air filtering respirators, the air must have
adequate oxygen, defined as greater that 19.5%. Air supply respirators provide a supply of "clean" air; they do not
filter out contaminants.

Which of the following would be an appropriate extinguisher to use on a fire involving the trash wood pile at the
worksite?
2) A fire extinguisher labeled B and C.
The burning wood pile constitutes a Class A fire and requires an extinguisher labeled "A", "A&B" or "A, B and C"
should be used.

Workers on scaffolding that is not provided with guardrails are required to use fall arrest systems when:
1) They are exposed to a fall of more than 10 feet to the next lower level.
4) The platform is narrower than 4 feet and there is a potential for a fall greater than 6 feet.
Workers on scaffolds with unguarded sides are required to use fall arrest systems when they are exposed to falls
greater than 10 feet to the next lower level.

The point of attachment for lifelines, lanyards and decelerations devices is the:
1) Connector.
2) Anchorage.
3) Positioning device.
4) Eyelet.

The anchorage is the point of attachment for lifelines, lanyards and decelerations.

A fall arrest system consists of:
1) A body belt or body harness and lifeline.

2) An anchorage, connectors, and body harness and may include a deceleration device, lifeline, or suitable
combinations.
3) An anchorage, connectors, and a body belt or body harness and may include a deceleration device, lifeline, or
suitable combinations.
4) A minimum of a body belt, a lifeline, and an anchorage along with required connectors.
Since 1998, body belts are no longer an acceptable option as a portion of a fall arrest system. A fall arrest system
requires an anchorage, connectors, and body harness and may include a deceleration device, lifeline, or suitable
combinations.
Construction.

Fall arrest system components must be capable of withstanding the potential loads and shocks that they may be
subjected to. Lanyards, anchorages, Dee-rings and snap hooks must be rated for a:
1) 3,000 pound load for each worker attached to the device, except that anchorages must be rated to 10,000 pounds.
2) Anchorages must support 5,000 pound load per worker attached, while lanyards and Dee-rings are required to have
a tensile strength of 5,000 pounds per worker attached.
3) 300 pound load for each worker attached to the device (in all systems, the assumed weight of a worker and
personal tools is 300 pounds).
4) 300 pound working load for the lanyards and 5,000 pound for the anchorage. Connectors must meet a 2,500 pound
working load rating.
Lanyards, Dee-rings and snap hooks are required to have a 5,000 pound tensile strength. Anchorages are required to
be capable of supporting 5,000 pounds for each worker that is attached.
Construction.

A system including but not limited to an anchorage, connectors, and body harness used to prevent an employee in a
fall to a level below a working level is a:
1) Fall arrest system.

4) Positioning device system.
Fall arrest system is a system including but not limited to an anchorage, connectors, and body harness used to prevent
an employee in a fall to a level below a working level.
Construction.

A body belt or body harness system rigged to allow an employee to be supported on an elevated vertical surface, such
as a wall, and work with both hands free while leaning backwards is a:
1) Fall arrest system.

Positioning device system is a body belt or body harness system rigged to allow an employee to be supported on an
elevated vertical surface, such as a wall, and work with both hands free while leaning backwards.
Construction.

A deceleration device containing a drum-wound line which can be slowly extracted from, or retracted onto, the drum
under minimal tension during normal employee movement and which, after onset of a fall, automatically locks the
drum and arrests the fall is a:
1) Rope Grab.
2) Self retracting life line.
Self retracting life line is a deceleration device containing a drum-wound line which can be slowly extracted from, or
retracted onto, the drum under minimal tension during normal employee movement and which, after onset of a fall,
automatically locks the drum and arrests the fall.
29 CFR 1926.500 - Deceleration device means any mechanism, such as a rope grab, rip-stitch lanyard,
specially-woven lanyard, tearing or deforming lanyards, automatic self-retracting lifelines/lanyards, etc., which serves
to dissipate a substantial amount of energy during a fall arrest, or otherwise limit the energy imposed on an employee
during fall arrest.
Construction.

Construction workers in marine operations must be provided with:

I. Life jackets when operating in unguarded decks
II. A life ring with rope
III. Training in self-rescue swimming
IV. A method of exiting the water onto barges
V. Water activated emergency signal
1) I and II
2) I, II and III
3) I, II and IV
4) I, II, III and V
Construction workers in marine operations must be provided with life jackets when operating in unguarded decks, a
life ring with rope, and a method of exiting the water onto barges.

Cracks that usually form at a horizontal distance of 0.5 to 0.75 times the depth of the trench, measured from the top of
the vertical face of the trench are called:
1) Boiling cracks.
2) Sliding cracks.
3) Sloughing cracks.
4) Tension cracks.
TENSION CRACKS . Tension cracks usually form at a horizontal distance of 0.5 to 0.75 times the depth of the
trench, measured from the top of the vertical face of the trench. See the accompanying drawing for additional details.

A device that has electromagnetic compatibility may also be referred to as having:
1) Mag field compatibility.

2) ECom.
3) Emc.
4) Transformer rating.
Emc is the acronym for electromagnetic compatibility. An Emc device is a device with the ability to function without
error in its intended electromagnetic environment.

Emi is a common in today's work environment. Emi is:
1) Electric Management Instrument.

2) Exit Manual Instruction.
3) Entry Matrix Inspection.
4) Electromagnetic Interference.
Emi : Electromagnetic interference. Electromagnetic emissions from a device that interfere with the normal operation
of another device or system are creating Emi.

Protective equipment generally used to protect the wearer's face, or portions thereof, in addition to the eyes, from a
variety of hazards is a:
1) Face shield.
2) Helmet.
3) Goggle.
4) Spectacle.
Face shield : protective equipment generally used to protect the wearer's face, or portions thereof, in addition to the
eyes, from a variety of hazards. Face shields are secondary protectors and must be worn only with primary protective
devices.
(2006). OSHA Eye and Face Protection eTool. OSHA Eye and Face Protection eTool. Retrieved 4/16/06

Protective equipment that fits the face directly surrounding the eyes in order to protect the eyes from a variety of
hazards, can be used as a primary protector, or in combination with other eye and face protection. The equipment is
called:
1) Filter spectacles.
2) Glasses.
3) Face Shield.
4) Goggles.
Goggle: Goggles fit the face directly surrounding the eyes in order to protect the eyes from a variety of hazards. They
can be used as a primary protector, or in combination with other eye and face protection.

A shielding device using special absorptive lenses that filter the intense light and radiant energy that is produced
during welding operations that does not include head gear is a:
1) Welding face shield.
2) Welding helmet.
3) Hand shield.
4) Barrier shield.
Hand shield : A hand-held welding helmet.

The part of the protective equipment, such as a protective helmet, hood or face shield that supports the device on the
user's head is the:
1) Adjustment band.
2) Headgear.
3) Hat.
4) Head band.
Headgear: The part of the protective equipment, such as a protective helmet, hood or face shield that supports the
device on the user's head.

Protective equipment that covers the head, neck, and portions of the shoulders is called:
1) A torso cover.
2) Enclosed helmet.
3) Headgear.
4) A hood.

Hood: Protective equipment that covers the head, neck, and portions of the shoulders.

A lens that does not include a corrective prescription, afocal lens, is a:
1) Plano lens.
2) Non-prescriptive lens.
3) Flat lens.
4) Clean lens.
Plano lens: A lens that does not include a corrective prescription, afocal.
Impact-resistant lens: A lens designed and tested to resist breakage when impacted by an object.
Non-removable lens: A lens that is permanently attached to a frame.
Prescriptive lens: A lens made for an individuals specific vision correction.
Special purpose lens : A lens that is designed for visual tasks which require unusual filtering of light.

A lens that may be raised from its usual down position as needed is a:
1) Adjustable lens.
2) Lift-front lens.
3) Preference lens.
4) Raised lens.
Lift-front: A lens that may be raised from its usual down position as needed.

A logarithmic expression for the attenuation produced by an attenuating medium, such as an eye protection filter is
called:
1) Precision sunglasses.
2) A special purpose lens.
3) The optical density.
4) The filter level.
Optical density : A logarithmic expression for the attenuation produced by an attenuating medium, such as an eye
protection filter.

Ultraviolet, visible, and infrared radiation (0.35-1.4 µm) that falls in the region of transmittance of the human eye is
called:
1) Optical radiation.
2) Light spectrum.
3) Wave length critical.
4) Eye damaging.
Optical radiation : Ultraviolet, visible, and infrared radiation (0.35-1.4 µm) that falls in the region of transmittance of
the human eye.

A lens designed to darken when exposed to sunlight and fade when removed from the sunlight is called a:
1) Light actuated welding shield.

2) Combination lens.
3) Sun glasses lens.
4) Photochromic lens.
Photochromic lens: A lens designed to darken when exposed to sunlight and fade when removed from the sunlight.

A personal protective device such as spectacles or goggles that may be worn alone or in combination with another
protector is a:
1) Primary protector.
2) Line protector.
3) Base protector.
4) Secondary protector.
Primary protector: Personal protective device such as spectacles or goggles that may be worn alone or in
combination with a secondary protector.

Personal protective equipment that can only be worn in combination with another protector is a:
1) Alternative protector.
2) Combination protector.
3) Supplemental protector.
4) Secondary protector.
Secondary protector: Personal protective equipment that can only be worn in combination with a primary protector.

Appropriately selected eye protection can be useful for which types of hazards?
I. Impact
II. Heat
III. Chemicals
IV. Dust
V. Optical radiation
1) I, II and III
3) I, II, III and V
Personal protective equipment (PPE) for the eyes and face is designed to prevent or lessen the severity of injuries to
workers. The employer must assess the workplace and determine if hazards that necessitate the use of eye and face
protection are present or are likely to be present before assigning PPE to workers. Hazards that can be protected
against with proper eye protection include: Impact, Heat, Chemicals, Dust, Optical radiation.

Common tasks such as chipping, grinding, machining, masonry work, wood working, sawing, drilling, chiseling,
powered fastening, riveting, and sanding present an eye hazard of:
1) Impact.
2) Particle.
3) Heat.
4) Optical radiation.
The identified tasks have the potential to create flying particles that present an impact hazard.

The tasks of furnace operations, pouring, casting, hot dipping, and welding all have what eye hazard in common?
1) Impact
2) Dust
3) Heat
4) Optical radiation
The tasks all have heat hazard in common. Some of the tasks have multiple potential eye hazards.

Degreasing, plating, and working with blood would be considered to involve what common eye hazard?
1) Impact
2) Mist
3) Biohazard
4) Chemical
The three tasks are considered to fall into the chemical hazard.

Woodworking and buffing have what common eye hazard?
1) Heat
2) Dust
3) Chemical
Woodworking and buffing both have a common hazard of dust which is generated by the activities.

Welding, torch-cutting, brazing, soldering, and laser work all have the potential to present which eye hazard?
1) UV radiation
2) Invisible spectrum light hazard
4) Chemical radiation
Welding, torch-cutting, brazing, soldering, and laser work all present an optical radiation hazard.

The majority of impact injuries result from flying or falling objects, or sparks striking the eye. Most of these objects
are smaller than a pin head and can cause serious injury such as punctures, abrasions, and contusions. The best
protection from impact injuries are provided by:
1) Hand shields, goggles and face shields.

2) Spectacles, goggles and face shields.
3) Spectacles, goggles, welding helmets and hand shields.
4) Filter spectacles, goggles and face shields.
While working in a hazardous area where the worker is exposed to flying objects, fragments, and particles, primary
protective devices such as safety spectacles with side shields or goggles must be worn. Secondary protective devices
such as face shields are required in conjunction with primary protective devices during severe exposure to impact
hazards.

Safety spectacles are intended to shield the wearer's eyes from impact hazards such as flying fragments, objects, large
chips, and particles. Safety spectacles used for impact hazards:
1) Must have side shields.

2) Do not require side shields if there is no chemical hazard.
3) Must be worn at all times at the work site.
4) Can be replaced by a worker's prescription glasses as long as the prescription lenses are polycarbonate plastic.
Safety spectacles are intended to shield the wearer's eyes from impact hazards such as flying fragments, objects, large
chips, and particles. Workers are required to use eye safety spectacles with side shields when there is a hazard from
flying objects. Non-side shield spectacles are not acceptable eye protection for impact hazards.
29 CFR 1910.133(a)(2)
29 CFR 1915.153 (a)(2)
The frames of safety spectacles are constructed of metal and/or plastic and can be fitted with either corrective or plano
impact-resistant lenses. Side shields may be incorporated into the frames of safety spectacles when needed. Consider
each component of safety spectacles when selecting the appropriate device for your workplace.

The lenses of safety spectacles are designed to resist moderate impact from flying objects and particles. Plano lenses:
I. Should be used by workers who do not require vision correction.

II. May be flat or curved.
III. Are plate glass of polycarbonate.
IV. Are available in clear, filtered, or tinted lenses.
V. May include removable lenses.
1) I, II, III, and V

2) I, II, IV and V
3) I, III, IV and V
The lenses of safety spectacles are designed to resist moderate impact from flying objects and particles.
Plano lenses :
Should be used by workers who do not require vision correction

May be flat or curved
Are available in clear, filtered, or tinted lenses
May include removable lenses
Prescription (Rx) lenses:
Should be used by workers who require vision correction

May be clear, filtered, or tinted
May include removable lenses

Safety spectacle frames come in three basic types. They are:
1) Head piece, nose piece and wrap around.

2) Lens, temple and nose piece.
3) Spatula temples, cable temples and headband temples.
4) Open, closed and side shield.

The safety spectacle frames must fit comfortably and correctly to offer the necessary protection.
Spatula temples:
Fit over the ear

Can be either fixed or adjustable
Are available in metal or plastic
Cable temples :
Fit around the ear

Can be either fixed or adjustable
Are available in metal or plastic
Headband temples:
Are easily adjustable for a secure fit

Are useful for tasks requiring movement

Side shields are required for impact protection safety spectacles. Side shields come in two basic designs:
1) Flat and full.

2) Open and closed.
3) Folding and fixed.
4) Clear and opaque.
Side shields provide angular protection from impact hazards in addition to frontal protection.
Flatfold or semi side shields :
May be part of or attached to the temple

Are permanent or removable
Are solid or ventilated
Are tinted or clear
Full (cup) side shields:
May be removable
May be wire screen
May be tinted or clear

When selecting the type of goggles, you should consider:
1) Ambient temperature and precipitation.

2) Specific lens, frame, and ventilation options.
3) Individual employee preferences.
4) Specific lens, frame and tinting.
Safety goggles may incorporate prescription lenses mounted behind protective lenses for individuals requiring vision
correction. Take time to consider specific lens, frame, and ventilation options when selecting safety goggles.

Goggles that prevent direct passage of large particles and maximize the prevention of fogging are:
1) Screen-vented goggles.
2) Indirect-ventilated goggles.
3) Non-ventilated goggles.
4) Direct-ventilated goggles.
Ventilated goggles allow air circulation while providing protection against airborne particles, dust, liquids, or light.
Direct-ventilated goggles:
Resist direct passage of large particles into the goggle

Prevent fogging by allowing air circulation
Indirect-ventilated goggles:

Protect against liquid or chemical splash entry
Non-ventilated goggles:
Do not allow the passage of air into the goggle

Prevent splash entry
May fog and require frequent lens cleaning

Goggles that protect against liquid splash and prevent fogging are:




Goggles that prevent liquid splash entry are:




Face shields are what type of protective equipment?
1) Full coverage
2) Secondary
3) Window
4) Headgear
Face shields are secondary protective equipment. When worn alone, face shields do not protect employees from impact
hazards. Use face shields in combination with safety spectacles or goggles, even in the absence of dust or potential
splashes, for additional protection beyond that offered by spectacles or goggles alone.

Most face shields are composed of what parts?
1) Window and headgear

2) Lenses, window and headband
3) Headband, window and headgear
4) Face piece, lens, band and gear
Face shield windows are made with different transparent materials and in varying degrees or levels of thickness. These
levels should correspond with specific tasks. Window and headgear devices are available in various combinations to
enable the worker to select the appropriate equipment.

Face shields provide full face protection. They can provide protection from impact, heat and chemical hazards. A
common face shield is constructed of screen. For what job task would a screen face shield be appropriate?
1) Painting
2) Plating
3) Lawn mowing
4) Laser operations
Wire-screen windows:
Protect against some moderate impact

May include a plastic/glass insert
Are not recommended for use involving chemical or liquid hazards

Heat hazards present considerable risk to the eyes. Employees conducting pouring, casting, and hot dipping should be
provided with:
1) Vented goggles.
2) Full-face face shields designed for heat hazards.
3) Eye protection designed for heat hazards.
4) Primary and secondary eye and face protection.
Working with heat hazards requires eye protection such as goggles or safety spectacles with special-purpose lenses
and side shields. However, many heat hazard exposures require the use of a face shield in addition to safety spectacles
or goggles. When selecting PPE, consider the source and intensity of the heat and the type of splashes that may occur
in the workplace.

Protective lenses for radiant energy are selected based on their:
1) Diopter.
2) Glare reduction factor.
3) Shade number.
4) Optical density.
29 CFR 1926.102 (b)(1) Selection of shade numbers for welding filter. Table E-2 shall be used as a guide for the
selection of the proper shade numbers of filter lenses or plates used in welding. Shades more dense than those listed
may be used to suit the individual's needs.

Selection of protective lenses for laser operations is accomplished based on the:
1) Wave length specific shade number.

2) Wave length specific O.D.
3) Wave length specific S.N.
4) Shade number.
29 CFR 1926.102 (b)(1) Laser protection.
29 CFR 1926.102 (b)(2)(i) Employees whose occupation or assignment requires exposure to laser beams shall be
furnished suitable laser safety goggles which will protect for the specific wavelength of the laser and be of optical
density (O.D.) adequate for the energy involved. Table E-3 lists the maximum power or energy density for which
adequate protection is afforded by glasses of optical densities from 5 through 8.

Protective eye equipment adequate for protection from eye exposure to chemical splash hazards includes:
1) Goggles, unless the worker requires prescription lenses.

2) Goggles or spectacles with full cup side shields.
3) Goggles, spectacles or face shields.
4) Goggles.
When fitted and worn correctly, goggles protect your eyes from hazardous substances. A face shield may be required
as a secondary protective device in areas where workers are exposed to severe chemical hazards.

When selecting eye protection equipment it is important to:

1) Make sure that workers have the proper level of protection and that they wear the protective equipment regardless
of fit and comfort.
2) Fit workers with proper sized protective equipment.
3) Fit workers with proper sized protective equipment that provides the level of protection required and is
comfortable.
4) Ensure workers understand that they may loose their job if they do not wear their safety glasses.
29 CFR 1926.102 (a)(6)(ii) They shall be reasonably comfortable when worn under the designated conditions.
If personal protective equipment is not reasonably comfortable, workers will be less likely to wear it.

Workers performing woodworking and buffing operations should be issued:
1) Goggles or safety spectacles with full cup side shields.

2) Goggles or safety spectacles with face shields.
3) Safety spectacles or goggles.
4) Goggles.
Either eyecup or cover-type safety goggles should be worn when dust is present. Safety goggles are the only effective
type of eye protection from nuisance dust because they create a protective seal around the eyes.

A respirator with filter, cartridge, or canister element that removes specific air contaminants by passing ambient air
through the element to make it safe to breath is called a:
(OSHA Definition)
1) Filter respirator.
2) Air-purifying respirator.
3) Air-safe element respirator.
4) Negative pressure respirator.
Air-Purifying Respirator: A respirator with an air-purifying filter, cartridge, or canister that removes specific air
contaminants by passing ambient air through the air-purifying element. OSHA Definition

A respirator that supplies the respirator user with breathing air from a source independent of the ambient atmosphere,
and includes SARs and SCBA is a:
(OSHA Definition)
1) Atmosphere-supplying respirator.
2) Air-purifying respirator.
3) Cartridge respirator.
4) Tank respirator.
Atmosphere-Supplying Respirator: A respirator that supplies the respirator user with breathing air from a source
independent of the ambient atmosphere, and includes supplied-air respirators (SARs) and self-contained breathing
apparatus (SCBA) units. OSHA Definition

The penetration of challenge material(s) through a gas or a vapor air-purifying element is called:
1) Penetration time.
2) Challenge time.
3) Breakthrough.
4) Hazard limit.
Breakthrough: The penetration of challenge material(s) through a gas or a vapor air-purifying element. The quantity
or extent of breakthrough during service life testing is often referred to as the percentage of the input concentration.
NIOSH Definition

An atmosphere-supplying respirator that admits breathing air to the facepiece only when a negative pressure is created
inside the facepiece by inhalation is called a:
1) Inhalation actuated respirator.

2) Demand respirator.
3) Positive pressure demand type respirator.
4) Negative pressure atmosphere purifying respirator.
Demand Respirator: An atmosphere-supplying respirator that admits breathing air to the facepiece only when a
negative pressure is created inside the facepiece by inhalation. OSHA Definition

A situation that requires the use of respirators due to the unplanned generation of a hazardous atmosphere caused by
an accident, mechanical failure, or other means and that requires evacuation of personnel or immediate entry for
rescue or corrective action is an:
1) Emergency respirator use situation.

2) Evacuation emergency.
3) Employee exposure emergency.
4) Emergency IDLH atmosphere situation.
Emergency Respirator Use Situation : A situation that requires the use of respirators due to the unplanned generation
of a hazardous atmosphere (often of unknown composition) caused by an accident, mechanical failure, or other means
and that requires evacuation of personnel or immediate entry for rescue or corrective action. NIOSH Definition
Emergency Situation: Any occurrence such as, but not limited to, equipment failure, rupture of containers, or failure
of control equipment that may or does result in an uncontrolled significant release of an airborne contaminant. OSHA
Definition
Employee Exposure: Exposure to a concentration of an airborne contaminant that would occur if the employee were
not using respiratory protection. OSHA Definition

A particulate respirator with a filter as an integral part of the facepiece or with the entire facepiece composed of the
filtering medium is a:
1) Half-face mask.
2) Filtering facepiece.
3) Single piece face mask.
4) Escape only respirator.
Filtering Facepiece : A particulate respirator with a filter as an integral part of the facepiece or with the entire
facepiece composed of the filtering medium. NIOSH Definition
Filtering Facepiece (Dust Mask ): A negative pressure particulate respirator with a filter as an integral part of the
facepiece or with the entire facepiece composed of the filtering medium. OSHA Definition
Escape Only Respirator: Respiratory devices that are designed for use only during escape from hazardous
atmospheres. NIOSH Definition
Escape-Only Respirator: A respirator intended to be used only for emergency exit. OSHA Definition

A quantitative estimate of the fit of a particular respirator to a specific individual is a:

1) Fit factor.
2) Fit test.
3) Respirator seal factor.
4) Mask seal.
Fit Factor: A quantitative estimate of the fit of a particular respirator to a specific individual, and typically estimates
the ratio of the concentration of a substance in ambient air to its concentration inside the respirator when worn.
OSHA Definition
Fit Factor: A quantitative measure of the fit of a specific respirator facepiece to a particular individual. NIOSH
Definition
Fit Test: Means the use of a protocol to qualitatively or quantitatively evaluate the fit of a respirator on an individual.
OSHA Definition

The use of a protocol to qualitatively or quantitatively evaluate the fit of a respirator on an individual is called a:
1) Fit factor.
2) Fit test.
3) Mask seal.
4) Respirator seal factor.
OSHA Definition
Fit Factor: A quantitative estimate of the fit of a particular respirator to a specific individual, and typically estimates
the ratio of the concentration of a substance in ambient air to its concentration inside the respirator when worn.
OSHA Definition
Fit Factor: A quantitative measure of the fit of a specific respirator facepiece to a particular individual. NIOSH
Definition

A filter that is at least 99.97% efficient in removing monodisperse particles of 0.3 micrometers in diameter is a:
1) P99.
2) QLFT.
3) HEPA.
4) 0.3 Micron.
High-Efficiency Particulate Air (HEPA) Filter : A filter that is at least 99.97% efficient in removing monodisperse
particles of 0.3 micrometers in diameter. The equivalent NIOSH 42 CFR 84 particulate filters are the N100, R100, and
P100 filters. OSHA Definition

A respirator in which the pressure inside the respiratory inlet covering exceeds the ambient air pressure outside the
respirator is a:
1) Tight fitting respirator.

2) Positive pressure respirator.
3) Atmospheric respirator.
4) Super-atmospheric respirator.
Positive Pressure Respirator: A respirator in which the pressure inside the respiratory inlet covering exceeds the
ambient air pressure outside the respirator. OSHA Definition
Negative Pressure Respirator (Tight Fitting): A respirator in which the air pressure inside the facepiece is negative
during inhalation with respect to the ambient air pressure outside the respirator. OSHA Definition

An assessment of the adequacy of respirator fit by numerically measuring the amount of leakage into the respirator is
a:
1) Quantitative fit test.

2) Qualitative fit test.
3) Banana oil test.
4) Acid test.
Qualitative Fit Test (QLFT): A pass/fail fit test to assess the adequacy of respirator fit that relies on the individual's
response to the test agent. OSHA Definition
Quantitative Fit Test (QNFT): An assessment of the adequacy of respirator fit by numerically measuring the amount
of leakage into the respirator. OSHA Definition

A respirator fit test in which banana oil is carefully sprayed around an individual wearing a respirator is a:
1) Quantitative fit test.

2) Qualitative fit test.
3) Olfactory test.
4) Real-life test.
Qualitative Fit Test (QLFT) : A pass/fail fit test to assess the adequacy of respirator fit that relies on the individual's

The period of time that a respirator, filter or sorbent, or other respiratory equipment provides adequate protection to
the wearer is the:
1) Service life.
2) Use limit.
3) Life expectancy.
4) Respirator shelf life.
Service Life: The period of time that a respirator, filter or sorbent, or other respiratory equipment provides adequate
protection to the wearer. OSHA Definition
Service Life: The length of time required for an air-purifying element to reach a specific effluent concentration.
Service life is determined by the type of substance being removed, the concentration of the substance, the ambient
temperature, the specific element being tested (cartridge or canister), the flow rate resistance, and the selected
breakthrough value. The service life for a self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) is the period of time, as
determined by the NIOSH certification tests, in which adequate breathing gas is supplied. NIOSH Definition

An atmosphere-supplying respirator for which the source of breathing air is not designed to be carried by the user is a:
1) WPF.
2) REL.
3) SAR.
4) SCBA.
Supplied-Air Respirator (SAR) or Airline Respirator: An atmosphere-supplying respirator for which the source of
breathing air is not designed to be carried by the user. OSHA Definition
Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus (SCBA): An atmosphere-supplying respirator for which the breathing air
source is designed to be carried by the user. OSHA Definition
Recommended Exposure Limit (REL): An 8- or 10-hour time-weighted average (TWA) or ceiling (C) exposure
concentration recommended by NIOSH that is based on an evaluation of the health effects data. NIOSH Definition
Workplace Protection Factor (WPF): A measure of the protection provided in the workplace by a properly
functioning respirator when correctly worn and used.

When donning a respirator face mask the worker should cover the inlets and inhale. This action is called the:
1) User seal check.

2) Tightness check.
3) Fit test.
4) QLFT.
User Seal Check : An action conducted by the respirator user to determine if the respirator is properly seated to the
face. OSHA Definition
(See also Qualitative fit test QLFT and Quantitative fit test QNFT.) OSHA Definition
Qualitative Fit Test (QLFT): A pass/fail fit test to assess the adequacy of respirator fit that relies on the individual's

An employee has developed an allergy to latex. The company respirator program only allows use of specific
manufacturer's respirators which all contain latex in the face seals. You are the supervisor of the employee. You must:
1) Work with the company to find the employee with an appropriate alternative respirator.
2) Remove the employee from the work site and reassign or terminate the employee.
3) Submit the proper forms to initiate a job related disability for the employee.
4) Assign the employee to a desk job.
Users might have an allergy or sensitivity to the latex or its additives used in the manufacture of some respirators.
Changing to a respirator using a silicone-based compound for the face seal, or a respirator that doesn't have a face seal
(like a hooded PAPR) may solve the problem. Employers must help employees find a respirator that does not cause
this problem.

Respirators used in the work place for protection against respiratory hazards are required to be:
1) Approved by OSHA.
2) Certified by OSHA.
3) Certified by NIOSH.
4) Listed with a national testing laboratory.
Respirators shall be selected on the basis of hazards to which the worker is exposed (i.e., particulates, vapors,
oxygen-deficiency, or combination). Also, OSHA requires the use of certified respirators. The National Institute for
Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) certifies respirators.

Hazard Communication:
1) Is not applicable to the construction industry.

2) Is a general industry standard found in 29 CFR 1910.1200.
3) Requires safety plans specifically applicable to laboratory activities.
4) Is focused on training, if the training records for affected employees are in order, there is no other consideration.
Hazard communication requirements are promulgated in 29 CFR 1910.1200. This is the General Industry standards.
These standards are incorporated into 29 CFR 1926 by reference and apply to the construction industry.
(2011). OSHA Hazard Communication. OSHA Hazard Communication. Retrieved 1/24/12

Cartridge and canister respirators rely on the cartridge or canister to remove contaminants. Cartridges and canister life
is affected by a number of different factors. Which of the following statements is true?
1) The rate of breathing of the respirator user is generally not relevant to the life of the cartridge.
2) Ambient temperature is generally not relevant to the life of the cartridge.
3) Oxygen concentration is generally not relevant to the life of the cartridge.
4) Relative humidity is generally not relevant to the life of the cartridge.
Factors that can reduce cartridge service life include: exertion level, cartridge variability, temperature, humidity, and
multiple contaminants.

An anchorage is the point:
1) Of attachment of the lifeline, lanyard or deceleration device and, when properly designed, will support at least
5,000 pounds for each employee attached.
2) Of attachment for the body belt or body harness to the lifeline and, when properly designed, will support at least
5,000 pounds for each employee attached.
3) Of attachment of the lifeline, lanyard or deceleration device and must be properly designed to support at least
5,000 pounds for each employee attached and the weight of other equipment or platforms attached.
4) Of attachment for the body belt or body harness to the lifeline and must be properly designed to support at least
5,000 pounds for each employee attached and the weight of other equipment or platforms attached.
An anchorage must be designed to support at least 5,000 pounds for each employee attached to the anchorage. Fall
protection anchorages may not be used for attaching anything else.

Ladders are a common piece of equipment in the construction industry. Which of the following is most correct?
1) When selecting a ladder, it is important to assure that the ladder is tall enough to accomplish the task. If the roof is
ten feet high, a 10 foot straight ladder is the minimum length ladder required.
ten feet high, a 20.5 foot straight ladder is the minimum length ladder required.
ten feet high, a 14.5 foot straight ladder is the approximate length ladder required.
ten feet high, a 11 foot straight ladder is the minimum length ladder required.
If the roof is ten feet high, a 14.5 foot straight ladder is the minimum length ladder required. This is determined by the
need to apply a 4:1 slope to the ladder and have the ladder extend approximately 4 feet above the surface to be
accessed. A 4:1 slope means that, for every 4 feet of height, the base of the ladder should be 1 foot away from the
wall.

result of the previous construction operations and maintenance. One unique consideration is PCBs or polychlorinated
biphenyls. A quick check of existing electrical equipment can be performed to assess the possibility of PCB presence.
In what year was the use of PCBs in electrical equipment stopped?
1) 1970
2) 1971
3) 1979
4) 1982
Federal law banned the U.S. production of PCBs as of July 2, 1979. Electrical equipment manufactured after that date
can be assumed to not contain PCBs.

There are four classes of fires. Class B fires are:

Class B fires consist of fires in oils, gasoline, some paints, lacquers, grease, solvents, and other flammable liquids.

Which of the following would be an appropriate extinguisher to use on a fire involving the wood frame around an
electrical panel?

4) A fire extinguisher labeled A and B.
While the wood frame constitutes a Class A fire, without further information confirming that the electrical panel is not
energized, an extinguisher labeled "C", "B&C" or "A, B and C" should be used.

Rigging equipment is an important part of many construction projects. Prior to each day of use, rigging equipment
must be:
1) Carefully assembled, inspected and secured by at least two individuals.

2) Inspected by a designated employee for damage and defects.
3) Inspected by the site supervisor.
4) Inspected by a competent person.
The OSHA standard requires that a competent person be designated to inspect rigging equipment. The "competent
person" is a critical designation in many OSHA standards. One OSHA definition of a competent person is 29 CFR
1926.32(f). "Competent person" means one who is capable of identifying existing and predictable hazards in the
surroundings or working conditions which are unsanitary, hazardous, or dangerous to employees, and who has
authorization to take prompt corrective measures to eliminate them.
(2011). Competent Persons. Competent Persons. Retrieved 1/24/12

Pneumatic power tools are common in the construction industry. Safety procedures for using pneumatic power tools
should include:
I. Specific training
II. Regulating pressure to less than 100 psi
III. The use of eye and face protection
IV. Open bore nozzles for cleaning of pneumatic tools
1) I, and II
2) I, and III
3) I, II, and III
Open bore nozzles should never be provided for use of compressed air supplied for pneumatic tools. When pressurized
air is used for cleaning, the pressure must be reduced to less than 30 PSI.

Hand held power saws are sold with blade guards. The guards prevent the saw from being used in some situations.
When these situations exist:
1) A special saw with a waiver from the guard requirements should be used.
2) The guard may be manually opened to carefully use the saw.
3) The guard should be temporarily removed to prevent it from creating a greater hazard.
4) The guard may be tied or otherwise secured in the open position to prevent it from closing and creating a greater
hazard.
Safety guards should never be removed, modified or disabled. Hand held power saws have a lever that allows the
guard to be manually held open if necessary to initiate a cut. Once the cut is initiated, the guard should be released.

Electrical power tools and cords for construction must:
1) Make use of ground fault circuit interrupters.

2) Be a two wire, double insulated construction.
3) Be grounded, operational and not cause shock to persons in order to be able to be used.
4) Make use of ground fault circuit interrupters or be part of an assured equipment grounding conductor program.
Electrical power tools and cords used in construction must make use of ground fault circuit interrupters or an assured
equipment grounding conductor program. An assured equipment grounding conductor program requires extensive
work site controls, inspections and recordkeeping.

Gas welding typically involves the use of a flammable gas and oxygen contained in separate compressed gas
cylinders. Compressed gas cylinders area source of tremendous stored energy that can be released and cause
significant damage or injury. When storing compressed gasses for gas welding which of the following apply?
I. Never store more than two spare cylinders of the gases together.
II. Maintain 20 feet or a non-combustible barrier between oxygen cylinders and flammable gas cylinders.
III. Secure cylinders in an upright position.
IV. Barricade the cylinder storage or ensure that the valve caps are in place to prevent damage to the valves.
1) I and II
2) II and III
3) III and IV
4) II, III and IV
Oxygen cylinders must be stored at least 20 feet away or separated by a 5 foot high non-combustible barrier from
combustible and flammable materials and gases. Stored cylinders must be secured to prevent them from falling or
tipping. All cylinders designed to have a valves cap must have the cap in place when the cylinders are not in use.
Preventing access to a storage area with a barricade is not sufficient to protect the valves.

The gas and oxygen hoses for gas welding operations are:
1) Required to be of substantial construction, be different colors and each be compatible with both the gas and
oxygen.
2) Required to be clearly distinguishable from each other through color or texture and the fittings can not be
interchangeable.
3) Not critical as long as the welding nozzle is properly constructed and attached.
4) Designated at the work site and must meet company specific policy for construction and use.
Hoses used for gas and oxygen in gas welding must be clearly distinguishable from each other through the use of
color or texture. The hoses may be attached to each other but may not be covered more than four inches of every foot
and fittings may not be interchangeable between the gas and oxygen.

Powder actuated guns (sometimes called power actuated guns) periodically misfire. When a powder actuated gun
misfires, a worker should:
1) Maintain the gun's position for 30 seconds and then place the gun in a safe location until it can be returned to the
manufacturer for repair.
2) Maintain the gun's position and call for the construction supervisor. The supervisor should then consult with the
manufacturer's representative.
3) Maintain the guns position for 30 seconds and then attempt to fire it again. If it does not fire the second time, wait
another 30 seconds and then follow the manufacturer's instructions.
4) Maintain the gun's position for 30 seconds, then attempt to fire it again. If it does not fire the second time, wait
another 30 seconds and try a third time. If it still does not fire, the worker should use hand tools to clear the
misfire.
Powder actuated guns need to handled as a gun. It should never be pointed at anyone. If a misfire occurs, the gun
should be held in the operating position for 30 seconds and then a second attempt to fire it should be made. If the
misfire continues, the gun should again be held in the operating position for another 30 seconds. After the second
failure, the gun should be cleared in accordance with the manufacturer's instructions.

An example of over-current protection is:
1) A transformer.
2) A GFCI.
3) A capacitor.
4) A fuse.
A fuse or circuit breaker, both of which are over-current protection devices, are required in circuits rated for 600 volts
and less.

Fuses and circuits must be provided:
1) To over current of the facilities electrical wiring.

2) To protect people from shock.
3) To prevent overuse of extension cords.
4) To protect against shorted ground wires.
Over-current devices are designed to protect the facilities electrical wiring system and the facility itself. They are not
designed to prevent electrical shock.

Metal parts of equipment do not have to be grounded when:
1) The equipment is used by workers on metal surfaces.

2) The equipment is equipped with a system of double insulation.
3) The equipment is located in a hazardous location.
4) The equipment is operated at less than 200 volts to ground.
Metal parts of equipment must be grounded in cases such as:
When the equipment is located in a hazardous location

When the equipment is operated at more than 150 volts to ground
When the equipment is motor operated hand tools
Used in presence of moisture
Used inside metal tanks or containers
Used on metal floors and portable hand lamps
Two exceptions are provided:

1. Portable tools that are double insulated
2. When powered through an isolated transformer at 50 volts or less.

Unsealed batteries are common at construction sites. They can be found in vehicles, heavy equipment and light
equipment. Safety requirements for charging batteries include:
I. Providing adequate ventilation

II. Ensuring PPE use by employees
III. Verifying charging devices are of adequate capacity
IV. Providing acid spill protection
V. Quick drenching equipment
1) I, II and III
2) I, II, III, and V
3) I, II, IV and V
Battery charging operations require adequate ventilation, use of PPE, acid spill protection (such as placing batteries in
spill trays), and quick drenching facilities (e.g., emergency shower and eye wash).

Guard rails are a valuable safety system to protect workers from falls. A guard rail should be constructed:
1) To withstand the weight of a typical worker leaning against the guard rail and be 42 inches tall.
2) To withstand the weight of a typical worker leaning against the guard rail and be 36 inches tall.
3) To withstand an outward and downward force of 200 pounds and be 36 inches high.
4) To withstand an outward and downward force of 200 pounds and be 42 inches high.
Guardrails in construction are required to be 42 inches tall (plus or minus 3 inches) and be able to withstand an
outward and downward force of 200 pounds.

A method of fall protection is the provision of a safety net system. The design and installation of a safety net system
must include:
I. A horizontal extension appropriate for the vertical drop

II. A vertical drop appropriate for the horizontal extension
III. A boarder rope with a breaking strength of 5,000 pounds
IV. Web size to prevent tools from passing through
V. Sufficient tension to prevent contact with the surface during a fall
1) I, III and V
2) II, III and IV
3) I, III, IV and V
4) II, III, IV and V
Safety net systems require an appropriate horizontal extension relative to the vertical drop. The vertical drop should be
the minimum possible but never more than 30 feet. The safety net must have a boarder rope with a breaking strength
of 5,000 pounds, and the system must be installed such that a fallen worker will not contact the lower surface.

A barrier erected to prevent employees from falling to lower levels is a:

4) Guard rail system.
A guard rail system is a barrier erected to prevent employees from falling to lower levels.
Construction.

A barrier erected on a roof to warn employees that they are approaching an unprotected roof side or edge and which
designates an area in which roofing work may take place without the use of guardrail, body belt, or safety net systems
to protect employees in the area is a:
1) Rope Grab.
4) Self retracting life line.
Warning line system is a barrier erected on a roof to warn employees that they are approaching an unprotected roof
side or edge and which designates an area in which roofing work may take place without the use of guardrail, body
belt, or safety net systems to protect employees in the area.
Construction.

A crane where the lifting mechanism is mounted on a cross-beam supported on vertical legs which run on rails is a:
1) Hammerhead Tower Crane.
2) Gantry crane.
3) Floating Crane.
4) Derrick.
Gantry crane is a crane where the lifting mechanism is mounted on a cross-beam supported on vertical legs which run
on rails.

The tower crane is a modern form of balance crane. Fixed to the ground, tower cranes often give the best combination
of height and lifting capacity and are used in the construction of tall buildings. To save space, the vertical part of the
crane is often built in a well in the centre of the building, which is then converted to a lift ( elevator) shaft when the
crane is dismantled. A horizontal boom is balanced asymmetrically across the top of the tower. Its short arm carries a
counterweight of concrete blocks, and its long arm carries the lifting gear. The crane operator sits in a cabin at the top
of the tower. The tower crane is also know as a:
1) Telescoping crane.
2) Hammerhead Crane.
3) Derrick.
4) Floating crane.

Wire rope is commonly used in construction for lifting. A one inch wire rope may continue to be used even if:
1) The rope has been exposed to fire since it is metal.

2) 2/5 of the original diameter of the outside wires is lost from abrasion.
3) The wire rope has 5 broken wires in one lay of the rope and two of the broken wires in one strand of the rope.
4) The nominal diameter has been reduced by 3/16 of an inch.
Wire rope must be removed from service if:
6 broken wires exist in one lay of the rope or 3 broken wires in one strand.
1/3 or more of the original diameter of the outside wires is lost to abrasion.
Ropes are damaged from heat or electricity.
The overall nominal diameter is reduced by more than:
3/64 inch for up to 3/4 inch diameter rope

1/16 inch for 7/8 inch to 1-1/8 inch rope
3/32 for 1-1/4 inch to 1-1/2 inch rope

A short wire-rope sling used to form a slip noose around the object to be moved or lifted is a:
1) Choker rope.
2) Sling.
3) Harness.
4) Chain noose.
Choker rope is a short wire-rope sling used to form a slip noose around the object to be moved or lifted.

A rigging assembly manufactured by wire-rope rigging suppliers that facilitates the attachment of up to five
independent loads to the hoist rigging of a crane is:
1) A sling.
2) A choker rope.
3) Multiple-lift rigging
4) A harness.
Multiple-lift rigging means a rigging assembly manufactured by wire-rope rigging suppliers that facilitates the
attachment of up to five independent loads to the hoist rigging of a crane.

Shoring is a classic method of providing a support system for trenches. Which of the following is an accurate
description of the components of shoring?
1) Shoring systems consist of posts, beams, struts, and sheeting. There are two basic types of shoring, timber and
aluminum hydraulic.
2) Shoring systems consist of posts, beams, braces, and walls. There are two basic types of shoring, timber and
aluminum hydraulic.
3) Shoring systems consist of posts, wales, struts, and sheeting. There are two basic types of shoring, timber and
aluminum hydraulic.
4) Shoring systems consist of columns, beams, braces, and walls. There are two basic types of shoring, timber and
aluminum hydraulic.
Shoring systems consist of posts, wales, struts, and sheeting. There are two basic types of shoring, timber and
aluminum hydraulic.

Trench boxes are a common piece of equipment used in construction. Trench boxes are:
1) Steel plates with metal cross bracing that can be fabricated in the field under the direction of the competent person.
2) A shoring system to prevent cave-ins and must be designed or approved by a registered professional engineer.
3) Must be sized for the specific requirement and may not be combined with other support systems.
4) A shield to protect workers for cave-ins and must be designed or approved by a registered professional engineer.
Trench boxes are a shield to protect workers for cave-ins and must be designed or approved by a registered
professional engineer.

A tool used to spread out and smooth concrete is called a:
1) Bull Float.
2) Form.
3) Spread.
4) Blader.
A bull float is a tool used to spread out and smooth concrete.
(1998). OSHA Concrete and Masonry. OSHA Pub 3106 Concrete and Masonry Construction. Retrieved 03/21/06.

A lock designed to hold and permit the quick passage of an entire shift of employees is a:
1) Decanting lock.
2) High flow air lock.
3) Crew lock.
4) Emergency lock.
"Emergency locks "-A lock designed to hold and permit the quick passage of an entire shift of employees.
Retrieved 3/23/06.

In underground construction activities, air pressure used to supply power to pneumatic tools and devices is often
referred to as:
1) Low air.
2) High air.
3) Tool air.
4) Non-critical air.
High air: Air pressure used to supply power to pneumatic tools and devices.
Retrieved 3/23/06.

In underground construction activities, air supplied to pressurize working chambers and locks is often referred to as:
1) Low air.
2) High air.
3) Decanting air.
4) Displacement air.
"Low air"-Air supplied to pressurize working chambers and locks.
Retrieved 3/23/06.

A chamber to provide greater comfort of employees when the total decompression time exceeds 75 minutes is called:
1) Special decompression chamber.

2) Extended decompression chamber.
3) Safe decompression chamber.
4) Comfort chamber.
"Special decompression chamber "-A chamber to provide greater comfort of employees when the total
decompression time exceeds 75 minutes.
Retrieved 3/23/06.

Any current in excess of the rated capacity of equipment or of a conductor is:
1) Over-charged.
2) Over-current.
3) Excess current.
4) Ground-faulted.

Over-current: Any current in excess of the rated capacity of equipment or of a conductor.
Ground-fault: A fault, or insulation failure, in the wire used to create a path to ground.
(2006). OSHA Construction eTool. OSHA Construction eTool. Retrieved 3/31/06.

The total system of support for freshly placed or partially cured concrete, including the mold or sheeting that is in
contact with the concrete as well as all supporting members including shores, reshores, hardware, braces, and related
hardware is which of the following?
1) Shoring.
2) Framing.
3) Formwork.
4) Rough-in.
Formwork: The total system of support for freshly placed or partially cured concrete, including the mold or sheeting
(form) that is in contact with the concrete as well as all supporting members including shores, reshores, hardware,
braces, and related hardware.
Shore : A supporting member that resists a compressive force imposed by a load; or the operation by which a
supporting member is placed.
(2006). OSHA Construction eTool. OSHA Construction eTool. Retrieved 3/31/06.

A metallic tube closed at one end, containing a charge of one or more detonating compounds, and designed for and
capable of detonation from the sparks or flame from a safety fuse inserted and crimped into the open end is a:
1) Fuse Lighter.
2) Charge initiator.
3) Blaster.
4) Blasting Cap.

Blasting Cap: A metallic tube closed at one end, containing a charge of one or more detonating compounds, and
designed for and capable of detonation from the sparks or flame from a safety fuse inserted and crimped into the open
end.
Electric Blasting Cap : A blasting cap designed for and capable of detonation by means of an electric current.
Electric Delay Blasting Caps : Caps designed to detonate at a predetermined period of time after energy is applied to
the ignition system.
Fuse Lighters: Special devices for the purpose of igniting safety fuse.
Blaster: The person or persons authorized to use explosives for blasting purposes and meeting the qualifications
contained in 29 CFR 1926.901 (b)(1).

A suitable inert incombustible material or device used to confine or separate explosives in a drill hole, or to cover
explosives in mud-capping is called:
1) Mud.
2) Separator.
3) Stemming.
4) Wadding.
Stemming: A suitable inert incombustible material or device used to confine or separate explosives in a drill hole, or
to cover explosives in mud-capping.

Power transmission lines should not be contacted while energized; work around transmission lines must:
1) Be accomplished as long as contact with the energized line can be prevented.
2) Be accomplished only after the lines have been de-energized.
3) Be performed only with the use of insulated tools and line mans gloves.
4) Be accomplished a minimum distance from the lines unless appropriate safety equipment and procedures are used.
No employee shall be permitted to approach or take any conductive object without an approved insulating handle
closer to exposed energized parts than shown in Table V-1, unless:
The employee is insulated or guarded from the energized part (gloves or gloves with sleeves rated for the voltage
involved shall be considered insulation of the employee from the energized part), or
The energized part is insulated or guarded from him/her and any other conductive object at a different potential,
or
The employee is isolated, insulated, or guarded from any other conductive object(s), as during live-line
bare-hand work.
The minimum working distance and minimum clear hot stick distances stated in Table V-1 shall not be violated. The
minimum clear hot stick distance is that for the use of live-line tools held by linemen when performing live-line work.
Conductor support tools such as link sticks, strain carriers, and insulator cradles, may be used, p rovided that the clear
insulation is at least as long as the insulator string or the minimum distance specified in Table V-1 for the operating
voltage.
TABLE V-1
Alternating Current - Minimum Distances
Voltage Range (phase to phase) Minimum Working and
[Kilovolts] Clear Hot Stick Distance
2.1 to 15 2 ft. 0 in.
15.1 to 35 2 ft. 4 in.
35.1 to 46 2 ft. 6 in.
46.1 to 72.5 3 ft. 0 in.
72.6 to 121 3 ft. 4 in.
138 to 145 3 ft. 6 in.
161 to 169 3 ft. 8 in.
230 to 242 5 ft. 0 in.
345 to 362 7 ft. 0 in.*
500 to 552 11 ft. 0 in.*

700 to 765 15 ft. 0 in.*
* NOTE: From 345-362 kv., 500-552 kv., and 700-765 kv., the minimum working
distance and the minimum clear hot stick distance may be reduced provided that such
distances are not less than the shortest distance between the energized part and a grounded
surface.
(1996). OSHA Construction - Power Transmission. OSHA Const. Safety Outreach Program: Power Transmi.
Retrieved 3/31/06

A cable provided with a wrapping of metal, usually steel wires or tapes, primarily for the purpose of mechanical
protection is called a:
1) Wrapped Cable.
2) Shielded Cable.
3) Protected Cable.
4) Armored Cable
Armored Cable: A cable provided with a wrapping of metal, usually steel wires or tapes, primarily for the purpose of
mechanical protection.

A conductor or system of conductors through which an electric current is intended to flow is a:
1) Cable.
2) Closed Switch system.
3) Circuit.
4) Completed system.

Circuit: A conductor or system of conductors through which an electric current is intended to flow.
Cable : A conductor with insulation, or a stranded conductor with or without insulation and other coverings
(single-conductor cable), or a combination of conductors insulated from one another (multiple-conductor cable).

A device or piece of equipment constructed or protected so that solid particulate will not interfere with its successful
operation is considered to be:
1) Sealed.
2) Dustproof.
3) Intrinsic.
4) Dusttight.
Dustproof: Constructed or protected so that dust will not interfere with its successful operation.
Dusttight: Constructed so that dust will not enter the enclosing case under specified test conditions.

A device or piece of equipment constructed so that solid particulate will not enter the enclosing case under specified
test conditions is considered to be:
1) Dusttight.
2) Intrinsic.
3) Sealed.
4) Dustproof.
Dusttight: Constructed so that dust will not enter the enclosing case under specified test conditions.
Dustproof: Constructed or protected so that dust will not interfere with its successful operation.

A service requirement that demands operation at a substantially constant load for an indefinitely long time is referred
to as _____________ service.
1) Periodic Duty
2) Short Time Duty
3) Varying Duty
4) Continuous Duty
Continuous Duty: A service requirement that demands operation at a substantially constant load for an indefinitely
long time.
Intermittent Duty: A service requirement that demands operation for alternate intervals of load and no load, load and
rest, or load, no load, and rest.
Periodic Duty: A type of intermittent duty in which the load conditions regularly reoccur.
Short Time Duty : A requirement of service that demands operations at a substantially constant load for a short and
definitely specified time.
Varying Duty : A requirement of service that demands operation at loads, and for intervals of time, both of which
may be subject to wide variation.

A requirement of service that demands operations at a substantially constant load for a short and definitely specified
time is:
1) Intermittent Duty.
2) Periodic Duty.
3) Short Time Duty.
4) Varying Duty.
long time.

A requirement of service that demands operation at loads, and for intervals of time, both of which may be subject to
wide changes is:
2) Varying Duty.
3) Continuous Duty.
4) Periodic Duty.
long time.

A service requirement that demands operation for alternate intervals of load and no load, load and rest, or load, no
load, and rest is:
2) Periodic Duty.
3) Short Time Duty.
4) Varying Duty.
long time.

A type of intermittent duty in which the load conditions regularly reoccur is:
1) Varying Duty.
2) Short Time Duty.
4) Periodic Duty.
long time.

A piece of equipment that is explosion proof is:
1) Designed and constructed to withstand an internal explosion without creating an external explosion or fire.
2) Designed and constructed such that it will not generate or create a spark or other ignition source that could ignite a
combustible atmosphere.
3) Designed and constructed of non-sparking materials such that it will not spark when struck by or against another
surface.
4) Designed and constructed to operate without any power source.
Explosionproof: Designed and constructed to withstand an internal explosion without creating an external explosion
or fire.

A device that converts the energy of a fuel directly to electricity and heat, without combustion is a:
1) Fuel cell.
2) Internal combustion device.
3) Nuclear reactor.
4) Turbine generator.
Fuel cell: A device that converts the energy of a fuel directly to electricity and heat, without combustion. Because
there is no combustion, fuel cells give off few emissions; because there are no moving parts, fuel cells are quiet.

Equipment that bears the identifying mark of nationally recognized testing labs has been attached to identify the items
as having been tested and meeting appropriate standards is said to be:
1) Nationally tested.
2) Recognized.
3) Labeled.
4) UL Marked.
Labeled: Items to which a label, trademark, or other identifying mark of nationally recognized testing labs has been
attached to identify the items as having been tested and meeting appropriate standards.

Equipment or materials are sometimes included in a published document by an organization acceptable to the authority
having jurisdiction. The organizations document will state either that the equipment or material meets appropriate
designated standards or has been tested and found suitable for use in a specified manner. Equipment or material so
documented are considered to be:
1) Documented.
2) Listed.
3) Labeled.
4) Approved.
Listed: Equipment or materials included in a list published by an organization acceptable to the authority having
jurisdiction and concerned with product evaluation, that maintains periodic inspection of production of listed
equipment or materials, and whose listing states either that the equipment or material meets appropriate designated
standards or has been tested and found suitable for use in specified manner.

A test instrument for measuring the insulation resistance of conductors and other electrical equipment is a(n):
1) Insulator.
2) Resistometer.
3) Resistance meter.
4) Megger.
Megger: A test instrument for measuring the insulation resistance of conductors and other electrical equipment;
specifically, a megaohm (million ohms) meter. This is a registered trade mark of the James Biddle Co.

A type of insulator with a bell shape used to connect underground electrical cables to overhead lines is called a:
1) Bellhead.
2) Ground-to-air connector.
3) Bell insulator.
4) Pothead.
Potheads: A type of insulator with a bell or pot-like shape used to connect underground electrical cables to overhead
lines. It serves to separate the bunched-up conductors from one another in the cable to the much wider separation in
the overhead line. It also seals the cable end from the weather.

A device so constructed, protected, or treated as to prevent rain from interfering with the successful operation of the
apparatus under specified test conditions is:
1) Moisture tight.
2) Water resistant.
3) Raintight.
4) Rainproof.
Rainproof: So constructed, projected, or treated as to prevent rain from interfering with the successful operation of the
apparatus under specified test conditions.
Raintight: So constructed or protected that exposure to a beating rain will not result in the entrance of water.

A large single panel, frame, or assembly of panels having switches, over-current, and other protective devices, buses,
and usually instruments mounted on the face or back or both is a:
1) General use switch panel.

2) Isolating panel.
3) Switchboard.
4) Distribution panel.
Switchboard: A large single panel, frame, or assembly of panels having switches, over-current, and other protective
devices, buses, and usually instruments mounted on the face or back or both. Switchboards are generally accessible
from the rear and from the front and are not intended to be installed in cabinets.

A switch intended for use in basic distribution and branch circuits, rated in amperes and is capable of interrupting its
rated voltage is a:
1) General use switch.

2) General-use snap switch.
3) Motor-circuit switch.
4) Isolating switch.
General use switch : A switch intended for use in general distribution and branch circuits. It is rated in amperes and is
capable of interrupting its rated voltage.
General-use snap switch: A type of general-use switch so constructed that it can be installed in flush device boxes or
on outlet covers, or otherwise used in conjunction with wiring systems recognized by the National Electric Code.
Isolating switch: A switch intended for isolating an electrical circuit from the source of power. It has no interrupting
rating and is intended to be operated only after the circuit has been opened by some other means.
Knife switch: A switch in which the circuit is closed by a moving blade engaging contact clips.
Motor-circuit switch: A switch, rated in horsepower, capable of interrupting the maximum operating overload current
of a motor of the same horsepower rating as the switch at the rated voltage.
Transfer switch: A transfer switch is an automatic or non-automatic device for transferring one or more load
conductor connections from one power source to another.
Switch-leg: That part of a circuit run from a lighting outlet box where a luminaire or lampholder is installed down to
an outlet box that contains the wall switch that turns the light or other load on or off: it is a control leg of the branch
circuit.

A switch, rated in horsepower, capable of interrupting the maximum operating overload current of a motor of the
same horsepower rating as the switch at the rated voltage is a:

2) Transfer switch.
circuit.

That part of a circuit run from a lighting outlet box where a luminaire or lampholder is installed down to an outlet box
that contains the wall switch that turns the light or other load on or off is a:

2) Switch-leg.
circuit.

A type of general switch so constructed that it can be installed in flush device boxes or on outlet covers, or otherwise
used in conjunction with wiring systems recognized by the National Electric Code is a:
1) Transfer switch.
circuit.

A switch in which the circuit is closed by a moving blade engaging contact clips is a:
1) Knife switch.
circuit.

Extension cords and cords of power equipment may be used as long as:
1) The inner wire insulation is still present.

2) The jacket is not compromised.
3) There are no bare conductors exposed.
4) As long as there are no scuffs or marks on the outer insulation of the extension cord.
Extension cords may have damaged insulation. Sometimes the insulation inside an electrical tool or appliance is
damaged. When insulation is damaged, exposed metal parts may become energized if a live wire inside touches them.
Electric hand tools that are old, damaged, or misused may have damaged insulation inside. If you touch damaged
power tools or other equipment, you will receive a shock. You are more likely to receive a shock if the tool is not
grounded or double insulated. (Double-insulated tools have two insulation barriers and no exposed metal parts.)
DHHS/NIOSH.

When selecting extension cords for standard handheld power tools you must consider:
1) Resistance, wire gauge and length of run.

2) Wet areas, the type of tool and the wire gauge.
3) Power requirements, wire gauge, and length of run.
4) The type of tool, power requirements and the wire gauge.
Once a situation has been determined to be appropriate for the use of an extension cord, the power requirements of the
tool (in amps) must be determined to match up the proper wire gauge and length of extension cord. Using an
undersized extension cord can result in fire and electrical hazards.
DHHS/NIOSH.

Wire gauges are identified using:

1) Numbers where the larger the number, the smaller the wire.
2) Numbers where the larger the number, the larger the wire.
3) Letter and number combinations where the higher the letter in the alphabet the larger the wire. The number
provides the maximum distance in meters that the wire should be run.
4) Letter and number combinations, the larger the number, the smaller the wire, and the latter indicates the service
type.
The larger the gauge number, the smaller the wire.
DHHS/NIOSH.

What are the components of a typical extension cord grounding system? (What must be present for a device plugged
into an extension cord to be adequately grounded?)
I. A third wire in the cord, called a ground wire

II. A three-prong plug with a grounding prong on one end of the cord
III. Proper gauge wires
IV. A three-wire, grounding-type receptacle at the other end of the cord
V. A properly grounded outlet
1) I and V
2) I, II and V
4) I, II, IV and V
The grounding path for extension cords must be kept intact to keep you safe. A typical extension cord grounding
system has four components:
A third wire in the cord, called a ground wire

A three-prong plug with a grounding prong on one end of the cord
A three-wire, grounding-type receptacle at the other end of the cord
A properly grounded outlet
DHHS/NIOSH.

Which of the four descriptions of a ladder below, describes a ladder that may be used (assume there are no other
problems identified in the inspection)?
1) A brace has been cut and the cut penetrates no more than 1/3 of the way through the brace.
2) The ladder is in excellent condition but the specification label is torn and unable to be read.
3) One of the rubber pads on the feet of the ladder is not secure.
4) The ladder has been painted on one upright with a company name.
Marking of ladders is permitted as long as the marking does not obstruct the specifications information and does not
prevent inspection of the condition of the ladder.

A guard that is a permanent part of the machine and is not dependent upon moving parts to function is a:
1) Fixed guard.
2) Stationary guard.
3) Interlock guard.
4) Barrier guard.
A fixed guard is a permanent part of the machine. It is not dependent upon moving parts to function. It may be
constructed of sheet metal, screen, wire cloth, bars, plastic, or any other material that is substantial enough to
withstand whatever impact it may receive and to endure prolonged use. This guard is usually preferable to all other
types because of its relative simplicity.

A guard that when opened or removed, causes a tripping mechanism and/or power that automatically shuts off or
disengages, the moving parts of the machine are stopped, and the machine cannot cycle or be started until the guard is
back in place is called a:
1) Tripping guard.
2) Automatic stop guard.
3) Interlock guard.
4) Self-actuating guard.
When an interlocking guard is opened or removed, the tripping mechanism and/or power automatically shuts off or
disengages, the moving parts of the machine are stopped, and the machine cannot cycle or be started until the guard is
back in place. An interlocked guard may use electrical, mechanical, hydraulic, or pneumatic power or any combination
of these. Interlocks should not prevent "inching" by remote control if required. Replacing the guard should not
automatically restart the machine. To be effective, all removable guards should be interlocked to prevent occupational
hazards.

Guards in which the openings to the hazard points are determined by the movement of the stock are called:
1) Auto-feed guards.
2) Self-adjusting guards.
3) Moving barrier guards.
4) Self-actualizing guards.
The openings of these barriers are determined by the movement of the stock. As the operator moves the stock into the
danger area, the guard is pushed away, providing an opening which is only large enough to admit the stock. After the
stock is removed, the guard returns to the rest position. This guard protects the operator by placing a barrier between
the danger area and the operator. The guards may be constructed of plastic, metal, or other substantial material.
Self-adjusting guards offer different degrees of protection.

A type of guard that is simple, can often be easily constructed and installed at the shop, requires minimum
maintenance and is usually very effective is a(n):
1) Fixed guard.
2) Interlocked guard.
3) Adjustable guard.
4) Self adjusting guard.
Fixed guard advantages include the following:
Can be constructed to suit many specific applications

In-plant construction is often possible
Can provide maximum protection
Usually requires minimum maintenance
Can be suitable to high production, repetitive operations

A very effective guard that can allow easy access to the hazard point for actions such as removing jams of feed
product is the:
1) Adjustable guard.
2) Feed guard.
3) Two hand hold back guard.
The interlocked guard shuts off or disengages the power, stops the moving parts and prevents starting of the machine
when the guard is open, and should require the machine to be stopped before the worker can reach into the danger
area. The interlocked guard can provide maximum protection while still allowing simple access to the machine for
removing jams without time consuming removal of fixed guards.

The type of guard commonly provided for circular hand saws and cut-off saws is the:
1) Rotational guard.
2) Slide guard.
3) Self-adjusting guard.
Circular saws and cut-off saws are commonly provided with self-adjusting guards.

A device that uses a system of light sources and controls which can interrupt the machine's operating cycle if the light
field is broken is called a:
1) Light beam retractor device.

2) Photoelectric device.
3) Light wall device
4) Laser Protection device.
The photoelectric (optical) presence-sensing device uses a system of light sources and controls which can interrupt the
machine's operating cycle. If the light field is broken, the machine stops and will not cycle. This device must be used
only on machines which can be stopped before the worker can reach the danger area. The design and placement of the
guard depends upon the time it takes to stop the mechanism and the speed at which the employee's hand can reach
across the distance from the guard to the danger zone.

A device that measures when a capacitance field is broken and stops or prevents the operation of a machine is called
a:
1) RF device.
2) Capacitor based device.
3) L.A.S.E.R. device.
4) Photoelectric device.
The radiofrequency (capacitance) presence-sending device uses a radio beam that is part of the machine control
circuit. When the capacitance field is broken, the machine will stop or will not activate. Like the photoelectric device,
this device shall only be used on machines which can be stopped before the worker can reach the danger area. This
requires the machine to have a friction clutch or other reliable means for stopping.

A device with a probe or contact bar which descends to a predetermined distance when the operator initiates the
machine cycle and prevents the machine from cycling if it does not descend the correct distance is called a(n):
1) Bar probe device.

2) Electrometrical sensing device.
3) RF device.
4) Capacitor based device.

The electromechanical sensing device has a probe or contact bar which descends to a predetermined distance when the
operator initiates the machine cycle. If there is an obstruction preventing it from descending its full predetermined
distance, the control circuit does not actuate the machine cycle.

A device that utilizes a series of cables attached to the operator's hands, wrists, and/or arms is a:
1) Cable pull device.

2) Hand retraction device.
3) Pullback device.
4) Exclusion device.
Pullback devices utilize a series of cables attached to the operator's hands, wrists, and/or arms. This type of device is
primarily used on machines with stroking action. When the slide/ram is up between cycles, the operator is allowed
access to the point of operation. When the slide/ram begins to cycle by starting its descent, a mechanical linkage
automatically assures withdrawal of the hands from the point of operation.

A device that utilizes cables or straps that are attached to the operator's hands and a fixed point is called a:
1) Pullback device.
2) Cable hold device
3) Cable barrier.
4) Restraint device.
The restraint (holdout) device utilizes cables or straps that are attached to the operator's hands and a fixed point. The
cables or straps must be adjusted to let the operator's hands travel within a predetermined safe area. There is no
extending or retracting action involved. Consequently, hand-feeding tools are often necessary if the operation involves
placing material into the danger area.

A device that provides a quick means for deactivating a machine in an emergency situation as a result of a pressure
sensitive bar being depressed is a:
1) Rapid deactivation device.

2) Safety trip control device.
3) Emergency deactivation device.
4) Position stop device.
Safety trip controls provide a quick means for deactivating the machine in an emergency situation. A
pressure-sensitive body bar, when depressed, will deactivate the machine. If the operator or anyone trips, loses
balance, or is drawn toward the machine, applying pressure to the bar will stop the operation. The positioning of the
bar, therefore, is critical. It must stop the machine before a part of the employee's body reaches the danger area.

A device that requires constant, concurrent pressure on two points by the operator to activate the machine is a:
1) Dual point switch device.

2) Push-hold device.
3) Two-hand button device.
4) Two-hand control device.
The two-hand control requires constant, concurrent pressure by the operator to activate the machine. This kind of
control requires a part-revolution clutch, brake, and a brake monitor if used on a power press. With this type of
device, the operator's hands are required to be at a safe location (on control buttons) and at a safe distance from the
danger area while the machine completes its closing cycle.

A device that requires concurrent application of both the operator's control buttons to activate the machine cycle, after
which the hands are free is a:
1) Two-hand trip device.

2) Two-hand control device.
3) Dual point switch device.
4) Push-hold device.
The two-hand trip requires concurrent application of both the operator's control buttons to activate the machine cycle,
after which the hands are free. This device is usually used with machines equipped with full-revolution clutches. The
trips must be placed far enough from the point of operation to make it impossible for the operator to move his or her
hands from the trip buttons or handles into the point of operation before the first half of the cycle is completed. The
distance from the trip button depends upon the speed of the cycle and the band speed constant. Thus the operator's
hands are kept far enough away to prevent them from being placed in the danger area prior to the slide/ram or blade
reaching the full "down" position. To be effective, both two-hand controls and trips must be located so that the
operator cannot use two hands or one hand and another part of his/her body to trip the machine.

A moveable barrier that protects the operator at the point of operation before the machine cycle can be started is a(n):
1) Barrier point.
2) Exclusion device.
3) Gate.
4) Point of operation barrier.
The gate is a moveable barrier that protects the operator at the point of operation before the machine cycle can be
started. Gates are, in many instances, designed to be operated with each machine cycle. To be effective, the gate must
be interlocked so that the machine will not begin a cycle unless the gate guard is in place. It must be in the closed
position before the machine can function. If the gate is not permitted to descend to the fully closed position, the press
will not function.
Another potential application of this type of guard is where the gate is a component of a perimeter safeguarding
system. Here the gate may provide protection not only to the operator but to pedestrian traffic as well.

An atmosphere that poses an immediate threat to life, would cause irreversible adverse health effects, or would impair
an individual's ability to escape from a dangerous atmosphere is referred to as:
1) STEL
2) IDLH
3) Ceiling
4) PEL
Immediately Dangerous to Life or Health (IDLH): An atmosphere that poses an immediate threat to life, would
cause irreversible adverse health effects, or would impair an individual's ability to escape from a dangerous
atmosphere. OSHA Definition
Immediately Dangerous to Life or Health (IDLH): Acute respiratory exposure that poses an immediate threat of
loss of life, immediate or delayed irreversible adverse effects on health, or acute eye exposure that would prevent
escape from a hazardous atmosphere. NIOSH Definition
STEL : Short Term Exposure Limit
PEL: Permissible Exposure Limit
(2006). Respiratory Protection eTool. Respiratory Protection eTool. Retrieved 4/16/06.

A positive pressure atmosphere- supplying respirator that admits breathing air to the facepiece when the positive
pressure is reduced inside the facepiece by inhalation is a:
1) Pressure demand respirator.

2) Powered air-purifying respirator.
3) Positive inhalation respirator.
4) Negative pressure respirator.

Powered Air-Purifying Respirator (PAPR): An air-purifying respirator that uses a blower to force the ambient air
through air-purifying elements to the inlet covering. OSHA Definition
Pressure Demand Respirator: A positive pressure atmosphere- supplying respirator that admits breathing air to the
facepiece when the positive pressure is reduced inside the facepiece by inhalation. OSHA Definition

Asbestos containing material is any material containing more than:
1) 0.5 % asbestos.
2) 1 % asbestos..
3) 5 % asbestos.
4) 10 % asbestos.
Asbestos-Containing Material (ACM) - means any material containing more than one percent asbestos.
04/18/06.

ACM that is sprayed, troweled-on or otherwise applied to surfaces is called:
1) Ductile ACM.
2) Spray-on ACM.
3) Applied ACM.
4) Surfacing ACM.
Surfacing ACM - means material that is sprayed, troweled-on or otherwise applied to surfaces (such as acoustical
plaster on ceilings and fireproofing materials on structural members, or other materials on surfaces for acoustical,
fireproofing, and other purposes) and that contains more than 1% asbestos.
04/18/06.

A material is presumed to be asbestos containing material if:
1) It is used as a fire protective coating in a building constructed before 1980.

2) It appears fibrous.
3) It is TSI that was applied on or before 1980.
4) There was any fibrous material in the building constructed before 1985.
Presumed Asbestos-Containing Material (PACM) - means thermal system insulation and surfacing material found
in buildings constructed no later than 1980. The designation of a material as "PACM" may be rebutted following
procedures specified in the standard.
04/18/06.

ACM applied to pipes, fittings, boilers, breeching, tanks, ducts or other structural components to prevent heat loss or
gain and that contains more than 1% asbestos is called:
1) PACM.
2) TSI.
3) PEL.
4) Class IV asbestos.
Thermal System Insulation (TSI) ACM - means ACM applied to pipes, fittings, boilers, breeching, tanks, ducts or
other structural components to prevent heat loss or gain and that contains more than 1% asbestos.
04/18/06.

An employers hazard communication program shall include:
I. Training
II. MSDS
III. Container labeling
IV. Municipal fire department notifications
V. A written program
1) I, II and III
2) I, II, IV and V
3) I, II, III and V
A hazard communication program must include training, MSDS, labeling and must be documented in writing. The
hazard communication requirements under OSHA do not require notification of fire departments.
(2011). OSHA Hazard Communication. OSHA Hazard Communication. Retrieved 1/24/12.

Class I asbestos removal jobs require exposure assessment:
1) Only at the start of the removal and at the conclusion.

2) One time only.
3) Daily.
4) Continuously throughout the removal activity.
Daily monitoring is required for Class I and II operations unless the employer has made a negative exposure
assessment for the entire operation.
For Class I work, daily monitoring may be dispensed with only if all employees are equipped with supplied-air
respirators operated in the pressure demand mode (or other positive pressure mode respirator) and only control
methods listed in the standard are used.
For Class II work, daily monitoring may be dispensed with if all employees are equipped with supplied-air respirators
operated in the positive-pressure mode.
All work operations, other than Class I and II work, where exposures are expected to exceed a PEL, must be
monitored at intervals sufficient to document the validity of the exposure prediction.
04/18/06.

Asbestos removal activities shall use which of the following practices?
I. HEPA filtered vacuums

II. Wet methods
III. Abrasive grinders to remove final cemented ACM
IV. Employee rotation to limit exposure
V. Prompt disposal
1) I, II, and V
2) I, IV and V
3) I, II, IV and V
Controls and practices that must always be used, regardless of the level of exposure, are:
1) Vacuum cleaners with HEPA filters to collect asbestos-containing debris and dust
2) Wet methods or wetting agents during handling, mixing, removal, cutting, application, and clean-up (unless
infeasible or creates a greater hazard)
3) Prompt clean-up and disposal of wastes and debris contaminated with asbestos in leak-tight containers
Controls and work practices that may never be used, regardless of the level of exposure, are:
1) High-speed abrasive disc saws that are not equipped with point of cut ventilator or enclosures with HEPA filtered
exhaust air
2) Compressed air to remove asbestos-containing materials, unless used in conjunction with an enclosed ventilation
system to capture the dust cloud
3) Dry sweeping, shoveling or other dry clean-up of dust and debris containing ACM and PACM
4) Employee rotation to reduce employee exposure
For all work covered by the standard, one or more of the following controls must be used, as necessary, to achieve
compliance with the PELs:
Local exhaust ventilation equipped with HEPA filter dust collection systems
Enclosure or isolation of processes producing asbestos dust
Ventilation of the regulated area to move contaminated air away from the employee's breathing zone to a
filtration or collection device equipped with a HEPA filter
Other work practices and engineering controls that the Assistant Secretary for OSHA can show to be feasible
NOTE: Where the above controls are not sufficient to achieve compliance with the PELs, they must still be used and
then supplemented with respiratory protection.
04/18/06.

Asbestos exposure is measured in:
1) Parts per million.

2) Parts per billion.
3) Fibers per cubic meter.
4) Fibers per cubic centimeter.
The time-weighted average (TWA) permissible exposure limit has been reduced to 0.1 fibers per cubic centimeter. The
Excursion Limit remains at 1.0 fibers per cubic centimeter averaged over 30 minutes. Both of these values are
considered PELs.
There is no established action level in the new standard because the sampling and analytical method is not reliable
below the time-weighted average limit of 0.1 fibers per cubic centimeter.
04/18/06.

Your have been assigned the responsibility of supervising a welding crew that must repair a steel ladder in a sewerage
pumping station with a 20 inch manway. After monitoring the pumping station atmosphere, you determine that there is
18% oxygen. What is the proper respirator for this situation?
1) SCBA
2) PAPR
3) SAR
4) APR
A supplied air respirator would be most appropriate. A SCBA could not be worn while entering the confined space.
Both the PAPR and APR are not useful in oxygen deficient atmospheres.

Your company requires all employees to take first aid training and directs them to use the training if any employees
are injured on the job. Your company must:
1) Provide monthly first aid discussion topics.

2) Provide an ambulance for employee use.
3) Make a licensed medical professional available for first aid providers to consult about treatment.
4) Provide access to the hepatitis vaccine.
An employer that expects employees to provide first aid treatment to injured persons must have an exposure control
plan. The requirements under a plan is to provide, at no expense to the employee, access to hepatitis vaccines on a
voluntary basis.

You are assigned to supervise a work crew in the demolition of an old storage tank. The tank placards indicate that the
tank contained methylene chloride and the tank is placarded with an "empty" placard. Before you start work you need
to:
1) Do nothing once you verify that the "empty" placard is valid.
2) Issue respirators to all work crew members.
3) Review the results of the exposure assessment.
4) Drain the tank.
When must an employer conduct an exposure assessment? When you expose your employees to a respiratory hazard
and/or require them to wear respirators. Examples of when you should consider assessments may include but are not
limited to:
When OSHA has a substance specific standard (e.g., lead, methylene chloride)
When employees notice symptoms (e.g., irritation, odor) or complain of respiratory health effects
When the workplace contains visible emissions (e.g., fumes, dust, aerosols)

You are inspecting the work site where epoxy flooring is being installed. The workers are on a break. You are talking
to a worker who is complaining about a headache. The worker assures you that he wore his half face respirator during
the entire work activities. No other workers are experiencing headaches. The worker says that he had a long 4-day
weekend fishing and just returned that morning (which seems obvious as the worker has not shaved in at least 4
days). The worker claims that the headache is a result of insufficient sleep. Which conclusion should you make?
1) The worker should be allowed to continue to work.

2) Insufficient sleep is not a likely cause of headaches; the worker should be referred for drug testing.
3) The mask should be replaced with a soft rubber seal mask that will work with facial hair.
4) The mask seal is not adequate as a result of facial hair.
Respirators can not be used with facial hair that will interfere with the seal.

The assigned protection factor of 10 on a respirator for an airborne contaminant means:

1) The respirator is effective up to 10 times the IDLH.
2) The respirator will only allow one tenth of the contaminant to be inhaled.
3) The respirator is good for 10 hours of use.
4) The respirator is effective for the level of exposure indicated at the "10" line on the respirator protection factor
chart.
The assigned protection factor (APF) of a respirator reflects the level of protection that a properly functioning
respirator would be expected to provide to a population of properly fitted and trained users. For example, an APF of
10 for a respirator means that a user could expect to inhale no more than one tenth of the airborne contaminant
present.

OSHA standards require that operators working from aerial platforms be protected through the use of a fall protection
device. What personal protective equipment should be used by operators working from the platform in the picture?
I. Hardhat
II. Respirator
III. Fall protection
IV. Safety Glasses
V. Safety Shoes
1) I and V
2) I, IV and V
3) I, III, IV and V

The operator should be using a hardhat for the overhead hazard of light fixtures and girders, safety glasses for the
potential of shattering light bulbs and safety shoes for materials handling and equipment operation. The work platform
pictured is a scissor lift. OSHA has provided interpretations that class scissor lifts as scaffolds, not aerial lifts.
Therefore, the aerial lift requirement for fall protection does not apply. If appropriate guardrails are present, fall
protection is not required.

MIG welding is commonly used when working with:
1) Aluminum.
2) Stainless Steel.
3) Mild Steel.
4) Titanium.
While MIG (metal inert gas) welding is capable of being used for all the listed metals, it is most effective for mild
steels. TIG (tungsten inert gas) welding is more effective for aluminum, stainless steel and titanium. Fumes are a
concern with both MIG and TIG welding, but MIG welding tends to produce more fumes. All forms of arc welding
produce potentially hazardous Ultraviolet (UV) light.
Finch, R., Welder's Handbook: A Complete Guide to MIG, TIG, ARC and Oxyacetylene Welding

Asbestos regulations implementing AHERA are found at which of the following?
1) 29 CFR 1910.1001
2) 49 CFR Part 171
3) 40 CFR Part 763
4) 29 CFR Part 1926
The AHERA regulations are found at 40 CFR Part 763-Subpart E.


Cumulative trauma disorders (CTD) are rapidly becoming a major source of Workers' Compensation dollar loss. The
most common form is:
1) Bursitis.
2) Carpal tunnel syndrome.
3) Kaolinosis.
4) Tendonitis.
Carpal tunnel syndrome is a common disease of workers performing repeated exertions or movements of the
fingers/hand and wrist which compress the median nerve in the carpal tunnel. It is often associated with tingling, pain
or numbness in the thumb and first three fingers, frequently resulting in lost time and workers' compensation costs.

Disorders that result from repeated exertions or movements of the body are most often described by which of the
following terms?
1) Regional musculoskeletal disorders

2) Cumulative trauma disorders
3) Occupational cervicobrachial disorders
4) Occasional trauma disorder
Disorders that are caused, precipitated or aggravated by repeated exertion or movements of the body are most
frequently called cumulative trauma disorders (CTD). Other terms less commonly used include: Repetitive trauma
disorders, repetitive strain injuries, overuse syndromes, regional musculoskeletal disorders.

An in-depth method that may be used to evaluate a safety program is a:

1) Safety program audit.
2) Safety inspection.
3) Job-Task survey.
4) Safety check.
A safety audit is a comprehensive examination of the safety program. The audit should provide insight into the
effectiveness of the program and identify where improvements can be made.
ASSE provides an outstanding Safety Audit process to evaluate and rate:
Organization & Administration

Industrial Hazard Control
Fire Control & Industrial Hygiene
Supervisory Participation
Motivation and Training
Accident Investigation, Statistics & Reporting Procedures

Environmental Health and Safety (EH&S) Audits are NOT designed to:
1) Identify weak performers in plant manager roles.

2) Ensure legal and corporate program compliance.
3) Advise top management of compliance status.
4) Identify strengths and weaknesses of the facility's EH&S program.
A well run audit program will ensure compliance with corporate and legal requirements and advise top management of
the situation at the plant. The goal is not to identify weak plant managers but rather to identify strengths and
weaknesses of the EH&S program and to assess the level of compliance. In addition, a compliance assurance plan is
generated.

PEL's are :
1) Pollutant Emission Levels.
2) Established by NIOSH.
3) Permissible Exposure Limits.
4) Not used in industrial hygiene.
PEL's are permissible exposure limits and are established by OSHA.

Safety Program evaluation can be defined as:
1) An exercise designed to placate management.

2) An audit to highlight deficiencies.
3) A measure of the effectiveness of safety programs.
4) A method to get rid of unsafe supervisors.
A Safety Program evaluation is defined as a systematic method of measuring the effectiveness of a planned group of
activities aimed at improving workplace safety. It is important to note that most evaluation programs look at both the
good and bad aspects of the program i.e. a balanced evaluation.

The most critical step in any safety program evaluation is the development of:
1) Evaluation protocol checklist.

2) Time with plant people.
3) Walk through survey.
4) Evaluation team leader.
An evaluation will rise and fall on the quality of the evaluation protocol/checklist. The protocol determines the areas
to be examined, the level of detail, in general, the questions to be asked.

The least critical factor in the analysis of noise exposure is:
1) A-weighted sound pressure level.

2) Frequency spectrum of the noise.
3) Duration of noise exposure.
4) C-weighted sound pressure level.
It is important to use the A-weighted sound level, frequency duration, frequency distribution as well as the type of
noise (impact vs. continuous) in the analysis of noise exposures. In addition, you must also know the duration of
exposure.

When a process is said to be cryogenic, the process operates at:
1) Low temperature.
2) Low pressure.
3) High temperature.
4) High pressure.
Though there is no exact temperature at which a process is called cryogenic, processes that operate at 100°K or lower
are certainly within the definition of cryogenic.

Class III, Division 1 electrical protection is provided in a plant processing:

1) Sugar.
2) Cotton.
3) Starch.
4) Paint.
Class III, Division 1 locations are hazardous because of the presence of easily ignitable fibers or flyings in processing
cotton.

A hazardous location, because of the presence of combustible dust requires electrical protection that meets the
requirements of:
1) Class I locations.
2) Class II locations.
3) Class III locations.
4) Class IV locations.
Suspended combustible dust may be present in quantities sufficient to produce explosive or ignitable mixtures; or be
electrically conductive; or be ignitable by a malfunction of electrical equipment.

When applied to electrical apparatus, the term "explosion proof" means:
1) Capable of withstanding external explosions.

2) Capable of excluding the intrusion of explosive gas or vapor.
3) Capable of containing an internal explosion.
4) 1 and 2 combined.
The National Electric Code (NEC) defines explosion proof as, "Apparatus enclosed in a case that is capable of
withstanding an explosion of a specified gas or vapor which may occur within it and preventing the ignition of a
specified gas or vapor surrounding the enclosure by sparks, flashes, or explosion of the gas or vapor within and which
operates at such an external temperature that a surrounding flammable atmosphere will not be ignited."

Which natural fiber makes the safest rope?
1) Manilla
2) Sisal
3) Cotton
4) Jute
Per the "Accident Prevention Manual", manilla rope is the best suited natural fiber rope for slings and capstans.

Which of the following is NOT an example of protective footwear?
1) Safety-toed shoes
2) Non-conductive shoes
3) Molders (foundry) shoes
4) Conductive shoes
Safety-toed, molders, and conductive shoes are examples of protective footwear used in the industrial environment.
Non-conductive shoes (or booties) are worn for product protection in the electronics industries.

A secondary side of the transformer usually has _______ voltages than the primary side.
1) Lower
2) Higher
3) Same
4) Variable
The secondary transformer side features the "stepped" down voltages, therefore the secondary side is of lower voltage.

The primary hazard operating gasoline-powered industrial trucks in an unventilated space is:
1) Human exposure to explosions.

2) Human exposure to cardon dioxide (CO2 ).
3) Human exposure to carbon monoxide (CO).
4) Human exposure to nitrogen oxides (NOx).
Carbon monoxide is the primary human exposure hazard when operating gasoline-powered trucks within an enclosed
space.

The tongue guard on a grinding wheel should be ______ away from the wheel.
1) 1/4"
2) 1/2"
3) 3/4"
4) 1"
A tongue guard should be, at most, 1/4" away from wheel. This is necessary to prevent the object being ground from
being caught between the wheel, possibly injuring the operator.

In the course of an eight hour work shift, a maintenance mechanic works TWICE in the vicinity of an operation where
the measured carbon monoxide concentration in the air at his breathing zone level is fairly constant at 50 parts per
million. The first time he works for 3 hours in the morning and the second, he works 2-1/2 hours in the afternoon. All
the other times, he worked in areas of the plant where his exposure to carbon monoxide was essentially zero. What is
his time-weighted average exposure to carbon monoxide?
1) 17 ppm
2) 34 ppm
3) 51 ppm
4) 103 ppm
(3 hr * 50 ppm + 2.5 hr * 50 ppm + 2.5 hr * 0 ppm)/8

TWA = (150 + 125)/8
TWA = 34 ppm

Which of the following types of welding produces ozone?
1) Gas Metal Arc Welding

2) Sweating Carbon Rod
3) Brazing
4) Oxyacetylene welding
Ozone is produced in greater quantities by gas metal arc welding (GMAW or short-arc), gas tungsten arc welding
(GTAW or heli-arc), and plasma arc cutting. Arc welding produces intense ultraviolet light that can create ozone from
oxygen.
Construction Safety and Health Outreach Program, U.S. Department of Labor OSHA Office of Training and
Education, "Welding Health Hazards", May 1996.

How can continuity of a ground be tested in an electrical hand tool?
1) Voltmeter
2) Visual Check
3) Continuity tester with light
4) Ohmmeter
An ohmmeter can test the continuity of a ground in an electrical hand tool.

y = (x + 5)/(x - 5)
If x = 6 then y equals:
1) 11
2) 9
3) 7
4) 4
When x = 6 then (6 + 5) / (6 - 5) = 11 / 1 = 11.

Eighteen grams of pure methane will occupy how many cubic feet at 12°C and 28.0 inches of mercury?
(M.W. of methane = 16)
1) 0.78
2) 0.87
3) 0.91
4) 0.99
Convert grams to moles, cubic ft to liters, Celsius to Kelvin, and inches of mercury to atmospheres. Then use the Ideal
Gas Law:
PV = nRT.
Ans = 0.99

Strong oxidizing agents :
1) React violently with bases.

2) Can cause serious burns.
3) Can be safely stored in steel containers.
4) React violently in air.
Oxidizers do not always react violently with bases nor can they be stored safely in steel containers. They can however,
produce severe burns.

The density of an unknown gas at 85°C and 720 mm Hg pressure is 2.75 gm per liter. What is the gram molecular
weight of this gas?
1) 0.32 gm
2) 85.4 gm
3) 3.08 gm
4) 30.8 gm
Temperature is 85 + 273 = 358°K.

Pressure is 720/760 = 0.947 atm.
From PV = nRT calculate the number of moles in 1 liter.

n/v = P/RT = 0.947/(0.0821)(358) = 0.0322
Since 0.0322 mole weighs 2.75 gm, 1 mole weighs 2.75/0.0322, or 85.4 gm.

The time that it takes to complete one wave cycle ( peak to peak ) is called the:
1) Wavelength.
2) Period.
3) Frequency.
4) Q factor.
The period is the TIME it takes to complete one wave cycle. It is measured in seconds. The distance between the
peaks is the wavelength.

The unit dB has become popular because:
1) It is specific to noise and its action.

2) It covers a wide range of values.
3) It is the only term available.
4) It is easy to combine various sources.
The dB is a logarithmic measure and therefore can cover a wide range of values. It would be cumbersome to use
numbers which vary by a factor of more than one million.

Which of the following is not an indicator of the variability of observations in an experiment?

1) Mean
2) Standard deviation
3) Range
4) Upper and lower confidence limits
The mean is the arithmetic average of the observations. It tells you nothing of the spread of the data. The standard
deviation is a measure of how the data points differ from the average. The range is the high and low limits of the
observations and the confidence interval incorporates a probability as well as a measure of variability.

When inspecting a work site to determine if an adequate fire safety program is in place, which of the following
questions might be valuable to ask randomly selected workers?
I. What would you do in case of a fire?

II. What is the response time for the closest fire department?
III. How would you know that a fire has occurred and you need to evacuate?
IV. Who do you have to clear your time accountability with if an evacuation occurs?
V. Where is the fire emergency plan?
1) I, III, V
2) I, II, III, IV
3) I, II, III, V
I, III and V are appropriate questions for random workers. II may be relevant when putting together the emergency fire
safety plan, but workers should not need to know that information. Time accountability referenced in IV is not
relevant to OSHA's objective of protecting lives from fires.

WORKSITE AUDITING :Worksite Assessment - Hazard Controls
States that have approved State Plans:

1) Are able to attract more businesses to the state because, having been granted authority to enforce state safety and
health standards, the state is able to enact less stringent regulations.
2) Enforce the federal safety and health standards and are not authorized to enact broader or stricter requirements.
3) Have been granted authority to enforce state safety and health standards on businesses within the state.
4) Enact state requirements that are enforced by federal OSHA in additional to the federal requirements.
In order for a state to have its state plan approved, the state must set job safety and health standards that are "at least
as effective as" comparable federal standards. (Most states adopt standards identical to federal ones.) States have the
option to promulgate standards covering hazards not addressed by federal standards.
A state must conduct inspections to enforce its standards, cover public (state and local government) employees, and
operate occupational safety and health training and education programs.
(2004). OSHA, State Occupational Safety and Health Plans. State Occupational Safety and Health Plans. Retrieved
3/1/06.

State and local government workers are protected by:
1) Federal OSHA Safety and Health standards.

2) Safety and health standards and programs enacted by the state, county and/or city.
3) Federal OSHA Safety and Health standards along with state, county and/or city standards.
4) The rules and procedures enacted by their supervisors.
Federal OSHA does not have authority over state and local government and therefore does not provide for protection
of state and local government employees. Only requirements enacted by the state, county and /or city would apply to
state and local government workers. A state that has an OSHA approved state plan, is required to include state and
local government workers under the jurisdiction of the state's occupational safety and health plan.
(2004). OSHA, State Occupational Safety and Health Plans. State Occupational Safety and Health Plans. Retrieved
3/1/06.

Federal regulation of worker safety and health is:
1) Affected by a number of federal agency standards.

2) Only covered under the Occupational Safety and Health Administration standards.
3) The responsibility of the employee.
4) Only covered by the Occupation and Health Administration and Environmental Protection Agency.
A number of federal agencies and laws have implications for worker safety and health. OSHA is the agency with
primary responsibility for overseeing and enforcing worker safety and health. The EPA enforces a number of
regulations that directly impact worker safety, particularly related to pollution and exposure of people to pollutants.
The Americans with Disabilities Act covers safety of disabled employees. A number of other agencies and laws
impact safety and health of employees.

The OSHA 300 Log is a document used by companies to record injuries requiring medical treatment more than just
first aid in nature. The data on the OSHA Log 300 can be used to calculate a company's incident rate. The formula for
calculating an incident rate is: Number of injuries x 200,000 / employee hours worked per year .
Company XYZ has 34 employees that have worked an average of 1860 hours during the last year. 22 employees
received first aid treatment from the company nurse. 6 of the employees required further evaluation by a doctor. At the
end of the year, 5 injuries are recorded on Company XYZ's OSHA 300 Log. What is Company XYZ's incident rate?
1) 69.6
2) 19.0
3) 537.6
4) 15.8
5 x 200,000 / (34 x 1860) = 15.8

A general contractor is responsible for the safety of its employees. When a general contractor subcontracts for work to
be accomplished:
1) The general contractor no longer has an employer/employee relationship with the workers. The general contractor
can not be issued an OSHA citation for safety violations related to the workers.
2) The general contractor no longer has an employer/employee relationship with the workers. The general contractor
no longer has responsibility for the safety of the workers.
3) The general contractor no longer has an employer/employee relationship with the workers. Responsibility for the
safety of the workers becomes a complex issue.
4) The general contractor no longer has an employer/employee relationship with the workers. General contactor has
no control over how work is accomplished.
The general contractor no longer has an employer/employee relationship with the workers. Responsibility for the
safety of the workers becomes a complex issue. Many issues are determined or influenced by the wording of the
contractual documents. General contractors usually retain some level of liability for the safety of subcontractors. Even
under OSHA, general contractors are able to be issued a citation for subcontractor safety violations under the OSHA
multi-employer worksite policy.

A number of OSHA standards require that a competent person be designated by an employer. A competent person is
one that:
1) Has been trained in employee safety and health and has passed a certification test. The person is authorized to take
prompt corrective action.
2) Has been appropriately trained and is capable of identifying hazards related to the work at hand. The person is
authorized to take prompt corrective action.
3) Has been trained and authorized by management to be the site safety and health professional with the necessary
authority to fix problems.
4) Has a safety certificate for construction safety and is authorized to stop work.
OSHA defines a competent person as:
"Competent person" means one who is capable of identifying existing and predictable hazards in the surroundings or
working conditions which are unsanitary, hazardous, or dangerous to employees, and who has authorization to take
prompt corrective measures to eliminate them.
OSHA does not require a specific certificate or type of training. A competent person must be knowledgeable and
capable in the area of designation. E.g., a competent person for trenching and excavation would need to know and
understand the standards applicable to trenching and excavation and how to apply them in the field. Formal training is
one method of helping to demonstrate adequate knowledge and understanding, as is a related certification program.
(2006). OSHA. U.S. Department of Labor, OSHA. Retrieved 3/1/06.

Workers' compensation laws exist throughout the United States. Which of the following is most accurate?
1) Workers' compensation laws are very similar and provide the same level of coverage in each state.
2) Workers' compensation laws are enacted at the state level and are not uniform from state to state.
3) Workers' compensation laws protect employers who willfully ignore safety regulations.
4) Some workers' compensation laws do not provide coverage for medical treatment of job related injuries.
Workers' compensation laws exist throughout the United States. Workers' compensation laws are enacted at the state
level but are not uniform from state to state. In some cases there are extreme variations. All workers' compensation
laws have several basic objectives: replace income of injured workers, rehabilitate injured workers, prevent accidents,
and cost allocation.

Workers' compensation is required of employers to cover their employees. Which of the following is most accurate?
1) An hourly employee at a job site is supervised and directed by the general contractor's foreman. The employee is
responsible for cleaning up debris around the jobsite. While removing wood scraps left by a subcontractor, the
employee gets cut by a nail and receives stitches at the local medical facility. The general contractor's workers'
compensation insurance will cover the medical expenses.
2) An hourly employee of a subcontractor arrives on the jobsite. The general contractor's foreman provides the
employee with plans for the installation of a duct system. The employee performs the work and is cut by sheet
metal. The general contractor's workers' compensation insurance will cover the employee's medical costs.
3) An hourly employee at a job site is supervised and directed by the general contractor's foreman. The employee is
employee decides that he could use some of the wood at home. The foreman states that he does not care if the
wood is placed in the trash dumpster or taken home, as long as the worksite is cleared. After work, the employee
drives home and removes the wood from his personal vehicle. During the process he is cut by a nail and receives
stitches at the local medical facility. Because the supervisor said that the employee could take the wood home, the
employee's medical expenses are covered by the general contractor's worker's compensation insurance.
An hourly employee at a job site is supervised and directed by the general contractor's foreman. The employee is
4)
employee is struck by a truck belonging to a subcontractor. The employee's medical expenses are covered by the
general contractor's workers' compensation insurance. Investigation of the accident reveals that the subcontractor's
on-site supervisor had directed a subcontractor employee to use the truck even though the supervisor knew the
truck's brake system had failed and was not working properly. Additionally, the subcontractor had a clear history
at other job sites of using equipment that they knew were not properly maintained and with failed safety systems.
Since the general contractor's employee had his medical expenses covered by workers' compensation, the injured
employee can not file a civil suit against the subcontractor.
Workers' compensation covers an employee when the injury arises out of employment or in the course of employment.
A general definition of an employee is a person that receives compensation from a company, is supervised by a
representative of the company and is directed by a representative of the company. The case of the employee being
injured at home while unloading lumber for personal use did not occur while in the course of employment or arise out
of employment.
Employees of subcontractors are not employees of the general contractor. In the case of the duct installation, the
general contractor did not supervise or direct the subcontractor's employee.
While workers' compensation provides a level of protection from civil lawsuits for the employer, it does not generally
protect third parties from civil suit.

The purpose of workers' compensation is to provide workers with compensation of medical expenses and lost wages
that result from work related injuries. Which of the following is most accurate?
1) Workers' compensation provides for full reimbursement of an employee's lost wages resulting from a permanent
disability. All medical expenses are covered and rehabilitation is provided.
2) Workers' compensation generally covers compensation for temporary and permanent disability and benefits to the
spouse and dependents of workers who are fatally injured on the job. Lost wage compensation is often provided at
some percentage of the employee's wage.
3) Worker's compensation for a permanent disability, such as the loss of a hand is approximately the same
throughout the United States. A single nation-wide schedule of compensation is followed by the states.
4) Worker's compensation for a temporary total disability is provided for the duration of the disability regardless of
the state in which the employer is located. Additionally, death benefits are provided to cover all costs of burial.
Workers' compensation generally covers compensation for temporary and permanent disability and benefits to the
spouse and dependents of workers who are fatally injured on the job. Lost wage compensation is often provided at
some percentage of the employee's wage. Workers' compensation laws vary from state to state and the rates of
compensation vary based on the laws. In some cases, there is extreme variation.

The OSH Act of 1970 established the Occupational Safety and Health Administration "to assure so far as possible
every working man and woman in the nation safe and healthful working conditions and to preserve our human
resources." The OSH Act covers:
1) Most employers in all geographical areas under the jurisdiction of the U.S. Government.
2) All employers in the 50 states plus the District of Columbia.
3) All employees of large companies, federal government along with local and state governments. However, self
employed persons are not covered.
4) All employees of large companies, federal government along with local and state governments. Coverage includes
coal mines and government employees.
The OSH Act provides coverage for most employees in all geographical areas under the jurisdiction of the U.S.
Government. Self-employed persons, family farms and state and local governments are exempt. Coal miners are
exempt from OSHA because they are covered under other programs.

OSHA promulgate standards that employers must comply with. Standards are promulgated to cover many different
industries and activities. This has resulted in a thick book of OSHA standards. Which of the following is most
correct?
1) OSHA has developed specific standards for obvious and known workplace hazards. OSH Act provides for OSHA
to develop new standards when new hazards are discovered. Until the new standards are developed, OSHA must
work cooperatively with employers to protect employees from the newly discovered hazards.
2) NIOSH developed standards and OSHA enforces the standards.
3) OSHA has developed specific standards for obvious and known workplace hazards. OSH Act also has a General
Duty Clause that allows OSHA to issue a citation for failure to control hazards that are not covered by a specific
standard.
4) Congress enacted the OSH Act and developed the safety and health standards that OSHA enforces.

OSHA has developed specific standards for obvious and known workplace hazards. OSH Act also has a General Duty
Clause that allows OSHA to issue a citation for failure to control hazards that are not covered by a specific standard.
The General Duty Clause requires employers to provide a workplace that is free from hazards that may harm
employees. The General Duty Clause is used by OSHA when there is no specific OSHA standard.

Federal standards and regulations are part of the Code of Federal Regulations (CFR). OSHA standards are published
in which title of the CFR?
1) 49
2) 29
3) 10
4) 40
Title 29 contains the OSHA regulations; Title 49 contains the Department of Transportation regulations. Title 40
contains the Environmental Protection Agency regulations. Title 10 contains the Department of Energy regulations.

OSHA has a process that must be followed to enact new or modified standards. Which of the following is most
correct?
1) OSHA must carefully develop proposed rules and get congressional approval prior to enacting them.
2) OSHA inspectors develop standards based on their inspection experience. The standards are reviewed and
approved by NIOSH and then enacted.
3) OSHA must provide public notice of the intent to make a rule and provide the public the opportunity to comment
on proposed rules.
4) OSHA published proposed standards and establishes a court date to appear before an administrative judge. If there
are no objections from the public, OSHA is able to enact the standards.
OSHA must follow a detailed process for the promulgation of new or revised standards. The process includes the
requirement to publish proposed rule in the federal register and to allow an opportunity for industry and the public to
comment.

OSHA has defined an occupational injury as:
1) Any injury that results in an abnormal condition or disorder.

2) Any injury resulting from acute or chronic exposure to any agent through inhalation, absorption, ingestion, or
direct contact.
3) Any injury resulting from an abnormal condition or disorder caused by exposure to environmental factors
associated with employment.
4) Any injury such as a cut, fracture, sprain, or amputation that results from a work-related accident or from exposure
involving a single incident in the work environment.
OSHA has defined an occupational injury as any injury such as a cut, fracture, sprain, or amputation that results from
a work-related accident or from exposure involving a single incident in the work environment.
An occupational illness is any abnormal condition or disorder other than one resulting from an occupational injury
caused by exposure to environmental factors associated with employment.

When an OSH inspector discovers a violation, OSHA may issue a citation to the employer. The employer:
1) Must pay the fine and correct the violation in the time period provided in the citation.
2) Must appeal the citation to a federal court.
3) May punish employees that provided information to the OSHA compliance officer.
4) May accept the citation, pay the fine and correct the violations.
When an employer receives a citation from OSHA, the employer may accept the citation, pay the fine and correct the
violations, or the employer may appeal the citation. There is a clear process and schedule for appealing a citation.
Generally, the first step is to request an informal conference with the OSHA area director. An employer may also file
a formal notice of contest with the OSHA area director within 15 days of receiving the citation.

OSHA construction standards can be found in:
1) 29 CFR 1926
2) 29 CFR 1910
3) 49 CFR 1920
4) 49 CFR 1911
OSHA construction standards can be found in 29 CFR 1926 .

General industry standards are contained in 29 CFR 1910.
(2006). OSHA. U.S. Department of Labor, OSHA. Retrieved 3/1/06.

The OSHA standards (29 CFR 1926 .52) indicates that the noise exposure limit for an 8-hour day is 90 dBA. Which of
the following is most accurate?
1) With exception of the allowance for several 15-minute excursions, the 90 dBA limit is never to be exceeded.
2) All noise exposures for the 8-hour period are averaged to determine the dose. As long as the average is below 90
dBA, the standard has been met.
3) With exception of a few conditions, the 90 dBA is an average value for the 8-hour period.
4) 90 dBA is not the OSHA 8-hour time weighted average.
With exception of a few conditions, the 90 dBA is an average value for the 8-hour period. The primary exception in
the construction standards is that exposure to impulsive or impact noise should never exceed 140 dBA.
(2011). OSHA Construction Regulations. Safety and Health Regulations for Construction . Retrieved 1/24/12.

29 CFR 1926.62 contains the requirements for protecting construction workers that might be exposed to lead. The
standard requires:
1) That all construction work be covered by a program involving exposure monitoring, medical surveillance,
information and training and PPE.
2) That all construction work that may expose workers to lead shall be covered by a program that requires workers to
limit their exposure to lead.
3) That all construction work on facilities built before 1978 shall include a program involving exposure monitoring,
medical surveillance, information and training and PPE.
4) That all construction work that may expose workers to lead shall be covered by a program involving exposure
monitoring, medical surveillance, information and training and PPE.
29 CFR 1926.62 requires that all construction work that may expose workers to lead be covered by a program
involving exposure monitoring, medical surveillance, information and training and PPE.

When work at a construction site requires respirators:
1) Employees must be trained and supplied with appropriate respirators. Respirators must be cleaned and maintained
and the employees are required to be fit tested for the specific respirators to be used.
2) Employers must ensure that employees are trained and qualified to use the respirators whether supplied by the
employer or the employee. Respirators must be cleaned and maintained and the employees are required to be fit
tested for the specific respirators to be used.
3) Employees must be trained and supplied with appropriate respirators. Respirators must be cleaned and maintained
and the employees are required to be fit tested for the specific respirators to be used. Employees over 40 years of
age are required to have medical evaluation prior to using respirators.
4) Employees must be trained and supplied with appropriate respirators within the first 30 days on the job.
Respirators must be cleaned and maintained and the employees are required to be fit tested for the specific
respirators to be used. Training and qualification must include a medical evaluation.
Employees must be trained and supplied with appropriate respirators. Respirators must be cleaned and maintained and
the employees are required to be fit tested for the specific respirators to be used. All employees using respirators are
required to have a medical evaluation. Training and evaluations must take place prior to use of respirators. When
respirators are required, the employer is required to provide them.

Construction activities generate considerable waste. Which of the following is most accurate?
1) Federal regulations require all large construction sites to segregate construction waste between recyclable
materials, regular waste and hazardous waste.
2) Waste must be disposed of in accordance with local, state and federal regulations. All construction debris can be
handled by solid waste haulers. Since there are few special wastes generated by construction, all waste can be
disposed of in the dumpsters provided at a job site.
3) Waste must be disposed of in accordance with local, state and federal regulations. General construction debris can
be handled by solid waste haulers. Hazardous waste must be handled separately and disposed of properly.
4) All construction debris must be disposed of at licensed construction and demolition debris landfills. As long as the
debris landfill is licensed for construction and demolition debris, all construction waste can be disposed of there.
The majority of waste generated by construction activities is non-hazardous solid waste and can be disposed of in
appropriately licensed landfills. Hazardous waste must be identified and properly stored, transported and disposed of.
Hazardous waste can not be disposed of in most landfills. There are no federal requirements for all large construction
projects to recycle construction debris.

Construction projects often occur at sites where previous industrial activities have occurred. Sometimes the previous
activities have caused environmental contamination. The purpose of the construction project may be to clean up the
contamination or it may be to appropriately re-use a contaminated site (often referred to as Brown Fields). What act
applies to environmentally contaminated sites?
1) FISMAct
2) MSHAct
3) CSBFAct
4) CERCLAct
The Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation and Liabilities Act is the primary act governing the
response to, management of and clean up of environmentally contaminated sites.

OSHA requires emergency fire safety plans for the work site. The plans must include procedures for:
1) Evacuation, accountability rescue, notification and funding for recovery.

2) Escape or evacuation, critical operations shutdown, worker accountability, rescue, reporting and contact
information.
3) Escape or evacuation, critical operations shutdown, confined space clearance, worker accountability, rescue, and
reporting.
4) Safe storage of flammable liquids, escape or evacuation, worker accountability, rescue, reporting and contact
information.
OSHA requires emergency fire safety plans to include procedures for escape or evacuation, critical operations
shutdown, worker accountability, rescue, reporting and contact information.

The primary source for requirements applicable to permanent wiring is the:
1) CFR.
2) NEC.
3) NBC.
4) NESC.
The National Electric Code (NEC), published by the National Fire Protection Association is the primary source for
requirements applicable to permanent wiring and most other building electrical considerations.

Employers in residential construction activities do not have to follow the normal fall protection methods:
1) When they are performing most residential construction activities under a developed fall protection plan.
2) When they are performing residential construction activities on buildings of 2 stories or less.
3) When they have less than 20 employees working on single story buildings.
4) When they are following the NIOSH alternative fall protection plan for residential construction.
Employers can use a fall protection plan in lieu of applying the normal fall protection requirements when they are
performing most residential construction activities.

The OSHA steel erection standards apply to:
1) Only multistory building construction.

2) Steel erection of buildings, tanks and communication towers.
3) Construction, alternation and repair of multi-story buildings, bridges and electrical transmission towers.
4) Primary and ancillary activities occurring during the steel erection activities of construction, alteration or repair of
buildings.
The OSHA steel erection standard is intended to protect employees from steel erection hazards when involved in the
construction, alteration, or repair of:
single-story buildings
multi-story buildings
bridges
other structures where steel erection occurs.
The requirements apply to all employers engaged in steel erection unless otherwise specified. It does not cover
electrical transmission towers, communication and broadcast towers, or tanks.

Fall protection for steel erection activities is covered:
1) By special fall protection provisions of the steel erection standard.

2) By special provisions of the general fall protection standards for construction.
3) By the general fall protection standards for construction.
4) To provide for 100% fall protection for all workers more than 6 feet above the ground level.
Fall protection for steel erection activities is covered by special fall protection provisions of the steel erection
standard. The steel erections standard recognizes several unique circumstances of the steel erection process.

Provisions of the steel erection standard include:
I. Site layout
II. Hoisting and rigging
III. Confined space
IV. Worker Training
V. Falling object protection
1) II, III and V

2) I, II, III and V
3) I, II, IV and V
4) II, III, IV and V
Provisions of the steel erection standard include:

Site layout
Hoisting and rigging
Structural steel stability requirements
System engineered metal buildings
Falling object protections
Fall protection
Worker training

Jacking operations are being performed in full compliance with regulations with proper equipment and safeguards.
The professional engineer's plan is being followed and the first two slabs have been secured. Four additional slabs are
required to be lifted in the structure. Work may progress in the structure as long as:
1) The professional engineer that designed and planned the lift operation has provided and certified that the structure
has been reinforced sufficiently to ensure its integrity.
2) The workers performing the other work do not work directly under a slab that is being lifted.
3) The professional engineer that designed and planned the lift operation has provided that the structure has been
reinforced sufficiently to ensure its integrity and this has been certified by an independent professional engineer.
4) All lifting slab operations must be completed. There are no situations where workers not required for the lift slab
operation can be within the same structure as the lift slab operation.
29 CFR 1926.705 (k)(1)

No employee, except those essential to the jacking operation, shall be permitted in the building/structure while any
jacking operation is taking place unless the building/structure has been reinforced sufficiently to ensure its integrity
during erection. The phrase "reinforced sufficiently to ensure its integrity" used in this paragraph means that a
registered professional engineer, independent of the engineer who designed and planned the lifting operation, has
determined from the plans that if there is a loss of support at any jack location, that loss will be confined to that
location and the structure as a whole will remain stable.
29 CFR 1926.705 (k)(2)

Under no circumstances, shall any employee who is not essential to the jacking operation be permitted immediately
beneath a slab while it is being lifted.
29 CFR 1926.705 (k)(3)

For the purpose of paragraph (k) of this section, a jacking operation begins when a slab or group of slabs is lifted and
ends when such slabs are secured (with either temporary connections or permanent connections).

Protection of erectors involved in field construction of electrical transmission towers is covered by:
1) OSHA General Construction Standards.

2) OSHA Steel Erection Standards.
3) MSHA Tower Constructions Standards.
4) The National Electric Code.
The General Construction standards for fall protection apply. Steel erection standards specifically exclude electrical
transmission towers. MSHA is the Mine Safety and Health Agency which does not regulate electrical transmission
towers. The National Electric Code may contain standards for the design of electrical transmission components, but it
does not address general safety of workers constructing transmission towers.

A slab is being lifted by a series of jacks. All jacks and other equipment are fully compliant with regulatory
requirements and the operation is progressing exactly as specified by the professional engineer. A single jack lifting
function fails and the slab begins to move down on the side where the jack is located. What is the first action that the
construction supervisor should take?
1) Immediately evacuate all workers from the areas at risk of collapse.

2) Contact the professional engineer to obtain appropriate direction for dealing with the failure.
3) The situation would not occur.
4) Immediately place shoring in the area where the slab is moving down and replace the failed jack.
This situation would not occur as described in the problem statement. The problem statement identifies that all
equipment is compliant with regulatory requirements. According to 29 CFR 1926.705(f), Jacks/lifting units shall have
a safety device installed which will cause the jacks/lifting units to support the load in any position in the event any
jack lifting unit malfunctions or loses its lifting ability. Thus, the slab would not begin to move in a downward
direction; it would remain at the position where the lifting function failed.

Progression of steel erection shall include:
1) A fully planked or decked floor or nets within two stories or 30 feet, whichever is less, directly under any erection
work being performed.
2) The installation of permanent floors as soon as each level of steel is placed and connected.
3) The completion of welding or bolting on all levels except for a maximum of two levels which may be in progress
for completion.
4) The maintenance of structural integrity at all times for levels that have been fully planked or had permanent
flooring completed.
As steel erection progresses the following must be accomplished:
- Structural stability shall be maintained at all times during the erection process.
- The following additional requirements shall apply for multi-story structures:
- The permanent floors shall be installed as the erection of structural members progresses, and there shall be not more
than eight stories between the erection floor and the upper-most permanent floor, except where the structural integrity
is maintained as a result of the design.
- At no time shall there be more than four floors or 48 feet (14.6 m), whichever is less, of unfinished bolting or
welding above the foundation or uppermost permanently secured floor, except where the structural integrity is
maintained as a result of the design.
- A fully planked or decked floor or nets shall be maintained within two stories or 30 feet (9.1 m), whichever is less,
directly under any erection work being performed.

In underground construction activities, a chamber through which men pass from one air pressure environment into
another is a:
1) Materials lock.
2) Crew lock.
3) Medical lock.
4) Man lock.

Man lock-A chamber through which men pass from one air pressure environment into another.
Retrieved 3/23/06.

The American Table of Distances is the:
1) Table of distance determined to be safe evacuation zones for nuclear accidents by the Health Physics Society.
2) Table of distances for road construction operations published by the U.S. Department of Transportation.
3) Table of distances for storage of explosives as revised and approved by the Institute of the Makers of Explosives.
4) Table of distances for off-sets during crane lifting operations published by the crane manufacturer.
American Table of Distances (also known as Quantity Distance Tables). This means American Table of Distances for
Storage of Explosives as revised and approved by the Institute of the Makers of Explosives (IME).

Prior to performing soil density testing at a highway construction project, which regulatory agency might you need
approval from?
1) NRC
2) EPA
3) EPA
4) FDA
Soil density testing is often accomplished using a density meter that employs radioactive materials. The radioactive
materials generally require a byproduct license issued by the Nuclear Regulatory Commission or an approved state
agency.

Stairs or ladders must be provided when there is a change in surface elevation of ______ or more and there is not an
appropriate ramp, slope, runway or approved personnel hoist.
1) 2 feet
2) 4 feet
3) 19 inches
4) 33 inches
A change in elevation of 19 inches or more creates the need for stairs, ladder, ramp, slope, or runway.

Jacking operations are required to be synchronized such that the slab stay level and uniform lifting occurs. A tolerance
of ______ is allowed from an absolute level position.
1) ¼ inch
2) ½ inch
3) 1 inch
4) 6 inches
29 CFR 1926.705 (g)

Jacking operations shall be synchronized in such a manner to ensure even and uniform lifting of the slab. During
lifting, all points at which the slab is supported shall be kept within 1/2 inch of that needed to maintain the slab in a
level position.

In construction activities, trench shoring is required by OSHA, from a depth of ______ feet or deeper, in soft or
unstable material.
1) 2 feet
2) 4 feet
3) 5 feet
4) 10 feet
29 CFR 1926.652 requires shoring of trenches when they are 5 feet or deeper in soft or unstable material. Alternatives
to shoring include: sheeting, bracing or sloping.

The primary reason for enclosing a grinding wheel is which of the following?
1) Collect dust
2) Contain wheel breakage
3) Easier to use
4) Prevent wheel from breaking
An enclosure will prevent wheel fragments from entering the work area given a wheel break.

A procedure to make a job safe by identifying hazards in each step of the job and developing measures to counteract
those hazards is:
1) Time and Motion.

2) Fault Tree.
3) Job Safety Analysis.
4) Probabilistic Risk Assessment.
Job Safety Analysis examines job hazards during each step of the job.

Arrange the following steps in hazard control in the proper sequence:
1. Guard the hazard

2. Engineer the hazard out if possible
3. Educate personnel
1) 2,1,3
2) 3,1,2
3) 1,2,3
4) 3,2,1
The proper sequence in hazard control is to engineer out, guard, and educate.

The concept of "hierarchy of needs" was developed by:
1) Freud.
2) Maslow.
3) Jung.
4) MacGregor.
Maslow's hierarchy of needs is a critical component of many management theories dealing with human needs.

A method of identifying errors and unsafe conditions that contribute to both potential and actual injurious accidents
within a given population by means of a stratified random sample of participants - observers selected from within this
population is:

2) Procedural analysis.
3) Critical incident technique.
4) Operating and support hazard analysis.
Critical incident technique is a method of identifying errors and unsafe conditions that contribute to both potential and
actual injurious accidents within a given population by means of a stratified random sample of participants - observers
selected from within this population.

An average of all the deviations about the mean in a sample that is arithmetically defined as the square root of the
mean of the squared deviations of measurements from the mean is:
1) Sample Distribution.
2) Standard Deviation.
3) Statistical Significance.
4) Skewness.
"Standard Deviation" is the square root of the sum of the squared deviations from the mean of all the observations.
The variance is the square of the standard deviation.

The tendency of a distribution to depart from symmetry or balance around the mean is called:
1) Range.
2) Skewness.
3) Mode.
4) Confidence Level.
"Skewness" describes the abnormal tails of a distribution. In an ideal situation the tails are symmetrical. This is not
true in the real world, therefore a measure of the departure from the ideal shape is needed. This is the source of the
descriptions like, "the distribution is skewed to the left".

Compute the mode, given the following sample distribution: 10, 10, 15, 25, 35.
1) 10
2) 15
3) 25
4) 35
The mode is the sample measurement that occurs most frequently.

Compute the mean, given the following sample distribution: 10, 10, 15, 25, 35.
1) 19
2) 17
3) 21
4) 23
The mean is the sum of the measurements divided by the total number of measurements i.e. the average value.

The correlation formula is used to evaluate the relationship between two variables of the same interval. Select the best
correlation.
1) 0.05
2) 0.50
3) 0.92
4) 1.006
1.0 is a perfect positive correlation, -1.0 is a perfect negative correlation, and 0 is no correlation, therefore 0.92 is the
best correlation. Correlations above 1 are impossible.

The major cause of on-the-job fatalities in the United States is:
1) Employee slips, trips and falls.

2) Employee motor vehicle use.
3) Logging.
4) Machinery.
The single largest culprit as regards on-the-job fatalities are motor vehicles. They account for about a third of all
deaths.

Which of the following is likely to increase proneness to skin problems?
1) Dry skin
2) Oily skin
3) Fair skin
4) All of the above
Dry, oily or fair skin make the individual more susceptible to one form or another of skin disorders.

The most prevalent occupational disease is:
1) Black lung.
2) Silicosis.
3) Asbestosis.
4) Dermatitis.
Dermatitis is the most prevalent occupational disease. It occurs in most every industry and occupation, since skin
irritants and sensitizers are used throughout industry. The other answers are restricted to specific exposures to
employees in certain industries.

The correct term for hearing loss that can be induced by occupational exposure to noise is:
1) Presbycusis.
2) Sociocusis.
3) Sensorineural.
4) Conductive.
Presbycusis is hearing loss due to age. Sociocusis is loss due to background noise. Conductive loss is a loss between
the outer ear and the cochlea.

When a vacuum cleaner is used to clean up asbestos containing wastes, it must have ______ _________ exhaust ports.
1) Well maintained
2) HEPA filtered
3) Pressure demand
4) Demand only
All vacuum cleaners used for asbestos containing material (ACM), MUST have HEPA filtered exhausts.

When hazards from operating machinery cannot be eliminated, ________ provides protection to the employee from
inadvertent contact with a moving or dangerous part.
1) Training
2) Guarding
3) Personal protective equipment
4) Administrative controls
Where hazards cannot be eliminated, guarding provides protection against potential failure of people to utilize
equipment correctly. Both safe design and guarding minimize the effect of individual differences on accident
frequency or severity.

The type and magnitude of effects from exposure to electromagnetic radiation is dependent on what factors?
1) Distance and time

2) Source and distance
3) Time and source
4) Time and intensity
The aspect of time is simply the fact that the longer a person is exposed to radiation source, the greater the injury that
can result. Intensity depends on the strength of source, the existence and amount of any shielding, and the distance
from the source.

The function of a catalyst is to:
1) Change the ratio of products.

2) Alter the ratio of products and the rate of reaction.
3) Change the rate of reactions.
4) Modify the products forthcoming from the reaction.
The function of a catalyst is to change the rate of a reaction. Usually catalysts greatly increase the reaction rate but
undergoes no permanent change itself.

The two most common techniques employed for the control of bioagents are:
1) Ventilation and housekeeping.

2) Housekeeping and disinfection.
3) Disinfection and sterilization.
4) Sterilization and housekeeping.
Disinfection and sterilization are the two most common techniques used to control bioagents. It is important to note
disinfection and sterilization are not synonymous operations. To disinfect means to get rid of some pathogenic
microorganisms that cause infection, but does not imply complete destruction of all that are harmful, whereas,
sterilization means the absolute destruction of all living organisms.

Light passes through the crystalline lens in the eye and focuses on the:
1) Cornea.
2) Iris.
3) Pupil.
4) Retina.
Light enters the eye through the pupil, travels through the transparent crystalline lens, then travels through the vitreous
humor (eyeball) and finally focuses on the retina.

Neutrons are known to penetrate matter readily mainly because:
1) They are much smaller in size than electrons or protons.

2) They have less mass than either electrons or protons.
3) They are electrically neutral.
4) They possess more energy than electrons or protons.
Neutrons are electrically neutral. Compared with electrons and protons, their volume is almost the same. The mass of
a neutron is slightly more than that of a proton. Characteristically, atoms contain much empty space which neutrons
can travel through without experiencing electric forces from electrons and nuclei because they are electrically neutral.

Which of the following chemicals is not combustible?
1) Carbon black
2) Sulfur
3) Lamp black
4) Sodium chloride
Basically, all organic chemicals are combustible and inorganic chemicals (ie. sodium chloride or salt) are
non-combustible. Before ignition can occur, they must be preheated.

An experiment involving sound requires the use of an oscilloscope. On the screen, the loudness of sound should be
viewed as a function of:
1) Wavelength.
2) Frequency.
3) Amplitude.
4) Weighted sound levels.
The intensity of sound is characterized by its loudness, e.g. the louder the sound, the greater the amplitude of its wave
motion. On the oscilloscope, the sound wave would appear as an alternating wave motion whose amplitude adjusts to
the sound volume.

Most people, especially the young, can hear sounds between:
1) 10 HZ and 12,000 HZ.

2) 10 HZ and 20,000 HZ.
3) 20 HZ and 12,000 HZ.
4) 20 HZ and 20,000 HZ.
Most people, especially the young, can hear tones within a range of 20 HZ (cycles per second), up to 20,000 HZ. A
steady loss of hearing occurs as people grow older. A person in their sixties often cannot hear frequencies above
12,000 HZ. This phenomenon is known as presbycusis.

1 g-mole of an ideal gas at 0ºC and 760 mm Hg occupies:
1) 22.40 liters
2) 23.40 liters
3) 24.45 liters
4) 28.65 liters
The molar volume of an ideal gas at STP is 22.4 liters. STP (Standard Temperature and Pressure) is 0ºC and 1 atm
(760 mm Hg).
The Ideal Gas Law is:
PV = nRT
Where:
P = Pressure
V = Volume
n = number of mass-moles of gas
R = the appropriate gas constant
T = Temperature (absolute scale)
In this case, P = 760 mm Hg, n = 1 g-mole, T = 273° K, and we will want V in liters. We then select the gas constant,
R, as 62.4 (liter-mm Hg/g-mol-K) because we want to match the other units we already have, and we want the volume
in liters. Therefore, substitute these numbers into the Ideal Gas Law equation and solve for V.
PV = nRT
V = (nRT/P)
V = (1 g-mol * 62.4 liter-mm Hg/g-mol-°K * 273° K) / 760 mm Hg
V = 22.41 liters
(NOTE: When performing these gas calculations, take care to ensure that the units cancel appropriately.)

A _______ is a material that increases the rate of a chemical reaction without being used up in the chemical reaction.
1) Buffer
2) Catalyst
3) Redox agent
4) Solute
A catalyst is a material that participates in and speeds up a chemical reaction but is not used up in the reaction.
Catalysts act by lowering the energy of activation for the reaction.

Carbon monoxide is formed by:
1) Degradation of carbon dioxide.

2) High temperature combustion is greater than 700°C.
3) Incomplete combustion.
4) Chlorofluorocarbon interaction.
Carbon monoxide is an intermediate oxidation product of carbon. If enough oxygen were present, the carbon would
have been oxidized to carbon dioxide. When there is insufficient oxygen to oxidize the carbon to carbon dioxide,
carbon monoxide is formed.

Concentrations of gases and vapors are commonly expressed as:
1) Parts per million by weight.

2) Parts per million by volume.
3) Mppcf.
4) Particles per million.
Gases and vapors are not particles and therefore cannot be measured in mppcf or the fictitious measure, particles per
million. Ppm by volume is the right answer.

Which of the following equations is correct?

1) V1T1 = V2T2
2) V1/P1 =V2 /P2
3) PT = nRV
4) Ppm =(mg/M 3 * 24.45)/MW
Only answer 4 is correct.

Disinfection means:
1) Killing/removing all organisms.

2) Reducing the number of organisms so there is no threat of disease.
3) Removing microorganisms from skin or living tissue.
4) Stopping growth of microorganisms.
Disinfection is used on inanimate objects for reducing the number of pathogens so low that there is no threat of
disease. Sterilization is the killing/removing of all organisms from a surface. Antisepsis is the removal of microbes
from the skin or living tissue. Bacteriostatic agents stop bacterial growth.

Bacterial and viral disinfectants work in all of the following ways EXCEPT:
1) Alteration of protein structure

2) Disruption of lipids in cell membrane
3) Destruction of nuclear membrane
4) Nucleic acid destruction
Viruses and bacteria have no nucleus or nuclear membrane to disrupt or destroy. Disinfectants work through action on
proteins, cell membranes, and viral nucleic acids.

In which media does sound travel at the slowest speed?
1) Air
2) Water
3) Wood
4) Steel
The speed of sound is directly related to the density of the media it travels through. In this case, air is the least dense
media and sound travels at 1,130 ft/second. In steel, sound travels at 16,500 ft/second.

What is not an acceptable method of controlling static discharge?
1) Grounding
2) Bonding
3) Conductive flooring
4) Open Circuits
Open circuits are not an acceptable method of controlling static discharge.

The term Self-Accelerating Decomposition Temperature (SADT), is defined as:

1) The maximum temperature of a liquid at which it gives off vapor sufficient to form an ignitable mixture with air.
2) The minimum temperature of a liquid at which it gives off vapor sufficient to form an ignitable mixture with air.
3) The ambient temperature at which a self-sustaining chemical reaction of stored organic peroxides will occur.
4) The rate of decomposition of certain organic peroxides when stored at very high temperatures.
The SADT is determined for stored organic peroxides. It is the ambient temperature at which a run-away reaction will
likely occur.

How many BTU's are required to raise the temperature of 1 pound of water from 32°F to 212°F?
1) 180 Btu
2) 242 Btu
3) 444 Btu
4) 132 Btu
1 Btu is the heat required to raise 1 lb. of water 1° F (assuming that the heat capacity of water remains constant
throughout the temperature range).
Energy = 212 - 32 = 180
Energy = 180°F * 1 Btu/°F = 180 BTU

An oxygen tank is filled with oxygen at an absolute pressure of 1000 pounds per square inch at 17°C. The internal
volume of the tank is 1 ft 3 The oxygen is used in high-altitude safety simulations at an absolute pressure of 10 pounds
per square inch at -27°C. How many cubic feet of oxygen can be supplied by the tank under these conditions?
1) 70 ft3
2) 75 ft3
3) 80 ft3
4) 85 ft3
Use the Gas Formula:

P1 V1 / T1 = P2 V2 / T2
1000 * 1 / 17 +273 = 10x / 273 - 27
1000 / 290 = 10x / 246
246,000 = 2,900x
x = 84.8

The centrifugal force is 900 lbs. when the radius is 24 inches. Compute the force when the radius is 18 1/2 inches.
1) 565.32 lbs
2) 56.53 lbs
3) 1,168 lbs
4) 754.33 lbs
Use the formula:

F1 D1 = F2 D2 where F = force and D = diameter
(900)(48) = F2 (37) where D 1 = (2)(24) and D2 = (2)(18.5)
43,200 = F2 (37)
F2 = 1167.56 ~ 1168

A combustible liquid is best defined by which of the following?
1) Any liquid having a flash point above 100°F and below 140°F
2) Any liquid having a flash point at or above 100°F
3) Any liquids having a flash point above 140°F
4) Class II liquids having flash points at or above 100°F and below 140°F
A combustible liquid is any liquid having a flash point at or above 100°F. Flammable and combustible liquids are
subdivided into classes with combustible being:
Class II - flash points at or above 100°F and below 140°F
Class III - flash points at or above 140°F

A flammable liquid is best defined by which of the following?
1) Any liquid having a flash point below 73°F and a boiling point below 100°F
2) Any liquid having a flash point below 100°F and a vapor pressure not exceeding 40 psia at 100°F
3) Any liquid having flash points at or above 100°F and below 140°F
4) Any liquid having a flash point below 73°F and having a boiling point at or above 100°F
A flammable liquid is any liquid having a flash point below 100°F and having a vapor pressure not exceeding 40 psia
at 100°F. Flammable and combustible liquids are subdivided into classes with Class I having a flash point below
100°F, Class II having flash points at or above 100°F and Class III having flash points above 140°F.

Which of the following has the most potential for fire and explosion?
1) Acetone
2) Acetylene
3) Gasoline
4) Hydrogen
The range of flammable limits for acetylene (2.5 to 81 percent acetylene in air) is greater than that of other commonly
used gases, with consequently greater hazard.

Automatic sprinkler systems seldom fail to control fires, however, when a failure does occur the dominant cause is:
1) Foreign material obstructing the piping system.

2) Freezing of water in the piping system.
3) Improperly closed supply valve.
4) Inadequate supply of water.
Factory Mutual records cite PIV's, improperly closed valves, to be the dominant cause for automatic sprinkler system
failure. This occurs most often because of maintenance related actions that necessitate system shutdown followed by
failure to open the valve after work has been completed. Shutting off the supply valves prematurely during a fire is
another leading cause for failure.

Which of the following smoke detectors will accurately detect most fires more rapidly than the others?
1) Rate-of-rise thermal
2) Ionizing
3) Reflected beam photoelectric
4) Bulb detection system
Ionizing detectors sense fire at the earliest practical detection stage. They sense both visible and invisible products of
combustion which enters a chamber containing positive and negative plates and a very minute amount of radioactive
material that ionizes the air in the chamber. The movement of ions between plates sets up a small current that triggers
an alarm.

Which of the following portable fire extinguishers should not be used to extinguish a small fire in a confined space?
1) ABC dry chemical

2) Carbon dioxide
3) Water
4) BC dry chemical
The break down of CO2 to CO in a confined space could lead to asphyxiation.

A Class C fire involves:
1) Ordinary combustibles.
2) Live electrical equipment.
3) Combustible metals.
4) Flammable liquids.
Class A fires involve ordinary combustibles.

Class B fires involve flammable or combustible liquids.
Class C fires involve live electrical equipment.
Class D fires involve combustible metals.

A Class I, Division I hazard includes all of the following EXCEPT:
1) A closed loop system of flammable solvent

2) An open vat of flammable solvent
3) A cleaning operation involving flammable solvent
4) A flammable solvent degreasing tank
Class I Division I systems involve operations where flammable solvent vapors are always present.

A combustible gas meter works on the principle of:
1) Wheatstone bridge.
2) Ionization.
3) Thermalization.
4) Disintegration.
The combustible gas meter works on the wheatstone bridge principle. A wheatstone bridge is an electronic circuit that
is capable of detecting very small changes in current flow.

An explosion involving a detonation has the following features EXCEPT:
1) Pressure front moves supersonically

2) Potential for extreme destruction exists
3) Blowout panels and rupture disks can vent explosion
4) Blowout panels and rupture disks are useless
Due to the supersonic nature of the pressure front after a detonation, blowout panels and rupture disks are useless. The
Accident Prevention Manual discusses explosions and explosion suppression.

An explosion meter reads 10%. What does this mean?
1) Concentration is 10% of the lower explosive limit

2) Concentration is 10% of the upper explosive limit
3) Concentration is flammable
4) 100,000 ppm

Explosion meters read in percentage of the Lower Explosive Limit (LEL). For example, if a compound's LEL were
10%, then a 10% reading on an explosion meter indicates an actual atmospheric concentration of 1%.

TRAINING :Determine Training Needs
The tendency for an individual who finds himself in a frustrating circumstance and reverts to an earlier form of
behavior, such as putting on a temper tantrum is called:
1) Negativism.
2) Aggression.
3) Reactivity.
4) Regression.
Regression is the tendency of an individual who finds himself in a frustrating situation to revert to an earlier form of
behavior, for example, a temper tantrum.

Traditional safety program components utilized to influence employee attitudes and behavior are identified with:
2) Posters, booklets, green stamps.
3) Education and Training.
awards, dinners, prizes and even green stamps are utilized.

Human performance is a function of:
1) Age and sex.

2) Attitude and motivation.
3) Training and motivation.
4) (Aptitude + training) * motivation.
Human performance is a function of (aptitude + training) * motivation

In Maslow's theory of human motivation, a human's fundamental need is physiological. According to his theory, after
fulfilling physiological necessities, humans pursue their needs for safety/security, social interaction, ____________,
and self-actualization.
1) Religious realization
2) Selfishness
3) Selflessness
4) Self-esteem
Before pursuing higher needs, Maslow's theory states that humans must fulfill their fundamental needs.

Which of the following is the best way to reduce unsafe acts?
1) The swift and sure application of negative reinforcement for unsafe acts
2) Studying the behavior pattern and its underlying root causes
3) Consistently applying positive consequences to reinforce appropriate behavior
4) Encouraging behavior avoidance through the application of rewards

Studies have shown that the systematic positive reinforcement of appropriate behavior (including behavioral changes)
is highly effective toward improving employee attitudes and behavior.

A supervisor's job responsibilities include the 3-E's principles. Which of the following would not be included under the
3-E's?
1) Make sure employees comply with safety rules and procedures.

2) Instruct employees in how to work safely.
3) Establish a safety program.
4) Determine ways for eliminating injury/illness potential out of the job.
The supervisor's job involves:

ENGINEERING - to determine the most effective way of doing the job and designing the injury/illness potential out
of the job.
EDUCATION - to instruct the employee in the right method and through training improve job skill, knowledge and
behavior.
ENFORCEMENT - to make sure the employee follows the prescribed work practice and complies with safety rules
and procedures.

Employees assigned to a hazardous waste site must receive a minimum of _____ hours of off-site training prior to
assignment.
1) 20 hours
2) 40 hours
3) 80 hours
4) 120 hours
29 CFR 1910.120 requires 40 hours of off-site training prior to assignment.

You are preparing a driver's training course and want to discuss the danger of excessive speed while driving. When
driving, a driver's reaction time in an emergency is divided into three parts:
The time required for the driver to recognize the presence of an emergency
The time required for the driver to make a decision on how to handle the emergency
The time required for the driver to actually implement the decision
You discover that the combined total of these segments is about 0.6 seconds for the average, unimpaired driver. How
far will an automobile at 80 mph travel during 0.6 seconds?
1) 70 ft
2) 94 ft
3) 117 ft
4) 137 ft
Convert miles per hour into feet per second and calculate how far an automobile will travel in 0.6 seconds. 80 mph is
117.3 ft/sec. Therefore, an automobile traveling 80 mph will transit 70 feet before the brakes are even applied in an
emergency.

Training is recognized as a powerful influence and motivator in safety. When developing a safety training program,
the first consideration should be:
1) Aquisition of a training staff.

2) Determine scope and content of training program.
3) Clearly define training objectives.
4) Obtain training materials.
Objectives should always be spelled out before content, methods and staff can be decided on. These objectives should
be reduced to terms of behavior (i.e., what the training participants should be able to accomplish when their training
has been completed).

Hearing conservation training must include all of the following EXCEPT:
1) Effects of noise exposure

2) Engineering controls
3) Hearing protective devices
4) Audiometric testing
29 CFR 1910.95 does not require that engineering controls be covered in hearing conservation training.

Which one of the following statements is not true concerning conducting presentations auditory or visually?
1) When person moves a lot use auditory.

2) When person is stationary use visual.
3) When message calls for immediate action use auditory.
4) When receiving location is too noisy use auditory.
When receiving location is too noisy use auditory.

Training requirements under RCRA are satisfied by:
1) Attending biennial training sessions.

2) Independent readings and self-certification.
3) Attending OSHA Hazard Communication or OSHA Hazardous Waste Operations and Emergency Response
(HAZWOPER) training sessions.
4) Initial training with annual refresher sessions.

Please note that the regulatory provisions regarding personnel training ( 40 CFR 265.16) apply to large quantity
generators as well as TSD facility personnel. The regulatory requirements require a written personnel training
program to guide and document the initial training and annual refresher sessions. Training is to be relevant to each
employee's position and responsibilities.

What training is required for non-supervisory personnel working on a hazardous waste site?
1) 40 hours off-site; 1 week field experience; 8 hours annual refresher

2) 24 hours on-site; 3 days field experience; 4 hours annual refresher
3) 40 hours off-site; 3 days field experience; 8 hours annual refresher
4) 30 hours on-site; 4 days field experience; 8 hours annual refresher
29 CFR 1910.120 requires 40 hours initial instruction off-site; 3 days actual field experience under direct supervision;
8 hours of annual refresher training.

First responder awareness level training includes:
1) Ability to recognize the presence of hazardous materials in an emergency.

2) Knowledge of basic decontamination procedures.
3) Knowledge of how to select and use proper PPE.
4) Knowledge of how to implement local emergency response plan.
The first responder awareness training is the most basic of hazwoper training. Answer choice 2 and 3 are training
elements for a first responder operations level and Answer choice 4 is a training element for hazardous materials
specialists.

An on-site incident commander requires all of the following training EXCEPT:
1) Knowledge of and ability to implement the employer's incident command system

2) Knowledge of and implementation of the employer's emergency response plan
3) Knowledge and understanding of the importance of decontamination procedures
4) Ability to perform specialized control, containment, and confinement operations
All of the answers are training required for an on-site incident commander except Answer 4, which is the training
required for hazardous materials specialist.

Adults learn better by practicing the skill. Which of the following OSHA standards has language that requires the
student to demonstrate his or her knowledge of the training?
1) 29 CFR 1910.66 (powered platforms for building maintenance)

2) 29 CFR 1910.132 (personal protective equipment)
3) 29 CFR 1910.1200 (hazard communication)
4) 29 CFR 1910.1450 (laboratory safety)
In this standard, OSHA requires an employer to ensure that each employee has demonstrated an understanding of the
training specified in the standard, and the ability to use PPE properly, before being allowed to perform work requiring
the use of PPE. 29 CFR 1910.132 (f)(2)

The best fire extinguisher training course will have what components?
1) Dynamic classroom instruction using extensive graphics and pictures
2) Classroom instruction with instructor-performed demonstrations of actual fire extinguishers
3) Classroom instruction with instructor-performed demonstrations and instructor-supervised student use of actual
fire extinguishers on controlled fires
4) Instructor-performed demonstrations along with instructor-supervised student use of actual fire extinguishers on
controlled fires
The best fire extinguisher training course will couple classroom instruction with actual demonstrations leading to
student use of fire extinguishers on real fires. Adults learn effectively with practical exercises.

When confronted with a problem with which you have little practical experience, which of the following
problem-solving schemes is likely to produce the best resolution?
1) Establishing a committee of subject matter experts (at least 15) to discuss ways to resolve the problem and come
to a consensus
2) Establishing a small group of subject matter experts (at least 3) to discuss ways to resolve the problem and come
to a consensus
3) Performing your own thorough research and resolving the problem yourself
4) Delegating the problem to another person with experience and training similar to your own for resolution
Though all of these could ultimately lead to the best resolution, the dynamics of a small group of subject matter
experts typically offer the best foundation for solving problems.

After any initial ice-breaking/rapport-building sessions, all training courses should start with:
1) The course's objectives.

2) The course's break schedules.
3) The course's daily adjournment expectations.
4) A description of the course's sponsor.

Though all of these would be appropriate in some training courses, not all training courses will have them all. On the
other hand, all training courses should have course objectives very clearly defined by the instructor at the beginning of
the course.

The best format for your first slide for a training session (the slide with the training session's objectives) is one in
which the objectives are:
1) Highly detailed to include as much about the class as possible.

2) Highly detailed to include sub-bullets for all additional slides.
3) Of limited detail, providing the students with a feel for navigating the class and what they need to take away from
the class.
4) Of limited detail, describing to the students the fact that the course is broken into three sections - Section 1,
Section 2, and Section 3.
Objectives at the beginning of the course should be as short as possible to help the students mentally navigate through
the course. Very few details should be given in objectives - that's what the rest of the training should provide.

Students should be given the opportunity to demonstrate competence in a new skill in the presence of an instructor. Is
it a good idea for the instructor to "test" students performing these practical exercises against objective criteria?
1) Yes
2) No, students have sufficient pressure performing the skill without the added stress of being tested.
3) No, an instructor cannot fairly gauge a student's practical performance against objective criteria.
4) No, students will be unfairly competing with one another in a testing environment.
Without question, an instructor should evaluate a student's practical performance against objective criteria for
successfully performing the skill.

A multiple-choice quiz that requires the student to demonstrate an understanding of the knowledge from a course is an
example of what kind of test?
1) Subjective
2) Objective
3) Random
4) Sequential
Multiple-choice quizzes are typically objective. The difference between an objective and a subjective multiple-choice
test is how it would be graded by different people with the same knowledge as presented by the instructor. A student's
score on an objective test will be the same no matter who grades it because the facts are absolute and not subject to an
instructor's interpretation.

Modern technology exists for presenting visual images to students. A popular example of more modern visual
imaging devices is the:
1) Opaque projector.
2) Computer video projector.
3) 35 mm slide projector.
4) Overhead projector.
Computer video projectors have gained popularity due to their light weight, affordable prices, and their ability to
present colorful images without the need to physically print or produce an image from film or on transparencies.

With the proliferation and advancement of computer technology, instructors have access to sophisticated software
tools for generating visual and audio aids (multimedia presentation software). Two commercial examples of this
software include:
1) Microsoft® PowerPoint ™ and Lotus® 1-2-3™
2) Microsoft® PowerPoint ™ and Corel® Presentations™
3) Microsoft® Excel™ and Microsoft® Windows™
4) Corel® Presentations™ and Microsoft® Outlook™
Microsoft® PowerPoint ™ and Corel® Presentations™ are two of the most popular multimedia presentation software
packages. When connected to a computer video projector, these software packages assist instructors with their
presentations by providing colorful graphics and pictures along with video and audio clips and animations.

When is the mandated time for employers to provide employees with information and training on hazardous chemicals
in their work area?
1) At the time they are hired and assigned

2) Whenever a new hazard is introduced
3) On the day they are transferred
4) All of the above
OSHA's Hazard Communication Standard required employers to train employees on the hazardous chemicals in their
work area at the time of their initial assignment and whenever a new hazard is introduced into their work area.
29 CFR 1910.1200 (h)(2)

Besides expertise with the instructional material, an effective instructor must consider:
1) The time of day in which the class will be held.

2) The layout of the room in which the class will be held.
3) The names of the students in the class.
4) The background and informational needs of the students.

Though all of the above can help, an effective instructor must consider the background and the informational needs of
the students to effectively present the material. Background includes educational background, experience, language
skills (for speakers of languages not native to the instructor), and positions within the company. Informational needs
are also critical. A class full of high-level managers will need far less detail on specific operational issues but may
need much more detail on legal and regulatory issues and other business management information.

In most cases, safety-related training courses for managers will be _____________ than a similar course for
line/operations employees.
1) Shorter
2) Longer
3) More detailed
In most cases, the manager's awareness component of a safety-related class will be shorter. In these components,
managers are interested in the course's objectives and what they need to do (as managers) to ensure that the course's
objectives are implemented by their employees.

What is the best technique to explain a process flow or other sequential operation to employees with a low level of
formal education?
1) Classroom lecture
2) One-on-one explanation
3) Visually, with few words
Where possible, visual cues and explanations should be provided to employees who have a low level of formal
education (i.e., employees who are functionally illiterate). These can be explained, however, the visual explanation
should be sufficient.

CBT is:
1) A system for assessing employee aptitude by computer.

2) A system for delivering computer-based training to employees.
3) A method for characterizing employee behavior traits.
4) A strategy for calculating the employee's basic technical skills.
Computer-based training is now an accepted method for delivering training to employees. Site-specific information
can easily be adapted into more generic training programs, and employees' understanding of the material can be
evaluated easily.

In a training course, you give a quiz at the end of the course to assess the students' understanding of the course
content. Several of your students score 68% while the rest scored between 95% and 100%. What should you do next?
1) Require them to retake the course and retake the quiz.

2) Require them to retake the sections of the course containing the material that they missed and require them to
retake the relevant section of the quiz.
3) Research the questions they missed and discuss the quiz questions and course content with the students before
determining any additional activities.
4) Pass the students.
In many cases, course quizzes have questions that can be misinterpreted by some students. Also note that a 70% is not
necessarily an adequate raw score. Some quizzes may require a 100% raw score to pass while others may require a
60% raw score. Quizzes should be considered holistically with respect to the objectives of the course.

Safety professionals frequently require feedback to understand the effectiveness of various safety-related management
systems. Which of the following is a typical method for obtaining feedback on management systems?
1) Responses to written surveys

2) Personal discussions
3) Discussion groups
4) All of the above
There are several methods for obtaining feedback. Sometimes, the feedback is obtained formally; sometimes it's
obtained informally.

On a quiz you developed and delivered to assess the students' understanding of the course material, you noticed that 15
out of your 30 students missed the same question. Your first action should be to:
1) Rewrite this question as it is obviously poorly written.

2) Abandon this question from this quiz and rescore the students' quizzes.
3) Discuss this question with a sample of students from the class (including those who missed it and those who did
not).
4) Ignore the statistical anomaly.
Though you could perform a formal statistical treatment on this quiz question to officially determine that it is
anomalous, your gut tells you that when half the class misses the same question, there is likely a system error in either
the test or the instruction. Before you rewrite the quiz question, you have to know more about the problem. Is it the
wording in the question? Did you cover the material in class? The answers to these questions will likely come from a
discussion with a sample of students from the class.

The purpose of establishing clearly defined training objectives is:

1) To establish the accomplishment of the clients goals for compliance and performance of contract requirements.
2) To clearly communicate to training participants the content of the training they are participating in.
3) To direct the content of the training and the procedures for performing the training.
4) To serve as a study guide for the training participants so that they may pass the test.
Clear objectives for a training program set the basis for developing the content of the training, the methods of
instruction, and the basis for measuring whether training was effective.
Mager, Robert F., (1997). Preparing Instructional Objectives, (3rd ed..). CEP Press.

Effective training should be the goal of all trainers. Training is effective:
1) If it effects a change in the participants of the training program.

2) When a majority of participants successfully complete a training measurement tool such as a written test or skills
assessment.
3) When it results in participant changes in the desired actions and outcomes.
4) When the documented training program and records satisfy the needs of the client.
Training is considered effective when the participants change their behavior or actions in the desired areas and
directions. If no change occurs or actions other than those desired occur the training was ineffective.

The steps to a successful training program are:
1) Analysis, design, implementation, evaluation.

2) Site survey, course development, classroom setup, testing.
3) Requirements definition, gap assessment, content development, implementation.
4) Proposal development, pretesting, content development, post-testing.

The steps to accomplish a successful training action are: Analysis, Design/development, Implementation,
Evaluation/improvement.

The determination if there is a problem worth solving and if training or instruction is the proper solution is part of
which phase of the instructional preparation?
1) Evaluation
2) Pre-proposal development
3) Student pre-testing
4) Analysis
During the analysis phase of instructional preparation, the first step is to determine if there is a problem that needs to
be addressed, then to make sure that training is part of the way to correct the problem. Part of analysis should also
assess what type of training should be used.

The first step to developing training or instruction is to:
1) Develop the training objectives.

2) Validate the training methodology.
3) Perform and initial student survey.
4) Perform an analysis.
The first step of developing training is to complete the analysis to determine what problem exists, if training is part of
the solution and what kind of instruction is appropriate. Once the analysis is complete, training objectives can be
developed that can be used to guide the development of the training.

A statement that describes an intended outcome that is measurable is a(an):
1) Course purpose statement.

2) Instructional objective.
3) Course goal.
4) Instructional process to achieve an outcome.
An instructional objective is the statement of the intended outcome related to student knowledge and ability. The
objective should be specific and measurable. The objective is separate from the method or process to achieve the
outcome.

Which of the following is an outcome statement?
1) Develop safe behavior.

2) Provide instruction to the proper management of hazardous waste.
3) Conduct practical exercises in spill response.
4) Be able to properly don a respirator.
The correct answer describes an outcome, something that the student is able to achieve and continue to achieve after
the instructional process is complete. The other three options describe the process of teaching, training or instruction.

Objectives must be specific and measurable actions by the students. Which of the following is a good objective?
1) Be able to select the proper respirator and don the respirator for use when working with silica.
2) Have 80% of the students successfully accomplish the donning of the respirator for use with working with silica.
3) Complete 5 hours of instruction and practice on the selection and donning of a respirator for use when working
with silica.
4) Be able to maintain a proper attitude during difficult work tasks involving the use of a respirator.
Correct Answer "Be able to select the proper respirator and don the respirator for use when working with silica,"
establishes an action that the student is to be capable of doing after completing instruction. This is an objective.
"Have 80% of the students successfully accomplish the donning of the respirator for use with working with silica,"
may be a goal of the instructor or a measurement of the overall success of a training initiative, but it does not address
the expected change of an individual student.
"Complete 5 hours of instruction and practice on the selection and donning of a respirator for use when working with
silica," describes the process of instruction that will take place. It does not address the change in the ability of the
student after the training has been completed.
"Be able to maintain a proper attitude during difficult work tasks involving the use of a respirator," describes an
internal feeling that is not possible to measure, thus, not a valid instructional objective.

Which of the following is most accurate?
1) Instruction objectives describe the specific methods for measuring a student's understanding of the course or
training.
2) Instructional objectives are primarily developed to allow the client or management to measure the necessity of the
training.
3) Instructional objectives form the framework that describes how a course or training will be accomplished.
4) Instructional objectives describe the intended outcome.
Objectives describe the intended outcome. Objectives are useful in developing the process or route to achieve the
outcome but objectives are not the process.

TRAINING :Develop & Deliver Training
Tailgate training requires preparation. Which of the following are steps for preparing to provide tailgate training?
1) Inspect the job site to ensure that all activities meet requirements, review training guides and materials, answer all
questions even when you are not sure of the correct answer, keep records of subject and attendees.
2) Select a topic relevant to the job site, inspect the job site, review training guides and materials, encourage workers
to listen to the whole lesson before asking questions.
3) Select a topic relevant to the job site, inspect the job site, review training guides and materials, encourage
discussion and questions, keep records of subject and attendees.
4) Select a topic relevant to the job site, inspect the job site, review training guides and materials, encourage
discussion and questions, expect workers to take all required actions resulting for meeting discussions.
Tailgate training requires preparation. Preparation should include selecting a topic that is relevant to the work at hand.
It is important to inspect the work site before training to allow you to include immediately relevant information and
examples. Training guides and materials need to be closely reviewed to ensure that you are familiar with all of the
information. Effectiveness of training is enhanced when people are allowed to ask questions and participate in
discussions during the training. All training should be documented. It is also important to clearly document any
problems identified during training and follow-up on them. If you do not know the answer, say so - after the training is
completed, find the answer and let the workers know.
(2011). Tailgate Meetings That Work. A Guide to Effective Construction Safety Training . Retrieved 1/24/12,
eLCOSH-Tailgate Meetings That Work

Active participation of workers during tailgate training sessions makes training more effective. Worker participation
can be best obtained by:
1) Requiring each worker to speak at the meeting.

2) Asking questions of the workers and asking for volunteers to answer.
3) Directing questions to specific workers, particularly workers that have not followed safety requirements in the
past.
4) Using humor but making sure that every worker is equally "picked" on.
Worker participation can be obtained in a number of ways including asking questions and then allowing the worker to
volunteer to answer and encouraging sharing of personal experiences. While humor is always a good way to generate
interest, it is very important not to make fun of any workers. It is usually not good to put individual workers on the
spot by calling on them to answer questions.

A comprehensive fire safety program should consist of:
1) Assessment, planning, prevention and response.

2) Written plans, training and alert devices.
3) Planning, prevention and fire extinguishers
4) Preparation, planning, training and notification.
A comprehensive fire safety program should consist of assessment of the fire hazards at the site, planning for a fire
emergency, prevention actions to avoid a fire occurring and response must be available if a fire does occur.

Which is the correct order from least trained to highest trained?
1) Competent Person, Authorized Operator, Qualified Person.

2) Competent Person, Qualified Person, Authorized Operator.
3) Authorized Operator, Competent Person, Qualified Person.
4) Qualified Person, Authorized Operator, Competent Person.
A qualified person has a higher level of training, knowledge and understanding than a competent person who
generally is at a higher level of training, knowledge and understanding than an authorized operator. A qualified person
can serve as a competent persons and meets the requirements of an operator.

Of the following, which is the least effective way for a manager to maximize his/her safety program?
1) Written safety policies

2) Supervisory safety training
3) Audit of safety program
4) One-on-one meetings
Common elements to maximize a safety program include:
Written policies
Supervisor training
Auditing
Investigation of all hazards and accidents
Formation of safety committees

When conducting presentations, there is usually confusion whether it should be done auditory or visually. Which one
of the following is NOT true?
1) When the message is simple, use auditory

2) When the message is short, use auditory
3) When the message will be referred to later, use visual
4) When the message deals with events in time, use visual
When the message deals with events in time use auditory. When the message deals with events in space use visual.

Job site safety training is critical part of a safety program. Which of the following statements is most true?
1) While comprehensive, pre-assignment training covering company assigned topics is necessary, all workers perform
best when allowed to self-study training materials.
2) While comprehensive, pre-assignment training covering regulatorily required topics is necessary, on the job
experience is the best "trainer." Until workers make their own mistakes, they won't really learn.
3) Comprehensive, pre-assignment training covering all needed topics and information is the best method of ensuring
employees are trained and qualified to perform their tasks safely.
4) While comprehensive, pre-assignment training covering regulatorily required topics is necessary, short, single
topic tailgate meetings are very effective.
Safety training is a crucial part of a comprehensive safety program. There are many topics that regulations require
training to be accomplished prior to job assignment. Industry has recognized that ongoing training provided for short
periods of time (less than an hour) covering single topics is a very effective method to training workers. The key to
safety training is to provide workers with information to prevent accidents and injuries.

After safety training is completed, there are many ways to continue to encourage safety at the job site. The best
include:
1) Setting a good example, encouraging safe behavior, follow up on complaints and hazard reports.
2) Setting a good example, strictly enforcing all safety requirements, follow up on complaints and hazard reports.
3) Encouraging safe behavior, require persons that report problems to fix them, setting a good example.
4) Getting worker to clearly document their safety concerns, strictly enforcing all safety requirements, performing
surprise checks of equipment.
Research has shown that a positive environment encourages better safety by workers than an environment based
strictly on enforcement. Enforcement is an important aspect of a safety program, but positive encouragement before
enforcement is best. It is crucial to set a positive example as the supervisor by following all safety requirements. The
supervisor needs to follow up on all complaints and hazard reports.

The general objective of providing safety training is:
1) To prepare for testing.

2) To meet regulatory requirements.
3) To minimize insurance premiums.
4) To impart knowledge and ability.
Training is provided to impart knowledge and ability. In the case of safety training, it is to impart knowledge and
ability to allow a worker to prevent injuries and accidents.

OSHA regulations require specific training in several areas. One area is fall protection. Fall protection training should
be provided by:
1) A vendor offering training.

2) The supervisor.
3) A person who is knowledgeable of the hazards, protective measures, and protective equipment.
4) The fall protection equipment manufacturer.
OSHA regulations require that fall protection training be provided by a "competent person" defined as a person
qualified in the following areas:
The nature of fall hazards in the work area

The correct procedures for erecting, maintaining, disassembling, and inspecting the fall protection systems to be
used
The use and operation of guardrail systems, personal fall arrest systems, safety net systems, warning line
systems, safety monitoring systems, controlled access zones, and other protection to be used
The role of each employee in the safety monitoring system when this system is used
The limitations on the use of mechanical equipment during the performance of roofing work on low-sloped roofs
The correct procedures for the handling and storage of equipment and materials and the erection of overhead
protection
The role of employees in fall protection plans
The standards contained in 29 CFR 1926.503

The OSHA regulations for construction provide for some specifically required training, such as training required for
workers that will be exposed to fall hazards. If specific training is not listed in the OSHA regulations, then:
1) The supervisor can allow the worker to perform tasks with no further consideration.
2) The supervisor should ensure that all workers get formal training for all functions that they will perform.
3) The supervisor can validate the workers past experience and release them to the job site.
4) The supervisor must determine if the worker understands and is qualified to perform a task through experience,
oversight or on-the-job instruction.
The supervisor is responsible for ensuring that all workers are capable of performing the tasks to which they are
assigned. Formal training is not always the best approach to preparing a worker to perform a task. On-the-job
instruction and apprenticeship under an experienced worker often imparts excellent knowledge and capability. It is
also important to understand the requirements of any incorporated voluntary standards. As an example: 29 CFR
1926.304(f) incorporates the American National Standards Institute (ANSI), 01.1 - 1961, Safety Code for Wood
Working. The ANSI standard has specific training requirements. Since the ANSI standard is incorporated, the ANSI
standard requirements are enforceable by OSHA.

Asbestos is:
1) A naturally occurring material that was added to oils and other products for its fire protection properties.
2) Manmade fiber based material used for fire protection purposes and other applications where thermal insulations
and thermal stability are important.
3) A naturally occurring silicate material used for fire protection purposes and other applications where thermal
insulations and thermal stability are important.
4) Not an issue in construction unless it has degraded into a dust.
Asbestos is a group of naturally occurring fibrous silicate minerals that were used for their thermal insulation,
chemical and thermal stability and for their high tensile strength. PCBs were added to oil for fire protection purposes,
not asbestos.

Asbestos containing materials require special consideration to protect the health and safety of workers and the public.
Which of the following statements is most correct?
1) Asbestos has been banned in the United States since the early 1980's. New construction will not contain any
asbestos.
2) Hazardous uses of asbestos are banned in the United States. The products that still use asbestos are not a concern
in construction activities.
3) Asbestos containing materials can be found anywhere. All demolition projects require an asbestos removal action
prior to starting demolition.
4) The manufacture of many asbestos products have been prohibited for years in the United States, however, asbestos
is still used as an additive in many building materials.
While many asbestos products have not been manufactured or used in many years, there are still a number of products
that may contain asbestos as an additive. Examples include floor tiles, cement products, and roofing products. These
items typically are of a non-friable nature, unless they are cut, sanded or physically altered in some manner.

Materials handling activities are prevalent on all construction projects. Materials handling accidents do occur. Which
of the following statements is most accurate?
1) Materials handling injuries account for a substantial part of all injuries and are responsible for more than a third of
all workers' compensation costs.
2) Materials handling injuries are a minor concern on the worksite. The contribution to overall workers' compensation
costs justifies only a small effort in prevention.
3) Materials handling injuries are usually a result of employee misconduct. Investigations of materials handling
injuries should focus on finding fault with the employee.
4) Materials handling injuries account for a substantial part of all injuries but are responsible for less than 5% of all
workers' compensation costs.
Materials handling injuries account for a substantial part of all injuries. Back injuries are most prevalent and account
for more than 1/3 of workers' compensation costs. Common materials handling injuries include back strains and
sprains, fractures, bruises, cuts and abrasions.

The most effective way to prevent back injuries is to:
1) Provide all workers with appropriately fitted back belts.

2) Teach proper lifting techniques.
3) Prohibit lifting of items over 25 pounds.
4) Pull items rather than push.
One of the most effective ways to prevent back injuries is the implementation of training program teaching proper
lifting techniques.
Proper lifting techniques include:
Planning the lift

Using legs for lifting while keeping the back straight
Push loads - don't pull them.

Construction personnel that perform welding must:

1) Be trained and specifically qualified, have proper personal protective equipment, wear cotton clothing, be capable
of quickly removing gas cylinders in case of emergency, establishment of proper shields and positioning of fire
watches.
2) Be trained by a master welder, be capable of quickly removing gas cylinders in case of an emergency, have proper
personal protective equipment, perform pre-task inspections and site preparation including the removal of
combustible materials, establishment of proper shields and positioning of fire watches.
3) Be trained by a master welder, wear cotton clothes for protection from heat, perform pre-task inspections and site
preparation including the removal of combustible materials, establishment of proper shields and positioning of fire
watches.
4) Be trained and specifically qualified, have proper personal protective equipment, perform pre-task inspections and
site preparation including the removal of combustible materials, establishment of proper shields and positioning of
fire watches.
Personnel performing welding need to be specifically qualified for the types of welding that they will be performing.
They must have proper personal protective equipment which may include eye, face, hand, torso and foot protection.
Prior to initiating welding activities, a pre-task inspection is required to identify potential hazards, particularly fire
hazards. Combustible materials should be removed and fire watches positioned in areas that might receive heat, spars
or slag from the welding operations that are not in the immediate view of the welder.

Fork truck operators are required to:
1) Be trained and certified on the operations of the fork trucks.

2) Be trained and evaluated on a live operation. Operators must be evaluated at least every three years.
3) Be trained and evaluated on a live operations. Training and evaluation must be repeated every year.
4) Be trained at any point that it is determined they are not adequately operating a fork truck.
Fork truck operators must be initially trained and must be evaluated on a live setting. Operators must be re-evaluated
every three years and must be re-trained whenever there is an indication of need.

Any occurrence such as, but not limited to, equipment failure, rupture of containers, or failure of control equipment
that may or does result in an uncontrolled significant release of an airborne contaminant is a(n):
1) Emergency respirator use situation.

2) Employee exposure.
3) Emergency situation.
4) Evacuation situation.
Emergency Situation: Any occurrence such as, but not limited to, equipment failure, rupture of containers, or failure
of control equipment that may or does result in an uncontrolled significant release of an airborne contaminant. OSHA
Definition
Emergency Respirator Use Situation : A situation that requires the use of respirators due to the unplanned generation
of a hazardous atmosphere (often of unknown composition) caused by an accident, mechanical failure, or other means
and that requires evacuation of personnel or immediate entry for rescue or corrective action. NIOSH Definition
Employee Exposure: Exposure to a concentration of an airborne contaminant that would occur if the employee were
not using respiratory protection. OSHA Definition

A system that warns the respirator user of the approach of the end of adequate respiratory protection; for example,
that the sorbent is approaching saturation or is no longer effective, is a(n):
1) SCBA
2) IDLH
3) CBBT
4) ESLI
End-Of-Service-Life Indicator (ESLI): A system that warns the respirator user of the approach of the end of
adequate respiratory protection; for example, that the sorbent is approaching saturation or is no longer effective.
OSHA Definition
SCBA: Self Contained Breathing Apparatus.
IDLH: Immediately Dangerous to Life and Health.


A new employee suffers from seasonal allergies. To minimize the impact of pollen, the employee purchases and wears
a P100 (HEPA) filter mask. Your company has a respirator program. Since the new employee wears a respirator at
work, you must:
1) Provide the employee with training and medical surveillance only.

2) Include the employee in the company respirator program.
3) Supply the employee with replacement filter masks and include them in the company respirator program.
4) Nothing.
Employers are not required to include in a written respiratory program those employees whose only use of respirators
involves the voluntary use of filtering facepieces (dust masks).

Asbestos training is required to be provided to:
1) All workers that may come in contact with ACM.

2) All workers assigned responsibility for removing ACM (Class I and II).
3) Only to the competent person.
4) To all workers when an exposure assessment indicates that an asbestos exposure above the PEL is possible.
For Class I and II asbestos work, training of the competent person must include all aspects of asbestos removal and
handling, including:
Abatement, installation, removal, and handling

Contents of the standard
Identification of asbestos
Other practices for reducing the hazard
This training will be obtained in a comprehensive course for supervisors that meets the criteria of EPA's Model
Accreditation Plan ( 40 CFR Part 763), or a course equivalent in stringency, content, and length.
For Class III and IV, training of the competent person must include aspects of asbestos handling appropriate to the
work, including:
Procedures for setting up glove bags and mini-enclosures
Use of wet methods
Training must include successful completion of a course meeting EPA requirements for training local education
agency maintenance and custodial staff [ 40 CFR 763.92(a)(2)] or its equivalent in stringency, content, and length.
Training required for Class I and II competent persons also satisfies the requirements for Class III and IV.
04/18/06.

The OSH Act and OSHA regulations and standards provide for a series of:
1) Employer and employee rights and responsibilities.

2) Employer responsibilities and employee rights.
3) Employer responsibilities.
4) Employer responsibilities to provide for the rights given employees.
The OSH Act and regulations provide for both employer and employee rights and responsibilities.

A company safety policy should contain several key messages concerning safety and health including:
1) Top management commitment to safety-the number one objective of the company, expectations of employees to
avoid all hazards and a commitment to service of customers and community outreach.
2) Top management commitment, expectations of employees and a commitment to customers and community.
3) Top management commitment to safety-the number one objective of the company, expectations of employees
follow management and a commitment to customers and community.
4) Top management commitment to comply with regulations, expectations of employees to prevent violations and a
commitment to community outreach.
A company safety policy should contain several key messages including top management commitment to safety and
health, expectations of employees relative to safety and health and a commitment to the safety and health of
customers and community. A key mistake often made is to state that safety is the most important objective of a
company. Every business has a primary objective to stay in business and usually to make a profit. Safety and health is
a primary value or component of a successful business, but the primary objective of a business is to be successful at
producing what ever product or products the business produces.

The primary reason for conducting an accident investigation is to:
1) Reduce the cost for Workers' Compensation.

2) Find and fix the blame.
3) Identify the cause and take actions to prevent recurrence.
4) Prepare reports needed for litigation.
Although there are a variety of accident investigations and analysis techniques, they all serve to identify cause (or
multiple causes) and choose countermeasures that will prevent accident recurrence.

Occupational safety and health programs require specific training be provided in numerous areas. One area is fall
protection. Fall protection training should be provided by:
1) A vendor offering training.

2) The supervisor.
3) A person who is knowledgeable of the hazards, protective measures, and protective equipment.
4) The fall protection equipment manufacturer.
In all cases, training should be provided by a "competent person." "Competent person" is defined in various standards
and regulations. A definition for a competent person in fall protection can be: a person qualified in the following
areas:
The nature of fall hazards in the work area
The correct procedures for erecting, maintaining, disassembling, and inspecting the fall protection systems to be
used
The use and operation of guardrail systems, personal fall arrest systems, safety net systems, warning line
systems, safety monitoring systems, controlled access zones, and other protection to be used
The role of each employee in the safety monitoring system when this system is used
The limitations on the use of mechanical equipment during the performance of roofing work on low-sloped roofs
The correct procedures for the handling and storage of equipment and materials and the erection of overhead
protection
The role of employees in fall protection plans
The applicable standards and regulations.
(2010). OSHA Construction Regulations. Safety and Health Regulations for Construction. Retrieved 9/1/2010,
http://www.osha.gov/pls/oshaweb/owasrch.search_form?p_doc_type=STANDARDS&p_toc_level=1&p_keyvalue=1926
Copy and paste the above URL address into your browser to access this document.

The regulations for construction often provide for specifically required training, such as training required for workers
that will be exposed to fall hazards. If specific training is not listed in the applicable regulations, then:
1) The supervisor can allow the worker to perform tasks with no further consideration.
2) The supervisor should ensure that all workers get formal training for all functions that they will perform.
3) The supervisor can validate the workers past experience and release them to the job site.
4) The supervisor must determine if the worker understands and is qualified to perform a task through experience,
oversight or on-the-job instruction.
The supervisor is responsible for ensuring that all workers are capable of performing the tasks to which they are
assigned. Formal training is not always the best approach to preparing a worker to perform a task. On-the-job
instruction and apprenticeship under an experienced worker often imparts excellent knowledge and capability. It is
also important to understand the requirements of any incorporated voluntary standards..
(2010). OSHA Construction Regulations. Safety and Health Regulations for Construction. Retrieved 9/1/2010,
http://www.osha.gov/pls/oshaweb/owasrch.search_form?p_doc_type=STANDARDS&p_toc_level=1&p_keyvalue=1926
Copy and paste the above URL address into your browser to access this document.

Asbestos training should be provided to:
1) All workers that may come in contact with ACM.

2) All workers assigned responsibility for removing ACM.
3) Only to the competent person.
4) To all workers when an exposure assessment indicates that an asbestos exposure above the PEL is possible.
Training of the competent person must include all aspects of asbestos removal and handling, including:
Abatement, installation, removal, and handling

Other practices for reducing the hazard
The US has specific training requirements spelled out in federal regulations. This training will be obtained in a
comprehensive course for supervisors that meets the criteria of EPA's Model Accreditation Plan (40 CFR Part 763), or
a course equivalent in stringency, content, and length.
For Class III and IV, training of the competent person must include aspects of asbestos handling appropriate to the
work, including:
Procedures for setting up glove bags and mini-enclosures

Use of wet methods
Training must include successful completion of a course meeting EPA requirements for training local education
agency maintenance and custodial staff [40 CFR 763.92(a)(2)], or its equivalent in stringency, content, and length.
Training required for Class I and II competent persons also satisfies the requirements for Class III and IV.
9/1/2010.

When teaching a class, body language is important. Regarding attire, which of the following is most appropriate?
1) Dress the same way as the majority of the students so that you "fit-in" with the students. If your students are
dressed very casually, then you should be dressed very casually.
2) Dress "one notch better" than your students. If your students are dressed very causally, then you should dress
business casual ; if your students are dressed business casual, then you should wear a tie (man) or a suit (woman),
etc.
3) Dress formally for all training.
4) Dress is completely irrelevant when leading a training class.
Most experts will say that the instructor should be dressed better than the majority of his or her students, but not to the
point where the instructor looks out of place. Dressing slightly better than your students may influence your students
to consciously and unconsciously respect you as an expert and also allow you to stand out so that you are easily
identified during breaks.

TRAINING :Job Site Safety Meetings
Workers performing tasks requiring fall protection are required to:
I. Be trained as to the nature of the fall hazards of their workplace

II. Provide and inspect their personal body harness
III. Be certified, in writing, by their employer
IV. Be trained and knowledgeable in the proper use of the equipment to be used
V. Be certified as a competent person by their employer
1) I, II and III
2) I, III and IV
3) I, II, IV and V
Workers performing tasks requiring fall protection are required to be trained in a number of areas including:
The nature of the fall hazards of their workplace

Proper procedures related to the fall protection systems to be used
Proper use of fall protection equipment
Their role in the safety monitoring system when used
Proper use and limitations of mechanical equipment to be used
Proper procedures for materials handling and storage
Their role in the fall protection plan
The applicable standards of Subpart M of 29 CFR 1926.
The employees must also be certified by their employer or trainer, in writing, as having been trained.
Construction.

This may occur as a result of tension cracks:
1) Boiling.
2) Heaving.
3) Sluffing.
4) Subsidence.
Tension cracks can result in sluffing (also known as sliding) or topping.

Conditions in which an unsupported excavation can create an unbalanced stress in the soil, which, in turn, causes the
surface to recede and the vertical face of the trench to expand are called:
1) Subsidence and bulging.
2) Heaving and boiling.
3) Sluffing and sliding.
4) Topping.
An unsupported excavation can create an unbalanced stress in the soil, which, in turn, causes subsidence at the surface
and bulging of the vertical face of the trench.

The controlling contractor at a steel erection site shall:
1) Evacuate the site prior to allowing steel erection activities to be initiated.

2) Provide oversight of steel erection subcontractors equivalent to that of other subcontracts.
3) Provide written notification of all other site activities to the steel erection contractor prior to erection activities to
allow the steel erection contractor to implement proper protective measures.
4) Provide to the steel erector: written notification of the readiness of concrete footers, adequate layout areas and
limit other contractor access to steel erection work areas.
The controlling contractor has 4 specific duties identified in the OSHA steel erection standards:
Notify the steel erector in writing regarding concrete curing and anchor bolt changes.
Provide adequate layout areas and onsite access roads.
Preclude work below steel erection unless there is overhead protection.
Choose whether to accept responsibility for maintenance of fall protection systems left by the erector (otherwise
ensure its removal).

After steel erection is completed, the controlling contractor may:
1) Abandon all fall protection systems left by the steel erection subcontractor, as long as they are properly tagged as
out-of-service.
2) Allow subcontractors to choose whether to use the erectors fall protection systems.
3) Continue to use the erector's fall protection systems if the contractor maintains them.
4) Not use any fall protection systems that were designed and placed for the purposes of steel erection.
The controlling contractor has 4 specific duties identified in the OSHA steel erection standards:
Notify the steel erector in writing regarding concrete curing and anchor bolt changes.
Provide adequate layout areas and onsite access roads.
Preclude work below steel erection unless there is overhead protection.
Choose whether to accept responsibility for maintenance of fall protection systems left by the erector (otherwise
ensure its removal).

An employee who, working with hoisting equipment, is placing and connecting structural members and/or components
is a:
1) Qualified tether.
2) Hoist Coordinator.
3) Placer.
4) Connector.
Connector means an employee who, working with hoisting equipment, is placing and connecting structural members
and/or components.

One who, by possession of a recognized degree, certificate, or professional standing, or who by extensive knowledge,
training, and experience, has successfully demonstrated the ability to solve or resolve problems relating to the subject
matter, the work, or the project is a:
3) Project Structural engineer.
Qualified person (also defined in 1926.32) means one who, by possession of a recognized degree, certificate, or
professional standing, or who by extensive knowledge, training, and experience, has successfully demonstrated the
ability to solve or resolve problems relating to the subject matter, the work, or the project.

An excavation beneath the surface of the ground, the longer axis of which makes an angle not greater than 20 degrees
to the horizontal is called a:
1) Shaft.
2) Cofferdam.
3) Caisson.
4) Tunnel.
A tunnel is "an excavation beneath the surface of the ground, the longer axis of which makes an angle not greater than
20 degrees to the horizontal."
Retrieved 3/23/06.

A passage made from the surface of the ground to a point underground, the longer axis of which makes an angle
greater than 20 degrees to the horizontal is a:
1) Shaft.
2) Cofferdam.
3) Caisson.
4) Tunnel.
A shaft is "(1) a passage made from the surface of the ground to a point underground, the longer axis of which makes
an angle greater than 20 degrees to the horizontal; or (2) a pit in which there are employees, and it is foreseeable that
they may enter (or do enter) the horizontal excavation; or (3) a pit that has typical underground construction hazards
and is connected to a horizontal excavation."
Retrieved 3/23/06.

A wood, steel, concrete or reinforced concrete, air- and water-tight chamber in which it is possible for men to work
under air pressure greater than atmospheric pressure to excavate material below water level is a:
1) Bulkhead.
2) Caisson.
3) Pressure lock.
4) Shaft.
"Caisson"-A wood, steel, concrete or reinforced concrete, air- and water-tight chamber in which it is possible for men
to work under air pressure greater than atmospheric pressure to excavate material below water level.
Retrieved 3/23/06.

A force acting on a unit area, usually shown as pounds per square inch (p.s.i.) is called a:
1) Torr.
2) Gauge.
3) Pressure.
4) Compression.
"Pressure"-A force acting on a unit area. Usually shown as pounds per square inch. (p.s.i.)
Retrieved 3/23/06.

The sum of the atmospheric pressure and gauge pressure (p.s.i.g.) is called:
1) Real pressure.
2) Absolute pressure.
3) Experienced pressure.
4) Work pressure.
"Absolute pressure" (p.s.i.a.)-The sum of the atmospheric pressure and gauge pressure (p.s.i.g.).
Retrieved 3/23/06.

The pressure of air at sea level, usually 14.7 p.s.i.a. (1 atmosphere), or 0 p.s.i.g. is which of the following?
1) Atmospheric pressure.
2) Base pressure.
3) STP.
4) Real pressure.
"Atmospheric pressure"-The pressure of air at sea level, usually 14.7 p.s.i.a. (1 atmosphere), or 0 p.s.i.g.
Retrieved 3/23/06.

Pressure measured by a gauge and indicating the pressure exceeding atmospheric is:
1) Felt pressure.
2) Perceived pressure.
3) Gauge pressure.
4) Base pressure.
"Gauge pressure" (p.s.i.g.)-Pressure measured by a gauge and indicating the pressure exceeding atmospheric.
Retrieved 3/23/06.

The person or persons authorized to use explosives for blasting purposes and meeting the qualifications contained in
29 CFR 1926.901 is called a:
1) Blasting agent.
2) Blaster.
4) Charge initiator.
Blaster: The person or persons authorized to use explosives for blasting purposes and meeting the qualifications
contained in 29 CFR 1926.901.
Blasting Agent: A blasting agent is any material or mixture consisting of a fuel and oxidizer used for blasting, but not
classified an explosive and in which none of the ingredients is classified as an explosive provided the furnished
(mixed) product cannot be detonated with a No. 8 test blasting cap when confined. A common blasting agent
presently in use is a mixture of ammonium nitrate (NH 4 NO3 ) and carbonaceous combustibles, such as fuel oil or coal,
and may either be procured, premixed, and packaged from explosives companies or mixed in the field.

Visual aids are used in training activities to:

1) Illustrate and emphasize ideas.
2) Provide the instructor with a guide to get through the training.
3) Provide students as handout materials for note taking.
4) Make up for a lack of instructor experience.
The use of visual aids will move a training activity further along toward the objectives by illustrating and emphasizing
the ideas more effectively than words alone.
(1996). OSHA Presenting Effective Presentations with Visual Aids . OSHA Presenting Effective Presentations with
Visua. Retrieved 04/18/06.

The objectives of the safety and health meeting can be best defined:
1) By the workers at the beginning of the meeting.

2) Once the meeting has been scripted and the main points can be identified.
3) As the method to accomplish training.
4) At the beginning of preparation.
For any successful presentation, the objectives must be identified. It is these objectives that drive the presentation and
move the audience to the end goals. The end goals may be that the attendees take a particular action, adopt a new
perspective, or respond to facts and information. Establishing these goals requires careful planning. The key to
designing the presentation is determining these objectives. After all, they become the foundation upon which the
content, organization, and visual aids are built. The objectives come first.

In most safety and health training activities it:

1) May be good to have the training area dark to ensure the comfort of the attendees.
2) Is important to ensure that your presentation follows strict educational standards for design and layout.
3) Is important to know who your audience is and use the information to structure your presentation.
4) Critical to keep the material at a high level and not get into detail that will bore the audience.
Establishing the objectives for the presentation requires an analysis of the goals, as well as the audience's needs and
expectations. By considering the nature of the audience, you can more easily determine what will need to be presented
and how to present it. An audience analysis will enable you to:
Select appropriate points of emphasis in the presentation

Develop a useful level of detail
Choose and prepare appropriate visual aids
Create a tone that is sensitive to the audience's circumstance
The presentation will ideally form a bridge between something you have and your audience wants. Let the audience
analysis influence the form of information presented so you can create this bridge.

A standard rule of presentations is to:
1) Don't bore the audience, particularly by repeating information.

2) Tell them what you're going to tell them, tell them, and then tell them what you told them.
3) Make sure that you explain why you are qualified to teach the class.
4) List all of the points up front in the presentation, even if it takes more than one chart.
When organizing your material, consider an "old chestnut" of public speaking - "Tell 'em what you're going to tell
'em; tell 'em; and tell 'em what you told 'em."

On average, people remember things they see better than things they hear. Studies show that a person is 3 times more
likely to remember something they see than something they hear. How much more likely are they to remember
something that they see and hear?
1) One-and-a-half times more likely.

2) About the same as just seeing.
3) More than twice more likely.
4) Seeing and hearing confuses most people.
People tend to be eye-minded, and the impacts visual aids bring to a presentation are, indeed, significant. The studies,
below, reveal interesting statistics that support these findings:
In many studies, experimental psychologists and educators have found that retention of information three days
after a meeting or other event is six times greater when information is presented by visual and oral means than
when the information is presented by the spoken word alone.
Studies by educational researchers suggest that approximately 83% of human learning occurs visually, and the
remaining 17% through the other senses - 11% through hearing, 3.5% through smell, 1% through taste, and
1.5% through touch.
The studies suggest that three days after an event, people retain 10% of what they heard from an oral
presentation, 35% from a visual presentation, and 65% from a visual and oral presentation.

Training should result in:
1) An understanding by the audience based on the objectives.

2) Proper recordkeeping.
3) Change.
4) Accomplishing regulatory time and information content requirements.
Training must result in understanding and comprehension by the audience of the objectives and key information to be
effective. Strictly meeting the time or information content expectations of the regulations does not result in
successfully meeting the regulations. Not all training must result in change - if the actions of the audience were
appropriate before the training, training may only be intended to reinforce the appropriate actions.

A company's policy should meet three criteria to help avoid being viewed as negligent. The three criteria are:
1) Have safety and health rules, ensure employees know and understand the rules and severely enforce the rules.
2) Have a safety and health policy stating the requirement to comply with regulations, ensure employees know and
understand the regulations and consistently enforce the regulations.
3) Have safety and health rules, ensure employees know and understand the rules and consistently enforce the rules.
4) Have safety and health rules, ensure employees have attended the appropriate number of hours of training on the
rules and strictly enforce the rules.
Successful safety and health programs require clear and understandable policy and rules. Rules need to address the
expectations of the company relative to its employees to ensure a safe work environment. Employees need to know
and understand the rules, whether this is accomplished through formal training, briefings or on-the-job training. The
rules need to then be objectively and consistently enforced. The severity of the enforcement should be relative to the
risk posed by the infraction and the history of the employee.

Which of the following is true regarding communication?
1) Both the sender's and the receiver's body language is very important in one-on-one communication.
2) Visual communication is inappropriate in groups of ten or more.
3) Verbal communication is inappropriate in groups of ten or more.
4) Body language is only important in one-on-one communication.
Some experts say that body language is as important as the actual content of the verbal communication during
communication - regardless of whether the communication is one-on-one or to an audience. Visual communication is
appropriate for any number of people as is verbal communication.

PROFESSIONAL RESPONSIBILITY :Safety Program Record Keeping
In any study involving statistic analysis, the main focus is on sets of numerical data. The entire set of data from which
your data came is called the:
1) Sample.
2) Population.
3) Bell shaped curve.
4) Normal distribution.
The sample is what you take. You hope (and assume) that your sample is representative of the population from which
it was drawn.

A successful research study is characterized by which of the following?
1) The study must involve random samples.

2) The study and control groups must show the same results.
3) Variables for study and control groups must be controlled by one person.
4) Evidence of the study must be reproducible by others.
If results of a study cannot be reproduced by other researchers, the study has questionable validity.

The combined frequency and severity role is defined as:
1) Accident severity formula.

2) Frequency severity indicator.
3) Incident rate.
4) Frequency rate.

Frequency severity indicator is the combined frequency and severity role.

Management is committed to reducing accidents and has embraced the concept of performing root cause analyses on
all accidents and near misses. Currently, you estimate that about one out of every ten minor accidents is reported
(minor accidents do not require professional medical intervention). Likewise, you believe that no more than four near
misses have ever been reported in four years. You know that getting employees to report minor accidents and near
misses is fundamental to preventing accidents through root cause analysis. Which of the following is NOT suitable for
encouraging employees to report accidents and near misses?
1) Ensuring employees see operational/management system changes as a result of the root cause analyses
2) Ensuring that the root cause analysis process will never blame employees
3) Ensuring that employees can easily report accidents and near misses without complicated paperwork and
explanations
4) Ensuring each employee is recognized for the number of near misses he or she reports
Employees who report accidents and never see any resulting good come from the report are not likely to go to the
trouble of reporting any further accidents or near misses. The root cause analysis process MUST be blame-free or
employees will not make reports. The root causes of accidents are management system weaknesses - employees who
perceive the root cause analysis process as a way to "get" employees will never participate in it. If the reporting
process is complicated and requires the employees to spend a lot of time with complicated forms and explanations,
then employees are not likely to continue reporting accidents and near misses. Finally, peer pressure is a key reason
employees do not report accidents and near misses. Recognizing employees for such things is akin to embarrassing
them publicly.

What is the name of the evaluation technique for analyzing randomly obtained observations or evidence to determine
the probability of drawing such evidence by random sampling methods under the assumption that the hypothesis is
correct.
1) Hypothesis Testing
2) Placebo Effect
3) Post Hoc Test
4) Regression Test

Hypothesis Testing is a test to determine if what you propose is supported by the data (sample) you have collected,
e.g., blood lead levels have increased in battery workers.

A form of evaluation in which input is measured in terms of dollars and output is measured in terms of the
achievement of some desired objectives, is known as:
1) Cost-Effectiveness Analysis
2) Cost-Benefit Analysis
3) Cost-Effectiveness Ratio
4) Cost-Benefit Ratio
" Cost-Effectiveness Analysis" as the name implies the input is dollars, the outputs can be anything you want to
measure. Therefore, the effectiveness of your spending is measured.

As manager of the safety and health function, you are privy to all the cost data that relate to insurance, medical, wages
and operations. How would you determine the total cost of an injury or illness?
1) Sum the insured and non-insured costs

2) Combine insurance cost for medical and compensation paid to claimant
3) Determine the direct cost and multiply it by four
4) Determine the direct cost and add 25%
Accident costs include both those that are insured and those that are not insured. The insured include medical and
compensation costs paid to the claimant by the insurance company. The non insured include time lost by others who
observed or rendered assistance at the time of the accident, time lost to investigate the accident, time to train a
replacement, cost for damaged materials, etc.

Which of the following is the least likely reason to perform health and safety audit?
1) Determine if codes, laws and regulations are being complied with.

2) Assess the over-all program and its conformance to accepted safety and health practices.
3) Determine if company policies, procedure, and standards are being met.
4) Make sure the company is prepared for an OSHA inspection.
The purpose of an effective health and safety audit is to conduct a systematic, objective analysis of a company's health
and safety practices that is directed toward well defined goals, namely: regulatory compliance, accident- injury/illness
risk control, program activities, records analysis and company policies. Following the audit, a report is prepared in
which a written assessment is made along with recommendations to improve health and safety management of any
significant risks that were identified.

Of the following, the least likely principle value of accident statistics is:
1) Measurement of performance.
2) Determining trouble spots.
3) OSHA reporting requirements.
4) Lower worker's compensation costs.
Accident statistics are used to measure performance, detect trouble spots and fulfill the OSHA record keeping
requirement.

When measuring the performance of the safety program, lagging indicators measure historical results and show the
effectiveness of loss prevention measures applied in the past. What are leading indicators?
1) Trends that predict future loss performance
2) Measures that lead the performance measure analyst to pursue other lagging indicators
3) Measures that provide the context for the lagging indicators
4) There is no such thing as a leading indicator
Leading indicators are performance measures that show trends of activities that could ultimately result in losses. For
example, a leading indicator could be the number of unsafe work practices observed in a warehouse during the month.
Though none of the unsafe work practices resulted in a loss (a lagging indicator of loss prevention performance),
action could still be taken from the leading indicator trend to reduce losses later.

To assess your company's loss control performance, several statistics are captured and analyzed. One of these is
"Number of lost time cases experienced during the past year." This statistic is an example of a(n):
1) Leading indicator.
2) Lagging indicator.
3) Optional indicator.
4) Occupational indicator.
Lagging indicators (such as historical statistics) provide data on how well the loss control system has performed and is
useful for understanding how well a management system change affected loss control performance. However, lagging
indicators are not as useful for predicting future loss control performance.

To assess your company's loss control performance, several statistics are captured and analyzed. One of these is
"Percent of operational personnel that have completed all phases of chemical safety training." This statistic is an
example of a(n):
1) Leading indicator.
2) Lagging indicator.
3) Optional indicator.
4) Occupational indicator.
Leading indicators (such as risk assessments) provide data on how well the loss control system is expected to perform
in the future. In this particular case, there is evidence that when a lower fraction of operational personnel have been
trained, the company's loss control performance decreases.

Risk is usually expressed as the frequency of an event multiplied by the consequence of the event. Usually,
consequence is expressed in units of currency (e.g., dollars) to permit comparison of risk across different areas. Which
of the following scenarios has the higher annual risk?
Scenario A: Minor employee injuries occur about twice per month and cost the company about $3,750 in lost work
productivity and $1,800 in medical and insurance compensation.
Scenario B: Catastrophic accidents occur about once every 30 years and cost the company about $1,500,000 in lost
work productivity and equipment damage, and $2,500,000 in legal fees and other compensation.
1) Scenario A has the higher risk.

2) Scenario B has the higher risk.
3) Scenarios A and B both have about the same risk.
4) One cannot place a risk value on human suffering.
The minor accidents cost the company $133,200 annually ($5,500 per incident multiplied by 24 times per year ). The
major accidents only happen once every 30 years, but cost $4,000,000 when they do happen. Dividing this over 30
years yields and annual risk exposure for the catastrophic accident of $133,333. These are essentially equivalent.

Workers' Compensation represents a significant business expense for employers. To a large extent, employers can
influence their cost of this coverage by:
1) Obtaining a low rate prospective experience rating plan.

2) Improving their experience modification rate.
3) Obtaining a low rate retrospective experience rating plan.
4) Negotiate with life underwriters.

One of the objectives of the Workers' Compensation system is to encourage safety in the workplace. A credit rating is
awarded for better than average injury/illness accident prevention OR a debit rating charged against the premium for
one that is worse than average. Injury rates and the experience modification are used to estimate charges. By lowering
the experience modification rate one can lower their insurance premium.

A company with 65 employees recorded in their OSHA 300, Log & Summary:
7 injury cases with lost workdays

2 injury cases without lost workdays
2 illness cases without lost workdays
If the total hours worked by all employees was 130,000, what is the incidence rate of lost workday injuries?
1) 16.92
2) 6.15
3) 10.77
4) 13.85
Computation for incidence rate of lost workday cases:
Incidence rate = Number of lost workday cases * 200,000/130,000

Incidence rate = (7 * 200,000)/130,000
Incidence rate = 10.77

Calculate the incidence rate for a company if the recordable accidents are 40 and the total man hours are 1,500,000.
1) 5.3
2) 8.7
3) 10.2
4) 11.5
The formula to calculate incident rate is Recordable accidents * 200,000/Total man hours worked.
(40 * 200,000)/ 1,500,000 = 5.3

In injury epidemiology the term incidence rate is often used. Incidence rate is the number of _____ that occurred in a
given period of time divided by the sum of the exposed time.
1) New cases
2) Prevalent cases
3) All cases
4) Specific cases
Incidence rate is the rate of development of new cases of a specific disease over a given time period. The denominator
is normally man hours worked or some other similar measure i.e. person-years etc.

In one year, a company with 65 employees recorded in their Form OSHA 300:
7 injury cases with lost workdays

2 injury cases without lost workdays
2 illness cases without lost work days
The total hours worked by all employees is 130,000. What is the incidence rate of recordable injuries for that year?
1) 6.2 cases/yr
2) 11.0 cases/yr
3) 13.9 cases/yr
4) 16.9 cases/yr
Computation of incidence rate for OSHA-recordable cases:

Incidence rate = (No. of recordable cases * 200,000) / Total employee hours
Incidence rate = (11 cases * 200,000 hr/yr) / 130,000 hrs.
Incidence rate = 16.92 cases/yr
The OSHA incidence rate is based on 100 employees working 2,000 hours per year. This is the basis for the 200,000
hr/yr in the equation.

The Loss Ratio is defined as which of the following?
1) 0.5 Losses/Premium
2) Losses/((Experience Modification) (100))
3) Losses/((Manual Premium)(Experience Modification))
4) Manual Premium/((Losses) (100))
Loss Ratio = Losses/((Manual Premium)(Experience Modification))

The Modified Rate is defined as:
1) Modified Rate = Manual Rate * Number of Employees

2) Modified Rate = Manual Rate * Manual Premium
3) Modified Rate = Manual Rate * Experience Modification/ 100
4) Modified Rate = Manual Rate * Experience Modification
Modified Rate = Manual Rate * Experience Modification. A good experience modification will decrease premiums
and improve loss ratios.

Under Worker's Compensation Laws:

1) Employee has to prove negligence by the employer.
2) Amount of compensation is decided by the employee and employer under arbitration.
3) Employer assumes responsibility and compensation for accidents, regardless of fault.
4) Employee may sue employer if the compensation provided is not adequate.
Under Worker's Compensation Laws, the employer assumes responsibility for all accidents and compensation to the
employee, regardless of fault. The employee does not have to prove negligence and is not allowed to sue for damages
beyond what is allowed to be compensated as set by state law.

As the manager of the safety and health function, you have access to cost data relating to insurance, medical, wages,
and operations. How would you determine the total cost of an injury or illness?
1) Sum the insured and non-insured costs

2) Combine insurance cost for medical and compensation paid to claimant
3) Determine the direct cost and multiply it by four
4) Determine the direct cost and add 25%
Accident costs include both those that are insured and those that are not insured. The insured costs include medical
and compensation costs paid to the claimant by the insurance company. The non insured costs include time lost by
others who observed or rendered assistance at the time of the accident, time lost to investigate the accident, time to
train a replacement, cost for damaged materials, etc.

Which of the following allows the engineer to understand the sources of variation in a process, and hence manipulate
and control these sources to decrease variations in the product?
1) Statistical Analysis
2) Statistical Process Control
3) Statistical Variability Analysis
4) Process Control Assessment

Statistical Process Control can be utilized for any process that is well defined, documented, and stabilized over time. It
is extremely versatile in its ability to identify variation and out-of-control situations.

Following an accident in which six (6) employees had to be hospitalized for burn trauma, what action does OSHA
require you to take?
1) Nothing, because the occurrence did not result in a fatality.

2) Immediately notify the nearest OSHA Area office.
3) Notify the nearest OSHA Area office within 8 hours.
4) Provide notification within six (6) working days to the nearest OSHA Area office.
Within 8 hours after its occurrence, an occupational accident which is fatal to one or more employees or which results
in the hospitalization of three or more employees shall be reported by the employer, either orally or in writing to the
nearest OSHA Area office.

As of January 2002, what is the maximum number of days allowed to log a recordable occupational injury or illness
on the Form OSHA 300?
1) 4 working days
2) 5 working days
3) 7 calendar days
4) 14 calendar days
Each recordable injury or illness must be recorded on Form OSHA 300 (Log of Work-Related Injuries and Illnesses)
within seven calendar days of receiving information that a recordable injury or illness has occurred. 29 CFR 1904.29
(b)(3)

The primary value of accidents and injury/illness records are to:
1) Locate and prevent recurrence of the same accident.

2) Meet reporting requirements.
3) Provide information to OSHA.
4) Union management progress reports.
Records of all accidents, property damage and personnel injury/illness are essential to efficient and successful safety
programs. Records supply the information necessary for implementing controls to prevent the accident(s) from
happening again.
Note: The law does not require records for accidents involving property damage. They do, however, require those
involving personnel injury and illness.

As of January 2002, what is the maximum number of days allowed to complete Form OSHA 301 (Injury and Illness
Incident Report)?
1) 4 working days
2) 5 working days
3) 7 calendar days
4) 14 calendar days
The details associated with each recordable injury or illness must be recorded on Form OSHA 301 within seven
calendar days of receiving information that a recordable injury or illness has occurred. 29 CFR 1904.29 (b)(3)

OSHA record keeping regulations require Form OSHA 300-A (Summary of Work-Related Injuries and Illnesses) to
be:
1) Posted in a conspicuous place at the end of each quarter.
2) Reviewed monthly by facility management.
3) Posted annually in a conspicuous place.
4) Kept on file for three years.
OSHA requires Form OSHA 300-A to be posted at each establishment wherever notices to employees are customarily
posted. This copy must be posted no later than February 1 and kept in place until April 30. Form OSHA 300-A must
be retained for five years after the end of the calendar year covered by the form. 29 CFR 1904.32(b)(5) and 29 CFR
1904.33 (a)

Form OSHA 300, Form OSHA 300-A, and Form OSHA 301 must be retained in the workplace for:
1) 1 year.
2) 3 years.
3) 5 years.
4) 30 years.
All three of these forms must be maintained in the workplace for five years after the end of the calendar year covered
by the form. 29 CFR 1904.33 (a)

As of January 2002, Form OSHA 301 is used to record:
1) Fatality notification.
2) Injury and illness details.
3) Inspection response.
4) Incidence rates.
Form OSHA 301 is a form used to record the details of incidents and injuries.

How long must audiometric records be kept on file?
1) Duration of employment
2) 30 years
3) 10 years
4) 5 years, with OSHA 300 log
OSHA requires audiometric exams be kept on file for the length of employment.

How long must employee noise exposure measurement records be kept on file?
1) Duration of employment
2) 30 years
3) 5 years
4) 2 years
OSHA requires employee noise exposure measurement records to be kept on file for two years.

The Toxic Release Inventory (TRI) report can be described as achieving which of the following objectives?
1) Establishment of baseline environmental conditions at the facility
2) Assessment of quantitative risks posed by facility releases
3) Establishment of a material balance for each toxic chemical above threshold levels at the facility
4) All of the above
The TRI report was not intended to establish baseline environmental conditions or to serve as a quantitative risk
assessment.

The toxic release inventory (TRI) reporting requirement is a result of which environmental statute?
1) TSCA
2) SARA Title III
3) RCRA
4) CAA revisions of 1990
The TRI or Form R resulted from the comprehensive reauthorization of CERCLA in 1986, the Superfund
Amendments and Reauthorization Act (SARA). Title III of SARA, called the Emergency Planning and Community
Right to Know Act (EPCRA) established a statutory directive to EPA, in Section 313, to require reporting of toxic
chemical emissions on an annual basis.

The chemicals covered by TRI reporting requirements are:
1) All CERCLA hazardous substances.

2) Individual toxic chemicals and specified toxic chemical categories.
3) Hazardous and toxic wastes.
4) Hazardous chemicals.
The Toxic Chemical Listings to be used for TRI purposes is found at 40 CFR 372.65. This list includes both
individual chemical and specified categories of chemicals.

Reporting requirements for RQ discharges of hazardous substances are imposed under which of the following?
1) CERCLA
2) CERCLA and CWA
3) CERCLA and RCRA
4) RCRA
Reporting of Reportable Quantity (RQ) releases under CERCLA is triggered when hazardous substances are released
to the environment. Reporting of RQ releases under CWA is triggered by hazardous substance discharges to navigable
waters. The relevant CERCLA regulations are found at 40 CFR Part 302, while the relevant CWA regulations are
found at 40 CFR Parts 116-117. Oil discharge reporting regulations are found at 40 CFR Part 110.

The mandatory shipping document for hazardous waste purposes is:
1) Uniform hazardous materials bill of lading.

2) Straight bill of lading.
3) Uniform hazardous waste manifest.
4) Dangerous good declaration.
The uniform hazardous waste manifest (EPA Form 8700-22) is the mandatory format for hazardous waste shipping
documents. The actual forms are to be obtained from states mandating the use of state issued uniform hazardous waste
manifests, or when the state is not involved in manifest distribution, from commercial printers following the
mandatory format with the appropriate number of pages (minimum of 4).

Elements of a hazardous waste manifest include all of the following EXCEPT:
1) Liability insurance company

2) Manifest number
3) EPA identification number
4) Total quantity of waste generated
A manifest does not require an insurance company number. It does require manifest number, EPA identification
number, and total quantity of waste.

The key element of RCRA designed to track hazardous waste from "cradle to grave" is the:
1) Statute of limitations.
2) Criminal liability.
3) Manifest.
4) Ultimate disposal site.
The manifest system was developed by RCRA to track hazardous waste from originator to final resting place.

What is a chain of custody?
1) A documentation trail describing a detailed history of specific items particularly with respect to who has held
custody of the item and the reason that person had custody of the item
2) A documentation trail describing the manufacturing history or personal history of an item or person
3) A documentation trail describing the quality review and checklists that were performed on an item
A chain of custody is typically associated with incident investigations and describes in detail the identity of the person
who has held custody of an item and why the person had custody of the item.

As of January 2002, the OSHA form on which an employer describes each recordable employee injury and illness is
which of the following?
1) Form OSHA 300

2) Form OSHA 300-A
3) Form OSHA 301
4) Form OSHA 302
Form OSHA 300 is the new Log of Work-Related Injuries and Illnesses, Form OSHA 300-A is the new Summary of
Work-Related Injuries and Illnesses, Form OSHA 301 is the new Injury and Illness Incident Report. As in the old
standard, equivalent forms may be used in lieu of the actual OSHA-printed form. 29 CFR 1904.29

As of January 2002, each entry on the Log of Work-Related Injuries and Illnesses (Form OSHA 300) now includes
what new feature?
1) A location for a description of the incident

2) An allowance for the employee's name to be withheld for privacy reasons
3) A location for the employee's job title
4) A location to describe the actual number of days lost by the employee
For certain illnesses (HIV, hepatitis, tuberculosis, mental), injuries (sexual assault, needlesticks from contaminated
blood), and injury locations (particular body parts), the employers must consider the incident to be a "privacy concern"
and may not use the affected employee's name on the form.

The Summary of Work-Related Injuries and Illnesses (Form OSHA 300A) must be posted publicly for how many
months?
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 0
29 CFR 1904.32(b)(6) requires that the OSHA 300A, Summary of Work-Related Injuries and Illnesses, be posted from
February 1 to April 30 of the year following the period covered by the Summary.

What is the fundamental objective that a developer of a form, report, or other written instrument must remember?
1) The needs of the end user of the written instrument

2) The needs of the one who will read the written instrument
3) The needs of the ones described by the written instrument
4) All of the above
A developer must balance these three needs when creating forms, reports, and other written instrument.

PROFESSIONAL RESPONSIBILITY :Continuing Education
The CHST is a challenging certification to obtain. Once an individual has completed the application process and
successfully passed the test, the certificate is awarded. The CHST designation can then be used by the individual:
1) Only as long as the individual maintains CM requirement and pays the annual renewal fee.
2) Only while working in the construction safety and health field.
3) For the rest of the individual's life, but only for work related purposes if the individual maintains CM requirement
and pays the annual renewal fee.
4) For five years, at which point the test must be re-taken.
A person who holds the CHST certification must participate in professional development activities after the initial
certification and report the activities every five years. 20 points must be achieve in the program every five years and
all points must be earned within the cycle to which they apply. Failure to meet this requirement will result in loss of
the certification.
CCHEST
See: CHST Certification Maintenance (CM)

The purpose of the Certification Maintenance program for maintaining the CHST certification is:
1) To ensure that the CCHEST is able to maintain a strong financial base.

2) To allow certificants to enter professional practice beyond their individual areas of expertise.
3) To ensure that the certificants stay current in their profession.
4) To assure that certificants that passed the examination as a result of luck, do not remain certified.
"The CM program helps ensure that OHST/CLCS and CHST certificants stay current in their profession."
CCHEST

The CHST must participate in certification maintenance activities. Certificate maintenance is on a 5 year schedule.
Which of the following is true?
1) The certification maintenance activities must be reported in the end-of-cycle reporting form.
2) If a certification maintenance activity is covered under more than one category, it may be applied to each category
that is covered.
3) The certificate holder must obtain 4 points in each of the 5 years of the certification maintenance cycle.
4) The certificate holder shall provide copies of certification maintenance activities documentation to CCHEST by
March 31 of the year following their end of cycle date.

The certification maintenance activities must be reported in the end-of-cycle reporting form. No supporting
documentation is to be sent to CCHEST unless specifically requested. A total of at least 20 points must be acquired at
anytime during the 5-year cycle. Supporting documentation is to be maintained by the certification holder.
CCHEST

CHST

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Date:01/25/14

The correct answer is: 3

Copyright 2013, DataChem Software, Westboro, MA

1) Obtain adequate funding.

The correct answer is: 2

Copyright 2013, DataChem Software, Westboro, MA

The least likely reason accidents generally occur is a result of:

The correct answer is: 4

Copyright 2013, DataChem Software, Westboro, MA

Section 5(a)(1) of the OSH Act:

1) Gives OSHA the RIGHT OF ENTRY.

The correct answer is: 3

Copyright 2013, DataChem Software, Westboro, MA

1) "Recognized Hazard Clause"

The correct answer is: 2

What is the most important factor in accident prevention?

The correct answer is: 4

Copyright 2013, DataChem Software, Westboro, MA

The correct answer is: 3

The General Duty Clause in the OSHA Act is 5(a)(1).

Copyright 2013, DataChem Software, Westboro, MA

The term "cradle to grave" is associated with what legislative act?

The correct answer is: 2

Copyright 2013, DataChem Software, Westboro, MA

Community Right-To-Know is associated with what legislative act?

The correct answer is: 3

Copyright 2013, DataChem Software, Westboro, MA

The Asbestos Hazard Emergency Response Act :

The correct answer is: 2

Copyright 2013, DataChem Software, Westboro, MA

SPCC Plans apply to which type(s) of facilities?

1) Hazardous waste TSD facilities

The correct answer is: 3

Copyright 2013, DataChem Software, Westboro, MA

The "Cradle to Grave" aspects of the RCRA program refer to:

The correct answer is: 1

Copyright 2013, DataChem Software, Westboro, MA

Anticipating and controlling hazards are best accomplished:

1) Twenty-four hours following a workplace inspection.

The correct answer is: 3

Copyright 2013, DataChem Software, Westboro, MA

1) Safety and health should be of primary concern to everybody.

The correct answer is: 3

Copyright 2013, DataChem Software, Westboro, MA

A safety program begins by:

1) Developing a policy statement.

Copyright 2013, DataChem Software, Westboro, MA

As manager, how would you discipline a minor rule infraction?

The correct answer is: 1

Copyright 2013, DataChem Software, Westboro, MA

What is the key to effective safety management?

1) Compliance with OSHA standards

The correct answer is: 2

Copyright 2013, DataChem Software, Westboro, MA

The correct answer is: 1

Copyright 2013, DataChem Software, Westboro, MA

1) Cannot set goals

The correct answer is: 4

Copyright 2013, DataChem Software, Westboro, MA

1) A clear presentation of the program results

The correct answer is: 4

Copyright 2013, DataChem Software, Westboro, MA

The correct answer is: 2

This type of agreement is known as a "hold harmless agreement".