Reproductive Health 833
CHAPTER 26
REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH
NCERT BIOLOGICS ©
REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH – PROBLEMS AND
STRATEGIES
1. According to the World Health Organisation (WHO),
reproductive health means a total well-being in all
aspects of reproduction, i.e., physical, emotional,
behavioural and social.
2. India was amongst the first countries in the world to
initiate action plans and programmes at a national
level to attain total reproductive health as a social goal.
These programmes called ‘family planning’ were
initiated in 1951 and were periodically assessed over
the past decades.
3. Improved programmes covering wider reproduction-
related areas are currently in operation under the
popular name ‘Reproductive and Child Health
Care (RCH) programmes’.
4. With the help of audio-visual and the print-media
governmental and non-governmental agencies have
taken various steps to create awareness among the
people about reproduction-related aspects.
5. Introduction of sex education in schools should also be
encouraged to provide right information to the young
so as to discourage children from believing in myths
and having misconceptions about sex-related aspects.
6. Proper information about reproductive organs,
adolescence and related changes, safe and hygienic
sexual practices, sexually transmitted diseases (STD),
AIDS, etc., would help people, especially those in the
adolescent age group to lead a reproductively healthy
life.
7. Educating people, especially fertile couples and those
in marriageable age group, about available birth
control options, care of pregnant mothers, post-natal
care of the mother and child, importance of breast
feeding, equal opportunities for the male and the
female child, etc., would address the importance of
bringing up socially conscious healthy families of
desired size.
8. Awareness of problems due to uncontrolled population
growth, social evils like sex-abuse and sex-related
crimes, etc., need to be created to enable people to
think and take up necessary steps to prevent them and
thereby build up a socially responsible and healthy
society.
9. Statutory ban on amniocentesis (a foetal sex
determination test based on the chromosomal pattern
in the amniotic fluid surrounding the developing
embryo) for sex-determination to legally check
increasing female foeticides, massive child
immunisation, etc., are some programmes that require
a mention. This procedure is actually used to test for
the presence of certain genetic disorders like Down’s
syndrome, haemophilia, sickle cell anaemia.
10. Better awareness about sex related matters, increased
number of medically assisted deliveries and better
post-natal care leading to decreased maternal and
infant mortality rates, increased number of couples
with small families, better detection and cure of STDs
and overall increased medical facilities for all
sex-related problems, etc. all indicate improved
reproductive health of the society.
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POPULATION EXPLOSION AND BIRTH
CONTROL
1. Our population which was approximately 350 million
at the time of our independence reached close to the
billion mark by 2000 and crossed 1.2 billion in May
2011. That means, every sixth person in the world is an
Indian. A rapid decline in death rate, maternal
mortality rate (MMR) and infant mortality rate
(IMR) as well as an increase in number of people in
reproducible age are probable reasons for this. The
world population which was around 2 billion (2000
million) in 1900, rocketed to about 6 billion by 2000
and 7.2 billion in 2011.
2. Through RCH (Reproductive and Child Health Care)
programmes, though we could bring down the
population growth rate, it was only marginal.
3. According to the 2011 census report, the population
growth rate was less than 2 percent, i.e., 20/1000/year,
a rate at which our population could increase rapidly.
Such an alarming growth rate could lead to an absolute
scarcity of even the basic requirements, i.e., food,
shelter and clothing, inspite of significant progress
made in those areas. Therefore, the government was
forced to take up serious measures to check this
population growth rate.
4. The most important step to overcome this problem of
population explosion is to motivate smaller families by
using various contraceptive methods.
5. Many couples, mostly the young, urban, working ones
have even adopted an ‘one child norm’. Statutory
raising of marriageable age of the female to 18 years
and that of males to 21 years, and incentives given to
couples with small families are two of the other
measures taken to tackle this problem.
CONTRACEPTIVE METHODS TO PREVENT
UNWANTED PREGNANCIES
An ideal contraceptive should be user-friendly, easily
available, effective and reversible with no or least
side-effects. It also should in no way interfere with the sexual
drive, desire and/or the sexual act of the user. A wide range of
contraceptive methods are presently available which could be
broadly grouped into the following categories, namely
Natural/Traditional, Barrier, IUDs, Oral contraceptives,
Injectables, Implants and Surgical methods.
1. Natural methods work on the principle of avoiding
chances of ovum and sperms meeting. These are
mentioned below :
(i) Periodic abstinence is one such method in
which the couples avoid or abstain from coitus
from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle when
ovulation could be expected. As chances of
fertilisation are very high during this period, it is
called the fertile period. Therefore, by
abstaining from coitus during this period,
conception could be prevented.
(ii) Withdrawal or coitus interruptus is
another method in which the male partner
withdraws his penis from the vagina just before
ejaculation so as to avoid insemination.
(iii) Lactational amenorrhea (absence of
menstruation) method is based on the fact that
ovulation and therefore the cycle do not occur
during the period of intense lactation following
parturition. Therefore, as long as the mother
breast-feeds the child fully, chances of
conception are almost nil. However, this
method has been reported to be effective only
upto a maximum period of six months following
parturition. As no medicines or devices are used
in these methods, side effects are almost nil.
Chances of failure, though, of this method are
also high.
2. In Barrier methods, ovum and sperms are
prevented from physically meeting with the help of
barriers. Such methods are available for both males
and females. These are mention below :
(i) Condoms are barriers made of thin rubber/
latex sheath that are used to cover the penis in
the male or vagina and cervix in the female, just
before coitus so that the ejaculated semen
would not enter into the female reproductive
tract. This can prevent conception. ‘Nirodh’ is a
popular brand of condom for the male. Use of
condoms has increased in recent years due to its
additional benefit of protecting the user from
contracting STDs and AIDS. Both the male and
the female condoms are disposable, can be
self-inserted and thereby gives privacy to the
user.
(ii) Diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults are
also barriers made of rubber that are inserted
into the female reproductive tract to cover the
cervix during coitus. They prevent conception
by blocking the entry of sperms through the
cervix. They are reusable. Spermicidal creams,
jellies and foams are usually used alongwith
these barriers to increase their contraceptive
efficiency.
3. Another effective and popular method is the use of
Intra Uterine Devices (IUDs). These devices are
inserted by doctors or expert nurses in the uterus
through vagina. These Intra Uterine Devices are
presently available as the non-medicated IUDs (e.g.,
Lippes loop), copper releasing IUDs (CuT, Cu7,
Multiload 375) and the hormone releasing IUDs
(Progestasert, LNG-20). IUDs increase phagocytosis of

sperms within the uterus and the Cu ions released
suppress sperm motility and the fertilising capacity of
sperms. The hormone releasing IUDs, in addition,
make the uterus unsuitable for implantation and the
cervix hostile to the sperms. IUDs are ideal
contraceptives for the females who want to delay
pregnancy and/or space children. It is one of most
widely accepted methods of contraception in India.
4. Oral administration of small doses of either
progestogens (Synthetic progesterone) or
progestogen–estrogen combinations is another
contraceptive method used by the females.
(i) Progestogens or progestogen-estrogen are used
in the form of tablets and hence are popularly
called the pills.
(ii) Pills have to be taken daily for a period of 21
days starting preferably within the first five days
of menstrual cycle. After a gap of 7 days (during
which menstruation occurs) it has to be
repeated in the same pattern till the female
desires to prevent conception. They inhibit
ovulation and implantation as well as alter the
quality of cervical mucus to prevent/ retard
entry of sperms. Pills are very effective with
lesser side effects and are well accepted by the
females. Saheli –the new oral contraceptive for
the females contains a non-steroidal
preparation. It is a ‘once a week’ pill with very
few side effects and high contraceptive value.
Note:
(a) ‘Saheli’–a new oral contraceptive for the
females–was developed by scientists at Central
Drug Research Institute (CDRI) in Lucknow, India.
(b) Progestogens alone or in combination with estrogen
can also be used by females as injections or implants
under the skin. Their mode of action is similar to that
of pills and their effective periods are much longer.
Administration of progestogens or
progestogen-estrogen combinations or IUDs within 72
hours of coitus have been found to be very effective as
emergency contraceptives as they could be used to
avoid possible pregnancy due to rape or casual
unprotected intercourse.
5. Surgical methods, also called sterilisation, are
generally advised for the male/female partner as a
terminal method to prevent any more pregnancies.
Surgical intervention blocks gamete transport and
thereby prevent conception. Sterilisation procedure in
the male is called ‘vasectomy’ and that in the female,
‘tubectomy’. In vasectomy, a small part of the vas
deferens is removed or tied up through a small incision
on the scrotum whereas in tubectomy, a small part of
the fallopian tube is removed or tied up through a small
Reproductive Health 835
incision in the abdomen or through vagina. These
techniques are highly effective but their reversibility is
very poor.
6. It should be remembered that contraceptives are not
regular requirements for the maintenance of
reproductive health. Actually they are practiced
against a natural reproductive event, i.e.,
conception/pregnancy. One is forced to use these
methods either to prevent pregnancy or to delay or
space pregnancy due to personal reasons. However,
their possible ill-effects like nausea, abdominal pain,
breakthrough bleeding, irregular menstrual
bleeding or even breast cancer, though not very
significant, should not be totally ignored.
MEDICAL TERMINATION OF PREGNANCY
(MTP)
1. Intentional or voluntary termination of pregnancy
before full term is called medical termination of
pregnancy (MTP) or induced abortion.
2. Nearly 45 to 50 million MTPs are performed in a year
all over the world which accounts to 1/5th of the total
number of conceived pregnancies in a year.
3. MTP has a significant role in decreasing the population
though it is not meant for that purpose.
4. Whether to accept / legalise MTP or not is being
debated upon in many countries due to emotional,
ethical, religious and social issues involved in it.
5. Government of India legalised MTP in 1971 with some
strict conditions to avoid its misuse. Such restrictions
are all the more important to check indiscriminate and
illegal female foeticides which are reported to be high
in India. The Medical Termination of Pregnancy
(Amendment) Act, 2017 was enacted by the
government of India with the intension of reducing the
incidence of illegal abortion and consequent maternal
mortality and morbidity. According to this act, a
pregnancy may be terminated on certain considered
grounds within the first 12 weeks of pregnancy
on the opinion of one registered medical practitioner.
If the pregnancy has lasted more than 12 weeks but
fewer than 24 weeks, two registered medical
practitoners must be of the opinion, formed in good
faith, that the required ground exist. The grounds for
such termination of pregnancies are:
(i) The continuation of pregnancy would involve a
risk to the life of the pregnant woman or of
grave injury physical or mental health.
(ii) There is substantial risk that if the child were
born, it would suffer from such physical or
mental abnormalities as to be seriously
handicapped.
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6. MTP is performed to get rid of unwanted pregnancies
either due to casual unprotected intercourse or failure
of the contraceptive used during coitus or rapes. MTPs
are also essential in certain cases where continuation of
the pregnancy could be harmful or even fatal either to
the mother or to the foetus or both.
7. MTPs are considered relatively safe during the first
trimester, i.e., upto 12 weeks of pregnancy. Second
trimester abortions are much more riskier.
8. One disturbing trend observed is that a majority of the
MTPs are performed illegally by unqualified quacks
which are not only unsafe but could be fatal too.
Another dangerous trend is the misuse of
amniocentesis to determine the sex of the unborn child.
Frequently, if the foetus is found to be female, it is
followed by MTP- this is totally against what is legal.
Such practices should be avoided because these are
dangerous both for the young mother and the foetus.
9. Effective counselling on the need to avoid unprotected
coitus and the risk factors involved in illegal abortions
as well as providing more health care facilities could
reverse the mentioned unhealthy trend.
SEXUALLY TRANSMITTED INFECTIONS
(STIs)
1. Diseases or infections which are transmitted through
sexual intercourse are collectively called sexually
transmitted infactions (STI) or venereal diseases (VD)
or reproductive tract infections (RTI).
2. Gonorrhoea, syphilis,genital herpes, chlamydiasis,
genital warts, trichomoniasis, hepatitis-B and of
course, the most discussed infection in the recent years,
HIV leading to AIDS are some of the common STIs.
Among these, HIV infection is most dangerous.
3. Some of these infections like hepatitis–B and HIV can
also be transmitted by sharing of injection needles
surgical instruments, etc., with infected persons,
transfusion of blood, or from an infected mother to the
foetus too. Except for hepatitis-B, genital herpes and
HIV infections, other diseases are completely curable if
detected early and treated properly.
4. Early symptoms of most of these are minor and include
itching, fluid discharge, slight pain, swellings, etc., in
the genital region. Infected females may often be
asymptomatic and hence, may remain undetected for
long. Absence or less significant symptoms in the early
stages of infection and the social stigma attached to the
STDs, deter the infected persons from going for timely
detection and proper treatment. This could lead to
complications later, which include pelvic inflammatory
diseases (PID), abortions, still births, ectopic
pregnancies, infertility or even cancer of the
reproductive tract.
5. STDs are a major threat to a healthy society. Therefore,
prevention or early detection and cure of these diseases
are given prime consideration under the reproductive
health-care programmes.
6. Though all persons are vulnerable to these infections,
their incidences are reported to be very high among
persons in the age group of 15-24 years. There is no
reason to panic because prevention is possible. One
could be free of these infections by following the simple
principles given below:
(i) Avoid sex with unknown partners/multiple
partners.
(ii) Always use condoms during coitus.
(iii) In case of doubt, one should go to a qualified
doctor for early detection and get complete
treatment if diagnosed with disease.
INFERTILITY
1. A large number of couples all over the world including
India are infertile, i.e., they are unable to produce
children inspite of unprotected sexual co-habitation.
The reasons for this could be many–physical,
congenital, diseases, drugs, immunological or even
psychological.
2. In India, often the female is blamed for the couple
being childless, but more often than not, the problem
lies in the male partner. Specialised health care units
(infertility clinics, etc.) could help in diagnosis and
corrective treatment of some of these disorders and
enable these couples to have children. However, where
such corrections are not possible, the couples could be
assisted to have children through certain special
techniques commonly known as Assisted
Reproductive Technologies (ART).
3. In vitro fertilisation (IVF–fertilisation outside the
body in almost similar conditions as that in the body)
followed by embryo transfer (ET) is one of such
methods. In this method, popularly known as test tube
baby programme, ova from the wife/donor (female)
and sperms from the husband/donor (male) are
collected and are induced to form zygote under
simulated conditions in the laboratory. The zygote or
early embryos (with upto 8 blastomeres) could then be
transferred into the fallopian tube (ZIFT–zygote
intra fallopian transfer) and embryos with more
than 8 blastomeres, into the uterus (IUT – intra
uterine transfer), to complete its further
development. Embryos formed by in-vivo
fertilisation (fusion of gametes within the female)
also could be used for such transfer to assist those
females who cannot conceive.
4. (i) Transfer of an ovum collected from a donor into the
fallopian tube (GIFT – gamete intra fallopian
transfer) of another female who cannot produce one,

but can provide suitable environment for fertilisation
and further development is another method attempted.
(ii) Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI) is
another specialised procedure to form an embryo in the
laboratory in which a sperm is directly injected into the
ovum.
(iii) Infertility cases either due to inability of the male
partner to inseminate the female or due to very low
Reproductive Health 837
sperm counts in the ejaculates, could be corrected by
artificial insemination (AI) technique. In this
technique, the semen collected either from the husband
or a healthy donor is artificially introduced either into
the vagina or into the uterus (IUI – intra-uterine
insemination) of the female.
838 NCERT Biology Booster

Section-A : Questions Based on NCERT Textbook

Reproductive Health, Problems and Strategies (d) Statutory raising of marriageable age of females to
1. Which of the following is correct ? 18 years and males to 21 years and incentives
(a) India was the first country in the world to initiate given to couples with small families have also
action plans and programmes at a national level to contributed to reduce the population size
attain total reproductive health as a social goal 7. Amniocentesis has the following advantages, except :
(b) The ‘family planning’ programmes were initiated (a) Diagnosis of chromosomal aberration
in 1951 (b) Detection of a genetical disorder
(c) ‘RCH-programme’ deals with wider reproductive (c) Sex determination leading to abortion of female
health related issues foetus
(d) More than one option (d) All of the above
2. RCH stands for : 8. Amniocentesis involves the analysis of :
(a) Random check-up of heart (a) Amnion
(b) Reproductive and child health care (b) Body fluids of amniotes
(c) Regional child health care (c) Amino acids of protein
(d) Real child health care (d) Amniotic fluid
3. CDRI is abbreviated form of : Population Explosion and Birth Control
(a) Calcutta Drug Research Institute 9. The oral contraceptive —‘SAHELI’ was developed by
(b) Cuttack Drug Research Institute the scientists at :
(c) Chennai Drug Research Institute (a) CDRI, Hyderabad
(d) Central Drug Research Institute (b) CCMB, Hyderabad
4. Amniocentesis is : (c) CDRI, Lucknow
(a) A foetal sex and disorder determination test (d) CCMB, Lucknow
(b) Done by chromosomal analysis of embryo cells in 10. Find out the true (T)/false (F) statements and choose
the amniotic fluid the correct option :
(c) Being misused for sex-determination I. According to WHO, reproductive health means a
(d) Related to all of the above total well being in all aspects of reproduction, i. e.,
5. Umbilical Cord Blood (UCB) is the : physical, emotional, behavioural and social
(a) Source of haematopoietic stem cells (HSC) II. With the help of audio-visual and print-media
(b) Progenitor cells that can reconstitute the governmental and non-governmental agencies
haematopoietic system in patients with malignant have taken various steps to create awareness
and non-malignant disorders treated with among the people about reproduction related
myeloblative therapy aspects
(c) Both (a) and (b) III. ‘SAHELI’ is a steroidal oral contraceptive
(d) Useless blood cells with no medical use IV. Our population crossed 1 billion in May 2000
6. Choose the incorrect statement : which means every sixth person in the world is an
(a) Through RCH programmes, the population growth Indian
rate was brought down marginally
Opti
(b) According to the 2011 census report, the I II III IV
ons
population growth rate was around 1.7 percent,
(a) T T F T
i. e., 17/10000/year
(c) The most important step to overcome the problem (b) T T T T
of population explosion is to motivate the
(c) T F T F
formation of smaller families by using
contraceptives (d) F T T T
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11. An ideal contraceptive should : 18. Identify A, B, C and D representing different barrier
(a) Interfere with the sexual act of the user methods of birth control :
(b) Interfere with the sexual drive of the user
(c) Always be used orally
(d) Be easily available, user-friendly, effective and
reversible with no side effects
12. Population growth rate is dependent on :
(a) Death rate A B
(b) Birth rate
(c) Age-sex ratio
(d) Birth-rate, death rate and age-sex ratio
13. Choose the odd one out w.r.t. natural methods of birth
control :
(a) Lactational amenorrhea C D
(b) Coitus interruptus
Opti
(c) Penis withdrawal before ejaculation A B C D
ons
(d) Sterilisation
(a) Implants Copper T Male Female
14. Lactational amenorrhea : condom condom
(a) Is the absence of menstruation in any Copper T Implants Male Female
(b)
non-pregnant women condom condom
(b) Is the temporary postnatal infertility when a (c) Implants Copper T Female Male
woman is not menstruating and fully breast condom condom
feeding (d) Copper T Implants Female Male
(c) Is a method of birth control that has multiple side condom condom
effects
19. Choose the correct option for the reasons of population
(d) Is the full-proof method of birth control
explosion :
15. Chorionic Villus Sampling (CVS) :
I. Decline in maternal mortality rate
(a) Is a form of prenatal diagnosis to determine genetic
II. Increase in infant mortality rate
disorders in the foetus
III. Increased medical facilities and sanitation
(b) Can determine the sex of foetus
IV. Increased birth-control awareness
(c) Has risks of miscarriage and infection
V. Popularity of RCH programmes
(d) Is related to all of the above
(a) II, III, IV (b) I, III
16. Lactational amenorrhea method of birth control is :
(c) II, IV, V (d) II, IV
(a) Effective till breast feeding continues
20. Choose the odd one out for an ideal contraceptive :
(b) Effective only upto the period of one month
(a) Have least side-effects
following parturition
(b) Its action should be irreversible
(c) Effective only upto the period of one year following
(c) It should be easy to use
parturition
(d) It should be easily available
(d) Effective only upto a maximum period of six
months following parturition 21. Which one is true for the oral contraceptive ‘SAHELI’ ?
17. Which of the following is correct for CVS ? (a) It is ‘once a week’ pill
(a) It is performed during 8th to 12th week of (b) It has multiple side effects
pregnancy (c) It is non-steroidal with high contraceptive value
(b) It can be done earlier than amniocentesis (d) Both (a) and (c)
(c) It can be performed in transcervical or 22. How the population explosion of a country can be
transabdominal manner controlled ?
(d) More than one option (a) Launching family planning programmes
(b) Statutory raising of marriageable age
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(c) Spreading the awareness and advantage of nuclear 30. The so called ‘combination’ birth control pills function
family in contraception by :
(d) More than one option is correct (a) Inhibiting the release of GnRH, FSH and LH
23. Condoms : (b) Irritating the uterine lining so as to prevent
(a) Can be worn by males only implantation
(b) Can be worn by females only (c) Causing spontaneous abortions
(c) Can be worn either by males or females (d) Blocking progesterone receptors, so that
(d) In females are to be inserted upto uterus pregnancy cannot be maintained
24. Fem-shield : 31. Time-release progesterone implants function in
(a) Is a flexible female condom contraception by :
(b) Is a permanent cervical cap (a) Increasing the frequency of ovulation by positive
(c) Both (a) and (b) feedback
(d) Is a foam-based male condom (b) Increasing gonadotropin secretion to abnormally
high levels
25. ‘Nirodh’ is :
(c) Thickening the cervical and uterine mucus to
(a) A type of birth-control pill
impair sperm movement
(b) A popular brand of male condom manufactured by
(d) Reducing libido
HLL lifecare
32. Vasectomy :
(c) An awareness programme to encourage vasectomy
(a) Eliminates spermatogenesis
(d) Related to tubectomy
(b) Eliminates testosterone synthesis
26. What is the advantage of a condom ?
(c) Prevents implantation of an embryo
(a) Both males and female can use
(d) Prevents sperm from exiting the male urethra
(b) Disposable
33. Tubal ligation :
(c) Prevents STDs and AIDS
(a) Reduces incidence of ovulation
(d) All of these
(b) Prevents fertilisation by preventing sperm from
27. Match the columns :
entering the uterus
Column-I Column-II (c) Prevents implantation of an embryo
A. Condom (i) Oral (d) Prevents oocytes from entering the uterus
B. Pills (ii) Lippes loop 34. Diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults :
C. Implants (iii) Barrier (a) Are natural methods of birth control
D. IUD (iv) Under-skin (b) Prevent conception by blocking the entry of sperms
through the cervix
(a) A = (i), B = (iv), C = (ii), D = (iii) (c) Are made of soft metals
(b) A = (i), B = (iii), C = (ii), D = (iv) (d) Physical and chemical barrier methods of birth
(c) A = (iii), B = (ii), C = (iv), D = (i) control
(d) A = (iii), B = (i), C = (iv), D = (ii) 35. Two contraceptive methods that are generally
28. Which of the following is related to natural methods of irreversible and which block the gametes from moving
birth control ? to a site where fertilisation can occur are :
(a) Oral contraceptive (a) Male condom and oral contraceptives
(b) Condoms (b) Male condom and female condom
(c) Periodic abstinence (c) Vasectomy and tubectomy
(d) Copper-T (d) Coitus interruptus and rhythm method
29. During periodic abstinence, the couples abstain from 36. The use of birth-control pills (oral contraceptives) :
coitus from ___________ day of the menstrual cycle. (a) Reduces the incidence of ovulation
(a) 10-17 (b) 1-7 (b) Prevents fertilisation by keeping the sperm and egg
(c) 18-25 (d) 10-15 physically separated by a mechanical barrier
(c) Prevents oocytes from entering the uterus
(d) Prevents implantation of an embryo
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37. Among the contraception methods, the highest risk of (v) These are ideal contraceptives those who want to
accidental pregnancy accompanies : delay pregnancy/ or space children
(a) The use of a condom Which of the above statement are correct ?
(b) The use of a diaphragm (a) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(c) The practice of coitus interruptus (b) (i), (iv)
(d) The practice of rhythm method (c) (i), (ii)
38. Which of the following is reusable (w.r.t. birth-control (d) (ii), (iii), (v)
methods) ? 44. What does the given diagram depicts ?
(a) Spermicidal creams, jellies and foams
(b) Diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults
(c) Condoms
(d) Orally administered progesterone
39. Which of the following is incorrect for the oral
contraceptive ‘Mala-D’ ?
(a) It is steroidal
(b) Dose starts within the first five days of menstrual
cycle taking one tablet for 21 consecutive days
(c) It is ‘once a week’ pill
(d) Prevents pregnancy effectively
40. A contraceptive pill that continuously inhibits the
(a) Vasectomy
release of GnRH from the hypothalamus will :
(b) Tubectomy
(a) Increase the production of estrogen and
progesterone by ovaries (c) Sterilisation
(b) Initiate ovulation (d) More than one option is correct
(c) Stimulate secretion of LH and FSH from the 45. What does the given diagram depicts ?
posterior pituitary
(d) Reduce the secretion of gonadotropins from the
anterior pituitary
41. ‘Lippes loop’ is :
(a) Non-medicated IUD
(b) Copper-releasing IUD
(c) Hormone-releasing IUD
(d) Multiload 375 IUD
42. Select a hormone-releasing IUD :
(a) LNG-20
(b) Progestasert and multiload 375
(c) Cu7
(d) Both (a) and (b)
43. Read the following statements w.r.t. IUDs : (a) Vasectomy
(i) These decreases the phagocytosis of sperms (b) Tubectomy
within the uterus (c) Chemical sterilisation
(ii) Cu ions released from CuT suppress sperm (d) All of the above
motility and fertilising capacity of sperms 46. Choose the correct option :
(iii) The hormone-releasing IUDs, make uterus (a) Oral contraceptives inhibit ovulation and
unsuitable for implantation and the cervix hostile implantation as well as alter the quality of cervical
to the sperms mucus to prevent/retard entry of sperms
(iv) These can be self-inserted in the uterus (b) Diaphragm and vaults have spermicidal action
 842 NCERT Biology Booster

(c) CuT release Cu ions that increases the sperm 54. Which of the following is the component of oral pill ?
motility (a) Oxytocin (b) Progesterone
(d) ‘Lippes loop’ is a barrier method of contraception (c) Relaxin (d) None of these
47. The major disadvantage of IUDs is that : 55. Progestasert is an IUD which makes the uterus
(a) These undergo spontaneous expulsion without the unsuitable and cervix hostile to the sperms as they are :
woman’s knowledge (a) Copper releasing IUD
(b) Makes uterus unsuitable for implantation (b) Hormone releasing IUD
(c) Least effective birth control method (c) Non-medicated IUD
(d) Makes cervix hostile to sperms (d) Both (a) and (c)
48. The most widely accepted methods of contraception in 56. Oral birth-control pills :
Indian females is : (a) Contain either progestogens or progestogen-
(a) The use of condoms estrogen combinations
(b) The use of IUDs (b) Like ‘Mala-D’ have to be taken daily for a period of
(c) Tubectomy only seven days within the first five days of
(d) Vasectomy menstrual cycle
49. What is the disadvantage(s) of intrauterine (c) Inhibit ovulation, implantation and alter the
contraceptive devices ? quality of cervical mucus
(a) Risk of infection (d) Are related to more than one option
(b) Tubal pregnancy i. e., implantation of embryo in 57. Which of the following is correct for emergency
the fallopian tube contraceptives ?
(c) Can cause excess menstrual bleeding and pain (a) It includes administration of progestogens or
(d) All of the above progestogen-estrogen combinations
50. How does Cu-T functions ? (b) Insertion of IUD within 72 hours of coitus
(a) Inhibits gametogenesis (c) Intake of ‘morning-after-pills’
(b) Inhibits implantation (d) More than one option
(c) Inhibits fertilisation 58. Study the graph and identify the responsible
(d) Inhibits sex hormone release contraceptive ?
51. Prevention of pregnancy by progesterone analogue
pills is by :
Progesterone level

(a) Degenerating sperms

(b) Preventing ovulation
(c) Preventing implantation
(d) Preventing fertilisation
52. Which of the following is correct ?
(a) Sperms survives for about 72 hours
1 5 10 15 20 25 30
(b) Ova survives for about 24-48 hours
(c) Ovulation occurs approximately on the 14th day of Days
menstruation
(a) Cu-T (b) SAHELI
(d) All of the above
(c) MALA-D (d) Lippes loop
53. Which of the following birth control measures can be
59. Choose the odd one out w.r.t. contraceptive devices/
considered as safest ?
methods :
(a) The rhythm method
(a) Condoms
(b) The use of physical barriers
(b) Cu-T
(c) Termination of unwanted pregnancy
(c) Castration
(d) Sterilisation technique
(d) Vasectomy and tubectomy
 Reproductive Health 843

60. Castration is not a method of contraception as : Opti

A B C D
(a) Gamete formation continues ons
(b) It is very painful (a) Surgical One oviduct Both the Transport of
(c) Due to deficiency of testosterone sexual desire is sterilisation is vasa sperms is
highly reduced for males interrupted deferentia blocked
by ligation or are
(d) It is highly infectious cuts interrupted
61. During lactational amenorrhoea, as a result of high by cuts
level of prolactin secretion : (b) Surgical Both the Both the Transport of
(a) LH and FSH release is stimulated sterilisation oviducts are vasa sperms is
for males interrupted deferentia blocked
(b) Inhibition of release of gonadotropins occurs by ligation or are
(c) Ovulation fails but menstruation continue cuts interrupted
(d) Progesterone release is stimulated by cuts
62. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. (c) Surgical Both the One of the Transport of
sterilisation oviducts are vasa sperms is
contraception?
for males interrupted efferentia is blocked
(a) Natural methods is based on the strategy to avoid by ligation or interrupted
fusion of sperms and ovum cuts by cuts
(b) IUD and sterilisation inhibits gamete formation (d) Surgical Uterus is Both the Transport of
(c) Oral pills inhibit ovulation sterilisation removed vasa sperms is
for males efferentia blocked
(d) IUDs can be used as emergency contraceptives are removed
63. An individual who has undergone vasectomy :
(a) Cannot form sperms 67. Surgical methods, also called sterilisation are generally
(b) Cannot ejaculate advised for :
(c) Has low levels of male sex hormones in his blood (a) The male partner as a terminal method to prevent
(d) Can ejaculate semen any more pregnancies
64. Which of the following contraceptive devices has (b) The female partner as a terminal method to
become popular for its additional benefits of prevent any more pregnancies
preventing AIDS ? (c) Either to (a) or (b)
(a) Lactational amenorrhea method (d) Stops gamete formation thereby prevent
(b) Condoms conception
(c) IUD 68. For which of the following contraceptive methods,
reversibility is poor ?
(d) Tubectomy and vasectomy
(a) Vasectomy and tubectomy
65. Hormonal pills act by :
(b) IUD
(a) Inhibition of ovulation and alteration in uterine
endometrium (c) Barriers
(b) Changes in the cervical mucus impairing its ability (d) Oral pills
to allow passage and transport of sperms 69. Find out the true (T)/ false (F) statements and choose
(c) Inhibition of motility and secretory activity of the correct option :
fallopian tubes I. Contraceptives are not regular requirements for
(d) Any of the above the maintenance of reproductive health
66. Identify A, B, C and D in the table provided : II. The use of contraceptives is against the natural
reproductive event, i. e., conception/pregnancy
Tubectomy Vasectomy III. The use of contraceptives may have the possible
Surgical sterilisation A ill-effects like nausea, abdominal pain, break
technique for females through bleeding, irregular menstrual bleeding or
B C even breast cancer
Transport of ova is blocked D IV. One is forced to use the contraceptives either to
prevent pregnancy or to delay or space pregnancy
due to personal reasons
 844 NCERT Biology Booster

Opti (c) Lack of education

I II III IV
ons (d) All of these
(a) T T T T 77. Which contraceptive devices makes uterus unsuitable
for implantation ?
(b) T T T F
(a) Progestasert (b) Cu-T
(c) F T T T (c) Lippes loop (d) Multiload
(d) T F T F Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP)
78. Medical termination of pregnancy is :
70. Which of the following is a mechanical barrier used in (a) Essential in certain cases where continuation of the
birth control ? pregnancy could be harmful or even fatal either to
(a) Loop (b) Cu-T the mother or to the foetus or both
(c) Dalkon shield (d) Diaphragm (b) Unsafe during the first trimester, i. e., upto 12
71. Which one is the safest method of birth control ? weeks of pregnancy
(a) Termination of unwanted pregnancy (c) Quite safe even if performed by quacks as it
(b) Sterilisation technique involves no expertise
(c) Rhythm method (d) In India is illegally practiced to discard the male
(d) Use of physical barriers foetus
72. Which one is not included in barrier methods of birth
Sexually Transmitted Infections (STIs)
control ?
79. AIDS day is :
(a) Lippes loop (b) Vault
(a) 1st December (b) 3rd April
(c) Cervical cap (d) Diaphragm
(c) 1st June (d) 5th November
73. Match the columns w.r.t. methods of contraception :
80. Urinogenital tract infection in males accompanied by
Column-I Column-II yellow discharge, burning feeling on passing urine,
A. Sterilisation (i) Spermicidal jelly and foam fever and headache is :
B. Barrier (ii) Tubectomy (a) Hepatitis-B (b) Gonorrhoea
C. Chemical (iii) Cervical cap (c) Syphilis (d) AIDS
D. Natural (iv) Coitus interruptus and 81. Which ones are all sexually transmitted diseases ?
calender method (a) Hepatitis-B, AIDS, Haemophilia
(b) AIDS, Cholera, Syphilis
(a) A = (ii), B = (iii), C = (i), D = (iv)
(c) Gonorrhoea, Hepatitis-B, Chlamydia
(b) A = (i), B = (ii), C = (iv), D = (iii)
(d) Malaria, HIV, Trichomoniasis
(c) A = (iii), B = (i), C = (ii), D = (iv)
82. Sexually transmitted disease affecting both male and
(d) A = (ii), B = (i), C = (iii), D = (iv)
female genitals which often damages eyes of babies
74. Permanent contraception in human male is through :
born to infected mothers is :
(a) Diaphragm
(a) AIDS (b) Gonorrhoea
(b) Vasectomy
(c) Hepatitis (d) Syphilis
(c) Tubectomy
83. Which one is correct regarding STD ?
(d) Both (b) and (c)
(a) Haemophilia is one of the STD
75. Which of the following is not a method of
(b) Genital herpes and sickle cell anaemia are STD
contraception:
(c) Chances of a five years old boy contracting a STD
(a) Lippes loop
are very little
(b) Pills having oxytocin and vasopressin
(d) A person may contract syphilis by sharing milk
(c) Condoms
with one already suffering from disease
(d) Tubectomy
84. Which of the following sexually transmitted disease is
76. Main factor for population growth in India is : caused by yeasts ?
(a) High birth rate (a) Candidiasis (b) Scabies
(b) Low death rate of infants (c) Syphilis (d) Enterobiasis
 Reproductive Health 845

85. Which one is not a sexually transmitted disease ? Infertility

(a) Syphilis (b) Trichomoniasis 92. In assisted reproductive technology (ART), the method
(c) Genital warts (d) Myasthenia gravis in which a sperm is directly injected into ovum is
86. The most dangerous and dreaded STD is : called:
(a) AIDS caused by HIV (a) ICSI (b) ZIFT
(b) Genital herpes (c) GIFT (d) ET
(c) Trichomoniasis 93. ZIFT is the transfer of :
(d) Syphilis (a) Embryo of more than 8 cells into the uterus
87. Select the venereal diseases ? (b) Zygote into fallopian tube
(a) Gonorrhoea, syphilis, genital herpes (c) Ovum into the fallopian tube
(b) Chlamydiasis, genital warts, Heptatitis-B (d) Ovum into the uterus
(c) Trichomoniasis, HIV 94. In ART, what is transplanted in fallopian tube ?
(d) All of the above (a) Embryo upto 8 blastomeres, if zygote is not
88. Which of the following infections can commonly be transplanted
transmitted by sharing of needles and surgical (b) Blastula is transplanted
instruments ? (c) Only zygote is transplanted
(a) Gonorrhoea and syphilis (d) Morula in 8-24 celled stage is transplanted
(b) Trichomoniasis 95. In which ART, the semen is artificially introduced into
(c) Hepatitis-B and HIV the female ?
(d) Chlamydiasis (a) IUI (b) ET
89. The following STDs are completely curable except : (c) IUT (d) GIFT
(a) Gonorrhoea 96. Which of the following is not a cause of male infertility?
(b) Syphilis (a) Oligospermia (b) Motile sperms
(c) Genital herpes, Chlamydiasis (c) Azoospermia (d) Asthenozoospermia
(d) Hepatits-B, HIV, Genital herpes 97. Stage transferred to uterus after induced fertilisation of
90. The social stigma attached to the STDs, deter the ovum in the laboratory is :
infected person from going for timely detection and (a) Morula
proper treatment. This could lead to : (b) Embryo at two blastomere stage
(a) PID (Pelvic Inflammatory Diseases) (c) Zygote
(b) Abortions, still births and ectopic pregnancies (d) Embryo at four blastomere stage
(c) Infertility and cancer 98. In which ART, test-tube baby procedure is applied ?
(d) More than one option mentioned above (a) Gamete intrafallopian transfer
91. Match the columns : (b) In-vitro fertilisation and embryo transfer
Column-I Column-II (c) Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection
(d) Artificial insemination
A. Chlamydiasis (i) Treponema
99. Read the following statements :
B. Gonorrhoea (ii) Chlamydia (i) Though all persons are vulnerable to STDs, their
C. Syphilis (iii) HPV incidences are common in the age group of 15-24
D. Genital warts (iv) Neisseria years
(ii) HIV can be prevented by avoiding sex with
(a) A = (i), B = (ii), C = (iv), D = (iii)
unknown partners or multiple partners and use of
(b) A = (ii), B = (iv), C = (i), D = (iii)
condoms
(c) A = (ii), B = (i), C = (iv), D = (iii)
(iii) The reason for infertility can be physical,
(d) A = (i), B = (iv), C = (ii), D = (iii) congenital diseases, drugs, immunological or
even psychological
(iv) ART stands for artificial reproductive
technologies
 846 NCERT Biology Booster

(v) Government of India legalised MTP in 1971 (c) A = (iii), B = (i), C = (ii), D = (iv)
without any applied restriction (d) A = (iii), B = (i), C = (iv), D = (ii)
How many of the above statements are correct ? 102. The ‘test-tube baby’ method :
(a) Three (b) Two (a) Involves in-vivo fertilisation
(c) Five (d) Four (b) Involves in-vitro fertilisation
100. IVF : (c) Donor of sperm is always husband and no other
(a) Deals with fertilisation outside the body in almost male
similar conditions as that in the body (d) Donor of ova is always wife and no other female
(b) Is followed by ET (embryo transfer) 103. Choose the incorrect statement :
(c) Both (a) and (b) (a) Gonorrhoea, chancroid and syphilis are bacterial
(d) Deals with fertilisation inside the cervix diseases
101. Match the columns : (b) Genital herpes, genital warts and AIDS are viral
diseases
Column-I Column-II
(c) Tubectomy has many side effects in males
A. ICSI (i) Embryos upto 8 blastomeres
transferred to fallopian tube
(d) Hepatitis-B can be transmitted through sexual act,
oral sex and blood transfusion
B. ZIFT (ii) Transfer of an ovum from donor
into the fallopian tube 104. The first successful test tube baby :
C. IUT (iii) Sperm directly injected into (a) Was Louise Brown born in 1978
ovum (b) Technique was developed by Robert G. Edward
D. GIFT (iv) Embryos with more than 8 and Patrick Steptoe
blastomeres transferred to
(c) Both (a) and (b)
uterus
(d) Died at the age of ten years because of the
(a) A = (iii), B = (ii), C = (iv), D = (i) complicacy of the technique
(b) A = (iii), B = (iv), C = (i), D = (ii)

Answers (Section-A)

1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (a)
11. (d) 12. (d) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (d) 16. (d) 17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (b)
21. (d) 22. (d) 23. (c) 24. (a) 25. (b) 26. (d) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (a) 30. (a)
31. (c) 32. (d) 33. (d) 34. (b) 35. (c) 36. (a) 37. (c) 38. (b) 39. (c) 40. (d)
41. (a) 42. (a) 43. (d) 44. (d) 45. (a) 46. (a) 47. (a) 48. (b) 49. (d) 50. (c)
51. (b) 52. (d) 53. (d) 54. (b) 55. (b) 56. (d) 57. (d) 58. (c) 59. (c) 60. (c)
61. (b) 62. (b) 63. (d) 64. (b) 65. (d) 66. (b) 67. (c) 68. (a) 69. (a) 70. (d)
71. (b) 72. (a) 73. (a) 74. (b) 75. (b) 76. (d) 77. (a) 78. (a) 79. (a) 80. (b)
81. (c) 82. (b) 83. (c) 84. (a) 85. (d) 86. (a) 87. (d) 88. (c) 89. (d) 90. (d)
91. (b) 92. (a) 93. (b) 94. (a) 95. (a) 96. (b) 97. (a) 98. (b) 99. (a) 100. (c)
101. (d) 102. (b) 103. (c) 104. (c)
 Reproductive Health 847

Section-B : Questions from NCERT Exemplar

1. The method of directly injecting a sperm into ovum in

assisted reproductive technology is called : (a) IUDs are generally inserted by the user herself
(a) GIFT (b) ZIFT (b) IUDs increase phagocytosis reaction in the uterus
(c) ICSI (d) ET (c) IUDs suppress gametogenesis
2. Increased IMR and decreased MMR in a population (d) IUDs once inserted need not be replaced.
will : 8. Following statements are given regarding MTP.
(a) Cause rapid increase in growth rate Choose the correct options given below :
(b) Result in decline in growth rate (i) MTPs are generally advised during first trimester
(c) Not cause significant change in growth rate (ii) MTPs are used as a contraceptive method
(d) Result in an explosive population (iii) MTPs are always surgical
3. Intensely lactating mothers do not generally conceive (iv) MTPs require the assistance of qualified medical
due to the : personnel.
(a) suppression of gonadotropins (a) (ii) and (iii) (b) (i) and (iii)
(b) hypersecretion of gonadotropins (c) (i) and (iv) (d) (i) and (ii)
(c) suppression of gametic transport 9. From the sexually transmitted diseases mentioned
(d) suppression of fertilisation below, identify the one which does not specifically
4. Sterilization techniques are generally full proof affect the sex organs :
methods of contraception with least side effects. Yet, (a) Syphilis (b) AIDS
this is the last option for the couples because : (c) Gonorrhea (d) Genital warts
(i) it is almost irreversible 10. Condoms are one of the most popular contraceptives
(ii) of the misconception that it will reduce sexual because of the following reasons :
urge/ drive (a) These are effective barriers for insemination
(iii) it is a surgical procedure (b) They do not interfere with coital act
(iv) of lack of sufficient facilities in many parts of the (c) These help in reducing the risk of STDs
country. (d) All of the above
Choose the correct option : 11. Choose the correct statement regarding the ZIFT
(a) (i) and (iii) procedure :
(b) (ii) and (iii) (a) Ova collected from a female donor are transferred
(c) (ii) and (iv) to the fallopian tube to facilitate zygote formation
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) (b) Zygote is collected from a female donor and
5. A national level approach to build up a reproductively transferred to the fallopian tube
healthy society was taken up in our country in : (c) Zygote is collected from a female donor and
(a) 1950s (b) 1960s transferred to the uterus
(c) 1980s (d) 1990s (d) Ova collected from a female donor and transferred
6. Emergency contraceptives are effective if used within: to the uterus
(a) 72 hrs of coitus 12. The correct surgical procedure as a contraceptive
(b) 72 hrs of ovulation method is :
(a) Ovarieetomy
(c) 72 hrs of menstruation
(b) Hysterectomy
(d) 72 hrs of implantation
(c) Vasectomy
7. Choose the right one among the statements given
below : (d) Castration
 848 NCERT Biology Booster

13. Diaphragms are contraceptive devices used by the (iii) They act as physical barriers for sperm entry
females. Choose the correct option from the statements (iv) They act as spermicidal agents
given below : (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii)
(i) They are introduced into the uterus. (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv)
(ii) They are placed to cover the cervical region

Answers (Section-B)
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (d)
11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (c)
 Reproductive Health 849

Section-C : Assertion-Reason Type Questions

Instructions :
1. If both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion then mark (a).
2. If both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion, then mark (b).
3. If assertion is true but reason is false, then mark (c).
4. If both assertion and reason are false statements then mark (d).

1. A: Amniocentesis is banned. R: Unprotected sex may cause viral diseases.

R: Amniocentesis gives information about foetal
abnormalities.
2. A: Periodic abstinence is a natural method, where
couples abstain from coitus.
R: Coitus from day 5-10 of menstruation should be
avoided, because this is the time of ovulation.
3. A: Women are at the peak of conception on the 14th
day of ovulation.
R: Vasectomy is a method normally employed to avoid
conception in females
4. A: ‘Chronic villus sampling’ technique has advantage
over amniocentesis.
R: It is performed between 8th to 12th week of
pregnancy.
5. A: Vaults and cervical caps are made of rubber.
R: These contraceptives are inserted into female
reproductive tracts to cover cervix before coitus.
6. A: The surgical implants like ‘Norplant’ prevents
pregnancy for about 5 years.
R: Surgical implants releases synthetic progesterone
steadily into the blood stream.
7. A: MTPs are considered relatively safe during the first
trimester.
R: Government of India has legalised MTP in 1971 as a
method of contraception
8. A: MTPs are considered relatively safe upto 12 weeks
of pregnancy.
R: MTP is illegal in India
9. A: Sterilisation is the terminal method in both males
and females to prevent any more pregnancy.
R: Vasectomy and tubectomy have poor reversibility.
10. A: Infertility means the inability to concieve inspite of
unprotected sexual co-habitation.
11. A: In intrauterine transfer (IUT) embryos more than 8
blastomeres is transferred to fallopian tube.
R: IUT has poor success rate.
12. A: In India, IUDs like placement of Cu-T is one of the
most widely accepted method of contraception.
R: Sterilisation process in females is called tubectomy.
13. A: Sex education in schools is necessary.
R: Sex education removes the myths related to sex.
14. A: Overpopulation causes a number of socio-economic
problems.
R: Our population crossed one billion in May 2000.
15. A: Nearly 45-50 million MTPs are performed in a year
all over the world.
R: MTPs account for 1/5th of the total number of
concieved pregnancies in a year.
16. A: Sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) cannot be
prevented by the use of cervical cap and
diaphragms.
R: Birth control pill can prevent STD.
17. A: Genital herpes cannot be treated by antibiotics.
R: Genital herpes is a viral disease.
18. A: Surrogate mother is the mother with embryo
implanted from another women.
R: Surrogacy is illegal in India.
19. A: The demographic features of the developing
countries include high fertility rate, very young age
distribution, rapid population growth and rapidly
falling mortality rate.
R: In the last decade India has undergone population
explosion.
20. A: The ‘test-tube baby’ programme employs ZIFT.
R: In this technique zygote is transferred to the uterus.

Answers (Section-C)
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (b)
11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (b) 20. (c)
850 NCERT Biology Booster

Section-D : Brainstormer
1. Choose the incorrect statement : How many of the above statements are correct?
(a) Amniocentesis is the detection of chromosomal (a) Three (b) Two
abnormalities by taking amniotic fluid (c) Four (d) Five
(b) Ultrasounds have been banned as it was frequently 6. Match the columns :
used for foetal sex determination
Column-I Column-II
(c) Days of periodic abstinence is 10-17 days from the
day of start of menstruation A. Non-curable STDs (i) 1971
(d) Lactational amenorrhoea is absence of menses B. Curable STDs (ii) Gonorrhoea, syphilis,
during lactation Chlamydiasis
2. Which of the following is wrong ? C. Legalisation of MTP (iii) 1951
in India
(a) MTPs are relatively safe upto 20 weeks of
D. Introduction of (iv) Hepatitis, genital
pregnancy Family planning in herpes, HIV
(b) Abortions can happen spontaneously also India
(c) All sexually transmitted diseases are caused by (v) HIV only
viruses only
(d) More than one (a) A = (iv), B = (ii), C = (i), D = (iii)
3. Match the columns : (b) A = (iv), B = (ii), C = (iii), D = (i)
(c) A = (ii), B = (iv), C = (i), D = (iii)
Column-I Column-II
(d) A = (v), B = (iv), C = (iii), D = (i)
A. HPV (i) AIDS 7. The popular drug RU-486 (mifepristone) :
B. Treponema (ii) Hepatitis-B (a) Can intuce non-surgical abortion
C. HBV (iii) Syphilis (b) Is an antiprogestin
D. HIV (iv) Genital warts (c) Blocks the action of progesteron
(d) All are correct
(a) A = (iv), B = (iii), C = (i), D = (ii)
8. Which one is a bacterial STD ?
(b) A = (iii), B = (iv), C = (ii), D = (i)
(a) Genital Warts (b) Genital Herpes
(c) A = (iii), B = (i), C = (iv), D = (ii)
(c) Chancroid (d) AIDS
(d) A = (iv), B = (iii), C = (ii), D = (i)
9. The semen of a fertile male :
4. The later stages complications of STDs are :
(a) Is with a sperm count of over 200-300 million per
(a) Ectopic pregnancies and infertility
ejaculation
(b) Abortion and still birth
(b) Is 2.5-5 mL per ejaculation
(c) Cancer
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) More than one option is correct
(d) Has 200-300 sperms per ejaculation
5. Read the following statements :
10. Read the following statements :
(i) IUD may be non-medicated or hormone
(i) Cu-T prevents implantation
releasing type
(ii) Tubectomy produces semen without sperms
(ii) An ideal contraceptive should interfere coitus
(iii) Amniocentesis has been totally banned in India
(iii) The contraceptive pill ‘SAHELI’ has very few side
(iv) Oral pills inhibit ovulation and implantation
effects
(v) Progestin inhibits LH production
(iv) During lactational amenorrhoea, chances of
failure of contraception are almost nil upto six How many of the above statements are correct :
months following parturition (a) Two (b) Four
(v) Removal of gonads is the best method of (c) One (d) Three
contraception
 Reproductive Health 851

Answers (Section-D)
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (d)
852 NCERT Biology Booster

Section-E : Latest Previous Years Questions

1. Consider the statements given below regarding 5. Copper ions released from copper -releasing Intra
contraception and answer as directed there after : Uterine Devices (IUDs) :
(A) Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) during (a) Prevent ovulation
first trimester is generally safe (b) Make uterus unsuitable for implantation
(B) Generally chances of conception are nil until (c) Increase phagocytosis of sperms
mother breast-feeds the infant upto two years (d) Suppress sperm motility
(C) Intrauterine devices like copper T are effective 6. Which one of the following cannot be considered as
contraceptives Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART)?
(D) Contraception pills may be taken upto one week (a) In vitro fertilization (IVF)
after coitus to prevent conception
(b) Medical termination of pregnancy (MTP)
Which two of the above statements are correct ?
(c) Gamete inter fallopian transfer (GIFT)
(a) A, C (b) A, B
(d) Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI)
(c) B, C (d) C, D
7. Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) is
2. Given below are four methods (A-D) and their modes considered safe up to how many weeks of pregnancy ?
of action (a -d) in achieving contraception. Selection (a) Eight weeks
their correct matching from the four options that (b) Twelve weeks
follow:
(c) Eighteen weeks
Method Mode of Action (d) Six weeks
A. The pill (a) Prevents sperms reaching cervix 8. Which one of the following is the most widely accepted
method of contraception in India at present ?
B. Condom (b) Prevents implantation
(a) Cervical caps
C. Vasectomy (c) Prevents ovulation (b) Tubectomy
D. Copper T (d) Semen contains no sperms (c) Diaphragms
(d) IUDs (intra uterine devices)
(a) A = (c), B = (d), C = (a), D = (b)
9. The technique called gamete intra fallopian transfer
(b) A = (b), B = (c), C = (a), D = (d) (GIFT) is recommended for those females :
(c) A = (c), B = (a), C = (d), D = (b) (a) Who cannot provide suitable environment for
(d) A = (d), B = (a), C = (b), D = (c) fertilisation
3. In vitro fertilisation is a technique that involves transfer (b) Who cannot produce an ovum
of which one of the following into the fallopian tube ? (c) Who cannot retain the foetus inside uterus
(a) Zygote only (d) Whose cervical canal is too narrow to allow
(b) Embryo only, upto 8 cell stage passage for the sperms
(c) Either zygote or early embryo upto 8 cell stage 10. After in vitro fertilization :
(d) Embryo of 32 cell stage (a) Embryo with more than 8 cells are implanted in
4. The permissible use of the technique amniocentesis is uterus
for : (b) Embryo with more than 16 cells are not implanted
(a) Detecting any genetic abnormality in uterus
(b) Detecting sex of the unborn foetus (c) Embryo with 8 cells are implanted in uterus
(c) Artificial insemination (d) Embryo with cells more than 16 is implanted in
(d) Transfer of embryo into the uterus of a surrogate uterus
mother
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11. What is the figure below showing in particular ? (c) By abstaining from coitus from day 10 to 17 of the
menstrual cycle
(d) By having coitus at the time of day break
17. Which of the following cannot be detected in
developing foetus by amniocentesis ?
(a) Jaundice (b) Klinefelter syndrome
(c) Sex of the foetus (d) Down syndrome
18. Which of the following contraceptive makes uterus
unsuitable for implantation ?
(a) CuT (b) Cu7
(a) Tubectomy (b) Vasectomy
(c) Multiload 375 (d) Progestasert
(c) Ovarian cancer (d) Uterine cancer
19. Tubectomy is a method of sterilization in which ?
12. The test -tube baby programme employs which of the (a) Small part of the fallopian tube is removed or tied
following techniques ? up
(a) Gamete intra fallopian transfer (GIFT)
(b) Ovaries are removed surgically
(b) Zygote intra fallopian transfer (ZIFT)
(c) Small part of vas deferens is removed or tied up.
(c) Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI)
(d) Uterus is removed surgically
(d) Intra uterine insemination (IUI)
20. Which of the following is a hormone releasing Intra
13. Which of the following is correct about human Uterine Device (IUD) ?
reproduction ? (a) Multiload 375 (b) LNG - 20
(a) ‘Saheli’ is a new contraceptive for males
(c) Cervical cap (d) Vault
(b) Amniocentesis is carried out to know the
21. Assisted reproductive technology, IVF involves transfer
chromosomal pattern from the sample taken from
of :
the cells of umbilical cord
(a) Ovum into the fallopian tube
(c) Ovulation is facilitated by breast - feeding
(b) Zygote into the fallopian tube
(d) A combination of progesterone and oestrogen is
(c) Zygote into the uterus
injected or implanted under the skin as an
effective contraceptive (d) Embryo with 16 blastomeres into the fallopian
tube.
14. A vasectomy prevents:
(a) Production of semen 22. Which is the hormonal method of birth control?
(a) Pill (b) IUD
(b) A man from having an erection
(c) Vasectomy (d) Femidom
(c) Production of sperm in the testes
23. What is the work of copper-T ?
(d) Movement of sperm into the urethra
(a) To inhibit ovulation
15. Artificial insemination means :
(b) To inhibit fertilisation
(a) Introduction of sperms of a healthy donor directly
into the ovary (c) To inhibit implantation
(b) Transfer of sperms of a healthy donor to a test tube (d) To inhibit gametogenesis
containing ova 24. In context of Amniocentesis, which of the following
(c) Transfer of sperms of husband to a test tube statements is incorrect ?
containing ova (a) It is usually done when a woman is between 14-16
(d) Artificial introduction of sperms of a healthy donor weeks pregnant
into the vagina (b) It is used for prenatal sex determination
16. One of the legal methods of birth control is : (c) It can be used for detection of Down syndrome
(a) By a premature ejaculation during coitus (d) It can be used for detection of Cleft palate
(b) Abortion by taking an appropriate medicine
 854 NCERT Biology Booster

25. Which of the following approaches does not give the

defined action of contraceptive ?
(a) Barrier methods Prevent fertilization
(b) Intra uterine increase phagocytosis of sperms,
devices suppress sperm motility and
fertilizing capacity of sperms
(c) Hormonal Prevent/retard entry of sperms,
contraceptives prevent ovulation and
fertilization
(d) Vasectomy Prevents spermatogenesis

Answers (Section-E)

1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (a)
11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (d) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (b)
21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (d) 25. (d)

Hints
Section-A
1. (d)
Options (a), (b) and (c) are correct.
17. (d)
Options (a), (b) and (c) are correct.
44. (d)
Options (b) and (c) are correct.
50. (c)
Cu-T is a IUD that increase phagocytosis of sperms
within the uterus and Cu ions released suppress
sperm motility and fertilising capacity of sperms.
56. (d) Options (a) and (c) are correct.
57. (d) Options (a) and (c) are correct.
58. (c) Mala-D is a monophasic combined pill in which
oestrogen and progestin are present in nearly the
same amount. The combination of progestogen
and estrogen suppress gonadotropins. It is a ‘daily
oral pill’ and taken for 21 days in a menstrual cycle
starting from 5th day and ending on 25th day.
SAHELI is a non-steroidal is ‘once-a-week pill’,
taken once a week after an initial intake of
twice-a-week dose of 3 months.
Section B
2. (c) IMR is infant mortality rate.
MMR is maternal mortality rate. Since, infant
mortality is high but maternal mortality is
decreased so, no significant change in growth rate.
Section-C
2. (c) Ovulation usually occurs on 14th day in 28 days
cycle.
11. (d) In IUT, embryos with more than more than 8
blastomeres is transferred into uterus.
Section-D
2. (d) Options (a) and (c) are wrong.
3. (d) HPV = Human Papilloma Virus
HBV = Hepatitis-B Virus
Treponema pallidum cause syphilis
HIV = Human Immuno-deficiency Virus
Reproductive Health 855
CuT and Lippe’s loop are non-hormonal IUD.
85. (d) Myasthenia gravis is neuromuscular disorder.
92. (a) ICSI : Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection
ZIFT : Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer
GIFT : Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer
ET : Embryo Transfer
95. (a) IUI : Intra Uterine Insemination
ET : Embryo Transfer
IUT : Intra Uterine Transfer (Embryo with more
than 8 blastomeres are transferred into uterus)
GIFT : Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer
96. (b) Oligospermia : Deficiency of sperm in the
semen
Azoospermia : Sperms are absent in semen.
Asthenozoospermia : Reduced sperm
motility.
99. (a) Statements (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
3. (a) The presence of prolactin in the blood of lactating
mothers suppresses the release of gonadotropins–
FSH and LH from pituitary gland. Gonadotropins
are necessary for ovulation to take place.
20. (c) The zygote is transferred into fallopian tube
(ZIFT : Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer).
4. (d) Option (a), (b) and (c) are correct.
5. (a) Statements (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
8. (c) Chancroid is a STDs transmitted by a
Gram-negative bacteria—Haemophilus ducrei.
10. (d) Statements (i), (iv) and (v) are correct.