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1
By mathematical induction, An x = λn x and hence λn is an eigenvalue of
A for all positive integer n.
Thus 1
λ
is an eigenvalue of A−1 .
A2 = A ⇒ A2 x = Ax ⇒ λ2 x = λx ⇒ λ(λ − 1)x = 0
Since x is nonzero, λ = 0 or 1.
( )
a b
(b) Since A has 2 distinct eigenvalues, it is diagonalizable. Let P =
c d
( )
1 0
be an invertible matrix such that P −1 AP = . Then
0 0
( )( )( )−1 ( )
a b 1 0 a b 1 ad −ab
A= = where ad−bc ̸= 0.
c d 0 0 c d ad − bc cd −cb
( )
r s
We can simplify the expression to A = where st = r(1 − r).
t 1−r
au + bAu = 0. (∗)
2
As Au ̸= 0, a = 0. Substituting a = 0 into (∗), we have bAu = 0 and
hence b = 0. Since (∗) has only the trivial solution, u and Au are linearly
independent.
( )
(d) Let P = u Au . By (c), P is invertible. Since
( ) ( )
AP = Au A2 u = Au 0
and ( )
0 0 ( ) ( )
P = 0u + Au 0u + 0Au = Au 0 ,
1 0
( ) ( )
0 0 −1 0 0
AP = P which implies P AP = .
1 0 1 0
(A + B)u = Au + Bu = 2u + λu = (2 + λ)u.
So 2 + λ is an eigenvalue of A + B.
v = c1 u1 + c2 u2 + · · · + cn un
An v = c1 An u1 + c2 An u2 + · · · + cn An un = 0.
3
From the proof of Question 6.3(a), An v = λn v. Since v ̸= 0, λ = 0. Hence we
have shown that A has only one eigenvalue 0.
As λ = 0, we get Av = 0. Then