CLINICAL HEMATOLOGY SET B

What is the RBC-Count of the patient with a total number of 450 erythrocytes in five central
RBC squares? Dilution: 200
A. 400 x 1012/L
B. 450 x 1012/L - formula is ‘ number of rbc counted x dilution all divided by the product of
area counted and depth of fluid ‘
C. 500 x 1012/L
D. 550 x X012/L

(2.). What is the WBC ct of the patient with a total of 250 leukocytes in four quadrants?
Dilution: 20
A. 10. 5 x 109/L
C. 12.0 x 109/L
B. 11.0 x 10°/L
D. 12.5 x 109/L - foemula is ‘ number of wbc counted x dilution all divided by the product of
area counted and depth of fluid ‘

3) The most appropriate screening for hemoglobin S is

a. Kleihauer-Betke
b. dithionite solubility - Dithionite Tube Test-A Rapid, InexpensiveTechnique for the
Detectionof HemoglobinS and Non-S Sickling Hemoglobin.
c. osmotic fragility
d. sucrose hemolysis

4. The most appropriate screening test to detect hemoglobin F is:

a. Kleihauer-Betke - The Kleihauer-Betke test distinguishes between fetal and maternal
blood cells based on the type of hemoglobin that is present. Red blood cells containing fetal
hemoglobin are more resistant to acid than those containing adult hemoglobin.
b. dithionite solubility
c. osmotic fragility
 CLINICAL HEMATOLOGY SET B

d. sucrose hemolysis

5. The most appropriate screening test for paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria:

a. Kleihauer-Betke
b. dithionite solubility
c. osmotic fragility
d. sucrose hemolysis - The sucrose lysis test is the most commonly used screening test for
PNH. Blood is collected in heparinized tubes, and red cells are separated and washed. An
isotonic sucrose solution allows complement to aggregate on the red blood cell surface in
the presence of type-compatible serum.

6. A differential was performed on an asymptomatic patient. The differential include 60%

neutrophils:
55 of which had 2 lobes and 5 had 3 lobes. There were no other abnormalities. This is
consistent with which of the following?
a. Pelger-Huet - Pelger-Huet anomaly (PHA) is an inherited blood condition in which the
nuclei of several types of white blood cells (neutrophils and eosinophils) have unusual
shape (bilobed, peanut or dumbbell-shaped instead of the normal trilobed shape) and
unusual structure (coarse and lumpy).
b. Alder-Reilly
c. May-Hegglin
d. Chediak-Higashi

7. Thalassemias are characterized by:

a. structural abnormalities in the hemoglobin molecule
b. absence of iron in hemoglobin
c. decreased rate of heme synthesis
d decreased rate of globin synthesis - Thalassemia is a heterogeneous group of autosomal
recessive genetic disorders characterized by decreased or absent synthesis of globin
chains, leading to anemia and microcytosis. 
 CLINICAL HEMATOLOGY SET B

8. 50%-90% myeloblasts in a peripheral blood sample is typical with which of the

following?
a. chronic granulocytic leukemia
b. myelofibrosis with metaplasia
c. erythroleukemia
d. acute granulocytic leukemia - Finding a myeloblast on a peripheral blood smear always
raises the possibility of granulocytic leukemia; however, a myeloblast may rarely be seen
on a peripheral blood smear during severe inflammation

9. Auer rods are most likely present in which of the following?

a. chronic granulocytic leukemia
b. myelofibrosis with metaplasia
c. erythroleukemia
d. acute granulocytic leukemia - Auer rods are a hallmark of acute myeloid leukemia but
are occasionally seen in myelodysplastic syndrome (refractory anemia with excess blasts
type 2) or CMML cases, and rarely in patients with fewer than 5% blasts

10. The specimen of choice for preparation of blood films for manual differential leukocyte
counts is whole blood collected in?
a. oxalate
b. citrate
c. heparin
d. EDTA - EDTA has been recommended as the anticoagulant of choice for hematological
testing because it allows the best preservation of cellular components and morphology of
blood cells.

11. Factors commonly involved in producing anemia in patients with chronic renal disease
include:
a. marrow hypoplasia
b. ineffective erythropoiesis - When you have kidney disease, your kidneys cannot make
enough EPO. Low EPO levels cause your red blood cell count to drop and anemia to
 CLINICAL HEMATOLOGY SET B

develop. Most people with kidney disease will develop anemia. Anemia can happen early in
the course of kidney disease and grow worse as kidneys fail and can no longer make EPO
c. Vitamin B12 deficiency
d. increased erythropoietin production

12. Acute disseminated intravascular coagulation is characterized by:

a. Hypofibrinogenemia - Hypofibrinogenemia among infectious disease patients with DIC
may reflect increased consumption of fibrinogen due to accelerated coagulation reactions, 
b. Thrombocytosis
c. negative D-dimer
d. shortened thrombin time

13. Which of the following is associated with May-Hegglin anomaly?

a. membrane defect of lysosomes
b. Dohle bodies and giant platelets -  autosomal dominant disorder characterized by
various degrees of thrombocytopenia that may be associated with purpura and
bleeding; giant platelets containing few granules; and large, well-defined, basophilic,
cytoplasmic inclusion bodies in granulocytes that resemble Dö hle bodies
c. two-lobed nucleus
d. mucopolysaccharides

14. Which of the following is associated with Alder-Reilly inclusions?

a. membrane defect of lysosomes
b. Dohle bodies and giant platelets
c. two-lobed nucleus
d mucopolysaccharides granues - Alder–Reilly inclusions stain appear violet when treated
with Wright–Giemsa stain and, in mucopolysaccharidosis, stain metachromatically with
toluidine blue. Metachromatic staining is not seen in Tay–Sachs disease. The granules tend
to be round or comma-shaped and may be surrounded by a clearing in the cytoplasm.

15. Heitz bodies are:

 CLINICAL HEMATOLOGY SET B

a. readily identified with polychrome stains

b. rarely found in glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficient erythrocytes
c. closely associated with spherocytes
d. denatured hemoglobin inclusions that are readily removed by the spleen - Heinz bodies
are the microscopic appearance of denatured hemoglobin.There is an increase in the
number of Heinz bodies after splenectomy. This is because the spleen plays an important
role in the removal of Heinz bodies and other 'solid particles’ like siderosomes

16. A patient with polycythemia vera who is treated with phlebotomy is most likely to
develop a deficiency of:
a. vitamin b12
b. folic acid
c. Iron - Patients with polycythemia vera (PV) often develop iron deficiency. Treatment of
PV with ruxolitinib is associated with normalization of iron indices.
d. Erythropoietin

17. In which of the following disease states are tear-drop cells and abnormal platelets most
characteristically seen?
a. chronic myelocytic leukemia
c. thalassemia
b. multiple myeloma
d. myeloid metaplasia - The findings in myeloid metaplasia include normoblasts,
myelocytes and megakaryocytes ... and giant platelets that are larger than a red blood cell 

18. In the French-American-British (FAB) classification, myelomonocytic leukemia would

be:
a. M1 and M2
b. M3
c. M4 - Myelomonocytic leukemia is characterized morphologically by a mixture of myeloid
and monocytic elements and represents about 15% to 20% of newly diagnosed patients
with AML. 
 CLINICAL HEMATOLOGY SET B

d. M5

19. Which of the following is most useful in differentiating hemophilias A and B?

a. pattern of inheritance
b. clinical history
c. activated partial thromboplastin time - In haemophilia A, there is a lack or total absence
of coagulation factor VIII. In haemophilia B, there is a serious shortage or total absence of
coagulation factor IX.
d. mixing studies (substitution studies

20. A bone marrow slide shows foam cells ranging from 20 to 200 um in size with
vacuolated cytoplasm containing sphingomyelin and is faintly PAS positive. This cell type is
most characteristic of
a. Gaucher's disease
b. myeloma with Russell bodies
c. Di Guglielmo's disease
d. Niemann-Pick disease - Due to the ineffective transport system, the affected cells become
enlarged, sometimes as big as 90 micrometers in diameter, due to the accumulation of
sphingomyelin and cholesterol. Histology shows lipid-laden macrophages in the marrow,
also called foam-cells.

21. In an electronic or laser particle cell counter, clumped platelets may interfere with
which of the following parameters?
a. white blood cell count - Platelet clumping was observed in 63% of collections.
Multivariable analysis revealed that a lower white blood cell count was an independent
predictor of clumping occurrence. 
b. red blood cell count
c. hemoglobin
d. Hematocrit

22. When using an electronic cell counter, which of the following results can occur in the
presence of a cold agglutinin?
 CLINICAL HEMATOLOGY SET B

a. increase MCV and decreased RBC - They showed that cold agglutinins caused artificially
decreased red blood cell counts and increased MCV and MCHC in the automated Coulter
STKS hematology analyzer.
b. increased MCV and normal RBC
c. decreased MCV and increased MCHC
d. decreased MCV and decreased RBC

23. Which of the following is associated with Glanzmann's thrombasthenia?

a. normal bleeding time
b. normal ADP aggregation
c. abnormal initial wave ristocetin aggregation
d. absence of clot retraction - Glanzmann disease is characterized by abnormal bleeding
time, abnormal ADP aggregation, normal ristocetin aggregation and absence of clot
retraction. Bleeding tendencies vary widely between affected individuals but mainly occur
on mucosal surfaces. The condition is characterized by an in vitro lack of response to all
platelet agonists and severely impaired clot retraction

24. Which of the following is characteristic of Bernard-Soulier syndrome?

a. giant platelets - Bernard-Soulier syndrome (BSS) is a rare inherited disorder of blood
clotting (coagulation) characterized by unusually large platelets, low platelet count
(thrombocytopenia) and prolonged bleeding time (difficulty in clotting). 
b. normal bleeding time
c. abnormal aggregation with ADP
d. increased platelet count

25. The most common form of childhood leukemia:

a. acute lymphocytic - Most childhood leukemias are acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL).
Most of the remaining cases are acute myeloid leukemia (AML). Chronic leukemias are rare
in children.
b. acute granulocytic
c. acute monocytic
 CLINICAL HEMATOLOGY SET B

d. chronic granulocytic

26. Which of the following is most closely associated with iron-deficiency anemia?
a. iron overload in tissue
b. target cells
c. basophilic stippling
d. chronic blood loss - if you lose blood, you lose some iron. Women with heavy periods are
at risk of iron deficiency anemia because they lose blood during menstruation. Slow,
chronic blood loss within the body such as from a peptic ulcer, a hiatal hernia, a colon polyp
or colorectal cancer can cause iron deficiency anemia.

27. Which of the following is seen most often in thalassemia?

a. ringed sideroblasts
b. target cells - There are four major circumstances in which target cells appear as the
major morphologic abnormality: thalassemia, hepatic disease with jaundice, hemoglobin C
disorders, and the postsplenectomy state.
c. basophilic stippling
d. chronic blood loss

28. Which of the following is most likely to be seen in lead poisoning?

a. ringed sideroblasts
b. target cells
c. basophilic stippling - Basophilic stippling of red blood cells (BSC) has been noted in lead
intoxication since 1899 and has been considered a classic laboratory sign of lead poisoning
since that time. 
d chronic blood loss

29. Which of the following is most closely associated chronic myelogenous leukemia?
a. ringed sideroblasts
b. DIC
 CLINICAL HEMATOLOGY SET B

c. micromegakaryocytes
d. Philadelphia chromosome - The Philadelphia chromosome is present in the blood cells of
90 percent of people with chronic myelogenous leukemia.An abnormality of chromosome
22 in which part of chromosome 9 is transferred to it. Bone marrow cells that contain the
Philadelphia chromosome are often found in chronic myelogenous leukemia and
sometimes found in acute lymphocytic leukemia.

30. Which of the following may be used to stain neutral fats, phospholipids, and sterols?
a. peroxidase
b. Sudan Black B. - Black Sudan B is used for the staining of a wide variety of lipids such
as phospholipids, steroles and neutral triglycerides. Black Sudan B is not lipid specific like
other Sudan dyes and can also be used for chromosome staining, Golgi apparatus and
leukocyte granules.
c. Periodic acid Schiff
d. Prussian blue

31. Laboratory findings in hereditary spherocytosis do not include:

a. a decreased osmotic fragility - Decreased osmotic fragility is associated with chronic liver
disease, iron deficiency anemia, thalassemia, hyponatremia (Na < 130 meq/L),
polycythemia vera, and sickle cell anemia after splenectomy.All individuals with suspected
hereditary spherocytosis based on family history, neonatal jaundice, or other findings
should have a complete blood count (CBC) with reticulocyte count and red blood cell (RBC)
indices.
b. retículocytosis
c. increased autohemolysis corrected by glucose
d. shortened red cell survival

32. Morphologic variants of plasma cells do not include:

a. flame cells
b. grape cells
c. morula cells
 CLINICAL HEMATOLOGY SET B

d. Gaucher cells - Gaucher cells are normal scavenger cells called macrophages that become
full of unprocessed glucocerebroside. Gaucher cells accumulate primarily in the spleen,
liver and bone marrow, causing organ inflammation and dysfunction.

33. Auer rods are:

a. a normal aggregation of lysosome or primary (azurophilic) granules
b. predominantly found in acute myelogenous leukemia -  large, crystalline cytoplasmic
inclusion bodies sometimes observed in myeloid blast cells during acute myeloid leukemia
c. peroxidase negative
d. alkaline phosphatase positive

34. The absence of Philadelphia chromosome in chronic granulocytic leukemia suggests:

a. rapid progression of disease -
b. a polyclonal origin to the disease
c. excellent response to therapy
d. conversion from another myeloproliferative dis.

35. Platelet aggregation is dependent in vitro on the presence of

a. calcium ions - Platelet aggregation is a complex phenomenon. Divalent cations, such as
calcium and magnesium, are required for platelet aggregation.
B. Sodium Citrate
c. fibrinogen
D. Potassium

36. Pluripotent stem cells are capable of producing:

a. daughter cells of only one cell line - Pluripotent stem cells are cells capable of
producing daughter cells with more than one fate, are able to self-replicate, and have the
ability to produce daughter cells identical to the parent.
b. only T-lymphocytes and B-lymphocytes
c. erythropoietin, thrombopoietin and leukopoietin
 CLINICAL HEMATOLOGY SET B

d lymphoid and myeloid stem cells

37. The anemia found in myeloproliferative disorders are usually:

a. microcytic, hypochromic
b. macrocytic, normochromic
c. normocytic, normochromic - Myeloproliferative disorders cause blood cells (platelets,
white blood cells, and red blood cells) to grow abnormally in the bone marrow.
d. microcytic, normochromic

38. A term that means varying degrees of leukocytosis with a shift to the left and occasional
nucleated red blood cells in the peripheral blood is:
a. polycythemia vera
b. erythroleukemia
c. Leukoerythroblastosis -  Leukoerythroblastosis is the presence of nucleated red blood
cells and early myeloid cells in the peripheral blood with or without anemia.
d. Megaloblastoid

39. In an uncomplicated case of infectious mononucleosis, which of the following are

affected?
a. erythrocytes
b. monocytes
c. Lymphocytes -If you have mono, you may have a high level of a type of white blood cell
called a lymphocyte in your blood. During acute EBV disease, the number of lymphocytes
increases to 50–60% of the total leukocytes in the peripheral blood 
d.thrombocytes

40. Increased levels of TdT activity is indicative of?

a. Burkitt's lymphoma
b.acute granulocytic leukemia
 CLINICAL HEMATOLOGY SET B

c. acute lymphocytic leukemia - Among leukemic patients, ALL patients had higher
concentration of TdT than CML and AML patients. Females had higher TdT activity than
males, although the difference between the two groups was not statistically significant
d. Eosinophilia

41. A patient develops unexpected bleeding and the following test results were obtained:
Prolonged PT and APTT Increased fibrin split products
Decreased fibrinogen Decreased platelets
What is the most probable cause of these results
a. familial afibrinogenemia
b. primary fibrinolysis
c. DIC - Laboratory findings suggestive of DIC include a low platelet count, elevated D-dimer
concentration, decreased fibrinogen concentration, and prolongation of clotting times such
as prothrombin time (PT).
d. liver disease

Given the following RBC indices: ( for nos. 42-44)

Hct: 20%, RBC: 1.5 x 106/uL, Hgb: 6 g/dL

42. Compute for MCV:

a. 68 fL
b.75 fL
c. 115 fL
d. 133 fL - 20x10 all divided by 1.5 x 106/uL. Then convert the unit to fL

43. Compute for MCH:

a. 28 um3
b. 30 um3
c. 40 um3 -
follow the formula Hb(g/dL) x10 all divided by rbc coumt
 CLINICAL HEMATOLOGY SET B

d. 75 um3

44. Compute for MCHC:

a. 28%
b. 30% - Hgb x 100 all divided by Hct
c. 40%
d. 75%

45. Given the following data:

WBC: 8,5 x 103/uL
Differential
Segs 56%
Monos 6%
Bands 2%
Eos 6%
Lymphs 30%
What is the absolute lymphocyte count?
a. 170
b. 510
c. 2550 - Absolute (Abs) lymphs= WBC count x 1000 x percent lymphs
d. 4760

46. The mean for hemoglobin is 14.0 and the standard deviation is 0.20. The acceptable
control range is plus or minus 2SD, What are the allowable limits of the control?
a. 13.8-14.2
b. 13.4-14.6 - multiply the sd by 3 ( 0.20x3 = 0.6 ) then add and subtract 0.6 to the mean
c. 13.6-14.4
d. 13.0-14.0
 CLINICAL HEMATOLOGY SET B

47. On a smear made directly from a finger stick, no platelets were found in the counting
area. The first thing to do is:
a. examine slide for clumping - Platelet clumping is a common laboratory phenomenon that
complicates or precludes reporting of platelet count.
b. obtain another smear
c. perform a total platelet count
d request another finger stick

48. Of the following containers, the one best suited for collection of cell count on a
peritoneal fluid is:
a. sterile plastic container
b. test tube with sodium fluoride
c. capped syringe on ice
d. tube containing EDTA - The abdominal fluid should be collected in a plain tube for the
measurement of protein concentration and in an EDTA tube for a cell count and
hematology.

49. The presence of excessive Rouleau formation on blood smear is often accompanied by
and increased:
a. reticulocyte count
b. sedimentation rate - increased protein and rouleax drops faster
c. hematocrit
d. erythrocyte count

50. Which of the following factor deficiencies is associated with either no bleeding or only a
minor bleeding tendency, even after trauma or surgery?
a. Factor X
c. Factor XIII
 CLINICAL HEMATOLOGY SET B

b. Factor XII - Factor XII deficiency is a rare genetic blood disorder that causes prolonged
clotting (coagulation) of blood in a test tube without the presence of prolonged clinical
bleeding tendencies. 
d. Factor V

51. What staining method is used most frequently to stain and count reticulocytes?
a. Romanowsky staining c. Immunofluorescence
b. Cytochemical staining d. Supravital staining
52. Acanthocytes are usually seen in what condition?
a. Severe burns c. Thalassemia
b. Abetalipoproteinemia d. Hemoglobinopathy
53. Which of the following is not part of the Contact Group of Coagulation Factors?
a. Factor IX c. Prekallikrein
b. Factor XI d. HMWK
54. IDA can be differentiated with anemia of chronic infection by:
a. Serum iron level c. Red cell indices
b. TIBC d. Red cell morphology
55. Parasites in RBCs are best demonstrated with which stain?
a. Giemsa c. New methylene blue
b. Wright's d. Crystal violet
56. Chronic-myelocytic leukemia (CML) can be distinguished from polycythemia vera by:
a. Thrombocytosis
b. Splenomegaly
c. Leukocytosis
d. LAP-low to zero
57. Asplenia is indicated in a peripheral blood smear by the presence of
a. Dohle bodies c. Spherocytes
b.. Hypersegmented neutrophils d. Howell-Jolly bodies
58. In the Ivy method of bleeding time the blood pressure cuff is inflated to:
 CLINICAL HEMATOLOGY SET B

a. 20 mm Hg c. 40 mm Hg
b. 30 mm Hg d. 45 mm Hg
59. Which of the following structures is NOT classified as an erythrocyte inclusion?
a. Cabot rings c. Heinz bodies
b Auer rods d. Howell-Jolly bodies
60. The metabolic pathway that facilitates oxygen release from hemoglobin to tissues:
a. Embden-Meyerhof Pathway c. Hexose Monophosphate Shunt
b. Rapaport luebering Pathway d. Methemoglobin Pathway
61. Which laboratory test is more appropriate screen for unstable hemoglobin disorders?
a. Heat instability c. OFT
b. Hb electrophoresis. d. Serum bilirubin
62. Which of the following serum chemistry values is often elevated in chronic
myelogenous leukemia and other malignancies?
a. Glucose c. Bilirubin
b. Uric acid d. Cholesterol
63. Which of the following inclusions represent a remnant of nuclear DNA in a red blood
cell?
a. Heinz body c. Pappenheimer body
b. Dohle body d. Howell-Jolly body,
64. A correction is necessary for WBC counts when NRBCs are seen on the peripheral
smear because:
a. The WBC count should be higher c. NRBCs are counted as leukocytes
b. The RBC count is too low d. NRBCs are confused with giant platelets
65. Toxic granulations of neutrophils is usually associated with:
a. Infectious mononucleosis c. Bacterial infections
b. Leukemias d. Pelger-Huet anomaly
66. On a stained peripheral blood smear, which term describes the change in sizes of
erythrocytes?
a. Poikilocytosis c. Hypochromia
 CLINICAL HEMATOLOGY SET B

b. Ambocytosis d. Polychromasia
67. The most common red cell enzyme deficiency involving the Embden Meyerhof pathway:
a. Pyruvate kinase deficiency c. Aldolase deficiency
b. G-6-PD deficiency d. Enolase deficiency
68. This is a rare autosomal recessive condition characterized by partial albinism,
photophobia, and abnormally large granules in WBC:
a. May Hegglin Anomaly c. Pelger-Huet Anomaly
b. Alder Reilly bodies d. Chediak-Higashi syndrome
69. All of the following are variation in WBC count, except:
a. Age
b. Exercise
c. Sex
d. Epileptic seizures
70. Which of the following hemoglobins is insoluble under lowered oxygen tension?
a. Hb A1 c.Hb S
b. Hb A2 d. Hb F
71. All of the following findings are present in both folate and vitamin B12 deficiencies
except:
a. macrocytic red cells
b. peripheral neuropathy
c. Howell-jolly bodies and Cabot's rings in the bone marrow
d. High levels of LDH and indirect bilirubin resulting from ineffective erythropoiesis
e. Hypersegmented neutrophils with six or seven lobes
72. Stomatocytosis is characterized by:
1. increased osmotic fragility 3. increased autohemolysis
2. occurrence in Rh null cells anemia 4. autosomal recessive inheritance
a. 1,3 c. 1, 2.3
b. 2,4 d. 1, 2, 3, 4
73. The following conditions have dense or beta granule deficiency, except:
 CLINICAL HEMATOLOGY SET B

a. Gray-platelet syndrome
b. Wiskot Aldrich Syndrome
c. Hermansky-pudlock
d. Chediak higashi
74. Erroneous increase in platelet count on automated cell analyzers are caused by:
1. RBC inclusion bodies. 2. Platelet satellitism
3. Platelet agglutinins 4. Giant platelets
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 only
c. 1,2,3
d. 4 only
75. Complications of sickle cell disease:
a. Vaso-occlusive crises c. Sequestration crises e. all of the above
b. Aplastic crises d. a and b only
76. Tests use for Sickle cell disease:
a. Metabisulfite
b. Dithionite
c. Hams acidified serum test
d. A and B only
e. all of the above
77. Heat instability test is used for:
a. Hb SC disease c. Unstable Hb
b. Hb M d. PNH
78. IDA can be differentiated with anemia of chronic infection by:
a. Serum iron level c. Red cell indices
b. TIBC d. Red cell morphology
79. Red Cell Morphology similar to IDA:
a. Sickle cell anemia c. Pernicious anemia
 CLINICAL HEMATOLOGY SET B

b. Thalassemia syndrome d. Spherocytosis

80. All of the following are correct about megaloblastic anemia, except:
a. Hypersegmented neutrophil c. Increased retic count
b. Macrocytic RBC d. Pancytopenia
81. What inclusion may be seen in a leukocyte?
a. Howell-Jolly bodies c. Basophilic stippling
b. Dohle bodies d. Malarial parasites
82. What percentage of neutrophils in the peripheral blood constitute the circulating pool?
a. 100
b. 80
c. 75
d. 50
83. Smear shows 70% blasts negative for sudan black B:
a. AML c. ALL
b. CML d. CLL
84. In intravascular hemolysis, degradation of heme to bilirubin happens in:
a. Liver c. Intestine
b. Spleen d. Brain
85. In extravacular hemolysis, degradation of heme to bilirubin happens in:
a. Liver c. Intestine
b. Spleen d. Brain
86. The red blood cell that shows a peripheral rim of hemoglobin with a dark staining
central area is:
a. Spherocyte c. Schistocyte
b. Target cell d. Sickle cells
87. A macrocytic anemia characteristically accompanies all of the following except:
a. Vitamin B12 deficiency c. Iron deficiency
b. Folate deficiency d. Fish tapeworm infection is some individual;
 CLINICAL HEMATOLOGY SET B

88. Spherocytes differ from most normal red blood cells in their:
a. increased resistance to hypotonic saline C. decreased ratio of surface area volume
b. Increased volume d. presence of nucleus
89. Leukopenia can occur in which of these conditions?
a. Leukemia c. Marrow injury by chemical agents
b. Viral infections d. all of the above
90. The leukemia that does not have peroxidase activity is:
a. Acute myelomonocytic c. Acute lymphocytic
b. Acute monocytic d. Acutę myelocytic
91. What is the most reliable criteria for estimation of cell’s age?
a. Cytoplasm c. Nuclear chromatin
b. Nucleus d. Granules
92. Which of the following red cell precursors is the last stage to undergo mitosis?
a. Pronormoblast c. Polychromatophilic normoblast
b. Basophilic normoblast d. Orthochromatophilic normoblast
93. Compared to a rubricyte, a metarubricyte looks different because of its:
a. dark blue cytoplasm c. larger size
b. pyknotic nucleus. d. nucleoli
94. A red blood cell about 5 um in diameter that stains bright red & shows no central pallor
is a:
a. spherocytę
b. Leptocyte
c. microcyte
d. macrocyte
95. When heparin is used as an anticoagulant:
a. Coagulation is prevented by its interaction with calmodulin
b. Red blood cell size is altered with subsequent changes in MCV
c. WBCs and platelets exhibit clumping.
 CLINICAL HEMATOLOGY SET B

d. All of the above

96. A normal red blood cell requires a membrane that has high:
a. deformability c. spherocity
b, impermeability d. lipid to protein ratio
97. Large number of burr cells are found in:
a. liver disease c. uremia
b. erythroblastosis fetalis d. leukemia
98. HbCN is measured at what wavelength on a spectrophotometer?
a. 360 nm c. 540 nm
b. 480 nm d. 620 nm
99. Normal platelets have a circulating life span of approximately:
a. 5 days
b. 10 days
c. 20 days
d. 30 days,
100. The degree of effective erythropoiesis is best assessed by:
a. Serum iron levels c. Reticulocyte counts
b. Serial hemoglobin determinations d. Ferrokinetic studies with Fe 59