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 Questions

• MOCK TEST 1 1.1 – 1.18

• MOCK TEST 2 2.1 – 2.17

• MOCK TEST 3 3.1 – 3.17

• MOCK TEST 4 4.1 – 4.17

• MOCK TEST 5 5.1 – 5.17

• MOCK TEST 6hine Design 6.1 – 6.17

• MOCK TEST 7 7.1 – 7.17

• MOCK TEST 8 8.1 – 8.17

• MOCK TEST 9egrated 9.1 – 9.16

• MOCK TEST 10ated 10.1 – 10.16

• MOCK TEST 11hine Design 11.1 – 11.17

• MOCK TEST 12 12.1 – 12.18

• MOCK TEST 13 13.1 – 13.18

• MOCK TEST 14egrated 14.1 – 14.18

• MOCK TEST 15ated 15.1 – 15.16

• CAT Solved Paper 2018 (Slot-1)ated 1 – 28

• CAT Solved Paper 2018 (Slot-2)ated 1 – 27

• CAT Solved Paper 2019 (Slot-1)ated 1 – 32

• CAT Solved Paper 2019 (Slot-2)ated 1 – 30

 Answers and Explanations

• MOCK TEST 1 1.1 – 1.10

• MOCK TEST 2 2.1 – 2.9

• MOCK TEST 3 3.1 – 3.10

• MOCK TEST 4 4.1 – 4.11

• MOCK TEST 5 5.1 – 5.11

• MOCK TEST 6hine Design 6.1 – 6.10

• MOCK TEST 7 7.1 – 7.10

• MOCK TEST 8 8.1 – 8.13

• MOCK TEST 9egrated 9.1 – 9.11

• MOCK TEST 10ated 10.1 – 10.10

• MOCK TEST 11hine Design 11.1 – 11.9

• MOCK TEST 12 12.1 – 12.11

• MOCK TEST 13 13.1 – 13.12

• MOCK TEST 14egrated 14.1 – 14.15

• MOCK TEST 15ated 15.1 – 15.13

 BOOSTER TEST SERIES
CAT
Mock Test – 1
Time Allowed : 3 hrs. Maximum Marks : 300

Instructions to Candidates
1. This Test contains 100 questions in all comprising the following three parts:

Section I - VARC (34 Questions)

Section II - LRDI (32 Questions)
Section III - QA (34 Questions)
2. There are two kinds of questions in the Exam, MCQ and non-MCQ. For non-MCQ type questions you will
need to type the answer using the virtual number-board while filling E - OMR.
3. There is only one correct answer to each question.

4. All questions are compulsory and carry equal marks i.e. 3 marks for each question.
5. For the MCQ type questions each wrong answer will attract a penalty of one mark. There will be no negative
marking for the non-MCQ type question
6. Answer the questions as quickly and as carefully as you can. Some questions may be difficult and others
easy. Do not spend too much time on any question.
 OMR SHEET
1. 26. 51. 76.

2. 27. 52. 77.

3. 28. 53. 78.

4. 29. 54. 79.

5. 30. 55. 80.

6. 31. 56. 81.

7. 32. 57. 82.

8. 33. 58. 83.

9. 34. 59. 84.

60. 85.
10. 35.

61. 86.
11. 36.

62. 87.
12. 37.

63. 88.
13. 38.

14. 64. 89.

39.

15. 65. 90.

40.

16. 66. 91.

41.

17. 67. 92.

42.

18. 68. 93.

43.

19. 69. 94.

44.

20. 70. 95.

45.

21. 71. 96.

46.

22. 72. 97.

47.

23. 73. 98.

48.

24. 74. 99.

49.

25. 75. 100.

50.
 M OCK TEST– 1
VARC
1. Four sentences are given below, labeled (a), (b), (c)
and (d). Of these, three sentences need to be
arranged in a logical order to form a coherent
paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose
the one that does not fit the sequence.
(a) It was barely dawn and I was being driven to the
airport by a woman, who was confident and also
eager to make conversation.
(b) After a sleepless night, I thought it best to maintain
indifference even as she persisted with her
explanations.
(c) Her story, however, hit a deadlock as she abruptly
stopped talking - perhaps, realizing she was
revealing too much to a stranger (a man) - and I
honestly did not know what to ask next.
(d) However, soon enough, the intrigue started to get
to me - my efforts to nap had also proven futile.
2. Four sentences are given below, labeled (a), (b), (c)
and (d). Of these, three sentences need to be
arranged in a logical order to form a coherent
paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose
the one that does not fit the sequence.
(a) The Chinese produced some of the finest Buddhist
monuments, temples and monasteries, and
among the greatest Buddhist sculptures and
paintings in the world.
(b) Turning from science and mathematics to the
broader field of culture, the consequences of
Buddhist connections on China and India were
also extensive.
(c) While these must, at one level, be seen as religious
achievements, one would have to be quite boorish
to see in these works of art nothing other than
graphic religiosity.
(d) That Buddhism had an impact on Chinese
literature cannot come as a surprise.
3. Four sentences are given below, labeled (a), (b), (c)
and (d). Of these, three sentences need to be
arranged in a logical order to form a coherent
paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose
the one that does not fit the sequence.
(a) Though aimed at the mass market and a largely
female demograph, they don't want to classify it
as chick-lit, which is a term they find derogatory
to women.
(b) Is it fair to call their work chick-lit, a label that
comes with numerous preconceived notions, not
all of them flattering?
(c) So, for the sake of that inevitable classification
that book-stores and publishers demand, what
are authors like Narayan and Shirodkar writing?
(d) Or should they be classified as a new, hybrid
genre, one that has retained the romance, but
introduced with it a whole new layer that does
not shy away from exploring difficult subjects and
gritty issues?
4. Four sentences are given below, labeled (a), (b), (c)
and (d). Of these, three sentences need to be
arranged in a logical order to form a coherent
paragraph/passage. From the given options, choose
the one that does not fit the sequence.
(a) These by and large are curable cancers but
require long-term follow-up as well as a significant
amount of expenditure.
(b) While government should initiate a nationwide
screening programme for the most prevalent
cancers and invest in more affordable treatment
centers, we too must meet our obligation to give
cancer the stick with more information and less
prejudice.
(c) There is more to this than meets the eye.
(d) But perhaps the saddest statistics are those of
childhood survivorship which in our country are
almost half of those in the developed world.
5. Five sentences are given below, labeled A, B, C, D
and E. They need to be arranged in a logical order to
form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given
options, choose the most appropriate sequence.
A. The silent disintegration of judgments - as an
alternative to the more hard-edged options of
judicial overruling or legislative repeal- is a
common phenomenon.
B. In the United States, the Supreme Court under
Justice John Roberts has narrowed precedents
in many areas, including abortion, campaign
finance and affirmative action.
C. The high court then capitalized on the poor
reasoning of the judgment in Koushal to narrow
its precedential value, holding that the Supreme
Court's judgment rested significantly on the
presumption of constitutionality and did not cast
light on the 'subject matter' of homosexuality in
general.
D. In the United Kingdom, the House of Lords
gradually retreated from its controversial decision
in Pepper V Hart (allowing parliamentary
proceedings to be cited for the purposes of
statutory interpretations).
1.4
E. These two judgments suggest that the imperfect
legal reasoning adopted in Koushal makes it
highly susceptible to narrowing.
(a) BDCAE (b) BDACE
(c) CEBDA (d) CEADB
6. Five sentences are given below, labeled A, B, C, D
and E. They need to be arranged in a logical order to
form a coherent paragraph/passage. From the given
options, choose the most appropriate sequence.
A. With mounting criticism has also come growing
praise for his vision to place Turkey prominently
on the global map.
B. But is that really the primary concern of the Turks
today, given that the majority of them, as polls
show, find Mr. Erdogan's conservative values
appealing?
C. Are they really proud of the paradoxes?
D. So we won't know till the next election.
E. The authoritarian and Islamist rule indicates a
reversal of the secular state structure that Ataturk
had succeeded in ushering in.
(a) EBCAD (b) AEBCD
(c) EBCDA (d) EABCD
7. The following text is followed by four alternate
summaries. Choose the option that best captures
the essence of the text.
It was a brilliant idea for Garsington Opera, which
has an orchestra and chorus to hand, to invite the
Royal Shakespeare Company to stage an abridged
version of the play, A midsummer night's dream, with
Mendelssohn's entire score attached. Conducted by
Douglas Boyd and directed by Owen Horsley, the
result is a perfect marriage of words and music in a
setting - with the local woods skirting one side of the
theatre - that is nigh-on ideal.
(a) The production of Shakespeare's play, complete
with a live backing of Mendelssohn's score, is as
brilliant as it is rare.
(b) Garsington Opera joined hands with the Royal
Shakespeare Company to stage, A midsummer
night's dream.
(c) Garsington Opera in collaboration with the Royal
Shakespeare Company has created a new version
of A midsummer night's dream.
(d) Royal Shakespeare Company's rendition of A
midsummer night's dream, complete with a live
backing of Mendelssohn's score at the
Garsington Opera has reaped great results.
8. The following text is followed by four alternate
summaries. Choose the option that best captures
the essence of the text.
MOCK TEST–1
Thaler is a brilliant scholar, endlessly curious,
empirically inclined and public spirited. But he is also
the perfect spokesman for an approach that has come
to be known as behavioural economics. He does not
come across as someone lecturing others about their
shortcomings, because they feel like his
shortcomings too. Thaler recounts a dispute at an
academic conference with the orthodox economist
Robert Barro: "I said that the difference between our
models was that he assumed that the agents in his
model were as smart as he was, and I assumed
they were as dumb as I am. Barro agreed."
(a) Thaler has turned his weaknesses into the
subject of a new branch of economic science.
(b) Thaler is a scholar of behavioural economics; a
branch of economics which seeks to understand
individuals as they really are - full of weaknesses.
(c) Thaler is a brilliant scholar whose ability to laugh
at himself has gained him popularity.
(d) Thaler's brilliance lies in his ability to identify with
the subject of his study.
9. The following text is followed by four alternate
summaries. Choose the option that best captures
the essence of the text.
The thought that bacteria or inflammatory chemicals
released by immune cells in the gums can enter the
bloodstream and influence the behaviour of other
tissues or organs is known as the mouth-body
connection. In the past decade, there has been an
explosion of new research linking oral health to
illnesses such as Type 2 diabetes, cancer and heart
disease. The most likely explanation is inflammation;
the same heat, swelling and discomfort you
experience when you stub your toe or get an infected
splinter, only in this case it isn't switched off. Such
chronic inflammation can be damaging to cells and
the DNA they contain.
(a) To avoid diseases like diabetes and cancer, one
must take good care of one's teeth and gums.
(b) A mouth-body connection exists which can lead
to inflammation and can hence, damage
important cells.
(c) A lackadaisical approach to dental care could
cause diabetes, heart disease and cancer.
(d) People should not underestimate how the body
will react when the mouth is neglected.
10. Read the following argument and answer the question
that follows.
"In the Philippines, a study found that workers who
worked both for a piece rate and for a flat wage ate
25 percent more food on the day before they worked
for piece rate."
MOCK TEST–1
Which of the following is the best justification of the
above statement?
(a) The flat rates are lesser than the piece rate.
(b) The flat rates are higher than the piece rate.
(c) There is an inverse relation between the amount
of food one eats on the previous day and the
amount of work that one can do on the next day.
(d) There is a direct relation between the amount of
food one eats on the previous day and the amount
of work that one can do on the next day.
11. Read the following argument and answer the question
that follows.
Stampedes during religious festivals are quite
common in India. Over a dozen instances of pilgrims
being trampled to death have been recorded in
independent India, and the common thread running
through every such tragedy is the utter failure of the
authorities and the public alike to learn any lesson
from previous disasters.
Which of the following options justifies the author's
views?
(a) The mistakes made by the authorities are similar
in nature at each of such disasters.
(b) The public needs to be actively involved in crowd
management in order to avoid disasters.
(c) A feature common to religious festivals in India is
crowd management.
(d) Religious festivals are very common in India and
attract a large crowd of believers to certain sacred
places.
12. Read the following argument and answer the question
that follows.
"India is perhaps the only country in the world to
have such a system, where it is punishable by law
to charge a price higher than the printed maximum
retail price (MRP)."
Which of the following will mitigate the effectiveness
of the law mentioned above?
A. It is not illegal for the shopkeeper to sell an article
at a price offered by the customer, even if it is
greater than the printed MRP.
B. It is not illegal for the shopkeeper to sell an article
at a high price in absence of an MRP.
C. The absence of a minimum selling price on the
articles allows shopkeepers to charge at will.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) Only A
(b) A and B
(c) B and C
(d) Only C
1.5
13. Read the following argument and answer the question
that follows.
"It may be largely impossible to avoid getting bitten
by a mosquito unless and otherwise one can remain
nearly invisible and have a cool body temperature."
Which of the following inferences can be drawn from
this statement?
(a) Only visual and thermal signs guide a mosquito
towards its host.
(b) There are very few ways for hosts to avoid being
bitten by mosquitoes.
(c) Mosquitoes are attracted to certain hosts
irrespective of what they do.
(d) Mosquitoes use visual and thermal signs to locate
a host.
14. Five sentences are given below, labeled 1, 2, 3, 4
and 5. In the space given below, write the most
appropriate sequence that forms a coherent
paragraph/passage.
(1) The further news that this book had been chosen
and was being pushed by the Book of the Month
Club, though it occasioned surprise, was pleasant
because it seemed to herald one of those
instances when unusual talent of the sort rarely
popular receives recognition and a great tangible
reward.
(2) George Orwell in his critical writings shows
imagination and taste; his wit is both edged and
human.
(3) The news that he had written a satirical allegory,
telling the story of a revolution by farm animals
against their cruel and dissolute master, and of
their subsequent fortunes, was like the smell of
a roast from a kitchen ruled by a good cook,
near the end of a hungry morning.
(4) There are times when a reviewer is happy to report
that a book is bad because it fulfills his hope that
the author will expose himself in a way that
permits a long deserved castigation.
(5) Few writers of any period have been able to use
the English language so simply and accurately
to say what they mean, and at the same time to
mean something.
15. Five sentences are given below, labeled 1, 2, 3, 4
and 5. In the space given below, write the most
appropriate sequence that forms a coherent
paragraph/passage.
(1) In such a scenario, Uber may not even have got
all the dope on Yadav, even if it had sought this
information.
(2) There are also several specialized agencies which
are hired by major private corporations to get
background check done on job applicants.
1.6
(3) Each of these reports costs about Rs. 3000.
(4) These agencies confront many stumbling blocks
in the form of bureaucratic indifference and
hostility.
(5) Ultimately in most cases they manage to get
only half-baked police reports which they pass
on to those hiring them because they have no
other option.
Directions for questions 16 to 19: The passage given
below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the
most appropriate answer to each question.
The gospels of the New Testament, compiled somewhere
between AD 50 and 110, get older every year. They also
stay strikingly new, fuelled by a literary experimentalism
that keeps them alive not as religious artefacts but as
pieces of writing.
The Gospel of John stands apart, with no mention of the
nativity or the breaking of bread at the last supper. But
even though the synoptic gospels of Matthew, Mark and
Luke share many of the same incidents, or "pericopes",
these short, self-contained passages appear in a different
order in each one. In Matthew, the pericopes of the Sermon
on the Mount, for example, are gathered together in a
single block. In Luke, they're separate. Each gospel is
therefore a reworking of predetermined material for literary
effect. Sound familiar?
The postmodern cut-up technique, as used by writers
from William Burroughs to Julio Cortázar, is often traced
back to Dada experiments of the 1920s. Think again.
The word 'pericope' comes from the Greek, meaning "cut
around", placing the gospels a mere preposition away
from the cut-ups of the 20th century.
This resemblance to postmodern texts goes further. The
pericopes are a mash-up of genres, including exorcisms,
miracle stories, parables, sayings (prophetic and
apocalyptic), proverbs, instructions for church discipline,
and rules for communities. With a little more typographical
flamboyance, the gospels could look like the kind of
mosaic text readers might expect from Jennifer Egan.
These ancient avant-garde techniques mean that a
composite picture of Jesus and his activities are created
at the expense of a fixed realist portrait. The early church
did consider merging the four gospels into a single linear
story. The theologian Tatian compiled a version called
the Diatessaron ("made of four") in the second century,
condensing the four gospels into a single narrative known
as a "gospel harmony". It didn't catch on.
Already by AD155, Justin Martyr is comfortable referring
to the gospels in the plural. He and other church leaders
preferred the narrative flexibility of four separate versions.
To paraphrase Einstein, the story of Jesus should be
made as simple as possible, but no simpler than that.
MOCK TEST–1
The four perspectives of the New Testament offer a
prefiguration of another postmodern commonplace - there
is no single incontrovertible truth. This multiple Jesus
story leaves space for interpretation between the
repetitions, revisions and contradictions that punctuate
four distinct gospels.
It's a notion that glints with postmodern playfulness,
undermining the traditional vision of the evangelion as an
authoritative proclamation definitively announced by a
herald. Instead, the one truth is announced in four different
ways, a sophisticated narrative strategy that takes
advantage of the fact that unreliable narrators are simply
more plausible because they're more recognisably
human. Uncertainty and inconsistency better reflect the
world as it is, in AD100 just as now.
The word gospel comes from the Old English "godspel",
a good story. The longevity and power of the New
Testament gospels are deeply reassuring for literary
experimentalists. Structural experiments are worth
pursuing because they work - if they add to a story the
authentic textures of lived experience, then the story may
last for 2,000 years.
No wonder, then, that the repeatable story of Jesus
seems to invite attempts to tell it again. The ongoing
21st-century renewal of the New Testament is a
constructive reaction to the original material. Don't be
frightened, that's the literary message of the four pre-
postmodern gospels. Be bold, writers, because there's
more than one way to approach the truth.
16. Which of the following can be inferred about the
'literary experimentalism' that the author refers to in
the first paragraph?
(a) There is a predetermined quality in the gospels
with the structure having been worked out for a
particular effect.
(b) The gospels of the New Testament have been
placed through experimental literary techniques
and this has ensured a long literary shelf life for
them.
(c) Each testament is not like the other in terms of
content and structure.
(d) The gospels were written by four different
individuals but structured by one.
17. Which of the following has not been stated as a
resemblance between the gospels and post-modern
texts?
(a) A reworking of the predetermined material for
literary effect
(b) A mix of various sections including miracle stories,
parables, and proverbs
(c) Multiple perspectives on a particular story that
opens the mind to interpretation
(d) A typographical flamboyance that is particular to
a few postmodern authors
MOCK TEST–1
18. Why, according to the passage, would inconsistency
help the case of the New Testament?
(a) It reflects the credibility of the text as it indicates
a lived experience and one that is more human.
(b) There is no single truth and the gospel is also
open to the manifestation of many truths.
(c) The gospel was to be read by many and hence it
was necessary to leave it open for interpretation.
(d) They help in ensuring the longevity of the story.
19. Which of the following options would the author most
agree with?
(a) The simpler the story the better acceptance it
will have.
(b) Readers are willing to accept a story that has
been written through experimental techniques.
(c) Addition of authenticity of an experience may
increase the longevity of a story.
(d) Circumvention is a technique in story telling that
has been gaining acceptance in the postmodern
world.
Directions for questions 20 to 23: The passage given
below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the
most appropriate answer to each question.
Colour has been used to make symbolic statements in
cinema since the days when "talkies" were tinted, toned
or hand-coloured. From the Wizard of Oz, with its vibrant
Emerald City and yellow brick road, to the dramatic and
ground-breaking use of colour in Gone with the Wind,
the most famous, early technicolour films harnessed the
power of colour, not only to stimulate the senses, but to
enhance and express the themes of the story.
Throughout cinematic history, the tradition of colour
storytelling thrived. In 1951's A Streetcar Named Desire,
director Elia Kazan used colour to convey themes of class
and superficiality; dressing characters of a lower class
in vibrant hues to symbolise their rise to power in the
case of the former, and using Blanche DuBois' love of
colour as metaphor for her desire to gloss over life's gritty
realities in the case of the latter.
In 1968, Roman Polanski explored the relationship
between colour and Christianity, dressing his protagonist,
Mia Farrow's Rosemary Woodhouse, in white (purity),
yellow (hope) and red (martyrdom). In 1979's Apocalypse
Now, Francis Ford Coppola lashed the audience with
deep red napalm flames, enveloping green jungle foliage
and the foreboding, pitch black of Colonel Kurtz's lair, all
oversaturated to increase the claustrophobia and sense
of death. In the 90s, M. Night Shyamalan first revealed
his signature use of colour symbolism - in the Sixth
Sense, for example, vivid pops of red show up in every
scene where living characters connect with the dead.
1.7
And in 2000, two acclaimed movies used colour as a
broad storytelling device. In Christopher Nolan's Memento,
colour sequences contrast with black and white to mark
a simple differentiation between chronological and reverse-
chronological events (in an otherwise complex and brain-
teasing tale), and in Steven Soderbergh's Traffic, each of
the three separate story strands has its own palette. But
since the turn of the century, there has been a shift. With
the rise of superhero blockbusters and action-packed
celebrity vehicles, cinema seats have been filled at the
expense of subtlety. The craft of colour symbolism has
been relegated to independent moviemakers, while
mainstream jaunts blaze a 3D-enhanced trail.
Colour storytelling is far from passé, however. From the
comfort of our sofas, we've watched the ambitions of small
screen creativity explode. As competing broadcasters,
including new players Netflix and Amazon, have lured
movie stars and directors into TV contracts, the limitations
(and stigma) of serial television has been obliterated.
Those early adopters who devoured Lost, The Wire and
The Sopranos have been rewarded with a boom in "box
set culture". And this eruption in television scope, reach
and budget can be seen in a riot of thematic hues.
Take Breaking Bad. Vince Gilligan's cult behemoth
depicted a downtrodden, cancer-ravaged teacher's
transformation into a pork-pie-hat-wearing drug overlord,
using "hot" colour to punch Walter White's modern-day
fable into living rooms across the globe. From the acid
yellow of the meth makers' jumpsuits to the bright blue
shade of the "product" itself, Walter's epic fall into
criminality is characterised by larger-than-life colour.
Gilligan's use of colour continued in spin-off series, Better
Call Saul, with fans picking up on a "fire and ice" code;
colder colours are used in scenes that convey themes of
authority and respectability.
20. Which of the following options can be best said to
express the central idea of the passage?
(a) The use of colour as a symbolic statement in
cinema is not new, though the degree and type
of symbolism has varied with time.
(b) The thematic use of colour in cinema is nothing
new, but the explosion of the concept in television
is proof that the ambitions of small screen
storytelling know no bounds.
(c) Each director has a special way in which he/she
uses colour symbolism to depict the themes in
the movie/serial.
(d) Colour symbolism in movies has been used to
predict the nature of the scene and to bring in a
sense of the future.
1.8
21. According to the passage, colour has been used to
symbolise all of the following except for
(a) to symbolise death or a foreboding of it.
(b) to symbolise the relationship between religion
and the main character.
(c) to symbolise a change in someone's social/
power status.
(d) to symbolise someone's longing to artfully
mislead away from life's rough side.
22. Which of the following options would the author most
agree with?
(a) Colour can even be used to depict stimuli from
other senses in movies and TV serials.
(b) Colour symbolism is an outdated idea.
(c) The symbolic use of colour in the small screen
is only set to rise as a trend.
(d) Colour has been used to help the viewer find a
common thread in a complex story line.
23. Which of the following options would complete the
author's explanation of the "fire and ice" code?
(a) Hotter colours may be associated with crime and
corruption.
(b) Hotter colours convey a feeling of vibrancy and
energy.
(c) Hotter colours are associated with crime and
corruptibility.
(d) Hotter colours always bring out the aggression
in the viewer.
Directions for questions 24 to 27: The passage given
below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the
most appropriate answer to each question.
Demand-pull theory states that inflation accelerates when
aggregate demand increases beyond the ability of the
economy to produce (its potential output). Hence, any
factor that increases aggregate demand can cause
inflation. However, in the long run, aggregate demand
can be held above productive capacity only by increasing
the quantity of money in circulation faster than the real
growth rate of the economy. Another (although much less
common) cause can be a rapid decline in the demand for
money, as happened in Europe during the Black Death,
or in the Japanese occupied territories just before the
defeat of Japan in 1945.
The effect of money on inflation is most obvious when
governments finance spending in a crisis, such as a civil
war, by printing money excessively. This sometimes
leads to hyperinflation, a condition where prices can
double in a month or less. Money supply is also thought
to play a major role in determining moderate levels of
MOCK TEST–1
inflation, although there are differences of opinion on how
important it is. For example, Monetarist economists believe
that the link is very strong; Keynesian economists, by
contrast, typically emphasize the role of aggregate
demand in the economy rather than the money supply in
determining inflation. That is, for Keynesians, the money
supply is only one determinant of aggregate demand.
Some Keynesian economists also disagree with the
notion that central banks fully control the money supply,
arguing that central banks have little control, since the
money supply adapts to the demand for bank credit
issued by commercial banks. This is known as the theory
of endogenous money, and has been advocated strongly
by post-Keynesians as far back as the 1960s. It has
today become a central focus of Taylor rule advocates.
This position is not universally accepted - banks create
money by making loans, but the aggregate volume of
these loans diminishes as real interest rates increase.
Thus, central banks can influence the money supply by
making money cheaper or more expensive, thus
increasing or decreasing its production.
A fundamental concept in inflation analysis is the
relationship between inflation and unemployment, called
the Phillips curve. This model suggests that there is a
trade-off between price stability and employment.
Therefore, some level of inflation could be considered
desirable in order to minimize unemployment. The Phillips
curve model described the U.S. experience well in the
1960s but failed to describe the combination of rising
inflation and economic stagnation (sometimes referred
to as stagflation) experienced in the 1970s.
Thus, modern macroeconomics describes inflation using
a Phillips curve that shifts (so the trade-off between
inflation and unemployment changes) because of such
matters as supply shocks and inflation becoming built
into the normal workings of the economy. The former
refers to such events as the oil shocks of the 1970s, while
the latter refers to the price/wage spiral and inflationary
expectations implying that the economy "normally" suffers
from inflation. Thus, the Phillips curve represents only
the demand-pull component of the triangle model.
Another concept of note is the potential output
(sometimes called the "natural gross domestic product"),
a level of GDP, where the economy is at its optimal level
of production given institutional and natural constraints.
(This level of output corresponds to the Non-Accelerating
Inflation Rate of Unemployment, NAIRU, or the "natural"
rate of unemployment or the full-employment
unemployment rate.) If GDP exceeds its potential (and
unemployment is below the NAIRU), the theory says that
inflation will accelerate as suppliers increase their prices
and built-in inflation worsens. If GDP falls below its
potential level (and unemployment is above the NAIRU),
inflation will decelerate as suppliers attempt to fill excess
capacity, cutting prices and undermining built-in inflation.
MOCK TEST–1
However, one problem with this theory for policy-making
purposes is that the exact level of potential output (and
of the NAIRU) is generally unknown and tends to change
over time. Inflation also seems to act in an asymmetric
way, rising more quickly than it falls. Worse, it can change
because of policy: for example, high unemployment under
British Prime Minister Margaret Thatcher might have led
to a rise in the NAIRU (and a fall in potential) because
many of the unemployed found themselves as structurally
unemployed, unable to find jobs that fit their skills. A rise
in structural unemployment implies that a smaller
percentage of the labor force can find jobs at the NAIRU,
where the economy avoids crossing the threshold into
the realm of accelerating inflation.
24. Which of the given options best defines structural
unemployment?
(a) A situation where people are rendered jobless by
those who possess better skills
(b) A situation where people do not find employment
that befits their skills
(c) A case where there are more jobs than there are
people
(d) A scenario where skills are given lesser
importance than qualifications
25. W hat according to the author is usually a
comparatively uncommon reason for the rise of
inflation?
(a) Aggregate demand becoming more than
production capacity
(b) A steep fall in the currency value
(c) A rapid decline in the amount of money in
circulation
(d) Stagnation in money circulation channels
26. Which of the below examples, highlights a prominent
failing of the Philips curve model?
(a) Unemployment and inflation following clearly
disparate trends
(b) Unemployment leading to an increase in price
stability
(c) The steady rise of inflation with slow economic
growth
(d) The observed increase in inflation in tandem with
resultant decrease in economic growth
27. According to the passage under what circumstances
would built-in inflation rise?
(a) High GDP, low unemployment
(b) Low GDP, high unemployment
(c) Price instability
(d) Prevalence of structural unemployment
1.9
Directions for questions 28 to 31: The passage given
below is followed by a set of four questions. Choose the
most appropriate answer to each question.
Mutations can involve the duplication of large sections of
DNA, usually through genetic recombination. These
duplications are a major source of raw material for evolving
new genes, with tens to hundreds of genes duplicated in
animal genomes every million years. Most genes belong
to larger families of genes of shared ancestry. Novel genes
are produced by several methods, commonly through
the duplication and mutation of an ancestral gene, or by
recombining parts of different genes to form new
combinations with new functions.
Here, domains act as modules, each with a particular
and independent function, that can be mixed together to
produce genes encoding new proteins with novel
properties. For example, the human eye uses four genes
to make structures that sense light: three for colour vision
and one for night vision; all four arose from a single
ancestral gene. Another advantage of duplicating a gene
(or even an entire genome) is that this increases
redundancy; this allows one gene in the pair to acquire a
new function while the other copy performs the original
function. Other types of mutation occasionally create new
genes from previously non-coding DNA.
Changes in chromosome number may involve even larger
mutations, where segments of the DNA within
chromosomes break and then rearrange. For example,
in the Homininae, two chromosomes fused to produce
human chromosome-2; this fusion did not occur in the
lineage of the other apes, and they retain these separate
chromosomes. In evolution, the most important role of
such chromosomal rearrangements may be to accelerate
the divergence of a population into new species by making
populations less likely to interbreed, thereby preserving
genetic differences between these populations.
Sequences of DNA that can move about the genome,
such as transposons, make up a major fraction of the
genetic material of plants and animals, and may have
been important in the evolution of genomes. For example,
more than a million copies of the Alu sequence are present
in the human genome, and these sequences have now
been recruited to perform functions such as regulating
gene expression. Another effect of these mobile DNA
sequences is that when they move within a genome,
they can mutate or delete existing genes and thereby
produce genetic diversity.
Non-lethal mutations accumulate within the gene pool
and increase the amount of genetic variation. The
abundance of some genetic changes within the gene pool
can be reduced by natural selection, while other "more
favorable" mutations may accumulate and result in
adaptive changes.
1.10
For example, a butterfly may produce offspring with new
mutations. The majority of these mutations will have no
effect; but one might change the color of one of the
butterfly's offspring, making it harder (or easier) for
predators to see. If this color change is advantageous,
the chance of this butterfly's surviving and producing its
own offspring are a little better, and over time the number
of butterflies with this mutation may form a larger
percentage of the population.
Neutral mutations are defined as mutations whose effects
do not influence the fitness of an individual. These can
accumulate over time due to genetic drift. It is believed
that the overwhelming majority of mutations have no
significant effect on an organism's fitness. Also, DNA
repair mechanisms are able to mend most changes
before they become permanent mutations, and many
organisms have mechanisms for eliminating otherwise-
permanently mutated somatic cells.
And as it has been observed, beneficial mutations, usually,
improve reproductive success.
28. Which of the following can be attributed to the
emergence of new species as given in the third
paragraph?
(a) Addition of chromosomes
(b) Mutations involving chromosomal segments
(c) Fusion of chromosomal segments
(d) An increased instance of interbreeding
29. Which of the following, if true, would most seriously
weaken the idea behind natural selection as explained
by the butterfly example in the passage?
(a) A black-coloured butterfly thriving in an area where
there are no woods.
(b) A black-coloured butterfly thriving in an area where
the woods are black.
(c) A white-coloured butterfly thriving in an area where
the woods are black.
(d) A white-coloured butterfly thriving in an area where
there are no woods.
30. According to the passage, most mutations are-
(a) independent mutations
(b) involve gene deletions
(c) neutral mutations
(d) involve gene additions
31. What purpose has the example of the human eye
been cited for?
(a) To highlight the workings of genetic renewal
(b) To give an example for chromosomal duplication
(c) To highlight the impact of mutation
(d) To differentiate between the genes responsible
for colour vision and night vision
MOCK TEST–1
32. Given below are four sentences that form a paragraph.
Identify the sentence(s) or part(s) of sentence(s) that
is/are incorrect in terms of grammar, usage, spellings
and punctuation. Then, choose the most appropriate
option.
A. If you're tired, you're also likely to feel frustrated,
impulsed and a bit miserable.
B. Sleepiness is also often accompanied by finding
it hard to remember things, an inability to
concentrate and tendency to bump into things.
C. Thank goodness there's a cure - even on the
busiest of days.
D. It's the midday nap.
(a) A and B (b) C and D
(c) B and C (d) A and D
33. Given below are four sentences that form a paragraph.
Identify the sentence(s) or part(s) of sentence(s) that
is/are incorrect in terms of grammar, usage, spellings
and punctuation. Then, choose the most appropriate
option.
A. The best part of my job is seeing people who
start out unfit and overweight and go on to become
healthy and strong.
B. They often say, "I couldn't have done it without
you", but the truth is they have done it all by
themselves.
C. I can't control how much one eats at the end of
each day, or give them the drive to push that
extra weight.
D. You can't stop people once they are adults.
(a) A, B and C (b) B and C
(c) Only C (d) D and A
34. Given below are four sentences that form a paragraph.
Identify the sentence(s) or part(s) of sentence(s) that
is/are incorrect in terms of grammar, usage, spellings
and punctuation. Then, choose the most appropriate
option.
A. I ask my mother and my aunt Mary about their
approach, and its the same.
B. For Mary, it's obvious: you want to eat something
that is fresh, cooked just right, arranged with
purpose.
C. There's nothing worse than a grey, boiled meal.
D. But it's the ingredeints first and foremost that
matter: if it's fresh, it'll be beautiful.
(a) B and C (b) A and D
(c) C and A (d) D and B
MOCK TEST–1 1.11

DI & LR 37. In 2007, if 20% of demand was met by imports, then

by what percent was earning from exports less/more
Directions for questions 35 to 38: Answer the questions than expenditure on import of wheat?
on the basis of the information given below.
(a) 16.75% more (b) 45.95% more
India is a major producer of wheat, and it exports some
(c) 8.25% less (d) 16.75% less
part of its production every year. The remaining part is
38. What was the average annual increase in production
consumed domestically. When the availability is less
(in terms of percentage) of wheat from 2005 to 2009?
than demand, government is forced to import wheat in
order to meet the required demand. If availability is equal (a) 2.56% (b) 2.05%
to or more than demand, then the availability becomes (c) 10.24% (d) None of these
equal to consumption. Directions for questions 39 to 42: Answer the questions
on the basis of the information given below.
Following chart shows the per capita availability of wheat
(In Kg) in different years. The line graph given below shows the profit percentage
of three companies – Ibay, Dabong and Syntra – during
Per capita availability of wheat( in kg) the period 2005-2010.
40 35 45
35 32 32.4 40
28 29.4
30 35
30
25
25
20 20
15 15
10 10
5 5
0
0
2005 2006 2007 2008 2009 2010
2005 2006 2007 2008 2009
Ibay Dabong Syntra

The following chart gives the information about production Profit = Revenue – Expenditure
and exports during the given period Profit percentage = (Profit/Expenditure) × 100
Product and Export of Wheat (in Million Kg) 39. If revenue of Ibay in 2008 increased by 40% over that
1400 1385
in the year 2007, then what was the percentage
1500 1280 1310
1100 change in profit of Ibay for the same period?
1000 (a) 40% increase (b) 30% decrease
630 575
520
360 420 (c) 2% decrease (d) 21.9% decrease
500

40. Revenue of Ibay in 2007 was equal to the expenditure

0
2005 2006 2007 2008 2009 of Syntra in 2006, and profit of Ibay in 2007 exceeded
that of Syntra in 2006 by Rs.24 crores, then what
Production Export
was the expenditure (in Rs. crore) of Ibay in 2007?
Availability = Production – Export (a) 100 (b) 200
During the given period, India exported wheat at the rate (c) 10 (d) 280
of Rs. 90/Kg and imported at the rate of Rs. 150/Kg.
41. In which year was the percentage increase/decrease
35. In which year, during the given period, was the in the profit of the company Dabong with respect to
consumption of wheat in India as a percentage of the previous year the highest?
export the highest? (Assume India did not import
(a) 2006 (b) 2009
wheat during the given period.)
(c) 2008 (d) Data insufficient
(a) 2008 (b) 2007
42. If revenue of Dabong in 2007 increased by 25% over
(c) 2005 (d) Data insufficient
that in the year 2006, then what is the approximate
36. In which of the following years was the population of percentage change in expenditure of Dabong in the
India the lowest? year 2007 over 2006?
(a) 2007 (b) 2006 (a) No change (b) 16.66% increase
(c) 2009 (d) 2008 (c) 20% increase (d) 25% increase
1.12 MOCK TEST–1

Directions for questions 43 to 46: Answer the questions 43. Which of the following can be true about the
on the basis of the information given below. investments made in the Mumbai project?
The following tables show data related to the investments (a) Total investment made by NRI investors could be
made by a group of investors comprising 120 Indians
more than that by Indian investors.
and 80 NRIs in three real estate projects – one each in
Mumbai, Pune and Nagpur. It is also known that each of (b) Average investment made by NRI investors could
the 200 investors invested in all the three projects. be more than that by Indian investors.
Mumbai Pune (c) Average investment made by an Indian investors
could be 42 lakhs.
Indian NRI Indian NRI
(d) More than one of the above
26(12-30) 11(18-35) 45(6-18) 18(11-20)
44. If the investors who invested at least 36 lakhs in each
20(31-48) 21(36-50) 26(19-34) 16(21-35) of the three projects were gifted a car, then the
number of Indian investors who got a car cannot be
34(49-60) 32(51-64) 34(35-52) 21(36-50)
less than
40(61-90) 16(65-90) 15(53-70) 25(51-79)
(a) 16 (b) 12
Nagpur (c) 8 (d) 0
Indian NRI 45. The number of NRI investors who invested at least
50 lakhs in each of the three projects was at most
32(9-22) 16(12-29)
(a) 25 (b) 43
36(23-36) 20(30-44)
(c) 44 (d) 52
21(37-50) 26(45-58) 46. Which of the following could be a value of the average
31(51-65) 18(59-70) investment (in lakhs) made by NRI investors in the
Mumbai project ?
For example, in Nagpur’s project, the investments made
by 32 Indians was in the range of 9 lakhs to 22 lakhs, the (a) 46.05 (b) 39.5
lowest investment was 9 lakhs and highest investment (c) 61.5 (d) None of these
was 22 lakhs.
Direction for questions 47 to 50: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
Last year election were held in all the four zones – east, west, north and south zone of Goa. The following table shows
the data related to votes polled across four zones of Goa in the recently held elections.

(in '000)

800
663 690
700 640 636
611
586
600
520
500 460

400
308 323 298 309 320 337
300 265
235
200

100

0
North Zone East Zone South Zone West Zone

Total Number of Votes Polled Total Number of Valid Votes

Number of Valid Votes by Male Voters Votes Polled by Females

MOCK TEST–1
Election Commission of India declares a zone as
“Developed Electoral Zone” if it satisfies the following two
conditions–
(i) Number of votes polled by female voters should not
be less than the votes polled by male voters in that
zone by more than 5%.
(ii) For both male and female, valid votes cast should be
at least 90% of respective votes polled.
47. How many Zones in Goa are declared as “Developed
Electoral Zones”?
(a) 0 (b) 1
(c) 2 (d) 3
48. In how many zones, was the number of valid votes
as a percent of the total number of votes polled higher
for male voters as compared to that of female voters?
49. In which zone was the number of votes polled by
male voters as a percentage of total number of votes
polled in that zone the highest ?
(a) South (b) East
(c) North (d) West
50. In how many zones was the number of votes polled
by female voters more than 25% of the total votes
polled by female voters in all the four zones together?
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) Cannot be determined
Directions for questions 51 to 54: Answer the questions
on the basis of the information given below.
In a group of ten students – A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and
J – each pursuing Phd, every student has chosen two
subjects – one as a compulsory subject from among
History, Chemistry, English and Politics and the other
as an optional subject from among Economics, History,
Geography and Sociology. Each of the compulsory
subjects was chosen by a different number of students,
which is at least one, and the same is true for the optional
subjects. Further it is also known that:
1. Three students have chosen History as their compulsory
subject and each of these students has chosen a
different optional subject but none of them has chosen
Sociology. I has chosen History as both of his/her
subjects.
2. Both D and H have chosen English as their
compulsory subject and this is the only pair of
students in which both the students have chosen
the same compulsory subject as well as same
optional subjects, which is different from the
compulsory subject. A has chosen the same optional
subject which has been chosen by both D and H as
their optional subject.
1.13
3. Maximum number of students have chosen History
as their optional subject.No two students who have
chosen History as their optional subject have the
same compulsory subject.
4. E has chosen English as his/her compulsory subject
and Economics as the optional subject.
5. No one has chosen the same optional subject which
B has chosen as optional subject. B and C have
chosen the same compulsory subjects while G and
A have chosen different compulsory subjects.
6. C and F have chosen different compulsory subjects
as well as optional subjects. C has chosen
Economics as his/her optional subject.
7. F and G have chosen different compulsory subjects
but the same optional subjects. G has chosen
Politics as his compulsory subject.
51. How many students have chosen Geography as the
optional subject?
52. Who has chosen Chemistry and Sociology as his/
her compulsory and optional subjects respectively?
(a) F (b) B
(c) A (d) J
53. The compulsory subject chosen by F is
(a) Chemistry (b) English
(c) History (d) Either (a) or (b)
54. Which of the following represents the group of
students who have chosen History as their optional
subject?
(a) I, D, A and H (b) I, J, F and G
(c) I,G and F (d) None of these
Directions for questions 55 to 58: Answer the questions
on the basis of the information given below.
Four friends – Clarke, Sen, Steve and Richard – are sitting
in a row (not necessarily in the same order ) and their
children – Clive, Jordan, Mark and Ken – are sitting in
the row behind them. Each child is seated directly behind
his/her respective father. Each friend has exactly one
child. All of them are wearing jackets, the colours of
which are from among blue, brown, green and yellow. No
two friends are wearing jackets of the same colour and
the same holds true for the children. No father is wearing
jackets of the same colour as worn by his child. It is also
known that:
1. Clarke’s child is wearing blue coloured jacket.
2. Ken’s father is wearing neither blue nor yellow
coloured jacket.
3. Steve is sitting immediately next to the friends who
are wearing green and brown coloured jackets.
1.14
4. Richard’s child is wearing yellow coloured jacket.
5. Clarke and Richard are sitting at the extreme ends.
6. Sen is not wearing a brown coloured jacket.
7. Mark is Sen’s child.
8. The child wearing the green coloured jacket is
immediately left of the child who is wearing the yellow
coloured jacket.
55. Which one of the following pairs does not contain
the names of person who would be wearing the Yellow
coloured jacket?
(a) Clive and ken (b) Mark and ken
(c) Ken and Jordan (d) Clive and Jordan
56. Which of the following statement(s) may be true?
(i) Ken is sitting immediately next to Sen’s child.
(ii) Clive’s father is wearing the brown coloured jacket.
(iii) Jordan is wearing the blue coloured jacket.
(a) Only (i) and (ii) (b) Only (i)
(c) Only (iii) (d) Only (ii) and (iii)
57. How many of the following statements cannot be
inferred with certainty from the given information?
(i) Colour of Sen’s Jacket
(ii) Name of Clive’s father
(iii) Colour of Ken’s jacket
(iv) Name of the friend whose child is wearing green
coloured jacket
(v) Name of the child wearing blue coloured jacket
(vi) Name of Steve’s child
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) More than 4
58. What is the colour of Richard’s jacket?
(a) Brown (b) Blue
(c) Yellow (d)Green
Directions for questions 59 to 62: Answer the questions
on the basis of the information given below.
Six friends – Jatin, Ketan, Lalit, Manoj, Nitin and Pulkit –
went to a general shop with Rs. 99,78,90,74,82 and 86
respectively. The shopkeeper had seven different types
of chocolates – stix, barone, munch, perk, crackle,
snickers and silk – worth Rs. 8, 12, 20, 25, 30, 34 and
60 per chocolate respectively. These friends spent their
money only on chocolates. It is also known that:
1. Each chocolate was purchased by at least two friends
and no one bought more than one unit of the same
type of chocolate.
2. Each friend bought either 3 or 4 chocolates.
MOCK TEST–1
3. Only barone was bought by 5 people.
4. Except one friend, who spent all his money, each
friend was left with some amount of money after they
completed their shopping. The amount left with none
of them was sufficient enough to buy any other
chocolate.
5. Nitin bought more number of chocolates than what
Pulkit bought. Lalit bought 3 chocolates and snickers
was not one of them.
6. Ketan did not buy crackle and Jatin did not buy silk.
59. Who did not buy barone?
(a) Jatin (b) Ketan
(c) Lalit (d) Pulkit
60. How many chocolates were bought by the six friends
put together?
(a) 22 (b) 19
(c) 20 (d) 21
61. How many friends bought both snickers and stix?
(a) Zero (b) One
(c) Two (d) cannot be determined
62. Who among the following was/were left with Rs.7?
(i) Jatin (ii) Ketan
(iii) Nitin (iv) Pulkit
(a) Both (i) and (iv) (b) Only (iii)
(c) Both (ii) and (iii) (d) only (ii)
Directions for questions 63 to 66: Answer the questions
on the basis of the information given below.
Six countries – India, Japan, Norway ,Germany, Brazil
and China – are ranked on the basis of three parameters
– Infant mortality rate(IMR), Sex ratio(SR) and Literacy
rate(LR). The country with the highest LR value is ranked
1 and that with the lowest LR value is ranked 6. The
same holds true for SR as well. The country with the
highest IMR is ranked 6 and that with the lowest IMR is
ranked 1. Sex ratio is defined as the number of females
(an integral value) for every 1000 males.
Some additional information is given below:
1. No country is given the same rank on any of the two
parameters out of the three, and no two countries
are given the same rank on any of the three parameters.
2. The number of countries having higher IMR value than
that of Japan is equal to the number of countries
having higher SR value than that of Brazil.
3. Japan is given the same rank on SR as China is
given on LR and China is given the same rank on SR
as Japan is given on LR.
MOCK TEST–1 1.15

4. India has higher SR and LR values as compared to 69. If log2(x2 + 3x) = log2(x + 3) + 2, then x = ?
Brazil, China and Germany. (a) 2 (b) 4
5. Norway is ranked 2 on IMR, Germany is ranked 3 on (c) –3 or 2 (d) 4 or –3
LR and China is ranked 6 on IMR. 70. In right-angled triangle PQR with Q = 90°, S is the
6. The sum of the numerical values of three ranks given mid-point of PR, and QS = 117 cm . The sum of
to a country is not maximum for Brazil. the length of sides PQ and QR is 30 cm. What is
7. The number of countries that are given higher rank the area (in cm2) of PQR?
on LR than what China is given is equal to the number 71. In a landlocked country named Afjanistan, there are
of countries that are given lower lower rank on SR only two banks namely B1 and B2. On fixed deposits,
than what China is given. B1 pays interest in the form of simple interest at the
63. What is the rank of Norway on LR? rate of 10% and B2 pays interest in the form of
compound interest, compounded annually, at the
(a) 6 (b) 4
same rate. A man deposits 12000 Euros in B1 and
(c) 5 (d) 2 withdraws the amount generated at the end of the
64. If females do not outnumber males in any of the six year and deposits it in B2. At the end of the second
countries, then which of the following countries can year, he withdraws the amount from B2 and deposits
have sex ratio of 998? it in B1. At the end of the third year, he withdraws
(i) Germany (ii) India the amount from B1 and deposits it in B2. He
continues with this strategy. After a minimum of how
(iii) Japan (iv) Norway
many years (approximately) will he get an amount
(v) Brazil
which is more than 20400 Euros?
(a) Only (ii) and (v) (b) Only (ii)
(a) 5 (b) 6
(c) Only (ii),(iii) and (iv) (d) Only (ii) and (iii)
(c) 7 (d) 8
65. If the sum of the three ranks is a prime number for
72. If (x, y, z)  R and x  0, y  0 and z  0, then which
exactly three countries, then what is the rank of India
of the following statements is necessarily true?
on IMR?
1 1
66. If the country having the least sum of the three ranks I. If x > y, then 
x y
is given the best rating, then which country is given
the best rating? x y
II. If x > y and z > 0, then 
(a) Norway (b) India z z
(c) Japan (d) Cannot be determined (a) Only statement I
(b) Only statement II
QA (c) Both the statements I and II
67. N = a4 + 4a, where ‘a’ is a natural number. For how (d) Neither statement I nor II
many values of ‘a’ is N a prime number?
73. If both the equations x2 + 4x + C = 0 and x2 + 4x –
(a) One (b) Two C = 0, have rational roots, where ‘C’ is a natural
(c) Three (d) Infinitely many number, then the number of possible values of C are
68. A fruit dealer fixes selling price of watermelon juice (a) 0 (b) 2
in such a way that he ends up earning a profit of (c) 3 (d) 1
30% after paying tax, which is 13% of the cost price. 74. One of the angles of a triangle is 60° and lengths of
A shopkeeper buys watermelon juice from the dealer two of its sides are 6 cm and 7 cm. The length (in
and marks up the price by 15% and then adds 25% cm) of the third side of the triangle is
water to the juice. He then gives a discount of 4% on
(a) 43
juice to his customers and thereby sells juice at Rs.
98.67 per litre. What is the cost price per litre of the (b) 3  22
watermelon juice for the fruit dealer?
(c) 43 or 3  22
(a) Rs. 47.50 (b) Rs. 50.00
(d) 3  22
(c) Rs. 52.20 (d) Rs. 87.50
1.16 MOCK TEST–1

75. If X is the smallest number that is divisible by both 6 (a) R2 (6  7 3) sq. units
and 5, then the highest power of 10 that would
completely divide the product of the first 20 multiples (b) 9R2 sq. units
of X is (c) R2 (12  7 3) sq. units
(a) 4 (b) 24
(d) R2 (9  6 3) sq. units
(c) 27 (d) 20
76. The game of Doku is played on an array using the 9x 2  42x  49
79. If y  , then
natural numbers 1 to 4. The array is shown as below. 9x2  42x  64
C11 C12 C13 C14 1
(a) 0  y < 1 (b) –1  y 
15
C21 C22 C23 C24
1
(c) 0 < y <  (d) y
According to the rule of the game, the numbers must 15
be filled such that: 80. If a7! + b8! + c9! + d10! = x, where a, b, c and d are
I. No digit repeats in a row or a column. natural numbers that are not multiples of 10, then how
II. All the four digits must be used in the square many distinct values of unit’s digit of x are possible?
formed by C11, C12, C21 and C22 as well as in (a) 10 (b) 9
that formed by C13, C14, C23 and C24 also. (c) 8 (d) 4
The maximum number of different Doku results that 81. A group comprises 11 people namely A1, A2, A3’ ......
can be arrived at without the pattern being repeated A11. The ages of 11 people, in the order in which
is: their names are given, are in an arithmetic
(a) 576 (b) 96 progression. If the sum of the ages of A1, A3, A5, A7,
(c) 48 (d) 24 A9 and A11is 72, then what is the sum of the ages of
A1, A6 and A11?
77. Vikram has a certain number of gold coins with him.
He wants to distribute these coins among his 3 sons 82. If f(g(x))= g(f(x)) = h(x), which of the following is
and 3 daughters. He also wants to keep some coins definitely true?
1 (a) If f(x)= x + 2 then g(x) can’t be x – 10.
with him. He keeps one coin with him and gives
5 (b) If f(x) = g(x) then h(x) = [f(x)]2.
of the remaining to his first son; out of the remaining (c) f(h(x)) = h(f(x)).
1 (d) None of these
coins, he keeps one coin with him and gives of
5
the remaining to his second son; and he does the 83. In the figure given below, altitude PS of triangle PQR
same with his third son. He then distributes the meets the circumcircle of the triangle at T. If ST = 3
remaining coins among his 3 daughters in the ratio cm and H is the orthocentre of the triangle PQR,
23 : 46 : 55. The number of coins with Vikram could then what is the length of the line segment HT?
not be less than P
(a) 246 (b) 124
(c) 624 (d) 196 U
78. In the diagram given below, ABC is an equilateral H
triangle and all the circles inside it are of the same
Q S R
radius. Each circle touches at least one side of the
triangle and at least two other circles as shown below.
T
If the radius of each circle is R units, then find the
(a) 4.5 cm
area of the triangle.
A
(b) 5 cm
(c) 6 cm
(d) 4 cm
84. From a solution, containing milk and water in the
ratio 3 : 5, 20% of the solution is taken out and
replaced with milk. How many more times should
this process be repeated to make the ratio of milk to
water in the final solution 17 : 8 ?
B C
MOCK TEST–1 1.17

85. There are 2n consecutive natural numbers. If (n + 1) (a) Rs. 1444 (b) Rs. 1414
numbers are randomly selected, then what is the (c) Rs. 1448 (d) Rs. 1426
probability that their HCF is 1?
91. A group of five men started painting a wall in such a
1 1 way that 3 additional men joined them on the 2nd day
(a) (b)
2 n 1 and 2 men left on the third day. Similarly, 3 additional
1 1 men joined the group on the 4th day and 2 men left
(c) (d) on the fifth day. The same process is repeated till
2n (2n) 0
the completion of the work. If the wall was completely
86. Which of the following graphs represents the function
painted in 15 days, find the number of days that 29
y = min (x2,|| x | – 3 | )
men, working simultaneously, would take to paint
y y
the wall completely.
(a) 7 (b) 5
(a) x (b) x
–3 3 –3 3
1 9
y (c) 7 (d) 7
y 3 29
92. The sum of 30 terms of an arithmetic progression is
(c) x (d) x 0. If the first term is –29, find the sum of the last 3
–3 3 –3 3
terms of the progression.
87. In a relay race between two groups A and B (5 people 93. ‘abc’, a three-digit number, has three factors. How
in each group and the speeds of each group member many factors of the number ‘abcabc’ are possible?
being different), group A defeats group B by 50 m. If
(a) 24 (b) 16
each member of group B increases his speed by
x%, then group B defeats group A by 125 m. The (c) 8 (d) Either (a) or (b)
speeds of the last runners of groups A and B are 25 94. In PQR, the incircle touches the sides QR, RP and
km/hr and 20 km/hr respectively and the time taken PQ at T, U and S respectively. If the radius of the
by group A to complete the race is 4 min. Find the incircle is 4 units and the lengths of QT, RU and PS
approximate value of x. (Assume that each runner are consecutive integers, the area of the triangle PQR
has to run more than 125 m.) (in sq. units) is
(a) 11.75 (a) 42 (b) 84
(b) 12.15 (c) 21 (d) 48
(c) 10 95. On a planet, named M, one day has 36 hours, and it
(d) 15 follows a 9-hour clock (like we follow a 12-hour clock).
In an hour, there are 100 minutes and in a minute,
88. In an n-sided regular polygon, how many distinct
there are 200 seconds. Moreover, the hour hand and
values can the length of diagonals take?
the second hand move in a clockwise direction, while
n(n  3) n3 the minute hand moves in an anticlockwise direction.
(a) (b)
2 2 On the planet, how many times will the hour hand
n2 and the minute hand meet in a day?
(c) (d) Either (b) or (c) (a) 32 (b) 36
2
89. If H.C.F.(n, 4) = 2 and n < 6, which of the following (c) 40 (d) 44
numbers does not divide (54n – 32n)? 96. Find the sum of infinite terms of the series
(a) 317 (b) 13 4 9 16 25
1   2  3  4  ...
(c) 11 (d) 7 3 3 3 3
90. Raju, a rice dealer, has packets of 10 kg, 50 kg, 100 9
(a)
kg and 1000 kg of rice with him. He has to deliver an 2
order of 1,380 kgs of rice. The cost price of rice for 7
Raju is Re.1/kg. The transportation cost is Rs. 8 per (b)
2
packet, irrespective of packet’s weight. If he delivers
5
full packets only, what is the minimum cost (cost (c)
2
price and transportation cost together) that he would
incur in order to deliver the order? 3
(d)
2
1.18 MOCK TEST–1

97. In the figure given below, ABC is an equilateral 99. There are four towns (located in the same direction
triangle of side 14 cm. A semicircle, taking BC as with respect to Sunil’s house) namely A, B, C and
its diameter, is drawn and it intersects AB at D and D, along a highway, at distances 10, 20, 35 and 45
AC at E. Find the area of the shaded region. miles, respectively. Sunil wants to set up a shop to
A service these four towns. If the demand from each of
these towns is found to be identical and there are no
other shops servicing them, where should he set up
D E his shop to minimize the cost of transportation,
considering he travels through the highway only?
(a) Anywhere between towns A and B
B C (b) Anywhere between towns B and C
   3  (c) at town B
(a) 49  3  cm 2 (b) 49  cm 2
2  3 2  (d) at town C
 
100. For sets A and B the following operations are defined as:
 3 2
(c) 49 cm2 (d) 49    cm A – B is the set of all elements of set A that are
 3 4  not elements of set B;
98. If (52a)b = (169)11,where a and b are single digit natural A B is the set of all elements that appear in
numbers, and the difference between a and b is 2, either A or B or both A and B;
then find the value of (a + b). A  B is the set of all elements that are common
(a) 6 to both sets A and B.
With the above definitions, if P, Q and R are three
(b) 8
sets, then P – (Q – R) is equivalent to
(c) 10 (a) (P – Q)  (P  R) (b) P – (Q  R)
(d) 14 (c) P – (Q  R) (d) (P – Q)  (P – R)