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3

TABLE OF CONTENTS

Basics
Exercise - 1 : Basic Objective Questions .................................................................................................. ............. 8

Exercise - 2 : Advanced Objective Questions .................................................................................................. ...... 15

Answer Key ............................................................................................................................................................ 139

Number System
Exercise - 1 : Basic Objective Questions .................................................................................................. ............. 19

Exercise - 2 : Advanced Objective Questions .................................................................................................. ...... 26

Answer Key ............................................................................................................................................................ 139

Polynomial
Exercise - 1 : Basic Objective Questions .................................................................................................. ............. 29

Exercise - 2 : Advanced Objective Questions .................................................................................................. ...... 34

Answer Key ............................................................................................................................................................ 140

Linear Equation in Two Variables


Exercise - 1 : Basic Objective Questions .................................................................................................. ............. 37

Exercise - 2 : Advanced Objective Questions .................................................................................................. ...... 43

Answer Key ............................................................................................................................................................ 140

Coordinate Geometry
Exercise - 1 : Basic Objective Questions .................................................................................................. ............. 47

Exercise - 2 : Advanced Objective Questions .................................................................................................. ...... 53

Answer Key ............................................................................................................................................................ 140


4

Mathematical Tools
Exercise - 1 : Basic Objective Questions .................................................................................................. ............. 57

Exercise - 2 : Advanced Objective Questions .................................................................................................. ...... 63

Answer Key ............................................................................................................................................................ 141

Motion
Exercise - 1 : Basic Objective Questions .................................................................................................. ............. 66

Exercise - 2 : Advanced Objective Questions .................................................................................................. ...... 72

Answer Key ............................................................................................................................................................ 141

Laws of Motion
Exercise - 1 : Basic Objective Questions .................................................................................................. ............. 75

Exercise - 2 : Advanced Objective Questions .................................................................................................. ...... 80

Answer Key ............................................................................................................................................................ 141

Matter in Our Surroundings


Exercise - 1 : Basic Objective Questions .................................................................................................. ............. 85

Exercise - 2 : Advanced Objective Questions .................................................................................................. ...... 92

Answer Key ............................................................................................................................................................ 142

Is matter Around Us Pure


Exercise - 1 : Basic Objective Questions .................................................................................................. ............. 95

Exercise - 2 : Advanced Objective Questions .................................................................................................. ...... 101

Answer Key ............................................................................................................................................................ 142

Atoms and Molecules


Exercise - 1 : Basic Objective Questions .................................................................................................. ............. 105

Exercise - 2 : Advanced Objective Questions .................................................................................................. ...... 110

Answer Key ............................................................................................................................................................ 143

Fundamental Unit of Life


Exercise - 1 : Basic Objective Questions .................................................................................................. ............. 114

Exercise - 2 : Advanced Objective Questions .................................................................................................. ...... 118

Answer Key ............................................................................................................................................................ 143


5

Tissues
Exercise - 1 : Basic Objective Questions .................................................................................................. ............. 122

Exercise - 2 : Advanced Objective Questions .................................................................................................. ...... 126

Answer Key ............................................................................................................................................................ 144

Diversity in Living Organisms


Exercise - 1 : Basic Objective Questions .................................................................................................. ............. 131

Exercise - 2 : Advanced Objective Questions .................................................................................................. ...... 135

Answer Key ............................................................................................................................................................ 144


MATHEMATICS
BASICS 7

01
BASICS
BASICS 8

Exercise-1: Basic Objective Questions


Section-A (Single Choice Type Questions)
25  a 9
1. The value of expression 8  3  8  3  0
  0 0
 is 9. Simplify :
5  10  a 18
3

(a) 0 (b) 1 625a 27 625a 5


(c) 2 (d) 3 (a) (b)
12 20
4
 5 625a 27
2. Simplify 2 (c) 625a (d)
 5 2
5
2 0
(a)  5 (b)  5 .2 10. Evaluate 16 2 .
2 2 (a) 1024 (b) 512
(c)  5 (d)  5 (c) 256 (d) 128
4 1 3 4
The value of  3  is 4 
3. 11. 81  9 2  27 3
 ______
2
(a) 1 (b) 3
81 3
(a) (b) 1
16 2 (c) 9 (d)
3
81 3 3
(c) (d)  225  2
2 16 12. Find the value of   .
6  49 
4. Find the reciprocal of  2  is
3 343 15
(a) (b)
729 64 3375 7
(a) (b) 3375 7
64 729 (c) (d)
3 343 15
2
(c) (d) x 10 x 16
3 2 13. If  a  b
  , then x is equal to
2 3 b a
5. The rational form of the expression   2    4  is (a) 26 (b) 13
 3  5
(c) 16 (d) 6
equal to 4/5

1125 1125 14. Find the value of  2 


(a) (b) 3  
128 256
4
1125  3 5 3
(c) (d) none of these (a)   (b)
256  2 2
6. Which of the following values are equal ? 5 5

4 0 4 1  3 4  2 4
(I) 1 (II) 4 (III) 0 (IV) 4 (c)   (d)  
 2  3
(a) I and II (b) II and III
m1 5 7
(c) I and III (d) I and IV 15. Find the value of m for which  3   3   3 .
0
The value of  3 2    2   35 is
3
7. (a) 1 (b) –1
3 (c) 0 (d) 4
(a) 930 (b) 973 5 1

(c) 932 (d) 950 16. 16 2  16 2  _______


2 3 2 (a) 250 (b) 256
 1   1    1 
8. The value of          is (c) 255 (d) 200
 3   2    4 
17. Find the value of x if 42x 3  42  23  4.
16 2 (a) 0 (b) 4
(a) (b) 4
3 15 9
(c) (d)
(c) 4
2
(d) 4
4 4 8
9 BASICS

18. The value of x which satisfy 6x  216 is 29. If 35% of a number is 175, then what percentage of
(a) 3 (b) 12 175 is that number?
(c) 24 (d) 2 (a) 35% (b) 65%
12 8 x (c) 280% (d) none of these
19. If  2  5
3

2
   2  5   , then find the value of
 30. An agent gets a commission of 2.5% on the sales of
x. cloth. If one a certain day, he gets Rs. 12.50 as
(a) 4 (b) 2 commission, the cloth sold through him on that day is
(c) 2 (d) 1 worth _____.
20. The value of x which satisfy 6 x  4  1 (a) Rs. 250 (b) Rs. 500
(c) Rs. 750 (d) Rs. 1250
(a) 3 (b) 4
31. Which of the following percentages is the smallest for
(c) 2 (d) 1 a number?
21. For a non zero rational number a, a 7  a 12 is 2 2
(a) 16 % (b) %
(a) a 5 (b) a  19 3 15
(c) a 5 (d) a19 1
(c) % (d) 0.17%
   3  2

3 11
22. Evaluate:     32. An agent sells goods of value Rs. 15000. The
  2   1
64  729 commission which he receives is 12 % of amount.
(a) (b) 2
729 64 Find the commission value.
729 64 (a) Rs. 1875 (b) Rs. 2125
(c) (d)
64 729 (c) Rs. 2000 (d) Rs. 2700
4 3 33. If 40% of a number is equal to two-third of another
23. The value of expression  3    2  is number, what is the ratio of first number to the second
4 3
number?
3 3
(a) (b) (a) 2 : 5 (b) 3 : 7
16 32 (c) 5 : 3 (d) 7 : 3
16 32 34. The sum of two numbers is 4000. 10% of one number
(c) (d)
3 3 2
24. Which of the following values are equal ? is 6 % of the other. The difference of the number is
3
10
(P) 1 (Q) 6 0 (R) 0 5 (S) 101 (a) 600 (b) 800
(a) P and Q (b) Q and R (c) 1025 (d) 1175
(c) P and R (d) P and S 35. The difference of the squares of two number is 80% of
 xyz 
4 the sum of their squares. The ratio of the larger to the
25. Simplify : 3  x  0, y  0, z  0  smaller number is
x 2
y3 
(a) 5 : 2 (b) 2 : 5
y13 z16 (c) 3: 1 (d) 1 : 3
(a) (b) x 2 y 13 z 16
x2 36. A candidate who gets 20% marks in an examination
(c) xyz (d) none of these fails by 30 marks but another candidate who gets 32%,
26. 3.5 can be expressed in terms of percentage as : gets 42 marks more than the pass marks. The
(a) 0.35% (b) 3.5% percentage of pass marks is
(c) 35% (d) 350% (a) 52% (b) 50%
27. What is 15% of Rs. 34? (c) 33% (d) 25%
37. 37.85% and 92% alcoholic solutions are mixed to get
(a) Rs. 3.40 (b) Rs. 3.75
35 litres of an 89% alcoholic solution. How many litres
(c) Rs. 4.50 (d) Rs. 5.10 of each solution are there in the new mixture?
28. 860% of 50 + 50% of 860 = _______ (a) 10 L of the 1st, 25 L of the 2nd
(a) 430 (b) 516 (b) 20 L of the 1st, 15 L of the 2nd
(c) 15 L of the 1st, 20 L of the 2nd
(c) 860 (d) 960 (d) none
BASICS 10

38. From 5 litres of 20% solution of alcohol in water, 2 46. In a medical certificate, by mistake a candidate
litres of solution is taken out and 2 litres water is added gave his height as 25% more than the actual. In
to it. The strength of alcohol in the new solution is the interview panel, he clarified his height was 5
(a) 12% (b) 15% feet 5 inches. Find the percentage correction made
(c) 16% (d) 18% by the candidate from his stated height to his
39. The number of employees working in a farm is actual height.
increased by 25% and the wages per head are (a) 28.56 (b) 20
decreased by 25%. If it results in x% decrease in total
(c) 25 (d) 24
wages, then the value of x is
(a) 0 (b) 25 47. A 20% hike in bus fare resulted in a 10% fall in
passenger traffic, still the daily collection at the
25
(c) 20 (d) bus depot increased by Rs 150. The daily
4 collection at the depot after the fare hike is
40. If the price of a book a first decreased by 25% and the
increased by 20%, the net change in the price of the (a) Rs 1600 (b) Rs 1750
book is (c) Rs 2025 (d) Rs 1875
(a) 10% decrease (b) 5% decrease 48. If A's salary is 25% higher than B's salary, then
(c) no change (d) 5% increase how much per cent is B's salary lower than that
41. The price of a commodity has been increased by 60%. of A's?
By what per cent must a consumer reduce the (a) 16% (b) 20%
consumption of the commodity so as not to increase
(c) 25% (d) 33%
his expenditure of the commodity
(a) 30% (b) 35% 49. In an examination in which full marks were 800,
(c) 27.5% (d) 37.5% A gets 20% more than B, B gets 20% more than
42. The price of an article is reduced by 25% but the daily C, and C gets 15% less than D. If A got 576,
sale of the article is increased by 30%. The net effect what percentage of full marks did D get
on the daily sale receipts is (approximately)?
1 1 (a) 45.7 (b) 51.2
(a) 2 % decrease (b) 2 % increase
2 2 (c) 58.8 (d) 61.7
(c) 2% decrease (d) 2% increase 50. A father gives 1% of his monthly salary to his
43. If the altitude of a triangle is increased by 10% while two sons as pocket money. The elder son gets 20%
its area remains the same, its corresponding base will of the total amount given of money given out he
have to be decreased by spends 20% of his share. If he saves Rs. 20 every
(a) 10% (b) 9% month, then the monthly salary of the father is
1 1 (a) Rs. 10000 (b) Rs. 11500
(c) 9 % (d) 11 %
11 9 (c) Rs 12000 (d) Rs 12500
2
44. In the expression xy , the values of both variables x 51. In an examination Mohit obtained 20% more
marks than Sushant but are 10% less than Rajesh.
and y are decreased by 20%. By this the value of the
If the marks obtained by Sushant are 1080, find
expression will be decreased by
the percentage of marks obtained by Rajesh, if the
(a) 40% (b) 80%
full marks are 2000.
(c) 48.8% (d) 51.2%
(a) 72% (b) 86.66%
45. A student took five papers in an examination, where
(c) 78.33% (d) 75%
the full marks were the same for each papers, this
52. Mira’s expenditure and savings are in the ratio
marks in these papers were in the proportion 6 : 7 : 8 :
3 : 2. Her income increase by 10%. Her
9 : 10. In all the papers together, the candidate obtained expenditure also increases by 12%. By how much
60% of the total marks. Then, the number of papers in % do her savings increase?
which he got more than 50% marks is (a) 7% (b) 9%

(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 10% (d) 13%


(c) 4 (d) 5
11 BASICS

53. A tax payer is exempted of income tax for the 60. Indian cricket team won 4 more matches than it lost
first Rs 100000 of his annual income but for the
3
rest of the income, he has to pay a tax at the with New Zealand. If it won of its matches, how
5
rate of 20%. If he paid Rs 3160 as income tax for
a year, his monthly income is many matches did India play ?
(a) Rs 11580 (b) Rs 103160 (a) 8 (b) 12
(c) Rs 13610 (d) Rs 9650 (c) 16 (d) 20
54. Mrs. Sharma invests 15% of her monthly salary, 61. What is the product of a fractional number and its
i.e., Rs 4428 in Mutual funds. Later she invests
reciprocal?
18% of her monthly salary on Pension plans; also
she invests another 9% of her salary on Insurance (a) 0 (b) same number
policies. What is the total monthly amount (c) 1 (d) undefined
invested by Mrs. Sharma?
21 26
(a) Rs 1,13,356.80 (b) Rs 12,398.40 62. What should be added to to make to ?
27 27
(c) Rs 56,678.40 (d) None of these
26 6
55. A house-owner was having his house painted. He (a) (b)
27 7
was advised that he would required 25 kg of
paint. Allowing for 15% wastage and assuming 5 7
(c) (d)
that the paint is available in 2 kg cans, what 27 27
would be the cost of paint purchased, if one can
63. What are fractions with different denominators called?
costs Rs 16?
(a) like (b) unlike
(a) Rs 240 (b) Rs 180
(c) proper (d) improper
(c) Rs 120 (d) Rs 360
56. Vishal goes to a shop to buy a radio costing Rs 8
64. What is the equivalent of having the numerator
2568. The rate of sales tax is 7%. He tells the 11
shop keeper to reduce the price of radio to such 40?
an extent that he has to pay Rs 2568 inclusive of
sales tax. Find the reduction needed in the price 41 44
(a) (b)
of the radio. 11 40
(a) Rs 179 (b) Rs 170 40 10
(c) (d)
(c) Rs 168 (d) Rs 169 55 40
1 1 7 p s
57. What is the product of 1 , 3 and ? 65. Given that  , then which of these is true ?
3 4 8 q t
18 19 (a) pq  st (b) ps  qt
(a) 3 (b) 2
24 24
p s
19 18 (c) pt  sq (d) 
(c) 3 (d) 2 t q
24 24
3 Section-B (Multiple Choice Type Questions)
58. Guru reads of a book. He finds that there are still 80
5
3 7
pages left to be read. What is the total number of pages  5 4  5 6 7x
66.    when divided by  5
in the book.    becomes    , the
 6  6  6
(a) 100 (b) 200
value of x is
(c) 300 (d) 400
70 89
1 (a) (b)
59. What is of 49 litres? 12 12
7 2 2
 89   7 
(a) 1 l (b) 5 l (c)   (d)  
(c) 7 l (d) 6 l  12   12 
BASICS 12

67. If 4  4  24 , then the value of  2x  is


x x 1 x
Section-C (Matrix Match Type Questions)
74. Match the column :
(a) 55/2 (b) 51/3
Column I Column II
(c) 251/3 (d) 255/ 4
(A) 1
3
(p) 19
2x 2y
68. If a  b , b  c , c  a , then xyz equals 2z 3 2
 22    
2 64
2 3
(a) 2 (b) 2 (B) 2
3
(q) 4
3 2
 22   
3

3
1
(c) (d) 8
8 (C)  1 3  1 3   1  3 (r) 13
         8
69. If
4 3
x2  xk , then k =  3   2    4 

2 3 (D) 3
2
(s) 351
(a) (b) 2 2
 32  4 2    
2 8
6 18
1 2 (a) A  r; B  s; C  p; D  q
(c) (d)
6 18 (b) A  p; B  q; C  r; D  s
0 (c) A  r; B  s; C  q; D  p
70.  64 
2 / 3


1


 25 
  (d) A  s; B  r; C  p; D  q
  1/ 4

 125   256 / 625  3
64 
  75. Match the column

9 9 Column I Column II
(a) (b)
2 4 Word problems statement
2 2 (A) By what number should (p) 1
(c)  3  (d)  8 
2
  4
  51 be multiplied so that 3
the product may be equal to
1
2x  1 1
71. If  43 2

32
then x =  7 ?

2 2 (B) By what number should (q) 2


(a) 2 (b) 2 1
 15 be divided so that 3
1
(c)  2 (d) –4 the quotient may be equal
2 1
to  5 ?
n 1 n n
4 .2  8 3
72. If  , then n equals
2 2n
8 (C) By what number should (r) 2
1
1/3  6 be multiplied so 27
(a) 2 (b)   27
that product becomes 91 ?
3
(c)  3  (d) –3 (D) By what number should (s) 5
3
 2  be divided so that 7
2 1/3
73.  27   43   
 3 
2

7 8 the quotient may  4  ?


(a) (b)  27 
9 9
2 2
(a) A  s; B  p; C  q; D  r
2 2  10 
(c)   (d)   (b) A  s; B  q; C  p; D  r
 3   9  (c) A  r; B  p; C  q; D  s
(d) A  s; B  r; C  q; D  p
13 BASICS

76. Find the value of x. 2 7 27 5


79. Assertion:   3     3   3
  
 3
  
Column I Column  5  5  5  5
2 2 n
II Reason: x  y   xy
(A) 1
4
1
8
1
4 x
(p) –1 (a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is
     
the correct explanation of assertion.
4 4 4
(b) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is
(B)  1 
 19
 1 
8
 1 
 2 x 1
(q) –4 not the correct explanation of assertion.
     
 2   2   2  (c) If assertion is true but reason is false
(d) If assertion is false but reason is true.
(C) 5
x
5
4
5
5
(r) 6 2 3 5
   
 
4 4 4 80. Assertion: The value of  5    5    5  is 0.
8 8 8
(D) 8
2 x 1
8
5
8
x2
(s) 3 Reason: xm  xn  x p  xm n p .
      
3 3
  3 (a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is
the correct explanation of assertion.
(a) A  s; B  r; C  q; D  p
(b) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is
(b) A  s; B  q; C  p; D  r not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false
(c) A  s; B  r; C  p; D  q
(d) If assertion is false but reason is true.
(d) A  r; B  s; C  p; D  q Section-E (Paragraph Type Questions)
a m  a n  a
 m    n 
Section-D (Assertion-Reason Type Questions) 81. , when m and n are any integers.
1
 1 6 
6
a m  a n  a mn , a m  .
77. Assertion:    is the reciprocal of 236. am
 2   9 1  53
Evaluate:
33
Reason:  a    a
m n mn
, for any value of a.
(a) 370 (b) 315
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is (c) 375 (d) 400
a m  a n  a
 m    n 
the correct explanation of assertion. 82. , when m and n are any integers.
1
(b) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is a m  a n  a mn , a m  .
am
not the correct explanation of assertion.
35  10 5  125
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false Evaluate :
5 7  6 5
(d) If assertion is false but reason is true. (a) 2125
64
1/ 3 (b) 1685
78. Assertion: 3 can be written as  125 
125   (c) 1015
 64 
(d) 3125
Reason : a 1/ n  n a , where both represents nth root of 83. a m  a n  a
 m    n 
, when m and n are any integers.
a. mn 1
a m  a n  a , a m  m .
a
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is m1 5 7
 3  3   3 Evaluate value of m.
the correct explanation of assertion.
(a) 1 (b) –1
(b) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is (c) 0 (d) 4
not the correct explanation of assertion. am  an
84. a m  a n  a p 
ap
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false
The value of 62  6 4  68 is
(d) If assertion is false but reason is true.
(a) 66 (b) 6–6
(c) 612 (d) 6–10
BASICS 14

th
am  an 88. a 1/ n  n
a , and both represents n root of a.
85. a m  a n  a p  . Evaluate:
ap x

4 8 2 2 6 2
Solve for x :  2  28.
1 1 1 1 1 1
             (a) 4 (b) 8
2 2 2 4 4 4
 10 2
(c) 16 (d) 2
(a)  1  1
  89. a 1/ n n th
 a , and both represents n root of a.
2  4
 12 1
Find the value of 55
(b)  1  1
  5 5
2 4 (a)  (b)
 14 0 2 2
(c)  1  1
  5/2
2  4 (c)  5  (d)  5
12
(d)  1  Section-F (Integer Type Questions)
2  x 4
90. The value of x in exponential equation 2  1 is
m n p a a
86. a a a  m p n equal to
a m
1 1
Find the value of x if 42x 3  42  33  4  1   1  
91. If        1 , then least positive integer
(a) 0 (b) 4  3   4  
15 9 value of m is.
(c) (d)
4 8 92. If 2 x 1  2 x 1  320 , then the value of x.
th a b bc ca
87. a 1/ n  n
a , and both represents n root of a. Express  xa   xb   xc 
93.  b  c   a  
3
27
in exponential form. x  x  x 
64
1 1
4 3 94. mn
 equals
(a) (b) 1 a 1  a n m
3 4
95. Given that 4n 1  256 , find the value of n.
9 16
(c) (d)
16 9
15 BASICS

Exercise-2: Advanced Objective Questions


Single Choice Type Question
 xa 
a b
 xb 
bc
 xc 
ca 9. If 6 x  6 x  3  7740, then x x 
1.  b  c   a   (a) 7796 (b) 243
x  x  x 
(c) 3125 (d) 46656
(a) 0 (b) 1 x
x
9x  9x 1   7293 
x
(c) x a  b  c (d) None of these 3a  23.3a 2
10. The value of x1 2 x2   
2. If
10 x
 3  3 x 1  81, then the value of is 9 .3  81  3a  3a1
x
3  
(a) 2 (b) 1 (a) 9 (b) 6
(c) 3 (d) 0 (c) 12 (d) 16
1 3 1 1
a 2 b 3   a 2 
b 1   
3 3 6 3 11. Find the value of  2 4 1 2 4  22  24  1
3. If  a  a  , then find the value   
4 3
a  (a) 2 (b) 3
of 2b. (c) 4 (d) 1
(a) 4 (b) 8 12. Simplify,
(c) 16 (d) 24 a 2
 b 2  ab  b 2
 c 2  cb  c 
 a 2  ca 
 xa   xb   xc 
4. Find the value of x, if  b  c   a 
x  x  x 
x
33.5  212  422.5  22.5  73.5   21 . 3
(a) 1 (b)  a  b  c 
(a) 8 (b) 10
(c) 12.5 (d) 6.5 (c) a 2  b 2  c 2 (d) 0
6 3
2
22001  21999 13. If  6x  6 , then find the value of x
5. The value of is _____.
22000  21998
(a) 1 (b) 6
10
(a) 2 (b) 3 6
3 (c) 6 (d) 6
1000
(c) 2 1 (d) 10 5 6
14. Find the value of  0.000064  6   0.00032  5 .
43x
6. Find, x, If 8 x  2   1    0.0625 
x

2 (a) 0.2 (b) 0.4


(a) 0 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 2.5
(c) 2 (d) 1 2 4

2 15. If x   3    2  find the value of x2


  0.5  2 3
 10  3  1    6.25 0.5   4 1 
7. Simply:  2   11 
 27   9    12 12
  (a)  4  (b)  2 
3  3  
1 1
(a) 8 (b) 8 12 12
8 8 (c)  3  (d)  3 
7 7 2  4  
(c) 1 (d) 1
8 8 x y
16. If a  b  c and b  ac then x 2
y equals
1 1 1
 
2 2 2
a a 1 a 2xz
8. Simplify :  xz
1 a (a) (b)
1 a x z 2x  z
(a) 1 (b) 0
xz 2 xz
(c) (d)
2 2 z  x x  z 
(c) (d) 1 a
1 a
BASICS 16

1 1 1 25. Find the values of P, Q and R


17. If 2x  4 y  8z and xyz  288, then  
2x 4 y 8z 
3
(i) If m 2  27 2/3  16 2 , then m P
equals
11 11 1 1
(ii) If ab  1, then  Q
(a) (b) 1  a 1 1  b1
8 24

(c)
11
(d)
11 
(iii) If x  8 .32
2/3 2/5
 , then x 5
R
48 96
5 10 5
1 (a) , 0, (b) 1,1,

18. The value of 71  81  31  41    is 4 7 16
(a) 56 (b) 12 3 7 7
(c) 68 (d) 44 (c) ,1,1 (d) ,0,
8 8 8
19. When 5 103  2000  106 is expressed in standard
26. Match the following
form, we will get Column I Column II
2 3
(a) 3  10 (b) 310 1 1 4
 3  (p) 
(c) 3  10 3
(d) 3  10 2 (A)  6 1     13
  2  

20. If 3 x  y   27 and 3 x  y   243, then x is equal to 1 9
1 1
______.   4   1   (q)
(B)        32
(a) 0 (b) 2   3   4  
(c) 4 (d) 6
2 2 1  1 3  1 3   1 3 6
(r)
21. Number of prime factors in  216  5   2500  5   300  5 (C)          5
is ______.  3   2    4 
(a) 6 (b) 9 3 19
(c) 8 (d) None of these (D)  31  4 1    2  (s)
3 64
3 5 x
22. Find x, if  5    5    5  (a) A  r; B  p; C  s; D  q
 11   11   11 
(b) A  s; B  p; C  q; D  r
(a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 8 (d) 2 (c) A  q; B  r; C  s; D  p

3 2 2 (d) A  r; B  p; C  q; D  s
2 2  1  2  1
     
 3   3 
  2   24 
27. If a  2  2
2 3
 ,b  2 3
 24  and c   24  22 
23. Simplify 5 12
2 3 then find:
   
3 2 (i) a 3  b 3  c 3 (ii) 10abc
4
32 9 7 3 5
(a)  2  (b) (a) , (b) ,
3 3 2048 2048 1024 2048
243 243 3 10 9 15
(c) (d) (c)  , (d)  ,
16 32 1024 2048 2048 1024
2 y 1
28. In an examination, 70% of the candidates passed in
1
1
  .0081 3 2 y 5 English, 80% passed in Mathematics and 10% failed in
9 1 27 y 1
24. Solve, for y, if     3
243 3 10000 both these subjects. If 144 candidates passed in both,
then the total number of candidates was
1 19
(a) (b)  (a) 125 (b) 200
2 18
(c) 240 (d) 375
3 12
(c) (d)
10 17
17 BASICS

29. In a hotel, 60% had vegetarian lunch while 30% had 34. 270 candidates appeared for an examination, of which
non-vegetarian lunch and 15% had both types of lunch. 252 passed. The percentage of candidates who have
If 96 people were present, how many did not eat either passed the exam is
type of lunch? 1
(a) 20 (b) 24 (a) 80% (b) 83 %
2
(c) 26 (d) 28
1 1
30. The price of an article was increased by r%. Later the (c) 90 % (d) 93 %
3 3
new price was decreased by r%. lf the latest price was 35. An inspector rejects 0.08% of the meters as defective.
Re 1, then the original price was How many will he examine to reject 2?
 1 r 2  (a) 2000 (b) 2200
(a) Re 1 (b) Rs.   (c) 2500 (d) 2800
 100 
1 r2 10000
(c) Rs. (d) Rs.
100 10000  r 2
31. A reduction of 25% in the price of an article enables a
man to buy 50 kilograms more for Rs 500. What is the
reduced price per kilogram?
(a) Rs 3 (b) Rs 2.50
(c) Rs 2.05 (d) Rs 2.40
32. In expressing a length 81.472 km as nearly as possible
with three significant digits, the percent error is
(a) 0.34% (b) 0.034%
(c) 0.0034% (d) 0.0038%
33. 50 g of an alloy of gold and silver contains 80% gold
(by weight). The quantity of gold, that is to be mixed
up with this alloy, so that it may contain 95% gold is
(a) 200g (b) 150g
(c) 50 g (d) 10 g
NUMBER SYSTEM 18

02
NUMBER SYSTEM
19 NUMBER SYSTEM

Exercise-1: Basic Objective Questions


Section-A (Single Choice Type Questions)
a
1. Which of the following statements in incorrect? 6. A: is a negative rational number if a and b
b
(a) There exist a real number which is both rational
both are negative
and irrational.
1
(b) Every integer is a rational number. B: The multiplicative inverse of a , if a  0 is
(c) Every rational number is contained in a set of real 0
numbers. (a) Both A and B true
p (b) Both A and B False
(d) If a rational number is written is lowest form, (c) A is true and B is false
q
(d) A is false and B is true
then it is not necessary that p and q both are
27
prime number. 7. What number should be subtracted from to get
13
2. Which of the following shows distributive property of
3
multiplication over addition for rational number?  ?
7
3  1  5   3  5 
(a)                 228 526
4  3  7   4  7  (a) (b)
91 31
3  1  5   3 1   3 5 
(b)                  346 228
4  3  7   4 3   4 7  (c) (d)
31 91
3 1  5  1  3   5  8. The sum of additive inverse of 2 and multiplicative
(c)                 
4  3  7  3  4   7  inverse of 3 is
3  1  5   1  5  3 5 36
(d)                 (a)  (b)
4  3  7   3  7  4 3 13
3. Which of the following statements is always true? 5 7
(c) (d) 
x y 17 3
(a) is a rational number between x and y
2 1 1
4 2
x y 7 4 1
(b) is a rational number between x and y 9. The value of :
2 1 1 1
3 1 2
xy 2 7 1
(c) is a rational number between x and y 5
2 5
x y 12 15
(d) is a rational number between x and y (a) (b)
2 65 67
1 17
4. Simplify: 2  (c) (d) None of these
1 65
1
1 10. Which one of the following statements is true for a
1
5 rational number?
28 6 p
(a) (b) (a) It is in the form of , where p and q are
11 5 q
21 integers and p  0.
(c) (d) None of these
5 (b) The decimal representation of a rational number is
1 1 either terminating or non-terminating, non-
5. A rational number between and is
3 2 repeating decimals.
7 2 (c) There are five rational number between two given
(a) (b)
12 3 rational number.
3 5 (d) Rational numbers are either terminating or non-
(c) (d)
2 12 terminating repeating decimals
NUMBER SYSTEM 20

1 20. If x  4 16  4 625 then what is x ?


11. The multiplicative inverse of  x  1 
 x  1 (a) 7 (b) 29
is________. (c) 12 (d) 5
1 1 32 23
(a)   x  1 (b)  x  1  21. If  m , then the value of m is
 x  1  x  1 500 5
x 1 x 1 (a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 2
x x (c) 4 (d) 0
12. Consider the following statements:
22. Simplest form of 3 2  4 64  4 2500  6 8
1. Product of two irrational number is an irrational
number. (a) 11 2 (b) 113 2
2. Product of any two rational numbers is a rational (c) 4
2 (d) 11 4
number.
3. Product of any two natural numbers is a natural 23. The value of 28  16 3 is
number.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (a) 3 1 (b) 1  3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 2 3  4 (d) 4  2 3
13. Which one of the following is irrational number?
(a)  0.64 (b)  55  1   55  1 24. The value of 10  25  108  154  225 will
be
9
(c) 100 (d) (a) 4 (b) 6
27
(c) 8 (d) 10
3  8 13  3 8 3 13
14.       is illustrated by 
2
4  3 12  4 4 4 12 3
25. Simplify  6 27  6 
 4 
which of the following properly? 
(a) Commutativity 3 3
(b) Associativity of multiplication (a) (b)
4 2
(c) Distribution of multiplication over addition
3 3 3
(d) Existence of identity (c) (d)
4 2
32 x  6 5 2
15. If  , then the value of ' x ' will be : 26. 3
64  ?
225 5 x
(a) 4 (b) 2 (a) 2 (b) 4
(c) 5 (d) None of these (c) 6 (d) 8
52 52
16. If 3 3  33  33/ 2  3a  2 , then a  ? 27. Simple form of  is
52 52
1
(a) 2 (b) (a) 9  5 (b) 18
2
(c) 4 (d) 0 (c) 18  5 (d) 9
k
17. m 4 n 4  6 m 2 n 2  3 m 2 n 2   m.n  , then find the  1 3 1 
28. Solve  1/ 7
 1/ 4
 
value of k .  128   625  81/3 
(a) 6 (b) 3
(a) 13 (b) 15
(c) 2 (d) 1
2/ 3 (c) 395 (d) 494
18. The value of 1331 will be
29. If m  a  c and m , a and c are three
1
(a) 121 (b) surds, then
121
(c) 131 (d) 11 (a) m is dissimilar to a and c
10 3 6 5
19. What is value of a   a  ? (b) a and c are similar to m
(a) a (b) a 2 (c) Only a is similar to m
1 (d) None of these
(c) 1 (d)
a
21 NUMBER SYSTEM

3
30. Two mixed quadratic surds, a  b and a  b , 38. Find the product of 3, 4 3, 12 243.
whose sum and product are rational, are called (a) 3 (b) 3
_________surds. 12 4
(a) Similar (b) Conjugate
(c) 3 (d) 3
(c) Dissimilar (d) Binomial 39. The value of 4 3  129  72 3 is
(a) 9 3 (b) 9
31.  3
33 2  3
93 436 ?  (c) 9  3 (d) 9  3
9
(a) 5 (b) 5 15 16
40. Simplify  by rationalizing the
(c) 6
5 (d) 3
5 5 2 5 2
1 denominators.
32. If x then find the value of
3 1 155  2 2  155
(a) (b)
4 x 3  2 x 2  8 x  3. 23 23
(a) 0 (b) 2 155  2 5 2
(c) (d)
(c) 2 (d) 2 23 23

33. If x  3 2
93
, then the value of x is:
41. If  
a  b  17 and  
a  b  1 then the value
125 of ab is :
1 2 (a) 12 (b) 27
(a) 2 (b) 1
5 5 (c) 35 (d) 72
4 1 42. Which one of the following sets of surds is in correct
(c) 3 (d) 4
5 5 sequence of ascending order of their value?
ax  ax
34. ' x ' in the following is b (a) 4
10, 3 6, 3 (b) 3, 4 10, 3 6
ax  ax
2ab 2ab (c) 3, 3 6, 4 10, (d) 4
10, 3, 3 6
(a) (b)
b 2
 1 ab 43. If x and y are rational number such that
2
ab b 1 4 3
(c) (d)  x  y 3, find the value of x and y
2ab 2ab 4 3
127 (a) x  7, y  4 (b) x  3, y  4
35. 3 1 is equal to
343 (c) x  7, y  3 (d) x  4, y  7
5 1 1
(a) (b) 1  44. 
9 7
8  2 15
4 1
(c) (d) 1  1 1
7 7 (a)
2
 5 3  (b)
2
 5 1 
5
36. An equivalent expression of after
74 5 1 1
rationalizing the denominator is
(c)
2
 5 1  (d)
2
 5 3 
20 5  35 20 5  35 93/ 2  3  50   811 
1/ 2
(a) (b) 45. Find the value of
31 129 1
35  20 5 35  20 5
64 2/3
 125   1/ 4

 256
 
3
25
64
(c) (d) 625 
31 121
15
37. If a  6  11 and b  6  11 then the value of (a) (b) 0
13
 a  b is
16 48
(c) (d)
(a) 22 (b) 2 11 5 13
(c) 6 (d) 12
NUMBER SYSTEM 22

a2 54. Match the following:


46. If b  5a then ?
b Column I Column II
(A) 0.123 (i) An irrational number
a2 1
(a) (b)
5n 25 (B) 0.2341 41
(ii)
333
b
(c) 5 (d) 6 1159
5n (C) (iii)
144  81 4950
47. The number 98564.1111... and 0.11000111.... are
(a) Both irrationals (D)  (iv) Rational number

(b) Both rational (a) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)


(b) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)
(c) irrational and Rational respectively
(c) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(iv)
(d) Rational and irrational respectively (d) A-(ii), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(i)
9 m
48. The decimal expansion of is 55. Express 0.2562 in the form .
7 n
(a) Non-finite 2537 2437
(a) (b)
9900 9800
(b) Non-Repeating
9900 9900
(c) Repeating (c) (d)
2527 2537
(d) Both (a) and (b)
49. Which of the following is an irrational number? 56. Sum of 1.0666.... and 1.32322322.... is
(a) A rational number
(a) 4  49 (b) 144  81  21
(b) An irrational number
2
(c) Integer
(c)
36  4
(d)
 
21  625
(d) Addition not possible
144 4
57. What is the value of 2.6  2.1?
1
50. Which is the correct decimal form of 3 ? (a) 1.5 (b) 1.6
8
(a) 4.125 (b) 3.225 (c) 0.5 (d) 2
58. The correct representation of 34.369494....
(c) 3.125 (d) 0.18
(a) 34.3694 (b) 34.3694
51.  
The value of 0.6  0.7  0.8 is given by:
(c) 3436.94 (d) 34.3694
7 7
(a) (b) 3 6
5 3 59. is equal to
5 3  2 12  32  50
9 9
(c) (d)
5 7 (a) 3 2 (b) 3

52. Expressing 0.23  0.23 as a single decimal, we get (c) 6 (d) 3

(a) 0.465 (b) 0.465


60.

2 2 3   2 2  3 is equal to
(c) 0.465 (d) 0.4654 3 3  1 3  3  1

2 1 2
53. Express in decimal form, (a) (b)
11 3 3
(a) 0.21 (b) 0.15 2
(c) (d) 3 2
(c) 0.18 (d) 0.99 3
23 NUMBER SYSTEM

Section-B (Matrix Match Type Questions) (C) If 5x 3.32 x 8  455625, x  (r) 18


61. Simplify (D) If 2 x  3 y  6 z , then 25
(s)
Column I Column II 1 1 1 7
3 3 3   
   3 
(p) x y z
 8   25  2  5  
4
(A)          80
 25   9   2  (a) A  p; B  r ; C  q; D  s

(b) A  s; B  r ; C  P; D  q
2
3
0.125  5  0.00032  39  8 30
(q) (c) A  r ; B  q; C  p; D  s
(B) 21
3 2/3
5
 0.00243   27  (d) A  s; B  r ; C  q; D  p

(C) 4
 81
2 1 Section-C (Assertion-Reason Type Questions)
(r)
9 64. Assertion: 0.271 is terminating decimal and we can
271
(s) 1 express this number as which is of the form
2 6 5 1000
(D)
3 52 6 p
, where p and q are integers q  0.
q
(a) A  s; B  p; C  r ; D  q
Reason: A terminating, or non-terminating decimal
(b) A  p; B  r ; C  s; D  q
expansion can be expressed as rational number.
(c) A  q; B  r ; C  s; D  p (a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is
(d) A  r ; B  p; C  s; D  q correct explanation of assertion.
62. Evaluate the following, if (b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
2  1.414, 3  1.732, 5  2.236 and   3.141 not correct explanation of assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
up to three places of decimals.
(d) If assertion is false bur reason is true.
Column I Column II
65. Assertion: Rational number lying between two
2 (p) 4.357
(A) ab
5 3 rational number a and b is
2
 3 (q) 3.968 Reason: There is one rational number lying between
(B) 
2 5 any two rational numbers.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is
1 (r) 2.912
(C) correct explanation of assertion.
2 5 3 2 (b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
1 (s) 3.848 not correct explanation of assertion.
(D)  
2 (c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(a) A  r ; B  s; C  p; D  q (d) If assertion is false bur reason is true.
66. Assertion: 2, 3 are examples of irrational
(b) A  s; B  p; C  q; D  r
number.
(c) A  r ; B  s; C  q; D  p
Reason: An irrational number can be expressed in the
(d) A  q; B  r ; C  p; D  s
form p / q .
63. Find the value of following expressions.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is
Column I Column II
(p) 7 correct explanation of assertion.
7 5
(A) If x  ,  p 7, then p  (b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
5 x
not correct explanation of assertion.
 1  (q) 0 (c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(B) If x  5  2, then  x 2  2 
 x  (d) If assertion is false bur reason is true.
NUMBER SYSTEM 24

67. Assertion: If 2  1.414, 3  1.732, then square 1


72. For , rationalising factor is a x  b y .
a x b y
root of 5  2  3  5.
Reason: Square root of a positive real number always 1 1
If x and y  , then value of
exists. 3 2 2 3 2 2
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is xy 2  x 2 y is
correct explanation of assertion.
(a) 4 (b) 12
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
(c) 6 (d) 9
not correct explanation of assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
1
(d) If assertion is false bur reason is true. 73. For , rationalising factor is a x  b y .
a x b y
68. Assertion: 5  2  5  1.414  3.586 is irrational
number. 5 3
If x , then value of
Reason: The difference of a rational number and an 80  48  45  27
irrational number is an irrational number. 4 x 2  3x  5
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is (a) 15 (b) 2
correct explanation of assertion. (c) 12 (d) 5
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
74. Given that
not correct explanation of assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false. 2  1.414, 3  1.732, 5  2.236, 10  3.162 and
(d) If assertion is false bur reason is true.   3.141.
Section-D (Paragraph Type Questions) Find the value of 2  3  2
2
(a) 12.479 (b) 9.428
69.  x y   x  y  2 xy and x y  xy , (c) 3.146 (d) 6.183
where x and y are positive real numbers. 75. Given that
2  1.414, 3  1.732, 5  2.236, 10  3.162 and
If x  2 5  3 And y  2 5  3, then x 4  y 4 
  3.141.
(a) 1538 (b) 1200
(c) 1048 (d) 149 10  2 5  3 5
Evaluate
2 8
70.  x y   x  y  2 xy and x y  xy , (a) 1.529 (b) 8.236
where x and y are positive real numbers. (c) 12.413 (d) 0.674
76. Given that
If x  3 3 2 and y  3  3 2, then
2  1.414, 3  1.732, 5  2.236, 10  3.162 and
4 4 2 2
x  y  8x y    3.141.
(a) 3914 (b) 3010 10  2
Evaluate
(c) 486 (d) 856 5
2
(a) 5.141 (b) 0.823
71.  x y   x  y  2 xy and x y  xy ,
(c) 3.084 (d) 0.915
where x and y are positive real numbers.
Section-E (Integer Type Questions)
If a  1 2  3 and b  1  2  3, then
1  1 1 
a 2  b 2  2a  2b  77. If x  9  4 5 and xy  1, then  2  2  is
322  x y 
(a) 11 (b) 8
52  52
(c) 152 (d) 15 78. If N  3 2 2 then N
5 1
equals
25 NUMBER SYSTEM

2
9 n  32   3 n / 2    27 
n 999813  999815  1
1 83. Simplify
79. If  , then m  n is  999814
2
33 m  23 27
80. If a 2 bc 3  25 and ab2  5, then abc equals 84. The greatest number that will divide 103,127 and
81. If a and b are rational numbers and 175, so as to leave remainder 55 in each case is
2
2 3 k   2  . Find the value of k .
 a  b 3, then b 
2 3 1 1
85. If x   3, then x 2  2 is equal to
3 1 x x
82. If x  , then the value of 4 x 3  2 x 2  8 x  2 is
2
NUMBER SYSTEM 26

Exercise-2: Advanced Objective Questions


Single Choice Type Question 1 1
1
1  m 12  1  
1. If 0  y  x, which statement must be true?
8. If 2 m  m
 , then  4    m   is equal
2 4 14   5  
(a) x  y  x y to

(b) x  x  2x 1
(a) (b) 2
2
(c) x y  y x
1
(d) xy  x y (c) 4 (d)
4
1
2. 999  1000 1001 1002  1 is 2m  n 3p
9. If nm
 16, n  81 and a  210 , then
(a) 1001001 (b) 1001999 2 3
(c) 1000999 (d) 1000989 a 2m  n  p
 ___
m  2 n  2 p 1
3.
 a c   1 1 1
Simplify:       1     
a 
 b a  c a b
1
(a) 2 (b)
a  c2  b   c a  c 2  b   c 4
(a) (b)
abc abc 1
(c) 9 (d)
a b  c   b
2 8
a
(c)   (d)
b abc x 8 x 3 27 x
10. If 3 3   1, then find the value of
729 729 5832
    
  1   1  x.
4. The value of 35.7   3  2   is
  1  1  (a) 1 (b) 8
3   2 
  3  2   (c) 3 (d) 4
(a) 30 (b) 34.8
(c) 36.6 (d) 41.4 11. The simplified value of
 12  8  3 2  is
5  24
1
5. If x2  64, then x  x  ____
3
(a) 6  2 (b) 2  6
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 0 (d) 1
3 2 1
(c) (d) 12. If x  8  2 15, the value of x is
2 3 x
6. If a , b, c are positive real numbers, then (a) 2 3 (b) 2 5
5
3125a10b5 c10 is equal to 3 3 5 3
(c) 5 (d)  3
2 2 2 2
(a) 5a 2 bc 3 (b) 25ab 2 c
 4 3 30 18 
(c) 5a bc 3 3
(d) 125a bc 2 2 13. 1     is simplified to
 2  2 4 3  18 3  2 3 
x
7. If 4 x  4 x1  24, then  2 x  equals (a) 0 (b) 1
(c) 2 (d) 3
(a) 5 5 (b) 5
2 7 5
14. Simplify:  
(c) 25 5 (d) 125 7 5 12  5 12  7
(a) 5 (b) 2
(c) 1 (d) 0
27 NUMBER SYSTEM

15. The number x  1.242424... can be expressed in the


21. 2  2  2  .... is equal to
p
form x  , where p and q are positive integers
q (a) 1 (b) 2
having no common factors. Then p  q equals _____. (c) 1.5 (d) 2.5
22. What is the sum of the squares of the following
(a) 72 (b) 74
(c) 41 (d) 53 3 3 2
numbers , ,
2 1 2 1 3
1 1
16. If x  2  3, then the value of x  2 and x 2  2 2
2
x x (a) 16 (b) 16
respectively, are _____ 3
2
(a) 14,8 3 (b) 14, 8 3 (c) 18 (d) 18
3
(c) 14, 8 3 (d) 14,8 3 3 3

1 1 2
23. If a   3 2  and b   3 2  , then the
17. The value of   is 1 1
12  140 8  60 10  84 value of  a  1   b  1 is

(a) 0 (b) 1 (a) 50 3 (b) 48 2


(c) 2 (d) 3 (c) 1 (d) 5
1 1 5 1 5 1
18. The value of  
3.25  2.25 4.25  3.25 24. If a  and b  , then the value of
5 1 5 1
1 1
 is a 2  ab  b 2
5.25  4.25 6.25  5.25 is
a 2  ab  b 2
(a) 1.00 (b) 1.25
3 4
(c) 1.50 (d) 2.25 (a) (b)
4 3
7 3 2 5 3 2 3 5
19.    ___ (c) (d)
 10  3   6 5   15  3 2  5 3
25. The sum
(a) 1 (b) 2
1 1 1 1
1    .... is equal
(c) (d) 3 2 1 3 2 4 3 100  99
2
to
2 1
20. If 2  1.414, the square root of is nearest to (a) 9 (b) 10
2 1
(c) 11 (d) 0
(a) 0.172 (b) 0.414
(c) 0.586 (d) 1.414
POLYNOMIAL 28

03
POLYNOMIAL
29 POLYNOMIAL

Exercise-1: Basic Objective Questions


Section-A (Single Choice Type Questions)
8. When 10 x2  x  23 is divided by 2 x  3 , then the
1. Find the value of ' k ' if x  2 is one zero of the
remainder obtained is
polynomial p  x   x 2  kx  6. (a) 1 (b) 0
(a) 3 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 2
(c) 0 (d) 2 9. Find the remainder, when
1
f  x   x3  7ax 2  8a 2 x  15a3 is divided by x  2a
2. If x  5  2 , then the value of x3  6 x 2  12 x  10 is
3

(a) 1 (b) 2 (a) 7a3 (b) 37a3


(c) 1 (d) 3 (c) 3a3 (d)  a 3
10. Find the remainder when x3  8x 2  5 x  1 is divided
3
3. If f  x   2 x  3 x  4 , then the value of by x  1
f  x   f   x  is (a) 3 (b) 1
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 6 (d) 5
(c) 0 (d) 8 11. Remainder on dividing polynomial 3x 2  x3  3x  5
4. A cubic polynomial P  x is such that by x  1  x 2 is
(a) 7 (b) 3
P 1  1, P  2   2, P  3  3 and P  4   5 . The
(c) 0 (d) 2 x  5
value of P  6  is 12. If the quotient obtained on dividing
4 3 2
(a) 7 (b) 10 x  10 x  35x  50 x  29 by  x  4 is
(c) 13 (d) 16
ab
4 x 2  ax 2  bx  6 , then the value of is
5. If x is a zero of the polynomial ab
3
25 17
f  x   6 x3  11x 2  kx  20, then find the value of (a) (b)
33 5
k. 5 53
(c) (d)
12 17 25
(a) 19 (b)
5 13. If p  x   2 x3  3x 2  5 x  4 is divided by  x  2 ,
1 1
(c) (d)  what is remainder?
5 5
6. The value of x satisfying the equation (a) 12 (b) 8
2
x 2  p 2   q  x  is (c) 10 (d) 10

p2  q2 q2  p2 14. If the polynomial x3  2 x 2   x  12 is divided by


(a) (b)
2 2q
 x  4 the remainder is 52. Find the value of ' ' .
q2  p2 p2  q2
(c) (d) 11
2 2q (a) (b) 5
3 2
2
7. If the polynomials ax  4 x  3x  4 and
(c) 8 (d) 8
x3  4 x  a leave the same remainder when divided
15. Find the value of m, if x  2 is a factor of
by x  3, then the value of a is
x3  4 x 2  3x  5m.
(a) 1 (b) 1
(a) 6 (b) 4
19 5
(c) (d)  (c) 5 (d) 1
14 14
POLYNOMIAL 30

16. If  x  a  is factor of x 2  px  q and x 2  mx  n , 25. If  x  2 is a factor of the polynomial


then the value of a is : f  x   x 2  ax  2b and a  b  4 , then the value of
m p nq a and b are
(a) (b)
nq m p (a) a  1, b  3 (b) a  3, b  1
nq m p (c) a  1, b  5 (d) a  5, b  1
(c) (d)
m p nq
26. Find the square root of x 2  18x  81
17. If the value of quadratic polynomial p  x  is 0 only
(a)  x  3 x  3 (b) x  9
at x  1 and p  2   2, then the value of p  2  is : (c) x  13 (d) x  3
(a) 18 (b) 9 27. Find the square root of the polynomial
(c) 6 (d) 3 4 3
x  4 x  10 x  12 x  9 2

18. If f  x  is a monic polynomial of degree four such (a) x 2  2 x  3 (b) x 2  x  3


that f  1  1, f  2   4, f  3  9 and (c) x 2  3 (d) x 2  3x  1
f  4   16 then find f 1 . 28. Find the square root of the polynomial
4 3 2
(a) 23 (b) 25 4 x  8x  8x  4 x  1
(c) 21 (d) 17 (a) x 2  3x  5 (b) x 2  3x  1
19. If  x  2 and  2 x  1 are factors of (c) 3x 2  3x  1 (d) 2 x 2  2 x  1
29. Find the square root of the polynomial
 2x 3
 ax 2  bx  10  then value of  a 2  b 2  is
4  25x 2  12 x  24 x3  16 x 4
(a) 338 (b) 218
(a) 4 x 2  x  2 (b) 4 x 2  x  2
(c) 74 (d) 198
20. What is the value of P for which  a  2  is factor of (c) 4 x2  3x  2 (d) None of these
2
30. If 3x  8ax  3 is a perfect square, then find the
a 2  5a  P ?
value of a
(a) 2 (b) 3
3
(c) 5 (d) 6 (a) 6 (b) 
2
21. If x  2 is factor of 3x 4  2 x3  7 x 2  21x  k then
3 3
the value of k is (c) (d)
2 4
(a) 2 (b) 9
(c) 18 (d) 18 31. If 9 x 4  12 x3  28  ax  b is a perfect square, find
the value of a and b
22. If  x  4  is a factor of 5x3  7 x 2  ax  28 , then the
(a) a  8, b  18 (b) a  16, b  16
value of a is (c) a  8, b  16 (d) a  16, b  8
(a) 35 (b) 45
32. To make x 4
 4 y 4  perfect square we have to
(c) 55 (d) 25
subtract
23. If  x  2 is a factor of x 2
 3qx  2q  , then the
(a) 4xy (b) 2y3 x2
value of q is
(c) 2yx (d) 4y 2 x2
(a) 2 (b) 2
1
(c) 1 (d) 1 33. The square root of y 2   2 is
y2
24. If x  a is a factor of x3  3x 2 a  2a 2 x  b then the
1 1
value of b is (a) y  (b) y 
y y
(a) 0 (b) 2
1 1
(c) 1 (d) 3 (c) y 2  (d) y 2 
y2 y2
31 POLYNOMIAL

34.
3 4 2
The L.C.M of x 1 and x  x  1 is     41.
5 4
The HCF of x  2x  x and x  x is
3 7 5

(a) x (b) x  x  1
2
(a)  x 1 x 1   3
(c) x (d) x 3  x  1 
 4

(b) x  x  1  x  1
2

42.
2
Factors of 3m  2m    6  3m 2
 2m  5 are
(c)  x
 x  1 x 1
2 3

(a)  3m  1 3m  5  m  1 m  1


(d)  x
 2 x  3
2
(b)   3m  1 3m  5  m  1 m  1
The HCF of  x  9  ,  x  27  and  x  8x  15 is:
2 3 2
35. (c)  3m  1 3m  5  m  1 m  2 
(a) x  3 (d)   3m  1 3m  5  m  2  m  1
(b) x  3
43. Which of the following are the factors of
2
(c)  x  3 x  3x  9   3
x  x  4x  4?2

(d)  x  3  x  3  x  5   x 2  3 x  9  (a)  x  2  x  1 x  2 


36. If  x  1  is the H.C.F. of  ax 2
 bx  c  and (b)  x  2  x  1 x  2 

 bx 2
 ax  c  , then the value of c is (c)  x  1 x  2 

(a)  1 (b) 1 (d) None of these

(c) 0 (d) ab 44. Find the factors of 2 y 3  y 2  2 y  1


37. If the sum and difference of two polynomials are (a)  y  1 y  1 2 y  1
5a 2  a  4 and a 2  9a 10 respectively, then what
(b)  y  1 y  5  3 y  1
if their LCM?
(c)  y  1 y  2  3 y  1
(a)  a 2  1  2a  3  3a 2  7 
(d)  y  1 y  1 3 y  1
(b)  a  1 2 a  3  3a  7 
45. Find the square root of
(c)  a  1 2 a  3  3a  7 
(d) None of these x 3
 8 x  15  2 x 2  11x  5  2 x 2  7 x  3

38. If the HCF of x 2


 x  12  and  2x 2
 kx  9  is (a)  x  7  x  1 3 x  1

 x  k  , then what is the value of k ? (b)  x  3  x  6  3 x  1


(a) 1 (b) 3
(c)  x  3 x  5  2 x  1
(c) 6 (d) 5
2 2
39. The LCM of x 16 and 2x  9x  4 is (d)  x  3  x  6  2 x  1
(a)  2 x  1 x  4  x  4 
46. Factors of x3  2 x 2  5x  6 are :
 2
(b) x  16  2 x  1  (a)  x  1 x  1 x  4 
(c) 2 1  2 x  x  4  x  4 
(b)  x  1 x  3  x  2 
(d)  2 x  1 x  4  x  4 
(c)  x  1 x  3  x  2 
40. The LCM of the polynomials 12  x 4  x3  x 2  and
(d) None of these
18  x 4  x  is ________.
47. Which of the following is a factor of the polynomial
(a) 36 x 2  x3  1
f  x   2 x3  5x 2  x  2 ?
(b) 36 x  x  1 3

(a) x  1 (b) x  2
(c) 36x  x 4  x3  x 2  x 4  x 
(c) 2 x  1 (d) 2 x  1
(d) 36  x  x  x
4 3 2
  x  1
POLYNOMIAL 32

57. If 3x  1 is a factor of the polynomial


48. Factors of 1 c 2  2 c  9 are
3 3 2
81x  45 x  3a  6 , then 3a is _____.
1  58. If the factors of the polynomial x3  4 x 2  x  4 are
(a)  c  3c   c  3
3   x  p   qx 2  r  , then p  q  r 2 is equal to
1 
(b)  c  3c   c  3 59. If the polynomial ax 4  bx3  361x 2  220 x  100 is a
3 
perfect square, then  a  b  is
1 
(c)  c  3   c  3 60. The square root of the polynomial 16 x 4  8x 2  1 is
3 
px 2  r , then p  r is
 1
(d)  c    3c  1 k for which the HCF of
 3 61. What is the value of
2 2
49. The polynomial x3  4x2  x  4 on factorization 2 x  kx  12 and x  x  2k  12 is  x  4  ?
given. 62. If the HCF of x 2
 x  12  and  2x 2
 kx  9  is
 
(a)  x  4 x 1
2
 x  k  , then what is the value of k ?
(b)  x  4  x  4
2
63. If the factors of 11a 2  12 2a  2 are
(c)  x  4  x  1
2
 a  k 11a  k  , then k is equal to

(d)  x  4  x  1
2
Section-C (Multiple Choice Type Questions)
3 3
50. Factorize a  b  3ab 1 64. Which of the following is/are true, if the polynomial
 2 2
(a)  a  b 1 a  b  a  b  1  ab  f  x   x3  x 2  9 x  9 is divided by x, x  1 and

(b)  a  b 1  a
2
 b2  a  b 1  ab  x2.
(a) Remainder is 5 when f  x  is divided by  x  2 
(c)  a  b 1  a  a  b  1  ab 
2
 b2
(b) The sum of all the remainder is  4
(d) None of these (c) Remainder is 2 when f  x  is divided by  x  1 
Section-B (Integer Type Questions) (d) none of these
65. If the polynomial ax2  bx  x is equal to 4 when
51. Zero of the polynomials f  x   3 x  7 is  K , then x  0, leaves the remainder 4 when divided by x  1
3
and leaves a remainder 6 when divided by x  2 , then
K is equal to
52. If one of the zeros the polynomial which of the following is/are true?
1 (a) a  b  1 a bc 2 (b)
2
f  x   2 x  7 x  4 is , then k is equal to ?
k (c) c  4 (d) b  c  2
1 66. 3 2
When x  2 x  4 x  b is divided by  x  1  , the
53. If p  x   x 2  4 x  3 and p  2  p  1  p    r ,
 2
quotient is x 2  ax  3 and the remainders is 3  2b ,
2
then  4r  is equal to then :
45 2
kx (a) a  3 (b) a   1
54. The remainder when x is divided by x 1 is
k is equal to (c) a  1 (d) b  0
then
2 67.  x  1 is the factor of the polynomials:
55. If A  6 x 4  5 x3  8x 2  2 x  2 and B  3x  2x 1,
3 2
then, the remainder when A  B is px  q , then (a) x  x  x 1
4 3 2
p 2  q 2  1 is (b) x  x  x 1
3 2
56. The remainder obtained when the polynomial (c) x  x  x 1
4 3 2
x 4  3x3  9 x 2  27 x  81 is divided by  x  3  is : (d) x  3x  3x  x  1
33 POLYNOMIAL

68. If f  x   x 2  2 2 x  1 , then Section-E (True/False Statement Type Questions)

 
(a) f 2 2  1 73. Choose the correct options for the statements given
below.
(b) f 2 2  
1 Statement I: a n  bn is divisible by a  b, if
2 n  2 k  1 , where k is a positive integer.
(c) factors of f  x  are x  2   x  2 1  Statement II: a n  bn is divisible by a  b, if n  2k ,
Where k is a positive integer.
(d) zeros of f  x  are 2 1 (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
69. Which of the following is true for the polynomial (b) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
(c) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
4 x 4  12 x3  37 x 2  bx  a (d) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
74. Which of the following is correct for the statements
(a) a  8 (b) b  16
given below.
(c) b  a  91 (d) a  49 3
  
4 2
Statement I : The LCM of x 1 and x  x  1 
70. Which of the following is true for the polynomials
p  x    x  27  x  3 x  2  and
3 2

4
and x  5x
2
 4 is  x  1  x  4   x  x  1
2 2

Statement II : If m2  5m  14 is a polynomial, then


q  x    x  3 x  9  x  5 x  6  ?
2 2
the another by similar polynomial such that their
(a) LCM of p  x  and q  x  is HCF is  m  7  and LCM m3  10m2  4m  70 is
 x  3 x  2  x  1  x 2  3 x  9  m2  12m  35
(b) Factors of p  x  are  x  3  ,  x  1 (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(b) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false
(c) HCF of p  x  and q  x  is
(c) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true
 x  3 x  2   x 2  3x  9  (d) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(d) None of these Section-F (Matrix Match Type Questions)
71. Which of the following are correct?
75. Below are the two matching lists. Choices for the
3 2
(a) x  3 is a factor of x  2x  3x 18 correct combination of elements from List-I and List-
3 2 II are given as option(a), (b), (c) and (d) out of which
(b) x  2 is a factor of x  2 x  x  2
one is correct
3 2
(c) x  1 is a factor of x  x  4 x  4 List -I List II
(P) If x35 1 divided by  x  1 , (i) 2  3
(d) x  2 is a factor of 2 x3  3x  4
then remainder is
Section-D (Assertion - Reason Type Questions) (Q) If  x  1 a factor of (ii) x
72. Assertion: If the zeroes of the quadratic polynomial 2x2  kx  3 ,then k is
4 (R) Twice the product of the zeros (iii) 2
 k  1 x 2  kx  1 is 3 , then the value of k is .
3 of the polynomial
Reason: If 1 is a zero polynomial 23x 2  26 x  161 is 14 p , then
find p
p  x   kx 2  4 x  k , then the value of k is  2 .
(S) If the polynomial (iv) 1
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and reason is 19 17 13
x x x x x x x 11 7 5 3

the correct explanation of assertion. is divided by  x 2  1 , then the


(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but reason is remainder is
not the correct explanation of assertion. (a) P-(i); Q-(ii); R-(iv); S-(iii)
(b) P-(iii); Q-(i); R-(iv); S-(ii)
(c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false
(c) P-(iv); Q-(ii); R-(i); S-(iii)
(d) Assertion is false, but Reason is true (d) P-(iv); Q-(iii); R-(ii); S-(i)
POLYNOMIAL 34

Exercise-2: Advanced Objective Questions


Single Choice Type Question
1. If p  x   ax9  bx5  cx  11 where a, b and c are 8. If 9 x 2  3 px  6q when divided by  3x  1 leaves a

constants and p 1042   32 then p  1042  is  3


remainder    and qx 2  4 px  7 is exactly
 4
(a) 10 (b) 12
(c) 10 (d) 32 divisible by  x  1 , then the values of p and q
2. Find all the zeroes of 2 x 4  3x3  3x 2  6 x  2 , if it’s respectively will be:
known that 2,  2 are its zeroes. 7 7
(a) 0, (b)  , 0
4 4
(a) 1, 0.5 (b) 1,  0.5
7
(c) 1, 0.5 (d) 1,  0.5 (c) Same (d) , 0
4
3. In the polynomial p  x   x 2  10 x  2 what number 9. If the polynomial x 6  px 5  qx 4  x 2  x  3 is
should be taken out as x to get the least possible divisible by x 4  1 , then the values of p 2  q 2 is :
number at p  x  . (a) 1 (b) 9
(a) 10 (b) 5 (c) 10 (d) 13
(c) 0 (d) 5 2 2
10. If  5x 2
 14 x  2    4 x 2  5 x  7  is divided by
4. The values of a, b and c respectively for the
expression f  x   x3  ax 2  bx  c
x 2
 x  1 , then quotient q and remainder r are
given by
f 1  f  2   0 and f  4   f  0  are
(a) q  x 2  19 x  5, r  1
(a) 9, 20, 12 (b) 9,  20,12
(b) q  9  x 2  19 x  5  , r  0
(c) 9, 20,  12 (d) 9,  20,  12
(c) q  x 2  19 x  5, r  0
x 2  bx m  1
5. If  , has roots which are numerically
ax  c m  1 (d) q  9  x 2  19 x  5  , r  1
equal but of opposite signs, the value of m must be 11. For what value of p is the coefficient of x 2 in the
(a)  a  b  a  b  (b)  a  b  a  b 
product  2 x  1 x  k  px  1 equal to 0 and the
1
(c) c (d) constant term equal to 2?
c
1
6. Find the remainder when x 2018  2018 is divided by (a) 6 (b)
4
x 1 2 1
(a) 2019 (b) 2018 (c) (d)
5 3
(c) 2017 (d) 0
12. If x 2  4 is the factor of 2 x3  k1 x 2  k2 x  12 , where
7. Let R1 and R2 be the remainders when polynomials
k1 , k2 are constants, then the value of k1  k 2 is
P  x   4 x3  3x 2  12ax  5 and
(a) 11 (b) 5
q  x   2 x3  ax 2  6 x  2 are divided by  x  1 and
(c) 11 (d) 5
 x  2 respectively. If 3R1  R2  20 , find the 13. The polynomials x  18x3  125 admits
6

value of a (a) No factor of degree between 2 and 5


(a) 8 (b) 5 (b) x 2  3x  5 as a factor
(c) 3 (d) 1 (c) x  1 as a factor
(d) x  125 as a factor
35 POLYNOMIAL

14. If a  b  c  0, then the value of 22. The HCF and LCM of two polynomials are  x  y 
4 4 4 2 2 2 2 2 2
a  b  c  2a b  2b c  2c a is: and  3 x5  5 x 4 y  2 x 3 y 2  3 x 2 y 3  5 xy 4  2 y 5 
(a) 1 (b) 1
(c) 0 (d)  abc respectively. If one of the polynomials is  x 2  y 2  ,
15. If x  y  z  0, then then the other polynomials is
3 3 3 (a) 3x 4  8 x 3 y  10 x 2 y 2  7 xy 3  2 y 4
 y  z  x   z  x  y   x  y  z 
      is (b) 3x 4  8 x 3 y  10 x 2 y 2  7 xy 3  2 y 4
 2   2   2 
equal to? (c) 3x 4  8 x3 y  10 x 2 y 2  7 xy 3  2 y 4
(a) 3xyz (b)  x  y  z  (d) 3x 4  8 x3 y  10 x 2 y 2  7 x 3 y  2 y 4
(c) 1 (d)  xyz 23. If HCF and LCM of two polynomials are
16. Find the values of a and b If the polynomial x 2
 8 x  15  and  x  2  x  3   x 2  9 x  20  , one
ax 4  bx3  109 x 2  60 x  36 is a perfect square. of the polynomials is x3  10 x 2  31x  30 , then the
(a) a  40 and b  60 (b) a  49 and b  70 other polynomials is
(c) a  4 and b  9 (d) None of these (a) x3  5x 2  16 x  18
17. Find the square root of 4 x 4  4 x3  5 x 2  2 x  1 (b)  x  3  x 2  9 x  20 
(a) 2 x 2  x  1 (b) 2 x 2  x  1
(c)  x  3  x 2  12 x  18 
2 2
(c) 3x  5 x  1 (d) 3x  5 x  1
18. If the each of the polynomial (d)  x  4   x 2  x  9 
lx 2  mx  n, mx 2  nx  l and nx2  lx  m are 24. If x  9 is one of the factors of the polynomial
lm x3  13x 2  31x  45, then the remaining factors are
perfect square then  _________
n (a)  x  3 and  x  4  (b)  x  5  and  x  1
(a) 4 (b) 6
(c)  x  1 and  x  7  (d) None of these
(c) 8 (d) None of these
2
19. The HCF of  a  1  a 3  m  and  a  1  a 3  n  and 25. If  x  a  and  ax  b  are the factors of the cubic

 a  1  a 2  n  is a 2  1 , then the values of m and polynomial 4 x3  20 x 2  33x  18 , then b  a is


equal to
n are :
(a) 0 (b) 3
(a) m  1 and n  1
(c) 1 (d) 1
(b) m  1 and n  1
(c) m  3 and n  6
(d) m  1 and n  3
20. The HCF of the polynomials  2 x  1  5 x 2  ax  3 

and  x  3   2 x 2  x  b  is  2 x  1 x  3 . Then the


values of a and b respectively are _____.
(a) 16,  1 (b) 16,1
(c) 16,  1 (d) 16, 1
21. HCF and LCM of two polynomials are  x  3 and
x 3
 9 x 2  x  105  respectively. If one of the two

polynomials is x 2  4 x  21, then the other is


(a) x 2  2 x  21 (b) x 2  2 x  15
(c) x 2  2 x  15 (d) x 2  x  15
LINEAR EQUATION IN TWO VARIABLES 36

04
LINEAR EQUATION IN TWO VARIABLES
37 LINEAR EQUATION IN TWO VARIABLES

Exercise-1: Basic Objective Questions


Section-A (Single Choice Type Questions)
9. If 2 x  3 y  11 and 2 x  4 y  24 , then find the
1. If  2, 3 is a solution of the equation 5 x  2 y  k ,
value of m for which y  mx  3.
find the value of k . (a) m  1 (b) m  1
(a) 7 (b) 6 (c) m  2 (d) m  2
(c) 5 (d) 4
10. The point  2, 3 lies on the graph of the linear
2. If P  x, y  and P '  y, x  are the same points then
equation 3x   a  1 y  2a  1.
which of the following are true?
(a) x  y  0 (b) xy  0 If the same points also lie on the graph of the linear

x equation. 5 x  1  2a  y  3b, then find the value of


(c) x  y  0 (d) 0
y b
1 1
3. If P  2,  2  lies on the graph of 4 x  3ay  2 (a)
3
(b)
5
then the value of a equals. 1 2
(a) 1 (b) 1 (c) (d)
7 3
(c) 0 (d) 2 2 3 9
2 3 9 4 9 21 11. Solve the equation for x and y.   and
4. If   and   , where x  0 and x y xy
x y xy x y xy
4 9 21
y  0, then what is the value of x  y ?   .
x y xy
(a) 0 (b) 3 (a) x  1, y  3 (b) x  3, y  1
(c) 4 (d) 8
(c) x  1, y  3 (d) x  3, y  1
5.  x, y  is the solution of equations
12. The solution set  x, y  for the equations
4 x  3 y  24,3 y  2 x  6 What is  x, y 
7x  2 y 8x  7 y
 5 and  15 is given by
(a)  3, 4  (b)  4, 3 xy xy
(c)  3, 3 (d)  4, 4  (a)  0,1 (b) 1, 0 
3a 2b (c) 1,1 (d)  1,1
6. Solve for x and y.  50 and
x y 13. The value of x and y for the following equations
a 3b are x  2 y  1  0 and 2 x  3 y  12  0
  2  0  x  0, y  0 
x y
(a) x  3, y  2 (b) x  2, y  2
2 2 a a
(a) x  a , y  b (b) x  , y  (c) x  2, y  3 (d) x  2, y  4
b b
(c) x  a, y  b (d) x  a, y  b 14. The A  2,1 and B 1, 0  lie on the graph of

7. If  a  b, a  b  is the solution of the equation x y


  1, then the values of a and b are.
a b
3x  2 y  20 and 4 x  5 y  42,
(a) a  1, b  1 (b) a  1, b  1
(a) b  3 (b) a  5
(c) a  2, b  1 (d) a  1, b  2
(c) a  3 (d) b  5
15. If the graph of equation 4 x  3 y  12 cuts the
8. If the value of x and y which satisfies the equations
x y 7 and 2 x  3 y  18 also satisfies x  axis and y  axis at A and B , then the sum of
abscissa of A and ordinate of B are.
3x  2 py  1, find value of P
(a) 3 (b) 4
(a) 1 (b) 1
(c) 7 (d) 0
(c) 2 (d) 2
LINEAR EQUATION IN TWO VARIABLES 38

16. The following system of equations has 25. The pair of linear equations
2 x  3 y  6; x  y  1 2
2 x  ky  3  0, 6 x  y  7  0 has a unique
(a) No solution (b) infinite solution 3
(c) unique solution (d) Can’t be determined solution if
17. The given system of equations has a unique solution 2
(a) k  1 (b) k 
then k cannot be x  ky  2; 3 x  2 y  5 3
2 1 2
(a) (b) (c) k  5 (d) k 
3 2 9
2 26. The pair of linear equations
(c) 1 (d) 2kx  5 y  7, 6 x  5 y  11 has a unique solution if
3
18. Consider the equations 2 x  7 y  11 and (a) k  3 (b) k  6
35 (c) k  5 (d) k  5
5x  y  25, the given system is 27. The pair of equations 3 x  4 y  k and 9 x  12 y  6
2
(a) Consistent with unique solution has infinitely many solution if
(b) Inconsistent (a) k  2 (b) k  6
(c) Consistent with infinite solution (c) k  4 (d) k  3
(d) Can’t be determined 28. The pair of linear equations 2 x  5 y  k and
19. Determine the values of k for which the following
kx  15 y  18 has infinitely many solutions if
system of equation has no solution.
(a) k  3 (b) k  6
x  2 y  0, 2 x  ky  5
(c) k  9 (d) k  18
(a) k  2 (b) k  4
29. The pair of linear equations 13x  ky  k and
(c) k  4 (d) k  2
20. The value of k for which the system of equation 39 x  6 y  k  4 has infinite many solutions if
4 x  5 y  0 and kx  10 y  0 has (a) k  1 (b) k  2
Infinitely many solutions. (c) k  4 (d) k  6
(a) k  8 (b) k  8 30. The pair of linear equations x  2y  5 and
(c) k  9 (d) k  9 3x  12 y  10 has
21. If am  b, then the system of equation (a) unique solution
ax  by  c, x  my  n (b) no solution
(c) more than two solutions
(a) has a unique solution
(d) infinitely many solutions
(b) has no solution
31. Sum of two numbers is 35 and their difference is
(c) has infinitely many solution
13. The greater number is
(d) may or may not have a solution
22. The number of solutions, the equation (a) 19 (b) 11
3x  5 y  15  0 can have is (c) 24 (d) 20
32. Age of father is 7 year more than 3 times the
(a) only one (b) exactly two
present age of his son. The above statement can be
(c) has no solution (d) infinite
expressed in a linear equation as
23. For what value of k , the pair of linear equations
(a) x  3 y  7  0 (b) x  3 y  7  0
2 x  y  3  0, 2kx  7 y  5  0 has a unique solution
(c) x  3 y  7  0 (d) x  3 y  7  0
x  1, y  1?
33. If the sum of the ages of a father and his son in years
(a) 3 (b) 4 is 65 and twice the difference of their ages in years
(c) 6 (d) 6 is 50, then the age of the father in years is
24. If the pair of linear equations x  y  1, x  ky  5 has (a) 45 (b) 40
unique solution x  2, y  1, The value of k , is (c) 50 (d) 55
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 2 (d) 4
LINEAR EQUATION IN TWO VARIABLES 40

(d) None of these (c) 4 (d) 2


x y Section–C (Matrix Match Type Questions)
49. The common solution set of the equation   1
2 2
57. Column II gives value of x and y for pair of
and x  y  2 is
equations given in Column I, match them correctly.
(a) x  2 and y  2 (b) x  1 and y  1
Column I Column II
(c) an empty set (d) x  2 and y  1
50. x is an integer satisfying 1  2 x  3  7. How many (A) 2 x  y  8, x  6 y  15 (p)  3, 4 
values can it takes?
(a) 4 (b) 3 (B) 5x  3 y  35, 2 x  4 y  28  1 1
(q)  , 
(c) 5 (d) 6  14 6 
Section–B (Multiple Choice Type Questions) (C)
1

1
 3,
1

1
5 (r)  4, 5
a b 7x 6 y 2x 3y
51. The solutions of the pair of equations   0 and
x y (D) 15x  4 y  61, 4 x  15 y  72 (s)  3, 2 
2 2
ab ab
  a 2  b 2 is (a) A  p, B  r, C  q, D  s
x y
(b) A  r , B  p, C  q, D  s
(a) x  a (b) y  b
(c) A  s, B  r , C  q, D  p
(c) y  b (d) y  a
(d) A  q, B  p, C  r, D  s
52. Which of the following pairs of equation are
inconsistent? 58. Match the column
y Column I Column II
(a) 3x  y  8, x   3
3
(b) 4 x  3 y  24, 2 x  3 y  6 (A) 5 y  4  14, y  2 x  1 (p) infinite
solution
(c) 5 x  y  10,10 x  2 y  20
(B) 6 x  3 y  10  0, 2 x  y  9  0 (q) Unique
(d) 2 x  y  3, 4 x  2 y  10 solution
53. Which of the following is/are solutions of the pair of (C) 3x  2 y  4,9 x  6 y  12 (r) No solution
equations 3x  2 y  4 and 6 x  4 y  8?
(a) x  2, y  1 (b) x  4, y  4 (D) 2 x  3 y  8, 4 x  6 y  9 (s) x  0, y  0
(c) x  6, y  7 (d) x  5, y  2 (a) A  q, B  r , C  p, D  r
x y x y
54. The pair of equations 3  81,81  3 has (b) A  q, B  s, C  p, D  r
(a) no solution
(c) A  r , B  s, C  p, D  q
(b) unique solution
(c) infinitely many solutions (d) A  q, B  s, C  r, D  p
1 7
(d) the solution x  2 , y  1 Section–D (Paragraph Type Questions)
8 8
55. Given the pair of equations ax   a  1 y  1 and 59. The system of equations

 a  1 x  ay  1 . For which one of the following a1 x  b1 y  c1  0, a2 x  b2 y  c2  0 is consistent and


values of a there is no common solution of the given a1 b1
pair of equations? will have unique solution, if 
a2 b2
1 1
(a) (b)
2 2 The value of k if linear equations x  2 y  3 and
1
(c)  (d)  2 5 x  ky  7  0 has unique solution is
2
56. The values of a for which the lines x  1, y  2 and (a) k  1 (b) k  10
2
a x  2 y  20  0 are concurrent are (c) k  15 (d) k  5
(a) 1 (b) 4
41 LINEAR EQUATION IN TWO VARIABLES

60. The system of equations 65. A two digit-number having a and b as units and
a1 x  b1 y  c1  0, a2 x  b2 y  c2  0 is consistent and ten’s digit respectively is equal to 10b  a and the
a b number obtained by interchanging the order of digits
will have unique solution, if 1  1
a2 b2 is 10a  b.
Obtain the condition for the following system of In a two-digit number, the units digit is twice the
linear equations to have unique solution ten’s digit. If 27 is added to the number, the digits
ax  by  c  0, lx  my  n. interchange their places. Find the number.
(a) am  bl (b) am  cn (a) 40 (b) 52
(c) bl  cm (d) am  bl  cn (c) 28 (d) 36
61. The system of equations
66. A two digit-number having a and b as units and
a1 x  b1 y  c1  0, a2 x  b2 y  c2  0 is consistent and
ten’s digit respectively is equal to 10b  a and the
a b
will have unique solution, if 1  1 . number obtained by interchanging the order of digits
a2 b2
is 10a  b.
For what value of k the given system of equations The sum of a two-digit number and the number
kx  4 y  5 and 9 x  ky  27 have unique solution? formed by interchanging and digit is 132. If 12 is
(a) 6 (b) 6 added to the number, the new number becomes 5
(c) 9 (d) none of these times the sum of the digits. Find the number.
62. The system of equations
(a) 132 (b) 39
a1 x  b1 y  c1  0, a2 x  b2 y  c2  0 is consistent and
(c) 48 (d) 88
a1 b1 c1 67. A two digit-number having a and b as units and
will have Infinitely many solutions, if   .
a2 b2 c2 ten’s digit respectively is equal to 10b  a and the
Find the values of k for which the following system number obtained by interchanging the order of digits
of equations we have infinitely many solutions is 10a  b.
2 x  3 y  7,  k  2  x   2k  1 y  3  2k  1 The sum of a two-digit number and the number
(a) 8 (b) 2 obtained by reversing the order of its digits is 121
and the two digits differ by 3. Find the number.
(c) 4 (d) 6
(a) 62 or 26 (b) 47 or 74
63. The system of equations
(c) 41 or 14 (d) 78 or 87
a1 x  b1 y  c1  0, a2 x  b2 y  c2  0 is consistent and
68. Speed of boat in still water  u km / hr , speed of the
a b c
will have Infinitely many solutions, if 1  1  1 . current  v km / hr Speed of upstream
a2 b2 c2
  u  v  km / hr . Speed of downstream
Find the values of a and b so that the following
system of equations have infinitely many solutions   u  v  km / hr
2 x  3 y  7,  a  b  x   a  b  3 y  4a  b Rohit can row downstream 32km in 4 hours and
(a) 4,  3 (b) 1, 4 upstream 4km in 1 hours. Find the speed of boat
rowing in still water and speed of current.
(c) 8,12 (d) 5, 1
(a) 6km / hr , 2km / hr (b) 4km / hr, 4km / hr
64. The system of equations
a1 x  b1 y  c1  0, a2 x  b2 y  c2  0 is consistent and (c) 20km / hr , 4km / hr (d) 4km / hr, 2km / hr
a1 b1 c1 69. Speed of boat in still water  u km / hr , speed of the
will have Infinitely many solutions, if   . current  v km / hr Speed of upstream
a2 b2 c2
  u  v  km / hr . Speed of downstream
Find the values of p and q for which the following
  u  v  km / hr
system of linear equations has infinitely many
solutions. A boat covers 32km upstream and 36km
2 x  3 y  7,  p  q  x   2 p  q  y  3  p  q  1 downstream in 7 hours. Also, it covers 40km
upstream and 48km downstream in 9 hours. Find
5
(a) 1, (b) 5,1 the speed of the boat in still water and that of stream.
2 (a) 44km / hr,8km / hr (b) 6km / hr , 4km / hr
10
(c)  ,8 (d) 4,  3 (c) 10km / hr, 2km / hr (d) 14km / hr ,5km / hr
3
LINEAR EQUATION IN TWO VARIABLES 42

70. Speed of boat in still water  u km / hr , speed of the Section–E (Integer Type Questions)
current  v km / hr Speed of upstream
71. If the system of equations 2 x  3 y  5, 4 x  ky  10
  u  v  km / hr . Speed of downstream
has infinite many solutions, then k 
  u  v  km / hr 72. The difference between a two-digit number and the
A man can row 40km upstream and 55km number obtained by interchanging the digits is 27.
downstream in 13 hours. Also, he can row 30km what is the difference between the two digits of the
upstream and 44km downstream in 10 hours. Find number?
73. If the system of equations
the speed of the man in still water and the speed of
the current. 2 x  3 y  7, 2ax   a  b  y  28 has infinitely many
(a) 8km / hr ,5km / hr solutions, then b  ka. Find value of k .
(b) 8km / hr ,3km / hr 74. A boat covers 24km upstream and 36km
(c) 5km / hr,3km / hr downstream in 6 hours while it covers 36km
1
(d) 9km / hr , 6km / hr upstream and 24km downstream in 6 hours. The
2
velocity of the current is______. km / hr.
75. By solving equations 3x  4 y  25 and 4 x  3 y  24
with help of cross-multiplication method we obtain
x y 1 ab
  . Then 
a b c c
43 LINEAR EQUATION IN TWO VARIABLES

Exercise-2: Advanced Objective Questions


Single Choice Type Question
1. Find x and y if ax  by  c and bx  ay  1  c 6. The value of k for which the following system of
equation has infinitely man solutions
ac  bc  b ac  bc  a
(a) x  2 2
,y 2 x  3 y  k ;  k  1 x   k  2  y  3k
a b a 2  b2

ac ac (a) k  3 (b) k  7


(b) x  2 2
,y  2
a b a  b2
(c) k  3 (d) k  7
2 2 2 2
a b a b 7. Consider the equations.
(c) x  ,y 
ac ac
 3k  1 x  3 y  2; k 2
 1 x  5    k  2  y has no
a b solution. Find the value of k .
(d) x  ,y
ab ab
(a) k  1 (b) k  1
2. Solve the equation: 6  2 x 1   9  3 y 1   25 and
2 2
(c) k  (d) k 
9  2 x   6  3 y   70 5 5

(a)  x, y    1,3 (b)  x, y    2, 2  8. For what value of k is the set of equations


2 x  3  2k  1 y  10 and 3x  4  k  1 y  20 are
(c)  x, y   1, 3 (d)  x, y    3, 1 consistent?

11 1
3. Find x and y If x  y  0.9,  11 (a) k  26 (b) k 
2x  y 26

(a) x  3.2, y  1.3 (b) x  3.2, y  2.3 1


(c) k  26 (d) k 
26
(c) x  1.3, y  1.3 (d) x  3.2, y  3.2
9. The given system of equations has infinite number of
solutions.
4. For the given system of equations, find  x, y 
2 x  3 y  7;  a  b  1 x   a  2b  2  y  4  a  b   1
a  b x  a  b y  2  a 2
b 2
 find a  b ?

 a  b  x   a  b  y  4ab (a) 5 (b) 3

(a)  a  b, a  b  (b)  a  b, a  b  (c) 8 (d) 3

10. Find x and y if.


(c)  a  b, a  b  (d)  a  b, a  b 
m
 x 
m y   1  1
m   m2  2   i
57 6
5. Find x and y if  5 and  x  y   m 2  2   2  m3  3   m  x  y  -  ii 
x y x y
38 21 (a) x    m, y    m
 9
x y x y
(b) x  m, y  
(a) x  7, y  8 (b) x  11, y  8
(c) x    m, y    m
(c) x  9, y  11 (d) x  8, y  11
(d) x  , y  m
45 LINEAR EQUATION IN TWO VARIABLES

2x  5 25. Find the range of real values of x for which


22. If 0   7 and x is an integer, then the sum
2 x 1 x3

of the greatest and least value of x is 4x  5 4x  3

(a) 9 (b) 10  5   3 5 
(a)  ,  (b)  , 
 4   4 4 
(c) 6 (d) 12

x3  5   3   5 3 
23. The solution set of  2 is (c)  ,    ,   (d)  , 
x2  4  4   4 4

(a)  , 2    7,   (b)  , 2   7,  

(c)  , 2    7,   (d)  , 2   7,  

24. The solution set of the system of inequations


x 1 6x 1
 and  is
2x  1 4 4x  1 2

 1 1  1 1
(a)   ,  (b)   , 
 2 8  8 4

 1 1 
(c)  ,    ,   (d) null set
 2 2 
COORDINATE GEOMETRY 46

05
COORDINATE GEOMETRY
47 COORDINATE GEOMETRY

Exercise-1: Basic Objective Questions


Section-A (Single Choice Type Questions)
10. The sum of distances from x-axis and y-axis
1. If  x, y  represents a point and x  0 and y  0 , measured from the point (3,5) will be.
then in which quadrants can the point lie ? (a) -1 (b) 0
(a) I (b) II and I (c) 2 (d) 8
(c) III and IV (d) IV and II 11. The point whose abscissa is equal to its ordinate and
2. Which point among  2, 4  ,  3, 4  and 1, 7  is which is equidistant from A  1, 0  and B  0, 5  is
nearest to the origin? (a) 1, 1 (b)  2, 2 
(a)  2, 4  (b)  3, 4  (c)  2,  2  (d)  3, 3
(c) 1,  7  (d) None 12. If the co-ordinate of two opposite vertices of a square
3. The points  0, 0  ,  0, 6  and  8, 0  form which type are (a, b) and (b, a) then the area of the square is.
2 2
of triangle? (a)  a  b  (b) 2  a  b 
(a) Equilateral (b) Scalene (c)  a  b 
2
(d) 2  a  b 
2

(c) Right angle triangle (d) None


13. If the line segment joining the point (a, b) and (c, d)
4. Find the area of circle passing through  2,3 with
subtend a right angle at the origin then which of the
center  5, 2  following are correct?
(a) 50  Sq. units (b) 25  Sq. units (a) ac  bd  0 (b) ac  bd  0
(c) ab  cd  0 (d) ab  cd  0
(c) 15  Sq. units (d) None
14. The area of the figure formed by the intersection of
5. If point A  4, 3 and B  k , 5 are on circle with lines x  0, y  0, x  3, y  4 will be
center O  2, 3 find the value of k. (a) 3 sq. units (b) 4 sq units
(a) 2 (b) 2 (c) 6 sq units (d) 12 sq units
(c)  2 (d) None 15. If A(0,1), B(2, 1) and C (0, 3) are the vertices of
6. The area of triangle formed by the points  ABC , then the length of median drawn from A
P  0, 1 , Q  0, 5  and R  3, 4  is will be.
(a) 16 sq. units (b) 8 sq. units (a) 10 (b) 10
(c) 4 sq. units (d) 6 sq. units (c) 5 (d) None of these
7. The foot of the perpendicular from P  3, 2  to the 16. The points A  4, 1 , B  2, 4  , C  4, 0  and
y – axis is M. Coordinates of M are D  2, 3 are the vertices of a
(a)  3, 0  (b)  0, 2  (a) parallelogram (b) rectangle
3  (c) rhombus (d) square
(c)  ,  1 (d)  3, 2 
2  17. If A  5,3 , B 11, 5 and P 12, y  are the vertices
8. The points  2, 2  ,  2,1 and  5, 2  are the vertices of a right triangle, right angled at P, then y is equal
of to
(a) Equilateral triangle (b) Scalene triangle (a) 2, 4 (b) 2, 4
(c) Right angled triangle (d) Collinear points (c) 2,  4 (d) 2, 4
9. The radius of a circle with center   2, 3 is 5 units. 18. Points A 1,1 , B  2, 7  and C  3, 3 are
Then the point  2, 5  lies (a) collinear
(a) On the circle (b) Inside the circle (b) vertices of equilateral triangle
(c) Outside the circle (d) Can’t be determined (c) vertices of isosceles triangle
(d) none of these
COORDINATE GEOMETRY 48

19. If the point P  p, q  is equidistant from the points 28. C is the mid-point of PQ if P is  4, x  , C is
A  a  b, b  a  and B  a  b, a  b  then.  y, 1 and Q is  2, 4  , then x and y respectively
(a) ap  bq (b) bp  aq  0 are.
(c) ap  bq  0 (d) bp  aq  0 (a) 6 and 1 (b) 6 and 2
(c) 6 and 1 (d) 6 and 2
20. A line segment is of length 10 Units. If the
29. The coordinates of vertices A and B of an
coordinates of its one end are  2, 3 and the
equilateral triangle ABC are  4, 0  and  4, 0 
abscissa of the other end is 10, then its ordinate is
respectively. Which of the following could be
(a) 9, 6 (b) 3, 9 coordinates of C ?
(c) 3, 9 (d) 9,  6
21. Find the ratio in which the x-axis divides the line

(a) 0, 2 2  (b)  0, 4 

joining the points  2,5  and 1, 9  ? (c)  0, 4 3  (d)  0, 3


(a) 9:5 (b) 5:9 30. Find the ratio in which the point  2, y  divides the
(c) 1:5 (d) 5:1
22. The endpoint of the longest chord of a circle are join of  4,3 and  6, 3 And hence find the value

  4, 2  and   6,  8 . Find its centre. of y .


(a) 2 : 3, y  3 (b) 3 : 2, y  4
  10 
(a)  ,  2 (b)   5,  2 
 3  (c) 3 : 2, y  3 (d) 3 : 2, y  2
(c)   5,  4  (d)   5,  3 31. The points of trisection of line joining the points
A  2,1 and B  5, 3 are
23. The consecutive vertices of a parallelogram ABCD
are A 10,  6  , B  2,  6  and C   4,  2  . The  5  7  3  3
(a)  3,  ,  4,  (b)  3,  ,  4, 
fourth vertex is?  3  3  5  7
(a)  4, 2  (b)  2, 4   5  7  5  3
(c)  3,  ,  4,   (d)  3,   ,  4, 
 3  3  3  7
(c)  4,  2  (d)   4, 2 
32. y -axis divides the join of P  4, 2  and Q 8, 3 in
24. In what ratio does the x – axis divide the line
the ratio
segment joining the points  3, 4  and  a,  5
(a) 3 :1 (b) 1 : 3
(a)  3 : 5  (b)  2 : 5 (c) 2 :1 (d) 1 : 2
(c)  3 : 2  (d)  4 : 5 33. The slope of a line perpendicular to the line which
passes through the points  k , h  and  b,  f  , is
25. The ratio in which the line segment joining (3, 4)
f h
and (5, 6) is divided by the x- axis is. (a) 1 (b)
bk
(a) 3:2 (b) 2:3
bk b  k
(c) 1:1 (d) 2:1 (c) (d)
f h f h
26. If the co-ordinates of center of any circle are (3, 4)
and the co-ordinate of end of its diameter are (5, 3) 34. The medians AD and BF of the triangle with vertices
then coordinate of other end of diameter are. A  0, b  , B  0, 0  and C  a, 0  are mutually
(a) (4, 1) (b) (1, 4) perpendicular if.
(c) (1, 5) (d) (5, 1) (a) b   2a (b) a   2b
27. The straight line 3x  y  9 divides the segment
(c) b  2a (d) a  b
joining the points (1, 3) and (2, 7) in the ratio
35. The slope of the line whose inclination with positive
(a) 2 : 4 (b) 4 : 2
x-axis is 450 is
(c) 4 : 3 (d) 3 : 4 (a) 1 (b) -1
(c) 3 (d)  3
COORDINATE GEOMETRY 50

53. The point P  x, y  divides the join of the points 57. Column II gives the coordinates of the point P that
divides the line segment joining the points given in
A  4, 2  and B  1,3 in the ratio 1: 4. Then column I, match them correctly
Column I Column II
(a) x  3
(b) y  1 (A). A  1,3 and B  5, 6  (p).  7, 3
(c) length of PA  2 units internally in the ratio 1 : 2
(B). A  2,1 and B 1, 4 (q).  0, 3
(d) PB  4 2
internally in the ratio 2 :1
54. If A 1, 2  , B  4, y  , C  x, 6  and D  3, 5  are the
(C). A  1, 7  and B  4, 3 (r). 1, 3
vertices of parallelogram taken in order, then internally in the ratio 2 : 3
(a) x  3 (D). A  4, 3 and B  8, 5   7 
(s).   , 4 
(b) y  1 internally in the ratio 3 :1  3 
(a) A  r; B  q; C  s; D  p
(c) length of AB  10 units
(b) A  s; B  p; C  r; D  q
(d) length of diagonal AC  41 units (c) A  s; B  q; C  r; D  p
55. The coordinates of the mid points of the line segment (d) A  q; B  p; C  s; D  s
joining the points  3 p, 4  and  2, 2q  are  5, p  . Section–D (Assertion - Reason Type Questions)
Then 58. Assertion: In quadrilateral ABCD if
(a) p  4 (b) q  6 AB  BC  CD  DA and AC  BD then ABCD is
a square.
(c) p  q  6 (d) p  q  2 Reason: A quadrilateral is square if all its sides are
equal, and the diagonals are equal
Section–C (Matrix Match Type Questions) (a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is
56. Column II gives distance between the pair of points the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
given in column I match them correctly.
not the correct explanation of assertion.
Column I Column II (c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If assertion is false but reason is true.
(A).  5, 7  ,  1,3 (p). 5 59. Assertion: The co-ordinates of the points which
divide the line segment joining A  4, 1 and
(B).  5, 6  , 1, 3 (q). 8  5 
B  2, 3 into three equal parts are  2,  and
 3 
(C).  
3  1,1 , 0, 3  (r). 6
 7 
 0,  .
 3 

(D).  0, 0  ,  3, 3  (s). 4 2
Reason: The points which divide AB in the ratio
(a) A  p; B  s; C  q; D  r
1 : 3 and 3 :1 are called points of trisection of AB .
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is
(b) A  s; B  p; C  q; D  r
the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
(c) A  s; B  r; C  q; D  p
not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) A  q; B  p; C  s; D  r
(d) If assertion is false but reason is true.
51 COORDINATE GEOMETRY

60. Assertion: Points A  3, 2  , B  2, 3 and C  2, 3 65. x  axis divides the line segment joining  x1 , y1 
are such that AB  50, BC  52, AC  2 . Since and  x2 , y2  in the ratio  y1 : y2 , y  axis divides the
AB  BC  AC , points A, B and C form a triangle. line segment in the ratio  x1 : x2
Reason: If BC 2  AB 2  AC 2 , then ABC is right The x  axis meets the line-segment joining
triangle, angled at A. A  1, 4  , B  3, 7  at a point P. The point P
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is
divides AB internally in what ratio?
the correct explanation of assertion.
(a) 7 : 4 (b) 4 : 7
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
(c) 5 : 4 (d) 5 : 7
not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false. 66. x  axis divides the line segment joining  x1 , y1 
(d) If assertion is false but reason is true. and  x2 , y2  in the ratio  y1 : y2 , y  axis divides the
61. Assertion: Three points A, B , C are such that
line segment in the ratio  x1 : x2
AB  BC  AC , then they are collinear.
The y  axis divides the line-segment joining the
Reason: Three points are collinear if they lie on a
straight line. points  4,5 and  3, 7  internally in what ratio?
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is (a) 3 : 4 (b) 5 : 4
the correct explanation of assertion. (c) 4 : 3 (d) 4 : 5
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
67. x  axis divides the line segment joining  x1 , y1 
not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false. and  x2 , y2  in the ratio  y1 : y2 , y  axis divides the
(d) If assertion is false but reason is true. line segment in the ratio  x1 : x2
Section–E (Paragraph Type Questions) The x  axis divides the line segment joining points
62. The distance between two points A  x1 , y1  and  3, 4  and  3, 8 internally in what ratio?
2 2 (a) 2 :1 (b) 2 : 3
B  x2 , y2  is given by AB   x2  x1    y2  y1 
(c) 1 : 3 (d) 1 : 2
Find the distance between the points A  7,13 and 68. If we take m1  k and m2  1 in the section formula,
B 10, 9  the co-ordinates of the point becomes
 kx2  x1 ky2  y1 
(a) 5 units (b) 7 units  ,  and the point divides the line
 k 1 k 1 
(c) 3 units (d) 6 units
segment joining  x1 , y1  and  x2 , y2  in the ratio
63. The distance between two points A  x1 , y1  and
k :1
2 2
B  x2 , y2  is given by AB   x2  x1    y2  y1  In what ratio does the point  2,3 divide the line

Find the distance between the points P  6, 6  from segment joining the points  3, 5 and  4, 9  .
origin. (a) 1 : 6 (b) 6 :1
(c) 5 :1 (d) 1 : 5
(a) 6 units (b) 6 2 units 69. If we take m1  k and m2  1 in the section formula,
(c) 7 2 units (d) 5 units the co-ordinates of the point becomes
64. The distance between two points A  x1 , y1  and  kx2  x1 ky2  y1 
 ,  and the point divides the line
2 2  k 1 k 1 
B  x2 , y2  is given by AB   x2  x1    y2  y1 
segment joining  x1 , y1  and  x2 , y2  in the ratio
Find the values of k for which the distance between k :1
the points A  k , 5  and B  2, 7  is 13 units. Find the ratio in which the point  1, k  divides the
(a) 7, 3 (b) 7, 3 line segment joining the points  3,10  and  6, 8  .
(c) 7,  3 (d) 7, 3 Hence, find the value of k .
(a) 2 : 7, 6 (b) 7 : 2, 6
(c) 2 : 7, 3 (d) 2 : 7, 4
COORDINATE GEOMETRY 52

70. If we take m1  k and m2  1 in the section formula, 74. If  3, 1 ,  a, b  ,  3, 3 and  4, 3 are the four
the co-ordinates of the point becomes vertices of a parallelogram taken in order then ab 
 kx2  x1 ky2  y1  75. Find the value of p if the slope of the line joining
 ,  and the point divides the line
 k 1 k 1  1
points  5,  p  and  2,  3 is
segment joining  x1 , y1  and  x2 , y2  in the ratio 3
k :1 76. The equation of the line parallel to Y -axis and
Point  3,1 divides line segment joining points passing through point  5,  7  is x  k . Find the
value of k .
 3, k  and  3, 5 in the ratio 1: 2 internally. Find
77. The equation of the line passing through  3, 4  and
value of k .
(a) 2 (b) 1 4
slope having a slope is 4 x  5 y  k  0 then k is
(c) 3 (d) 4 5
equal to
Section–F (Integer Type Questions) 78. Equation of a line which is making an angle of 60o
71. Distance of the point  4, a  from x  axis is double with the positive direction of X-axis and an intercept
its distance from y  axis then a  of 5 units length in negative direction of y axis is

72. The coordinates of the mid-point of the line joining b2  a2


y  ax  b then is _____.
11
points  2 p  1, 4  and  5, q  1 are  2 p, q  . Find
79. Equation of a line which is passing through origin
the value of p  q. and making an angle of 45o with X–axis is _____
73. For what positive value of x, the distance between y  kx  c then k  c 
the points  2,5  and  x,19  be 205 units? 80. Equation of a line passing through (3, –4) and (4, 3)
k m
is y  mx  k , then 
2
53 COORDINATE GEOMETRY

Exercise-2: Advanced Objective Questions


Single Choice Type Question
1. If A  a 2  b 2 , a 2  b 2  and B   a 2  b 2 ,  a 2  b 2  9. If two vertices of an equilateral triangle be  0, 0  and

then find the distance AB.  3, 3  , then the third vertex is


2 2
(a) 8 2 a (b) 4 2 a
(a) 1, 3 3  (b)  0, 2 3 
(c) 2 a2 (d) 2 2 a 2
(c)  3, 3  (d) 1, 3 
2. Find the area of square if one of its vertices is  5, 2 
10. The points  a, a  ,  a,  a  and   3a, 3a  are
and the mid-point of the diagonals is  3, 2 
(a) 80 Sq. units (b) 40 Sq. units the vertices of ____triangle whose area is _____.
(c) 20 Sq. units (d) None (a) Isosceles, 2 2a 2 sq. units
3. Which point on the y  axis is equidistant from the (b) Equilateral, 2 3a 2 sq. units
points 12, 3 and  5, 10  ? (c) Scalene, 4 3a 2 sq. units
(a)  0, 2  (b)  0, 1 (d) none of these
11. The coordinates of the circumcentre of the triangle
(c)  2, 0  (d)  1, 0  whose vertices are  8, 6  ,  8,  2  and  2,  2  .
4. If the distance between the points  5,  2  and 1, a  (a)  5, 2  (b)  2,  5
is 5 , find the values of a.
(c)  0, 0  (d)  5, 0 
(a) 1,  2 (b) 1, 5
(c) 5 (d) None 12. The points P 12, 8  , Q  2, a  and R  6, 0  are the
5. Find the length of median through the vertex B of the vertices of a right angled triangle where R  90.
triangle ABC with vertices A  9,  2  , B(3, 7) and The value of a is
(a) 5 (b) 6
C  1, 10 
(c) 5 (d) 6
(a) 57 units (b) 58 units 13.  0,  1 and  0, 3 are the two opposite vertices of a
(c) 59 units (d) 60 units square. The other two vertices are
(a)  0, 1 ,  0,  3 (b)  2, 1 ,  2, 1
6.  
If three points (0, 0), 3, 3 and  3,   form an
equilateral triangle, then   ? (c)  3,  1 ,  0, 0  (d)  2, 2  , 1, 1

(a) 2 (b)  3 14. Determine the ratio in which the point P  m, 6 

(c)  4 (d) None of these divides the join of A  4, 3 and B  2, 8  . Also find
7. If P  2,  1 , Q  3, 4  , R  2, 3 and S   3,  2  be the value of m.
2
four points in a plane, then PQRS is a ? (a) 2 : 5; m  3 (b) 3 : 2; m  
5
(a) Rhombus (b) Rectangle 1 2
(c) 1: 2; m  (d) 2 :1; m 
(c) Square (d) Parallelogram 4 3
15. A  11, 7  and B  10, 6  are the points of
8. The Point P is equidistant from A 1, 3 , B  3, 5  and
trisection of a line segment PQ . Find the
C  5, 1 . then PB is equal to: coordinates of P and Q.
(a)  12, 8 ;   9, 5
(a) 5 2 (b) 5
(b)  12,  8 ;   9, 5
(c) 5 5 (d) 5 10 (c) 12, 0  ;  9,  5
(d) 12,  8 ;  9,  5
COORDINATE GEOMETRY 54

16. If A(a,0), B (0, b) and C (1,1) are collinear, then 22. The medians AD and BE of the triangle with
1 1
 ? vertices A  0, b  , B  0, 0 and C  a, 0  are mutually
a b perpendicular if
(a) 0 (b) 1
(a) b   2a (b) a   2b
1
(c) 2 (d) (c) b  2a (d) a  b
2
17. If the points (-2, -5), (2, -2) and (8, a) are collinear 23. If  5, 4  divides the line segment between the co-
then value of a will be ordinate axes in the ratio 1:2, then what is its
1 3 equation ?
(a) (b)
2 2 (a) 8x  5 y  20  0 (b) 5x  8 y  7  0
5 5 (c) 8x  5 y  60  0 (d) 5 x  8 y  57  0
(c)  (d)
2 2
24. Let PS be the median of the triangle with vertices
18. Find the equation of line which passes through the
point of intersection of the lines 2 x  y  5  0 and
P  2, 2  , Q  6,  1 and R  7, 3 . The equation of

5x  3 y  4  0 and is perpendicular to line the line passing through 1,  1 and parallel to PS
x  3 y  21  0 is
(a) 2 x  y  10  0 (b) 3x  y  21  0 (a) 2 x  9 y  11  0 (b) 2 x  9 y  7  0

(c) 3x  y  0 (d) 3 y  x  21  0 (c) 2 x  9 y  11  0 (d) 2 x  9 y  7  0

19. Find the equation of line passing through the point of 25. What is the equation of the line joining the origin
intersection of lines 2 x  y  5 and x  2 y  5 and with the point of intersection of the lines
4 x  3 y  12 and 3x  4 y  12 ?
3
having y-intercept equal to (a) x  y  1 (b) x  y  1
7
(a) 4 x  21y  9 (b) 21x  4 y  9 (c) 3 y  4 x (d) x  y
(c) 4 x  21y  9 (d) 21x  4 y  9
x y
20. If the lines   7 and 3x  ky  11 are
3 4
perpendicular, the value of k is?
(a) 4 (b) 3
(c) -4 (d) -3
21. The points A (7, 3) and C (0, -4) are two opposite
vertices of a rhombus ABCD. Find the equation of
diagonal BD.
(a) x  y  3 (b) x  3 y
(c) x  y  3 (d) y  3x
PHYSICS
56 MATHEMATICAL TOOLS

01
MATHEMATICAL TOOLS
MATHEMATICAL TOOLS 60

     
32. If A  B  A  B , then angle between A and B (c) x 2 sin x (d) sin x
43. The limit of f  x   sin x as x approaches  is:
will be
(a) 90o (b) 120o 
(a) 1 (b)
(c) 0o (d) 60o 2
33. The value of 
2 2 (c) (d) 0
sin 60 cos 30  tan 45  cos 60 sin 30 is 3
13 44. what is the limit of x2 as x approaches infinity?
(a) (b) 5
16 (a) 1 (b) Infinity
1 (c) 0 (d) negative infinity
(c) 1 (d)  dy sin x
2 45. The value of , if y  is:
34. 2
If y  f  x   x , then the value of f (2) is: dx cos x
(a) sec2 x (b) tan x
(a) 2 (b) 4
(c) 6 (d) 5 cos x
(c) (d) tan x cot x
35. If f  x   cos x, then the value of f    is: sin x
46. The maximum value of the function y = 1 - x2 is:
(a) 1 (b) 2
(a) 1 (b) 4
(c) -1 (d) 0
(c) 0 (d) 5
36. If f  x   x2  sin x, then the value of f (0) is: 2
47. The minimum value of the function y   x  2  is:
(a) 0 (b) 
(a) 0 (b) 2
(c)   1 (d) Can’t be determined
(c) 4 (d) -1
dy
37. If y  x 3 then the value of is: 48. The value of the integral  2 x.dx is:
dx
(a) 3x 2 (b) x2 (a) x 2  x (b) x 2  C

x4 (c) 2x 2  C (d) x3  C
4
(c) (d) 3x 1
4 49. The value of the integral .dx is:
x 2
1 dy
38. If y  2 , then the value of is:
x dx 1
(a) log e x  C (b) C
1 x
(a) (b) ln x
x (c) x 2  C (d) none
2 1 50. The value of the integral  sin x.dx is:
(c) (d)
x3 x3 (a) cos x  C (b)  cos x  C
dy 2
39. If y  2 tan x , then the value of is:  sin x 
dx (c) (d) sin x  cos x  C
2
(a) 2sec2 x (b) cot x
 1  x  dx
2
51. The value of the integral is:
(c) sin x (d) cos x
(a) x  x3  C (b) x  x3  C
dy
40. If y  sin x , then the value of is: x3
dx (c) x  C (d) x 2  x3  x 4  C
(a) cos x (b)  cos x 3
1
(c) tan x (d) cosec x
dy 1
52. The value of  5dx
2
is:
41. The value of , if y  x 2 is
dx 2 (a) 1 (b) 0
(a) x 3
(b) x (c) 15 (d) 5
4
(c) 2x (d) none x 
dy
53. The value of   2  3  dx is:
2
42. If y = x sin x, then the value of is:
dx (a) 18 (b) 12
(a) x cos x  sin x (b) x cos x (c) 30 (d) 10
61 MATHEMATICAL TOOLS

2 64. The angles of elevation of the top of a vertical tower


54. The value of  sin .d  is:
0
from two points 30 meters apart, and on the same
straight line passing through the base of tower,
(a) 1 (b) 
are 30∘ and 60∘respectively. The height of the tower
(c) 2 (d) 0
is
1
x (a) 10 m (b) 15 m
55. The value of  e dx is
0 (c) 15 3m (d) 30 m
(a) e (b) e2 65. From the top of a house 32 meters high, if the angle
(c) e + 1 (d) e - 1 of elevation of the top of a tower is 45 and the angle
56. Slope of the line y  2 x  3 is:
of depression of the foot of the tow 30 , then the
(a) 1 (b) 2
height of the tower is
(c) 3 (d) 0
32
57. Slope of a line passing through the points (1, 2) and (a)
3
 
3  1 meters (b) 32  
3  1 meters
(4, 8) is
(a) 2 (b) 3 32
(c) 1 (d) 4
(c) 32 3 meters
3
(d) 
3  1 meters 
58. The lines x = 4 and y = -5 are 66. If the angle of elevation of an object from a point
(a) perpendicular to each other 200 meters above the lake is found to be 30 and
(b) parallel to each other the angle of depression of its image in the lake is
(c) intersecting each other at an angle of 45o 45 , then the height of the object above the lake is
(d) not related in any way
200( 3  1) 200( 3  1)
59. The equation of a line whose slope is 2 and passes (a) meters (b) meters
( 3  1) 3
through origin is
(a) y  2 x (b) y  2 x  1 200( 3  1) 200( 3  1)
(c) meters (d) meters
(c) y  3x (d) y  x 3 ( 3  1)
60. The equation of a line passing through the point 67. The angle of elevation of the top of a tower at
(2, 5) and (-4, 5) is: distance of 500 meters from the foot is 30 .
(a) y  2 x (b) y = 5 The height of the tower is
(c) x = 5 (d) y = x + 5 500
(a) 250 3 meters (b) meters
61. If the length of the shadow of a pole is equal to the 3
height of the pole, then the angle of the elevation of
(c) 500 3 meters (d) 250 meters
the sun is
(a) 30 (b) 75 68. The angles of elevation of the top of a tower from
(c) 60 (d) 45 two points distant a and b(a>b) from its foot and in
62. The shadow of a stick of height 1 meter, when the the same straight line from it are 30 and 60 . The
angle of elevation of the sun is 60 , will be height of the tower is
1 1 a a
(a) meter (b) meter (a) (b)
3 3 b b
(c) 3 (d) 3 meter (c) ab (d) ab
63. Two villages are 2km apart. If the angles of 69. If the angles of depression and elevation of the top
depression of these villages when observed from a of a tower of height h from the top and bottom of a
plane are found to be 45o and 60o respectively, then second tower are x and y respectively, then height of
the height of the plane is the second tower is


(a) 3  3 km  
(b) 3  3 km  (a) h(cot y  cot x) (b) h(tan x  tan y)

(c) h(1  tan x cot y) (d) h(tan y cot x  1)


(c) 2 3km (d) 3 3km
MATHEMATICAL TOOLS 64

dy 22. A line passed through points (4, -5) and (3,7) then
14. If y  e x then the value of is
dx the slope of a line which is perpendicular to this line
is
ex 2
(a)
2
 
(b) e
x
(a) 12 (b) -12
1 1
(c) e x (d) none (c) (d)
12 12
dy
15. If y  sec x , then the value of is 23. The angle of elevation of the top of a tower as
dx observed from a point on the horizontal ground is x.
(a) sec x tan x (b) sec2 x If we move a distance d towards the foot of the
(c) tan x (d) cot x tower, the angle of elevation increases to y, then the
height of the tower is
16. The limit of f  x   x as x approaches 9 is d tan x tan y
(a) (b) d (tan y  tan x)
(a) 3 (b) 0 tan y  tan x
(c) 9 (d)  d tan x tan y
(c) d (tan y  tan x) (d)
17. What is the limit of the function f  x   2 as x tan y  tan x
tends to 4 is 24. A man observes the elevation of a tower to be 30o.
(a) -2 (b) 4 After advancing 11 cm towards it, he finds that the
(c)  (d) 0 elevation is 45o. The height of the tower to the
dy 9
nearest centimeter is
18. The value of , if y   4  3 x  is (a) 10 (b) 15
dx
8 8
(c) 20 (d) 22
(a)  27  4  3x  (b) 9  4  3x  25. AB is a straight road leading to C, the foot of a
(c) 8  4  3x  (d) None of the above tower, A is at a distance 200 metres from C and B at
75 metres from C. If the angle of elevation of the
1
19. The value of the integral  x .dx is tower at B be double the angle of elevation at A,
then the height of the tower is
(a) log x  C (b) x 2  C (a) 125 m (b) 120 m
1 (c) 115 m (d) 100 m
(c) C (d) none
x
1

20. The value  2 d
4
is

3
(a) (b) 3
2
(c)  (d) 4
21. The slope of the line given by is 2 x  4 y  10 is
(a) 2 (b) 1
1 1
(c)  (d)
2 2
MOTION 65

02
MOTION
69 MOTION

36. A body moves from rest with a constant acceleration  45. A ball is released from the top of a tower of height h 


of . Its instantaneous speed (in  at the end of 10 s is  metre. It takes T second to reach the ground. What is 
  (a) 50  (b) 5  the  position  of  the  ball  in  T/3  second  from  the 
  (c) 2  (d) 0.5  ground? 
37. The average velocity of a body moving with uniform    (a) 17h/18  (b) h/9 
acceleration  travelling  a  distance  of  3.06  m  is  0.34    (c) 7 h/9  (d) 8h/9 
m/s. If the change in velocity of the body is 0.18 m/s  46. Two  bodies are  thrown simultaneously from a  tower 
during this time, its uniform acceleration will be  with  same  initial  velocity  v0 one  vertically  upwards, 
  (a) 0.01 m/s2  (b) 0.02  m/s2  the other vertically downwards. The distance between 
2
  (c) 0.03  m/s   (d) 0.04  m/s2  the two bodies after time t (as long as they are in air) 
38. The acceleration of a moving body can be found from  is 
(a) Area under velocity-time graph 
1
  (b) Area under distance-time graph    (a) 2v0 t  gt 2   (b)  2v0 t   
2
  (c) Slope of the velocity-time graph 
1
  (d) Slope of distance-time graph    (c)  v0 t  gt 2   (d)  v0 t   
39. The distance travelled by a particle, starting from rest  2
47. Two  bodies  of  different  masses  ma and  mb are 
4
and  moving  with  an  acceleration ms 2 ,  in  the  third  dropped from two different heights a and b. The ratio 
3
second is  of the time taken by the two to cover these distances 
are 
10 19
  (a) m   (b)  m      (a) a : b   (b)  b : a   
3 3
  (c)  6m   (d)  4m      (c) a : b   (d)  a 2 : b2   
40. When a particle moves in a straight line, it may have:  48. A  bullet  is  dropped  from  the  same  height  when 
(a) constant velocity  another  bullet  is  fired  horizontally.  They  will  hit  the 
  (b) uniformly acceleration  ground 
  (c) non-uniformly acceleration  (a) One after the other   
  (d) all of these    (b) Simultaneously 
  (c) Depends on the observer 
41. A particle has an initial velocity of  (3iˆ  4 ˆj )  m/s and 
  (d) None of the above 
a  constant  acceleration  of  (4iˆ  3 ˆj )   m/s2.  Its  speed  49. If  a  particle  is  thrown  upwards  with  a  velocity  of 
after one second will be equal to  68.6m/s,  find  the  time  taken  to  reach  the  maximum 
  (a) 0  (b) 10 m/s  height. (Take g=9.8m/s2) 
  (c)  5 2 m/s   (d)  25 m/s    (a) 6.86 seconds  (b) 7 seconds 
42. Mohammad  is  moving  in  a  straight  line.  His    (c) 14 seconds  (d) 13.72 seconds 
acceleration  is  1.5  m/s2  and  he  reaches  to  a  velocity  50. A  ball  is  thrown  straight  up  in  the  air.  For  which 
of 30 m/s in 16 seconds. What is his initial velocity?  situation  are  both  the  instantaneous  velocity  and  the 
  (a) 3 m/s  (b) 0 m/s  acceleration zero? 
  (c) 12 m/s  (d) 6 m/s 
  (a) On the way up 
43. The  velocity  of  a  body  moving  with  a  uniform 
acceleration of 2  m/s2 is 10 m/s. Its velocity after an    (b) At the top of its flight path 
interval of 4 s is    (c) Halfway up and halfway down 
  (a) 12 m/s  (b) 14 m/s 
  (d) None of the above 
  (c) 16 m/s  (d) 18 m/s 
44. A body X is projected upwards with a velocity of 98  51. A ball is thrown upward with such a velocity v that it 
ms–1.  After  4  s,  a  second  body  Y  is  also  projected  returns  to  the  thrower  after  3  s.  Take  g  =  10  ms-2. 
upwards  with  the  same  initial  velocity.  Two  bodies 
Find the value of v. 
will meet after time: 
  Take g = 9.8m/s2     (a) 15 m/s  (b) 20 m/s 
  (a) 8 s  (b) 10 s    (c) 10 m/s  (d) 5 m/s 
  (c) 12 s  (d) 14 s 
MOTION 70

52. Two  stones  of  different  masses  are  dropped  60. An  arrow  is  shot  into  air.  Its  range  is  200  m  and  its 
simultaneously from the top of a building  time  of  flight  is  5  s.  If  g  =  10  ms−2,  then  horizontal 
  (a) Smaller stone hit the ground earlier  component of the velocity of the arrow is 
  (b) Larger stone hit the ground earlier    (a) 25.0 ms−1  (b) 31.25 ms−1 
−1
  (c) Both stones reach the ground simultaneously    (c) 35 ms   (d) 40 ms−1 
  (d) Which  of  the  stones  reach  the  ground  earlier  61. The maximum range of a gun on horizontal terrain is 
depends on the composition of the stone   16  km.  If g  10m / s 2 .  What  must  be  the  muzzle 
53. The initial velocity of the particle is  10m / sec and its  velocity of the shell? 
retardation is  2m / s 2 then the distance  moved by the    (a) 200 m/s  (b) 400 m/s 
particle in 5th second of its motion is    (c) 100 m/s  (d) 50 m/s 
  (a) 1 m  (b) 19 m  62. A projectile fired with initial velocity u at some angle 
  (c) 50 m  (d) 75 m     has  a  range  R.  If  the  initial  velocity  be  made  3 
54. A  boy  throws  a  stone  at  an  angle  of  53°  and  the  times at the same angle of projection, then the range 
maximum  height  reached  is  10  m.  The  range  of  the  will be 
stone is: (given; tan 53° = 4/3)    (a) 3R  (b) 6R 
  (a)  20 2m   (b)  10 m      (c) R  (d) 9R  
63. A  body  is  projected  at  an  angle  of  30o  and  60o  with 
  (c)  10 2  m   (d)  30 m   
the same velocity. Their horizontal ranges are R1 and 
55. For  an  object  thrown  at  45°  to  the  horizontal,  the 
R2 and  maximum  heights are H1 and H2 respectively 
maximum height H and horizontal range R are related 
then: 
(a) R = 16 H  (b) R = 8 H 
R H
  (c) R = 4 H  (d) R = 2H    (a) 1  1   (b)  1  1   
R2 H2
56. A  stone  projected  at  angle  53 attains  maximum 
height 25 m during its motion in air. Then its distance  R1 H1
  (c) 1  (d)   1   
from the point of projection where it will fall is  R2 H2
400 64. A  body  rotates  about  a  fixed  axis  with  an  angular 
  (a) 75 m  (b)  m   
3 acceleration  of  3  rad  s-2.  The  angle  rotated  by  it 
  (c) 50 m  (d) 60 m  during  the  time  when  its  angular  velocity  increases 
57. Velocity  of  a  stone  projected.  2  second  before  it  from 10 rad/s to 20 rad/s (in radian) is 
reaches  the  maximum  height,  makes  angle  53'  with    (a) 50  (b) 100 
the  horizontal  then  the  velocity  at  highest  point  will    (c) 150  (d) 200 
be   65. A  car  moves  on  a  circular  road.  It  describes  equal 
  (a) 20 m/s  (b) 15 m/s  angles  about  the  centre  in  equal  intervals  of  time. 
  (c) 25 m/s  (d) 80/3 m/s  Which of the following statements about the velocity 
58. Acceleration  of  a  particle  under  projectile  motion  at  of the car is true? 
the highest point of its trajectory is :    (a) Magnitude of velocity is not constant 
  (a) g      (b) Both magnitude and direction of velocity change 
  (b) zero    (c) Velocity  is  directed  towards  the  centre  of  the 
  (c) less than g    circle 
  (d) dependent upon projection velocity     (d) Magnitude  of  velocity  is  constant  but  direction 
59. A stone is projected with speed 20 m/s at angle with  changes 
66. A body is revolving with a uniform speed v in a circle 
the  horizontal  and  it  hits  the  ground  with  speed  12 
of radius r. The tangential acceleration is 
m/s  due  to  air  resistance.  Assume  the  effect  of  air 
resistance  to  reduce  only  horizontal  component  of  v v2
  (a)    (b)    
r r
velocity. Then the time of flight will be 
v
  (a) greater than 2.4 s  (b) less than 2.4 s    (c) Zero  (d)    
r2
  (c) 2.4 s  (d) depends on other data 
71 MOTION

67. Let  ar and  at represent  radial  and  tangential  73. A  body  starts  from  rest  from  the  origin  with  an 
acceleration. The motion of a particle may be circular  acceleration  of  6m/s2  along  the  x-axis  and  8m/s2 
if:  along  the  y-axis.  Its  distance  from  the  origin  after  4 
  (a)  ar  0, at  0    (b)  ar  0, at  0    seconds will be 
  (a) 56 m  (b) 64 m 
  (c)  ar  0, at  0    (d) none of these    (c) 80 m  (d) 128 m 
68. Two  racing  cars  of  masses  m1 and  m2 are  moving  in  74. Distance  is  path  _______  &  displacement  is  path 
circles of radii  r1 and  r2 respectively. Their speeds are  ________. 
  (a) dependent, dependent   
such  that  each  makes  a  complete  circle  in  the  same 
  (b) independent, dependent 
duration  of  time  t.  The  ratio  of  the  angular  speed  of 
  (c) independent, independent 
the first to the second car is  
  (d) dependent, independent 
  (a)  m1 : m2   (b)  r1 : r2   
75. The  co-ordinates  of  a  moving  particle  at  any  time  t 
  (c)  1 :1   (d)  m1r1 : m2 r2   
are  given  by  x  ct 2 and y  bt 2 .  The  speed  of  the 
69. The  angular  speed  of  a  fly  wheel  making  120 
particle is given by: 
revolutions per minute is 
  (a)  2t (c  b)    (b)  2t c 2  b 2   
  (a)  2 rad / s   (b)  4 2 rad / s   
  (c)   rad / s   (d)  4 rad / s      (c)  t c 2  b 2   (d)  2t c 2  b2   
70. A stone is tied with a string and is rotated in a circle    (c) 100 meters  (d) 150 meters 
horizontally.  When  the  string  suddenly  breaks,  the   
stone will move   
  (a) tangential to the motion   
  (b) away from the centre   
  (c) towards the centre   
  (d) None of these   
71. A particle is moving along a circular path of radius 5   
m  with  a  uniform  speed  5  ms–1.  What  will  be  the   
average  acceleration  (in  m/s2)  when  the  particle   
completes half revolution?   
  (a) Zero  (b) 10ms-2 
10
  (c) 10 ms 2   (d)  ms 2   

72. If position of ball can be given as x = sin t then what 
will be its acceleration at  t  2 s ?   
(a) -1  (b) 0 
1
  (c) 1  (d)    
2
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
MOTION 72

EXERCISE – 2: Advanced Objective Questions


Single Choice Type Questions 
7. A  boy  throws  a  stone  at  an  angle  of  53 and  the 
1. Three  towns  P,  Q  and  R  are  such  that  the  distance 
maximum  height  reached  is  10  m.  The  range  of  the 
between Q and R is double that between P and Q. A 
car covers the distance between P and Q with a speed  stone is: (given; tan 53  4 / 3 ) 
36  km/h  and  the  distance  between  Q  and  R  with  a    (a)  20 2m   (b)  10 m   
speed  48  km/h.  The  average  speed  for  the  entire    (c)  10 2m    (d)  30 m   
journey is:  8. Two  particles  P  and  Q  simultaneously  start  moving 
  (a) 42 km/h  (b) 43.2 km/h    from  point  A  with  velocities  15  ms-1  and  20  ms-1 
  (c) 44.8 km/h  (d) 41.14 km/h  respectively.  The  two  particles  move  with 
2. A  vehicle  travels  half  of  the  total  distance     with  accelerations  equal  in  magnitude  but  opposite  in 
speed  v1 and  the  other  half  with  speed v2 ,  then  its  direction.  When  P's  velocity  is  30m/s  then  the 
average speed is:  velocity of Q at the same time will be: 
v v 2v1  v2   (a) 30 ms–1  (b) 5 ms–1 
  (a)  1 2    (b)    
2 v1  v2   (c) 20 ms–1  (d) 15 ms–1 
9. The greatest height to which a man can throw a stone 
2v1v2   v1  v2 
  (c)     (d)     is  h.  The  greatest  distance  to  which  he  can  throw  it 
v1  v2 v1v2
will be 
3. A  body  starts  from  rest  and  moves  with  constant  h
acceleration  for  t  seconds.  It  travels  a  distance  x1 in    (a)     (b) h 
2
first half of time and  x2 in the next half of time, then    (c) 2h  (d) 3h 
  (a)  x2  x1    (b)  x2  2 x1    10. If  you  drive  from  Bengaluru  to  Chennai  at  40  kmph 
and  then  from  Chennai  to  Bengaluru  at  60  kmph, 
  (c)  x2  3x1    (d)  x2  4 x1   
what is your average speed for the whole journey? 
4. At the uppermost point of a projectile, its velocity and    (a) 25 kmph  (b) 48 kmph 
acceleration are at an angle of    (c) 45 kmph  (d) 50 kmph 
  (a) 180º  (b) 90º  11. The  meter  that  is  used  to  measure  the  speed  of  a 
  (c) 60º  (d) 45º vehicle is 
5. A  small  block  slides  down  on  a  smooth  inclined    (a) Odometer  (b) Speedometer 
plane,  starting  from  rest  at  time  t=0.  Let  S n be  the    (c) Ammeter  (d) Voltmeter 
distance travelled by the block in the interval t = n-1  12. A  ball  is  thrown  vertically  upwards.  It  rises  to  a 
S height of 50 m and comes back to the thrower, 
to t = n, Then, the ratio  n  is:    (a) the total distance covered by the ball is zero 
Sn  1
  (b) the net displacement of the ball is zero 
2n  1 2n
  (a)     (b)       (c) the displacement is 100 m 
2n  1 2n  1
  (d) none of these 
2n  1 2n  1 13. A  motor  car  moving  with  a  uniform  speed  of 
  (c)     (d)    
2n 2n  1 20 m / sec  comes to stop on the application of brakes 
6. A  particle  moves  in  a  straight  line  with  a  constant  after travelling a distance  10 m its acceleration is 
acceleration.  It  changes  its  velocity  from 10  m s-1 to    (a) 20 m / sec2   (b)  20 m / sec2   
20 m s-1 while passing through a distance 135 m in t    (c) 40 m / sec2   (d)  2 m / sec2   
second. The value of t (in second) is  14. The  displacement  of  a  particle  is  given  by
  (a) 12  (b) 9  y  a  bt  ct 2  dt 4 .  The  initial  velocity  and 
  (c) 10  (d) 1.8  acceleration are respectively 
  (a) b, -4d  (b) -b, 2c 
  (c) b, 2c  (d) 2c, -4d
LAWS OF MOTION 74

03
LAWS OF MOTION
LAWS OF MOTION 82

23. When a body is stationary, 25. A mass of 10 gm moving with a velocity of 100 cm/s
(a) There is no force acting on it strikes head on elastically with a body of mass 10 gm
(b) Force acting on it is not in contact with it at rest. velocity of first ball after collision would be
(c) Combination of forces acting on it balance each (a) 0 cm/s (b) 50 cm/s
other (c) 25 cm/s (d) 100 cm/s
(d) The body is a vacuum
24. A body moving with a velocity v breaks up into two
equal parts. One of the parts retraces back with
velocity v. The velocity of the other part is
(a) v in forward direction
(b) 3v in forward direction
(c) v in backward direction
(d) 3v backward direction
CHEMISTRY
MATTER IN OUR SURROUNDINGS 84

01
MATTER IN OUR SURROUNDINGS
85 MATTER IN OUR SURROUNDINGS

EXERCISE – 1: Basic Objective Questions


Section–A (Single Choice Type Questions)
8. Identify the odd one out taking state of matter into
1. A few substances are arranged in the increasing order consideration
of ‘forces of attraction’ between their particles. (a) Sponge
Which one of the following represents a correct (b) Lemonade
arrangement? (c) A stretched rubber band
(a) Water, air, wind (d) A metal block
(b) Air, sugar, oil 9. The intermolecular force will be very weak in which
(c) Oxygen, water, sugar of the following:
(d) Salt, juice, air (a) A piece of wood (b) Steam
2. CO2 can be easily liquified and even solidified (c) Milk (d) Sugar crystals
because 10. The property to flow is unique to fluids. Which one
(a) It has weak forces of attraction of the following statements is correct?
(b) It has comparatively more force of attraction than (a) Only gases behave like fluids
other gases (b) Gases and solids behave like fluids
(c) It has more intermolecular space (c) Gases and liquids behave like fluids
(d) It is present in the atmosphere. (d) Only liquids are fluids
3. Which of the following is incorrect about plasma? 11. Which of the following have a fixed volume?
(a) Fluorescent tube and neon sign bulbs consist of (a) Only Solids (b) Only Liquids
plasma. (c) Only gases (d) Both solids & liquids
(b) The gas gets ionized when electrical energy 12. Kinetic Energy of molecules is highest in
flows through it. (a) Gases (b) Solids
(c) It consists of super-energetic and super-excited (c) Liquids (d) Solutions
particles. 13. Expansion on heating is maximum in
(d) The plasma glows with a colour which does not (a) Solids
depend upon the nature of gas. (b) Liquids
4. Which of the following describes the liquid phase? (c) Gases
(a) It has a definite shape and a definite volume (d) None of these
(b) It has a definite shape but not a definite volume 14. This type of solid is made up of crystals & has a
(c) It has a definite volume but not a definite shape distinct melting point:
(d) It has neither a definite shape nor a definite (a) Rock
volume (b) Crystalline Solid
5. Which of the following is not a matter? (c) Amorphous Solid
(a) Blood (b) Moon Rock (d) Rubber
(c) Electron (d) Humidity 15. Which of the following substances has the highest
6. Which of the following characteristics is not true for density?
matter? (a) Water (b) Kerosene oil
(a) It occupies space (c) Nitrogen (d) Lead
(b) It has mass 16. Which of the following indicates the relative
(c) It has inertia
(d) It is least affected by gravity randomness of particles in the three states of matter?
7. What is plasma? (a) Solid > Liquid > Gas
(a) A state of matter (b) Liquid > Solid > Gas
(b) A type of gas (c) Liquid > Gas> Solid
(c) Combination of three states of matter (d) Gas> Liquid> Solid
(d) None of the above
89 MATTER IN OUR SURROUNDINGS

54. Assertion: Most of the solid, liquid, gaseous can (b) Both Assertion and reason are true, and reason is
diffuse into liquids. not the correct explanation for assertion.
Reason: Liquids cannot change its shape. (c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(a) Both Assertion and reason are true, and reason is (d) Both Assertion and reason are false.
the correct explanation for assertion. 60. Assertion: Wet clothes dry faster on a windly day.
(b) Both Assertion and reason are true, and reason is Reason: Rate of evaporation is proportional to
not the correct explanation for assertion. humidity
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false. (a) Both Assertion and reason are true, and reason is
(d) Both Assertion and reason are false. the correct explanation for assertion.
55. Assertion: Solids may break under force but it is (b) Both Assertion and reason are true, and reason is
difficult to change their shape. not the correct explanation for assertion.
Reason: Solids are rigid. (c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(a) Both Assertion and reason are true, and reason is (d) Both Assertion and reason are false.
the correct explanation for assertion. 61. Assertion: Sea water freezes below 0oC.
(b) Both Assertion and reason are true, and reason is Reason: Freezing point increases due to the addition
not the correct explanation for assertion. of impurities.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false. (a) Both Assertion and reason are true, and reason is
(d) Both Assertion and reason are false. the correct explanation for assertion.
56. Assertion: The matter around us exists in three (b) Both Assertion and reason are true, and reason is
different states solid, liquid gas. not the correct explanation for assertion.
Reason: These states arise due to the variation in (c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
characteristics of the particle of matter. (d) Both Assertion and reason are false.
(a) Both Assertion and reason are true, and reason is 62. Assertion: Naphthalene does not leave any residue
the correct explanation for assertion. when kept open for some time
(b) Both Assertion and reason are true, and reason is Reason: The conversion of a solid directly into gas
not the correct explanation for assertion. is called condensation.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false. (a) Both Assertion and reason are true, and reason is
(d) Both Assertion and reason are false. the correct explanation for assertion.
57. Assertion: Particles of matter held together by (b) Both Assertion and reason are true, and reason is
intermolecular forces of attraction. not the correct explanation for assertion.
Reason: Solid state has maximum movement. (c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(a) Both Assertion and reason are true, and reason is (d) Both Assertion and reason are false.
the correct explanation for assertion. 63. Assertion: Naphthalene, camphor, iodine,
(b) Both Assertion and reason are true, and reason is ammonium chloride are some common examples of
not the correct explanation for assertion. the substances which undergo sublimation.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false. Reason: All solids are first converted to liquids and
(d) Both Assertion and reason are false. then to gases on heating.
58. Assertion: Particles in liquid state shows motion. (a) Both Assertion and reason are true, and reason is
Reason: It posses potential energy. the correct explanation for assertion.
(a) Both Assertion and reason are true, and reason is (b) Both Assertion and reason are true, and reason is
the correct explanation for assertion. not the correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and reason are true, and reason is (c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
not the correct explanation for assertion. (d) Both Assertion and reason are false.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false. 64. Assertion: Ice floats on the surface of water.
(d) Both Assertion and reason are false. Reason: The density of both water and ice is the
59. Assertion: Wet cloth is placed on the forehead of a same.
(a) Both Assertion and reason are true, and reason is
person who is running high temperature
the correct explanation for assertion.
Reason: Evaporation causes cooling. (b) Both Assertion and reason are true, and reason is
(a) Both Assertion and reason are true, and reason is not the correct explanation for assertion.
the correct explanation for assertion. (c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both Assertion and reason are false.
MATTER IN OUR SURROUNDINGS 90

Section-C (Matrix Match Type Questions) 69. Match the following with correct response.
65. Column – I Column – II
List-I List-II (1) Sublimation (A) Heat required to
(P) Particles move randomly 1. Water change the state of 1 Kg
(Q) Layers can slide over each other 2. Sugar of solid into liquid
(R) Changes directly to gaseous 3. Nitrogen (2) Evaporation (B) change of liquid state
state into vapours without
(S) Particles are not free to move 4. coming to its boiling
Ammonium point
chloride (3) Latent heat of (C) Change of solid
(a) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4 (b) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2 vaporization directly into vapours
(c) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4 (d) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 (4) Latent heat of fusion (D) Liquid
66. On the basis of the information, given in the (a) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D
columns, select the correct option (b) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C
Column – I Column – II (c) 1-D, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B
(P) Increase in surface 1. Evaporation increases (d) 1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-A
area 70. Match the following with correct response.
(Q) Decrease in 2. Evaporation decreases Column – I Column – II
temperature (1) Physical state of (A) Solid
(R) Evaporation 3. Bulk Phenomenon o
water at 25 C
(S) Boiling 4. Surface phenomenon
(a) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3 (b) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2 (2) Water at 273 K (B) Latent heat
(c) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4 (d) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1 (3) Water at 100 C o
(C) Vapour
67. Match the Column -I with Column – II.
(4) Energy required to (D) Heat required to
Column – I Column – II
(i) Camphor (a) Mass/Volume change the state change the state of 1 Kg
(ii) Density (b) Compressed Natural Gas liquid into vapours
(iii) Matter (c) Occupies space and has mass
(a) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C
(iv) CNG (d) Sublime
(b) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D
(a) (ii)  d, (i)  a, (iv)  c,(iii)  b
(c) 1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-A
(b) (i)  d, (ii)  a, (iii)  c,(iv)  b
(d) 1-D, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B
(c) (iii)  d, (ii)  a, (i)  c,(iv)  b 71. Column II give properties for matter mention in
(d) (i)  d, (iv)  a, (iii)  c, (ii)  b Column I match them correctly.

68. Question: Match the following with correct Column – I Column – II


response. (A) Liquid (p) Definite shape
Column – I Column – II
(B) Solid (q) Definite volume
(1) Fusion (A) Change of liquid state
into gaseous state (C) Plasma (r) Super low energy
(2) Vaporization (B) Change of liquid state (D) Bose-Einstein (s) Super energetic
into solid state
(a)  A   s;  B  p, q;  C   p;  D   r
(3) Condensation (C) Change of vapour state
into liquid state (b)  A   r;  B  p, q;  C   q;  D   p
(4) Solidification (D) Change of solid into
liquid state (c)  A   q;  B   q, r;  C   s;  D   p
(a) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C (b) 1-D, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B
(d)  A   q;  B   p, q;  C   s;  D   r
(c) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D (d) 1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-A
91 MATTER IN OUR SURROUNDINGS

Section -D (Multiple Choice Type Questions) 74. Identify the incorrect statement about evaporation
72. Two chemical substance A & B combine together to (a) It causes cooling
form a product P which contain A & B. (b) It increases with increase in humidity
A and B can not be broken into simpler substance by (c) It decreases with increase in temperature
simple chemical reaction, which of the following (d) It increases with increase in wind speed
statements concerning A, B, P is/are correct 75. Gases can be liquefied by:
(a) P is a compound (a) increasing pressure
(b) A & B are compound (b) decreasing temperature
(c) A & B are element (c) increasing temperature
(d) P has a fixed composition (d) decreasing pressure
73. Which of the following substance(s) can sublime?
(a) Camphor
(b) Solid carbon dioxide
(c) Ammonium chloride
(d) Sodium bicarbonate
94 IS MATTER AROUND US PURE

02
IS MATTER AROUND US PURE
95 IS MATTER AROUND US PURE

EXERCISE – 1: Basic Objective Questions


Section–A (Single Choice Type Questions)
8. Peptization is a process of
1. Consider the following statements regarding (a) Precipitation of colloidal particles
compounds. (b) Purification of colloids
I. These are heterogeneous in nature. (c) Dispersing precipitate into colloidal sols
II. They contain different elements in a fixed ratio. (d) Movement of colloidal particles in the electrical
III. They have properties entirely different from field
their constituent elements. 9. Which of the following has liquid as both dispersed
IV. Their constituents cannot be separated by phase and dispersion medium?
simple physical methods. (a) Paint (b) Blood
The true statement (s) are (c) Fog (d) Face cream
(a) I, II and III (b) II, III and IV 10. Cloud and fog are examples of colloidal system of
(c) II and III (d) III and IV (a) Liquid dispersed in gas
2. Which of the following is not a mixture? (b) Gas dispersed in gas
(a) Air (b) Milk (c) Solid dispersed in gas
(c) Soil (d) Steam (d) Solid dispersed in liquid
3. Which of the following are homogeneous in nature? 11. On dissolving sugar in water at room temperature
I. Ice solution feels cool to touch. Under which of the
II. Wood following cases dissolution of sugar will be most
III. Soil rapid?
IV. Air (a) Sugar crystals in cold water
(a) I and III (b) II and IV (b) Sugar crystals in hot water
(c) I and IV (d) III and IV (c) Powdered sugar in cold water
4. Which of the following is considered to be a pure (d) Powdered sugar in hot water
substance? 12. Which one of the following is a lyophilic colloid?
(a) Granite (b) Sodium chloride (a) Milk (b) Gum
(c) Muddy water (d) Milk of magnesia (c) Fog (d) Blood
5. The concentration of a solution indicates 13. When the dispersion medium in a colloidal system is
(a) The total quantity of the solution taken as gas, it is referred to as
(b) The quantity of the impurities presents in the (a) Hydrosol (b) Aquasol
solution (c) Aerosol (d) Benzosol
(c) The quantity of the solvent present in the 14. You have prepared four different mixtures in water
solution using charcoal powder, chalk powder, slaked lime
(d) The quantity of the solute present in the solution and detergent powder. If you filter these mixtures
6. Consider the following statements about colloids. through a filter paper, there will be no residue left
I. Colloids are homogeneous. after filtration in the case of
II. Colloids exhibit Tyndall effect. (a) charcoal powder (b) chalk powder
III. The particle size of colloids lies in between 1- (c) slaked lime (d) detergent powder
1000 nm. 15. Removal of a clear layer of the liquid without
IV. Colloids do not exhibit Brownian motion. disturbing the settled solids is known as
The true statements are ______________.
(a) I and II (b) I, II and II (a) Sedimentation (b) Decantation
(c) II and III (d) II, III and IV (c) Filtration (d) Evaporation
7. Which one of the following can be called a 16. Camphor can be purified by
suspension?
(a) Milk (b) Milk of Magnesia (a) Evaporation (b) Sublimation
(c) Salt solution (d) Vinegar (c) Filtration (d) Crystallisation
IS MATTER AROUND US PURE 96

17. A mixture of water and silver chloride can be 27. Distillation is a good separation technique for
separated by (a) Solids (b) Liquids
(a) Centrifugation (b) Sedimentation (c) Solid alloys (d) Gases
(c) Filtration (d) Sublimation 28. Separation of petroleum into its components is done
18. The material which is added to water during by
purification process at the water works so as to (a) Chromatography (b) Sublimation
disinfect it is (c) Distillation (d) Fractional distillation
(a) Potassium permanganate 29. Which of the following statements is not true about
(b) Chlorine partition chromatography?
(c) Betadine (a) Mobile phase can be a gas
(d) Potash alum (b) Stationary phase is a finely divided solid
19. Tiny pieces of stones are usually separated from adsorbent
pulses before cooking by the method called (c) Separation depends upon equilibration of solute
(a) Threshing (b) Sieving between a mobile and a stationary phase
(c) Handpicking (d) Winnowing (d) Paper chromatography is an example of partition
20. Pure copper sulphate can be obtained from an chromatography
impure sample by the process of 30. Two compounds I and II are eluted by column
(a) Evaporation (b) Centrifugation chromatography (adsorption of I II). Which one of
(c) Crystallisation (d) Sublimation following is a correct statement?
21. A mixture of methyl alcohol and acetone can be (a) I move faster and has higher R value than II
separated by (b) II moves faster and has higher R value than I
(a) Separating funnel (b) Chromatography (c) I move slower and has higher R value than II
(c) Distillation (d) Fractional distillation (d) II moves slower and has higher R value than I
22. A liquid is said to be volatile 31. The principle of column chromatography is
(a) If forces of interaction between the molecules are (a) Gravitational force
less (b) Capillary action
(b) If forces of interaction between the molecules is (c) Differential absorption of the substances on the
more solid phase
(c) Forces of interaction first increase and then (d) Differential adsorption of the substances on the
decrease solid phase
(d) All the above 32. In chromatography, which of the following
23. The process used to separate oil and water is statement is INCORRECT for Rf?
(a) Distillation (b) Sublimation (a) Rf value depends on the type of chromatography
(c) Separating funnel (d) Chromatography (b) The value of Rf value means higher adsorption
24. Which of the following cannot be separated from air (c) Higher Rf value means higher adsorption
by the process of fractional distillation? (d) Rf value is dependent on the mobile phase
(a) Oxygen (b) Argon 33. The solubility of a gas in water depends on
(c) Hydrogen (d) Nitrogen (a) Nature of the gas (b) Temperature
25. Principle of chromatography is based on (c) Pressure of the gas (d) All of the above
(a) Rate of adsorption 34. Homogeneous mixture of two or more than two
(b) Rate of absorption components is called
(c) Rate of diffusion (a) Solute (b) Solvent
(d) None of these (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Solution
26. In chromatography different constituents of a 35. The term homogenous mixtures signifies that
mixture get adsorbed differently on same adsorbent (a) Its composition is uniform throughout the
because mixture
(a) They have difference in pressure (b) Its properties are uniform throughout the mixture
(b) They have difference rate of movement (c) Both composition and properties are uniform
throughout the mixture
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither composition nor properties are uniform
(d) None of these throughout the mixture
IS MATTER AROUND US PURE 98

52. Assertion: Milk of magnesia is a true solution. 57. Assertion: Compounds are invariably homogenous.
Reason: Particles of solute settle down at the Reason: Compounds are constituted of only one
bottom. kind of molecules distributed uniformly.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the
is the correct explanation of Assertion. Reason is the correct explanation of the
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason Assertion
is not the correct explanation of Assertion. (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false. Reason is not the correct explanation of the
(d) Assertion is false but Reason is true. Assertion
53. Assertion: True solution exhibit Tyndall effect. (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false
Reason: Particles are very small in size. (d) Assertion is false, but Reason is true
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason 58. Assertion: On opening a Pepsi bottle, CO2 comes
is the correct explanation of Assertion. out with fizzing sound.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason Reason: Solubility of a gas is inversely proportional
is not the correct explanation of Assertion. to pressure.
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false. (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the
(d) Assertion is false but Reason is true. Reason is the correct explanation of the
54. Assertion: Homogeneous mixtures have same Assertion
composition throughout. (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the
Reason: Particles are indistinguishable. Reason is not the correct explanation of the
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason Assertion
is the correct explanation of Assertion. (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason (d) Assertion is false, but Reason is true
is not the correct explanation of Assertion. 59. Assertion: A mixture of SO2 and water can be
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false. separated by heating.
(d) Assertion is false but Reason is true. Reason: SO2 is highly soluble in water.
55. Given below are two statements: (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the
Assertion: Retardation factor (Rf) can be measured Reason is the correct explanation of the
in meter/centimetre. Assertion
Reason: Rf value of a compound remains constant (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the
in all solvents. Reason is not the correct explanation of the
Choose the most appropriate answer from the Assertion
options given below. (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false
(a) Assertion is true but Reason is false (d) Assertion is false, but Reason is true
(b) Assertion is false but Reason is true 60. Assertion: Ethyl alcohol and water can be separated
(c) Both Assertion and Reason are true by separating funnel.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false
Reason: Ethyl alcohol and water differ with respect
56. Assertion: All pure substances are homogeneous.
Reason: Pure substances are made up of only one to their boiling points.
kind of molecules and they are uniformly (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the
distributed.
Reason is the correct explanation of the
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the
Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion
Assertion (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the
Reason is not the correct explanation of the
Reason is not the correct explanation of the
Assertion Assertion
(c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false
(d) Assertion is false, but Reason is true (d) Assertion is false, but Reason is true
99 IS MATTER AROUND US PURE

61. Assertion: Milk is an example of water in oil 65. Match the statement of Column A with those
emulsion. Column B.
Reason: Emulsion contains liquid dispersed in Column A Column B
liquid. (i) Solvent extraction (A) Water + Alcohol
(a) Assertion and reason both are correct and the (ii) Gravity method (B) Sulphur + Sand
reason is correct explanation of assertion (iii) Sublimation (C) Sand + Saw dust
(b) Assertion and reason both are correct but reason (iv) Fractional (D) Sand + Water
does not explain assertion crystallization
(c) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect (E) Sand + Iodine
(d) Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct (F) Potassium nitrate +
62. Assertion: A simple distillation can be used to Sodium chloride
separate a mixture of propanol and propanone. (a)  i    A  ;  ii    A  ;  iii    E  ;  iv    F 
Reason: Two liquids with a difference of more than
20°C in their boiling points can be separated by (b)  i    D  ;  ii    F  ;  iii    E  ;  iv    A 
simple distillations. In the light of the above (c)  i    B  ,  ii    C  ,  iii    E  ;  iv    F 
statements, choose the most appropriate answer (d)  i    D  ,  ii    A  ,  iii    E  ;  iv    c 
from the options given below:
(a) Assertion is false but Reason is true. 66. Match the statement of Column A with those
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but is Column B.
Reason not the correct explanation of Assertion. Column A Column B
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false (i) Preferential (A) Difference in molecular
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and liquefaction masses
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion (ii) Fractional (B) Preferential solubility
63. Assertion: Lyophilic colloids are called as evaporation of a gas in a solvent
reversible sols. (iii) Diffusion (C) Difference in critical
Reason: Lyophilic sols are liquid loving. temperature
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and (iv) Dissolution in a (D) Difference in boiling
solvent points
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(a)  i    C  ;  ii    D  ;  iii    A  ;  iv    B 
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, but
Reason is not the correct explanation of (b)  i    C  ;  ii    D  ;  iii    B  ;  iv    C 

Assertion. (c)  i    C  ;  ii    A  ;  iii    D  ;  iv    B 


(c) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect. (d)  i    B  ;  ii    D  ;  iii    A  ;  iv    C 
(d) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
67. Match the statement of Column A with those
Section-C (Matrix Match Type Questions) Column B.
Column A Column B
64. Match the entries in Column-I with those in (i) Fractional evaporation (A) H2 and NH3
Column-II. (ii) Dissolution in KOH (B) H2 and Ar
Column I Column II (iii) Preferential liquefaction (C) NH3 and O2
A. A chalk water 1. A gaseous mixture (iv) Diffusion (D) N2 and O2
mixture (v) Dissolution in water (E) SO2 and N2
B. A glucose 2. A heterogeneous solid-
(a)  i    B ;  ii    E  ;  iii    A  ;  iv    D  v    C 
solution liquid mixture
C. Carbonated 3. A homogeneous solid- (b)  i    B  ;  ii    E  ;  iii    D  ;  iv    C  ;  v    A 
water liquid mixture
(c)  i    D  ;  ii    E  ;  iii    A  ,  iv    B  ;  v    C 
D. Air 4. A gas-liquid mixture
(a) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1 (b) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3 (d)  i    D  ;  ii    A  ;  iii    B ;  iv    E  ;  v    C 
(c) A-2, B-4, C-2, C-3 (d) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
ATOMS AND MOLECULES 104

03
ATOMS AND MOLECULES
105 ATOMS AND MOLECULES

EXERCISE – 1: Basic Objective Questions


Section–A (Single Choice Type Questions)
9. If 18 g of glucose (C6H12O6) is present in 1000 g of
1. Dalton’s atomic theory successfully explained: an aqueous solution of glucose it is said to be
(a) Law of conservation of mass (a) 1 molal (b) 1.1 molal
(b) Law of constant composition (c) 0.5 molal (d) 0.1 molal
(c) Law of multiple proportion 10. Which of the following has the smallest mass?
(d) All of these (a) 4 g of He
2. According to the law of conservation of mass, in a
(b) 6.00  10 23 atoms of He
chemical reaction:
(c) 1 atom of He
(a) Mass of the different materials involved in the
(d) 1 mole atoms of He
chemical reaction must be equal
11. Final result of the expression
(b) total mass of the products remains equal to the
10.23 + 11.234 – 22.1 − 11.2345
total mass of reactants
should be reported to the same number of decimal
(c) total mass of products and reactants is equal to
places as
the total mass of energy involved
(a) 10.23 (b) 11.234
(d) total mass of reactants is twice of the total mass
(c) 22.1 (d) 11.2345
of products
12. 64 g CH3OH added in 72g H2O then find the mole
3. Which of the following statements is not true about
fraction of each component.
an atom?
(a) x CH3OH  0.14, x H2 O  0.65
(a) Atoms are not able to exist independently.
(b) Atoms are the basic units from which molecules (b) x CH3OH  0.66, x H2 O  0.33
and ions are formed.
(c) x CH3OH  0.8, x H2O  0.2
(c) Atoms are always neutral in nature.
(d) Atoms aggregate in large numbers to form the (d) x CH3OH  0.33, x H2O  0.66
matter that we can see, feel or touch. 13. Which of the following alternatives represents an
4. The percentage of copper and oxygen in samples of incorrect scientific notation for the number 123.45?
CuO obtained by different methods were found to be
(a) 12345.00  10 2 (b) 1.23  102
the same. This illustrate the law of
(c) 0.0123  10 4 (d) 12.34  10 1
(a) Constant proportion
(b) Conservation of mass 14. If 18 g of glucose (C6H12O6) is present in 1000 gm of
(c) Multiple proportion an aqueous solution of glucose it is said to be
(d) All of the above (a) 1 molal (b) 1.1 molal
5. Which of the following represents a polyatomic ion? (c) 0.5 molal (d) 0.1 molal
(a) Sulphide (b) Chloride 15. Given the numbers: 161 cm, 0.161 cm, 0.0161 cm.
(c) Sulphate (d) Nitride The number of significant figures for the three
6. The formula of a compound is . The valencies of numbers are
elements X and Y will be respectively: (a) 3, 4 and 5 respectively
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 3 and 1 (b) 3, 3 and 3 respectively
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 2 (c) 3, 3 and 4 respectively
7. An ionic compound will be formed by the (d) 3, 4 and 4 respectively
combination of one of the following pairs of  83  2.06 
16. By evaluating ,the answer correct to
elements. This pair of elements is:- 5.48
(a) Chlorine and calcium three significant figures is
(b) Calcium and sodium (a) 5.12 (b) 312
(c) Sulphur and carbon (c) 31.2 (d) 3.12
(d) Chlorine and chlorine 17. What is molarity of the solution that contains 122 g
8. The mass of one C atom is of MgSO4 in 3.5 L of solution?
(a) 6.023  1023 g (b) 1.99  10 23 g (a) 29 M (b) 0.29 M
(c) 2.00 g (d) 12 g (c) 0.0029 M (d) 39 M
ATOMS AND MOLECULES 106

18. The vapour density of a mixture containing equal 27. If NA is Avogadro’s number then number of valence
number of moles of methane and ethane at STP is electrons in 4.2 g of nitride ions (N3−)
(a) 11.5 (b) 11.0 (a) 2.4 NA (b) 4.2 NA
(c) 23 (d) 12.0 (c) 1.6 NA (d) 3.2 NA
19. The molecular weight of a gas is 45. Its density in 28. The number of moles of oxygen present in 0.3 gram
g/L at STP is mole of (COOH)2.2H2O is
(a) 22.4 (b) 11.2 (a) 0.6 (b) 1.8
(c) 5.7 (d) 2.0 (c) 1.2 (d) 3.6
20. The atomic weights of two elements A and B are 40 29. Number of gm of oxygen in 32.2 g Na2SO4.10H2O is
and 80 respectively. If x g of A contains y atoms, (a) 20.8 (b) 22.4
how many atoms are present in 2x g of B? (c) 2.24 (d) 2.08
y y 30. Which of the following has the maximum number of
(a) (b)
2 4 atoms?
(c) 2y (d) y (a) 24 g of C (12) (b) 56 g of Fe (56)
21. What mass of oxygen is combined with 9.02 g of (c) 27 g of Al (27) (d) 108 g of Ag (108)
sulphur in 31. Calculate the mass of iron which will be converted
(i) sulphur dioxide, SO2 and into its oxide (Fe3O4)by the action of 18 g of steam
(ii) sulphur trioxide, SO3? on it.
(a) 23.5 g O in SO2 and 19.02 g O in SO3 (a) 30 g (b) 32 g
(b) 19.02 g O in SO2 and 23.5 g O in SO3 (c) 42 g (d) 44 g
(c) 9.02 g O in SO2 and 13.5 g O in SO3 32. 3 g of H2 react with 29 g of O2 to form H2O . Which
(d) 9.02 g O in SO3 and 13.5 g O in SO2 is the limiting reagent?
22. According to Dalton's theory, matter consists of (a) H2
indivisible _______. (b) O2
(a) molecules (b) atoms (c) H2 and O2 will be equally consumed
(c) ions (d) mixtures (d) Cannot be calculated
23. Dalton was the first one to bring the concept of 33. A balanced chemical equation is in accordance with
symbols. What was the purpose of the symbols he which one of the following laws given below?
used? (a) Law of conservation of energy
i. To represent the quantity of the element (b) Law of conservation of mass
ii. To represent the element (c) Law of constant proportion
iii. To represent the origin of the element (d) Law of multiple proportion
(a) ii only (b) Both ii and iii 34. Consider the following reaction:
(c) Both i and ii (d) i, ii, and iii X calcium carbonate + Y phosphoric
24. Few figures are expressed in scientific notation. acid → calcium phosphate + X water + X carbon
Mark the incorrect one. dioxide
(a) 234000 = 2.34 × 105 What is the value of X and Y ?.
(b) 8008 = 8 × 108 (a) X – 3; Y – 1 (b) X – 3; Y – 4
(c) 0.0048 = 4.8 × 10–3 (c) X – 1; Y – 3 (d) X – 3; Y – 2
(d) 500.0 = 5.00 × 102 35. A molal solution is one that contains one mole of
25. How much mass of silver nitrate will react with 5.85 solute in
g of sodium chloride to produce 14.35 g of silver (a) 1000 g of solvent (b) 1.0 L of solvent
chloride and 8.5 g of sodium nitrate, if law of (c) 1.0 L of solution (d) 22.4 L of solution
conservation of mass is followed? 36. Which of the following correctly represents 360 g of
(a) 22.85 g (b) 108 g water?
(c) 17.0 g (d) 28.70 g (i) 2 moles of H2O
26. 7.5 grams of a gas occupy 5.6 litres of volume at (ii) 20 moles of water
STP. Then, the gas is (iii) 6.022×1023 molecules of water
(a) NO (b) N2O (iv) 1.2044×1025 molecules of water
(c) CO (d) CO2 (a) (i) (b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iv)
107 ATOMS AND MOLECULES

37. Which of the following would weigh the highest? 47. If 1.5 moles of oxygen combine with Al to
(a) 0.2 mole of sucrose (C12H22O11) form Al2O3 the weight of Al used in the reaction is
(b) 2 moles of CO2 (Al =27)
(c) 2 moles of CaCO3 (a) 27 g (b) 54 g
(d) 10 moles of H2O (c) 49.5 g (d) 31 g
38. What is the ratio of masses of oxygen and ozone 48. What is the number of iron atoms in a piece of iron
gases containing equal number of molecules? weighing 2.8g?
(a) 2 : 3 (b) 1 : 3 (Atomic mass of Fe = 56 u)
(c) 1 : 1 (d) 2 : 1 (a) 3.011 × 1024 (b) 5.011 × 1023
22
39. The mole fraction of water in 10% aqueous solution (c) 6.011 × 10 (d) 3.011 × 1022
of H2O2 is 49. Dalton’s postulate, “Atoms of different elements
17 16 have different masses and chemical properties”
(a) (b) violates in case of _________.
18 18
(a) Isobars (b) Isotones
11 19
(c) (d) (c) Atoms (d) Isotopes
18 18
50. State ‘T’ for true and ‘F’ for false and choose the
40. 1.24 gm P is present in 2.2 gm correct option.
(a) PS2 (b) P2S2 I. Particles having more or less electrons than the
(c) P4 S3 (d) P2S4 normal atoms are called ions.
41. For the reaction 3A + 4B → 5C + 2D, 6 moles of A II. The molecular formula of a compound is
and 10 moles of B will produce determined by the valency of the elements
(a) 7.5 moles of C (b) 12.5 moles of C present in the compound.
(c) 8 moles of D (d) 4 moles of D III. The molecular formula of ferrous sulphate
42. 10 moles N2 and 15 moles of H2 were allowed to is Fe2(SO4)3 and ferric sulphate is FeSO4.
react over a suitable catalyst. 10 moles of NH3 were (a) I-F ; II-T ; III-F (b) I-T ; II-T ; III-F
formed. The remaining moles of N2 and (c) I-T ; II-F ; III-F (d) I-T ; II-F ; III-T
H2 respectively are: Section -B (Assertion - Reason Type Questions)
(a) 5 moles, 0 mole (b) 0 moles, 5 mole
(c) 9 moles, 12 mole (d) 0 moles, 0 mole 51. Assertion: Pure water obtained from different
43. The number of atoms in 4.25 g of NH3 is sources such as river, well, sea etc. always contains
approximately hydrogen and oxygen combined in the ratio of 1 : 8
(a) 1 1023 (b) 2  10 23 by mass.
Reason: A chemical compound always contains
(c) 4  10 23 (d) 6  10 23
elements combined in the same fixed proportions by
44. Two litre of oxygen was reacted with five litre of CO
mass.
at STP. Find mass of CO2 produced.
(a) Both Assertion and reason are true, and reason is
(a) 1.8g (b) 2.0g
the correct explanation for assertion.
(c) 7.86g (d) 3.93g
(b) Both Assertion and reason are true, and reason is
45. A solution of A (MM = 20) and B (MM = 10), [Mole
not the correct explanation for assertion.
fraction XB = 0.6] has density of 0.7 gm/ml then
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
molality of B in this solution will be
(d) Both Assertion and reason are false.
(a) 75 (b) 40
52. Assertion: 1 mole of H2 and O2 each occupy 22.4 L
(c) 50 (d) 60
at standard temperature and pressure.
46. A solution containing 6.8g AgNO3 is added to a
Reason: Molar volume for all gases at the standard
solution containing 7.1g Na2SO4. Then what is the temperature and pressure has the same value.
weight of precipitate obtained? (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason
is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(a) 15.6 g (b) 6.24 g
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason
(c) 12.48 g (d) 3.12 g is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false
(d) Reason is true, but Assertion is false.
ATOMS AND MOLECULES 108

53. Assertion: One atomic mass unit (amu) is mass of an 57. Match the List – I of atoms with their atomic mass
atom equal to exactly one-twelfth of the mass of a given in List – II and choose the correct option.
carbon-12 atom. List –I List–II
Reason: Carbon-12 isotope was selected as standard. (Atom) (Atomic mass)
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason P. Calcium 1. 14
is the correct explanation of Assertion. Q. Nitrogen 2. 16
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason R. Oxygen 3. 26
is not the correct explanation of Assertion. S. Sodium 4. 40
(c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false (a) P  3, Q  4, R  1,S  2
(d) Reason is true, but Assertion is false.
(b) P  2, Q  3, R  4,S  1
54. Assertion: The formula unit mass of zinc oxide is
(c) P  1, Q  2, R  3,S  4
97 u.
Reason: The formula unit mass is the sum of atomic (d) P  4, Q  1, R  2,S  3
masses of all atoms present in the formula unit of the 58. Match Column-I with Column-II
compound. Column-I Column-II
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason (A) Law of (P) CH4 has carbon and
is the correct explanation of Assertion. conservation of hydrogen in 3:1 mass ratio
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason mass
is not the correct explanation of Assertion. (B) Law of multiple (Q) S and O2 combine to form
(c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false proportion SO2 and SO3
(d) Reason is true, but Assertion is false. (C) Law of definite (R) In H2S and SO2 mass ratio
proportion of H and O w.r.t sulphur is
Section-C (Matrix Match Type Questions) 1:16, hence in H2O, mass
55. Match the List – I of compounds with their ratio of ratio of H and O is 1:8
atoms by mass given in List – II and choose the (D) Law of (S) 4.2 g MgCO3 gives 2.0 g
correct combination. reciprocal residue on heating.
List –I (Compound) List-II (Ratio of atoms proportion
by mass)
P. Water 1. 14 : 3 (a) A → S; B → Q; C → P; D → R
Q. Ammonia 2. 1 : 8 (b) A → S; B → Q; C → R; D → P
R. Carbon dioxide 3. 1 : 3 (c) A → Q; B → S; C → P; D → R
S. Sulphur dioxide 4. 3 : 8 (d) A → R; B → Q; C → P; D → S
(a) P  4, Q  3, R  2,S  1 59. Match the items given in column A with that given in
column B and choose the correct option given below:
(b) P  1, Q  2, R  3,S  4
Column-A Column-B
(c) P  3, Q  1, R  4,S  2
I. Substances taking part p. Balanced Equation
(d) P  2, Q  1, R  4,S  3 in a reaction
56. Match the List – I of compounds with their II. Number written q. Unbalanced equation
molecular mass given in List – II and choose the before a formula in the
correct option. chemical equation
List –I List–II III. CO  H 2  CH 3OH r. Stoichiometric
P. K2CO3 1. 62 u Coefficient
Q. Na2O 2. 138 u IV. s. Reactants
R. HNO3 3. 64 u CaO  H 2 O  Ca  OH 2
S. SO2 4. 63 u t. Products
(a) P  1, Q  4, R  3,S  2 (a) I  s, II  r, III  p, IV  q
(b) P  3, Q  2, R  4,S  1 (b) I  s, II  r, III  q, IV  p
(c) P  2, Q  1, R  4,S  3
(c) I  t, II  r, III  q, IV  p
(d) P  2, Q  3, R  1,S  4
(d) I  s, II  q, III  r, IV  p
109 ATOMS AND MOLECULES

60. The mass of few entities are mentioned in the Which of the following statements is/are correct?
column II. Match the two columns and mark the (a) The weight of CaCO3 in the original mixture is
correct option from the codes given below. 0.5g
Column-I Column-II (b) The weight of calcium in the original mixture is
p. 10 moles of Na2SO3 (i) 124.7 g 0.2g
q. 1.5 moles of Na (ii) 34.5 g (c) The weight percent of calcium in the original
23
r. 1.5  10 molecules (iii) 1260 g mixture is 40% Ca.
of NH3 (d) The weight percent of Ca in the original mixture is
s. 0.5 mole of CuSO4 (iv) 4.23 g 20% Ca.
(a) p-(ii), q-(iv), r-(i), s-(iii) Section-E (Integer Type Questions)
(b) p-(i), q-(ii), r-(iii), s-(iv)
(c) p-(iii), q-(ii), r-(iv), s-(i) 66. The molality of a 0.8 M solution of Na2CO3 is
(d) p-(iv), q-(i), r-(ii), s-(iii) m × 10–3. Find the value of m. (density of solution =
1.10 g mL–1), (Molecular weight of Na2CO3 = 106
Section -D (Multiple Choice Type Questions) g/mol)
67. Taking one mole of N2(g) and excess of H2(g), under
61. Which of the following pairs have same number of
suitable conditions, formation of NH3 is completed
molecules?
when NH3(g) has mole fraction of 0.5. The initial
(a) 2 g of O2, 4 g of SO2
moles of H2 are
(b) 2 g CO2, 2 g of N2O
68. The molality of 10.0% (W/W) aqueous NaCl is
(c) 224 ml O2 at STP, 0.01 moles of He
(M.W =58.5). Report the answer to nearest integer.
(d) 2 g oxygen and 2 g ozone
69. The molarity of HNO3 in a sample which has density
62. 10 g carbon reacts with 100 g Cl2 to form CCl4. The
1.4 g/mL and mass percentage of 63% is -----
correct statement is
(Molecular weight of HNO3 = 63).
(a) Carbon is the limiting reagent
70. A 10 mg effervescent tablet containing sodium
(b) Cl2 is the limiting reagent
bicarbonate and oxalic acid releases 0.25 mL of
(c) 107.8 g CCl4 is formed
CO2 at T = 298.15 K and P = 1 bar. If molar volume
(d) 0.833 moles of CCl4 are formed
of CO2 is 25.0 L under such condition, what is the
63. Select the INCORRECT statement(s)
percentage of sodium bicarbonate in each tablet ?
(a) Number of oxygen atoms are same in 1 g O2 and
[Molar mass of NaHCO3 = 84 g mol–1]
1g O3
71. The mass numbers of isotopes of an element are 10,
(b) 1 gm molecule of any substance contains equal
12, and 14 units. Their percentage abundance is 80,
number of atoms
15, and 5, respectively. What is the atomic weight of
(c) Reactant having minimum number of moles,
the element (to the nearest whole number)?
always acts as limiting reagent
72. The mass of ammonia in grams produced when 2.8
(d) During a chemical reaction total number of moles
kg of dinitrogen quantitatively reacts with 1 kg of
may increase or decrease or remain constant.
dihydrogen is ______.
64. Consider the hypothetical balanced reaction,
73. How much amount of CaCO3 in gram having
2A + 3B → 4C + 5D; in which A and B are reactants
percentage purity 50 per cent produces 0.56 litre of
and C and D are products. If one mole each of A and
CO2 at STP on heating?
B are reacted. Then
74. A chemist wants to prepare diborane by the reaction:
(a) 2.25 mole of D is formed
6 LiH + 8 BF3 → 6 LiBF4 + B2H6
(b) 1.67 mole of D is formed
If this reaction starts with 2.0 moles each of LiH &
(c) 0.33 mole of A are left after complete reaction
BF3. How many moles B2H6 can be prepared?
(d) 1.33 mole of C is formed
75. What volume of a liquid (in L) will contain 10 mole?
65. 1.0 g mixture of CaCO3(s) and glass beads liberate
If molar mass of liquid is 280 and its density is 1.4
0.22g of CO2 upon treatment with excess of HCl.
g/mL.
Glass does not react with HCl.
CaCO3 + 2HCl → CO2 + H2O + CaCl2
[MW of CaCO3 = 100, MW of CO2 = 44, Atomic
weight of Ca = 40]
ATOMS AND MOLECULES 110

EXERCISE – 2: Advanced Objective Questions


Single Choice Type Questions
7. Calculate the mass percentage of composition of
1. When carbon is heated in the presence of oxygen, it sulphur in calcium sulphate, CaSO4.
results in the formation of carbon monoxide. [Ca=40;S=32;O=16]
Chemical equation for this reaction is (a) 20 % (b) 23.5 %
C  O2  CO (c) 27 % (d) 29 %
Rohan multiply C on reactant side and CO on 8. Mole fraction of glycerin, (C6H12O6) in a solution
product side by 2 and get the following equation, containing 36 g of water and 46 g of glycerin?
2C  O2  2CO (Molecular mass of glycerin = 92)
He did so to fulfil the condition of (a) 0.20 (b) 0.36
(a) Dalton’s atomic theory (c) 0.40 (d) 0.46
(b) Law of constant composition 9. A sample of sulphuric acid is 98%H2SO4 by mass
(c) Law of multiple proportions (density =1.10gmL−1). Calculate molarity of this
(d) Law of conservation of mass solution.
2. Some of the statements related to valency are given (a) 9 (b) 10
below. (c) 11 (d) 12
I. It is the combining capacity of an element. 10. In the final answer of the expression
II. It is always a whole number with no charge.  29.2  20.2 1.79 105 
III. It is equal to the number of valence electrons in 1.37
case of sodium, magnesium and aluminum. The number of significant figures would be:
IV. For non-metals, Valency = 8 - valence electrons (a) One (b) Two
The correct statement (s) is/are (c) Three (d) Four
(a) I, II and III (b) III and IV 11. How many significant figures are there in each of the
(c) Only I (d) All of the above following numbers?
3. What is the empirical formula of the compound I. 6.005
whose molecular formula is P4O10? II. 8000
(a) PO (b) P2O5 III. 0.0025
(c) PO2 (d) P8O20 IV. Sum of: 18.5 + 0.4235
4. Which one of the following pairs of gases contains V. Product of: 14 × 6.345
the same number of molecules?
18.567
(a) 16g of O2 and14g of N 2 VI.
8.1 2 
(b) 8g of O 2 and 22g of CO2
(a) Four, four, four, two, three, two
(c) 28g of N 2 and 22g of CO2
(b) Four, one, two, three, two, two
(d) 32g of O 2 and 32g of N 2
(c) Four, one, two, three, three, three
5. Calculate the normality of a solution containing 0.5 g
(d) Two, one, two, four, two, three
of NaOH dissolved in 500cm3
12. 2.76 g of silver carbonate on being strongly heated
(a) 0.05 N (b) 0.5 N
yield a residue weighing
(c) 0.25 N (d) 0.025 N
(a) 2.16 g (b) 2.48 g
6. A sample of phosphorus trichloride (PCl3) contains
(c) 2.64 g (d) 2.32 g
1.4 moles of the substance. How many atoms are
13. Molarity of liquid HCl with density equal to 1.17 g /
there in the sample?
cc is
(a) 4 (b) 8.4  10 23
(a) 36.5 (b) 18.25
(c) 3.36  10 24 (d) 5.6 (c) 32.05 (d) 4.65
111 ATOMS AND MOLECULES

14. 250 ml of a sodium carbonate solution contains 2.65 22. Arrange the following (I to IV) in the order of
grams of Na2CO3. If 10 ml of this solution is diluted increasing masses.
to one litre, what is the concentration of the resultant I. 0.5 mole of O3
solution (mol. wt. of Na2CO3 = 106) II. 3.01 × 1023 molecules of O2
(a) 0.1 M (b) 0.001 M III. 5.6 L of CO2 at STP
(c) 0.01 M (d) 10−4 M IV. 0.5 g atom of oxygen
15. What volume of NH3 gas at STP would be needed to Choose the correct option
prepare 100ml of 2.5 molal (2.5m) ammonium (a) IV < III < II < I (b) II < I < III < IV
hydroxide solution (c) II = I < III < IV (d) I < III < IV < II
(a) 0.056 litres (b) 0.56 litres 23. The maximum amount of O2(g)consumed per gram
(c) 5.6 litres (d) 11.2 litres of reactant is for the reaction: (Given atomic mass:
16. What volume of oxygen at STP is required to effect Fe = 56, O = 16, Mg = 24, P = 31, C = 12, H = 1)
complete combustion of 200cm3 of acetylene? (a) 4Fe  s   3O2  g   2Fe2 O3  s 
(a) 150 cm3 (b) 250 cm3
3 (b) P4  s   5O2  g   P4 O10  s 
(c) 350 cm (d) 500 cm3
17. What volume of carbon dioxide measured at STP (c) C3 H8  g   5O2  g   3CO2  g   4H 2 O  l 
would be obtained by treating 10g of pure marble
(d) 2Mg  s   O2  g   2MgO  s 
with dilute hydrochloric acid?
(a) 240 cm3 (b) 2240 cm3 24. Assuming fully decomposed, the volume of
(c) 22200 cm 3
(d) 22240 cm3 CO2 released at STP on heating 9.85 g of
18. Density of 3 M Na2CO3 solution in water is 1.2 g BaCO3 (atomic mass, Ba = 137) will be
mL–1. The percentage by weight of Na2CO3 is (a) 1.12 L (b) 0.84 L
(a) 26.5 (b) 16.5 (c) 2.24 L (d) 4.06 L
(c) 6.25 (d) 5.23 25. 150 mL 0.08 M MgCl2 is added to 50 mL 0.4 M
19. An iodized salt contains 0.5% of NaI. A person AgNO3 solution. What is weight of precipitate
consumes 3 gm of salt everyday. The number of obtained?(molar mass of silver = 108 g/mol)
iodide ions going into his body everyday is (a) 1.722g (b) 3.44g
(a) 104 (b) 6.02  10 4 (c) 1.435g (d) 2.87g

(c) 6.02  1019 (d) 6.02  10 23


20. When a metal is burnt, its mass is increased by 24
percent. The equivalent mass of the metal will be:
(a) 25 (b) 24
(c) 33.3 (d) 76
21. If 0.5 moles of BaCl2 are mixed with 0.2 moles of
Na3PO4, the maximum number of moles of
Ba3(PO4)2 that can be formed is
(a) 0.7 (b) 0.5
(c) 0.30 (d) 0.10
BIOLOGY
FUNDAMENTAL UNIT OF LIFE 113

01
FUNDAMENTAL UNIT OF LIFE
FUNDAMENTAL UNIT OF LIFE 114

EXERCISE – 1: Basic Objective Questions


Single Choice Type Questions
1. Unicellular microscopic organisms were first studied 12. Which of the following statements is not true regarding
by the cell wall?
(a) Robert Hooke (b) Priestley (a) Cell wall is made up of cellulose.
(c) Pasteur (d) Leeuwenhoek (b) Plant cell wall is a non-living structure.
2. Cell theory was modified by (c) Cell wall provides mechanical support to the cell.
(a) Schleiden and Schwann (b) Robert Hooke (d) Cell wall is semi-permeable.
(c) Leeuwenhoek (d) Rudolf Virchow 13. Which component is present in the cell wall of fungi?
3. According to cell theory (a) Cellulose (b) Hemicellulose
(a) New cells originated from the dead cells. (c) Chitin (d) Pectin
(b) All cell originates from pre-existing cells 14. According to the modern concept, cell membrane is
(c) Every organism starts its life as a multicellular form. (a) Solid (b) Quasi fluid
(d) Both (a) and (c) (c) Fluid (d) Solidified sheath
4. Cell theory is not applicable to 15. The lipid component of the cell membrane mainly
(a) Bacteria (b) Fungus consists of
(c) Algae (d) Virus (a) Triglycerides
5. Which of the following structures is not found in a (b) Phospholipids
prokaryotic cell? (c) Glycolipids
(a) Plasma membrane (b) Nuclear envelope (d) Mono and diglycerides
(c) Ribosome (d) Mesosome 16. Which of the following does best describe the structure
6. Which of these cells have a single chromosome? of the plasma membrane?
(a) Karyon (b) Eukaryotic cell (a) Protein sandwiched between two layers
(c) Prokaryotic cell (d) All of the above of phospholipid.
(b) Proteins embedded in two layers of phospholipid
7. Identify the statement that does not hold true for a
(c) A layer of protein coating a layer of phospholipid.
eukaryotic cell? (d) Phospholipids embedded in two layers of protein.
(a) Nuclear membrane is absent 17. Fill in the blanks.
(b) Membrane-bound organelles are present Proteins molecules present inside the lipid bilayer of
(c) Contain more than 1 linear chromosome. the cell membrane are known as_________.
(d) None of these (a) Intrinsic proteins (b) Extrinsic proteins
8. Prokaryotic cells are generally _____ and multiply (c) Integral proteins (d) Both (a) and (c)
_____ than the eukaryotic cells. 18. Mesosomes in prokaryotes does help in
(a) smaller, slower (b) larger, slower (a) Respiration (b) Secretion process
(c) smaller, faster (d) larger, faster (c) DNA replication (d) All of above
9. Golgi apparatus is absent in 19. Molecules are transported across the membrane against
(a) Higher plants their concentration gradient, i.e., from the lower to
(b) Yeast higher concentration. Such transport is called,
(c) Bacteria and blue green algae (a) Active transport (b) Passive transport
(d) Liver cells (c) Active transport (d) Osmosis
20. Normally, in the process of osmosis, the net flow of
10. When we observe a sample of onion peel and human
water molecules in or out of the cell depends upon
check under the microscope, which of the following differences in the:
organelle is present in onion cells but not in cheek (a) Concentration of water molecules inside and
cells? outside the cell.
(a) Cell wall (b) Nucleus (b) Concentration of enzymes on either side of the
(c) Plasma membrane (d) Cytoplasm cell membrane.
(c) Rate of molecular motion on either side of the
11. Plant cells differ from animal cells in having
cell membrane.
(a) Cell wall (b) Plastids (d) Rate of movement of insoluble molecules inside
(c) Large central vacuole (d) All of these the cell.
115 FUNDAMENTAL UNIT OF LIFE

21. If an animal cell is placed in hypertonic solution, what 31. Hydrolytic enzymes of lysosomes function at
happens to the cell? (a) Acidic pH (b) Alkaline pH
(a) Cell swells and burst (c) Neutral pH (d) Both b and c
(b) Shrinks from water loss 32. Lysosomes are ______ vesicular structures formed by
(c) Nothing happens the process of packaging in the _____.
(d) Solute moves in and out. (a) Membrane bound, Golgi apparatus
22. A plant cell will become turgid when placed in this (b) Non-membrane bound, Golgi apparatus
type of solution. (c) Membrane bound, ER
(a) Megatonic (b) Hypertonic (d) Non-membrane bound, ER
(c) Isotonic (d) Hypotonic 33. Tonoplast is a membrane, which surrounds
23. Plasmolysis in plant cells is defined as (a) Ribosome (b) Mitochondria
(a) Breaking of plasma membrane in the (c) Vacuole (d) Cytoplasm
hypotonic medium. 34. Which of the following cell organelles is responsible for
(b) Shrinkage of cytoplasm in hypertonic medium. extracting energy from carbohydrates to form ATP?
(c) Shrinkage of nucleoplasm. (a) Lysosome (b) Ribosome
(d) Breakdown of nuclear membrane. (c) Chloroplast (d) Mitochondrion
24. Which organelle is not a part of the 35. The infoldings in mitochondria are known as
endomembrane system? (a) Cristae (b) Matrix
(a) ER (b) Golgi complex (c) Cisternae (d) Thylakoids
(c) Lysosomes (d) Mitochondria 36. Which one of the following organelles is a membrane-
25. A series of membrane-enclosed channels studded with less organelle?
ribosomes is called (a) Golgi body (b) Ribosome
(a) Ribosomes (c) Endoplasmic reticulum (d) Chloroplast
(b) Golgi complex 37. Ribosomes are composed of
(c) Rough endoplasmic reticulum (a) RNA only
(d) Mitochondria. (b) Proteins only
26. A major site for synthesis of lipids is (c) RNA and proteins
(a) RER (b) SER (d) RNA, proteins, and DNA
(c) Symplast (d) Nucleoplasm 38. Protein synthesis machinery (ribosome) 70S consists of
27. SER and RER can be distinguished with its presence in (a) 50S and 30S subunits
(a) Protein synthesizing cells. (b) 50S and 40S subunits
(b) Protein and lipids synthesizing cells. (c) 40S and 30S subunits
(c) Carbohydrates and fat synthesizing cells (d) 50S and 20S subunits
(d) Lipid and protein-synthesizing cells 39. Ribosomes are present in prokaryotic and eukaryotic
28. The Golgi complex participates in cells except for_______.
(a) Respiration in bacteria (a) Human cheek cells
(b) Formation of secretory vesicles (b) Mammalian RBC’s
(c) Fatty acid breakdown (c) Mycoplasma
(d) Action of amino acid (d) Plasmodium
29. The Golgi complex plays a major role 40. Which of the following are functions of ribosomes?
(a) In trapping the light and transforming it (i) It helps in the manufacture of protein molecules.
into chemical energy (ii) It helps in the manufacture of enzymes.
(b) In digesting proteins and carbohydrates (iii) It helps in the manufacture of lipids.
(c) Synthesis of proteins and lipids (iv) It helps in the manufacture of starch molecules.
(d) In post-translational modification of proteins and (a) i and ii (b) ii and iii
glycosidation of lipids (c) iii and iv (d) i and iv
30. Which cell organelle is known as “Scavengers of 41. Thylakoids occur inside
the cells”? (a) Mitochondria
(a) Mitochondria (b) Lysosomes (b) Chloroplast
(c) Chloroplast (d) Golgi body (c) Golgi apparatus
(d) Endoplasmic reticulum
FUNDAMENTAL UNIT OF LIFE 116

42. Plastids differ from mitochondria on the basis of which (a) Cell division (b) Cell cycle
of the following features? (c) Karyokinesis (d) Cytokinesis
(a) Presence of two layers of membrane 53. A cell cycle includes
(b) Presence of ribosome (a) Interphase and M-phase/divisional phase
(c) Presence of thylakoids (b) Prophase, metaphase, anaphase and telophase
(d) Presence of DNA (c) G1, S and G2 phases
43. In chloroplasts, chlorophyll is present in the (d) Karyokinesis and cytokinesis
(a) Outer membrane (b) Inner membrane 54. DNA replication takes place in or DNA molecule of
(c) Thylakoids (d) Stroma each chromosome become double in
44. Which of the following are known as colorless (a) G1 phase (b) G2 phase
plastids? (c) S phase (d) Mitotic phase
(a) Leucoplast (b) Chromoplast 55. Centriole replicates during
(c) Chloroplast (d) None of the above (a) Interphase (b) Early prophase
45. Which of these is wrongly matched? (c) Late prophase (d) Late telophase
(a) Chloroplasts — Chlorophyll 56. Normal cellular activities, such as protein synthesis
(b) Elaioplasts — Starch occur primarily during
(c) Amyloplasts — Carbohydrates (a) Interphase (b) Anaphase
(d) Aleuroplasts — Proteins (c) Metaphase (d) Prophase
46. Which of the following is true? 57. Phase of cell that occurs between M (mitotis phase)
(a) Both mitochondria and chloroplast provide energy to and S phase
cells in the same way. (a) Gap 1/G1, phase (b) Gap 2/G2, phase
(b) Both mitochondria and chloroplast have more than (c) Synthesis/S phase (d) M phase
one membrane. 58. In the somatic cell cycle
(c) Pigment chlorophyll is present in chloroplast I. A short interphase is followed by a long mitotic phase
and leucoplast II. Interphase consists of three phases (G1, S, and G2)
(d) Chloroplast is present in animal cells but absent in III. DNA replication takes place in S-phase
plant cells. Which of the following option is correct?
47. A chromosome having sub-terminal centromere (a) II only (b) III only
is called. (c) I, II, and III (d) II and III
(a) Telocentric (b) Acrocentric 59. Fully differentiated cells which do not divide are
(c) Metacentric (d) Sub-metacentric supposed to be in
48. Give an example of a human cell that lacks a nucleus? (a) G1-phase (b) G2-phase
(a) Leucocytes (b) Red blood cells (c) S phase (d) G0-phase
(c) Liver cells (d) None of above 60. After mitosis, the number of chromosomes in the daughter
49. Protoplasm found inside the nucleus is known as cells shall be
(a) Nucleoplasm (b) Amyloplast (a) One-fourth of parent cell
(c) Elaioplast (d) Cytoplasm (b) One half of parent cell
50. The nucleoplasm is continuous with the cytoplasm of a (c) Twice of the parent cell
cell through (d) Same as the parent cell
(a) Centriole 61. What is the proper sequence in mitosis?
(b) Endoplasmic reticulum (a) Metaphase, telophase, prophase, and anaphase
(c) Nuclear pores (b) Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase
(d) Golgi apparatus. (c) Prophase, metaphase, telophase, and anaphase
51. Nuclear membrane is continuous with (d) Telophase, anaphase, metaphase, and prophase
(a) Endoplasmic reticulum 62. Which cellular structure always disappears
(b) Lysosome during mitosis?
(c) Cell membrane (a) Cell wall (b) Mitochondria
(c) Nuclear membrane (d) All the above
(d) Golgi bodies
63. The centriole begins to move towards opposite poles of
52. The sequence of events by which a cell duplicates its the cell in
genome, synthesizes the other constituents of cells, and (a) Prophase (b) Metaphase
eventually divides into two daughter cells is called (c) Anaphase (d) Telophase
117 FUNDAMENTAL UNIT OF LIFE

64. Separation of daughter chromosome takes place at 69. Meiosis I is


(a) Telophase (b) Metaphase (a) Multiplication division
(c) Anaphase (d) Prophase (b) Equational division
65. Cytokinesis in plants occurs due to formation of (c) Disjunctional division
______ while animal cytokinesis occurs due to (d) Reductional division
________. 70. Prophase is longer in
(a) Cell plate, microfilament (a) Mitosis (b) Meiosis
(b) Constriction of cytoplasm, cell plate (c) Equal in both (d) Amitosis
(c) Cell plate, constriction of cytoplasm 71. Recombination of genes occur at
(d) Microfilament, constriction of cytoplasm (a) Prophase in mitosis
66. Which of the following is a function of mitotic cell (b) Prophase I in meiosis
division in animals? (c) Prophase II in meiosis
(a) Production of gametes (d) Metaphase II in meiosis
(b) Growth 72. In which of the following stages, the chromosome
(c) Repair of damaged organs condensed to form a compact structure?
(d) Both (b) and (c) (a) Leptotene (b) Zygotene
67. Meiosis consists of (c) Pachytene (d) Diplotene
(a) Two cell divisions without any DNA replication 73. Four chromatids and two centromeres which are
(b) Two cell divisions in which chromosome number homologous occurs in
is reduced to half (a) Zygotene (b) Diplotene
(c) Two cell divisions with two rounds of (c) Diakinesis (d) Pachytene
chromosome replication 74. Separation of homologous chromosomes takes place
(d) A single-cell division with chromosome replication in ___________ of meiosis.
68. Meiosis occurs in (a) Zygotene (b) Leptotene
(a) Haploid cells (c) Diakinesis (d) Diplotene
(b) Mostly haploid cells but occasionally diploid 75. At what phase of meiosis are there two cells, each
(c) Diploid cells with sister chromatids aligned at the spindle equator?
(d) Mostly diploid cells but occasionally haploid cells (a) Anaphase II (b) Metaphase II
(c) Metaphase I (d) Anaphase I
FUNDAMENTAL UNIT OF LIFE 120

20. A cell in prophase of mitosis can be distinguished from 24. Choose the correctly matched pairs and the
a cell in prophase-I of meiosis by correct option.
(a) The presence of only half as many chromosomes in the meiotic cell(a) Leptotene-Chromosomes become invisible
(b) The formation of tetrads in the meiotic cell (b) Zygotene-Pairing of homologous chromosomes
(c) The presence of twice as many chromosomes in the meiotic cell (c) Pachytene-Dissolution of the synaptonemal
(d) None of the above complex takes place
21. The key features of metaphase are (d) Diplotene-Bivalent chromosomes appear as tetrads
(a) Spindle fibers attach to kinetochores (e) Diakinesis-Terminalisation of chiasmata takes place
of chromosomes (a) a, b correct (b) a, d correct
(b) Chromosomes are moved to the spindle equator and (c) b, e correct (d) b, c correct
get aligned along the metaphase plate 25. Arrange the following events of meiosis in the correct
(c) Splitting of centromere sequence.
(d) Both (a) and (b) (i) Crossing over
22. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct (ii) Synapsis
option from the codes given below. (iii) Terminalisation of chiasmata
(iv) Disappearance of nucleolus
Column-I Column-II (a) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
(b) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
A. Disintegration of (i) Anaphase
(c) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
nuclear membrane
(d) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
B. Appearance of nucleolus (ii) Prophase

C. Splitting of centromere (iii) Telophase

D. Replication of DNA (iv) S-phase

(a) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(iv)


(b) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)
(c) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iv)
(d) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i)
23. Which is not characteristic of meiosis?
(a) Two stages of DNA replication, first before meiosis
I and second before meiosis II
(b) Recombination and crossing over
(c) Sister chromatids separate during anaphase II
(d) Nuclear membrane disappears towards the end
of prophase
TISSUES 121

02
TISSUES
TISSUES 122

EXERCISE – 1: Basic Objective Questions


Single Choice Type Questions
1. The tissue is 10. Which of these is not a function that
(a) Group of dissimilar cells that perform the same parenchyma performs?
function but have a different origin (a) Stores nutrients and food
(b) Group of similar cells that perform a common (b) Aids in regeneration, healing, and repairs wounds
function and have a common origin (c) Provides foundation and support
(c) Group of similar cells that perform the same (d) None of these
function but have a different origin 11. Chloroplast containing cell is
(d) Group of dissimilar cells that perform the same (a) Collenchyma, parenchyma
function and have a common origin. (b) Collenchyma and sclerenchyma
2. Tissues are classified into two main groups, namely, (c) Parenchyma and sclerenchyma
meristematic and permanent tissues based on- (d) Chlorenchyma and parenchyma
(a) Position and location 12. Which tissue is found in aquatic plants which encloses
(b) Function, position, and location air cavities?
(c) Whether the cells are capable of dividing or not (a) Collenchyma (b) Aerenchyma
(d) Structure, function, position, and location (c) Idioblast (d) Sclerenchyma
3. A tissue whose cells are capable of dividing and re- 13. Living mechanical tissue is __________.
dividing is called (a) Parenchyma (b) Collenchyma
(a) Complex tissue (b) Connective tissue (c) Sclerenchyma (d) Chlorenchyma
(c) Permanent tissue (d) Meristematic tissue 14. Collenchyma are characterized by
4. Which of the following is a type of merismatic tissue? (a) Cells with deposits of cellulose and pectin all over
(a) Intercalary meristem (b) Apical meristem the wall.
(c) Lateral meristem (d) All of above (b) Cells with deposits of cellulose and starch at
5. Which meristem is present at the base of the leaves or the corners
internodes on twigs? (c) Cells with thickening at the corners
(a) Apical meristem (b) Cambium (d) Cells with thickening all over the wall
(c) Intercalary meristem (d) Epidermis 15. A tissue that makes up the husk of coconut and whose
6. Which of the following meristem helps in increasing cells are dead, elongated, and lignified is,
the width of root and stem?
(a) Chlorenchyma (b) Collenchyma
(a) Lateral meristem/cambium
(b) Apical meristem (c) Parenchyma (d) Sclerenchyma
(c) Intercalary meristem 16. Which of the following statement regarding
(d) Both (a) and (b) sclerenchyma is correct?
7. Permanent tissue is characterized by cells that (a) Living tissue with deposition of lignin
(a) Lose the capacity to divide (b) Intercellular spaces are present
(b) Attain permanent shape to perform (c) Sclerenchyma is of two types- fibres and sclereids
specific functions. (d) Prominent protoplasm
(c) Derived from meristematic tissues. 17. Sclerenchyma provides
(d) All of above (a) Help in the storage of materials
8. Name the tissue where cells are living, thin-walled, (b) Mechanical support
isodiametric with intercellular space. (c) Helps in conduction
(a) Prosenchyma (b) Aerenchyma
(d) Helps in assimilation
(c) Parenchyma (d) Collenchyma
9. Parenchyma differs from meristematic cells in its 18. What is common between sclerenchyma
(a) Cell wall composition and collenchyma?
(b) Uneven thickening in cell wall (a) Material transport
(c) Having cytoplasm and nucleus (b) Conduction of water and minerals
(d) Larger size, well-developed vacuole, and (c) Providing buoyancy
peripheral cytosol (d) Providing support
123 TISSUES

19. The main difference between parenchyma, 28. Phloem consists of


collenchyma, and sclerenchyma is that (a) Vessels, sieve tube cells, phloem parenchyma,
(a) Parenchyma is involved in photosynthesis phloem fibres
and storage (b) Sieve tube cells, companion cells, phloem
(b) Collenchyma is involved in mechanical support and parenchyma, phloem fibres
protection from breakage. (c) Vessels, tracheids, phloem parenchyma,
(c) Sclerenchyma is involved in mechanical support phloem fibres
and protects the plant from environmental forces. (d) Vessels, tracheids, sieve tube cells, companion
(d) All of these cells.
20. Cork is impervious to water due to the presence of 29. Companion cells are
________ in its cell wall. (a) Sclerenchymatous in nature
(a) Silica (b) CaCO3 (b) Parenchymatous in nature
(c) Suberin (d) Cuticle (c) Meant for conduction of food
21. The xylem in plants is responsible for (d) None of the above
(a) Transport of water 30. The dead element in the phloem is
(b) Transport of food (a) Companion cells (b) Phloem fibres
(c) Transport of amino acids (c) Phloem parenchyma (d) Sieve tube.
(d) Transport of oxygen 31. Companion cells are closely associated with
22. Xylem consists of (a) Sieve elements (b) Vessel elements
(a) Tracheids, vessels, and companion cells (c) Trichomes (d) Guard cells
(b) Tracheids, fibers, vessels, and parenchyma 32. Sieve tube is characterized by
(c) Tracheids, fibers, and parenchyma (a) Presence of lignin
(d) Tracheids, companion cells, sieve cells, and vessels (b) Absence of cytoplasm
23. Which is the living component of xylem? (c) Presence of pectin
(a) Tracheids (d) Absence of nucleus
(b) Xylem fibre 33. This one is the characteristic of epithelial tissue
(c) Xylem parenchyma (a) Tissues are highly vascularized
(d) Trachea (b) These cells never produce glands
24. Which of the following are involved in (c) Cells are compactly packed with each other
water conduction? (d) Large intercellular spaces are seen between cells
(a) Xylem and phloem 34. Consider the following statements.
(b) Tracheids and vessels I. Simple epithelium is composed of a single layer
(c) Parenchyma and Sclerenchyma of cells.
(d) Xylem fibres and bast fibres II. It functions as a lining for body cavities, tubes,
25. Water conducting elements of gymnosperms and and ducts.
primitive angiosperms are Choose the correct option.
(a) Vessels (a) I only (b) II only
(b) Vessel elements
(c) I and II both (d) None of these
(c) Tracheids
(d) Fibrotracheids 35. Normal wear and tear of cells in simple epithelia is
26. Read the following statements about xylem fibres. negligible because
Which one of the following is correct? (a) Epithelial cells are very tough
(a) Xylem fibres are non-living cells with lignin (b) Epithelial cells are closely fitted like tiles of a
thickened on the walls. mosaic
(b) Non-tapering ends. (c) Epithelial cells are kept moist due to the material
(c) Parenchymatous in nature that diffuses through them.
(d) All of above (d) Epithelial cell is protective in function.
27. _______ transports product of photosynthesis from the 36. Pavement epithelium is another name for
leaves where they are synthesized to other parts of (a) Cuboidal epithelium
the plant. (b) Ciliated epithelium
(a) Xylem (b) Lymph (c) Simple squamous epithelium
(c) Nephrons (d) Phloem (d) Stratified epithelium
TISSUES 124

37. The endothelium of blood vessel is composed of 47. Which cells have the capability to form glandular
(a) Cuboidal epithelium epithelium in which they get specialized
(b) Squamous epithelium for secretion of substances like mucus, saliva?
(c) Columnar epithelium (a) Columnar and cuboidal cells
(d) Ciliated epithelium (b) Squamous cells
38. Urethra, vagina, and oesophagus have a common inner (c) Compound epithelium cells
lining of (d) Ciliated epithelial cells
(a) Squamous epithelium 48. Which of the following is not a function of
(b) Ciliated epithelium connective tissues?
(c) Columnar epithelium (a) Help in the binding of one structure to another.
(d) Stratified squamous epithelium (b) Help in the storage of proteins.
39. Simple cuboidal epithelium is present in which of the (c) Forms a supporting framework of cartilage and
following structures? bone in the body
(a) Salivary ducts (d) Help in the repair of injured tissues.
(b) Pancreatic ducts, bronchioles 49. Major protein of connective tissue is
(c) Thyroid follicles, tubular part of nephron (a) Melanin (b) Collagen
(d) Both (a) and (c) (c) Keratin (d) Myosin
40. The tissue present in the linings of the kidney tubules 50. Collagen fibers are secreted by
and the ducts of the salivary gland is (a) Fibroblasts (b) Mast cells
(a) Squamous epithelial tissue (c) Histiocytes (d) Macrophages
(b) Glandular epithelium 51. In all connective tissues except ____, the cells secrete
(c) Cuboidal epithelium fibers of structural proteins called collagen or elastin.
(d) Columnar epithelium (a) Blood (b) Bone
41. The lining of intestine is (c) Cartilage (d) Areolar tissue
(a) Keratinized (b) Brush bordered 52. Fibroblast, macrophages, and mast cells are present in
(c) Ciliated (d) None of these (a) Adipose tissue
42. Which tissue possesses cells that have nuclei at the (b) Glandular epithelium
base and the free surface has microvilli? (c) Cartilage tissue
(a) Squamous epithelium (d) Areolar tissue
(b) Cuboidal epithelium 53. What type of tissue is present in the blubber of whales?
(c) Columnar epithelium (a) Areolar tissue (b) Cartilage
(d) Unicellular glandular epithelium (c) Epithelial tissue (d) Adipose tissue
43. Which type of epithelium is involved in a function to 54. Tendons and ligaments are types of
move particles or mucus in specific direction? (a) Muscular tissue
(a) Columnar epithelium (b) Ciliated epithelium (b) Epithelial tissue
(c) Squamous epithelium (d) Cuboidal epithelium (c) Nervous tissue
44. Where is the ciliated epithelium tissue found? (d) Connective tissue
(a) Ureter (b) Liver duct 55. Which of the following tissues connects bone
(c) Fallopian tube (d) Bile duct and muscle?
45. The inner surface of bronchi and bronchioles are (a) Ligament (b) Cartilage
lined by (c) Areolar tissue (d) Tendon
(a) Squamous epithelium 56. The attachment of one bone to another is due to
(b) Ciliated epithelium
(c) Columnar epithelium (a) Tendons (b) Ligaments
(d) Cubical epithelium (c) Cartilage (d) Osteocytes
46. Which of the following statements about glandular
epithelium is incorrect? 57. Choose the correctly matched pair.
(a) Glandular epithelium is a modification of (a) Cartilage – Loose connective tissue
columnar epithelium. (b) Tendon – Specialized connective tissue
(b) It is present in the intestine and glands.
(c) Adipose tissue – Dense connective tissue
(c) These are specialized for the secretion of chemicals.
(d) It does not form multicellular glands. (d) Areolar tissue – Loose connective tissue
125 TISSUES

58. Bone is 67. While doing work and running, you move your organs
(a) Epithelium tissue (b) Muscular tissue like hands, legs, etc.
(c) Connective tissue (d) Nervous tissue Which among the following is correct?
59. Cartilage is present in (a) Smooth muscles contract and pull the ligament to
(a) Tip of nose (b) Ear move the bones
(c) Trachea (d) All the above (b) Smooth muscles contract and pull the tendons to
60. The composition of lymph can be expressed as move the bones
(a) Plasma, WBC’s, devoid of RBC’s and platelets (c) Skeletal muscles contract and pull the ligament to
(b) Plasma, WBC’s, RBC’s and platelets move the bones
(c) Plasma, WBC’s, platelets and devoid of RBC’s (d) Skeletal muscles contract and pull the tendon to
(d) Plasma, platelets, devoid of RBC’s and WBC’s move the bones
61. Identify the functions of blood from the following. 68. In a practical laboratory, a student while observing the
(i) Transport of nutrients slide of tissue with the help of a microscope, found a
(ii) Regulation of body temperature bunch of cylindrical-shaped cells having
(iii) Exchange of gases interconnections belonging to the category of
(iv) Protection against infections (a) Adipose tissue (b) Heart muscle
(a) i, iv (b) ii, iii (c) Smooth muscle (d) Skeletal muscle
(c) iii, iv (d) i, ii, iii, iv 69. Which of the following tissue exerts the greatest
62. The outer covering and cytoplasm of muscle fibres are control over the body’s responsiveness to
known as________ and _________ respectively. changing conditions?
(a) Sarcolemma; sarcoplasm (a) Epithelial tissue (b) Connective tissue
(b) Sarcoplasm; sarcolemma (c) Muscular tissue (d) Neural tissue
(c) Sarcoplasm; myofibrils 70. Neurons are classified based on
(d) Myofibrils; sarcolemma (a) Number of nuclei present
63. Muscles contains special proteins called ________ that (b) Number of processes arising from the cell body
help in muscle movement. (c) Number of dendrites present
(a) Receptor protein (d) Number of axons present
(b) Enzymes 71. Which of the following structure is present in nerve
(c) Nucleoprotein (DNA, RNA) fibres, but absent in muscle fibres?
(d) Contractile proteins (actin and myosin) (a) Myofibrils (b) Dendrites
64. Which muscles act involuntary? (c) Sarcolemma (d) Striations
(i) Striated muscles 72. Schwann cells and Node of Ranvier are found in
(ii) Smooth muscles (a) Nervous tissue (b) Osteoblast
(iii) Cardiac muscles (c) Chondrioblast (d) Gland cells
(iv) Skeletal muscles 73. Which part of the neuron triggers events that may
(a) (i) and (ii) only cause stimulation or inhibition of adjacent neurons and
(b) (ii) and (iii) only other cells?
(c) (iii) and (iv) (a) Nucleus (b) Cell body
(d) (i) and (iv) only (c) Neuron's endings (d) Axon
65. Muscles of the intestine and blood vessels are 74. Nerve cells do not divide because they do not have
(a) Involuntary and smooth (a) Mitochondria
(b) Voluntary and smooth (b) Endoplasmic reticulum
(c) Involuntary and striated (c) Centrosome
(d) Voluntary and striated (d) Nucleus
66. Striations appear in striped muscles due to 75. Axons serve to
(a) Presence of alternate light and dark bands (a) Take away impulse from cytons
(b) Dispersion of pigments (b) Bring impulse to cytons
(c) Presence of intercalated disc (c) Bring blood to heart
(d) Occurrence of actin strands (d) None of the above
130 DIVERSITY IN LIVING ORGANISMS

03
DIVERSITY IN LIVING ORGANISMS
131 DIVERSITY IN LIVING ORGANISMS

EXERCISE – 1: Basic Objective Questions


Single Choice Type Questions
11. ________ is the most common method of reproduction
1. The two kingdom classification system was proposed in bacteria.
by _________. (a) Binary fission
(a) Linnaeus (b) Endospore formation
(b) Ernst Haeckel (c) Conjugation
(c) R.H Whittaker (d) Sexual reproduction
(d) Alexander Fleming 12. All eukaryotic unicellular organisms belong to
2. The five-kingdom classification was proposed by (a) Monera (b) Protista
(a) R. H. Whittaker (b) C. Linnaeus (c) Fungi (d) Bacteria
(c) A. Rosberg (d) Virchow 13. Protists are primarily ______ in nature.
3. Name the two kingdoms that are constant in two (a) Halophiles (b) Aquatic
kingdoms and five-kingdom classification systems. (c) Terrestrial (d) Parasitic
(a) Plantae and Animalia 14. In the five-kingdom classification, Euglena is placed in
(b) Monera and Protista (a) Plantae (b) Animalia
(c) Protista and Fungi (c) Protista (d) Monera
(d) Monera and Fungi 15. Locomotion in Paramecium occurs with help
4. The virus envelope is known as of_______.
(a) Capsid (b) Virion (a) Flagella (b) Pilia
(c) Nucleoprotein (d) Core (c) Cilia (d) None of above
5. Viruses can multiply in 16. Main component of the cell wall of Fungi is
(a) Host cell or living cell (a) Cellulose (b) Pectin
(b) Detritus (c) Chitin (d) Dextrin
(c) Culture media on agar 17. Fungi grow in
(d) All of the above (a) Warm and swampy places
6. Viruses are non-cellular organisms but replicate (b) Warm and salty places
themselves once they infect the host cell. To which of (c) Warm and humid places
the following kingdoms do viruses belong? (d) Cold and moist places
(a) Monera (b) Protista 18. The network of hyphae is known as
(c) Fungi (d) None of these (a) Mycelium (b) Mycetes
7. Lichen is an association between (c) Rhizinae (d) Hyphae
(a) Fungi and bryophytes 19. Some hyphae are continuous tubes filled with
(b) Fungi and algae multinucleated cytoplasm. These are called
(c) Algae and pteridophyte ___________.
(d) Algae and bacteria (a) Syncytial hyphae
8. Who prepares food in lichens? (b) Dikaryon
(a) Mycobiont (b) Fungi (c) Mycelium
(c) Phycobiont (d) All of the above (d) Coenocytic hyphae
9. Sole members of kingdom Monera are 20. Vegetative reproduction in fungi takes place by
(a) Bacteria (b) Fungi (a) Fragmentation
(c) Viruses (d) Protozoans (b) Budding
10. Identify the incorrect statement regarding bacteria? (c) Fission
(a) Bacteria are the most abundant microorganisms (d) All of the above
(b) Bacteria live in extreme habitats where very few 21. Fungi form a symbiotic association with roots of
other life forms cannot survive higher plants known as
(c) Bacteria as a group show the most extensive (a) Lichen (b) Fern
metabolic diversity (c) Mycorrhiza (d) BGA
(d) They are obligate intracellular parasites
DIVERSITY IN LIVING ORGANISMS 132

22. Which is the basis of the division of kingdom fungi? 34. The transport of male gametes in bryophytes occurs
(a) Morphology of mycelium through
(b) Mode of spore formation (a) Wind (b) Water
(c) Fruiting bodies (c) Birds (d) Insects
(d) All of the above 35. Sporagium bearing leaves is known as_________.
23. Which of the following classes are included under (a) Sporangium (b) Sporophylls
kingdom Fungi? (c) Prothallus (d) None of above
(a) Phycomycetes, 36. Pteridophytes differ from bryophytes in possessing
(b) Basidiomycetes, Deuteromycetes (a) Independent gametophyte
(c) Ascomycetes (b) Well developed vascular system
(d) All the above (c) Archegonia
24. Fungi without sexual or perfect stages are classified as (d) Flagellate spermatozoids
(a) Phycomycetes 37. Phanerogams are__________
(b) Deuteromycetes (a) Seed bearing plants
(c) Dermatomycetes (b) Seedless plants
(d) Ascomycetes (c) Gymnosperms and angiosperms
25. Mushrooms, smut, rust are placed in (d) Bryophytes and gymnosperms.
(a) Ascomycetes 38. In which of the following groups would you place a
(b) Basidiomycetes plant, which produces naked seeds?
(c) Deuteromycetes (a) Fungi (b) Bryophytes
(d) Phycomycetes (c) Pteridophytes (d) Gymnosperm
26. Kingdom Plantae is classified into 39. Example of gymnosperms include______.
(a) Thallophyta, Bryophyta (a) Cycas (b) Pinus
(b) Pteridophyta. Gymnosperms (c) Maize (d) Both (a) and (b)
(c) Angiosperms 40. Angiosperms have dominated the land flora primarily
(d) All the above because of their
27. Most of the algae are (a) Ability to adapt to diverse habitats
(a) Aquatic (b) Terrestrial (b) Property of producing a large number of seeds
(c) Saprophytic (d) Parasitic (c) Nature of self-pollination
28. Which of the following examples of Thallophyta? (d) Domestication by man
(a) Chlamydomonas (b) Volvox 41. Find out the similarity between gymnosperms and
(c) Ulothrix (d) All of these angiosperms?
29. Plant which produces spores and embryos but lacks (a) Naked seeds
seeds and vascular tissue belongs to (b) Polyembryony
(a) Fungi (b) Pteridophytes (c) Double fertilization
(c) Bryophytes (d) Gymnosperm (d) Both have stem, leaves, and roots
30. Bryophytes include 42. Monocots differ from dicots in
(a) Liverworts and ferns (b) Mosses and ferns (a) Having one cotyledon
(c) Mosses and liverworts (d) All of these (b) Parallel venation
31. The female reproductive part of bryophytes is (c) Tap root system
(a) Antheridium (b) Oogonium (d) All the above
(c) Archegonium (d) Sporangium 43. Which of the following is taken into consideration for
32. Dominant, independent and haploid gametophyte is the classification of animals?
present in_______. (a) Level of organization (b) Symmetry
(a) Angiosperms (b) Pteridophyta (c) Coelom (d) All the above
(c) Gymnosperms (d) Bryophyta 44. The body can be divided into two identical halves by
33. Unique feature of bryophytes is that they multiple planes is known as_____.
(a) Produce spores (a) Radial symmetry
(b) Have sporophyte attached to the gametophyte (b) Asymmetry
(c) Lack roots (c) Bilateral symmetry
(d) Lack vascular tissues (d) None of above
DIVERSITY IN LIVING ORGANISMS 134

64. The most important distinctive character of chordate is 71. Which of the animal groups have oxygenated and
the presence of deoxygenated blood in the heart separately?
(a) Vertebral column (b) Hairy skin (a) Amphibians (b) Birds
(c) Notochord (d) All of these. (c) Reptiles (d) Fish
65. Post-anal tail is present in _________. 72. Out of the following, reptiles and birds differ in only
(a) Urochordata (b) Cephalochordata one, which is it:
(c) Vertebrata (d) All of these. (a) The skin possesses scales
66. Notochord occurs all through the length of body and (b) They lay eggs
throughout life in (c) Capacity of laying hard-shelled eggs
(a) Hemichordata (b) Urochordata (d) Regulation of the body temperature
(c) Cephalochordata (d) Vertebrata 73. Bats are classified as a mammal because
67. Which class of animals possesses a (a) It has hairs (b) It can fly
two-chambered heart? (c) It has pinna (d) It has testes
(a) Pisces (b) Amphibians 74. Which of the following groups of animals maintain
(c) Reptiles (d) Both (a) and (b) high and constant body temperature?
68. Chondrichthyes differs from Osteichthyes in (a) Reptiles and amphibians
(a) Cartilaginous endoskeleton (b) Amphibians and birds
(b) Two chambered heart (c) Birds and mammals
(c) Internal fertilization (d) Fishes and mammals
(d) Both (a) and (c) 75. Which one of the following characteristics is not
69. Common trait amongst amphibians and reptiles is shared by birds and mammals?
(a) Laying of eggs (b) Shelled eggs (a) Breathing using the lungs
(c) Gills (d) Scales (b) Viviparity
70. Characteristics features of Aves are (c) Warm-blooded nature
(a) Feathers, tympanum (d) Four chambered heart
(b) Two-chambered heart, viviparous
(c) Oviparous, pneumatic bones
(d) Viviparous, feathers, mammary glands
135 DIVERSITY IN LIVING ORGANISMS

EXERCISE – 2: Advanced Objective Questions


Single Choice Type Questions
5. Members of kingdom Protista are
1. Which of the following characters serve as the criteria I. primarily aquatic
for the five-kingdom system of classification as used II. do not have membrane-bound organelles
by R. H. Whittaker? III. are all ciliated or flagellated
(i) Cell structure and thallus organization IV. reproduce exclusively by asexual means
(ii) Mode of nutrition Choose the correct option.
(iii) Phylogenetic relationships (a) I, II, III, and IV (b) I only
(iv) Reproduction (c) II, III, and IV (d) IV only
Choose the correct option. 6. In fungi, heterotrophic nutrition maybe
(a) I, III and IV (b) II and IV I. Symbiotic
(c) I, III and IV (d) I, II, III and IV II. Parasitic
2. Read the following statements. III. Saprophytic
(I) Virus has a protein coat called capsid made of small Choose the correct option.
subunit called capsomere (a) II and III only (b) I only
(II) The core has the genetic material either RNA or (c) I and III only (d) I, II, and III
DNA or both 7. How many of the following statements regarding fungi
(III) The capsomers are arranged in helical or
icosahedral forms are true?
(IV) Virus can infect any type of organism. I. Asexual reproduction is common by the formation
How many statements are incorrect? Choose the of spores.
correct option.
II.Their bodies consist of hyphae that may be
(a) Two (b) One
(c) Three (d) Four interconnected to form mycelium
3. Identify the incorrect statement regarding eubacteria as III. They secrete digestive enzymes into organic matter
a group.
and then absorb the products of the digestion
(a) They exhibit maximum metabolic diversity
(b) Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria play a great IV. Fungi can break down almost any
role in recycling nutrients like nitrogen, carbon-containing products
phosphorus, iron, and sulphur
V. Fungi do not enter symbiotic relationships.
(c) Heterotrophic bacteria are the most abundant
in nature (a) 2 (b) 3
(d) Bacteria reproduce mainly by fission but (c) 4 (d) 5
sometimes under favorable conditions, they 8. If you are asked to classify the various algae into
produce spores.
distinct groups, which of the following characters you
4. Consider the following regarding the reasons for the
should choose from the following statements?
fact that now Cyanobacteria are kept in Monera and
I. Nature of stored food materials in the cell
not
II. Structural organization of thallus
in Plantae.
III. Chemical composition of the cell wall
I. They are prokaryotes
IV. Types of pigments present in the cell
II. The cell wall of Cyanobacteria has peptidoglycan
Choose the correct option.
III. The can fix atmospheric nitrogen
(a) I and III only
The correct explanation would be:
(b) II only
(a) I and II only (b) I and III only
(c) I, II, and IV only
(c) II and III only (d) I, II, and III
(d) IV only
137 DIVERSITY IN LIVING ORGANISMS

18. In sponges, spongocoel is lined by 24. Select the correctly matched pair
(a) Choanocytes i. Amphibia - Live on both land and water
(b) Amoebocytes ii. Mammals - Cartilaginous notochord
(c) Pinacocytes iii. Chondrichthyes- Mammary glands
(d) Archaeocytes vi. Aves - Pneumatic bones
19. Select the incorrect statement about the Phylum (a) i, ii and iv (b) iii and iv
Aschelminthes, Platyhelminthes, and Annelida. (c) i and iv (d) ii and iv
(a) Alimentary canal is complete with well-developed 25. What is common in whales, bats, and rats?
muscular pharynx in Aschelminthes. (a) Absence of neck
(b) Flame cells are specialized cells that help in (b) Muscular diaphragm between thorax and abdomen
osmoregulation and excretion in Platyhelminthes. (c) 3-chambered heart
(c) In annelids, asexual reproduction occurs and (d) Absence of jaws
nephridia help in osmoregulation and excretion.
(d) Both (a) and (b)
20. In Mollusca, gills (feather-like) have the functions
(a) Respiratory and circulatory
(b) Circulatory and excretory
(c) Excretory and respiratory
(d) Excretory, respiratory and circulatory
21. Read the following statements.
I. Presence of chitinous exoskeleton and open
circulatory system in arthropods
II. Sexes are separate and show sexual dimorphism
in arthropods.
III. Presence of water vascular system and calcareous
endoskeleton in echinoderms
Choose the correct option.
(a) I only (b) II and III only
(c) I, II, and III(d) III only
22. Chordates differ from non-chordates in having
I. Notochord
II. Dorsal hollow nerve cord
III. Pharyngeal gill slits
Choose the correct option
(a) I and II (b) II and III
(c) I and III (d) I, II, and III
23. Match columns I and II, and choose the correct
combination from the options given.
Column I Column II
i Cyclostomates 1 Hemichordata
ii Aves 2 Urochordata
iii Balanoglossus 3 Agnatha
iv Osteichthyes 4 Pisces
v Osteichthyes 5 Tetrapoda
(a) i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4, v-5
(b) i-2, ii-3, iii-4, iv-1, v-5
(c) i-3, ii-1, iii-5, iv-2, v-4
(d) i-3, ii-5, iii-2, iv-1, v-4
ANSWER KEYS 138

ANSWER KEYS
139 ANSWER KEYS

MATHEMATICS
Basics

EXERCISE-1: Basic Objective Questions

1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (a)
11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (b)
21. (d) 22. (a) 23. (d) 24. (a) 25. (d) 26. (d) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (d) 30. (b)
31. (c) 32. (a) 33. (c) 34. (b) 35. (c) 36. (d) 37. (d) 38. (a) 39. (d) 40. (a)
41. (d) 42. (a) 43. (c) 44. (c) 45. (c) 46. (b) 47. (c) 48. (b) 49. (c) 50. (d)
51. (a) 52. (a) 53. (d) 54. (b) 55. (a) 56. (c) 57. (c) 58. (b) 59. (c) 60. (d)
61. (c) 62. (c) 63. (b) 64. (c) 65. (c) 66. (b),(c) 67. (a),(d) 68. (b),(c) 69. (b),(c) 70. (b),(c)
71. (c),(d) 72. (b),(d) 73. (b),(c) 74. (a) 75. (a) 76. (c) 77. (a) 78. (d) 79. (c) 80. (d)
81. (c) 82. (d) 83. (a) 84. (a) 85. (a) 86. (c) 87. (b) 88. (c) 89. (d) 90. (4.00)
91. (2.00) 92. (7.00) 93. (1.00) 94. (1.00) 95. (3.00)

EXERCISE-2: Advanced Objective Questions


1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (b)
11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (d) 19. (b) 20. (c)
21. (d) 22. (d) 23. (d) 24. (b) 25. (c) 26. (a) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (d)
31. (b) 32. (b) 33. (b) 34. (d) 35. (c)

Number System
EXERCISE-1: Basic Objective Questions
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (d)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (a)
21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (a) 24. (a) 25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (b) 30. (b)
31. (a) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (a) 35. (b) 36. (a) 37. (a) 38. (b) 39. (b) 40. (c)
41. (d) 42. (b) 43. (a) 44. (d) 45. (d) 46. (b) 47. (d) 48. (d) 49. (b) 50. (c)
51. (b) 52. (b) 53. (c) 54. (b) 55. (a) 56. (b) 57. (c) 58. (d) 59. (d) 60. (a)
61. (a) 62. (d) 63. (b) 64. (a) 65. (c) 66. (c) 67. (d) 68. (a) 69. (a) 70. (c)
71. (b) 72. (c) 73. (c) 74. (b) 75. (d) 76. (d) 77. 1.00 78. 1.00 79. 1.00 80. 5.00
81. 4.00 82. 5.00 83. 1.00 84. 6.00 85. 7.00

EXERCISE-2: Advanced Objective Questions


1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (b)
11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (c) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (b)
21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (c) 24. (b) 25. (a)
ANSWER KEYS 140

Polynomial
EXERCISE-1: Basic Objective Questions
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (b)
11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (d)
21. (d) 22. (b) 23. (d) 24. (a) 25. (b) 26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (d)
31. (b) 32. (d) 33. (a) 34. (b) 35. (a) 36. (c) 37. (b) 38. (b) 39. (b) 40. (a)
41. (d) 42. (b) 43. (b) 44. (a) 45. (c) 46. (c) 47. (c) 48. (c) 49. (d) 50. (a)
51. 7.00 52. 2.00 53. 961.00 54. 1.00 55. 28.00 56. 81.00 57. 8.00 58. 6.00 59. 408.00 60. 5.00
61. 5.00 62. 3.00 63. 2.00 64. (a), (b) 65. (a), (c) 66. (c), (d) 67. (a), (c) 68. (a), (d) 69. (c), (d) 70. (a), (c)
71. (a), (b), (c) 72. (b) 73. (a) 74. (C) 75. (b)

EXERCISE-2: Advanced Objective Questions


1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (b)
11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (d) 19. (b) 20. (a)
21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (b) 25. (c)

Linear Equation in Two Variables


EXERCISE-1: Basic Objective Questions
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (a)
11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (a)
21. (a) 22. (d) 23. (c) 24. (b) 25. (d) 26. (a) 27. (a) 28. (b) 29. (b) 30. (a)
31. (c) 32. (a) 33. (a) 34. (b) 35. (b) 36. (b) 37. (d) 38. (b) 39. (d) 40. (a)
41. (c) 42. (c) 43. (a) 44. (b) 45. (b) 46. (a) 47. (a) 48. (b) 49. (c) 50. (a)
51. (a), (b) 52. (a), (d) 53. (a), (b), (c) 54. (b), (d) 55. (b), (c) 56. (b), (c) 57. (c) 58. (a) 59. (b)
60. (a) 61. (c) 62. (c) 63. (d) 64. (b) 65. (d) 66. (c) 67. (b) 68. (a) 69. (c)
70. (b) 71. 6.00 72. 3.00 73. 2.00 74. 2.00 75. 7.00

EXERCISE-2: Advanced Objective Questions


1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (a)
11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (d) 16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (d) 19. (c) 20. (c)
21. (c) 22. (d) 23. (c) 24. (d) 25. (d)

Coordinate Geometry
EXERCISE-1: Basic Objective Questions
1. (c) 2.(a) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (d)
11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (d) 20. (b)
21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (c) 24. (d) 25. (b) 26. (c) 27. (d) 28. (a) 29. (c) 30. (c)
31. (a) 32. (d) 33. (c) 34. (b) 35. (a) 36. (a) 37. (d) 38. (b) 39. (c) 40. (c)
41. (d) 42. (c) 43. (d) 44. (c) 45. (d) 46. (c) 47. (d) 48. (b) 49. (c) 50. (d)
51. (b), (c) 52. (a), (b) 53. (a), (b), (c), (d) 54. (c), (d) 55. (a), (c), (d) 56. (b) 57. (c) 58. (a)
59. (c) 60. (b) 61. (d) 62. (a) 63. (b) 64. (c) 65. (b) 66. (c) 67. (d) 68. (a)
69. (a) 70. (d) 71. 8.00 72. 6.00 73. 1.00 74. 4.00 75. 4.00 76. 5.00 77. 8.00 78. 2.00
79. 1.00 80. 9.00

EXERCISE-2: Advanced Objective Questions


1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (b)
11. (a) 12. (d) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (c)
21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (d) 25. (d)
141 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS
Mathematical Tools
EXERCISE-1: Basic Objective Questions
1.(b) 2.(b) 3.(d) 4.(a) 5.(c) 6.(c) 7.(c) 8.(b) 9.(d) 10.(d)
11.(a) 12.(b) 13.(d) 14.(d) 15.(d) 16.(b) 17.(a) 18.(b) 19.(b) 20.(d)
21.(c) 22.(c) 23.(c) 24.(c) 25.(d) 26.(a) 27.(d) 28.(a) 29.(a) 30.(d)
31.(d) 32.(c) 33.(a) 34.(b) 35.(c) 36.(a) 37.(a) 38.(c) 39.(a) 40.(a)
41.(b) 42.(a) 43.(d) 44.(b) 45.(a) 46.(a) 47.(a) 48.(b) 49.(b) 50.(b)
51.(c) 52.(c) 53.(c) 54.(d) 55.(d) 56.(b) 57.(a) 58.(a) 59.(a) 60.(b)
61.(d) 62.(a) 63.(b) 64.(c) 65.(b) 66.(d) 67.(b) 68.(d) 69.(c) 70.(b)
71.(a) 72.(c) 73.(a) 74.(c) 75.(b)

EXERCISE-2: Advanced Objective Questions


1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10.(a)
11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (a) 16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20 (a)
21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (b) 25.(d)

Motion
EXERCISE-1: Basic Objective Questions
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (a)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (b)
21. (d) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (c) 25. (b) 26. (b) 27. (b) 28. (a) 29. (c) 30. (c)
31. (d) 32. (b) 33. (b) 34. (b) 35. (c) 36. (a) 37. (b) 38. (c) 39. (a) 40. (d)
41. (c) 42. (d) 43. (d) 44. (c) 45. (d) 46. (b) 47. (c) 48. (b) 49. (b) 50. (d)
51. (a) 52. (c) 53. (a) 54. (d) 55. (c) 56. (a) 57. (b) 58. (a) 59. (c) 60. (d)
61. (b) 62. (d) 63. (d) 64. (a) 65. (d) 66. (c) 67. (c) 68. (c) 69. (d) 70. (a)
71. (d) 72. (b) 73. (c) 74. (d) 75. (d)

EXERCISE-2: Advanced Objective Questions


1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (b)
11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (d) 20. (b)
21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (a) 24. (c) 25. (b)

Laws of Motion
EXERCISE-1: Basic Objective Questions
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (c)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (b) 20. (c)
21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (a) 24. (a) 25. (d) 26. (c) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (c)
31. (b) 32. (b) 33. (c) 34. (d) 35. (a) 36. (a) 37. (b) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (c)
41. (b) 42. (b) 43. (c) 44. (a) 45. (b) 46. (c) 47. (b) 48. (c) 49. (a) 50. (a)
51. (d) 52. (c) 53. (c) 54. (d) 55. (d) 56. (c) 57. (d) 58. (b) 59. (d) 60. (b)
61. (b) 62. (b) 63. (b) 64. (b) 65. (c) 66. (c) 67. (b) 68. (d) 69. (c) 70. (a)
71. (d) 72. (d) 73. (d) 74. (c) 75. (a)
EXERCISE-2: Advanced Objective Questions
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10. (a)
11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (d) 17. (b) 18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (b)
21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (b) 25. (a)
ANSWER KEYS 142

CHEMISTRY
Matter in Our Surroundings
EXERCISE-1: Basic Objective Questions

1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (c)
11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (d) 16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (b)
21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (d) 24. (a) 25. (c) 26. (a) 27. (a) 28. (a) 29. (c) 30. (c)
31. (a) 32. (a) 33. (c) 34. (d) 35. (d) 36. (a) 37. (c) 38. (b) 39. (d) 40. (c)
41. (c) 42. (d) 43. (d) 44. (c) 45. (c) 46. (c) 47. (a) 48. (a) 49. (a) 50. (d)
51. (a) 52. (a) 53. (a) 54. (c) 55. (a) 56. (a) 57. (c) 58. (c) 59. (a) 60. (c)
61. (c) 62. (c) 63. (c) 64. (c) 65. (b) 66. (a) 67. (b) 68. (b) 69. (d) 70. (d)
71. (d) 72. (a,c,d) 73. (a,b,c) 74. (b,c) 75. (a,b)

EXERCISE-2: Advanced Objective Questions

1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (b)
11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (b)
21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (d) 25. (c)

Is Matter Around Us Pure


EXERCISE-1: Basic Objective Questions
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (a)
11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (c)
21. (d) 22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (c) 25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (b) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (b)
31. (d) 32. (c) 33. (d) 34. (d) 35. (c) 36. (c) 37. (c) 38. (b) 39. (c) 40. (c)
41. (d) 42. (b) 43. (d) 44. (b) 45. (d) 46. (c) 47. (c) 48. (a) 49. (b) 50. (b)
51. (b) 52. (d) 53. (d) 54. (a) 55. (d) 56. (a) 57. (a) 58. (c) 59. (d) 60. (d)
61. (d) 62. (d) 63. (b) 64. (a) 65. (c) 66. (a) 67. (c) 68. (d) 69. (a) 70. (b)
71. (d) 72. (b, c) 73. (a, c, d) 74. (9.00) 75. (4.00)

EXERCISE-2: Advanced Objective Questions

1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (d)
11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (c) 16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (d) 19. (b) 20. (d)
21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (c) 25. (c)
143 ANSWER KEYS

Atoms and Molecules


EXERCISE-1: Basic Objective Questions
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (c)
11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (d) 20. (d)
21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (b) 25. (c) 26. (a) 27. (a) 28. (b) 29. (b) 30. (a)
31. (c) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (d) 35. (a) 36. (d) 37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (c)
41. (d) 42. (a) 43. (d) 44. (c) 45. (a) 46. (b) 47. (b) 48. (d) 49. (a) 50. (b)
51. (a) 52. (a) 53. (a) 54. (d) 55. (d) 56. (c) 57. (d) 58. (a) 59. (b) 60. (c)
61. (a,b,c) 62. (b,c) 63. (b,c) 64. (b,c,d) 65. (a,b,d) 66. (788.00) 67. (5.00) 68. (2.00) 69. (14.00) 70. (8.40)
71. (10.00) 72. (3400.00) 73. (5.00) 74. (0.25) 75. (2.00)

EXERCISE-2: Advanced Objective Questions


1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (b)
11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (d) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (c)
21. (d) 22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (a) 25. (d)

BIOLOGY
Fundamental Unit of Life
EXERCISE-1: Basic Objective Questions

1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (a)
11. (d) 12. (d) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (d) 19. (c) 20. (a)
21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (b) 24. (d) 25. (c) 26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (b) 29. (d) 30. (b)
31. (a) 32. (a) 33. (c) 34. (d) 35. (a) 36. (b) 37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. (a)
41. (b) 42. (c) 43. (c) 44. (a) 45. (b) 46. (b) 47. (b) 48. (b) 49. (a) 50. (c)
51. (a) 52. (b) 53. (a) 54. (c) 55. (a) 56. (a) 57. (a) 58. (d) 59. (d) 60. (d)
61. (b) 62. (c) 63. (a) 64. (c) 65. (c) 66. (d) 67. (b) 68. (c) 69. (d) 70. (b)
71. (b) 72. (a) 73. (a) 74. (d) 75. (b)

EXERCISE-2: Advanced Objective Questions

1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (d)
11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (d) 20. (b)
21. (d) 22. (a) 23. (a) 24. (c) 25. (c)
ANSWER KEYS 144

Tissues
EXERCISE-1: Basic Objective Questions

1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (d)
11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (d) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (d) 19. (d) 20. (c)
21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (b) 25. (c) 26. (a) 27. (d) 28. (b) 29. (b) 30. (b)
31. (a) 32. (d) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (c) 36. (c) 37. (b) 38. (d) 39. (d) 40. (c)
41. (b) 42. (c) 43. (b) 44. (c) 45. (b) 46. (d) 47. (a) 48. (b) 49. (b) 50. (a)
51. (a) 52. (d) 53. (d) 54. (d) 55. (d) 56. (b) 57. (d) 58. (c) 59. (d) 60. (a)
61. (d) 62. (a) 63. (d) 64. (b) 65. (a) 66. (a) 67. (d) 68. (b) 69. (d) 70. (b)
71. (b) 72. (a) 73. (c) 74. (c) 75. (a)

EXERCISE-2: Advanced Objective Questions

1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (a)
11. (b) 12. (d) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (c)
21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (d) 25. (d)

Diversity in Living Organisms


EXERCISE-1: Basic Objective Questions

1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (d)
11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (d) 20. (d)
21. (c) 22. (d) 23. (d) 24. (b) 25. (b) 26. (d) 27. (a) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (c)
31. (c) 32. (d) 33. (b) 34. (b) 35. (b) 36. (b) 37. (b) 38. (d) 39. (d) 40. (a)
41. (d) 42. (d) 43. (d) 44. (a) 45. (a) 46. (d) 47. (b) 48. (d) 49. (c) 50. (a)
51. (a) 52. (a) 53. (c) 54. (c) 55. (c) 56. (a) 57. (b) 58. (a) 59. (a) 60. (c)
61. (b) 62. (a) 63. (c) 64. (c) 65. (d) 66. (c) 67. (a) 68. (d) 69. (a) 70. (c)
71. (b) 72. (d) 73. (a) 74. (c) 75. (b)

EXERCISE-2: Advanced Objective Questions

1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (a)
11. (d) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (d) 16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (c)
21. (c) 22. (d) 23. (d) 24. (c) 25. (b)

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