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3
TABLE OF CONTENTS
Basics
Exercise - 1 : Basic Objective Questions .................................................................................................. ............. 8
Number System
Exercise - 1 : Basic Objective Questions .................................................................................................. ............. 19
Polynomial
Exercise - 1 : Basic Objective Questions .................................................................................................. ............. 29
Coordinate Geometry
Exercise - 1 : Basic Objective Questions .................................................................................................. ............. 47
Mathematical Tools
Exercise - 1 : Basic Objective Questions .................................................................................................. ............. 57
Motion
Exercise - 1 : Basic Objective Questions .................................................................................................. ............. 66
Laws of Motion
Exercise - 1 : Basic Objective Questions .................................................................................................. ............. 75
Tissues
Exercise - 1 : Basic Objective Questions .................................................................................................. ............. 122
01
BASICS
BASICS 8
4 0 4 1 3 4 2 4
(I) 1 (II) 4 (III) 0 (IV) 4 (c) (d)
2 3
(a) I and II (b) II and III
m1 5 7
(c) I and III (d) I and IV 15. Find the value of m for which 3 3 3 .
0
The value of 3 2 2 35 is
3
7. (a) 1 (b) –1
3 (c) 0 (d) 4
(a) 930 (b) 973 5 1
18. The value of x which satisfy 6x 216 is 29. If 35% of a number is 175, then what percentage of
(a) 3 (b) 12 175 is that number?
(c) 24 (d) 2 (a) 35% (b) 65%
12 8 x (c) 280% (d) none of these
19. If 2 5
3
2
2 5 , then find the value of
30. An agent gets a commission of 2.5% on the sales of
x. cloth. If one a certain day, he gets Rs. 12.50 as
(a) 4 (b) 2 commission, the cloth sold through him on that day is
(c) 2 (d) 1 worth _____.
20. The value of x which satisfy 6 x 4 1 (a) Rs. 250 (b) Rs. 500
(c) Rs. 750 (d) Rs. 1250
(a) 3 (b) 4
31. Which of the following percentages is the smallest for
(c) 2 (d) 1 a number?
21. For a non zero rational number a, a 7 a 12 is 2 2
(a) 16 % (b) %
(a) a 5 (b) a 19 3 15
(c) a 5 (d) a19 1
(c) % (d) 0.17%
3 2
3 11
22. Evaluate: 32. An agent sells goods of value Rs. 15000. The
2 1
64 729 commission which he receives is 12 % of amount.
(a) (b) 2
729 64 Find the commission value.
729 64 (a) Rs. 1875 (b) Rs. 2125
(c) (d)
64 729 (c) Rs. 2000 (d) Rs. 2700
4 3 33. If 40% of a number is equal to two-third of another
23. The value of expression 3 2 is number, what is the ratio of first number to the second
4 3
number?
3 3
(a) (b) (a) 2 : 5 (b) 3 : 7
16 32 (c) 5 : 3 (d) 7 : 3
16 32 34. The sum of two numbers is 4000. 10% of one number
(c) (d)
3 3 2
24. Which of the following values are equal ? is 6 % of the other. The difference of the number is
3
10
(P) 1 (Q) 6 0 (R) 0 5 (S) 101 (a) 600 (b) 800
(a) P and Q (b) Q and R (c) 1025 (d) 1175
(c) P and R (d) P and S 35. The difference of the squares of two number is 80% of
xyz
4 the sum of their squares. The ratio of the larger to the
25. Simplify : 3 x 0, y 0, z 0 smaller number is
x 2
y3
(a) 5 : 2 (b) 2 : 5
y13 z16 (c) 3: 1 (d) 1 : 3
(a) (b) x 2 y 13 z 16
x2 36. A candidate who gets 20% marks in an examination
(c) xyz (d) none of these fails by 30 marks but another candidate who gets 32%,
26. 3.5 can be expressed in terms of percentage as : gets 42 marks more than the pass marks. The
(a) 0.35% (b) 3.5% percentage of pass marks is
(c) 35% (d) 350% (a) 52% (b) 50%
27. What is 15% of Rs. 34? (c) 33% (d) 25%
37. 37.85% and 92% alcoholic solutions are mixed to get
(a) Rs. 3.40 (b) Rs. 3.75
35 litres of an 89% alcoholic solution. How many litres
(c) Rs. 4.50 (d) Rs. 5.10 of each solution are there in the new mixture?
28. 860% of 50 + 50% of 860 = _______ (a) 10 L of the 1st, 25 L of the 2nd
(a) 430 (b) 516 (b) 20 L of the 1st, 15 L of the 2nd
(c) 15 L of the 1st, 20 L of the 2nd
(c) 860 (d) 960 (d) none
BASICS 10
38. From 5 litres of 20% solution of alcohol in water, 2 46. In a medical certificate, by mistake a candidate
litres of solution is taken out and 2 litres water is added gave his height as 25% more than the actual. In
to it. The strength of alcohol in the new solution is the interview panel, he clarified his height was 5
(a) 12% (b) 15% feet 5 inches. Find the percentage correction made
(c) 16% (d) 18% by the candidate from his stated height to his
39. The number of employees working in a farm is actual height.
increased by 25% and the wages per head are (a) 28.56 (b) 20
decreased by 25%. If it results in x% decrease in total
(c) 25 (d) 24
wages, then the value of x is
(a) 0 (b) 25 47. A 20% hike in bus fare resulted in a 10% fall in
passenger traffic, still the daily collection at the
25
(c) 20 (d) bus depot increased by Rs 150. The daily
4 collection at the depot after the fare hike is
40. If the price of a book a first decreased by 25% and the
increased by 20%, the net change in the price of the (a) Rs 1600 (b) Rs 1750
book is (c) Rs 2025 (d) Rs 1875
(a) 10% decrease (b) 5% decrease 48. If A's salary is 25% higher than B's salary, then
(c) no change (d) 5% increase how much per cent is B's salary lower than that
41. The price of a commodity has been increased by 60%. of A's?
By what per cent must a consumer reduce the (a) 16% (b) 20%
consumption of the commodity so as not to increase
(c) 25% (d) 33%
his expenditure of the commodity
(a) 30% (b) 35% 49. In an examination in which full marks were 800,
(c) 27.5% (d) 37.5% A gets 20% more than B, B gets 20% more than
42. The price of an article is reduced by 25% but the daily C, and C gets 15% less than D. If A got 576,
sale of the article is increased by 30%. The net effect what percentage of full marks did D get
on the daily sale receipts is (approximately)?
1 1 (a) 45.7 (b) 51.2
(a) 2 % decrease (b) 2 % increase
2 2 (c) 58.8 (d) 61.7
(c) 2% decrease (d) 2% increase 50. A father gives 1% of his monthly salary to his
43. If the altitude of a triangle is increased by 10% while two sons as pocket money. The elder son gets 20%
its area remains the same, its corresponding base will of the total amount given of money given out he
have to be decreased by spends 20% of his share. If he saves Rs. 20 every
(a) 10% (b) 9% month, then the monthly salary of the father is
1 1 (a) Rs. 10000 (b) Rs. 11500
(c) 9 % (d) 11 %
11 9 (c) Rs 12000 (d) Rs 12500
2
44. In the expression xy , the values of both variables x 51. In an examination Mohit obtained 20% more
marks than Sushant but are 10% less than Rajesh.
and y are decreased by 20%. By this the value of the
If the marks obtained by Sushant are 1080, find
expression will be decreased by
the percentage of marks obtained by Rajesh, if the
(a) 40% (b) 80%
full marks are 2000.
(c) 48.8% (d) 51.2%
(a) 72% (b) 86.66%
45. A student took five papers in an examination, where
(c) 78.33% (d) 75%
the full marks were the same for each papers, this
52. Mira’s expenditure and savings are in the ratio
marks in these papers were in the proportion 6 : 7 : 8 :
3 : 2. Her income increase by 10%. Her
9 : 10. In all the papers together, the candidate obtained expenditure also increases by 12%. By how much
60% of the total marks. Then, the number of papers in % do her savings increase?
which he got more than 50% marks is (a) 7% (b) 9%
53. A tax payer is exempted of income tax for the 60. Indian cricket team won 4 more matches than it lost
first Rs 100000 of his annual income but for the
3
rest of the income, he has to pay a tax at the with New Zealand. If it won of its matches, how
5
rate of 20%. If he paid Rs 3160 as income tax for
a year, his monthly income is many matches did India play ?
(a) Rs 11580 (b) Rs 103160 (a) 8 (b) 12
(c) Rs 13610 (d) Rs 9650 (c) 16 (d) 20
54. Mrs. Sharma invests 15% of her monthly salary, 61. What is the product of a fractional number and its
i.e., Rs 4428 in Mutual funds. Later she invests
reciprocal?
18% of her monthly salary on Pension plans; also
she invests another 9% of her salary on Insurance (a) 0 (b) same number
policies. What is the total monthly amount (c) 1 (d) undefined
invested by Mrs. Sharma?
21 26
(a) Rs 1,13,356.80 (b) Rs 12,398.40 62. What should be added to to make to ?
27 27
(c) Rs 56,678.40 (d) None of these
26 6
55. A house-owner was having his house painted. He (a) (b)
27 7
was advised that he would required 25 kg of
paint. Allowing for 15% wastage and assuming 5 7
(c) (d)
that the paint is available in 2 kg cans, what 27 27
would be the cost of paint purchased, if one can
63. What are fractions with different denominators called?
costs Rs 16?
(a) like (b) unlike
(a) Rs 240 (b) Rs 180
(c) proper (d) improper
(c) Rs 120 (d) Rs 360
56. Vishal goes to a shop to buy a radio costing Rs 8
64. What is the equivalent of having the numerator
2568. The rate of sales tax is 7%. He tells the 11
shop keeper to reduce the price of radio to such 40?
an extent that he has to pay Rs 2568 inclusive of
sales tax. Find the reduction needed in the price 41 44
(a) (b)
of the radio. 11 40
(a) Rs 179 (b) Rs 170 40 10
(c) (d)
(c) Rs 168 (d) Rs 169 55 40
1 1 7 p s
57. What is the product of 1 , 3 and ? 65. Given that , then which of these is true ?
3 4 8 q t
18 19 (a) pq st (b) ps qt
(a) 3 (b) 2
24 24
p s
19 18 (c) pt sq (d)
(c) 3 (d) 2 t q
24 24
3 Section-B (Multiple Choice Type Questions)
58. Guru reads of a book. He finds that there are still 80
5
3 7
pages left to be read. What is the total number of pages 5 4 5 6 7x
66. when divided by 5
in the book. becomes , the
6 6 6
(a) 100 (b) 200
value of x is
(c) 300 (d) 400
70 89
1 (a) (b)
59. What is of 49 litres? 12 12
7 2 2
89 7
(a) 1 l (b) 5 l (c) (d)
(c) 7 l (d) 6 l 12 12
BASICS 12
2 3 (D) 3
2
(s) 351
(a) (b) 2 2
32 4 2
2 8
6 18
1 2 (a) A r; B s; C p; D q
(c) (d)
6 18 (b) A p; B q; C r; D s
0 (c) A r; B s; C q; D p
70. 64
2 / 3
1
25
(d) A s; B r; C p; D q
1/ 4
125 256 / 625 3
64
75. Match the column
9 9 Column I Column II
(a) (b)
2 4 Word problems statement
2 2 (A) By what number should (p) 1
(c) 3 (d) 8
2
4
51 be multiplied so that 3
the product may be equal to
1
2x 1 1
71. If 43 2
32
then x = 7 ?
th
am an 88. a 1/ n n
a , and both represents n root of a.
85. a m a n a p . Evaluate:
ap x
4 8 2 2 6 2
Solve for x : 2 28.
1 1 1 1 1 1
(a) 4 (b) 8
2 2 2 4 4 4
10 2
(c) 16 (d) 2
(a) 1 1
89. a 1/ n n th
a , and both represents n root of a.
2 4
12 1
Find the value of 55
(b) 1 1
5 5
2 4 (a) (b)
14 0 2 2
(c) 1 1
5/2
2 4 (c) 5 (d) 5
12
(d) 1 Section-F (Integer Type Questions)
2 x 4
90. The value of x in exponential equation 2 1 is
m n p a a
86. a a a m p n equal to
a m
1 1
Find the value of x if 42x 3 42 33 4 1 1
91. If 1 , then least positive integer
(a) 0 (b) 4 3 4
15 9 value of m is.
(c) (d)
4 8 92. If 2 x 1 2 x 1 320 , then the value of x.
th a b bc ca
87. a 1/ n n
a , and both represents n root of a. Express xa xb xc
93. b c a
3
27
in exponential form. x x x
64
1 1
4 3 94. mn
equals
(a) (b) 1 a 1 a n m
3 4
95. Given that 4n 1 256 , find the value of n.
9 16
(c) (d)
16 9
15 BASICS
(c)
11
(d)
11
(iii) If x 8 .32
2/3 2/5
, then x 5
R
48 96
5 10 5
1 (a) , 0, (b) 1,1,
18. The value of 71 81 31 41 is 4 7 16
(a) 56 (b) 12 3 7 7
(c) 68 (d) 44 (c) ,1,1 (d) ,0,
8 8 8
19. When 5 103 2000 106 is expressed in standard
26. Match the following
form, we will get Column I Column II
2 3
(a) 3 10 (b) 310 1 1 4
3 (p)
(c) 3 10 3
(d) 3 10 2 (A) 6 1 13
2
20. If 3 x y 27 and 3 x y 243, then x is equal to 1 9
1 1
______. 4 1 (q)
(B) 32
(a) 0 (b) 2 3 4
(c) 4 (d) 6
2 2 1 1 3 1 3 1 3 6
(r)
21. Number of prime factors in 216 5 2500 5 300 5 (C) 5
is ______. 3 2 4
(a) 6 (b) 9 3 19
(c) 8 (d) None of these (D) 31 4 1 2 (s)
3 64
3 5 x
22. Find x, if 5 5 5 (a) A r; B p; C s; D q
11 11 11
(b) A s; B p; C q; D r
(a) 3 (b) 4
(c) 8 (d) 2 (c) A q; B r; C s; D p
3 2 2 (d) A r; B p; C q; D s
2 2 1 2 1
3 3
2 24
27. If a 2 2
2 3
,b 2 3
24 and c 24 22
23. Simplify 5 12
2 3 then find:
3 2 (i) a 3 b 3 c 3 (ii) 10abc
4
32 9 7 3 5
(a) 2 (b) (a) , (b) ,
3 3 2048 2048 1024 2048
243 243 3 10 9 15
(c) (d) (c) , (d) ,
16 32 1024 2048 2048 1024
2 y 1
28. In an examination, 70% of the candidates passed in
1
1
.0081 3 2 y 5 English, 80% passed in Mathematics and 10% failed in
9 1 27 y 1
24. Solve, for y, if 3
243 3 10000 both these subjects. If 144 candidates passed in both,
then the total number of candidates was
1 19
(a) (b) (a) 125 (b) 200
2 18
(c) 240 (d) 375
3 12
(c) (d)
10 17
17 BASICS
29. In a hotel, 60% had vegetarian lunch while 30% had 34. 270 candidates appeared for an examination, of which
non-vegetarian lunch and 15% had both types of lunch. 252 passed. The percentage of candidates who have
If 96 people were present, how many did not eat either passed the exam is
type of lunch? 1
(a) 20 (b) 24 (a) 80% (b) 83 %
2
(c) 26 (d) 28
1 1
30. The price of an article was increased by r%. Later the (c) 90 % (d) 93 %
3 3
new price was decreased by r%. lf the latest price was 35. An inspector rejects 0.08% of the meters as defective.
Re 1, then the original price was How many will he examine to reject 2?
1 r 2 (a) 2000 (b) 2200
(a) Re 1 (b) Rs. (c) 2500 (d) 2800
100
1 r2 10000
(c) Rs. (d) Rs.
100 10000 r 2
31. A reduction of 25% in the price of an article enables a
man to buy 50 kilograms more for Rs 500. What is the
reduced price per kilogram?
(a) Rs 3 (b) Rs 2.50
(c) Rs 2.05 (d) Rs 2.40
32. In expressing a length 81.472 km as nearly as possible
with three significant digits, the percent error is
(a) 0.34% (b) 0.034%
(c) 0.0034% (d) 0.0038%
33. 50 g of an alloy of gold and silver contains 80% gold
(by weight). The quantity of gold, that is to be mixed
up with this alloy, so that it may contain 95% gold is
(a) 200g (b) 150g
(c) 50 g (d) 10 g
NUMBER SYSTEM 18
02
NUMBER SYSTEM
19 NUMBER SYSTEM
3
30. Two mixed quadratic surds, a b and a b , 38. Find the product of 3, 4 3, 12 243.
whose sum and product are rational, are called (a) 3 (b) 3
_________surds. 12 4
(a) Similar (b) Conjugate
(c) 3 (d) 3
(c) Dissimilar (d) Binomial 39. The value of 4 3 129 72 3 is
(a) 9 3 (b) 9
31. 3
33 2 3
93 436 ? (c) 9 3 (d) 9 3
9
(a) 5 (b) 5 15 16
40. Simplify by rationalizing the
(c) 6
5 (d) 3
5 5 2 5 2
1 denominators.
32. If x then find the value of
3 1 155 2 2 155
(a) (b)
4 x 3 2 x 2 8 x 3. 23 23
(a) 0 (b) 2 155 2 5 2
(c) (d)
(c) 2 (d) 2 23 23
33. If x 3 2
93
, then the value of x is:
41. If
a b 17 and
a b 1 then the value
125 of ab is :
1 2 (a) 12 (b) 27
(a) 2 (b) 1
5 5 (c) 35 (d) 72
4 1 42. Which one of the following sets of surds is in correct
(c) 3 (d) 4
5 5 sequence of ascending order of their value?
ax ax
34. ' x ' in the following is b (a) 4
10, 3 6, 3 (b) 3, 4 10, 3 6
ax ax
2ab 2ab (c) 3, 3 6, 4 10, (d) 4
10, 3, 3 6
(a) (b)
b 2
1 ab 43. If x and y are rational number such that
2
ab b 1 4 3
(c) (d) x y 3, find the value of x and y
2ab 2ab 4 3
127 (a) x 7, y 4 (b) x 3, y 4
35. 3 1 is equal to
343 (c) x 7, y 3 (d) x 4, y 7
5 1 1
(a) (b) 1 44.
9 7
8 2 15
4 1
(c) (d) 1 1 1
7 7 (a)
2
5 3 (b)
2
5 1
5
36. An equivalent expression of after
74 5 1 1
rationalizing the denominator is
(c)
2
5 1 (d)
2
5 3
20 5 35 20 5 35 93/ 2 3 50 811
1/ 2
(a) (b) 45. Find the value of
31 129 1
35 20 5 35 20 5
64 2/3
125 1/ 4
256
3
25
64
(c) (d) 625
31 121
15
37. If a 6 11 and b 6 11 then the value of (a) (b) 0
13
a b is
16 48
(c) (d)
(a) 22 (b) 2 11 5 13
(c) 6 (d) 12
NUMBER SYSTEM 22
2 1 2
53. Express in decimal form, (a) (b)
11 3 3
(a) 0.21 (b) 0.15 2
(c) (d) 3 2
(c) 0.18 (d) 0.99 3
23 NUMBER SYSTEM
(C) 4
81
2 1 Section-C (Assertion-Reason Type Questions)
(r)
9 64. Assertion: 0.271 is terminating decimal and we can
271
(s) 1 express this number as which is of the form
2 6 5 1000
(D)
3 52 6 p
, where p and q are integers q 0.
q
(a) A s; B p; C r ; D q
Reason: A terminating, or non-terminating decimal
(b) A p; B r ; C s; D q
expansion can be expressed as rational number.
(c) A q; B r ; C s; D p (a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is
(d) A r ; B p; C s; D q correct explanation of assertion.
62. Evaluate the following, if (b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
2 1.414, 3 1.732, 5 2.236 and 3.141 not correct explanation of assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
up to three places of decimals.
(d) If assertion is false bur reason is true.
Column I Column II
65. Assertion: Rational number lying between two
2 (p) 4.357
(A) ab
5 3 rational number a and b is
2
3 (q) 3.968 Reason: There is one rational number lying between
(B)
2 5 any two rational numbers.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is
1 (r) 2.912
(C) correct explanation of assertion.
2 5 3 2 (b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
1 (s) 3.848 not correct explanation of assertion.
(D)
2 (c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(a) A r ; B s; C p; D q (d) If assertion is false bur reason is true.
66. Assertion: 2, 3 are examples of irrational
(b) A s; B p; C q; D r
number.
(c) A r ; B s; C q; D p
Reason: An irrational number can be expressed in the
(d) A q; B r ; C p; D s
form p / q .
63. Find the value of following expressions.
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is
Column I Column II
(p) 7 correct explanation of assertion.
7 5
(A) If x , p 7, then p (b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
5 x
not correct explanation of assertion.
1 (q) 0 (c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(B) If x 5 2, then x 2 2
x (d) If assertion is false bur reason is true.
NUMBER SYSTEM 24
2
9 n 32 3 n / 2 27
n 999813 999815 1
1 83. Simplify
79. If , then m n is 999814
2
33 m 23 27
80. If a 2 bc 3 25 and ab2 5, then abc equals 84. The greatest number that will divide 103,127 and
81. If a and b are rational numbers and 175, so as to leave remainder 55 in each case is
2
2 3 k 2 . Find the value of k .
a b 3, then b
2 3 1 1
85. If x 3, then x 2 2 is equal to
3 1 x x
82. If x , then the value of 4 x 3 2 x 2 8 x 2 is
2
NUMBER SYSTEM 26
(b) x x 2x 1
(a) (b) 2
2
(c) x y y x
1
(d) xy x y (c) 4 (d)
4
1
2. 999 1000 1001 1002 1 is 2m n 3p
9. If nm
16, n 81 and a 210 , then
(a) 1001001 (b) 1001999 2 3
(c) 1000999 (d) 1000989 a 2m n p
___
m 2 n 2 p 1
3.
a c 1 1 1
Simplify: 1
a
b a c a b
1
(a) 2 (b)
a c2 b c a c 2 b c 4
(a) (b)
abc abc 1
(c) 9 (d)
a b c b
2 8
a
(c) (d)
b abc x 8 x 3 27 x
10. If 3 3 1, then find the value of
729 729 5832
1 1 x.
4. The value of 35.7 3 2 is
1 1 (a) 1 (b) 8
3 2
3 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
(a) 30 (b) 34.8
(c) 36.6 (d) 41.4 11. The simplified value of
12 8 3 2 is
5 24
1
5. If x2 64, then x x ____
3
(a) 6 2 (b) 2 6
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 0 (d) 1
3 2 1
(c) (d) 12. If x 8 2 15, the value of x is
2 3 x
6. If a , b, c are positive real numbers, then (a) 2 3 (b) 2 5
5
3125a10b5 c10 is equal to 3 3 5 3
(c) 5 (d) 3
2 2 2 2
(a) 5a 2 bc 3 (b) 25ab 2 c
4 3 30 18
(c) 5a bc 3 3
(d) 125a bc 2 2 13. 1 is simplified to
2 2 4 3 18 3 2 3
x
7. If 4 x 4 x1 24, then 2 x equals (a) 0 (b) 1
(c) 2 (d) 3
(a) 5 5 (b) 5
2 7 5
14. Simplify:
(c) 25 5 (d) 125 7 5 12 5 12 7
(a) 5 (b) 2
(c) 1 (d) 0
27 NUMBER SYSTEM
1 1 2
23. If a 3 2 and b 3 2 , then the
17. The value of is 1 1
12 140 8 60 10 84 value of a 1 b 1 is
03
POLYNOMIAL
29 POLYNOMIAL
34.
3 4 2
The L.C.M of x 1 and x x 1 is 41.
5 4
The HCF of x 2x x and x x is
3 7 5
(a) x (b) x x 1
2
(a) x 1 x 1 3
(c) x (d) x 3 x 1
4
(b) x x 1 x 1
2
42.
2
Factors of 3m 2m 6 3m 2
2m 5 are
(c) x
x 1 x 1
2 3
bx 2
ax c , then the value of c is (c) x 1 x 2
(a) x 1 (b) x 2
(c) 36x x 4 x3 x 2 x 4 x
(c) 2 x 1 (d) 2 x 1
(d) 36 x x x
4 3 2
x 1
POLYNOMIAL 32
(d) x 4 x 1
2
Section-C (Multiple Choice Type Questions)
3 3
50. Factorize a b 3ab 1 64. Which of the following is/are true, if the polynomial
2 2
(a) a b 1 a b a b 1 ab f x x3 x 2 9 x 9 is divided by x, x 1 and
(b) a b 1 a
2
b2 a b 1 ab x2.
(a) Remainder is 5 when f x is divided by x 2
(c) a b 1 a a b 1 ab
2
b2
(b) The sum of all the remainder is 4
(d) None of these (c) Remainder is 2 when f x is divided by x 1
Section-B (Integer Type Questions) (d) none of these
65. If the polynomial ax2 bx x is equal to 4 when
51. Zero of the polynomials f x 3 x 7 is K , then x 0, leaves the remainder 4 when divided by x 1
3
and leaves a remainder 6 when divided by x 2 , then
K is equal to
52. If one of the zeros the polynomial which of the following is/are true?
1 (a) a b 1 a bc 2 (b)
2
f x 2 x 7 x 4 is , then k is equal to ?
k (c) c 4 (d) b c 2
1 66. 3 2
When x 2 x 4 x b is divided by x 1 , the
53. If p x x 2 4 x 3 and p 2 p 1 p r ,
2
quotient is x 2 ax 3 and the remainders is 3 2b ,
2
then 4r is equal to then :
45 2
kx (a) a 3 (b) a 1
54. The remainder when x is divided by x 1 is
k is equal to (c) a 1 (d) b 0
then
2 67. x 1 is the factor of the polynomials:
55. If A 6 x 4 5 x3 8x 2 2 x 2 and B 3x 2x 1,
3 2
then, the remainder when A B is px q , then (a) x x x 1
4 3 2
p 2 q 2 1 is (b) x x x 1
3 2
56. The remainder obtained when the polynomial (c) x x x 1
4 3 2
x 4 3x3 9 x 2 27 x 81 is divided by x 3 is : (d) x 3x 3x x 1
33 POLYNOMIAL
(a) f 2 2 1 73. Choose the correct options for the statements given
below.
(b) f 2 2
1 Statement I: a n bn is divisible by a b, if
2 n 2 k 1 , where k is a positive integer.
(c) factors of f x are x 2 x 2 1 Statement II: a n bn is divisible by a b, if n 2k ,
Where k is a positive integer.
(d) zeros of f x are 2 1 (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
69. Which of the following is true for the polynomial (b) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false.
(c) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true.
4 x 4 12 x3 37 x 2 bx a (d) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
74. Which of the following is correct for the statements
(a) a 8 (b) b 16
given below.
(c) b a 91 (d) a 49 3
4 2
Statement I : The LCM of x 1 and x x 1
70. Which of the following is true for the polynomials
p x x 27 x 3 x 2 and
3 2
4
and x 5x
2
4 is x 1 x 4 x x 1
2 2
14. If a b c 0, then the value of 22. The HCF and LCM of two polynomials are x y
4 4 4 2 2 2 2 2 2
a b c 2a b 2b c 2c a is: and 3 x5 5 x 4 y 2 x 3 y 2 3 x 2 y 3 5 xy 4 2 y 5
(a) 1 (b) 1
(c) 0 (d) abc respectively. If one of the polynomials is x 2 y 2 ,
15. If x y z 0, then then the other polynomials is
3 3 3 (a) 3x 4 8 x 3 y 10 x 2 y 2 7 xy 3 2 y 4
y z x z x y x y z
is (b) 3x 4 8 x 3 y 10 x 2 y 2 7 xy 3 2 y 4
2 2 2
equal to? (c) 3x 4 8 x3 y 10 x 2 y 2 7 xy 3 2 y 4
(a) 3xyz (b) x y z (d) 3x 4 8 x3 y 10 x 2 y 2 7 x 3 y 2 y 4
(c) 1 (d) xyz 23. If HCF and LCM of two polynomials are
16. Find the values of a and b If the polynomial x 2
8 x 15 and x 2 x 3 x 2 9 x 20 , one
ax 4 bx3 109 x 2 60 x 36 is a perfect square. of the polynomials is x3 10 x 2 31x 30 , then the
(a) a 40 and b 60 (b) a 49 and b 70 other polynomials is
(c) a 4 and b 9 (d) None of these (a) x3 5x 2 16 x 18
17. Find the square root of 4 x 4 4 x3 5 x 2 2 x 1 (b) x 3 x 2 9 x 20
(a) 2 x 2 x 1 (b) 2 x 2 x 1
(c) x 3 x 2 12 x 18
2 2
(c) 3x 5 x 1 (d) 3x 5 x 1
18. If the each of the polynomial (d) x 4 x 2 x 9
lx 2 mx n, mx 2 nx l and nx2 lx m are 24. If x 9 is one of the factors of the polynomial
lm x3 13x 2 31x 45, then the remaining factors are
perfect square then _________
n (a) x 3 and x 4 (b) x 5 and x 1
(a) 4 (b) 6
(c) x 1 and x 7 (d) None of these
(c) 8 (d) None of these
2
19. The HCF of a 1 a 3 m and a 1 a 3 n and 25. If x a and ax b are the factors of the cubic
04
LINEAR EQUATION IN TWO VARIABLES
37 LINEAR EQUATION IN TWO VARIABLES
16. The following system of equations has 25. The pair of linear equations
2 x 3 y 6; x y 1 2
2 x ky 3 0, 6 x y 7 0 has a unique
(a) No solution (b) infinite solution 3
(c) unique solution (d) Can’t be determined solution if
17. The given system of equations has a unique solution 2
(a) k 1 (b) k
then k cannot be x ky 2; 3 x 2 y 5 3
2 1 2
(a) (b) (c) k 5 (d) k
3 2 9
2 26. The pair of linear equations
(c) 1 (d) 2kx 5 y 7, 6 x 5 y 11 has a unique solution if
3
18. Consider the equations 2 x 7 y 11 and (a) k 3 (b) k 6
35 (c) k 5 (d) k 5
5x y 25, the given system is 27. The pair of equations 3 x 4 y k and 9 x 12 y 6
2
(a) Consistent with unique solution has infinitely many solution if
(b) Inconsistent (a) k 2 (b) k 6
(c) Consistent with infinite solution (c) k 4 (d) k 3
(d) Can’t be determined 28. The pair of linear equations 2 x 5 y k and
19. Determine the values of k for which the following
kx 15 y 18 has infinitely many solutions if
system of equation has no solution.
(a) k 3 (b) k 6
x 2 y 0, 2 x ky 5
(c) k 9 (d) k 18
(a) k 2 (b) k 4
29. The pair of linear equations 13x ky k and
(c) k 4 (d) k 2
20. The value of k for which the system of equation 39 x 6 y k 4 has infinite many solutions if
4 x 5 y 0 and kx 10 y 0 has (a) k 1 (b) k 2
Infinitely many solutions. (c) k 4 (d) k 6
(a) k 8 (b) k 8 30. The pair of linear equations x 2y 5 and
(c) k 9 (d) k 9 3x 12 y 10 has
21. If am b, then the system of equation (a) unique solution
ax by c, x my n (b) no solution
(c) more than two solutions
(a) has a unique solution
(d) infinitely many solutions
(b) has no solution
31. Sum of two numbers is 35 and their difference is
(c) has infinitely many solution
13. The greater number is
(d) may or may not have a solution
22. The number of solutions, the equation (a) 19 (b) 11
3x 5 y 15 0 can have is (c) 24 (d) 20
32. Age of father is 7 year more than 3 times the
(a) only one (b) exactly two
present age of his son. The above statement can be
(c) has no solution (d) infinite
expressed in a linear equation as
23. For what value of k , the pair of linear equations
(a) x 3 y 7 0 (b) x 3 y 7 0
2 x y 3 0, 2kx 7 y 5 0 has a unique solution
(c) x 3 y 7 0 (d) x 3 y 7 0
x 1, y 1?
33. If the sum of the ages of a father and his son in years
(a) 3 (b) 4 is 65 and twice the difference of their ages in years
(c) 6 (d) 6 is 50, then the age of the father in years is
24. If the pair of linear equations x y 1, x ky 5 has (a) 45 (b) 40
unique solution x 2, y 1, The value of k , is (c) 50 (d) 55
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 2 (d) 4
LINEAR EQUATION IN TWO VARIABLES 40
60. The system of equations 65. A two digit-number having a and b as units and
a1 x b1 y c1 0, a2 x b2 y c2 0 is consistent and ten’s digit respectively is equal to 10b a and the
a b number obtained by interchanging the order of digits
will have unique solution, if 1 1
a2 b2 is 10a b.
Obtain the condition for the following system of In a two-digit number, the units digit is twice the
linear equations to have unique solution ten’s digit. If 27 is added to the number, the digits
ax by c 0, lx my n. interchange their places. Find the number.
(a) am bl (b) am cn (a) 40 (b) 52
(c) bl cm (d) am bl cn (c) 28 (d) 36
61. The system of equations
66. A two digit-number having a and b as units and
a1 x b1 y c1 0, a2 x b2 y c2 0 is consistent and
ten’s digit respectively is equal to 10b a and the
a b
will have unique solution, if 1 1 . number obtained by interchanging the order of digits
a2 b2
is 10a b.
For what value of k the given system of equations The sum of a two-digit number and the number
kx 4 y 5 and 9 x ky 27 have unique solution? formed by interchanging and digit is 132. If 12 is
(a) 6 (b) 6 added to the number, the new number becomes 5
(c) 9 (d) none of these times the sum of the digits. Find the number.
62. The system of equations
(a) 132 (b) 39
a1 x b1 y c1 0, a2 x b2 y c2 0 is consistent and
(c) 48 (d) 88
a1 b1 c1 67. A two digit-number having a and b as units and
will have Infinitely many solutions, if .
a2 b2 c2 ten’s digit respectively is equal to 10b a and the
Find the values of k for which the following system number obtained by interchanging the order of digits
of equations we have infinitely many solutions is 10a b.
2 x 3 y 7, k 2 x 2k 1 y 3 2k 1 The sum of a two-digit number and the number
(a) 8 (b) 2 obtained by reversing the order of its digits is 121
and the two digits differ by 3. Find the number.
(c) 4 (d) 6
(a) 62 or 26 (b) 47 or 74
63. The system of equations
(c) 41 or 14 (d) 78 or 87
a1 x b1 y c1 0, a2 x b2 y c2 0 is consistent and
68. Speed of boat in still water u km / hr , speed of the
a b c
will have Infinitely many solutions, if 1 1 1 . current v km / hr Speed of upstream
a2 b2 c2
u v km / hr . Speed of downstream
Find the values of a and b so that the following
system of equations have infinitely many solutions u v km / hr
2 x 3 y 7, a b x a b 3 y 4a b Rohit can row downstream 32km in 4 hours and
(a) 4, 3 (b) 1, 4 upstream 4km in 1 hours. Find the speed of boat
rowing in still water and speed of current.
(c) 8,12 (d) 5, 1
(a) 6km / hr , 2km / hr (b) 4km / hr, 4km / hr
64. The system of equations
a1 x b1 y c1 0, a2 x b2 y c2 0 is consistent and (c) 20km / hr , 4km / hr (d) 4km / hr, 2km / hr
a1 b1 c1 69. Speed of boat in still water u km / hr , speed of the
will have Infinitely many solutions, if . current v km / hr Speed of upstream
a2 b2 c2
u v km / hr . Speed of downstream
Find the values of p and q for which the following
u v km / hr
system of linear equations has infinitely many
solutions. A boat covers 32km upstream and 36km
2 x 3 y 7, p q x 2 p q y 3 p q 1 downstream in 7 hours. Also, it covers 40km
upstream and 48km downstream in 9 hours. Find
5
(a) 1, (b) 5,1 the speed of the boat in still water and that of stream.
2 (a) 44km / hr,8km / hr (b) 6km / hr , 4km / hr
10
(c) ,8 (d) 4, 3 (c) 10km / hr, 2km / hr (d) 14km / hr ,5km / hr
3
LINEAR EQUATION IN TWO VARIABLES 42
70. Speed of boat in still water u km / hr , speed of the Section–E (Integer Type Questions)
current v km / hr Speed of upstream
71. If the system of equations 2 x 3 y 5, 4 x ky 10
u v km / hr . Speed of downstream
has infinite many solutions, then k
u v km / hr 72. The difference between a two-digit number and the
A man can row 40km upstream and 55km number obtained by interchanging the digits is 27.
downstream in 13 hours. Also, he can row 30km what is the difference between the two digits of the
upstream and 44km downstream in 10 hours. Find number?
73. If the system of equations
the speed of the man in still water and the speed of
the current. 2 x 3 y 7, 2ax a b y 28 has infinitely many
(a) 8km / hr ,5km / hr solutions, then b ka. Find value of k .
(b) 8km / hr ,3km / hr 74. A boat covers 24km upstream and 36km
(c) 5km / hr,3km / hr downstream in 6 hours while it covers 36km
1
(d) 9km / hr , 6km / hr upstream and 24km downstream in 6 hours. The
2
velocity of the current is______. km / hr.
75. By solving equations 3x 4 y 25 and 4 x 3 y 24
with help of cross-multiplication method we obtain
x y 1 ab
. Then
a b c c
43 LINEAR EQUATION IN TWO VARIABLES
11 1
3. Find x and y If x y 0.9, 11 (a) k 26 (b) k
2x y 26
(a) 9 (b) 10 5 3 5
(a) , (b) ,
4 4 4
(c) 6 (d) 12
x3 5 3 5 3
23. The solution set of 2 is (c) , , (d) ,
x2 4 4 4 4
1 1 1 1
(a) , (b) ,
2 8 8 4
1 1
(c) , , (d) null set
2 2
COORDINATE GEOMETRY 46
05
COORDINATE GEOMETRY
47 COORDINATE GEOMETRY
19. If the point P p, q is equidistant from the points 28. C is the mid-point of PQ if P is 4, x , C is
A a b, b a and B a b, a b then. y, 1 and Q is 2, 4 , then x and y respectively
(a) ap bq (b) bp aq 0 are.
(c) ap bq 0 (d) bp aq 0 (a) 6 and 1 (b) 6 and 2
(c) 6 and 1 (d) 6 and 2
20. A line segment is of length 10 Units. If the
29. The coordinates of vertices A and B of an
coordinates of its one end are 2, 3 and the
equilateral triangle ABC are 4, 0 and 4, 0
abscissa of the other end is 10, then its ordinate is
respectively. Which of the following could be
(a) 9, 6 (b) 3, 9 coordinates of C ?
(c) 3, 9 (d) 9, 6
21. Find the ratio in which the x-axis divides the line
(a) 0, 2 2 (b) 0, 4
53. The point P x, y divides the join of the points 57. Column II gives the coordinates of the point P that
divides the line segment joining the points given in
A 4, 2 and B 1,3 in the ratio 1: 4. Then column I, match them correctly
Column I Column II
(a) x 3
(b) y 1 (A). A 1,3 and B 5, 6 (p). 7, 3
(c) length of PA 2 units internally in the ratio 1 : 2
(B). A 2,1 and B 1, 4 (q). 0, 3
(d) PB 4 2
internally in the ratio 2 :1
54. If A 1, 2 , B 4, y , C x, 6 and D 3, 5 are the
(C). A 1, 7 and B 4, 3 (r). 1, 3
vertices of parallelogram taken in order, then internally in the ratio 2 : 3
(a) x 3 (D). A 4, 3 and B 8, 5 7
(s). , 4
(b) y 1 internally in the ratio 3 :1 3
(a) A r; B q; C s; D p
(c) length of AB 10 units
(b) A s; B p; C r; D q
(d) length of diagonal AC 41 units (c) A s; B q; C r; D p
55. The coordinates of the mid points of the line segment (d) A q; B p; C s; D s
joining the points 3 p, 4 and 2, 2q are 5, p . Section–D (Assertion - Reason Type Questions)
Then 58. Assertion: In quadrilateral ABCD if
(a) p 4 (b) q 6 AB BC CD DA and AC BD then ABCD is
a square.
(c) p q 6 (d) p q 2 Reason: A quadrilateral is square if all its sides are
equal, and the diagonals are equal
Section–C (Matrix Match Type Questions) (a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is
56. Column II gives distance between the pair of points the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
given in column I match them correctly.
not the correct explanation of assertion.
Column I Column II (c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If assertion is false but reason is true.
(A). 5, 7 , 1,3 (p). 5 59. Assertion: The co-ordinates of the points which
divide the line segment joining A 4, 1 and
(B). 5, 6 , 1, 3 (q). 8 5
B 2, 3 into three equal parts are 2, and
3
(C).
3 1,1 , 0, 3 (r). 6
7
0, .
3
(D). 0, 0 , 3, 3 (s). 4 2
Reason: The points which divide AB in the ratio
(a) A p; B s; C q; D r
1 : 3 and 3 :1 are called points of trisection of AB .
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is
(b) A s; B p; C q; D r
the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
(c) A s; B r; C q; D p
not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) A q; B p; C s; D r
(d) If assertion is false but reason is true.
51 COORDINATE GEOMETRY
60. Assertion: Points A 3, 2 , B 2, 3 and C 2, 3 65. x axis divides the line segment joining x1 , y1
are such that AB 50, BC 52, AC 2 . Since and x2 , y2 in the ratio y1 : y2 , y axis divides the
AB BC AC , points A, B and C form a triangle. line segment in the ratio x1 : x2
Reason: If BC 2 AB 2 AC 2 , then ABC is right The x axis meets the line-segment joining
triangle, angled at A. A 1, 4 , B 3, 7 at a point P. The point P
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is
divides AB internally in what ratio?
the correct explanation of assertion.
(a) 7 : 4 (b) 4 : 7
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
(c) 5 : 4 (d) 5 : 7
not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false. 66. x axis divides the line segment joining x1 , y1
(d) If assertion is false but reason is true. and x2 , y2 in the ratio y1 : y2 , y axis divides the
61. Assertion: Three points A, B , C are such that
line segment in the ratio x1 : x2
AB BC AC , then they are collinear.
The y axis divides the line-segment joining the
Reason: Three points are collinear if they lie on a
straight line. points 4,5 and 3, 7 internally in what ratio?
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is (a) 3 : 4 (b) 5 : 4
the correct explanation of assertion. (c) 4 : 3 (d) 4 : 5
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is
67. x axis divides the line segment joining x1 , y1
not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false. and x2 , y2 in the ratio y1 : y2 , y axis divides the
(d) If assertion is false but reason is true. line segment in the ratio x1 : x2
Section–E (Paragraph Type Questions) The x axis divides the line segment joining points
62. The distance between two points A x1 , y1 and 3, 4 and 3, 8 internally in what ratio?
2 2 (a) 2 :1 (b) 2 : 3
B x2 , y2 is given by AB x2 x1 y2 y1
(c) 1 : 3 (d) 1 : 2
Find the distance between the points A 7,13 and 68. If we take m1 k and m2 1 in the section formula,
B 10, 9 the co-ordinates of the point becomes
kx2 x1 ky2 y1
(a) 5 units (b) 7 units , and the point divides the line
k 1 k 1
(c) 3 units (d) 6 units
segment joining x1 , y1 and x2 , y2 in the ratio
63. The distance between two points A x1 , y1 and
k :1
2 2
B x2 , y2 is given by AB x2 x1 y2 y1 In what ratio does the point 2,3 divide the line
Find the distance between the points P 6, 6 from segment joining the points 3, 5 and 4, 9 .
origin. (a) 1 : 6 (b) 6 :1
(c) 5 :1 (d) 1 : 5
(a) 6 units (b) 6 2 units 69. If we take m1 k and m2 1 in the section formula,
(c) 7 2 units (d) 5 units the co-ordinates of the point becomes
64. The distance between two points A x1 , y1 and kx2 x1 ky2 y1
, and the point divides the line
2 2 k 1 k 1
B x2 , y2 is given by AB x2 x1 y2 y1
segment joining x1 , y1 and x2 , y2 in the ratio
Find the values of k for which the distance between k :1
the points A k , 5 and B 2, 7 is 13 units. Find the ratio in which the point 1, k divides the
(a) 7, 3 (b) 7, 3 line segment joining the points 3,10 and 6, 8 .
(c) 7, 3 (d) 7, 3 Hence, find the value of k .
(a) 2 : 7, 6 (b) 7 : 2, 6
(c) 2 : 7, 3 (d) 2 : 7, 4
COORDINATE GEOMETRY 52
70. If we take m1 k and m2 1 in the section formula, 74. If 3, 1 , a, b , 3, 3 and 4, 3 are the four
the co-ordinates of the point becomes vertices of a parallelogram taken in order then ab
kx2 x1 ky2 y1 75. Find the value of p if the slope of the line joining
, and the point divides the line
k 1 k 1 1
points 5, p and 2, 3 is
segment joining x1 , y1 and x2 , y2 in the ratio 3
k :1 76. The equation of the line parallel to Y -axis and
Point 3,1 divides line segment joining points passing through point 5, 7 is x k . Find the
value of k .
3, k and 3, 5 in the ratio 1: 2 internally. Find
77. The equation of the line passing through 3, 4 and
value of k .
(a) 2 (b) 1 4
slope having a slope is 4 x 5 y k 0 then k is
(c) 3 (d) 4 5
equal to
Section–F (Integer Type Questions) 78. Equation of a line which is making an angle of 60o
71. Distance of the point 4, a from x axis is double with the positive direction of X-axis and an intercept
its distance from y axis then a of 5 units length in negative direction of y axis is
(c) 4 (d) None of these divides the join of A 4, 3 and B 2, 8 . Also find
7. If P 2, 1 , Q 3, 4 , R 2, 3 and S 3, 2 be the value of m.
2
four points in a plane, then PQRS is a ? (a) 2 : 5; m 3 (b) 3 : 2; m
5
(a) Rhombus (b) Rectangle 1 2
(c) 1: 2; m (d) 2 :1; m
(c) Square (d) Parallelogram 4 3
15. A 11, 7 and B 10, 6 are the points of
8. The Point P is equidistant from A 1, 3 , B 3, 5 and
trisection of a line segment PQ . Find the
C 5, 1 . then PB is equal to: coordinates of P and Q.
(a) 12, 8 ; 9, 5
(a) 5 2 (b) 5
(b) 12, 8 ; 9, 5
(c) 5 5 (d) 5 10 (c) 12, 0 ; 9, 5
(d) 12, 8 ; 9, 5
COORDINATE GEOMETRY 54
16. If A(a,0), B (0, b) and C (1,1) are collinear, then 22. The medians AD and BE of the triangle with
1 1
? vertices A 0, b , B 0, 0 and C a, 0 are mutually
a b perpendicular if
(a) 0 (b) 1
(a) b 2a (b) a 2b
1
(c) 2 (d) (c) b 2a (d) a b
2
17. If the points (-2, -5), (2, -2) and (8, a) are collinear 23. If 5, 4 divides the line segment between the co-
then value of a will be ordinate axes in the ratio 1:2, then what is its
1 3 equation ?
(a) (b)
2 2 (a) 8x 5 y 20 0 (b) 5x 8 y 7 0
5 5 (c) 8x 5 y 60 0 (d) 5 x 8 y 57 0
(c) (d)
2 2
24. Let PS be the median of the triangle with vertices
18. Find the equation of line which passes through the
point of intersection of the lines 2 x y 5 0 and
P 2, 2 , Q 6, 1 and R 7, 3 . The equation of
5x 3 y 4 0 and is perpendicular to line the line passing through 1, 1 and parallel to PS
x 3 y 21 0 is
(a) 2 x y 10 0 (b) 3x y 21 0 (a) 2 x 9 y 11 0 (b) 2 x 9 y 7 0
19. Find the equation of line passing through the point of 25. What is the equation of the line joining the origin
intersection of lines 2 x y 5 and x 2 y 5 and with the point of intersection of the lines
4 x 3 y 12 and 3x 4 y 12 ?
3
having y-intercept equal to (a) x y 1 (b) x y 1
7
(a) 4 x 21y 9 (b) 21x 4 y 9 (c) 3 y 4 x (d) x y
(c) 4 x 21y 9 (d) 21x 4 y 9
x y
20. If the lines 7 and 3x ky 11 are
3 4
perpendicular, the value of k is?
(a) 4 (b) 3
(c) -4 (d) -3
21. The points A (7, 3) and C (0, -4) are two opposite
vertices of a rhombus ABCD. Find the equation of
diagonal BD.
(a) x y 3 (b) x 3 y
(c) x y 3 (d) y 3x
PHYSICS
56 MATHEMATICAL TOOLS
01
MATHEMATICAL TOOLS
MATHEMATICAL TOOLS 60
32. If A B A B , then angle between A and B (c) x 2 sin x (d) sin x
43. The limit of f x sin x as x approaches is:
will be
(a) 90o (b) 120o
(a) 1 (b)
(c) 0o (d) 60o 2
33. The value of
2 2 (c) (d) 0
sin 60 cos 30 tan 45 cos 60 sin 30 is 3
13 44. what is the limit of x2 as x approaches infinity?
(a) (b) 5
16 (a) 1 (b) Infinity
1 (c) 0 (d) negative infinity
(c) 1 (d) dy sin x
2 45. The value of , if y is:
34. 2
If y f x x , then the value of f (2) is: dx cos x
(a) sec2 x (b) tan x
(a) 2 (b) 4
(c) 6 (d) 5 cos x
(c) (d) tan x cot x
35. If f x cos x, then the value of f is: sin x
46. The maximum value of the function y = 1 - x2 is:
(a) 1 (b) 2
(a) 1 (b) 4
(c) -1 (d) 0
(c) 0 (d) 5
36. If f x x2 sin x, then the value of f (0) is: 2
47. The minimum value of the function y x 2 is:
(a) 0 (b)
(a) 0 (b) 2
(c) 1 (d) Can’t be determined
(c) 4 (d) -1
dy
37. If y x 3 then the value of is: 48. The value of the integral 2 x.dx is:
dx
(a) 3x 2 (b) x2 (a) x 2 x (b) x 2 C
x4 (c) 2x 2 C (d) x3 C
4
(c) (d) 3x 1
4 49. The value of the integral .dx is:
x 2
1 dy
38. If y 2 , then the value of is:
x dx 1
(a) log e x C (b) C
1 x
(a) (b) ln x
x (c) x 2 C (d) none
2 1 50. The value of the integral sin x.dx is:
(c) (d)
x3 x3 (a) cos x C (b) cos x C
dy 2
39. If y 2 tan x , then the value of is: sin x
dx (c) (d) sin x cos x C
2
(a) 2sec2 x (b) cot x
1 x dx
2
51. The value of the integral is:
(c) sin x (d) cos x
(a) x x3 C (b) x x3 C
dy
40. If y sin x , then the value of is: x3
dx (c) x C (d) x 2 x3 x 4 C
(a) cos x (b) cos x 3
1
(c) tan x (d) cosec x
dy 1
52. The value of 5dx
2
is:
41. The value of , if y x 2 is
dx 2 (a) 1 (b) 0
(a) x 3
(b) x (c) 15 (d) 5
4
(c) 2x (d) none x
dy
53. The value of 2 3 dx is:
2
42. If y = x sin x, then the value of is:
dx (a) 18 (b) 12
(a) x cos x sin x (b) x cos x (c) 30 (d) 10
61 MATHEMATICAL TOOLS
(a) 3 3 km
(b) 3 3 km (a) h(cot y cot x) (b) h(tan x tan y)
dy 22. A line passed through points (4, -5) and (3,7) then
14. If y e x then the value of is
dx the slope of a line which is perpendicular to this line
is
ex 2
(a)
2
(b) e
x
(a) 12 (b) -12
1 1
(c) e x (d) none (c) (d)
12 12
dy
15. If y sec x , then the value of is 23. The angle of elevation of the top of a tower as
dx observed from a point on the horizontal ground is x.
(a) sec x tan x (b) sec2 x If we move a distance d towards the foot of the
(c) tan x (d) cot x tower, the angle of elevation increases to y, then the
height of the tower is
16. The limit of f x x as x approaches 9 is d tan x tan y
(a) (b) d (tan y tan x)
(a) 3 (b) 0 tan y tan x
(c) 9 (d) d tan x tan y
(c) d (tan y tan x) (d)
17. What is the limit of the function f x 2 as x tan y tan x
tends to 4 is 24. A man observes the elevation of a tower to be 30o.
(a) -2 (b) 4 After advancing 11 cm towards it, he finds that the
(c) (d) 0 elevation is 45o. The height of the tower to the
dy 9
nearest centimeter is
18. The value of , if y 4 3 x is (a) 10 (b) 15
dx
8 8
(c) 20 (d) 22
(a) 27 4 3x (b) 9 4 3x 25. AB is a straight road leading to C, the foot of a
(c) 8 4 3x (d) None of the above tower, A is at a distance 200 metres from C and B at
75 metres from C. If the angle of elevation of the
1
19. The value of the integral x .dx is tower at B be double the angle of elevation at A,
then the height of the tower is
(a) log x C (b) x 2 C (a) 125 m (b) 120 m
1 (c) 115 m (d) 100 m
(c) C (d) none
x
1
20. The value 2 d
4
is
3
(a) (b) 3
2
(c) (d) 4
21. The slope of the line given by is 2 x 4 y 10 is
(a) 2 (b) 1
1 1
(c) (d)
2 2
MOTION 65
02
MOTION
69 MOTION
52. Two stones of different masses are dropped 60. An arrow is shot into air. Its range is 200 m and its
simultaneously from the top of a building time of flight is 5 s. If g = 10 ms−2, then horizontal
(a) Smaller stone hit the ground earlier component of the velocity of the arrow is
(b) Larger stone hit the ground earlier (a) 25.0 ms−1 (b) 31.25 ms−1
−1
(c) Both stones reach the ground simultaneously (c) 35 ms (d) 40 ms−1
(d) Which of the stones reach the ground earlier 61. The maximum range of a gun on horizontal terrain is
depends on the composition of the stone 16 km. If g 10m / s 2 . What must be the muzzle
53. The initial velocity of the particle is 10m / sec and its velocity of the shell?
retardation is 2m / s 2 then the distance moved by the (a) 200 m/s (b) 400 m/s
particle in 5th second of its motion is (c) 100 m/s (d) 50 m/s
(a) 1 m (b) 19 m 62. A projectile fired with initial velocity u at some angle
(c) 50 m (d) 75 m has a range R. If the initial velocity be made 3
54. A boy throws a stone at an angle of 53° and the times at the same angle of projection, then the range
maximum height reached is 10 m. The range of the will be
stone is: (given; tan 53° = 4/3) (a) 3R (b) 6R
(a) 20 2m (b) 10 m (c) R (d) 9R
63. A body is projected at an angle of 30o and 60o with
(c) 10 2 m (d) 30 m
the same velocity. Their horizontal ranges are R1 and
55. For an object thrown at 45° to the horizontal, the
R2 and maximum heights are H1 and H2 respectively
maximum height H and horizontal range R are related
then:
(a) R = 16 H (b) R = 8 H
R H
(c) R = 4 H (d) R = 2H (a) 1 1 (b) 1 1
R2 H2
56. A stone projected at angle 53 attains maximum
height 25 m during its motion in air. Then its distance R1 H1
(c) 1 (d) 1
from the point of projection where it will fall is R2 H2
400 64. A body rotates about a fixed axis with an angular
(a) 75 m (b) m
3 acceleration of 3 rad s-2. The angle rotated by it
(c) 50 m (d) 60 m during the time when its angular velocity increases
57. Velocity of a stone projected. 2 second before it from 10 rad/s to 20 rad/s (in radian) is
reaches the maximum height, makes angle 53' with (a) 50 (b) 100
the horizontal then the velocity at highest point will (c) 150 (d) 200
be 65. A car moves on a circular road. It describes equal
(a) 20 m/s (b) 15 m/s angles about the centre in equal intervals of time.
(c) 25 m/s (d) 80/3 m/s Which of the following statements about the velocity
58. Acceleration of a particle under projectile motion at of the car is true?
the highest point of its trajectory is : (a) Magnitude of velocity is not constant
(a) g (b) Both magnitude and direction of velocity change
(b) zero (c) Velocity is directed towards the centre of the
(c) less than g circle
(d) dependent upon projection velocity (d) Magnitude of velocity is constant but direction
59. A stone is projected with speed 20 m/s at angle with changes
66. A body is revolving with a uniform speed v in a circle
the horizontal and it hits the ground with speed 12
of radius r. The tangential acceleration is
m/s due to air resistance. Assume the effect of air
resistance to reduce only horizontal component of v v2
(a) (b)
r r
velocity. Then the time of flight will be
v
(a) greater than 2.4 s (b) less than 2.4 s (c) Zero (d)
r2
(c) 2.4 s (d) depends on other data
71 MOTION
67. Let ar and at represent radial and tangential 73. A body starts from rest from the origin with an
acceleration. The motion of a particle may be circular acceleration of 6m/s2 along the x-axis and 8m/s2
if: along the y-axis. Its distance from the origin after 4
(a) ar 0, at 0 (b) ar 0, at 0 seconds will be
(a) 56 m (b) 64 m
(c) ar 0, at 0 (d) none of these (c) 80 m (d) 128 m
68. Two racing cars of masses m1 and m2 are moving in 74. Distance is path _______ & displacement is path
circles of radii r1 and r2 respectively. Their speeds are ________.
(a) dependent, dependent
such that each makes a complete circle in the same
(b) independent, dependent
duration of time t. The ratio of the angular speed of
(c) independent, independent
the first to the second car is
(d) dependent, independent
(a) m1 : m2 (b) r1 : r2
75. The co-ordinates of a moving particle at any time t
(c) 1 :1 (d) m1r1 : m2 r2
are given by x ct 2 and y bt 2 . The speed of the
69. The angular speed of a fly wheel making 120
particle is given by:
revolutions per minute is
(a) 2t (c b) (b) 2t c 2 b 2
(a) 2 rad / s (b) 4 2 rad / s
(c) rad / s (d) 4 rad / s (c) t c 2 b 2 (d) 2t c 2 b2
70. A stone is tied with a string and is rotated in a circle (c) 100 meters (d) 150 meters
horizontally. When the string suddenly breaks, the
stone will move
(a) tangential to the motion
(b) away from the centre
(c) towards the centre
(d) None of these
71. A particle is moving along a circular path of radius 5
m with a uniform speed 5 ms–1. What will be the
average acceleration (in m/s2) when the particle
completes half revolution?
(a) Zero (b) 10ms-2
10
(c) 10 ms 2 (d) ms 2
72. If position of ball can be given as x = sin t then what
will be its acceleration at t 2 s ?
(a) -1 (b) 0
1
(c) 1 (d)
2
MOTION 72
03
LAWS OF MOTION
LAWS OF MOTION 82
23. When a body is stationary, 25. A mass of 10 gm moving with a velocity of 100 cm/s
(a) There is no force acting on it strikes head on elastically with a body of mass 10 gm
(b) Force acting on it is not in contact with it at rest. velocity of first ball after collision would be
(c) Combination of forces acting on it balance each (a) 0 cm/s (b) 50 cm/s
other (c) 25 cm/s (d) 100 cm/s
(d) The body is a vacuum
24. A body moving with a velocity v breaks up into two
equal parts. One of the parts retraces back with
velocity v. The velocity of the other part is
(a) v in forward direction
(b) 3v in forward direction
(c) v in backward direction
(d) 3v backward direction
CHEMISTRY
MATTER IN OUR SURROUNDINGS 84
01
MATTER IN OUR SURROUNDINGS
85 MATTER IN OUR SURROUNDINGS
54. Assertion: Most of the solid, liquid, gaseous can (b) Both Assertion and reason are true, and reason is
diffuse into liquids. not the correct explanation for assertion.
Reason: Liquids cannot change its shape. (c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(a) Both Assertion and reason are true, and reason is (d) Both Assertion and reason are false.
the correct explanation for assertion. 60. Assertion: Wet clothes dry faster on a windly day.
(b) Both Assertion and reason are true, and reason is Reason: Rate of evaporation is proportional to
not the correct explanation for assertion. humidity
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false. (a) Both Assertion and reason are true, and reason is
(d) Both Assertion and reason are false. the correct explanation for assertion.
55. Assertion: Solids may break under force but it is (b) Both Assertion and reason are true, and reason is
difficult to change their shape. not the correct explanation for assertion.
Reason: Solids are rigid. (c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(a) Both Assertion and reason are true, and reason is (d) Both Assertion and reason are false.
the correct explanation for assertion. 61. Assertion: Sea water freezes below 0oC.
(b) Both Assertion and reason are true, and reason is Reason: Freezing point increases due to the addition
not the correct explanation for assertion. of impurities.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false. (a) Both Assertion and reason are true, and reason is
(d) Both Assertion and reason are false. the correct explanation for assertion.
56. Assertion: The matter around us exists in three (b) Both Assertion and reason are true, and reason is
different states solid, liquid gas. not the correct explanation for assertion.
Reason: These states arise due to the variation in (c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
characteristics of the particle of matter. (d) Both Assertion and reason are false.
(a) Both Assertion and reason are true, and reason is 62. Assertion: Naphthalene does not leave any residue
the correct explanation for assertion. when kept open for some time
(b) Both Assertion and reason are true, and reason is Reason: The conversion of a solid directly into gas
not the correct explanation for assertion. is called condensation.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false. (a) Both Assertion and reason are true, and reason is
(d) Both Assertion and reason are false. the correct explanation for assertion.
57. Assertion: Particles of matter held together by (b) Both Assertion and reason are true, and reason is
intermolecular forces of attraction. not the correct explanation for assertion.
Reason: Solid state has maximum movement. (c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(a) Both Assertion and reason are true, and reason is (d) Both Assertion and reason are false.
the correct explanation for assertion. 63. Assertion: Naphthalene, camphor, iodine,
(b) Both Assertion and reason are true, and reason is ammonium chloride are some common examples of
not the correct explanation for assertion. the substances which undergo sublimation.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false. Reason: All solids are first converted to liquids and
(d) Both Assertion and reason are false. then to gases on heating.
58. Assertion: Particles in liquid state shows motion. (a) Both Assertion and reason are true, and reason is
Reason: It posses potential energy. the correct explanation for assertion.
(a) Both Assertion and reason are true, and reason is (b) Both Assertion and reason are true, and reason is
the correct explanation for assertion. not the correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and reason are true, and reason is (c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
not the correct explanation for assertion. (d) Both Assertion and reason are false.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false. 64. Assertion: Ice floats on the surface of water.
(d) Both Assertion and reason are false. Reason: The density of both water and ice is the
59. Assertion: Wet cloth is placed on the forehead of a same.
(a) Both Assertion and reason are true, and reason is
person who is running high temperature
the correct explanation for assertion.
Reason: Evaporation causes cooling. (b) Both Assertion and reason are true, and reason is
(a) Both Assertion and reason are true, and reason is not the correct explanation for assertion.
the correct explanation for assertion. (c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both Assertion and reason are false.
MATTER IN OUR SURROUNDINGS 90
Section-C (Matrix Match Type Questions) 69. Match the following with correct response.
65. Column – I Column – II
List-I List-II (1) Sublimation (A) Heat required to
(P) Particles move randomly 1. Water change the state of 1 Kg
(Q) Layers can slide over each other 2. Sugar of solid into liquid
(R) Changes directly to gaseous 3. Nitrogen (2) Evaporation (B) change of liquid state
state into vapours without
(S) Particles are not free to move 4. coming to its boiling
Ammonium point
chloride (3) Latent heat of (C) Change of solid
(a) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4 (b) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2 vaporization directly into vapours
(c) P-1, Q-3, R-2, S-4 (d) P-2, Q-3, R-4, S-1 (4) Latent heat of fusion (D) Liquid
66. On the basis of the information, given in the (a) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D
columns, select the correct option (b) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C
Column – I Column – II (c) 1-D, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B
(P) Increase in surface 1. Evaporation increases (d) 1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-A
area 70. Match the following with correct response.
(Q) Decrease in 2. Evaporation decreases Column – I Column – II
temperature (1) Physical state of (A) Solid
(R) Evaporation 3. Bulk Phenomenon o
water at 25 C
(S) Boiling 4. Surface phenomenon
(a) P-1, Q-2, R-4, S-3 (b) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2 (2) Water at 273 K (B) Latent heat
(c) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4 (d) P-4, Q-2, R-3, S-1 (3) Water at 100 C o
(C) Vapour
67. Match the Column -I with Column – II.
(4) Energy required to (D) Heat required to
Column – I Column – II
(i) Camphor (a) Mass/Volume change the state change the state of 1 Kg
(ii) Density (b) Compressed Natural Gas liquid into vapours
(iii) Matter (c) Occupies space and has mass
(a) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C
(iv) CNG (d) Sublime
(b) 1-A, 2-C, 3-B, 4-D
(a) (ii) d, (i) a, (iv) c,(iii) b
(c) 1-C, 2-B, 3-D, 4-A
(b) (i) d, (ii) a, (iii) c,(iv) b
(d) 1-D, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B
(c) (iii) d, (ii) a, (i) c,(iv) b 71. Column II give properties for matter mention in
(d) (i) d, (iv) a, (iii) c, (ii) b Column I match them correctly.
Section -D (Multiple Choice Type Questions) 74. Identify the incorrect statement about evaporation
72. Two chemical substance A & B combine together to (a) It causes cooling
form a product P which contain A & B. (b) It increases with increase in humidity
A and B can not be broken into simpler substance by (c) It decreases with increase in temperature
simple chemical reaction, which of the following (d) It increases with increase in wind speed
statements concerning A, B, P is/are correct 75. Gases can be liquefied by:
(a) P is a compound (a) increasing pressure
(b) A & B are compound (b) decreasing temperature
(c) A & B are element (c) increasing temperature
(d) P has a fixed composition (d) decreasing pressure
73. Which of the following substance(s) can sublime?
(a) Camphor
(b) Solid carbon dioxide
(c) Ammonium chloride
(d) Sodium bicarbonate
94 IS MATTER AROUND US PURE
02
IS MATTER AROUND US PURE
95 IS MATTER AROUND US PURE
17. A mixture of water and silver chloride can be 27. Distillation is a good separation technique for
separated by (a) Solids (b) Liquids
(a) Centrifugation (b) Sedimentation (c) Solid alloys (d) Gases
(c) Filtration (d) Sublimation 28. Separation of petroleum into its components is done
18. The material which is added to water during by
purification process at the water works so as to (a) Chromatography (b) Sublimation
disinfect it is (c) Distillation (d) Fractional distillation
(a) Potassium permanganate 29. Which of the following statements is not true about
(b) Chlorine partition chromatography?
(c) Betadine (a) Mobile phase can be a gas
(d) Potash alum (b) Stationary phase is a finely divided solid
19. Tiny pieces of stones are usually separated from adsorbent
pulses before cooking by the method called (c) Separation depends upon equilibration of solute
(a) Threshing (b) Sieving between a mobile and a stationary phase
(c) Handpicking (d) Winnowing (d) Paper chromatography is an example of partition
20. Pure copper sulphate can be obtained from an chromatography
impure sample by the process of 30. Two compounds I and II are eluted by column
(a) Evaporation (b) Centrifugation chromatography (adsorption of I II). Which one of
(c) Crystallisation (d) Sublimation following is a correct statement?
21. A mixture of methyl alcohol and acetone can be (a) I move faster and has higher R value than II
separated by (b) II moves faster and has higher R value than I
(a) Separating funnel (b) Chromatography (c) I move slower and has higher R value than II
(c) Distillation (d) Fractional distillation (d) II moves slower and has higher R value than I
22. A liquid is said to be volatile 31. The principle of column chromatography is
(a) If forces of interaction between the molecules are (a) Gravitational force
less (b) Capillary action
(b) If forces of interaction between the molecules is (c) Differential absorption of the substances on the
more solid phase
(c) Forces of interaction first increase and then (d) Differential adsorption of the substances on the
decrease solid phase
(d) All the above 32. In chromatography, which of the following
23. The process used to separate oil and water is statement is INCORRECT for Rf?
(a) Distillation (b) Sublimation (a) Rf value depends on the type of chromatography
(c) Separating funnel (d) Chromatography (b) The value of Rf value means higher adsorption
24. Which of the following cannot be separated from air (c) Higher Rf value means higher adsorption
by the process of fractional distillation? (d) Rf value is dependent on the mobile phase
(a) Oxygen (b) Argon 33. The solubility of a gas in water depends on
(c) Hydrogen (d) Nitrogen (a) Nature of the gas (b) Temperature
25. Principle of chromatography is based on (c) Pressure of the gas (d) All of the above
(a) Rate of adsorption 34. Homogeneous mixture of two or more than two
(b) Rate of absorption components is called
(c) Rate of diffusion (a) Solute (b) Solvent
(d) None of these (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Solution
26. In chromatography different constituents of a 35. The term homogenous mixtures signifies that
mixture get adsorbed differently on same adsorbent (a) Its composition is uniform throughout the
because mixture
(a) They have difference in pressure (b) Its properties are uniform throughout the mixture
(b) They have difference rate of movement (c) Both composition and properties are uniform
throughout the mixture
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither composition nor properties are uniform
(d) None of these throughout the mixture
IS MATTER AROUND US PURE 98
52. Assertion: Milk of magnesia is a true solution. 57. Assertion: Compounds are invariably homogenous.
Reason: Particles of solute settle down at the Reason: Compounds are constituted of only one
bottom. kind of molecules distributed uniformly.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the
is the correct explanation of Assertion. Reason is the correct explanation of the
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason Assertion
is not the correct explanation of Assertion. (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false. Reason is not the correct explanation of the
(d) Assertion is false but Reason is true. Assertion
53. Assertion: True solution exhibit Tyndall effect. (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false
Reason: Particles are very small in size. (d) Assertion is false, but Reason is true
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason 58. Assertion: On opening a Pepsi bottle, CO2 comes
is the correct explanation of Assertion. out with fizzing sound.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason Reason: Solubility of a gas is inversely proportional
is not the correct explanation of Assertion. to pressure.
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false. (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the
(d) Assertion is false but Reason is true. Reason is the correct explanation of the
54. Assertion: Homogeneous mixtures have same Assertion
composition throughout. (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the
Reason: Particles are indistinguishable. Reason is not the correct explanation of the
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason Assertion
is the correct explanation of Assertion. (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason (d) Assertion is false, but Reason is true
is not the correct explanation of Assertion. 59. Assertion: A mixture of SO2 and water can be
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false. separated by heating.
(d) Assertion is false but Reason is true. Reason: SO2 is highly soluble in water.
55. Given below are two statements: (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the
Assertion: Retardation factor (Rf) can be measured Reason is the correct explanation of the
in meter/centimetre. Assertion
Reason: Rf value of a compound remains constant (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the
in all solvents. Reason is not the correct explanation of the
Choose the most appropriate answer from the Assertion
options given below. (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false
(a) Assertion is true but Reason is false (d) Assertion is false, but Reason is true
(b) Assertion is false but Reason is true 60. Assertion: Ethyl alcohol and water can be separated
(c) Both Assertion and Reason are true by separating funnel.
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are false
Reason: Ethyl alcohol and water differ with respect
56. Assertion: All pure substances are homogeneous.
Reason: Pure substances are made up of only one to their boiling points.
kind of molecules and they are uniformly (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the
distributed.
Reason is the correct explanation of the
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and the
Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion
Assertion (b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but the
Reason is not the correct explanation of the
Reason is not the correct explanation of the
Assertion Assertion
(c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false (c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false
(d) Assertion is false, but Reason is true (d) Assertion is false, but Reason is true
99 IS MATTER AROUND US PURE
61. Assertion: Milk is an example of water in oil 65. Match the statement of Column A with those
emulsion. Column B.
Reason: Emulsion contains liquid dispersed in Column A Column B
liquid. (i) Solvent extraction (A) Water + Alcohol
(a) Assertion and reason both are correct and the (ii) Gravity method (B) Sulphur + Sand
reason is correct explanation of assertion (iii) Sublimation (C) Sand + Saw dust
(b) Assertion and reason both are correct but reason (iv) Fractional (D) Sand + Water
does not explain assertion crystallization
(c) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect (E) Sand + Iodine
(d) Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct (F) Potassium nitrate +
62. Assertion: A simple distillation can be used to Sodium chloride
separate a mixture of propanol and propanone. (a) i A ; ii A ; iii E ; iv F
Reason: Two liquids with a difference of more than
20°C in their boiling points can be separated by (b) i D ; ii F ; iii E ; iv A
simple distillations. In the light of the above (c) i B , ii C , iii E ; iv F
statements, choose the most appropriate answer (d) i D , ii A , iii E ; iv c
from the options given below:
(a) Assertion is false but Reason is true. 66. Match the statement of Column A with those
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but is Column B.
Reason not the correct explanation of Assertion. Column A Column B
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false (i) Preferential (A) Difference in molecular
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and liquefaction masses
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion (ii) Fractional (B) Preferential solubility
63. Assertion: Lyophilic colloids are called as evaporation of a gas in a solvent
reversible sols. (iii) Diffusion (C) Difference in critical
Reason: Lyophilic sols are liquid loving. temperature
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and (iv) Dissolution in a (D) Difference in boiling
solvent points
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(a) i C ; ii D ; iii A ; iv B
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, but
Reason is not the correct explanation of (b) i C ; ii D ; iii B ; iv C
03
ATOMS AND MOLECULES
105 ATOMS AND MOLECULES
18. The vapour density of a mixture containing equal 27. If NA is Avogadro’s number then number of valence
number of moles of methane and ethane at STP is electrons in 4.2 g of nitride ions (N3−)
(a) 11.5 (b) 11.0 (a) 2.4 NA (b) 4.2 NA
(c) 23 (d) 12.0 (c) 1.6 NA (d) 3.2 NA
19. The molecular weight of a gas is 45. Its density in 28. The number of moles of oxygen present in 0.3 gram
g/L at STP is mole of (COOH)2.2H2O is
(a) 22.4 (b) 11.2 (a) 0.6 (b) 1.8
(c) 5.7 (d) 2.0 (c) 1.2 (d) 3.6
20. The atomic weights of two elements A and B are 40 29. Number of gm of oxygen in 32.2 g Na2SO4.10H2O is
and 80 respectively. If x g of A contains y atoms, (a) 20.8 (b) 22.4
how many atoms are present in 2x g of B? (c) 2.24 (d) 2.08
y y 30. Which of the following has the maximum number of
(a) (b)
2 4 atoms?
(c) 2y (d) y (a) 24 g of C (12) (b) 56 g of Fe (56)
21. What mass of oxygen is combined with 9.02 g of (c) 27 g of Al (27) (d) 108 g of Ag (108)
sulphur in 31. Calculate the mass of iron which will be converted
(i) sulphur dioxide, SO2 and into its oxide (Fe3O4)by the action of 18 g of steam
(ii) sulphur trioxide, SO3? on it.
(a) 23.5 g O in SO2 and 19.02 g O in SO3 (a) 30 g (b) 32 g
(b) 19.02 g O in SO2 and 23.5 g O in SO3 (c) 42 g (d) 44 g
(c) 9.02 g O in SO2 and 13.5 g O in SO3 32. 3 g of H2 react with 29 g of O2 to form H2O . Which
(d) 9.02 g O in SO3 and 13.5 g O in SO2 is the limiting reagent?
22. According to Dalton's theory, matter consists of (a) H2
indivisible _______. (b) O2
(a) molecules (b) atoms (c) H2 and O2 will be equally consumed
(c) ions (d) mixtures (d) Cannot be calculated
23. Dalton was the first one to bring the concept of 33. A balanced chemical equation is in accordance with
symbols. What was the purpose of the symbols he which one of the following laws given below?
used? (a) Law of conservation of energy
i. To represent the quantity of the element (b) Law of conservation of mass
ii. To represent the element (c) Law of constant proportion
iii. To represent the origin of the element (d) Law of multiple proportion
(a) ii only (b) Both ii and iii 34. Consider the following reaction:
(c) Both i and ii (d) i, ii, and iii X calcium carbonate + Y phosphoric
24. Few figures are expressed in scientific notation. acid → calcium phosphate + X water + X carbon
Mark the incorrect one. dioxide
(a) 234000 = 2.34 × 105 What is the value of X and Y ?.
(b) 8008 = 8 × 108 (a) X – 3; Y – 1 (b) X – 3; Y – 4
(c) 0.0048 = 4.8 × 10–3 (c) X – 1; Y – 3 (d) X – 3; Y – 2
(d) 500.0 = 5.00 × 102 35. A molal solution is one that contains one mole of
25. How much mass of silver nitrate will react with 5.85 solute in
g of sodium chloride to produce 14.35 g of silver (a) 1000 g of solvent (b) 1.0 L of solvent
chloride and 8.5 g of sodium nitrate, if law of (c) 1.0 L of solution (d) 22.4 L of solution
conservation of mass is followed? 36. Which of the following correctly represents 360 g of
(a) 22.85 g (b) 108 g water?
(c) 17.0 g (d) 28.70 g (i) 2 moles of H2O
26. 7.5 grams of a gas occupy 5.6 litres of volume at (ii) 20 moles of water
STP. Then, the gas is (iii) 6.022×1023 molecules of water
(a) NO (b) N2O (iv) 1.2044×1025 molecules of water
(c) CO (d) CO2 (a) (i) (b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iv)
107 ATOMS AND MOLECULES
37. Which of the following would weigh the highest? 47. If 1.5 moles of oxygen combine with Al to
(a) 0.2 mole of sucrose (C12H22O11) form Al2O3 the weight of Al used in the reaction is
(b) 2 moles of CO2 (Al =27)
(c) 2 moles of CaCO3 (a) 27 g (b) 54 g
(d) 10 moles of H2O (c) 49.5 g (d) 31 g
38. What is the ratio of masses of oxygen and ozone 48. What is the number of iron atoms in a piece of iron
gases containing equal number of molecules? weighing 2.8g?
(a) 2 : 3 (b) 1 : 3 (Atomic mass of Fe = 56 u)
(c) 1 : 1 (d) 2 : 1 (a) 3.011 × 1024 (b) 5.011 × 1023
22
39. The mole fraction of water in 10% aqueous solution (c) 6.011 × 10 (d) 3.011 × 1022
of H2O2 is 49. Dalton’s postulate, “Atoms of different elements
17 16 have different masses and chemical properties”
(a) (b) violates in case of _________.
18 18
(a) Isobars (b) Isotones
11 19
(c) (d) (c) Atoms (d) Isotopes
18 18
50. State ‘T’ for true and ‘F’ for false and choose the
40. 1.24 gm P is present in 2.2 gm correct option.
(a) PS2 (b) P2S2 I. Particles having more or less electrons than the
(c) P4 S3 (d) P2S4 normal atoms are called ions.
41. For the reaction 3A + 4B → 5C + 2D, 6 moles of A II. The molecular formula of a compound is
and 10 moles of B will produce determined by the valency of the elements
(a) 7.5 moles of C (b) 12.5 moles of C present in the compound.
(c) 8 moles of D (d) 4 moles of D III. The molecular formula of ferrous sulphate
42. 10 moles N2 and 15 moles of H2 were allowed to is Fe2(SO4)3 and ferric sulphate is FeSO4.
react over a suitable catalyst. 10 moles of NH3 were (a) I-F ; II-T ; III-F (b) I-T ; II-T ; III-F
formed. The remaining moles of N2 and (c) I-T ; II-F ; III-F (d) I-T ; II-F ; III-T
H2 respectively are: Section -B (Assertion - Reason Type Questions)
(a) 5 moles, 0 mole (b) 0 moles, 5 mole
(c) 9 moles, 12 mole (d) 0 moles, 0 mole 51. Assertion: Pure water obtained from different
43. The number of atoms in 4.25 g of NH3 is sources such as river, well, sea etc. always contains
approximately hydrogen and oxygen combined in the ratio of 1 : 8
(a) 1 1023 (b) 2 10 23 by mass.
Reason: A chemical compound always contains
(c) 4 10 23 (d) 6 10 23
elements combined in the same fixed proportions by
44. Two litre of oxygen was reacted with five litre of CO
mass.
at STP. Find mass of CO2 produced.
(a) Both Assertion and reason are true, and reason is
(a) 1.8g (b) 2.0g
the correct explanation for assertion.
(c) 7.86g (d) 3.93g
(b) Both Assertion and reason are true, and reason is
45. A solution of A (MM = 20) and B (MM = 10), [Mole
not the correct explanation for assertion.
fraction XB = 0.6] has density of 0.7 gm/ml then
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
molality of B in this solution will be
(d) Both Assertion and reason are false.
(a) 75 (b) 40
52. Assertion: 1 mole of H2 and O2 each occupy 22.4 L
(c) 50 (d) 60
at standard temperature and pressure.
46. A solution containing 6.8g AgNO3 is added to a
Reason: Molar volume for all gases at the standard
solution containing 7.1g Na2SO4. Then what is the temperature and pressure has the same value.
weight of precipitate obtained? (a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason
is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(a) 15.6 g (b) 6.24 g
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason
(c) 12.48 g (d) 3.12 g is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false
(d) Reason is true, but Assertion is false.
ATOMS AND MOLECULES 108
53. Assertion: One atomic mass unit (amu) is mass of an 57. Match the List – I of atoms with their atomic mass
atom equal to exactly one-twelfth of the mass of a given in List – II and choose the correct option.
carbon-12 atom. List –I List–II
Reason: Carbon-12 isotope was selected as standard. (Atom) (Atomic mass)
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason P. Calcium 1. 14
is the correct explanation of Assertion. Q. Nitrogen 2. 16
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason R. Oxygen 3. 26
is not the correct explanation of Assertion. S. Sodium 4. 40
(c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false (a) P 3, Q 4, R 1,S 2
(d) Reason is true, but Assertion is false.
(b) P 2, Q 3, R 4,S 1
54. Assertion: The formula unit mass of zinc oxide is
(c) P 1, Q 2, R 3,S 4
97 u.
Reason: The formula unit mass is the sum of atomic (d) P 4, Q 1, R 2,S 3
masses of all atoms present in the formula unit of the 58. Match Column-I with Column-II
compound. Column-I Column-II
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason (A) Law of (P) CH4 has carbon and
is the correct explanation of Assertion. conservation of hydrogen in 3:1 mass ratio
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason mass
is not the correct explanation of Assertion. (B) Law of multiple (Q) S and O2 combine to form
(c) Assertion is true, but Reason is false proportion SO2 and SO3
(d) Reason is true, but Assertion is false. (C) Law of definite (R) In H2S and SO2 mass ratio
proportion of H and O w.r.t sulphur is
Section-C (Matrix Match Type Questions) 1:16, hence in H2O, mass
55. Match the List – I of compounds with their ratio of ratio of H and O is 1:8
atoms by mass given in List – II and choose the (D) Law of (S) 4.2 g MgCO3 gives 2.0 g
correct combination. reciprocal residue on heating.
List –I (Compound) List-II (Ratio of atoms proportion
by mass)
P. Water 1. 14 : 3 (a) A → S; B → Q; C → P; D → R
Q. Ammonia 2. 1 : 8 (b) A → S; B → Q; C → R; D → P
R. Carbon dioxide 3. 1 : 3 (c) A → Q; B → S; C → P; D → R
S. Sulphur dioxide 4. 3 : 8 (d) A → R; B → Q; C → P; D → S
(a) P 4, Q 3, R 2,S 1 59. Match the items given in column A with that given in
column B and choose the correct option given below:
(b) P 1, Q 2, R 3,S 4
Column-A Column-B
(c) P 3, Q 1, R 4,S 2
I. Substances taking part p. Balanced Equation
(d) P 2, Q 1, R 4,S 3 in a reaction
56. Match the List – I of compounds with their II. Number written q. Unbalanced equation
molecular mass given in List – II and choose the before a formula in the
correct option. chemical equation
List –I List–II III. CO H 2 CH 3OH r. Stoichiometric
P. K2CO3 1. 62 u Coefficient
Q. Na2O 2. 138 u IV. s. Reactants
R. HNO3 3. 64 u CaO H 2 O Ca OH 2
S. SO2 4. 63 u t. Products
(a) P 1, Q 4, R 3,S 2 (a) I s, II r, III p, IV q
(b) P 3, Q 2, R 4,S 1 (b) I s, II r, III q, IV p
(c) P 2, Q 1, R 4,S 3
(c) I t, II r, III q, IV p
(d) P 2, Q 3, R 1,S 4
(d) I s, II q, III r, IV p
109 ATOMS AND MOLECULES
60. The mass of few entities are mentioned in the Which of the following statements is/are correct?
column II. Match the two columns and mark the (a) The weight of CaCO3 in the original mixture is
correct option from the codes given below. 0.5g
Column-I Column-II (b) The weight of calcium in the original mixture is
p. 10 moles of Na2SO3 (i) 124.7 g 0.2g
q. 1.5 moles of Na (ii) 34.5 g (c) The weight percent of calcium in the original
23
r. 1.5 10 molecules (iii) 1260 g mixture is 40% Ca.
of NH3 (d) The weight percent of Ca in the original mixture is
s. 0.5 mole of CuSO4 (iv) 4.23 g 20% Ca.
(a) p-(ii), q-(iv), r-(i), s-(iii) Section-E (Integer Type Questions)
(b) p-(i), q-(ii), r-(iii), s-(iv)
(c) p-(iii), q-(ii), r-(iv), s-(i) 66. The molality of a 0.8 M solution of Na2CO3 is
(d) p-(iv), q-(i), r-(ii), s-(iii) m × 10–3. Find the value of m. (density of solution =
1.10 g mL–1), (Molecular weight of Na2CO3 = 106
Section -D (Multiple Choice Type Questions) g/mol)
67. Taking one mole of N2(g) and excess of H2(g), under
61. Which of the following pairs have same number of
suitable conditions, formation of NH3 is completed
molecules?
when NH3(g) has mole fraction of 0.5. The initial
(a) 2 g of O2, 4 g of SO2
moles of H2 are
(b) 2 g CO2, 2 g of N2O
68. The molality of 10.0% (W/W) aqueous NaCl is
(c) 224 ml O2 at STP, 0.01 moles of He
(M.W =58.5). Report the answer to nearest integer.
(d) 2 g oxygen and 2 g ozone
69. The molarity of HNO3 in a sample which has density
62. 10 g carbon reacts with 100 g Cl2 to form CCl4. The
1.4 g/mL and mass percentage of 63% is -----
correct statement is
(Molecular weight of HNO3 = 63).
(a) Carbon is the limiting reagent
70. A 10 mg effervescent tablet containing sodium
(b) Cl2 is the limiting reagent
bicarbonate and oxalic acid releases 0.25 mL of
(c) 107.8 g CCl4 is formed
CO2 at T = 298.15 K and P = 1 bar. If molar volume
(d) 0.833 moles of CCl4 are formed
of CO2 is 25.0 L under such condition, what is the
63. Select the INCORRECT statement(s)
percentage of sodium bicarbonate in each tablet ?
(a) Number of oxygen atoms are same in 1 g O2 and
[Molar mass of NaHCO3 = 84 g mol–1]
1g O3
71. The mass numbers of isotopes of an element are 10,
(b) 1 gm molecule of any substance contains equal
12, and 14 units. Their percentage abundance is 80,
number of atoms
15, and 5, respectively. What is the atomic weight of
(c) Reactant having minimum number of moles,
the element (to the nearest whole number)?
always acts as limiting reagent
72. The mass of ammonia in grams produced when 2.8
(d) During a chemical reaction total number of moles
kg of dinitrogen quantitatively reacts with 1 kg of
may increase or decrease or remain constant.
dihydrogen is ______.
64. Consider the hypothetical balanced reaction,
73. How much amount of CaCO3 in gram having
2A + 3B → 4C + 5D; in which A and B are reactants
percentage purity 50 per cent produces 0.56 litre of
and C and D are products. If one mole each of A and
CO2 at STP on heating?
B are reacted. Then
74. A chemist wants to prepare diborane by the reaction:
(a) 2.25 mole of D is formed
6 LiH + 8 BF3 → 6 LiBF4 + B2H6
(b) 1.67 mole of D is formed
If this reaction starts with 2.0 moles each of LiH &
(c) 0.33 mole of A are left after complete reaction
BF3. How many moles B2H6 can be prepared?
(d) 1.33 mole of C is formed
75. What volume of a liquid (in L) will contain 10 mole?
65. 1.0 g mixture of CaCO3(s) and glass beads liberate
If molar mass of liquid is 280 and its density is 1.4
0.22g of CO2 upon treatment with excess of HCl.
g/mL.
Glass does not react with HCl.
CaCO3 + 2HCl → CO2 + H2O + CaCl2
[MW of CaCO3 = 100, MW of CO2 = 44, Atomic
weight of Ca = 40]
ATOMS AND MOLECULES 110
14. 250 ml of a sodium carbonate solution contains 2.65 22. Arrange the following (I to IV) in the order of
grams of Na2CO3. If 10 ml of this solution is diluted increasing masses.
to one litre, what is the concentration of the resultant I. 0.5 mole of O3
solution (mol. wt. of Na2CO3 = 106) II. 3.01 × 1023 molecules of O2
(a) 0.1 M (b) 0.001 M III. 5.6 L of CO2 at STP
(c) 0.01 M (d) 10−4 M IV. 0.5 g atom of oxygen
15. What volume of NH3 gas at STP would be needed to Choose the correct option
prepare 100ml of 2.5 molal (2.5m) ammonium (a) IV < III < II < I (b) II < I < III < IV
hydroxide solution (c) II = I < III < IV (d) I < III < IV < II
(a) 0.056 litres (b) 0.56 litres 23. The maximum amount of O2(g)consumed per gram
(c) 5.6 litres (d) 11.2 litres of reactant is for the reaction: (Given atomic mass:
16. What volume of oxygen at STP is required to effect Fe = 56, O = 16, Mg = 24, P = 31, C = 12, H = 1)
complete combustion of 200cm3 of acetylene? (a) 4Fe s 3O2 g 2Fe2 O3 s
(a) 150 cm3 (b) 250 cm3
3 (b) P4 s 5O2 g P4 O10 s
(c) 350 cm (d) 500 cm3
17. What volume of carbon dioxide measured at STP (c) C3 H8 g 5O2 g 3CO2 g 4H 2 O l
would be obtained by treating 10g of pure marble
(d) 2Mg s O2 g 2MgO s
with dilute hydrochloric acid?
(a) 240 cm3 (b) 2240 cm3 24. Assuming fully decomposed, the volume of
(c) 22200 cm 3
(d) 22240 cm3 CO2 released at STP on heating 9.85 g of
18. Density of 3 M Na2CO3 solution in water is 1.2 g BaCO3 (atomic mass, Ba = 137) will be
mL–1. The percentage by weight of Na2CO3 is (a) 1.12 L (b) 0.84 L
(a) 26.5 (b) 16.5 (c) 2.24 L (d) 4.06 L
(c) 6.25 (d) 5.23 25. 150 mL 0.08 M MgCl2 is added to 50 mL 0.4 M
19. An iodized salt contains 0.5% of NaI. A person AgNO3 solution. What is weight of precipitate
consumes 3 gm of salt everyday. The number of obtained?(molar mass of silver = 108 g/mol)
iodide ions going into his body everyday is (a) 1.722g (b) 3.44g
(a) 104 (b) 6.02 10 4 (c) 1.435g (d) 2.87g
01
FUNDAMENTAL UNIT OF LIFE
FUNDAMENTAL UNIT OF LIFE 114
21. If an animal cell is placed in hypertonic solution, what 31. Hydrolytic enzymes of lysosomes function at
happens to the cell? (a) Acidic pH (b) Alkaline pH
(a) Cell swells and burst (c) Neutral pH (d) Both b and c
(b) Shrinks from water loss 32. Lysosomes are ______ vesicular structures formed by
(c) Nothing happens the process of packaging in the _____.
(d) Solute moves in and out. (a) Membrane bound, Golgi apparatus
22. A plant cell will become turgid when placed in this (b) Non-membrane bound, Golgi apparatus
type of solution. (c) Membrane bound, ER
(a) Megatonic (b) Hypertonic (d) Non-membrane bound, ER
(c) Isotonic (d) Hypotonic 33. Tonoplast is a membrane, which surrounds
23. Plasmolysis in plant cells is defined as (a) Ribosome (b) Mitochondria
(a) Breaking of plasma membrane in the (c) Vacuole (d) Cytoplasm
hypotonic medium. 34. Which of the following cell organelles is responsible for
(b) Shrinkage of cytoplasm in hypertonic medium. extracting energy from carbohydrates to form ATP?
(c) Shrinkage of nucleoplasm. (a) Lysosome (b) Ribosome
(d) Breakdown of nuclear membrane. (c) Chloroplast (d) Mitochondrion
24. Which organelle is not a part of the 35. The infoldings in mitochondria are known as
endomembrane system? (a) Cristae (b) Matrix
(a) ER (b) Golgi complex (c) Cisternae (d) Thylakoids
(c) Lysosomes (d) Mitochondria 36. Which one of the following organelles is a membrane-
25. A series of membrane-enclosed channels studded with less organelle?
ribosomes is called (a) Golgi body (b) Ribosome
(a) Ribosomes (c) Endoplasmic reticulum (d) Chloroplast
(b) Golgi complex 37. Ribosomes are composed of
(c) Rough endoplasmic reticulum (a) RNA only
(d) Mitochondria. (b) Proteins only
26. A major site for synthesis of lipids is (c) RNA and proteins
(a) RER (b) SER (d) RNA, proteins, and DNA
(c) Symplast (d) Nucleoplasm 38. Protein synthesis machinery (ribosome) 70S consists of
27. SER and RER can be distinguished with its presence in (a) 50S and 30S subunits
(a) Protein synthesizing cells. (b) 50S and 40S subunits
(b) Protein and lipids synthesizing cells. (c) 40S and 30S subunits
(c) Carbohydrates and fat synthesizing cells (d) 50S and 20S subunits
(d) Lipid and protein-synthesizing cells 39. Ribosomes are present in prokaryotic and eukaryotic
28. The Golgi complex participates in cells except for_______.
(a) Respiration in bacteria (a) Human cheek cells
(b) Formation of secretory vesicles (b) Mammalian RBC’s
(c) Fatty acid breakdown (c) Mycoplasma
(d) Action of amino acid (d) Plasmodium
29. The Golgi complex plays a major role 40. Which of the following are functions of ribosomes?
(a) In trapping the light and transforming it (i) It helps in the manufacture of protein molecules.
into chemical energy (ii) It helps in the manufacture of enzymes.
(b) In digesting proteins and carbohydrates (iii) It helps in the manufacture of lipids.
(c) Synthesis of proteins and lipids (iv) It helps in the manufacture of starch molecules.
(d) In post-translational modification of proteins and (a) i and ii (b) ii and iii
glycosidation of lipids (c) iii and iv (d) i and iv
30. Which cell organelle is known as “Scavengers of 41. Thylakoids occur inside
the cells”? (a) Mitochondria
(a) Mitochondria (b) Lysosomes (b) Chloroplast
(c) Chloroplast (d) Golgi body (c) Golgi apparatus
(d) Endoplasmic reticulum
FUNDAMENTAL UNIT OF LIFE 116
42. Plastids differ from mitochondria on the basis of which (a) Cell division (b) Cell cycle
of the following features? (c) Karyokinesis (d) Cytokinesis
(a) Presence of two layers of membrane 53. A cell cycle includes
(b) Presence of ribosome (a) Interphase and M-phase/divisional phase
(c) Presence of thylakoids (b) Prophase, metaphase, anaphase and telophase
(d) Presence of DNA (c) G1, S and G2 phases
43. In chloroplasts, chlorophyll is present in the (d) Karyokinesis and cytokinesis
(a) Outer membrane (b) Inner membrane 54. DNA replication takes place in or DNA molecule of
(c) Thylakoids (d) Stroma each chromosome become double in
44. Which of the following are known as colorless (a) G1 phase (b) G2 phase
plastids? (c) S phase (d) Mitotic phase
(a) Leucoplast (b) Chromoplast 55. Centriole replicates during
(c) Chloroplast (d) None of the above (a) Interphase (b) Early prophase
45. Which of these is wrongly matched? (c) Late prophase (d) Late telophase
(a) Chloroplasts — Chlorophyll 56. Normal cellular activities, such as protein synthesis
(b) Elaioplasts — Starch occur primarily during
(c) Amyloplasts — Carbohydrates (a) Interphase (b) Anaphase
(d) Aleuroplasts — Proteins (c) Metaphase (d) Prophase
46. Which of the following is true? 57. Phase of cell that occurs between M (mitotis phase)
(a) Both mitochondria and chloroplast provide energy to and S phase
cells in the same way. (a) Gap 1/G1, phase (b) Gap 2/G2, phase
(b) Both mitochondria and chloroplast have more than (c) Synthesis/S phase (d) M phase
one membrane. 58. In the somatic cell cycle
(c) Pigment chlorophyll is present in chloroplast I. A short interphase is followed by a long mitotic phase
and leucoplast II. Interphase consists of three phases (G1, S, and G2)
(d) Chloroplast is present in animal cells but absent in III. DNA replication takes place in S-phase
plant cells. Which of the following option is correct?
47. A chromosome having sub-terminal centromere (a) II only (b) III only
is called. (c) I, II, and III (d) II and III
(a) Telocentric (b) Acrocentric 59. Fully differentiated cells which do not divide are
(c) Metacentric (d) Sub-metacentric supposed to be in
48. Give an example of a human cell that lacks a nucleus? (a) G1-phase (b) G2-phase
(a) Leucocytes (b) Red blood cells (c) S phase (d) G0-phase
(c) Liver cells (d) None of above 60. After mitosis, the number of chromosomes in the daughter
49. Protoplasm found inside the nucleus is known as cells shall be
(a) Nucleoplasm (b) Amyloplast (a) One-fourth of parent cell
(c) Elaioplast (d) Cytoplasm (b) One half of parent cell
50. The nucleoplasm is continuous with the cytoplasm of a (c) Twice of the parent cell
cell through (d) Same as the parent cell
(a) Centriole 61. What is the proper sequence in mitosis?
(b) Endoplasmic reticulum (a) Metaphase, telophase, prophase, and anaphase
(c) Nuclear pores (b) Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase
(d) Golgi apparatus. (c) Prophase, metaphase, telophase, and anaphase
51. Nuclear membrane is continuous with (d) Telophase, anaphase, metaphase, and prophase
(a) Endoplasmic reticulum 62. Which cellular structure always disappears
(b) Lysosome during mitosis?
(c) Cell membrane (a) Cell wall (b) Mitochondria
(c) Nuclear membrane (d) All the above
(d) Golgi bodies
63. The centriole begins to move towards opposite poles of
52. The sequence of events by which a cell duplicates its the cell in
genome, synthesizes the other constituents of cells, and (a) Prophase (b) Metaphase
eventually divides into two daughter cells is called (c) Anaphase (d) Telophase
117 FUNDAMENTAL UNIT OF LIFE
20. A cell in prophase of mitosis can be distinguished from 24. Choose the correctly matched pairs and the
a cell in prophase-I of meiosis by correct option.
(a) The presence of only half as many chromosomes in the meiotic cell(a) Leptotene-Chromosomes become invisible
(b) The formation of tetrads in the meiotic cell (b) Zygotene-Pairing of homologous chromosomes
(c) The presence of twice as many chromosomes in the meiotic cell (c) Pachytene-Dissolution of the synaptonemal
(d) None of the above complex takes place
21. The key features of metaphase are (d) Diplotene-Bivalent chromosomes appear as tetrads
(a) Spindle fibers attach to kinetochores (e) Diakinesis-Terminalisation of chiasmata takes place
of chromosomes (a) a, b correct (b) a, d correct
(b) Chromosomes are moved to the spindle equator and (c) b, e correct (d) b, c correct
get aligned along the metaphase plate 25. Arrange the following events of meiosis in the correct
(c) Splitting of centromere sequence.
(d) Both (a) and (b) (i) Crossing over
22. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct (ii) Synapsis
option from the codes given below. (iii) Terminalisation of chiasmata
(iv) Disappearance of nucleolus
Column-I Column-II (a) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)
(b) (ii), (i), (iv), (iii)
A. Disintegration of (i) Anaphase
(c) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
nuclear membrane
(d) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
B. Appearance of nucleolus (ii) Prophase
02
TISSUES
TISSUES 122
37. The endothelium of blood vessel is composed of 47. Which cells have the capability to form glandular
(a) Cuboidal epithelium epithelium in which they get specialized
(b) Squamous epithelium for secretion of substances like mucus, saliva?
(c) Columnar epithelium (a) Columnar and cuboidal cells
(d) Ciliated epithelium (b) Squamous cells
38. Urethra, vagina, and oesophagus have a common inner (c) Compound epithelium cells
lining of (d) Ciliated epithelial cells
(a) Squamous epithelium 48. Which of the following is not a function of
(b) Ciliated epithelium connective tissues?
(c) Columnar epithelium (a) Help in the binding of one structure to another.
(d) Stratified squamous epithelium (b) Help in the storage of proteins.
39. Simple cuboidal epithelium is present in which of the (c) Forms a supporting framework of cartilage and
following structures? bone in the body
(a) Salivary ducts (d) Help in the repair of injured tissues.
(b) Pancreatic ducts, bronchioles 49. Major protein of connective tissue is
(c) Thyroid follicles, tubular part of nephron (a) Melanin (b) Collagen
(d) Both (a) and (c) (c) Keratin (d) Myosin
40. The tissue present in the linings of the kidney tubules 50. Collagen fibers are secreted by
and the ducts of the salivary gland is (a) Fibroblasts (b) Mast cells
(a) Squamous epithelial tissue (c) Histiocytes (d) Macrophages
(b) Glandular epithelium 51. In all connective tissues except ____, the cells secrete
(c) Cuboidal epithelium fibers of structural proteins called collagen or elastin.
(d) Columnar epithelium (a) Blood (b) Bone
41. The lining of intestine is (c) Cartilage (d) Areolar tissue
(a) Keratinized (b) Brush bordered 52. Fibroblast, macrophages, and mast cells are present in
(c) Ciliated (d) None of these (a) Adipose tissue
42. Which tissue possesses cells that have nuclei at the (b) Glandular epithelium
base and the free surface has microvilli? (c) Cartilage tissue
(a) Squamous epithelium (d) Areolar tissue
(b) Cuboidal epithelium 53. What type of tissue is present in the blubber of whales?
(c) Columnar epithelium (a) Areolar tissue (b) Cartilage
(d) Unicellular glandular epithelium (c) Epithelial tissue (d) Adipose tissue
43. Which type of epithelium is involved in a function to 54. Tendons and ligaments are types of
move particles or mucus in specific direction? (a) Muscular tissue
(a) Columnar epithelium (b) Ciliated epithelium (b) Epithelial tissue
(c) Squamous epithelium (d) Cuboidal epithelium (c) Nervous tissue
44. Where is the ciliated epithelium tissue found? (d) Connective tissue
(a) Ureter (b) Liver duct 55. Which of the following tissues connects bone
(c) Fallopian tube (d) Bile duct and muscle?
45. The inner surface of bronchi and bronchioles are (a) Ligament (b) Cartilage
lined by (c) Areolar tissue (d) Tendon
(a) Squamous epithelium 56. The attachment of one bone to another is due to
(b) Ciliated epithelium
(c) Columnar epithelium (a) Tendons (b) Ligaments
(d) Cubical epithelium (c) Cartilage (d) Osteocytes
46. Which of the following statements about glandular
epithelium is incorrect? 57. Choose the correctly matched pair.
(a) Glandular epithelium is a modification of (a) Cartilage – Loose connective tissue
columnar epithelium. (b) Tendon – Specialized connective tissue
(b) It is present in the intestine and glands.
(c) Adipose tissue – Dense connective tissue
(c) These are specialized for the secretion of chemicals.
(d) It does not form multicellular glands. (d) Areolar tissue – Loose connective tissue
125 TISSUES
58. Bone is 67. While doing work and running, you move your organs
(a) Epithelium tissue (b) Muscular tissue like hands, legs, etc.
(c) Connective tissue (d) Nervous tissue Which among the following is correct?
59. Cartilage is present in (a) Smooth muscles contract and pull the ligament to
(a) Tip of nose (b) Ear move the bones
(c) Trachea (d) All the above (b) Smooth muscles contract and pull the tendons to
60. The composition of lymph can be expressed as move the bones
(a) Plasma, WBC’s, devoid of RBC’s and platelets (c) Skeletal muscles contract and pull the ligament to
(b) Plasma, WBC’s, RBC’s and platelets move the bones
(c) Plasma, WBC’s, platelets and devoid of RBC’s (d) Skeletal muscles contract and pull the tendon to
(d) Plasma, platelets, devoid of RBC’s and WBC’s move the bones
61. Identify the functions of blood from the following. 68. In a practical laboratory, a student while observing the
(i) Transport of nutrients slide of tissue with the help of a microscope, found a
(ii) Regulation of body temperature bunch of cylindrical-shaped cells having
(iii) Exchange of gases interconnections belonging to the category of
(iv) Protection against infections (a) Adipose tissue (b) Heart muscle
(a) i, iv (b) ii, iii (c) Smooth muscle (d) Skeletal muscle
(c) iii, iv (d) i, ii, iii, iv 69. Which of the following tissue exerts the greatest
62. The outer covering and cytoplasm of muscle fibres are control over the body’s responsiveness to
known as________ and _________ respectively. changing conditions?
(a) Sarcolemma; sarcoplasm (a) Epithelial tissue (b) Connective tissue
(b) Sarcoplasm; sarcolemma (c) Muscular tissue (d) Neural tissue
(c) Sarcoplasm; myofibrils 70. Neurons are classified based on
(d) Myofibrils; sarcolemma (a) Number of nuclei present
63. Muscles contains special proteins called ________ that (b) Number of processes arising from the cell body
help in muscle movement. (c) Number of dendrites present
(a) Receptor protein (d) Number of axons present
(b) Enzymes 71. Which of the following structure is present in nerve
(c) Nucleoprotein (DNA, RNA) fibres, but absent in muscle fibres?
(d) Contractile proteins (actin and myosin) (a) Myofibrils (b) Dendrites
64. Which muscles act involuntary? (c) Sarcolemma (d) Striations
(i) Striated muscles 72. Schwann cells and Node of Ranvier are found in
(ii) Smooth muscles (a) Nervous tissue (b) Osteoblast
(iii) Cardiac muscles (c) Chondrioblast (d) Gland cells
(iv) Skeletal muscles 73. Which part of the neuron triggers events that may
(a) (i) and (ii) only cause stimulation or inhibition of adjacent neurons and
(b) (ii) and (iii) only other cells?
(c) (iii) and (iv) (a) Nucleus (b) Cell body
(d) (i) and (iv) only (c) Neuron's endings (d) Axon
65. Muscles of the intestine and blood vessels are 74. Nerve cells do not divide because they do not have
(a) Involuntary and smooth (a) Mitochondria
(b) Voluntary and smooth (b) Endoplasmic reticulum
(c) Involuntary and striated (c) Centrosome
(d) Voluntary and striated (d) Nucleus
66. Striations appear in striped muscles due to 75. Axons serve to
(a) Presence of alternate light and dark bands (a) Take away impulse from cytons
(b) Dispersion of pigments (b) Bring impulse to cytons
(c) Presence of intercalated disc (c) Bring blood to heart
(d) Occurrence of actin strands (d) None of the above
130 DIVERSITY IN LIVING ORGANISMS
03
DIVERSITY IN LIVING ORGANISMS
131 DIVERSITY IN LIVING ORGANISMS
22. Which is the basis of the division of kingdom fungi? 34. The transport of male gametes in bryophytes occurs
(a) Morphology of mycelium through
(b) Mode of spore formation (a) Wind (b) Water
(c) Fruiting bodies (c) Birds (d) Insects
(d) All of the above 35. Sporagium bearing leaves is known as_________.
23. Which of the following classes are included under (a) Sporangium (b) Sporophylls
kingdom Fungi? (c) Prothallus (d) None of above
(a) Phycomycetes, 36. Pteridophytes differ from bryophytes in possessing
(b) Basidiomycetes, Deuteromycetes (a) Independent gametophyte
(c) Ascomycetes (b) Well developed vascular system
(d) All the above (c) Archegonia
24. Fungi without sexual or perfect stages are classified as (d) Flagellate spermatozoids
(a) Phycomycetes 37. Phanerogams are__________
(b) Deuteromycetes (a) Seed bearing plants
(c) Dermatomycetes (b) Seedless plants
(d) Ascomycetes (c) Gymnosperms and angiosperms
25. Mushrooms, smut, rust are placed in (d) Bryophytes and gymnosperms.
(a) Ascomycetes 38. In which of the following groups would you place a
(b) Basidiomycetes plant, which produces naked seeds?
(c) Deuteromycetes (a) Fungi (b) Bryophytes
(d) Phycomycetes (c) Pteridophytes (d) Gymnosperm
26. Kingdom Plantae is classified into 39. Example of gymnosperms include______.
(a) Thallophyta, Bryophyta (a) Cycas (b) Pinus
(b) Pteridophyta. Gymnosperms (c) Maize (d) Both (a) and (b)
(c) Angiosperms 40. Angiosperms have dominated the land flora primarily
(d) All the above because of their
27. Most of the algae are (a) Ability to adapt to diverse habitats
(a) Aquatic (b) Terrestrial (b) Property of producing a large number of seeds
(c) Saprophytic (d) Parasitic (c) Nature of self-pollination
28. Which of the following examples of Thallophyta? (d) Domestication by man
(a) Chlamydomonas (b) Volvox 41. Find out the similarity between gymnosperms and
(c) Ulothrix (d) All of these angiosperms?
29. Plant which produces spores and embryos but lacks (a) Naked seeds
seeds and vascular tissue belongs to (b) Polyembryony
(a) Fungi (b) Pteridophytes (c) Double fertilization
(c) Bryophytes (d) Gymnosperm (d) Both have stem, leaves, and roots
30. Bryophytes include 42. Monocots differ from dicots in
(a) Liverworts and ferns (b) Mosses and ferns (a) Having one cotyledon
(c) Mosses and liverworts (d) All of these (b) Parallel venation
31. The female reproductive part of bryophytes is (c) Tap root system
(a) Antheridium (b) Oogonium (d) All the above
(c) Archegonium (d) Sporangium 43. Which of the following is taken into consideration for
32. Dominant, independent and haploid gametophyte is the classification of animals?
present in_______. (a) Level of organization (b) Symmetry
(a) Angiosperms (b) Pteridophyta (c) Coelom (d) All the above
(c) Gymnosperms (d) Bryophyta 44. The body can be divided into two identical halves by
33. Unique feature of bryophytes is that they multiple planes is known as_____.
(a) Produce spores (a) Radial symmetry
(b) Have sporophyte attached to the gametophyte (b) Asymmetry
(c) Lack roots (c) Bilateral symmetry
(d) Lack vascular tissues (d) None of above
DIVERSITY IN LIVING ORGANISMS 134
64. The most important distinctive character of chordate is 71. Which of the animal groups have oxygenated and
the presence of deoxygenated blood in the heart separately?
(a) Vertebral column (b) Hairy skin (a) Amphibians (b) Birds
(c) Notochord (d) All of these. (c) Reptiles (d) Fish
65. Post-anal tail is present in _________. 72. Out of the following, reptiles and birds differ in only
(a) Urochordata (b) Cephalochordata one, which is it:
(c) Vertebrata (d) All of these. (a) The skin possesses scales
66. Notochord occurs all through the length of body and (b) They lay eggs
throughout life in (c) Capacity of laying hard-shelled eggs
(a) Hemichordata (b) Urochordata (d) Regulation of the body temperature
(c) Cephalochordata (d) Vertebrata 73. Bats are classified as a mammal because
67. Which class of animals possesses a (a) It has hairs (b) It can fly
two-chambered heart? (c) It has pinna (d) It has testes
(a) Pisces (b) Amphibians 74. Which of the following groups of animals maintain
(c) Reptiles (d) Both (a) and (b) high and constant body temperature?
68. Chondrichthyes differs from Osteichthyes in (a) Reptiles and amphibians
(a) Cartilaginous endoskeleton (b) Amphibians and birds
(b) Two chambered heart (c) Birds and mammals
(c) Internal fertilization (d) Fishes and mammals
(d) Both (a) and (c) 75. Which one of the following characteristics is not
69. Common trait amongst amphibians and reptiles is shared by birds and mammals?
(a) Laying of eggs (b) Shelled eggs (a) Breathing using the lungs
(c) Gills (d) Scales (b) Viviparity
70. Characteristics features of Aves are (c) Warm-blooded nature
(a) Feathers, tympanum (d) Four chambered heart
(b) Two-chambered heart, viviparous
(c) Oviparous, pneumatic bones
(d) Viviparous, feathers, mammary glands
135 DIVERSITY IN LIVING ORGANISMS
18. In sponges, spongocoel is lined by 24. Select the correctly matched pair
(a) Choanocytes i. Amphibia - Live on both land and water
(b) Amoebocytes ii. Mammals - Cartilaginous notochord
(c) Pinacocytes iii. Chondrichthyes- Mammary glands
(d) Archaeocytes vi. Aves - Pneumatic bones
19. Select the incorrect statement about the Phylum (a) i, ii and iv (b) iii and iv
Aschelminthes, Platyhelminthes, and Annelida. (c) i and iv (d) ii and iv
(a) Alimentary canal is complete with well-developed 25. What is common in whales, bats, and rats?
muscular pharynx in Aschelminthes. (a) Absence of neck
(b) Flame cells are specialized cells that help in (b) Muscular diaphragm between thorax and abdomen
osmoregulation and excretion in Platyhelminthes. (c) 3-chambered heart
(c) In annelids, asexual reproduction occurs and (d) Absence of jaws
nephridia help in osmoregulation and excretion.
(d) Both (a) and (b)
20. In Mollusca, gills (feather-like) have the functions
(a) Respiratory and circulatory
(b) Circulatory and excretory
(c) Excretory and respiratory
(d) Excretory, respiratory and circulatory
21. Read the following statements.
I. Presence of chitinous exoskeleton and open
circulatory system in arthropods
II. Sexes are separate and show sexual dimorphism
in arthropods.
III. Presence of water vascular system and calcareous
endoskeleton in echinoderms
Choose the correct option.
(a) I only (b) II and III only
(c) I, II, and III(d) III only
22. Chordates differ from non-chordates in having
I. Notochord
II. Dorsal hollow nerve cord
III. Pharyngeal gill slits
Choose the correct option
(a) I and II (b) II and III
(c) I and III (d) I, II, and III
23. Match columns I and II, and choose the correct
combination from the options given.
Column I Column II
i Cyclostomates 1 Hemichordata
ii Aves 2 Urochordata
iii Balanoglossus 3 Agnatha
iv Osteichthyes 4 Pisces
v Osteichthyes 5 Tetrapoda
(a) i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4, v-5
(b) i-2, ii-3, iii-4, iv-1, v-5
(c) i-3, ii-1, iii-5, iv-2, v-4
(d) i-3, ii-5, iii-2, iv-1, v-4
ANSWER KEYS 138
ANSWER KEYS
139 ANSWER KEYS
MATHEMATICS
Basics
1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (a)
11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (b)
21. (d) 22. (a) 23. (d) 24. (a) 25. (d) 26. (d) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (d) 30. (b)
31. (c) 32. (a) 33. (c) 34. (b) 35. (c) 36. (d) 37. (d) 38. (a) 39. (d) 40. (a)
41. (d) 42. (a) 43. (c) 44. (c) 45. (c) 46. (b) 47. (c) 48. (b) 49. (c) 50. (d)
51. (a) 52. (a) 53. (d) 54. (b) 55. (a) 56. (c) 57. (c) 58. (b) 59. (c) 60. (d)
61. (c) 62. (c) 63. (b) 64. (c) 65. (c) 66. (b),(c) 67. (a),(d) 68. (b),(c) 69. (b),(c) 70. (b),(c)
71. (c),(d) 72. (b),(d) 73. (b),(c) 74. (a) 75. (a) 76. (c) 77. (a) 78. (d) 79. (c) 80. (d)
81. (c) 82. (d) 83. (a) 84. (a) 85. (a) 86. (c) 87. (b) 88. (c) 89. (d) 90. (4.00)
91. (2.00) 92. (7.00) 93. (1.00) 94. (1.00) 95. (3.00)
Number System
EXERCISE-1: Basic Objective Questions
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (d)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (a)
21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (a) 24. (a) 25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (b) 30. (b)
31. (a) 32. (a) 33. (b) 34. (a) 35. (b) 36. (a) 37. (a) 38. (b) 39. (b) 40. (c)
41. (d) 42. (b) 43. (a) 44. (d) 45. (d) 46. (b) 47. (d) 48. (d) 49. (b) 50. (c)
51. (b) 52. (b) 53. (c) 54. (b) 55. (a) 56. (b) 57. (c) 58. (d) 59. (d) 60. (a)
61. (a) 62. (d) 63. (b) 64. (a) 65. (c) 66. (c) 67. (d) 68. (a) 69. (a) 70. (c)
71. (b) 72. (c) 73. (c) 74. (b) 75. (d) 76. (d) 77. 1.00 78. 1.00 79. 1.00 80. 5.00
81. 4.00 82. 5.00 83. 1.00 84. 6.00 85. 7.00
Polynomial
EXERCISE-1: Basic Objective Questions
1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (b)
11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (d)
21. (d) 22. (b) 23. (d) 24. (a) 25. (b) 26. (b) 27. (a) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (d)
31. (b) 32. (d) 33. (a) 34. (b) 35. (a) 36. (c) 37. (b) 38. (b) 39. (b) 40. (a)
41. (d) 42. (b) 43. (b) 44. (a) 45. (c) 46. (c) 47. (c) 48. (c) 49. (d) 50. (a)
51. 7.00 52. 2.00 53. 961.00 54. 1.00 55. 28.00 56. 81.00 57. 8.00 58. 6.00 59. 408.00 60. 5.00
61. 5.00 62. 3.00 63. 2.00 64. (a), (b) 65. (a), (c) 66. (c), (d) 67. (a), (c) 68. (a), (d) 69. (c), (d) 70. (a), (c)
71. (a), (b), (c) 72. (b) 73. (a) 74. (C) 75. (b)
Coordinate Geometry
EXERCISE-1: Basic Objective Questions
1. (c) 2.(a) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (d)
11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (d) 20. (b)
21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (c) 24. (d) 25. (b) 26. (c) 27. (d) 28. (a) 29. (c) 30. (c)
31. (a) 32. (d) 33. (c) 34. (b) 35. (a) 36. (a) 37. (d) 38. (b) 39. (c) 40. (c)
41. (d) 42. (c) 43. (d) 44. (c) 45. (d) 46. (c) 47. (d) 48. (b) 49. (c) 50. (d)
51. (b), (c) 52. (a), (b) 53. (a), (b), (c), (d) 54. (c), (d) 55. (a), (c), (d) 56. (b) 57. (c) 58. (a)
59. (c) 60. (b) 61. (d) 62. (a) 63. (b) 64. (c) 65. (b) 66. (c) 67. (d) 68. (a)
69. (a) 70. (d) 71. 8.00 72. 6.00 73. 1.00 74. 4.00 75. 4.00 76. 5.00 77. 8.00 78. 2.00
79. 1.00 80. 9.00
PHYSICS
Mathematical Tools
EXERCISE-1: Basic Objective Questions
1.(b) 2.(b) 3.(d) 4.(a) 5.(c) 6.(c) 7.(c) 8.(b) 9.(d) 10.(d)
11.(a) 12.(b) 13.(d) 14.(d) 15.(d) 16.(b) 17.(a) 18.(b) 19.(b) 20.(d)
21.(c) 22.(c) 23.(c) 24.(c) 25.(d) 26.(a) 27.(d) 28.(a) 29.(a) 30.(d)
31.(d) 32.(c) 33.(a) 34.(b) 35.(c) 36.(a) 37.(a) 38.(c) 39.(a) 40.(a)
41.(b) 42.(a) 43.(d) 44.(b) 45.(a) 46.(a) 47.(a) 48.(b) 49.(b) 50.(b)
51.(c) 52.(c) 53.(c) 54.(d) 55.(d) 56.(b) 57.(a) 58.(a) 59.(a) 60.(b)
61.(d) 62.(a) 63.(b) 64.(c) 65.(b) 66.(d) 67.(b) 68.(d) 69.(c) 70.(b)
71.(a) 72.(c) 73.(a) 74.(c) 75.(b)
Motion
EXERCISE-1: Basic Objective Questions
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (a)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (a) 20. (b)
21. (d) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (c) 25. (b) 26. (b) 27. (b) 28. (a) 29. (c) 30. (c)
31. (d) 32. (b) 33. (b) 34. (b) 35. (c) 36. (a) 37. (b) 38. (c) 39. (a) 40. (d)
41. (c) 42. (d) 43. (d) 44. (c) 45. (d) 46. (b) 47. (c) 48. (b) 49. (b) 50. (d)
51. (a) 52. (c) 53. (a) 54. (d) 55. (c) 56. (a) 57. (b) 58. (a) 59. (c) 60. (d)
61. (b) 62. (d) 63. (d) 64. (a) 65. (d) 66. (c) 67. (c) 68. (c) 69. (d) 70. (a)
71. (d) 72. (b) 73. (c) 74. (d) 75. (d)
Laws of Motion
EXERCISE-1: Basic Objective Questions
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (c)
11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (b) 20. (c)
21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (a) 24. (a) 25. (d) 26. (c) 27. (d) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (c)
31. (b) 32. (b) 33. (c) 34. (d) 35. (a) 36. (a) 37. (b) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (c)
41. (b) 42. (b) 43. (c) 44. (a) 45. (b) 46. (c) 47. (b) 48. (c) 49. (a) 50. (a)
51. (d) 52. (c) 53. (c) 54. (d) 55. (d) 56. (c) 57. (d) 58. (b) 59. (d) 60. (b)
61. (b) 62. (b) 63. (b) 64. (b) 65. (c) 66. (c) 67. (b) 68. (d) 69. (c) 70. (a)
71. (d) 72. (d) 73. (d) 74. (c) 75. (a)
EXERCISE-2: Advanced Objective Questions
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10. (a)
11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (d) 17. (b) 18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (b)
21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (b) 25. (a)
ANSWER KEYS 142
CHEMISTRY
Matter in Our Surroundings
EXERCISE-1: Basic Objective Questions
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (c)
11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (d) 16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (b)
21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (d) 24. (a) 25. (c) 26. (a) 27. (a) 28. (a) 29. (c) 30. (c)
31. (a) 32. (a) 33. (c) 34. (d) 35. (d) 36. (a) 37. (c) 38. (b) 39. (d) 40. (c)
41. (c) 42. (d) 43. (d) 44. (c) 45. (c) 46. (c) 47. (a) 48. (a) 49. (a) 50. (d)
51. (a) 52. (a) 53. (a) 54. (c) 55. (a) 56. (a) 57. (c) 58. (c) 59. (a) 60. (c)
61. (c) 62. (c) 63. (c) 64. (c) 65. (b) 66. (a) 67. (b) 68. (b) 69. (d) 70. (d)
71. (d) 72. (a,c,d) 73. (a,b,c) 74. (b,c) 75. (a,b)
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (b)
11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (b)
21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (d) 25. (c)
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (d)
11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (c) 16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (d) 19. (b) 20. (d)
21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (c) 25. (c)
143 ANSWER KEYS
BIOLOGY
Fundamental Unit of Life
EXERCISE-1: Basic Objective Questions
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (a)
11. (d) 12. (d) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (d) 19. (c) 20. (a)
21. (b) 22. (d) 23. (b) 24. (d) 25. (c) 26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (b) 29. (d) 30. (b)
31. (a) 32. (a) 33. (c) 34. (d) 35. (a) 36. (b) 37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. (a)
41. (b) 42. (c) 43. (c) 44. (a) 45. (b) 46. (b) 47. (b) 48. (b) 49. (a) 50. (c)
51. (a) 52. (b) 53. (a) 54. (c) 55. (a) 56. (a) 57. (a) 58. (d) 59. (d) 60. (d)
61. (b) 62. (c) 63. (a) 64. (c) 65. (c) 66. (d) 67. (b) 68. (c) 69. (d) 70. (b)
71. (b) 72. (a) 73. (a) 74. (d) 75. (b)
1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (d)
11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (d) 20. (b)
21. (d) 22. (a) 23. (a) 24. (c) 25. (c)
ANSWER KEYS 144
Tissues
EXERCISE-1: Basic Objective Questions
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (d)
11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (d) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (d) 19. (d) 20. (c)
21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (b) 25. (c) 26. (a) 27. (d) 28. (b) 29. (b) 30. (b)
31. (a) 32. (d) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (c) 36. (c) 37. (b) 38. (d) 39. (d) 40. (c)
41. (b) 42. (c) 43. (b) 44. (c) 45. (b) 46. (d) 47. (a) 48. (b) 49. (b) 50. (a)
51. (a) 52. (d) 53. (d) 54. (d) 55. (d) 56. (b) 57. (d) 58. (c) 59. (d) 60. (a)
61. (d) 62. (a) 63. (d) 64. (b) 65. (a) 66. (a) 67. (d) 68. (b) 69. (d) 70. (b)
71. (b) 72. (a) 73. (c) 74. (c) 75. (a)
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (a)
11. (b) 12. (d) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (c)
21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (d) 25. (d)
1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (d)
11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (d) 20. (d)
21. (c) 22. (d) 23. (d) 24. (b) 25. (b) 26. (d) 27. (a) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (c)
31. (c) 32. (d) 33. (b) 34. (b) 35. (b) 36. (b) 37. (b) 38. (d) 39. (d) 40. (a)
41. (d) 42. (d) 43. (d) 44. (a) 45. (a) 46. (d) 47. (b) 48. (d) 49. (c) 50. (a)
51. (a) 52. (a) 53. (c) 54. (c) 55. (c) 56. (a) 57. (b) 58. (a) 59. (a) 60. (c)
61. (b) 62. (a) 63. (c) 64. (c) 65. (d) 66. (c) 67. (a) 68. (d) 69. (a) 70. (c)
71. (b) 72. (d) 73. (a) 74. (c) 75. (b)
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (a)
11. (d) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (d) 16. (d) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (c)
21. (c) 22. (d) 23. (d) 24. (c) 25. (b)