Physics MCQ English (Complete)

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MCQ'S (ENGLISH)
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PHYSICS
Chapter-01
Heat & Thermodynamics

Heat (D) Water comes out from the Earth and gains
1. Therm is the unit of the heat from surroundings
(A) Power (B) Heat Ans. (B)
8. Which of the following causes more burn?
(C) Light (D) Distance
(A) Boiling water (B) Hot water
Ans. (B)
(C) Steam (D) None of these
2. Ice is packed in sawdust because
Ans. (C)
(A) Saw dust does not stick to the ice
9. The direction of flow of heat between any two
(B) Saw dust will not get melt easily system depends on
(C) Saw dust is a good conductor of heat (A) Their specific heat (B) Their latent heat
(D) Saw dust is a poor conductor of heat (C) Their individual temperature
Ans. (D) (D) Amount of heat they contain individually.
3. Water is used in hot water bags because Ans. (C)
(A) It is easily available 10. Due to the horizontal motion of air, transfer of
(B) It is cheap and not harmful heat is known as :
(C) Its specific heat is more (A) Advection (B) Convection
(D) Water can be heated easily (C) Conduction (D) Radiation
Ans. (A)
Ans. (C)
11. Burns caused by steam cause much more irrita-
4. Which of the following metal has the maximum
tion than those caused by boiling water because
thermal conductivity?
(A) Temperature of steam is higher
(A) Iron (B) Aluminium
(B) Steam has latent heat of vaporization
(C) Copper (D) Silver
(C) Steam is a gas and engulfs the pores of body quickly
Ans. (D)
(D) Steam pierces through the pores of body quickly.
5. A body absorbs maximum amount of heat when
Ans. (B)
it is
12. Convection occurs in which of the following
(A) Black and rough (B) Black and smooth
(A) Only solids and liquids
(C) White and rough (D) White and smooth
(B) Only liquids and gases
Ans. (A) (C) Only gases and solids
6. Heat of a reaction does not depend upon. (D) Solid, liquid and gases
(A) Temperature of reaction Ans. (B)
(B) Path by which final product is obtained 13. Which of the following liquid contains highest
(C) Physical state of product and reactant rate of vaporization.
(D) Reaction takes place at constant pressure or (A) Kerosene oil (B) Water
constant volume. (C) Petrol (D) Alcohol
Ans. (B) Ans. (D)
7. In Winter season water coming out of hand 14. The hottest part of gas flame is known as
pumps is hot because (A) Non- luminous zone (B) Blue zone
(A) In winter our body temperature remains low, (C) Luminous zone (D) Dark zone
so water makes us feel hot. Ans. (A)
(B) Inside the earth temperature is more than 15. Earth is a
the atmospheric temperature (A) Good reflector of heat
(C) Due to pumping function is produced which (B) Bad absorber of heat
causes heat and makes water hot (C) Good absorber and good radiator of heat
2 Physics Rakesh Yadav Readers Publication Pvt. Ltd.
(D) Bad absorber and bad radiator of heat. (D) Both conduction and convection
Ans. (D) Ans. (B)
16. Why are the handles of metallic teapots made of wood? 25. Which of the following are methods of heat
(A) Wood is a bad conductor of heat transfer
(B) It does not cause electric shocks (A) Convection (B) Evaporation
(C) It makes containers look beautiful (C) Revolution (D) Thermal Expansion
(D) It makes containers look clean
Ans. (A)
Ans. (A)
17. Why two thin shirts can keep us warmer than a 26. Which of the following devices can be used to
single thick shirt in winters? detect radiant heat
(A) Two shirt become thicker so present the (A) Liquid thermometer
permission of heat (B) Six’s maximum and minimum thermometer
(B) Layer of shirt acts as a conductor of heat (C) Constant volume air thermometer
between two shirts
(D) Thermopile
(C) Layer of air acts as an insulating medium
between two shirt Ans. (D)
(D) Radiation of heat doesn’t take place. 27. Match the following and choose the correct option -
Ans. (C) List I List II
18. Energy travels from sun to earth by which of Process Changes
the following method A. Evaporation (1) Liquid into Gas
(A) Conduction (B) Insolation B. Sublimation (2) Solid into Gas
(C) Radiation (D) Modulation
C. Freezing (3) Liquid into Solid
Ans. (C)
D. Melting (4) Solid into Liquid
19. The characteristics invalid for heat radiation
is that it travels Code: A B C D
(A) In a straight line (B) In all directions (A) 1 2 3 4
(C) With the speed of light (B) 3 1 2 4
(D) Heating the medium through which it passes. (C) 2 1 4 3
Ans. (D) (D) 2 1 3 4
20. Which of the following is a good conductor of Ans. (A)
heat but bad conductor of electricity?
(A) Mica (B) Asbestos
Thermodynamics
(C) Celluloid (D) Paraffin wax
Ans. (A) 28. Why white clothes keep you cooler as compared
21. Which of the following has the largest value of to black clothes?
specific heat.
(A) Glass (B)Copper (A) They absorb whole of the light
(C) Lead (D) Water (B) They reflect the whole light
Ans. (D) (C) Penetration of light does not occur
22. When hot water is sprinkled on a hotter glass (D) Make the sunlight completely cool.
tumbler it breaks because
Ans. (B)
(A) Glass suddenly expands
(B) Glass suddenly contracts 29. The unit of Planck’s constant is
(C) Water evaporates (A) Js (B) Js–1
(D) Glass reacts chemically with water (C) Js–2 (D) Js2
Ans. (A) Ans. (A)
23. Which one of the following is an insulator? 30. The dimensional formula of Plank’s constant
(A) Copper (B) Wood (h) contains the dimension of
(C) Mercury (D) Aluminium
(A) Linear Motion (B) Angular Momentum
Ans. (B)
(C) Energy (D) Force
24. Heat is transmitted from higher temperature
to lower temperature through the actual Ans. (B)
motion of the molecules in 31. When hot liquid is poured into a thick glass
(A) Conduction (B) Convection tumbler it cracks because glass:
(C) Radiation (A) Is a bad conductor of heat so only inner
surface expands
Rakesh Yadav Readers Publication Pvt. Ltd. Physics 3
(B) Has high temperature coefficient of expansion (B) Black surface is a good conductor of heat
(C) Has very low specific heat (C) Black surface is a poor conductor of heat
(D) Has very low temperature coefficient of expansion. (D) Black surface is a good absorber of heat
Ans. (A)
Ans. (D)
32. Ist Law of Thermodynamics is normally related to
(A) Law of conservation of Energy
(B) Newton’s law of cooling Temperature
(C) Boyle’s Law (D) Charle’s Law 41. What is not true about temperature?
Ans. (A) (A) It is one of the Seven SI base quantities
33. A real gas can act as ideal gas at (B) It is measured in degree Celsius in SI unit.
(A) Low pressure and High temperature (C) Temp 0ºC = 273.15 K. (D) All are true.
(B) High pressure and Low temperature Ans. (B)
(C) Low temperature and High pressure 42. Density of water is 1G/CC. It is strictly valid at:
(D) High temperature and Low pressure (A) 0ºC (B) 4 ºC
Ans. (A) (C) 25 ºC (D) 100 ºC
34. A white and smooth surface is Ans. (B)
(A) Good absorber and Good reflector of heat 43. When temperature difference between liquid
(B) Bad absorber and Good reflector of heat & its surroundings is doubled, the rate of loss
(C) Good absorber and Bad reflector of heat of heat will
(D) Bad absorber and Bad reflector of heat (A) Remains same (B) Double
Ans. (B) (C) Three times (D) Four times
35. A cycle tyre bursts suddenly. This represents an Ans. (B)
(A) Isothermal process (B) Adiabatic process 44. The temperature of a liquid is 32°F what is the
(C) Isochoric process (D) Isobaric process temperature in Celsius scale?
Ans. (B) (A) 32°C (B) 0°C
(C) 100°C (D) 212°C
36. The wavelength at which the peak of intensity
of black body radiation occurs. Ans. (B)
(A) Increases with increase in temperature 45. The temperature at which Reading of both Fahr-
enheit scale and Celsius scale are same :
(B) Decreases with increase in temperature
(A) 400 (B) – 40
(C) Is the same at all temperature
(C) – 340 (D) – 1440
(D) Does not follow any pattern as temperature changes
Ans. (B)
Ans. (B) 46. Temperature of distant luminous bodies can be
37. A blackbody can absorb radiations of determined by
(A) Lower wavelengths only (A) Mercury Thermometers
(B) Intermediate wavelength only (B) Gas Thermometers
(C) Higher wavelengths only (C) Pyrometers
(D) All wavelengths (D) Colour Thermometers
Ans. (D) Ans. (C)
38. In a refrigerator a cooling system should always be 47. To measure very high temperature, we use :
(A) At the top (B) At the bottom (A) Mercury thermometer
(C) At the middle (D) Can be anywhere (B) Platinum Resistance thermometer
Ans. (A) (C) Thermoelectric Pyrometer
39. In a refrigerator what produces cooling? (D) None of these
(A) The ice which deposits on the freezer Ans. (C)
(B) The sudden expansion of a compressed gas 48. On a cold day when the room temperature is
(C) The evaporation of a volatile liquid 15°C the metallic cap of a pen becomes much
(D) None of these colder than its plastic body though both are at
the same temperature of 15°C because
Ans. (B)
(A) Metals have high thermal capacity than plastics
40. Outside of cooking utensils are generally left
black from below because (B) Plastics have lower density than metals
(A) It is difficult to clean daily (C) Metals are good conductor of heat
(D) Plastics have higher thermal conductivity (A) There are dissolved substances in water
than metals (B) There is low pressure inside the boiler
Ans. (C) (C) There is high pressure inside the boiler
49. 0 K is equivalent to (D) The fire is at very high temperature
(A) 273°C (B) – 273°C Ans. (C)
(C) 0°C (D) 100°C 58. Which of the following instruments is used to
measure humidity?
Ans. (B)
(A) Kata Thermometer (B) Anemometer
50. The minimum temperature is measured by
(C) Sling Psychrometer (D) Clinical Thermometer
(A) Alcohol Thermometer (B) Thermometer
Ans. (C)
(C) Maximum Reading Thermometer
(D) Minimum Reading Thermometer Freezing Point and Boiling Point
Ans. (A) 59. What is triple point of water :
51. Temperature inversion is : (A) 273.16 K (B) 273.15 K
(A) Positive lapse rate (B) Negative lapse rate (C) 0ºC (D) 100ºC
(C) Neutral condition (D) None of these Ans. (A)
Ans. (B) 60. The freezing point of fresh water is :
52. To produce the low temperature w hic h o f t he (A) 3ºC (B) 5ºC
f o llow ing pri nci ple is used : (C) 0ºC (D) 4ºC
(A) Super conductivity (B) Joule – kelvin Effect Ans. (C)
(C) Heading effect of current 61. Lake freeze in cold countries in winter, leav-
(D) Adiabatic Demagnetization process ing the water underneath at :
Ans. (D) (A) 0ºC (B) 0ºF
53. Absolute zero is defined as the temperature (C) 4ºC (D) 4ºF
(A) At which all molecular motion ceases Ans. (C)
(B) At which water boils at 298K 62. Why boiling point of water decreases with
(C) At which liquid helium boils increase in altitude
(D) At which volume becomes zero (A) Low temperature
Ans. (A) (B) Low atmospheric pressure
54. In which form is the supplied heat energy stored (C) High temperature
during change in temperature of substance? (D) High atmospheric pressure
(A) Heat Energy (B) Kinetic Energy Ans. (B)
(C) Potential energy 63. Why clouds float in atmosphere?
(D) Both kinetic and potential energy (A) Low pressure (B) Low density
Ans. (B) (C) Low viscosity (D) Low temperature
Ans. (B)
55. Gas thermometers are more sensitive than liquid
thermometer because the gases 64. Soldering of two metals is possible due to the
property of
(A) Have larger coefficient of expansion
(A) Diffraction (B) Viscosity
(B) Are lighter
(C) Surface tension (D) Cohesion
(C) Have low specific heat Ans. (D)
(D) Have high specific heat 65. In extreme cold conditions in cold countries,
Ans. (A) water pipes get busted
56. What changes will happen to a bowl of ice and (A) Because on freezing water expands
water kept at exactly zero degree Celsius. (B) Due to the contraction of water pipes
(A) All ice will melt (B) All water will become ice (C) Due to high atmospheric pressure
(C) No change will happen (D) All of these
(D) Only some ice will melt Ans. (A)
Ans. (C)
66. Pressure cooker cooks faster because
57. The temperature of boiling water in a steam
(A) Boiling point increases with increase in pressure
engine may be high because
(B) It cooks the food at low pressure
(C) Higher temperature is attained for cooking (A) Temperature difference between body and its
(D) The material of the cooker is a good conductor. surroundings
Ans. (A) (B) Nature of radiated surface
67. Water is not vaporized if (C) Area of radiated surface
(A) Temperature is 0°C (B) Humidity is 0% (D) All of the above
(C) Humidity is 100% (D) Temperature is 100°C Ans. (D)
Ans. (C) 77. A copper disc has a hole. If the disc is heated
68. When heated from 0°C to 100°C volume of a the size of hole
given mass of water will (A) Increases (D) Decreases
(A) Increase gradually (B) Decrease gradually (C) No change
(C) Increase and then will decrease (D) First increase then decreases
(D) Decrease and then will increase Ans. (A)
Ans. (D) 78. During hot weather the fan produces a feeling
69. Vegetables are cooked in lesser time by adding of comfort this is because
a pinch of salt while cooking because (A) Fan supplies cool air (B) Fan cools the air
(A) Boiling point of water increases (C) Our perspiration evaporates rapidly
(B) Latent heat of vaporization of water decreases (D) Conductivity of air increases
(C) Latent heat of vaporization of water increases Ans. (C)
(D) Boiling point of water decreases 79. Ocean currents are an example of
Ans. (A) (A) Convection (B) Conduction
70. The boiling point of liquid vary as (C) Insulation (D) Radiation
(A) Pressure varies (B) Temperature varies Ans.(A)
(C) Volume varies (D) Density varies 80. A circular plate, a cube and a sphere all made
Ans. (A) up of same material and having the same mass
71. When water freezes its density. are heated to 300°C and left in a room
(A) Decreases (B) Becomes zero Which of them will have slowest rate of cooling?
(C) Remains constant (D) Increases (A) Circular plate (B) Cube
Ans. (A) (C) Sphere
72. Super cooling stands for cooling of a liquid (D) All will cool at the same rate
(A) At freezing point (B) At melting point Ans. (C)
81. Conversion of heat energy into electric energy
(C) Below freezing point (D) Above melting point
is achieved by using
Ans. (C) (A) Ammeter (B) Hydrometer
(C) Voltmeter (D) Thermocouple
Miscellaneous
Ans. (D)
73. Refrigerator protects the food from contamina- 82. On heating frozen foods in sealed pouches in a mi-
tion because crowave why do you first poke holes in the pouch?
(A) At its low temperature bacteria & fungus (A) To prevent steam pressure from bursting
become non-reactive. open the pouch.
(B) Germs get died at this temperature. (B) To allow the heat get into the food through the hole
(C) To allow the microwaves to get into the food
(C) Germs get freeze at this temperature.
through the holes.
(D) It makes food free from germs. (D) To allow the aroma of the food to come out
Ans. (A) through the hole.
74. Cryogenic science is related to Ans. (A)
(A) High temperature (B) Low temperature 83. Cloudy nights are warmer because clouds mainly.
(C) Friction and wear-tear (A) Absorb heat from the atmosphere and send
(D) Increment in crystals. it towards the Earth.
Ans. (B) (B) Prevent cold waves from the sky descending
75. What determines the colour of a star? on the earth
(A) Temperature (B) Distance (C) Reflect back the heat given by the Earth.
(C) Radius (D) Atmospheric Pressure (D) Producing heat and radiate it toward the Earth.
Ans. (A) Ans. (C)
76. The rate of cooling depends on which factor?
84. The word insolation means (A) Low density (B) Easy availability
(A) The matters which insulate (C) High specific heat capacity
(B) Incoming solar radiation (D) Low boiling point
(C) Insoluble matters (D) None of these above Ans. (C)
Ans. (B) 94. How much mechanical work must be done to
85. The cooling by a desert cooler is based on completely melt 1 gram of ice at 0° C?
(A) Hot air replacement (B) Air dehydration (A) 4.2 J (B) 80 J
(C) Evaporative cooling (D) Air rehydration (C) 336 J (D) 2268 J
Ans. (C) Ans. (C)
86. The energy that can harness heat stored below 95. Heat stored in water vapour is
the earth’s surface is known as (A) Specific heat (B) Latent heat
(A) Thermal Energy (B) Nuclear Energy (C) Absolute heat (D) Relative heat
(C) Tidal Energy (D) Geo-Thermal energy Ans. (B)
Ans. (D) 96. What happens to a liquid, when the vapour
87. A gap is left between two rails of a railway track pressure equals the atmospheric pressure?
to accommodate _____ of the metal. (A) The liquid cools (B) The liquid boils
(A) Areal Expansion (B) Volume Expansion (C) No change (D) The liquid evaporates
(C) Linear Expansion (D) Apparent Expansion Ans. (B)
Ans. (C) 97. Specific gravity is defined as the ratio of
88. In a diesel engine the high temperature needed (A) Density of the substance to the density of water
to ignite the fuel is achieved by (B) Density of the substance to the density of
(A) Using heat from exhaust water at 0°C
(B) The battery (C) Density of water at 4°C to the density of the
(C) Compressing air in the cylinders substance
(D) An electrical spark (D) Density of the substance to the density of
Ans. (C) water at 4° C
89. Mud houses are cooler in summers and warmer Ans. (D)
in winters as compared to brick houses because 98. Which of the following options correctly
(A) Mud is a good conductor explains the term heat budget?
(B) Mud is bad conductor (A) It is a mode of transfer of heat through
(C) Mud is good insulator matter by molecular activity
(D) Evaporation of water causes cooling in (B) It is the balance between incoming and
summers and sunlight coming through holes outgoing heat radiation
causes warming in winters. (C) It is the radiation from the earth in the form
Ans. (C) of long waves
90. Relative humidity is expressed in terms of (D) It is the amount of heat which the surface of
(A) Gram (B) Kilogram earth receives from the sun
(C) Percentage (D) Ratio Ans. (B)
Ans. (C) 99. Alcohol is more volatile than water because
91. Woollen cloth protects the body from cold ______ is lower than water.
because (A) Its boiling point (B) Its density
(A) It is a good conductor of heat (C) Its viscosity (D) Its surcface tension
(B) It is a poor conductor of heat Ans. (A)
(C) External heat rays enter into the body through 100. At boiling point of liquids, its
the woollen cloth (A) Temperature increases
(D) It reflects heat (B) Atmospheric pressure increases
Ans. (B) (C) Temperature remains constant
92. The ‘four stroke petrol engine’ is based on (D) Vapour pressure decreases
(A) Carnot - cycle (B) Otto - cycle Ans. (C)
(C) Diesel - cycle (D) Boyle’s - cycle 101. Why the clear nights are cooler than the cloudy nights?
Ans. (B) (A) Conductance (B) Condensation
93. Water is used in car radiator because of its (C) Radiation (D) Insulation
Ans. (C) Ans. (A)
102. Direction of heat flow depends on ______. 108. At what temperature (in Fahrenheit) pure water
(A) Density (B) Energy freezes?
(C) Mass (D) Temperature (A) 32 (B) 0
Ans. (D) (C) 48 (D) 37
103. The working principle of a mercury Ans. (A)
thermometer is ______. 109. What is the SI unit of temperature?
(A) Change in density of matter on heating (A) Kelvin (B) Joule
(B) Expansion of mercury on heating (C) Celsius (D) Fahrenheit
(C) Thermal resistance of matter Ans. (A)
(D) Change in mass of matter on heating 110. Who invented the Centigrade scale?
Ans. (B) (A) Anders Celsius
104. The first law of thermodynamics is related to (B) Daniel Gabriel Fahrenheit
conservation of which one of the following? (C) William Thomson
(A) Energy (B) Number of molecules (D) Wright Brothers
(C) Number of moles (D) Temperature Ans. (A)
Ans. (A) 111. At what temperature (in degree celsius), the
105. At what temperature water converts to water vapour? numerical values on Celsius and Fahrenheit
scales become equal?
(A) 273 K (B) 100 K
(A) -40 (B) 40
(C) 373 K (D) 0 K
(C) 273 (D) -273
Ans. (C)
Ans. (A)
106. Which one of the following is a bad Thermal Conductor?
112. Kelvin (K) is the unit of measurement of
(A) Aluminium (B) Copper ________.
(C) Glass (D) Silver (A) Density (B) Pressure
Ans. (C) (C) Mass (D) Temperature
107. Which of the following device is best suited for Ans.(D)
measuring the temperature inside
113. The melting point of ice is ____ K.
metallurgical furnaces?
(A) 253.16 (B) 263.16
(A) Pyrometer (B) Thermocouple
(C) 273.16 (D) 283.16
(C) Thermometer (D) Thermistor
Ans. (C)
Chapter-02
Waves
Type, Properties and Wave Motion electromagnetic wave?
(A) X-ray (B) Gamma-ray
1. When a stone is thrown in calm water of a pond
(C) Cathode Ray (D) Infrared
waves produced are-
Ans. (C)
(A) Longitudinal wave (B) Transverse wave
10. Which of the following has the lowest
(C) Both A and B (D) Wave does not Produced
frequency?
Ans. (C)
(A) Visible Ray (B) Gamma Ray
2. Which instrument can be used to study the
wave form of a signal? (C) X-Ray (D) Ultraviolet Rays
(A) Spectrometer (B) Oscilloscope Ans. (A)
(C) Sonometer (D) P-n Junction diode 11. Every hot object emits
Ans. (B) (A) X-rays (B) Visible light
3. What is found in frequency modulation? (C) Infrared Rays (D) Ultraviolet Rays
(A) Fixed frequency (B) Fixed dimension Ans. (C)
(C) Change in frequency and dimension 12. Which of the following is not true about X-rays?
(D) Change in dimension only (A) Have low penetrating power
Ans. (A) (B) Travel with the speed of light
4. These waves cannot be transmitted through
vacuum (C) Can be reflected or refracted
(A) Light (B) Sound (D) Can affect photographic plates.
(C) Heat (D) Electromagnetic Ans. (A)
Ans. (B) 13. In which region of electromagnetic spectrum
5. Stationary wave is formed by does the Lyman series of Hydrogen atom lie
(A) A transverse wave superposing a longitudinal (A) Visible (B) Infrared
wave (C) Ultraviolet (D) X-Ray
(B) Two waves of the same speed superposing Ans. (C)
(C) Two waves of same frequency travelling in 14. Which of these travels in glass with minimum
the same direction velocity
(D) Two waves of same frequency travelling in (A) Red light (B) Violet Light
the opposite direction (C) Green Light (D) Yellow Light
Ans. (D) Ans. (B)
6. Intensity of any wave is proportional to which
15. X-Rays are
of the following?
(A) Amplitude (B) Square of amplitude (A) Positively charged particles
(C) Square root of amplitude (B) Negatively charged particles
(D) Cube of amplitude (C) Neutral particles (D) None of these
Ans. (B) Ans. (C)
16. The damage of the human body due to radiation
EM Waves (X-Rays or g-rays) is measured in
7. The reverse effect of X-ray emission is (A) Rems (B) Roentgen
(A) Raman Effect (B) Compton Effect (C) Curei (D) Rads
(C) Zeeman Effect (D) Photoelectric Effect Ans. (D)
Ans. (D) 17. Transition ions absorb light in region
8. Which of the following waves can not be (A) Infrared (B) Ultraviolet
polarized. (C) Microwave (D) Visible
(A) Radio (B) Ultraviolet Ans. (D)
(C) Infrared (D) Ultrasonic 18. Green house effect is the heating up of the
Ans. (D) Earth's atmosphere which is due to
9. Which one of the following is not an
(A) The Ultraviolet Rays (B) Gamma-rays Ans. (C)
(C) The infrared rays (D) X-rays 29. The device used for measuring the wavelength
Ans. (C) of X-rays is:
19. Indicate the correct arrangement for (A) Cyclotron (B) Bragg's Spectrometer
electromagnetic radiation in order of their (C) Mass spectrometer (D) GM counter
increasing wavelength Ans. (B)
(A) Microwave, Infrared, Visible, X-Rays 30. Radar is used to-
(B) X-Rays, Visible, Infrared, Microwave (A) To locate submerged submarines.
(C) Visible, Infrared, Microwave, X-Rays (B) Receive signal from radio receivers.
(D) X-rays, Infrared, Visible, Microwave (C) Detect and locate distant objects.
Ans. (B) (D) Locate geostationary satellites.
20. Which of the following supports particle nature Ans. (C)
of photons? 31. Who is the inventor of RADAR?
(A) Diffraction (B) Polarization (A) H.N. Van Tessel (B) William K. Rontgen
(C) Photoelectric effect (D) Interference (C) P.T. Farnswarth
(D) A.H. Taylor and Lio C. Young
Ans. (C)
Ans. (D)
21. Matter waves are
32. Who discovered X-Rays?
(A) de Broglie waves (B) Electromagnetic waves
(A) Roentgen (B) Becquerel
(C) Transverse waves (D) longitudinal waves
(C) Marie curie (D) Wan Loo
Ans. (A)
Ans. (A)
22. Which electromagnetic radiation is used for 33. The least penetrating power ray is —
satellite communication?
(A) -rays (B) -ray
(A) Ultraviolet (B) Infrared
(C) -rays
 (D) X-ray
(C) Microwave (D) Millimeter wave Ans. (A)
Ans. (C) 34. X-rays can be used.
23. The radiation initially produced in fluorescent (A) To detect defects in precious stones and diamonds.
tube is (B) To detect heart diseases.
(A) Infrared (B) Ultraviolet (C) To detect gold under the earth
(C) Microwaves (D) X-Rays (D) For cutting and welding of metals.
Ans. (B) Ans. (A)
24. Waves that are required for long distance 35. Wavelength of visible spectrum is –
wireless communication are (A) 1300 Å– 3000 Å (B) 3900 Å – 7600 Å
(A) Infrared Rays (B) Ultraviolet Rays (C) 7800 Å – 8000 Å (D) 8500 Å – 9800 Å
(C) Radio waves (D) Microwaves Ans. (B)
Ans. (C) 36. In a Filament type Light bulb most of the
25. Ultra violet radiations of the Sun do not reach electric power consumed appear as –
the earth because, earth's atmosphere is (A) Visible Light (B) Infrared Light
surrounded by (C) Ultraviolet (D) Fluorescent Light
(A) Carbon dioxide (B) Ammonia Ans. (B)
(C) Chlorine (D) Ozone 37. Which of the following is used in MRI machine?
Ans. (D) (A) Sound wave (B) X-rays
26. Gamma rays can cause (C) Ultrasonic wave (D) Magnetic wave
(A) Gene mutation (B) Sneezing Ans. (D)
(C) Iodine (D) Sodium chloride 38. A wavelength of 0.3 m is produced in air and it
travels at a speed of 300 m/s. Then it will be an-
Ans. (A)
(A) Audible wave (B) Ultrasonic
27. Ultraviolet radiations has more energy as
compare to- (C) Microwave (D) Infrasonic
Ans. (A)
(A) Infrared Radiation (B) Gamma Radiation
39. Bolometer is used to measure which of the
(C) X-Rays (D) Space Rays following?
Ans. (A) (A) Frequency (B) Temperature
28. Ultraviolet rays can be used in water treatment as (C) Velocity (D) Wavelength
(A) Precipitator (B) Hydrolyser Ans. (B)
(C) Disinfectant (D) Flocculator 40. Coolidge tube is used to produce
(A) Radio waves (B) Micro waves (A) Ultraviolet (B) Microwave
(C) X-rays (D) Gamma rays (C) Radiowave (D) Infrared
Ans. (C) Ans. (D)
41. Which of the following parts of the sunlight 52. Which of the following radiations has the least
makes the solar cooker hot? wavelength?
(A) Ultraviolet (B) Red light (A) X-rays (B) -rays
(C) Infrared (D) Cosmic rays (C) -rays (D) -rays
Ans. (C) Ans. (C)
42. When a vehicle passes, TV reception gets
distorted. This is because Simple Harmonic Motion
(A) Metal reflects radiowaves 53. A seconds pendulum is a pendulum whose time
(B) Spark plug creates electromagnetic disturbances period is —
(C) Vehicle pollution affects the performance of (A) 1 sec (B) 4 sec
the TV components (C) 3 sec (D) 2 sec
Ans. (D)
(D) Modern vehicles use electro-ignition system
54. What is the motion which repeats itself after
Ans.(B)
regular interval of time?
43. Where are mesons found?
(A) Periodic Motion (B) Simple Harmonic Motion
(A) Cosmic rays (B) X-rays
(C) Gamma rays (D) Laser beam (C) Undamping Motion (D) Vibratory Motion
Ans. (A) Ans. (A)
44. What is the full form of 'AM' regarding radio 55. Which of the following waves has the highest
broadcasting? frequency?
(A) Amplitude Movement (B) Anywhere Movement (A) Radio (B) Infrared
(C) Amplitude Matching (D) Amplitude Modulation (C) Microwaves (D) Gamma-rays
Ans. (D) Ans. (D)
45. The scientist who first sent electromagnetic 56. ______ are used for communication in artificial
waves to distant places is satellites.
(A) James Clerk Maxwell(B) Heinrich Hertz (A) Infrared waves (B) Radio waves
(C) Thomas Alva Edison (D) John Logie Baird (C) Ultraviolet (UV) rays
Ans. (B) (D) Amplitude Modulation (A.M.) waves
46. Gamma rays have greatest similarity with Ans. (B)
(A) -rays (B) -rays 57. What is the distance between a crest and a
(C) X-rays (D) U.V.-rays consecutive trough in a transverse wave?
Ans. (C)
(A) Wavelength (B) Amplitude
47. The audio signals of TV are
(C) Half of the wavelength
(A) Amplitude modulated (B) Frequency modulated
(C) Unmodulated (D) Velocity modulated (D) Twice of wavelength
Ans. (B) Ans. (C)
48. Tape recorder should not be kept near one of 58. Which one of the following is not a property of
the following things: electromagnetic waves?
(A) Clock (B) Magnet (A) Electromagnetic w aves do not show
(C) Electrical switchboard(D) Radio interference and diffraction.
Ans. (B) (B) Oscillating electric field and magnetic field
49. Night photography and photography in mist and are perpendicular to each other.
fog are possible using (C) Electromagnetic waves are transverse waves
(A) Ultra-violet radiation (B) Infra-red radiation (D) Electromagnetic waves do not require a
(C) Microwave radiation (D) Gamma radiation medium to propagate.
Ans. (B) Ans. (A)
50. Forged documents are detected by 59. The time taken by a pendulum to complete one
(A) Ultraviolet rays (B) Infra-red rays oscillation is called its?
(C) Beta rays (D) Gamma rays (A) Maximum speed (B) Average speed
Ans. (A)
(C) Time period (D) Time interval
51. In the remote control of television,
electromagnetic waves used are Ans. (C)
Chapter-03
Light
Diffraction, Dispersion, Scattering (A) Refraction and Dispersion
1. Sun appears red in colour during sunrise and (B) Scattering and Refraction
sunset due to (C) Diffraction and Refraction
(A) The fact that sun emits only red colour at (D) Reflection and Refraction
that time
Ans. (D)
(B) Red light having longer wavelength scatters away
8. Which of these waves can be polarized
(C) The sun comes out of the mountains
(A) Sound waves in air
(D) The fact that all other colours scatter away
(B) Longitudinal waves on a string
except red
(C) Transverse waves on a string
Ans. (D)
(D) Light waves
2. The colour of the ocean appears to be blue Ans. (D)
because the sunlight falling on it is 9. The sky appears blue due to
(A) Reflected (B) Refracted (A) Rayleigh scattering (B) Mie scattering
(C) Diffracted (D) Scattered (C) Back scattering (D) None of the above
Ans. (D) Ans. (A)
3. In the absence of the earth’s atmosphere sky 10. The splitting of white light into its component
would appear is due to
(A) Blue (B) Deep Red (A) Reflection (B) Refraction
(C) White (D) Black (C) Transmission (D) Dispersion
Ans. (D) Ans. (D)
4. Which is the phenomenon which established the 11. Light scattering takes place in
transverse nature of light?
(A) Colloidal solutions (B) Acidic solutions
(A) Reflection (B) Refraction
(C) Electrolyte solutions (D) Basic solutions
(C) Diffraction (D) Polarization
Ans. (A)
Ans. (D)
12. Which of the following statements is true when
5. Rainbows are formed when sunlight
we see ‘rainbow’?
(A) Incident on rain drops hanging in the atmosphere
is dispersed after suffering refraction (A) We face sun and raindrops
(B) Incident on rain drops hanging in the (B) The sun remains behind as and we face raindrops
atmosphere is dispersed after suffering (C) In light rainfall, we face sun
refraction and internal reflection. (D) The sky remains clear and the sun is at lower
(C) Incident on raindrops hanging in the position in the sky
atmosphere is dispensed after suffering reflection Ans. (B)
(D) None of the given statement is correct 13. A soap bubble shows colours when illuminated
Ans. (B) with white light. The is due to
6. Which of the following colour of light deviates (A) Diffraction (B) Polarisation
least through the prism? (C) Interference (D) Reflection
(A) Yellow (B) Green Ans.(C)
14. The formation of Rainbow takes place, when
(C) Violet (D) Red
sunlight–
Ans. (D)
(A) Scattered due to the reflection from water
7. Rainbow is formed due to drops in atmosphere
(B) Scattered due to refraction from water drops (C) Interference
in atmosphere (D) Total Internal Reflection
(C) Scattered due to refraction and total internal Ans. (D)
reflection from water drops 23. Energy in reflected light is
(D) None of the above (A) Does not depend on the angle of incidence
Ans. (C) (B) Increases with increase in angle
15. The Rainbow has: (Chose incorrect Statement) (C) Decrease with increase in angle incidence
(A) Violet light as its innermost colour towards earth (D) Become maximum for an angle of incidence of 45°
(B) Its curvature bends towards earth Ans. (B)
24. Which of the following optical phenomena is
(C) Red light as its outermost colour toward sky
responsible for the brilliance of diamond?
(D) Red light as its innermost colour towards earth (A) Maximum Refraction
Ans. (D) (B) Total Internal Reflection
16. On a rainy day small oily films on water shows (C) Total surface Reflection
brilliant colour. This is due to – (D) 100% transmission
(A) Scattering (B) Dispersion Ans. (B)
(C) Interference (D) Polarization Refraction
Ans. (C) 25. The phenomenon of change in direction of light
when it passes from one medium to another is called
Reflection (A) Propagation (B) Reflection
17. An optically plane surface reflects a beam of light (C) Refraction (D) Dispersion
(A) As a parallel beam in one direction Ans. (C)
(B) As diffused beams in all directions 26. Which of the following is not caused by
(C) As parallel beams in all direction atmospheric refraction?
(A) Sun appearing red at sunset
(D) As a diffused beam in one direction
(B) Twinkling of stars at night
Ans. (A)
(C) Sun appearing higher in the sky than it
18. Which one of the following reflects back more actually is
sunlight as compared to other three? (D) Sun becoming visible two or three minutes
(A) Sand desert before actual sunrise.
(B) Land covered with fresh snow Ans. (A)
(C) Prairie land (D) Paddy crop land 27. A star appears twinkling in the sky because of
Ans. (B)
(A) Scattering of light by atmosphere
19. Purpose of an optical fibre is to
(B) Reflection of light by atmosphere
(A) Reflect light of different colours
(B) Dispense light into component colours (C) Refraction of light by atmosphere
(C) Refract light of different colours (D) Diffraction of light by atmosphere
(D) Transmit light of different colours Ans. (C)
Ans. (D) 28. A water tank appears shallower when it is
20. The Phenomenon which causes mirage is viewed from top due to
(A) Interference (B) Diffraction (A) Rectilinear propagation of light
(C) Polarization (D) Total Internal Reflection (B) Reflection
Ans. (D) (C) Total Internal Reflection
21. Total Internal Reflection can not take place (D) Refraction
when light goes from Ans. (D)
(A) Water to Glass (B) Glass to water 29. The reason for a swimming pool to appear less
deep than the actual depth is
(C) Water to air (D) Glass to air
(A) Refraction (B) Light scattering
Ans. (A) (C) Reflection (D) Interference
22. Optical fibre works on the principle of Ans. (A)
(A) Refraction (B) Scattering 30. A plane glass slab is kept over coloured letters
which appears least raised is –
(A) Red (B) Green (A) Plane Mirror (B) Concave Mirror
(C) Violet (D) Blue (C) Convex Mirror (D) Parabolic Mirror
Ans. (C) Ans. (B)
41. Electron Microscope is more magnifier than
Lens and Mirror
light magnifying because
31. Lens is made up of
(A) Pyrex glass (B) Flint glass (A) Velocity of electron is less than velocity of light
(C) Ordinary glass (D) Cobalt glass (B) Wavelength of electron is less than the
Ans. (B) wavelength of light
32. For a person having hypermetropia, the near (C) Electron contains more energy than particles
point is (D) More powerful lenses are used in electron
(A) Greater than 25 cm (B) Greater than 50 cm Microscope
(C) Less than 25 cm (D) Infinity
Ans. (D)
Ans. (C)
42. A periscope works on the principle of
33. The head mirror used by ENT doctors is
(A) Refraction (B) Total Internal Reflection
(A) Concave (B) Convex
(C) Diffraction (D) Reflection
(C) Plane (D) Plano-convex
Ans. (D)
Ans. (A)
43. In mirrors the back surface is painted with a
34. Vehicles use ____ to see the objects coming from
thin layer of
behind
(A) Mercury (B) Silver
(A) Concave Lens (B) Convex Lens
(C) Red oxide (D) Silver Nitrate
(C) Concave Mirror (D) Convex Mirror
Ans. (B)
Ans. (D) 44. Find the power of a convex lens if the image formed
35. What is a compound microscope is at a distance of 10 cm from the lens when the
(A) A microscope that has one lens object is placed on the other side of the lens at 40
(B) A microscope that has two set of lenses cm from the optical centre?
(C) A microscope whose lenses are concave (A) 12.5 dioptre (B) 7.5 dioptre
(C) –12.5 dioptre (D) –7.5 dioptre
(D) A microscope whose lenses are convex
Ans. (A)
Ans. (D)
45. Find the power of a convex lens if the image formed
36. Convex mirrors are used as a rear view mirror is at a distance of 20 cm from the lens when the
in motor cycles because object is placed on the other side of the lens at 60
(A) It forms real image (B) It forms erect image cm from the optical centre?
(C) It forms smaller image as compared with object (A) 3.33 dioptre (B) 6.67 dioptre
(D) All of the above (C) -6.67 diopre (D) -3.33 dioptre
Ans. (B) (SSC CHSL Tier-I 2016)
Ans. (D)
1 1 1
37. Persons suffering from myopia are advised to use Exp:  =
20 60 f
(A) Convex lens (B) Concave lens
3 1 1
(C) Plano-concave lens (D) Plano-convex lens =
60 f
Ans. (B) 60
38. Magnifying Glass is basically a f= cm
4
(A) Plano-concave lens (B) Cancave lens 60
f=
(C) Convex lens (D) Cylindrical lens 4  10
Ans. (C) 20
P= = 6.67 Dioptre(d)
39. Shaving Mirror is 3
(A) Convex (B) Concave 46. Find the power of a convex lens if the image
(C) Plane (D) Parabolic formed is at a distance of 20 cm from the lens
Ans. (B) when the object is placed on the other side of
the lens at 25 cm from the optical centre?
40. Which type of mirror is used in the head lights
of vehicles (A) 1 dioptre (B) – 9 dioptre
(C) 9 dioptre (D) 1 dioptre (C) Intensity of lens (D) Intensity of sound
7Ans. (C) Ans. (A)
47. Which of the following is used to split white 56. Radio telescope are better than optical
light into different colours? telescopes because–
(A) They can detect faint galaxies which cannot
(A) Glass slab (B) Convex lens
be done by optical telescope.
(C) Concave lens (D) Prism (B) They can even work in cloudy conditions.
Ans. (D) (C) They can work during day and night
48. Spectacles used for viewing 3D films have (D) All of the above.
(A) Bifocal lens (B) Convex lens Ans. (D)
(C) Concave lens (D) Polaroids 57. To eliminate the glare of headlight in motor-
Ans. (D) cars–
(A) Polaroid’s are used (B) Glass prism are used
49. A concave lens always form an image which is
(C) Thin films are used (D) Filters are used.
(A) Real and erect (B) Virtual and erect Ans. (A)
(C) Real and inverted (D) Virtual and inverted Eye
Ans. (B) 58. The outer white part of the eye that protects
50. One can distinguish a telescope f rom a the inner structures is____.
microscope by observing (A) Iris (B) Sclera
(C) Retina (D) Cornea
(A) Length (B) Colour
Ans. (B)
(C) Size of the lens 59. Person who is color blind can not distinguish
(D) length and size of the lens between
Ans. (C) (A) Black and yellow (B) Red and green
51. To get the magnified and virtual image mirror (C) Yellow and white (D) Green and blue
is used– Ans. (B)
(A) Plane Mirror (B) Convex Mirror 60. The least distance of distinct Vision is
(C) Concave Mirror (D) Concave Lens (A) 35 cm (B) 25 cm
(C) 45 cm (D) 15 cm
Ans. (C)
Ans. (B)
52. Which of the following always makes the smaller 61. Distant objects are visible as little out of focus
image of body, which is placed in front of it? in the condition
(A) Plane Mirror (B) Convex Mirror (A) Presbyopia (B) Hypermetropia
(C) Convex Lens (D) Concave Mirror (C) Astigmatism (D) Myopia
Ans. (B)
Ans. (D)
53. The Image formed by specific mirror; legs appears
62. Sensitivity of human eye is maximum in the
as of same size but head and his body appears
smaller than its real size, when person stands in (A) Violet region (B) Green region
front of mirror. What is the nature of mirror? (C) Blue region (D) Red region
(A) Plane and Concave (B) Convex and Concave Ans. (B)
(C) Convex and Plane (D) Plane 63. A man can not see clearly beyond 10 meters.
Ans. (C) The disease he suffers from.
54. What is a zoom lens? (A) Far sight (B) Myopia
(A) A lens with a definite focal length (C) Cataract (D) Hypermetropia
(B) A lens with a transitional focal length Ans. (B)
(C) It is used in Radio Telescopes. 64. The part of the eye having largest refractive
index is
(D) None of these
(A) Cornea (B) Aqueous humor
Ans. (B)
(C) Lens (D) Virtuous humor
55. Dioptre is the unit of–
Ans. (C)
(A) Power of lens (B) Focal length of lens
65. Hypermetropia or long sightedness can be (A) Concave Lens (B) Convex Lens
corrected by using (C) Cylindrical lens (D) None of these
(A) Bifocal lenses (B) Cylindrical lenses Ans. (D)
(C) Concave lenses (D) Convex lenses 74. Protanopia is a kind of colourblindness, in which
defected person can’t see the colour –
Ans. (D)
(A) Green (B) Red
66. The final image in a simple microscope is
(C) Blue (D) All of these
(A) Real, diminished and inverted
Ans. (D)
(B) Real, magnified and erect
75. The Plate of Blue glass appears blue in sunlight
(C) Virtual, magnified and erect
because–
(D) Virtual, diminished and erect
(A) It absorb the blue light
Ans. (C)
(B) It transmits the blue light
67. Is dangerous to observe solar eclipse with naked
eyes because (C) It absorbs all the colours including blue
(A) Infrared radiations from sun burn our retina (D) Transmits all the colours including blue.
(B) Ultraviolet radiations from sun burn our retina Ans. (B)
(C) All radiations from sun initiate chemical
Miscellaneous
reactions in eyes
(D) Cosmic rays reach eyes more during the eclipse 76. The speed of light in air is
Ans. (B) (A) 3 × 108 m/s (B) 3 × 10–8 m/s
68. Short-sight in human eye can be corrected by (C) 3 × 103 m/s (D) Infinity
using proper Ans. (A)
(A) Convex lens (B) Concave lens 77. Photon is the fundamental unit/quantum of
(C) Cylindrical lens (D) Bifocal lens (A) Gravitation (B) Electricity
Ans. (B) (C) Magnetism (D) Light
69. Myopia is the same as Ans. (D)
(A) Near sightedness (B) Astigmatism 78. Light beam which is highly directional is called
(C) Presbyopia (D) Long sightedness (A) Eraser (B) Grazer
Ans. (A) (C) Maser (D) Laser
70. The owl can see most clearly in total darkness Ans. (D)
because
(A) It has squint eyes 79. Persistence of vision is the principle behind
(B) It has large eyes with rods directed forward, (A) Binocular (B) Camera
giving it binocular sight (C) Periscope (D) Cinema
(C) It has light bulbs in its eyes provided by Ans. (D)
nature
80. Which of the following is responsible for the
(D) It produces infrasonic sounds
working of newton’s colour disc experiment
Ans. (B)
(A) Formation of pure spectra
71. What is myopia?
(A) Inability to see distant objects clearly (B) Formation of impure spectra
(B) Abnormal functioning of the thyroid gland (C) Persistence of vision
(C) It is a condition of enlargement of heart (D) Principle of complementary colour
(D) It is a kidney disorder Ans. (C)
Ans. (A) 81. Solar cells work on the principle of
72. The Sky appears to an astronaut– (A) Photovoltaic effect (B) Photoelectric effect
(A) White (B) Bark Blue (C) Photoconductive effect
(C) Light Green (D) Black
(D) Photosynthesis
Ans. (D)
Ans. (A)
73. Colour blindness defect can be corrected by us-
ing the lens– 82. A light year is a unit of
(A) Time (B) Distance (C) Electron of suitable velocity impinge on it.
(C) Speed of light (D) Intensity of light (D) Light of suitable wavelength falls on it.
Ans. (D)
Ans. (B)
94. Which of the following gase is used in the Yel-
83. Ozone layer above the surface of Earth provides lowish lamps used as street Lights?
a shield against– (A) Sodium (B) Neon
(A) X-rays (B) Ultra Violet Rays (C) Hydrogen (D) Nitrogen
(C) Gamma Rays (D) Infrared Rays Ans. (B)
Ans. (B) 95. Photo oxidation process is initiated by –
84. The primary colours in photography are (A) Light (B) Heat
(A) Red, Blue, Yellow (B) Red, Yellow, Green (C) Oxygen (D) Catalyst
(C) Red, Blue, Green (D) Blue, Yellow, Green Ans. (A)
Ans. (C) 96. What is a Hologram?
85. Which of the following is not a part of a CRT? (A) Graphical Representation of frequency
(A) Phosphor Screen (B) Shadow Mask distribution
(C) Electron Gun (D) Gas Plasma (B) 3D– MRI
Ans. (D) (C) A 3D Shadow to reproduce the photographic
86. Light travels fastest in record
(A) Nitrogen (B) Air (D) A Liquid Crystal Display
(C) Steel (D) Vacuum
Ans. (C)
Ans. (D)
97. Who invented the optical fibre?
87. Who Invented Laser?
(A) William FrieseGreene (A) Samuel Cohen (B) Narinder Kapany
(B) Arthur Fry (C) Percy Spencer (D) T.H. Maimah
(C) Gordon Gould (D) Otto von Guericke Ans. (B)
Ans. (C) 98. Which of the following purpose optical fibre is
88. Who Invented LED? used for?
(A) Nick Holonyak (B) Elias Howe (A) Weaving (B) Musical Instrument
(C) Chuck Hull (D) Christiaan Huygens (C) Eye Surgery (D) Communication
Ans. (A) Ans. (D)
89. Instrument for measuring blueness of the sky 99. Sir C.V. Raman is awarded by Nobel Prize for
or ocean is called ___________. his experiment of –
(A) Bathymeter (B) Ceraunograph (A) Reflection of Light (B) Dispersion of Light
(C) Cyanometer (D) Barometer (C) Scattering of Light (D) Diffraction of Light
Ans. (C) Ans. (C)
90. Lumen is a unit of – 100. Light Waves are –
(A) Luminous Flux (B) Luminous Intensity (A) Electric Wave (B) Magnetic Wave
(C) Luminous density (D) Brightness (C) Electromagnetic Wave
Ans. (A) (D) Electrostatic Wave
91. White Light constitutes the colours – Ans. (C)
(A) 4 (B) 5 101. Time taken by the Sun Light to reach the
(C) 6 (D) 7 earth?
Ans. (D) (A) 5.5 min. (B) 6.8 min.
92. Atomic clock transitions depends upon the – (C) 8.3 min. (D) 9.5 min.
(A) Sodium (B) Caesium Ans. (C)
(C) Magnesium (D) Aluminum 102. The speed of light with the rise in the tempera-
Ans. (B) ture of the medium:
(A) Increases (B) Decreases
93. The photoelectric effect is described as the ejection
of electrons from the surface of a metal when – (C) Remains unaltered (D) Drops suddenly
(A) It is heated Ans. (C)
(B) It is placed in the strong electric field. 103. Who measured the velocity of light first?
(A) Galileo (B) Newton
(C) Romer (D) Einstein mirror is called ___________ reflection.
Ans. (C) (A) Regular (B) Irregular
104. Which colour is the complementary colour of yellow? (C) Diffused (D) Fused
(A) Blue (B) Green Ans. (A)
(C) Orange (D) Red 114. Why does a black board appears black in colour?
Ans. (A) (A) It reflects black colour
105. Ability to distinguish two closely placed objects (B) It absorbs black colour
is ______. (C) It reflects all colours
(A) Resolving power (B) Video power (D) It absorbs all the colours
(C) Distinguish power (D) Magnifying power Ans. (D)
Ans. (A) 115. The bending of light when it passes around a
106. Which of the following phenomena is involved corner or a slit is due to ______.
in Kaleidoscope? (A) Reflection (B) Refraction
(C) Diffraction (D) Total internal reflection
(A) Refraction (B) Reflection
Ans. (C)
(C) Total Internal reflection
116. What is the reason for formation of Mirage in
(D) Diffraction desert?
Ans. (B) (A) Refraction of light
107. In a magnifying glass ______ lens is used. (B) Reflection of light
(A) Convex (B) Concave (C) Total internal reflection of light
(C) Plano concave (D) Plano convex (D) Both Refraction and Total internal reflection
Ans. (A) of light
108. When an object is kept between two parallel Ans. (D)
plane mirrors then what is the number of 117. Speed of light is maximum in _____.
images formed? (A) Vacuum (B) Solids
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) Liquids (D) Gases
(C) 4 (D) Infinite Ans. (A)
Ans. (D) 118. Convex mirror is generally used in _____.
109. A _____ splits sunlight into seven colours.
(A) Solar cookers (B) Ophthalmoscope
(A) Concave lens (B) Convex lens
(C) Reflector for head light
(C) Prism (D) Concave mirror
(D) Rear view mirror
Ans. (C)
Ans. (D)
110. Which type of mirror is used by dentists to see
large images of teeth? 119. If objects appear enlarged and inverted in a
rear view mirror, then which type of mirror is
(A) Concave mirror (B) Convex mirror
used?
(C) Plane mirror (D) Cylindrical mirror
(A) Concave (B) Convex
Ans. (A)
111. According to law of reflection: (C) Cylindrical (D) Plane
(A) Angle of incidence is greater than angle of Ans. (A)
reflection 120. Why does water tank appear shallower when
(B) Angle of incidence is smaller than angle of viewed from the top?
reflection (A) Due to reflection (B) Due to refraction
(C) Angle of incidence is always equal to angle of (C) Due to diffraction
reflection
(D) Due to total internal reflection
(D) Both angles are always unequal
Ans. (B)
Ans. (C)
121. Which colour is formed when Red and Green
112. Who invented first working laser?
are mixed?
(A) A. H. Taylor (B) W. K. Roentgen
(A) Light blue (B) Yellow
(C) T. H. Maiman (D) Fred Morrission
(C) White (D) Grey
Ans. (C)
Ans. (B)
113. Reflection from a smooth surface like that of a
122. Which phenomena shows the particle nature 128. The impression of an image persists on the
of light? retina for about _________ of a second.
(A) Diffraction (B) Interference (A) 1/10th (B) 1/8th
(C) Photoelectric effect (D) Polarisation (C) 1/16th (D) 1/5th
Ans. (C) Ans. (C)
123. Which colour is formed when Blue and Green 129. An image formed by a concave mirror on a screen
are mixed? is called __________?
(A) Cyan (B) Brown (A) Virtual image (B) Real image
(C) Black (D) Violet (C) Inverted image (D) Erect image
Ans. (A) Ans. (B)
124. Optical fibre works on which of the following 130. The incident ray, the _________ at the point of
principle of light? incidence and the reflected ray all lie in the
(A) Reflection (B) Refraction same plane.
(C) Diffraction (D) Total internal reflection (A) Surface (B) Tangent
Ans. (D) (C) Normal (D) Angle of reflection
Ans. (C)
125. When light passes from one medium to another,
this phenomenon of change in its direction is 131. The reflection formed by the plane mirror is
called _____. ________________.
(A) Refraction (B) Diffraction (A) Vertical inversion (B) A real image
(C) Propagation (D) No option is correct (C) Lateral inversion (D) An enlarged image
Ans. (A) Ans. (C)
126. The side mirrors of vehicles are of which type 132. Convex and concave mirrors are examples of?
of mirrors? (A) Plane mirrors (B) Spherical mirrors
(A) Convex (B) Concave (C) Inverted mirror (D) Erect mirror
(C) Plane (D) Inverted Ans. (B)
Ans. (A) 133. The angle between the __________and the
127. An image formed by a plane mirror, that cannot incident ray is called the angle of incidence.
be obtained on a screen is called _______. (A) Surface (B) Normal
(A) Virtual image (B) Real image (C) Tangent (D) Reflected ray
(C) Inverted image (D) Erect image Ans. (B)
Ans. (A)
Chapter-04
Sound
1. The velocity of sound in moist air is more than Ans. (C)
in dry air because the moist air has – 10. Which of the following does not have any effect
(A) Less pressure than dry air on velocity of sound?
(B) More density than dry air (A) Pressure (B) Temperature
(C) Less density than dry air (C) Humidity (D) Density
(D) More pressure than dry air Ans. (A)
Ans. (C) 11. Sound cannot pass through–
2. Hertz is the unit of……… (A) Water (B) Steel
(A) Frequency (B) Wavelength (C) Air (D) Vacuum
(C) Intensity (D) Clarity of waves Ans. (D)
12. In which of the following speed of sound is
Ans. (A)
maximum?
3. The Unit of noise pollution (level) is–
(A) Steel (B) Air
(A) Decibel (B) Decimal
(C) Vacuum (D) Water
(C) Ppm (D) None of the above
Ans. (A)
Ans. (A)
13. In which of the following medium speed of
4. What is Decibel? sound will be comparatively high?
(A) A musical instrument (B) Wavelength of noise
(A) Carbon dioxide (B) Iron Rod
(C) A musical note (D) Scale of sound level (C) Steam (D) Water
Ans. (D) Ans. (B)
5. The Permissible noise level at residential area 14. Pitch of a sound depends upon its –
during day time is….
(A) Frequency (B) Intensity
(A) 45 dB (B) 55 dB
(C) Velocity (D) Amplitude
(C) 75 dB (D) 80 dB
Ans. (A)
Ans. (B)
15. Which of the following character of sound wave
6. The range of frequency of ultrasonic wave.
change with the change in temperature in
(A) Greater than 20 KHz (B) Greater than 20,000 KHz
atmosphere.
(C) Below than 20 KHz (D) Greater than 02 KHz
(A) Frequency (B) Amplitude
Ans. (A)
(C) Wavelength (D) Intensity
7. In which of the following frequency Range,
Human ear feels the sensitivity of vibration of Ans. (A)
sound? 16. Which phenomenon do bat or dolphins used to
(A) 0 – 5 Hz (B) 6 – 10 Hz find prey, predators or obstacles?
(A) Refraction of sound (B) Formation of beats
(C) 11 – 15 Hz (D) 20 – 20,000 Hz
(C) Scattering of sound (D) Echolocation
Ans. (D) Ans. (D)
8. If the ratio of intensity of wave is 25:9. What is
the ratio of their amplitude? 17. When a vibrating tuning fork is placed on table,
(A) 50 : 18 (B) 5 : 3 a loud sound is heard. This is due to –
(C) 3 : 5 (D) 25 : 9 (A) Reflection (B) Refraction
Ans. (B) (C) Forced vibration (D) Damped vibration
9. Supersonic air plane creates a shock wave Ans. (C)
called –
18. Sound waves do not exhibit the phenomenon of
(A) Transition wave (B) Ultrasound wave (A) Interference (B) Diffraction
(C) Sonic Boom (D) Transverse (C) Refraction (D) Polarisation
Ans. (D) (C) Sonic wave (D) Seismic waves
19. Sound waves cannot be polarised because they Ans. (A)
(A) Require a mateial medium for propagation 29. If a sound travels from air to water, the quantity
that remain unchanged is
(B) Are longitudinal
(A) Velocity (B) Frequency
(C) Are tranverse (D) Have low velocity
(C) Wavelength (D) Amplitude
Ans. (B)
Ans. (B)
20. The velocity of sound in a gas depends on
30. Ultrasonic waves can be detected by
(A) Wavelength only (A) Telephone (B) Hebb's method
(B) Density and elasticity of gas (C) Kundt's tube (D) Quincke's tube
(C) Intensity only Ans. (C)
(D) Amplitude and frequency 31. The waves used in sonography are-
Ans. (B) (A) Micro waves (B) Infra-red waves
21. When we hear a sound, we can identify its (C) Sound waves (D) Ultrasonic waves
source from Ans. (D)
(A) Wavelength of sound 32. Echo is produced due to
(A) Reflection of sound (B) Refraction of sound
(B) The overtones present in the sound
(C) Resonance (D) None of these
(C) The intensity of sound
Ans. (A)
(D) The amplitude of sound
33. SONAR is based on the principle of
Ans. (B)
22. Which of the following type of waves is differ- (A) Echo (B) Resonance
ent from others? (C) Reverberation (D) None of these
(A) Light waves (B) X-rays Ans. (A)
(C) Radio waves (D) Sound waves 34. Instrument used to study the behaviour of a
Ans. (D) vibrating string is:
23. Quality is that sensation of sound which is felt (A) Hygrometer (B) Sonometer
by our ears by virtue of (C) Barometer (D) Hydrometer
(A) Waveform of sound wave Ans. (B)
(B) Frequency of sound wave 35. Sound travels fastest in
(C) Amplitude of sound wave (A) Steel (B) Air
(D) None of these
(C) Water (D) Vacuum
Ans. (A)
Ans. (A)
24. Beats occur because of
36. Speed of sound in a gas is proportional to
(A) Interference (B) Reflection
(A) Square root of isothermal elasticity
(C) Refraction (D) Doppler effect
(B) Square root of adiabatic elasticity
Ans. (A)
(C) Isothermal elasticity (D) Adiabatic elasticity
25. The loudness of sound depends upon
Ans. (A)
(A) Velocity (B) Pitch
37. The Doppler's effect is applicable for
(C) Amplitude (D) Wavelength
(A) Light wave (B) Sound wave
Ans. (C)
(C) Space wave (D) Both (A) and (B)
26. Pitch is sensation which depends upon
Ans.
(A) Frequency (B) Amplitude
38. Which one of the following animals can hear
(C) Wavelength(D) Velocity
ultrasonic sound?
Ans. (A)
(A) Rat (B) Squirrel
27. The quality of sound produced by an instru-
(C) Cat (D) Bat
ment depends on the
Ans. (D)
(A) Frequency (B) Intensity
39. Submerged objects can be located using
(C) Number of overtones (D) None of these
(A) Radar (B) Sonar
Ans. (D)
(C) Quasar (D) Pulsar
28. Sound waves of wavelength greater than that
of audible sound are called. Ans. (B)
40. Velocity of sound in air does not change with
(A) Infrasonic waves (B) Ultrasonic wave
the change of
(A) Temperature of air (B) Pressure of air (A) Hertz (B) Decibel
(C) Moisture content in air (C) Candela (D) Mach
(D) Wind in the direction of propagation of sound Ans. (C)
Ans. (B)
50. If density of oxygen is 16 times that of hydro-
41. The frequency of ultrasound wave is typically gen. What will be their corresponding ratio of
(A) Above 20,000 KHz (B) Above 20 KHz velocity of sound?
(C) Below 02 KHz (D) Below 2000 KHz (A) 4 : 1 (B) 2 : 1
Ans. (B) (C) 1 : 16 (D) 1 : 4
42. The velocity of sound in air Ans. (D)
(A) Decreases with increase of temperature 51. Conversion of sound energy into electrical en-
(B) Increase with decrease of temperature ergy is done by
(C) Does not depend on temperature (A) Solar cell (B) Gramophone
(D) Decreases with decrease in temperature (C) Microphone (D) Loud speaker
Ans. (C)
Ans. (D)
52. A bomb explodes on the moon. You will hear
43. The device which converts sound energy into its sound on earth after ____
electrical energy is called (A) 20 minutes (B) 2 hours 20 minutes
(A) Amplifier (B) Speaker (C) 3.7 hours
(C) Microphone (D) Transmitter (D) You cannot hear the sound of explosion
Ans. (C) Ans. (D)
44. Least aduible sound for most of the human ear is: 53. Bats can sense obstacles because they produce
(A) 10.0  bar (B) 0.0002  bar (A) Supersonic sound waves
(B) Ultrasonic sound waves
(C) 0.005  bar (D) 5.0  bar
(C) Infrasonic sound waves
Ans. (B) (D) Micro sound waves
45. The ordinary and maximum tolerance limit of Ans. (B)
sound by human being is 54. Quality of a musical note depends on
(A) 50 dB to 70 dB (decibel) (A) Fundamental frequency
(B) 60 dB to 80 dB (decibel) (B) Amplitude of the wave
(C) 65 dB to 75 dB (decibel) (C) Harmonics present
(D) 70 dB to 85 dB (decibel) (D) Velocity of sound in the medium
Ans. (B) Ans. (C)
55. Which of the following is the unit of perceived
46. Sound is heard over longer distances on rainy
loudness of sound?
days because
(A) Decibel (B) Sone
(A) Sound travels slowly in moist air
(C) Hertz (D) Phon
(B) Sound travels faster in moist air
Ans. (A)
(C) Moist air does not absorb sound 56. Hydroscope is an instrument that shows
(D) Moist air absorbs sound changes in
Ans. (B) (A) Sound under water (B) Atmospheric humidity
47. Which of the following property of sound is af- (C) Density of liquid (D) Elevation of land
fected by change in air temperature Ans. (A)
(A) Frequency (B) Intensity 57. The SI unit of intensity of sound is ______.
(C) Amplitude (D) Wavelength (A) Watt per square meter
Ans. (A) (B) Joule per square meter
(C) Newton per square meter
48. A person standing on a railway platform listens
to the whistles of arriving and departing trains. (D) Tesla per square meter
Ans. (A)
(A) The same in both cases in all respects
58. Women have shrill voice because of _______.
(B) Of higher intensity when train arrives (A) Low frequency (B) High frequency
(C) Of higher pitch when train arrives (C) Shrill vocals (D) Strong epiglottis
(D) Of higher pitch when train departs Ans. (B)
Ans. (C) 59. The instrument used to study the laws of
vibrating string is _____.
49. Which term is not associated with sound wave?
(A) Hydrometer (B) Sonometer quired to hear an echo?
(C) Sphygmomanometer (D) Electrometer (A) 10 (B) 13
Ans. (B) (C) 17 (D) 21
60. In fluid mechanics, Mach number is 1, if the Ans. (C)
speed of an object is equal to the ______? 64. Which among the following determines the
(A) Speed of light pitch of a sound?
(B) Rotational speed of sun (A) Amplitude (B) Frequency
(C) Speed of sound (C) Loudness (D) Wavelength
(D) Speed of revolution of earth around the sun Ans. (B)
Ans. (C) 65. What is the SI unit of frequency?
61. What is the unit of frequency? (A) Newton (B) Watt
(A) Decibel (B) Watt (C) Farad (D) Hertz
(C) Hertz (D) Newton Ans. (D)
Ans. (C) 66. Who pioneered diagnostic ultrasound?
62. Sounds of frequencies below 20 Hz are called (A) Alexander Fleming (B) Ian Donald
(C) A. Laveran (D) Robert Koch
_____.
Ans. (B)
(A) Infrasonic sound (B) Ultrasonic sound
67. What is the SI unit of intensity of sound?
(C) Intrasonic sound (D) Reflected sound
Ans. (A) (A) Decibel (B) Newton
63. What is the minimum distance (in metres) re- (C) Heartz (D) Tesla
Ans. (A)
Chapter-05
Kinematic
1. What should a person do on a freely rotating (A) Force (B) Momentum
turn-table to decrease his angular speed? (C) Impulse (D) Catching time
(A) Brings his hands together Ans. (B)
(B) Raises his hands up 8. If the velocity-time graph of a particle is
(C) Spreads his hands outward represented by y = mt+c, then the particle is
(D) Sits down with raised hands moving with
Ans. (C) (A) Constant speed (B) Constant velocity
2. Which of the following particle has maximum (C) Constant acceleration (D) Varying acceleration
momentum, if all particles are moving with a Ans. (C)
same speed?
9. The swing of a spinning cricket ball in air can
(A) Electron (B) Proton
be explained on the basis of
(C) Deuteron (D) Alpha prticle (A) Sudden change in wind direction.
Ans. (D)
(B) Buoyancy of air.
3. Which of the follownig law of conservation
(C) Turbulence caused by wind.
applicable on the motion of a rocket?
(A) Conservation of mass (D) Bernoulli’s theorem.
(B) Conservation of charge Ans. (C)
(C) Conservation of momentum 10. The spokes used in the wheel of a bicycle
(D) Conservtion of energy. increase its
Ans. (C) (A) Moment of inertia (B) Velocity
4. When the speed of car is doubled, then what (C) Acceleration (D) Momentum
will be the braking force of the car to stop it in Ans. (A)
the same distance? 11. The function of ball bearings in a wheel is :
(A) Four times (B) Two times (A) To increase friction
(C) Half (D) One-fourth (B) To convert kinetic friction into rolling friction
Ans. (B) (C) To convert static friction into kinetic friction
5. The dimension of which of the following is the (D) Just for convenience
same as that of impulse?
Ans. (B)
(A) Volume (B) Momentum
12. A sphere rolls down on two inclined planes of
(C) Torque
different angles but same height, it does so
(D) Change in the rate of momentum
(A) In the same time
Ans. (B)
(B) With the same speed
6. Rain drops fall from great height. Which among
the following statements is true regarding it? (C) In the same time with the same speed
(A) They fall with that ultimate velocity, which (D) In the same time with the same kinetic energy
are different for different droplets Ans. (B)
(B) They fall with same ultimate velocity 13. An athlete runs before long jump to get
(C) Their velocity increases and they fall with advantage on
different velocity on the earth (A) Inertia of motion (B) Frictional force
(D) Their velocity increases and they fall with (C) Moment of a force (D) Principle of moments
same velocity on the earth Ans. (A)
Ans. (A) 14. A pilot has to release the bomb to hit a target
7. While catching a ball, a player pulls down his (A) Right above the target (B) Beyond the target
hands to lower the (C) Before the target (D) None of these
Ans. (C) (C) Form of mass (D) Distribution of mass
15. A bomb at rest explodes into a large number of Ans. (B)
tiny fragments. The total momentum of all the 22. To open a door easily, the handle should be
fragments. fixed.
(A) Is zero (A) Near the hinges
(B) Depends on the total mass of all the fragments (B) Away from mid-point opposite to hinges
(C) Depends on the speeds of various fragments (C) In the middle (D) None of these
(D) Is infinity Ans. (B)
Ans. (A)
23. A particle is moving in a uniform circular
16. The slope of a velocity-time graph represents motion with constant speed v along a circle of
(A) Acceleration (B) Displacement radius r. The acceleration of the particle is
(C) Distance (D) Speed v
Ans. (A) (A) Zero (B)
r
17. Railway tracks are banked on curves so that v v2
(A) Necessary centrifugal force may be obtained (C) (D)
r2 r
from the horizontal component of the weight Ans. (D)
of the train
24. An object covers distance which is directly
(B) No frictional force may be produced between proportional to the square of the time. Its
the tracks and the wheels of the train accelaration is
(C) Necessary centripetal force may be obtained (A) Increasing (B) Decreasing
from the horizontal component of the weight (C) Zero (D) Constant
of the train
Ans. (D)
(D) The train may not fall down inwards
25. An object with a constant speed
Ans. (C)
(A) Is not accelerated
18. When a running car stops suddenly, the
(B) Might be accelerated
passengers tends to lean forward because of :
(C) Is always accelerated
(A) Centrifugal force (B) Inetria of rest
(D) Also has a constant velocity
(C) Inertia of motion (D) Gravitational force
Ans. (A)
Ans. (C)
19. A metal ball and a rubber ball, both having the 26. The average kinetic energy of the molecules of
same mass, strike a wall normally with the same an ideal gas is directly proportional to
velocity. The rubber ball rebounds and the metal (A) Velocity of Molecules
ball does not rebound. It can be concluded that: (B) Mass of Molecules
(A) The rubber ball suffers greater change in
(C) Absolute temperature of the gas
momentum
(B) The metal ball suffers greater change in (D) Temperature of environment
momentum. Ans. (C)
(C) Both suffer the same change in momentum 27. Why does a cannon recoil after firing?
(D) The initial momentum of the rubber ball is (A) Conservation of energy
greater than that of the metal ball.
(B) Backward thrust of gases produced
Ans. (A)
20. The motion of the wheels of a bullock-cart while (C) Newton’s third law of motion
moving on the road is an example of (D) Newton’s first law of motion
(A) Oscillatory and rotatory motion Ans. (C)
(B) Oscillatory and translatory motion 28. Rate of change of momentum is
(C) Translatory and rotatory motion (A) Area (B) Pressure
(D) Translatory motion only (C) Force (D) Velocity
Ans. (C) Ans. (C)
21. The moment of inertia of a body does not 29. What is impulse equal to?
depend upon its (A) Change in momentum
(A) Axis of rotation (B) Angular velocity (B) Change in force
(C) Change in velocity (D) Change in acceleration (D) Acceleration
Ans. (A) Ans. (A)
30. Momentum of an object depends on which
factors?
I. Mass of the object II. Speed of the object
III. Volume of the object
(A) I only (B) I and II only
(C) I and III only (D) I, II and III
Ans. (B)
31. Jet engine works on the principle of
conservation of _____.
(A) Heat (B) Mass
(C) Linear momentum (D) Angular momentum
Ans. (C)
32. Which of the following is not a unit of speed?
(A) m/s (B) km/hr
(C) m2/hr (D) cm/s
Ans. (C)
33. The phenomena of raising the outer edge of
the curved roads above the inner edge to
provide necessary centripetal force to the
vehicles to take a safe turn is called _____.
(A) Banking of roads (B) Cornering of roads
(C) Elevation of roads (D) Tempering of roads
Ans. (A)
34. If the speed of an object moving along a straight
line keeps changing, its motion is said to be
_________.
(A) Uniform (B) Periodc
(C) Circular (D) Non- uniform
Ans. (D)
35. If the speed of an object moving along a straight
line is constant, its motion is said to be
_________.
(A) Uniform (B) Periodic
(C) Circular (D) Non- uniform
Ans. (A)
36. In the formula average velocity = (u + v) /2, u
is the ___________.
(A) Final velocity (B) Initial displacement
(C) Initial velocity (D) Final displacement
Ans. (C)
37. The distance-time graph for the motion of an
object moving with a constant speed is a
__________.
(A) Dot (B) Circle
(C) Straight Line (D) Curve
Ans. (C)
38. If an object moves in a circular path with
uniform ________, its motion is called uniform
circular motion.
(A) Speed
(B) Time
(C) Velocity
Chapter-06
Force and Motion

1. A person is hurt on Kicking stone due to – (C) Mass (D) Both (A) and (B)
(A) Inertia (B) Velocity Ans. (D) [SSC CHSL 2013]
(C) Reaction (D) Momentum 9. Cream gets separated out from milk when it is
Ans. (C) churned. This is due to–
2. A body with uniform motion– (A) Gravitational Force (B) Centripetal Force
(A) Can’t be accelerated (B) Can be accelerated (C) Centrifugal Force (D) Frictional Force
(C) Always accelerated Ans. (C)
(D) Remains in uniform velocity 10. The cause of seperation of cream from milk is–
(A) Friction (B) Centrifugal force
Ans. (B)
(C) Gravitational force (D) Viscous force
3. If a bullet of mass ‘m’ is fired in a wooden block
with acceleration ‘a’ what is the final velocity Ans. (B)
of system? 11. Newton’s 1st law of motion gives the concept of –
(A) Energy (B) Work
Ma ma
(A) (B) (C) Momentum (D) Inertia
m M (M + m ) Ans. (D)
Ma m  M  12. A person dropped a ball from a train moving
(C) (D)  M   a
M   with a uniform speed. An observer standing on
Ans. (B) [SSC CHSL 2015] platform observes it, what will be the path ob-
4. If Horizontal range of a projectile is four times served by the observer?
of its maximum height, the angle of projection is. (A) Rectilinear (B) Circular
(A) 30° (B) 45° (C) Parabolic (D) None of these
–1
1  –1 3  Ans. (C)
(C) sin   (D) sin   13. The motion of the wheel of a bull cart while
4  4 
Ans. (B) moving on the road is an Example of–
5. Which of the following force is a virtual force? (A) Oscillatory and rotatory motion
(A) Centripetal force (B) Oscillatory and translatory motion
(B) Centripetal Reaction force (C) Translatory and rotatory motion
(D) Translatory motion only
(C) Centrifugal force (D) Strong Nuclear force
Ans. (C)
Ans. (C)
14. A Tennis ball and a cricket ball with Heavy mass
6. Which of the following force is dissipative? throw with same velocity, then to stop the
(A) Gravitation (B) Frictional cricket ball we need out of the following–
(C) Electrostatic (D) Magnetic (A) More force (B) Less Force
Ans. (B) (C) Equal force (D) Infinite force
7. An object covers distance which is directly Ans. (A)
proportional to the square of time. Its 15. A cyclist should lean in a circular motion–
acceleration is– (A) Forward (B) Backward
(A) Increasing (B) Decreasing (C) Sidewise towards the center
(C) Zero (D) Constant (D) Sidewise away from the center
Ans. (D) Ans. (C)
8. When a body is immersed in a fluid, then force 16. Motion of a body around a circular path is an
acting on it is – Example of–
(A) Upward thrust (B) Weight (A) Uniform velocity and variable acceleration
(B) Uniform speed and constant velocity 25. A fountain pen works on the principle of
(C) Uniform speed and variable velocity (A) Flow of liquids from higher to lower potential
(D) Uniform speed and variable acceleration (B) Capillary action
Ans. (C) (C) Bernoulli’s principle (D) Viscosity of liquids
17. Angle of Friction and angle of Repose found to Ans. (B)
be as – 26. The hair of shaving brush clings together when
(A) Equal to each other removed from water due to
(B) Not equal to each other (A) Surface tension (B) Viscosity
(C) Proportional to each other (C) Elasticity (D) Friction
(D) None of these Ans. (A)
Ans. (A) 27. A falling drop of rain water acquires the spheri-
18. Rocket acts on Law of conservation of cal shape due to
(A) Angular momentum (B) Mass (A) Viscosity (B) Surface Tension
(C) Energy (D) Linear Momentum (C) Atmospheric pressure (D) Gravitational force
Ans. (D) Ans. (B)
19. A bullet hits and gets embedded in a solid block 28. The weakest of all fundamental forces is
resting on a horizontal frictionless table. Which (A) Gravitational force (B) Electrosatic force
quantity is conserved in this process? (C) Magnetic force (D) Nuclear force
(A) Momentum and kinetic Energy Ans. (A)
(B) Momentum alone (C) Kinetic Energy alone 29. The modulus of rigidity is the ratio of
(D) Neither momentum nor Kinetic Energy (A) longitudinal stress to longitudinal strain
Ans. (B) (B) Volume stress to volume strain
20. Why the needle of iron swims on water surface (C) Shearing stress to shearing strain
when it is kept gently?
(D) Tensile stress to tensile strain
(A) Surface tension (B) Density
Ans. (C)
(C) Reaction (D) Momentum
Ans. (A) 30. A spherical ball made of steel when dropped in
mercury container will
21. A boat will not submerge when it displaces wa-
ter equal to its own (A) Sink in mercury
(A) Volume (B) Weight (B) Will be on the surface of mercury
(C) Surface area (D) Density (C) Will be partly immersed
Ans. (A) (D) Will dissolve in mercury
22. An ice block with a piece of lead embeded in it Ans.(B)
floats in water. If ice melts the water level 31. Damp clothes are dried in spin dryers by the
action of
(A) Rises (B) Falls
(A) Centripetal forces (B) Centrifugal forces
(C) Remains same (C) Central forces (D) Non central forces
(D) Falls first and then rises Ans. (B)
Ans. (B) 32. Which of the following is a result of surface
23. What principle/law explains the working of the tension?
hydraulic brakes in automobiles? (A) Gravitational pull (B) Viscosity
(A) Bernoulli’s law (B) Posieulle’s principle (C) Capillary action (D) Radiation
(C) Pascal’s law (D) Archimedes’ principle Ans. (C)
Ans. (C) 33. The wall of a dam is broader at the base
24. An oil drop spreads over water because (A) Because streamlining is required
(A) Oil is lighter than water (B) To withstand pressure that increases with depth
(B) Oil is more viscous (C) To withstand pressure that increases in a
horizontal plane
(C) Oil does not mix with water
(D) To withstand pressure that is increased with
(D) Surface tension of oil is much smaller than atmospheric pressure
that of water
Ans. (B)
Ans. (D)
34. Which of the following liquid is most viscous? (D) May increase or decrease
(A) Oil (B) Milk Ans. (A)
(C) Water (D) Petrol 44. Materials for rain proof coats and tents owe
Ans. (A) their water proof poperties to
35. The surface tension of water on adding deter- (A) Surface tension (B) Viscosity
gent to it (C) Specific gravity (D) Elasticity
(A) Increases (B) Decreases Ans. (A)
(C) No change (D) Becomes zero 45. When two ice cubes are pressed together they
Ans. (B) join to form one cube. Which one of the follow-
36. Rise of oil in a wick is due to ing helps to hold them together?
(A) Density of the oil (B) Viscosity of the oil (A) Hydrogen bond formation
(C) Surface tension of the oil (B) Vander waals forces
(D) Pressure of the oil (C) Covalent attraction (D) Dipole interaction
Ans. (C) Ans. (A)
37. If an ordinary glass tube and a glass capillary 46. When a piece of stone is immersed in water it
tube are both dipped in a beaker of water rises in displaces water of equal
(A) Both (B) Only the glass tube (A) Density (B) Specific gravity
(C) Only the capillary tube (C) Mass (D) Volume
(D) Radiation Ans. (D)
Ans. (A) 47. The minimum number of forces to keep a par-
38. Two rods, one of copper and other of steel, ex- ticle in equllibrium is
perience the same upthrust when placed in (A) 1 (B) 2
water. Thus both have (C) 3 (D) 4
(A) Equal volume (B) Equal weight Ans. (B)
(C) Equal density (D) Equal mass
48. Purity of a metal can be determined with the
Ans. (A) help of
39. A single fixed pulley is used to draw water from
a well because (A) Pascal’s law (B) Boyle’s law
(A) Efficiency is 100% (B) Velocity ratio is low (C) Archimedes priciple
(C) Mechanical advantage is high (D) Conservation of mass principle
(D) Force is applied in a convenient direction Ans. (C)
Ans. (D) 49. In a particular system, the units of length, mass
40. Ball pen functions on the principle of and time are chosen to be 10 cm, 10 g and 0.1
(A) Viscosity (B) Boyle’s law s respectively. The unit of force in this system
(C) Gravitational force (D) Surface tension will be equivalent to
Ans. (D) (A) 0.1 N (B) 1 N
41. Water from soil enters into the root hairs ow-
(C) 10 N (D) 100 N
ing to:
Ans. (A)
(A) Atmospheric pressure
(B) Capillary pressure 50. The weight of a body at the centre of earth is:
(C) Root pressure (D) Osmatic pressure (A) Half the weight at the surface
Ans. (B) (B) Zero
42. Water drops cannot stick to the oily surface due to (C) Twice the weight at the surface
(A) Lack of adhesive force (D) Infinite
(B) Surface tension Ans. (B)
(C) Cannot mix each other
51. On a clean glass plate a drop of water spreads
(D) Water is lighter than oil
to form a thin layer whereas a drop of mercury
Ans. (B)
remains almost spherical because
43. If cream is removed from milk, its density
(A) Mercury is a metal
(A) Increases (B) Decreases
(B) Density of mercury is greater than that of water
(C) Remains the same
(C) Cohesion of mercury is greater than its
adhesion with glass (A) 180 degree minus theta
(D) Cohesion of water is greater than its (B) 60 degree minus theta
adhesion with glass (C) 120 degree minus theta
Ans. (C) (D) 90 degree minus theta
52. Name the process by which bubbles from liquid Ans. (D)
are formed? 61. If a body slides over a surface, the force resist-
(A) Effervescence (B) Surface Tension ing the motion between them is called.
(C) Surface Energy (D) Degasification (A) Centripetal force (B) Friction
Ans. (A) (C) Centrifugal force (D) Inertia
53. The washing machine works on the principle of Ans. (B)
62. An object is in static equilibrium when it is
(A) Dialysis (B) Diffusion
_______.
(C) Reverse osomosis (D) Centrifugation (A) At rest
Ans. (D) (B) Moving in a circular path
54. What type of force acts on a car moving around (C) Moving with uniform velocity
a curve? (D) Accelerating at high speed
(A) Centrifugal force (B) Cohessive force Ans. (A)
(C) Centripetal force (D) Gravitational force 63. Newton’s first law is also known as _______.
Ans. (C) (A) Law of friction (B) Law of moments
55. Acceleration is (C) Law of Inertia (D) Law of motion
(A) Inversely proportional to force Ans. (C)
(B) Inversely proportional to mass 64. The path of a projectile is called its ______.
(C) Directly proportional to mass (A) Altitude (B) Range
(D) Directly proportional to force (C) Trajectory (D) Flight
Ans. (D) Ans. (C)
56. If a ball is thrown up, which of the following 65. In a projectile motion, a large angle with the
does not change? horizontal produces ______.
(A) Acceleration (B) Speed (A) Flat trajectory (B) Curve trajectory
(C) Potential energy (D) Distance (C) Straight trajectory (D) High trajectory
Ans. (A) Ans. (D)
57. If a body is moving on a circular path, what is 66. Motion of a train is an example of ______.
its average velocity if it completes one cycle
in one second? (A) Rotatory motion (B) Spin motion
(A) Average velocity depends upon time taken to (C) Projectile motion (D) Translatory motion
complete one cycle Ans. (D)
(B) One 67. ____ is a pair of forces, equal in magnitude, op-
(C) Average velocity is same as average speed posite directed and displaced by perpendicular
(D) Zero distance or moment.
Ans. (D) (A) Bond (B) Couple
58. If a force acts upon two objects at rest, and hav- (C) Pair (D) Duo
ing different masses for the same amount of Ans. (B)
time, then which one of the following will be
the same for both the objects? 68. A large force on a rotating body results in
(A) Acceleration (B) Kinetic Energy larger__.
(C) Velocity (D) Momentum (A) Mass (B) Torque
Ans. (D) (C) Axis of rotation (D) Centre of mass
59. If an object is thrown upwards, what will be its Ans. (B)
velocity, when it reaches its maximum height? 69. If an object moves in a purely rotatory motion,
(A) 0 m/s (B) 4.9 m/s then each constituent particle of the body
(C) 14.7 m/s (D) 20 m/s moves in a circle, the centre of which is located
on a line is called _______.
Ans. (A)
(A) The axis of rotation (B) The line of rotation
60. In a projectile motion, the horizontal range achieved (C) The spinning rod (D) The fixed line
is same when the body is projected at q and – Ans. (A)
70. The mass of an object_____ 78. Which of the following quantity is a measure
(A) Changes from place to place of inertia?
(B) Remains same everywhere (A) Velocity (B) Acceleration
(C) Is equal to its weight (C) Mass (D) Weight
(D) Is greater at mountains
Ans. (C)
Ans. (B)
71. What is the SI unit of Torque? 79. Friction can be reduced by which of the
(A) Newton/meter (B) Newton meter following?
(C) Newton second (D) Newton/meter squared I. Polishing surfaces II. Use of lubricants
Ans. (B) III. Decreasing area of contact
72. If a body moves with a uniform speed in a (A) Only I (B) Only II
circular motion, then______. (C) Only I and II (D) All options are correct
(A) Its acceleration is increasing Ans. (D)
(B) Its acceleration is zero 80. Action and reaction _____.
(C) Its velocity is changing (A) Always act on same body
(D) Its velocity is uniform (B) Are equal in magnitude
Ans. (C) (C) Are in same direction
73. In projectile motion, the total flight time is (D) Always act independently
_______. Ans. (B)
(A) Equal to the time required to reach the 81. Law of Inertia is also known as _____.
maximum height (A) Newton's first law of motion
(B) Thrice the time required to reach the (B) Newton's second law of motion
maximum height
(C) Newton's third law of motion
(C) Four times the time required to reach the (D) None of these
maximum height
Ans. (A)
(D) Twice the time requir ed to reach the
82. Which scientist gave 'laws of motion'?
maximum height
(A) Galileo (B) Newton
Ans. (D)
(C) Einstein (D) Boyle
74. What is the direction of torque? Ans. (B)
(A) Perpendicular to the direction of applied force 83. The force acting on an object perpendicular to
(B) Same as the direction of applied force the surface is called_____.
(C) Opposite to the direction of applied force (A) Pressure (B) Work
(D) Parallel to the radius (C) Thrust (D) Friction
Ans. (A) Ans. (C)
75. A cannon ball is fired. The motion of this ball 84. Which contact force is responsible for changing
is an example of ______. the state of motion of an object?
(A) Straight line motion (B) Projectile motion (A) Magnetic force (B) Frictional force
(C) Muscular force (D) Electrostatic force
(C) Hyperbolic motion (D) Horizontal motion
Ans. (B)
Ans. (B)
85. What is the SI unit of Force?
76. Upward force on a floating body is called
_______. (A) Pascal (B) Boyle
(A) Jerk (B) Buoyancy (C) Newton (D) Watt
Ans. (C)
(C) Archimedal force (D) Anti-gravity
86. What is the other name of Galileo's law of
Ans.(B)
falling bodies?
77. When a bus starts suddenly, then passengers (A) Law of motion (B) Newton's first law
in the bus tend to fall backwards. This event is
(C) Newton's second law (D) Newton's third law
an example of _____.
Ans. (A)
(A) Inertia of rest (B) Inertia of motion
87. Soap bubble attains spherical shape due to
(C) Inertia of direction (D) None of these ______.
Ans. (A) (A) Inertia (B) Pressure
(C) Surface tension (D) Viscosity surfaces
Ans. (C) (B) The two surfaces are pressed harder
88. In science a push or pull of an object is called (C) Air gap is created between the two surfaces
________.
(D) Irregularities on both the surfaces are
(A) Pick (B) Lift
removed
(C) Force (D) Shut
Ans. (C) Ans. (B)
89. The sliding friction is _______________ than the 97. For an object, the state of rest is considered to
static friction. be the state of ______ speed.
(A) Double (B) Same (A) Increasing (B) Decreasing
(C) Greater (D) Smaller (C) Inverse (D) Zero
Ans. (D) Ans. (D)
90. In a qualitative way, the tendency of
98. A ball rolling along the ground gradually slows
undisturbed objects to stay at rest or to keep
down and finally comes to rest is due to
moving with the same velocity is called
________.
_________.
(A) Friction (B) Magnetic force
(A) Force (B) Acceleration
(C) Friction (D) Inertia (C) Electrostatic force (D) Muscular force
Ans. (D) Ans. (A)
91. If the mass of an object is 60 kgs, what will be 99. The motion of a freely falling body is an example
its weight on the moon? (N=Newton) of ________________________ motion.
(A) 60N (B) 600N (A) Uniformly accelerated
(C) 100N (D) 10N (B) Non-uniformly accelerated
Ans. (C) (C) Constant velocity (D) Constant speed
92. Contact force is another name for _________. Ans. (A)
(A) Friction (B) Magnetic force 100. If the force applied on the object is in the
(C) Electrostatic force (D) Muscular force direction of its motion, the speed of the object
__________.
Ans. (A)
(A) Increases (B) Stops
93. If the force applied on the object is in the
direction opposite to the direction of motion, (C) Decreases (D) No effect
the speed of the object __________. Ans. (A)
(A) Increases (B) Stops 101. The frictional force exerted by fluids is also
(C) Decreases (D) No effect called ________.
Ans. (C) (A) Drag (B) Buoyancy
94. The SI unit of acceleration is _______________. (C) Upthrust (D) Convection
(A) Meters per seconds squared Ans. (A)
(B) Meters per second 102. During uniform motion of an object along a
(C) Seconds per meter straight line, the ________ remains constant
(D) Seconds per meter squared with time.
Ans. (A) (A) Time (B) Velocity
95. According to the Second Law of Motion, for a (C) Acceleration (D) Distance
given force, acceleration is inversely
proportional to the ____ of an object. Ans. (B)
(A) Density (B) Volume 103. Friction is caused by the ______________ on the
(C) Force (D) Mass two surfaces in contact.
Ans. (D) (A) Irregularities (B) Smoothness
96. The force of friction between two surfaces will (C) Densities (D) Gaps
increase if: Ans. (A)
(A) A layer of lubricant is kept between the two
Chapter-07
Gravitation
1. Mass of a body on measuring in lift at rest with 7. What is the height of a Geo-Stationary satellite
a physical balance is found to be 'm'. If the from the surface of earth?
Lift is accelerated upward with acceleration (A) 36,000 Km (B) 42,000 Km
'a'. Now what will be the mass of body?
(C) 30,000 Km (D) None of these
(A) L (B) m (g + a)
Ans. (A)
(C) M (D) Zero
8. Presence of atmospheric air on the earth is due
Ans. (B) to–
2. The apparent weight of man in a lift is less than (A) Gravity (B) By wind
the real weight then–
(C) Clouds (D) Rotation of Earth
(A) When the lift is going down with acceleration.
(B) The lift is going up with uniform speed. Ans. (A)
(C) The lift is going down with uniform speed. 9. What is the minimum escape velocity of rocket
to be launched into space?
(D) The lift is going up with acceleration.
(A) 5 km/sec. (B) 6 km/sec.
Ans. (A)
(C) 11 km/sec. (D) 15 km/sec.
3. Dimension of Universal Gravitational constant is –
Ans. (C)
(A) M–1L3T–2 (B) M–1L3T2
10. The shape of our milky way galaxy is
(C) ML2T–2 (D) M–2
(A) Circular (B) Elliptical
Ans. (A)
(C) Spiral (D) None of the above
4. A man standing on the top of tower has two
spheres A and B. He drops the sphere A Ans. (C)
downward and throw sphere B horizontally at 11. Who defined the law of gravitation?
the same time. Which of the following is correct? (A) Newton (B) Archimedes
(A) Both spher e will reach the Gr ound (C) Galileo (D) Faraday
simultaneoulsy
Ans. (A)
(B) A will reach the ground first.
(C) B will reach the ground first. 12. The sensation of weightlessness in a spacecrft
(D) Question is incomplete because the masses in an orbit is due to the
of the spheres are not given. (A) Absence of gravity outside
Ans. (A) (B) Acceleration in the orbit which is equal to
5. A man standing on a edge of a cliff throws a the acceleration due to gravity outside.
stone vertically upward with a certain speed. (C) Presence of gravity outside but not inside the
He then thrown another stone downward with spacecraft
a same speed. Find the ratio of speed of the (D) Fact that spacecraft in the orbit has no
two stones when they hit the ground? energy
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 Ans. (A)
(C) 1 : 4 13. The spoon dropped by an astronaut in a satellite
will
(D) Cannot be found from the given information
(A) Fall to the floor (B) Remain stationary
Ans. (A)
(C) Continue to follow the motion of the satellite
6. Time period of Revolution for a Geo-stationary
(D) Move tangentially away
satellite is—
Ans. (C)
(A) 365 days (B) 30 days
14. Intensity of gravitational field of earth is
(C) 24 hours (D) Continuously changes maximum at
Ans. (C) (A) Poles (B) Equator
(C) Centre of earth (D) Surface
Ans. (A) (C) m (D) zero
15. The time period of a pendulum when taken to Ans. (C)
the Moon would:
23. The weight of a body acts through the centre of
(A) Remain the same (B) Decrease
(A) Gravity (B) Mass
(C) Become zero (D) Increase
(C) Both (1) and (2) (D) Buoyancy
Ans. (D)
Ans. (A)
16. The atmospheric air is held to the Earth by: 24. Two bodies kept at a certains distance feel a
(A) Gravity (B) Winds gravitational force F to each other. If the
distance between them is made double the
(C) Clouds (D) Rotation of the Earth former distance, the force will be
Ans. (A) 1
17. It is easier to carry two buckets of water in one (A) 2 F (B) F
2
hand each, than to carry only one in one hand 1
because (C) 4 F (D) F
4
(A) Weights of buckets are balanced Ans. (D)
(B) Centre of gravity falls within the body 25. The apparent weight of a man in a lift is less
(C) Centre of gravity and centre of equilibrium than the real weight when:
fall within the feet (A) The lift is going up with an acceleration
(D) Resultant weight of buckets is zero (B) The lift is going down with uniform speed
Ans. (B) (C) The lift is going up with uniform speed
18. The minimum number of geostationary satellites (D) The lift is going down with an acceleration
needed for uninterrupted global coverage is: Ans. (D)
(A) 3 (B) 2 26. Why the Earth is having its own atmosphere?
(C) 4 35(D) 1 (A) Winds (B) Clouds
Ans. (A) (C) Gravity (D) Rotation of the Earth
19. As we go from Equator to North pole the value Ans. (C)
of 'g', the acceleration due to gravity. 27. The point where total mass of a body is supposed
to be concentrated is known as.
(A) Remains the same (B) Decreases (A) Dead centre (B) Centre of mass
(C) Increases (D) None of the above (C) Centre of gravity (D) Centre of motion
Ans. (C) Ans. (B)
20. In the Earth, the weight of a body is maximum 28. If there were no gravity, which of the following
at the will not be there for a fluid?
(A) North Pole (B) South Pole (A) Viscosity (B) Surface Tension
(C) Equator (D) Surface (C) Pressure (D) Upward Thrust
Ans. (A) Ans. (D)
29. The weight of an object is maximum.
21. A man inside an artificial satellite feels
weightlessness because the force of attraction (A) On the equator
due to earth is (B) On the surface of the earth
(A) Zero at that place (C) At the centre of the earth
(B) Is balanced by the force of attraction due to moon (D) On the poles of the earth
(C) Equal to the centripetal force Ans. (D)
(D) Non-effective due to particular design of the 30. The tides in the sea are primarily due to
satellite (A) The atmospheric effect of the Earth
Ans. (A) (B) The gravitational effect of Venus on the Earth
22. The mass of a body measured by a physical (C) The gravitational effect of the Sun on the Earth
balance in a lift at rest is found to be m. If the (D) The gravitational effect of the Moon on the Earth.
lift is going up with an acceleration a, its mass Ans. (D)
will be measured as 31. Why is weightlessness experienced while orbiting
 a  a the earth in space ships ?
(A) m 1 – g  (B) m 1  g  (A) Inertia (B) Acceleration
   
(C) Zero gravity (D) Orbital motion "acceleration due to gravity" will _____ .
Ans. (C) (A) Decrease (B) Increase
32. What will happen if an object is dropped from (C) Remain the same (D) Become zero
a height and there is no air resistance? Ans. (B)
(A) It will fall with a constant speed and
39. With reference to gravity, what is G called?
acceleration
(B) Its acceleration will increase (A) Gravitational constant
(C) Both speed and acceleration will increase (B) Gravitational attraction
(D) Its speed will increase (C) Gravitational force
Ans. (D) (D) Acceleration due to gravity
33. The value of acceleration due to gravity (g) at Ans. (A)
a distance of 2R from the surface of earth, 40. What is the value of acceleration due to
where R is the radius of earth is ______. gravity at the centre of earth?
(A) g/3 (B) g/4 (A) 1 (B) 0
(C) g/9 (D) g/2 (C) –1 (D) Infinity
Ans. (B) Ans. (B)
34. If an object, on a free fall a certain height, 41. Who first determined the value of G (gravita-
reaches the ground in 1 second, what is its tional constant)?
velocity on the impact with the ground? (A) Lord Cavendish (B) R.R Heyl
(A) 4.9 m/s (B) 9.8 m/s (C) Boyle (D) Poynting
(C) 14.7 m/s (D) 19.6 m/s Ans. (A)
Ans. (B) 42. Law of gravitation applies to __________.
35. The apparent weight of a person in a lift which (A) Any pair of bodies
is moving down with uniform acceleration is (B) The earth and the moon
_______. (C) The planets around the Sun
(A) Greater than the weight when the person is (D) The earth and the objects of earth
stationary Ans. (A)
(B) Tw ice t he w eight w hen t he per son is 43. What is the approximate height of any geostationary
stationary
satellite from earth's surface (in km)?
(C) Less than the weight when the person is
(A) 36000 (B) 45000
stationary
(C) 48000 (D) 30000
(D) Same as the weight when the person is
stationary Ans. (A)
44. Which of the following is CORRECT about
Ans. (C)
Moon's gravitation?
36. As per Newton's Law of Gravitation, the force
(A) Moon's gravitation = 1/6th of Earth's
between two bodies is ________.
gravitation
(A) Directly proportional to the product of their masses
(B) Moon's gravitation = 1/6th of Mars gravitation
(B) Directly proportional to the distance between
(C) Moon's gravitation = 1/8th of Earth's
them gravitation
(C) Directly proportional to the product of their radius (D) Moon's gravitation = 1/8th of Mars gravitation
(D) Directly proportional to the product of forces Ans. (A)
Ans. (A) 45. At which of the following place, weight of an
37. Acceleration due to gravity on a planet object is maximum?
decreases with ______. (A) At poles (B) At equator
(A) Decrease in radius of the planet (C) At tropic of Capricorn (D) At tropic of Cancer
(B) Increase in mass of the planet Ans. (A)
(C) Decrease in mass of the body 46. If the orbit of a planet is an ellipse then what
(D) Increase in altitude from surface of the planet is the point at which the Sun is located called?
Ans. (D) (A) Centre (B) Circumcentre
38. If the radius of the earth decreases and its mass (C) Incentre (D) Focus
remains the same, then the value of Ans. (D)
Chapter-08
Work Energy & Power

1. Which of the following pair of physical quantity (A) Work (B) Power
has same dimensions? (C) Intensity (D) Force
(A) Work and Energy (B) Force and Power Ans. (A)
(C) Work and Power (D) Power and Motion
10. Rate of work done is _______.
Ans. (A)
(A) Energy (B) Power
2. Energy stored in a spring in watch–
(C) Momentum (D) Impulse
(A) Kinetic Energy (B) Potential Energy
(C) Heat Energy (D) Chemical Energy Ans. (B)
11. Which of the following is false with reference
Ans. (B)
to a photo-voltaic cell?
3. A stone is dropped from the roof of a House (A) It is another name as solar cell
towards ground. When will be the K.E. of stone (B) It can be used as infra-red detectors
maximum? (C) It can store light energy in the form of
(A) Just after it drops electrical energy
(B) Just before reaching the ground (D) It converts electric energy into light energy
(C) Just after touching the ground Ans. (D)
(D) After covering the half distance 12. One Kilowatt hour is equal to–
Ans. (B) (A) 3.6 Mega Joule (B) 3.8 Mega Joule
4. Which of the following is the cleanest source (C) 3.2 Mega Joule (D) 4.0 Mega Joule
of energy? Ans. (A)
(A) Bio-fuel (B) Fossil fuel 13. In which of the following cases, Kinetic energy
(C) Nuclear power (D) Wind energy is being used in performing work?
Ans. (D) (A) Paddling the bicycle to cover a distance
5. Which one of the following is not a non- (B) Driving a car to cover a distance
conventional source of energy? (C) Wind mill grinding wheat grain
(A) Solar Energy (B) Natural Gas (D) Rowing a boat in the lake
(C) Wind Energy (D) Tidal Power
Ans. (B) Ans. (C)
6. Kinetic energy depends on 14. Which of the following pairs of physical
(A) The velocity or speed of the moving body quantities have the same dimensions?
(B) The mass of the moving body (A) Force and Power (B) Work and Power
(C) The pressure of the moving body (C) Work and Energy (D) Momentum and Power
(D) Both mass and velocity of the moving body Ans. (C)
Ans. (D) 15. The energy stored in a watch spring is
7. Which of the following sources has the largest (A) Kinetic energy (B) Potential energy
share in power generation in India? (C) Heat energy (D) Chemical energy
(A) Atomic power (B) Thermal power Ans. (B)
(C) Hydro power (D) Wind power 16. Energy that is produced commercially from coal
is called
Ans. (B)
(A) Light energy (B) Kinetic energy
8. Which of the following is not a vector quantity ? (C) Thermal energy (D) Potential energy
(A) Work (B) Force Ans. (C)
(C) Displacement (D) Velocity 17. In a photocell light energy is converted into
Ans. (A) (A) Potential energy (B) Chemical energy
9. ___________ is the mechanical transfer of energy (C) Heat energy (D) Electrical energy
to a system or from a system by an external Ans. (D)
force on it. 18. A kilowatt-hour is unit of
(A) Energy (B) Power 28. When a body falls from an aeroplane, there is
(C) Electric charge (D) Electric current increase in its
Ans. (B) (A) Kinetic energy (B) Mass
19. Solar energy is converted into chemical energy (C) Acceleration (D) Potential energy
during Ans. (A)
(A) Transpiration (B) Photosynthesis
29. In a water lifting electric pump, we convert
(C) Diffusion (D) Osmosis
(A) Electrical energy into Potential energy
Ans. (B)
(B) Kinetic energy into Electrical energy
20. In a rechargeable cell what kind of energy is
stored within the cell? (C) Kinetic energy into Potential energy
(A) Electrical energy (B) Potential energy (D) Electrical energy into Kinetic energy
(C) Chemical energy (D) Kinetic energy Ans. (D)
Ans. (C) 30. The device used to convert solar energy into
21. The energy emitted by the Sun is due to electricity is
(A) Chemical reaction (B) Nuclear fission (A) Photovoltaic cell (B) Daniell cell
(C) Nuclear fusion (D) All of the above (C) Electrochemical cell (D) Galvanic cell
Ans. (C) Ans. (A)
22. How much mechanical work must be done to 31. A moving neutron collides with a stationary a -
completely melt 1 gram of ice at 0°C? particle. The fraction of the kinetic energy lost
(A) 4.2 J (B) 80 J by the neutron is
(C) 336 J (D) 2268 J 1 1
Ans. (C) (A) (B)
4 16
23. A bullet is fired from a rifle which recoils after
firing. The ratio of kinetic energy of the rifle 9 16
(C) (D)
to that of the bullet is 25 25
(A) Zero (B) One Ans. (D)
(C) Less than one (D) More than one 32. Which of the following have the same unit?
Ans. (C) (A) Work and Power
24. Direct conversion of solar energy with the use of (B) Torque and Moment of Inertia
a photovoltaic cell results in the production of
(C) Work and Torque
(A) Optical energy (B) Electrical energy
(C) Thermal energy (D) Mechanical energy (D) Torque and Angular momentum
Ans. (B) Ans. (C)
25. A photo-electric cell converts 33. Which of the follwing is the second largest
(A) Mechanical energy to Electric energy source of global energy?
(B) Heat energy to Mechanical energy (A) Fossil fuel (B) Nuclear Energy
(C) Light energy to Chemical energy (C) Renewable Energy (D) None of these
(D) Light energy to Electrical energy Ans. (C)
Ans. (D) 34. The inexhaustible source of energy of stars is
due to _____.
26. A stone is dropped from the roof of a house (A) Conversion of hydrogen to helium
towards the ground. The Kinetic Energy of the (B) Conversion of helium to hydrogen
stone will be maximum: (C) Decay of radioactive elements
(A) Just after it is dropped (D) Excess of oxygen
(B) When it is just on the half-way Ans. (A)
(C) Just before it touches the ground 35. Which of the following reaction is the main
(D) When it touches the ground cause of energy radiated from Sun?
Ans. (C) (A) Nuclear fission (B) Nuclear fusion
27. A dynamo is used to convert (C) Chemical reaction (D) Diffusion reaction
(A) Mechanical energy into Electrical energy Ans. (B)
(B) Electrical energy into Mechanical energy 36. Energy in the foods can be measured in which
(C) Electrical energy into Magnetic energy units?
(D) Magnetic energy into Mechanical energy (A) Kelvin (B) Joule
Ans. (A)
(C) Calorie (D) Celsius 40. When a ball is thrown vertically upwards,
Ans. (C) which of the following quantities remains
37. A flying jet possesses ______. constant during its motion?
(A) Potential energy (B) Kinetic energy (A) Energy (B) Displacement
(C) Wind energy (C) Velocity (D) Acceleration
(D) Both kinetic and potential energy
Ans. (A)
Ans. (D)
41. What is the SI unit of heat energy?
38. When the speed of a moving object is halved,
(A) Joule (B) Newton
its ______.
(C) Calorie (D) Kelvin
(A) Kinetic energy becomes 1/4 of the original
Ans. (A)
(B) Kinetic energy becomes 4 times the original
42. What is the unit of calorific value?
(C) No change in the kinetic energy
(A) kN/kg (B) kJ/kg
(D) Acceleration is doubled
(C) kW/sec (D) kCal/sec
Ans. (A)
Ans. (B)
39. By the use of photovoltaic cell while converting 43. Energy in the form of heat is wasted when a
solar energy which of the following is produced? machine is operated. This heat is generated due
to ___________.
(A) Light energy (B) Electric energy
(A) Burning (B) Friction
(C) Chemical energy (D) Heat energy
(C) Combustion (D) Lubrication
Ans. (B)
Ans. (B)
Chapter-09
Electro Magnetism
1. The purpose of choke in a fluorescent lamp is – Ans. (C)
(A) To decrease the voltage momentarily 10. Certain Substances looses their electrical
(B) To increase the flow of current resistance completely at super low temperature
(C) To decrease the resistance such substances are called.–
(D) To decrease the flow of current (A) Super conductor (B) Semi conductor
Ans. (D) (C) Dielectric (D) Perfect conductor
2. The cause of magnetism in materials is– Ans. (A)
(A) Electrons at rest (B) Protons at rest 11. The substance having infinite electric
(C) All stationary neutrons resistance are called –
(D) Circular motion of electrons. (A) Conductor (B) Insulator
Ans. (D) (C) Resistor (D) Electrolyte
3. Uniform magnetic field is represented by– Ans. (B)
(A) Closed curves (B) Parallel lines 12. What is the conductivity of super conductor?
(C) Convergent lines (D) Divergent lines (A) Zero (B) Infinite
Ans. (B) (C) Less (D) More
4. What is the unit of electrical conductivity? Ans. (B)
(A) Ohm (B) Ohm-cu 13. What is the resistance of an ideal voltmeter?
(C) Mho (D) Ohm/cu (A) Infinite (B) Zero
Ans. (C) (C) High (D) Low
5. Who discovered the link between electricity and Ans. (A)
magnetism? 14. Magnetic keeper are the pieces of –
(A) Maxwell (B) Diesel (A) Nickel (B) Cobalt
(C) Michael Faraday (D) Volta (C) Iron (D) Soft Iron
Ans. (C) Ans. (D)
6. Tesla is the unit of Magnetic field – 15. Device used to convert A.C. into D.C. known as–
(A) Induction (B) Moment (A) Dynamo (B) Inductive coil
(C) Area (D) Flow (C) Generator (D) Rectifier
Ans. (A) Ans. (D)
7. Resistance of a conductor increases on – 16. The Solids which conducts the electricity at
high temperature but not at low temperature
(A) Increasing Length
are called–
(B) Decreasing area of cross – section (A) Super conductor (B) Semiconductor
(C) Increasing temperature (D) All of these (C) Metallic conductor (D) Insulator
Ans. (D) Ans. (B)
8. Which of the following rated electric bulb? 17. Which of the following is a conductor of
(A) Power and current electricity?
(A) Rubber (B) Pure water
(B) Power and voltage
(C) Salt water (D) Benzene
(C) Current and voltage
Ans. (C)
(D) Energy and current
18. The metal used in wires at domestic Level –
Ans. (B)
(A) Nickel (B) Aluminium
9. Chemical Energy is converted into Electric
Energy– (C) Iron (D) Copper
Ans. (D)
(A) Dynamo (B) Electric Fan
19. Fuse wire used as a safety device in domestic
(C) Battery (D) Atom Bomb
electrical appliances is made up of metal having–
(A) Low resistance (B) Low melting point (C) Cohesion (D) Addition
(C) Low conductivity (D) Low specific gravity Ans. (B)
Ans. (B) 30. In the resistance color code, the fourth band
20. For which of the following ohm’s law is signifies–
correctly applicable? (A) Tolerance level (B) Power of ten
(A) Insulator (B) Semi conductor (C) Total value to resistance
(C) Conductor (D) Super conductor (D) The material of the resistor
Ans. (C) Ans. (A)
21. When number of turns in a coil are made thrice 31. A piece of wire having Resistance ‘R’ is cut
without any change in the length of coil, then into ‘n’ equal parts and then connected into
what will be its self inductance?
parallel combination what will be the effective
(A) Three times (B) Nine times Resistance of combination?
(C) Six times (D) One-third
R
Ans. (B) (A) nR (B)
n
22. If a wire of Resistance ‘R’ is melted and recast
n R
to half of its Length, then the new resistance (C) (D)
R n²
of the wire will be–
Ans. (D)
(A) R/4 (B) R/2
32. Water should not be used to extinguish fire
(C) R (D) 2R
caused by electricity, because –
Ans. (A)
(A) It may cause electrocution
23. During electro refining, Pure Metal is collected at–
(B) It may cause dissociation of water
(A) Anode (B) Cathode
(C) It may cause electric dissociation
(C) Container (D) Electrolyte
(D) Fault may occour in wires
Ans. (B) Ans. (A)
24. Which of the following is an electrolytic 33. Metal used for the manufacturing of Lightning
conductor– conductor is –
(A) Iron (B) Gas carbon (A) Iron (B) Aluminium
(C) Copper Sulphate (D) Mercury (C) Copper (D) Zinc
Ans. (C) Ans. (C)
25. Which of the following is best conductor of 34. When two semiconductors of P and N type are
electricity? brought in contact, they form p-n Junction
(A) Copper (B) Iron which acts like a/an–
(C) Aluminium (D) Silver (A) Conductor (B) Rectifier
Ans. (D) (C) Amplifier (D) Oscillator
26. During the conduction of current, conductor Ans. (B)
becomes– 35. Which of the following statements is incorrect
(A) Positively charged (B) Negatively charged regarding the resistance of a wire?
(A) It depends upon the material of wire
(C) Electrically neutral
(B) It is proportional to the length of wire
(D) Alternatively positively and negatively charged
(C) It is proportional to the area of cross-section
Ans. (C) of wire
27. Current carrying conductor is related to – (D) On increasing temperature resistance of metal
(A) Magnetic Field (B) Electric Field wire increases
(C) Electro Magnetic Field(D) Electrostatic Field Ans. (C)
Ans. (A) 36. We can find with the help of Galvanometer –
28. A Conducting wire is – (A) Resistance (B) Energy
(A) Positively Charged (B) Negatively Charged (C) Current (D) Temperature
(C) Neutral Ans. (C) [SSC MTS Exam, – 2008]
(D) Charged depending upon the power of current Exp: Galvanometer is a device which is used to detect and
measure the electric current.
Ans. (C)
37. Multimeter is used to measure the –
29. The process of connecting of wires is called –
(A) Current (B) Voltage
(A) Catenation (B) Combination
(C) Resistance (D) All of these Ans. (D)
Ans. (D) 49. For the filament of electric bulb tungsten is
38. In A.C. circuits A.C. meter measures – used because–
(A) Mean value (B) Rms value (A) It is a conductor (B) It is cheaper
(C) Peak value (D) Root mean value (C) It is malleable
Ans. (B) (D) Its melting point is very high
39. Which of the following instrument is used to Ans. (D)
measure the electric current? 50. What is filled inside an electric bulb?
(A) Ammeter (B) Voltmeter (A) Nitrogen (B) Carbon dioxide
(C) Wattmeter (D) Anemometer (C) Argon (D) Oxygen
Ans. (A) Ans. (C)
40. S.I. Unit of electric charge is – 51. A fuse wire can be indentify due to the
(A) Ampere (B) Coulomb properties–
(C) ESU (D) Kelvin (A) High Resistivity and minimum melting point
Ans. (B) (B) High Resistivity and high melting Point
41. Who discovered the battery? (C) Minimum Resistivity and minimum melting point
(A) Faraday (B) Volta (D) Minimum Resistivity and minimum melting point
(C) Maxwell (D) Roentgen
Ans. (A)
Ans. (B)
52. Intensity of magnetic field is–
42. What is the unit of electric power?
(A) Meter/volt (B) Meter/ampere
(A) Watt (B) Volt
(C) Ampere/meter (D) Volt/ampere
(C) KWH (D) Ampere
Ans. (C)
Ans. (A)
53. An electrochemical cell which is used as a
43. Alternating current is converted into direct source of direct current at constant voltage
current by using – under standard condition is called as–
(A) Transformer (B) Dynamo (A) UPS (uninterrupted power supply)
(C) Rectifier (D) Inverter (B) Battery
Ans. (C) (C) Power transmitter (D) Generator
44. Fleming Right Hand Rule is used to find the Ans. (B)
direction of–
54. The device which is used to store the electric
(A) Alternating current (B) Direct current charge is called–
(C) Induced current (D) Original current (A) Inductor (B) Capacitor
Ans. (C) (C) Generator (D) Transistor
45. Instrument used to change the speed of electric Ans. (B)
fan – 55. What is the name of the device which is used to
(A) Amplifier (B) Regulator record the electrical activity during Heart beat?
(C) Switch (D) Rectifier (A) Electrocardiogram (B) Electrocardiograph
Ans. (B) (C) Stethoscope (D) Sphygnomanometer
46. Best Liquid for the transformer core is– Ans. (B)
(A) Stainless steel (B) Cast steel 56. Which of the following element is used in a
(C) Hard steel (D) Soft iron circuit to block the DC?
Ans. (D) (A) Diode (B) Resistor
47. Transformer is used for – (C) Inductance (D) Capacitance
(A) To increase the A.C. voltage Ans. (D)
(B) To increase DC. Voltage 57. If the length of a resistance wire increases, then
(C) To convert Electric Energy into heat energy its resistance –
(D) To convert AC into DC. (A) Increases (B) Decreases
Ans. (A) (C) Remains unchanged
48. The filament of electric bulb is made up of– (D) All of these
(A) Copper (B) Nichrome
Ans. (A)
(C) Lead (D) Tungsten
58. If a spoon is to be electroplated with nickel 67. The device which converts AC to DC is
the spoon is. (A) Oscillator (B) Amplifier
(A) Dipped in Nickel sulphate solution (C) Rectifier (D) None of these
(B) Made anode and pure nickel rod, the cathode Ans (C)
(C) Made cathode and pure nickel rod, the anode. 68. When the main switch of the house is put off it
(D) Dry the spoon after plating Nickel sulphate disconnects the
Ans. (C) (A) Live wire only
59. If a coil is rotated in a magnetic field, then (B) Live wire and the earth wire
current is induced in the coil. This (C) Live wire and the neutral wire
phenomenon is used in– (D) Earth wire and the neutral wire
(A) For making Electro Magnet Ans (B)
(B) For Making Electric Motor 69. Magnetism in materials is due to
(C) For Making electric Generator (A) Electrons at rest
(D) For making electric watt meter (B) Circular motion of electrons
Ans. (C) (C) Protons at rest
60. When a bar magnet is cut into two equal halves (D) All neutrons at rest
the pole strength of each piece– Ans (B)
(A) Becomes double (B) Becomes half 70. The fuse in our domestic electric circuit melts
(C) Becomes zero (D) Remains the same when there is a high rise in
Ans. (D) (A) Inductance (B) Current
61. If a Magnet has third pole, then the third pole (C) Resistance (D) Capacitance
is called– Ans (B)
(A) Defective pole (B) Consequent pole 71. The device used to change the speed of an
(C) Extra pole (D) Arbitrary pole electric fan is
Ans. (B) (A) Ampliffer (B) Regulator
62. Instruments can be shielded from the outside (C) Switch (D) Rectifier
magnetic effect by surrounding them with– Ans (B)
(A) Iron shield (B) Rubber shield
72. A transformer works on the principle of
(C) Brass shield (D) Glass shield
(A) Self induction (B) Mutual induction
Ans. (B)
(C) Generator (D) Inverter
63. In electronics what comes under tank circuit?
Ans (B)
(A) Resistance and Capacitor
73. Pure water is bad conductor of electricity
(B) Resistance and Inductance
because it is
(C) Capacitor and Inductance
(A) Feebly ionized (B) Not volatile
(D) Resistance, Capacitor and Inductance
(C) A very good solvent (D) A non-polar solvent
Ans (C) Ans (D)
64. The substance which conducts current in the 74. The nature of fuse wire is
solid state is
(A) High resistance and low melting point.
(A) Diamond (B) Graphite (B) High resistance and high melting point.
(C) Iodine (D) Sodium chloride (C) Low resistance and high melting point.
Ans (B) (D) Low resistance and low melting point.
65. Good conductor of electricity is Ans. (A)
(A) Dry air (B) Paper 75. Electric current in a metal wire is due to the
(C) Kerosene (D) Graphite flow of-
Ans (D) (A) Electrons (B) Protons
66. Tungsten is used for the manufacture of the (C) Ions (D) Holes
filament of an electric bulb, because Ans (A)
(A) It is a good conductor(B) It is economical 76. Which of the following is a good conductor of
(C) It is malleable heat but a bad conductor of electricity?
(D) It has a very high melting point (A) Celluloid (B) Rubber
Ans (D) (C) Asbestos (D) Mica
Ans. (D) (A) Mica (B) Asbestos
77. Which of the following is arranged in order of (C) Celluloid (D) Paraffin wax
decreasing conductivity? Ans. (A)
(A) Copper, Aluminium, Steel, Silver 87. For which of the following substances, the
(B) Aluminium, Silver, Copper, Steel resistance decreases with increases in
(C) Copper, Silver, Aluminium,Steel temperature?
(D) Silver, Copper, Aluminium, Steel (A) Pure silicon (B) Copper
Ans. (D) (C) Nichrome (D) Platinum
78. If a copper wire is increased to double its Ans. (C)
length, its resistance will become 88. Indicate the false statement about the
(A) Four times (B) One-fourth resistance of wire
(C) Double (D) Half (A) It depends on material of wire
Ans. (C) (B) It is directly proportional to the length of wire
79. A device which is used to limit the current in (C) It is directly proportional to the area of cross-
an electrical circuit is called a section of wire
(A) Grid (B) Fuse (D) Resistance of metallic wire increases with
(C) Hub (D) Conductor increase in temperature
Ans. (B) Ans. (C)
80. The earth-wire of a cable is connected to 89. ‘Farad’ is the unit of:
(A) The outer metallic body of the appliance (A) Capacitance (B) Inductance
(C) Resistance (D) Conductance
(B) The fuse of the appliance
Ans. (A)
(C) The filament of the appliance
90. Ohm’s law is valid in case of
(D) Short circuit of the appliance (A) Semiconductor (B) Conductor
Ans. (B) (C) Superconductor (D) Insulator
81. The metal whose electrical conductivity is Ans. (B)
more, is 91. A current carrying conductor is associated with
(A) Copper (B) Aluminium (A) A magnetic field (B) An electric field
(C) Silver (D) Lead (C) An electro-magnetic field
Ans. (C) (D) An electrostatic field
82. Moving electric charge produces: Ans. (A)
(A) Magnetic field (B) Sound waves 92. Super conductors are substances that
(C) Light rays (D) Heat waves (A) Offer minimum resistance to flow of electric current
Ans. (A) (B) Conduct electricity at low temperature
83. Safety fuse wire used in domestic electrical (C) Conduct electricity at high temperature
appliances is made of metal of low (D) Offer high resistance to the flow of electric current
(A) Resistance (B) Melting point Ans. (A)
(C) Specific gravity (D) Conductance 93. In a conductor
Ans. (B) (A) There is no conduction band
84. A fuse wire is made of: (B) The forbidden energy gap is very wide
(A) An alloy of tin and copper (C) The forbidden energy gap is very narrow
(B) An alloy of tin and lead (D) The valence band and the conduction band
(C) An alloy of tin and aluminium overlap each other
(D) An alloy of nickel and chrominum Ans. (D)
Ans. (B) 94. A Fuse wire is characterised by
85. A transformer works with (A) High resistance and low melting point
(A) Alternating current only (B) High resistance and high melting point
(B) Direct current only (C) Low resistance and high melting point
(C) Both AC and DC (D) Any signal
(D) Low resistance and low melting point
Ans. (A)
Ans. (A)
86. Which of the following is a good conductor of
95. Unit of resistance is:
heat
(A) Volt²×ampere (B) Volt/ampere
(C) Ampere/volt (D) Volt × ampere (A) Steel (B) Soft Iron
Ans. (D) (C) Aluminium (D) Nickel
96. S.I. unit of magnetic flux is Ans. (B)
(A) Weber (B) Weber/m 104. Copper wires are generally used for electrical
(C) Weber/m2 (D) Weber-m² power transmission instead of iron wire
because:
Ans. (C)
(A) Copper is cheaper than iron
97. To prevent damage from lightning, lightning
(B) Copper is lighter than iron
conductors are used on tall structures. The
lightning conductor (C) Copper is a better conductor of electricity than
iron
(A) Should be made of a good conductor but can
(D) Copper can take higher power than iron
be of any shape
(B) Should be in the form of a vertical rod Ans. (C)
(C) Can be of any shape 105. The fuse in an electric circuit is connected in
(D) Should be made of a good conductor like (A) Series with neutral (B) Parallel to live
copper with sharp-pointed edges (C) Parallel to neutral (D) Series with live
Ans. (D) Ans. (D)
98. The magnitude of current flowing between two 106. What is the unit of the physical quantity
end points of a conductor is proportional to ''Magnetic field stregth''?
the potential difference between them and is (A) Joule per meter (B) Newton per meter
called as: (C) Kelvin per meter (D) Ampere per meter
(A) Avogadro’s law (B) Rault’s law Ans. (D)
(C) Ohms law (D) Faraday’s law
107. Which physical quantity is measured in
Ans. (C) ‘siemens’?
99. Which of the following was the first theory of (A) Electric potential (B) Electrical conductance
super conductivity? (C) Magnetic flux (D) Refractive index
(A) Ginzburg landau theory Ans. (B)
(B) London theory 108. _____________________ states that the total
(C) Resonating valence bond theory current entering a junction is equal to the total
(D) Quantum field theory current leaving the junction.
Ans. (A) (A) Lenz's Law (B) Hooke's Law
100. A galvanometer can be converted into a (C) Ohm's Law (D) Kirchhoff's First Law
voltmeter by connecting with it a Ans. (D)
(A) High resistance in parallel 109. ___________________states that the induced
e.m.f. is directly proportional to the rate of
(B) Low resistance on parallel
change of magnetic flux linkage or rate of
(C) High resistance on series cutting of magnetic flux linkage.
(D) Low resistance in series (A) Lenz’s Law (B) Hooke’s Law
Ans. (C) (C) Ohm’s Law (D) Faraday’s Law
101. Which one of the following is an ohmic Ans. (D)
conductor? 110. What is the unit of the physical quantity “Ca-
(A) Germanium (B) Silicon pacitance”?
(C) Carbon (D) Silver (A) Weber (B) Farad
Ans. (D) (C) Tesla (D) Ohm
Ans. (B)
102. Flemings “Left hand Rule” is associated with
the effect of 111. What is the unit of the physical quantity
"Inductance"?
(A) Electric field on current
(A) Weber (B) Farad
(B) Magnetic field on magnet (C) Henry (D) Tesla
(C) Electric field on magnet Ans. (C)
(D) Magnetic Field on current 112. Unit of impedance is ___________.
Ans. (D) (A) Ohm (B) Henry
103. Electromagnet is constructed with which of (C) Tesla (D) Hertz
the following?
Ans. (A) 121. The force of attraction between an electron
113. Where do the electrical charges reside in a revolving around the nucleus and the nucleus
charged conductor? is a ______ force?
(A) At the core (B) Throughout the body (A) Mechanical (B) Electric
(C) Depended upon the nature of the body (C) Magnetic (D) Gravitational
(D) On surface of the body Ans. (B)
Ans. (D) 122. Which of the following elements has the highest
114. If electric resistance is to be decreased, then electrical conductivity?
the number of resistances should be connected (A) Copper (B) Silver
in___
(C) Zinc (D) Lead
(A) Series (B) Parallel
Ans. (B)
(C) Mixed arrangement (D) None of these
123. What is measured by Ammeter?
Ans. (B)
(A) Voltage (B) Electric Current
115. The material used in electric heater is
(C) Resistance (D) Conductance
(A) Tungsten (B) Nichrome
Ans. (B)
(C) Brass (D) Steel
124. When resistors are connected in series, then
Ans. (B)
net resistance _____.
116. Which one among the following components is
used as an amplifying device ? (A) Increases (B) Decreases
(A) Transformer (B) Diode (C) Remains same (D) None of these
(C) Capacitor (D) Transistor Ans. (A)
Ans. (D) 125. What is the unit of resistance?
117. The complete form of 'IC' in electronics is (A) Ohm (B) Farad
(A) Internal circuit (B) Independent circuit (C) Henry (D) Weber
(C) Integrated circuit (D) Inbuilt circuit Ans. (A)
Ans. (C) 126. What is the SI unit of electric current?
118. Transformer is a device to convert (A) Newton (B) Joule
(A) D.C. to A.C. (C) Ampere (D) Watt
(B) Low voltage D.C. into high voltage D.C. Ans. (C)
(C) Low voltage A.C. into high voltage A.C. 127. Electric Motor converts _____ energy to
(D) Mechanical energy into Electrical energy. mechanical energy
Ans. (C) (A) Sound (B) Mechanical
119. Which one among the following components (C) Chemical (D) Electrical
can not be developed within a "integrated cir- Ans. (D)
cuit"? 128. The force exerted by a magnet is an example
(A) Diode (B) Triode of _________.
(C) Transformer (D) Transistor (A) Non-contact force (B) Muscular force
Ans. (C) (C) Contact force (D) Electrostatic force
120. Maxwell is the unit of which one of the Ans. (A)
following? 129. The coil wire in the electric room heater or
(A) Magnetic flux (B) Permeability electric cooking heater is called __________.
(A) Circuit (B) Element
(C) Magnetic susceptibility
(C) Filament (D) Cells
(D) Intensity of magnetization
Ans. (B)
Ans. (A)
Chapter-10
Miscellaneous
MODERN PHYSICS (D) Work function
Ans. (A)
1. NOT Gate can be operated by–
10. Which one among the following components
(A) Single diode (B) Two diodes
is used as an amplifying device?
(C) Single Resistor (D) Single Transistor
(A) Transformer (B) Diode
Ans. (D) (C) Capacitor (D) Transistor
2. Silicon is a– Ans. (D)
(A) Semiconductor (B) Insulator 11. Where is a transistor most likely to be found?
(C) Conductor (D) Electric Resistor (A) Wrist watch (B) Fuse
Ans. (A) (C) Hearing aid (D) Fluorescent lamp
3. What will be the effect on the resistance of a Ans. (C)
semiconductor on increasing its temperature? 12. Which of the following is widely used in making
(A) Increase (B) Decrease semiconductor chips?
(C) Unchanged (D) Increase-decrease (A) Radium (B) Sodium
Ans. (B) (C) Germanium (D) Sulphur
4. For which one of the following, 'Diodes' are Ans. (C)
generally used for?
(A) Rectification (B) Amplification Instrument
(C) Modulation (D) Filtration
13. Instrument used to measure the wind speed is:
Ans. (A)
(A) Altimeter (B) Anemometer
5. What is the unit of the physical quantity,
(Radioactive) Activity? (C) Chronometer (D) Dogometer
(A) Radian (B) Becquerel Ans. (B)
(C) Steradian (D) Kelvin 14. Anemometer is used to measure :
Ans. (B) (A) Direction of wind (B) Speed of wind
6. Which of the following is used for regulated (C) Pressure (D) Speed of wind and time
electric supply? Ans. (B)
(A) Zener diode (B) Junction diode 15. An instrument used to measure the density of
(C) Gunn diode (D) Tunnel diode milk is :
Ans. (A) (A) Glactometer (B) Lactometer
7. Radio activity is due to (C) Calciometer (D) Polarimeter
(A) Unstable nucleus (B) Stable nucleus Ans. (B)
(C) Stable electronic configuration 16. Purity of Milk is measured by :
(D) On Stable electronic configuration (A) Hydrometer (B) Lactometer
Ans. (A)
(C) Thermometer (D) Polarimeter
8. The width of depletion layer of a p-n junction
Ans. (B)
(A) Decreases with light doping
17. The insturment for measuring intensity of
(B) Increases with heavy doping
earthquakes is called
(C) Is independent of applied voltage
(A) Ediograph (B) Pantagraph
(D) Is increased under reverse bias
(C) Ergograph (D) Seismograph
Ans. (D)
9. Curie is an unit of Ans. (D)
(A) Radioactivity (B) Energy of Gamma rays 18. Bolometer is used to measure.
(C) Intensity of Gamma rays (A) Frequency (B) Temperature
(C) Velocity (D) Wavelength 29. Who Invented Electric Stove?
Ans. (A) (A) Lloyd Groff Copeman (B) Bartolomeo Cristofori
19. The instrument used to see the distant objects (C) Leonardo da Vinci (D) Philip Diehl
on the Earth is Ans. (A)
(A) Terrestrial telescope 30. Electric tram was invented by?
(B) Astronomical telescope (A) Fyodor Pirotsky (B) Arthur Pitney
(C) compound microscope (C) Firtz Pfleumer (D) Stephen Perry
(D) Simple microscope Ans. (A)
Ans. (A) 31. Electric chair was invented by
20. An instrument used to measure humidity is : (A) Alfred P. Southwich (B) Isaac Singer
(A) Anemometer (B) Hygrometer (C) Murasaki Shikibu (D) Hanaoka Seish?
(C) Thermometer (D) Pyrheliometer Ans. (A)
Ans. (B) 32. Who invented Rocket?
21. An instrument that records earthquakes is
(A) Rich K Goyle (B) E M Forster
(A) Ergograph (B) Ediograph
(C) Robert Goddard (D) James Anderson
(C) Thermograph (D) Seismograph
Ans. (C)
Ans. (D)
33. Who invented the contact lens?
22. Hydroscope is an instrument that shows
changes in : (A) Enrico Fermi
(A) Sound under water (B) Atmospheric hunidity (B) Adolf Gaston Eugen Fick
(C) Density of liquid (D) Elevation of land (C) Sandford Fleming
Ans. (A) (D) Benoit Fourneyron
23. Sextant is an instrument used in which of the Ans. (B)
following? 34. Who established the foundations of the
Quantum theory?
(A) Gynaecology (B) Navigation
(A) Max Planck (B) Mark Nicholas
(C) Birth control (D) Medical treatment
(C) AIbert Einstein (D) AIfred Hitchcock
Ans. (B)
Ans. (A)
24. Device used for the detection and
measurement of all types of radiation (Alpha, 35. Who Invented the nuclear reactor?
Beta and Gamma) (A) Enrico Fermi
(A) Geiger counter (B) Polarimeter (B) Adolf Gaston Eugen Fick
(C) Calorimeter (D) Radiometer (C) Sandford Fleming
Ans. (A) (D) Benoit Fourneyron
25. Instrument for measuring time is called _____ . Ans. (A)
(A) Diagometer (B) Anemometer 36. Who invented the Lightning Rod in 1749?
(C) Durometer (D) Chronometer (A) Benjamin Franklin(B) Nikola Tesla
Ans. (D) (C) Eli Whitney (D) George Washington
26. Meter in a vehicle that calculates distance cov- Ans. (A)
ered by the vehicle is called __________.
(A) Speedometer (B) Odometer 37. Who invented the vacuum pump?
(C) Thermometer (D) Kilometre (A) Otto von Guericke
Ans. (B) (B) Cai Lun
(C) Melitta Bentz
(D) William Henry Fox Talbot
Inventions & Discoveries Ans. (A)
27. Who Invented Neon Lamp? 38. Who discovered television?
(A) Vint Cerf (B) David Chaum (A) Michael Faraday (B) Joseph Henry
(C) Abbe Caselli (D) John Baird
(C) Georges Claude (D) Josephine Cochrane
Ans. (D)
Ans. (C)
39. Who invented Dynamite?
28. Who Invented water turbine?
(A) J B Dunlop (B) Alfred Nobel
(A) Enrico Fermi (B) Adolf Gaston Eugen Fick
(C) James Simons (D) Peter Hargreaves
(C) Sandford Fleming (D) Benoit Fourneyron
Ans. (B)
Ans. (D)
40. Which of the following was invented by Sir 52. Who discovered electricity and invented the
Humphry Davy? lightning rod and bifocals?
(A) Safety Pin (B) Steam Engine (A) Kirkpatrick Macmillan
(C) Safety Lamp (D) X-Rays (B) Benjamin Franklin
Ans. (C) (C) William Henry Fox Talbot
41. Who invented Pentium Chip? (D) Sir Alexander Fleming
(A) C. Kumar Patel (B) Tom Gunter Ans. (B) (SSC CGL 2017)
(C) Vince Emery (D) Vinod Dham 53. Who invented the hot air balloon?
Ans. (D) (A) Montgolfier brothers (B) Wright brothers
(C) Lisitsyn brothers (D) Walton brothers
42. Who developed the theory of relativity?
Ans. (A)
(A) Issac Newton (B) Charles Darwin
54. Who invented the thermos flask?
(C) Marie Curie (D) Albert Einstein
(A) Ray Tomlinson (B) Tim Berners-Lee
Ans. (D) (C) William Cullen (D) James Dewar
43. Who invented radar? Ans. (D)
(A) Fred Morrison Pressure
(B) A. H. Taylor and Leo C. Young
55. Which of the following is used to measure the
(C) Van Tassel (D) W. K. Roentgen pressure?
Ans. (B) (A) Hydrometer (B) Aneroid Barometer
44. Who discovered the colour photography? (C) Anemomenter (D) Thermometer
(A) Robert Noyce (B) Enrico Fermi Ans. (B)
(C) John Logie Baird (D) James Clerk Maxwell 56. If a barometer is placed in a ball Jar and air
Ans. (D) from it removed slowly then
(A) Level of Mercury increases
45. Who invented the electric tram?
(B) Level of Mercury decreases
(A) James Cook (B) William Harvey
(C) Level of Mercury remains un changed
(C) Fyodor Pirotsky (D) Robert Boyles (D) Ball Jar burst
Ans. (C) Ans. (A)
46. Who discovered Uranus? 57. It is easy to burst a gas filed balloon with a
(A) Sir Isaac Newton needle than nail because-
(B) William Henry Fox Talbot (A) Needle exerts more presure than nail on the
(C) William Herschel (D) Nicolaus Copernicus balloon.
Ans. (C) (B) Nail exert more pressure than needle on the
47. Who invented Space Pen? balloon.
(A) Paul C. Fisher (B) Rudolf Diesel (C) Gas is reactive with needle.
(C) Wright Brothers (D) Alexander Fleming (D) Nail is more longer than needle.
Ans. (A)
Ans. (A)
48. Who discovered Photon?
58. Cooking of Rice is Harder-
(A) George Crum (B) Albert Einstein
(C) Henry Cavendish (D) Humphry Davy (A) Top of Mountains (B) Bottom of sea
Ans. (B) (C) Under the mine (D) Same at every where
49. Who invented Velcro? Ans. (A)
(A) Thomas Edison (B) William Harvey 59. Water boils at low temperature on mountains
(C) George de Mestral (D) Robert Boyles because-
Ans. (C) (A) There is cooling on Mountains.
50. Who invented the waterproof raincoat? (B) Amount of Carbon dioxide is less at mountaions.
(A) Robert Hooke (B) Cai Lun (C) Atmospheric pressure is low at mountains.
(C) Charles Macintosh (D) William Harvey (D) Deficiency of oxygen.
Ans. (C) Ans. (C)
51. Who discovered Neon? 60. Pressure cooker reduces the time required for
the cooking because-
(A) Robert Noyce (B) Enrico Fermi
(A) Boiliing point of water increases inside cooker.
(C) Morris W. Travers and William Ramsay
(B) Boiling point of water decreasses inside cooker.
(D) Antonio de Ulloa and Charles Wood
(C) High pressure makes soft the food.
Ans. (C)
(D) Heat energy distributed equally.
Ans. (A) (C) Archimedes principle (D) Pascal's law
61. Rice is cooked more quickly in a perssure Ans. (C)
cooker beacuse:
70. What is the SI unit of pressure?
(A) Water boils at Higher temperature
(B) Less quantity of water is used (A) Newton (B) Weber
(C) It is covered (D) None of these (C) Pascal (D) Henry
Ans. (A) Ans. (C)
62. To calculate the pressure exerted by Liquid at 71. On which principle does the hydraulic lift
the bottom of container, which of the following works?
is not required?
(A) Newton's law (B) Pascal's law
(A) Height of Liquid column
(B) Surface area of bottom of container (C) Archimedes's law (D) Joule's law
(C) Density of Liquid Ans. (B)
(D) Acceleration due to gravity at the bottom of container 72. For which of the following game, players
Ans. (B) must have the knowledge of Pascal's law?
63. 1 Bar is equal to : (A) Climbing (B) Paragliding
(A) 103 pa (B) 100 pa (C) Rafting (D) Scuba diving
5
(C) 10 pa (D) 104 pa Ans. (D)
Ans. (C)
64. A real gas can act as an ideal gas under DENSITY
(A) High pressure and low temperature 73. When the barometer reading dips suddenly, it
(B) Low pressure and high temperature is an indication of
(C) High pressure and high temperature (A) Bot weather (B) Calm weather
(D) Low pressure and low temperature (C) Storm (D) dry weather
Ans. (B) Ans. (C)
65. The boiling point of water depends upon the 74. The density of a gas is maxium at
(A) Atmospheric pressure
(A) Low temperature, low pressure
(B) Volume
(B) Low temperature, high pressure
(C) Density (D) Mass
(C) High temperature, low pressure
Ans. (A)
(D) High temperature, high presure
66. At hill stations, the boiling point of water will be
(A) Same as at sea level Ans. (B)
(B) Less than that at sea level 75. Specific gravity is defined as the ratio of
(C) More than that at sea level (A) Denity of the substance to the density of water
(D) Equal to the melting point of ice (B) Density of the substance to the density of
Ans. (B) water at 0ºC
67. Vegetables are cooked in lesser time by adding (C) Density of water at 4ºC to the density of the
a pinch of salt while cooking beause substance
(A) Boiling point of water increases (D) Density of the substance to the density of
(B) Latent heat of vaporization of water decreases water at 4ºC
(C) Latent heat of vaporization of water increases Ans. (D)
(D) Boiling point of water decreases. 76. The density of water is 1 g/cc. This is strictly
Ans. (A) valid at
68. Hydraulic brakes used in automatic vehicles is (A) 0ºC (B) 4ºC
direct virtual application of which law? (C) 25ºC (D) 100ºC
(A) Pascal's law (B) Archemedes' principle
Ans. (B)
(C) Newton's law (D) Boyle's law
77. if ice floating on water in a vessel melts, the
Ans. (A)
water level in the vessel____.
69. Which law/principle states that when a body is (A) Increases (B) Does not change
immersed fully or partially in a fluid, it
experiences an upward force that is equal to (C) First increases before decrasing
the weight of the fluid displaced by it? (D) Decreases
(A) Boyle's law (B) Charles law Ans. (B)
78. What is the unit of relative density? 87. Which of the following is an Example of canti-
(A) Kg/m (B) Kg/m2 lever beam?
(C) Kg/m3 (D) It has no unit (A) Diving board (B) Bridge
Ans. (D) (C) See-Saw (D) Common Balance
79. Which among the following has the maximum Ans. (A)
density? 88. A simple Machine
(A) Water (B) Ice (A) Cannot increase the force
(C) Ethylene (D) Acetone (B) Cannot increase the speed
Ans. (A) (C) Cannot increase the wrok
80. Which of the following quantities does not have (D) Cannot change the direction of applied force
any unit? Ans. (D)
(A) Speed (B) Density 89. The working principle of a beam balance is the
(C) Relative Density (D) Acceleration principle of :
Ans. (C) (A) Mass (B) Momentum
(C) Couple (D) Moment
HUMIDITY Ans. (D)
81. Humidity is measured by 90. Electrostatic precipitator is used to control the
(A) Hydrometer (B) Hygrometer pollution of :
(C) Pyrometer (D) Lactometer (A) Air (B) Water
Ans. (B) (C) Noise (D) Thermal
82. Amount of water vapour in the atmosphere is Ans. (A)
measured in terms of 91. Knot is a measure of
(A) Humidity (B) Droplets (A) The speed of ship
(C) Smog (D) All of the above (B) The curvature of spherical objects
Ans. (A) (C) Solar radiation
(D) Intensity of earthquake shock
MISCELLANEOUS Ans. (A)
92. Vehicle tyres are inflated properly
83. A wheel barrow is an Example of :
(A) To ensure smooth running.
(A) 1st Class lever (B) 2nd class lever
(B) To allow the vehicle to take more load.
(C) Pully (D) 3rd class lever
Ans. (B) (C) To avoid skidding and to minimise friction
84. Lubricant oil is used in vehicle to : (D) To go fast and save fuel.
(A) For combustion fuel Ans. (A)
(B) To make flow steramline 93. A photostat machine works on :
(A) Electrostatic image making
(C) To incease the firiction
(B) Magnetic image making
(D) To decrease the friction
(C) Thermal image making
Ans. (D)
(D) Thermal image making
85. While ascending a hill, the driver of the vehicle
Ans. (A)
keep the gear ratio :
94. Flight Recorder is technically called:
(A) Equal to one (B) Less than one
(C) Greater Than one (A) Dark box (B) Blind box
(D) Either Greater or equal to one (C) Black box (D) Altitude meter
Ans. (D) Ans. (C)
86. Flywheel is an important part of a steam en- 95. Super conductors are substance that:
gine because. (A) Offer minimal resistance to flow of electric current
(A) It gives strenght to engine (B) Conduct electricity at low temperature
(B) Accelerates the speed of engine (C) Conduct electricity at high temperature
(C) Helps the engine in keeping speed iuniform (D) Offer high resistance to the flow of electric
(D) Decreases the moment of inertia current
Ans. (B) Ans. (A)
96. The abbreviation LHC stands for which machine? 107. Match the following and choose the correct option-
(A) Light Heat Collider (B) Large Hadron Collider Quantity SI Unit
(C) Long Heavy Collider (D) Large High Collider 1. Frequency a. Ohm
Ans. (B) 2. Force b. Hertz
97. 'Parsec' is the unit measurement of 3. Resistance c. Newton
(A) Density of stars (B) Astronomical distance (A) 1 - b, 2 - c, 3 - a (B) 1 - a, 2 - c, 3 - b
(C) Brightness of heavenly bodies (C) 1 - c, 2 - b, 3 - a (D) 1 - b, 2 - a, 3 - c
(D) Orbital velocity of giant stars Ans. (A)
Ans. (B) 108. Which is the most suitable unit for expressing
98. Isaac Newton invented____. nuclear radius?
(A) Thermometer (B) Reflecting Telescope (A) Micron (B) Nanometer
(C) Hydraulic Accumulator (C) Fermi (D) Angstrom
(D) Transistor Ans. (C)
Ans. (B) 109. Surface water of a lake is about to freeze. What
99. Name the first Indian who got Nobel Prize in will be the temperature (in ºC) of water at the
physics. bottom of the lake?
(A) CK Naidu (B) Rangnath Mishra (A) 0 (B) -1
(C) Amartya Sen (D) CV Raman (C) 1 (D) 4
Ans. (D) Ans. (C)
100. Name the first Indian to go into Space. 110. What is the process of conversion from solid to
(A) Vidyut Mishra (B) Kaplish Tripathi gas is known as?
(C) Rakesh Sharma (D) Ish Kumar Vaidya (A) Fusion (B) Solidification
Ans. (C) (C) Sublimation (D) Condensation
101. What is the unit of the physical quantity "Jerk"? Ans. (C)
(A) Meter second (B) Meter per second cube 111. Which of the following is not a vector quantity?
(C) Meter per second square
(A) Momentum (B) Displacement
(D) Meter per second
(C) Torque (D) Speed
Ans. (B)
Ans. (D)
102. The study of universe is known as___.
112. Which of the following is not a vector quantity?
(A) Cosmology (B) Astrology
(A) Acceleration (B) Electric current
(C) Seismology (D) Limnology
Ans. (A) (C) Force (D) Velocity
103. What is the study of Moon called? Ans. (B)
(A) Selenology (B) Cosmology 113. Which of the following pair is INCORRECT?
(C) Iridology (D) Planetology I. Parsec - Distance
Ans. (A) II. Barrel - Liquid
104. One nanometer is equal to _____________ meters. III. Light year - Time
(A) 10 raised to the power (–4) (A) Only III (B) Only I and III
(B) 10 raised to the power (–6) (C) Only II (D) All are correct
(C) 10 raised to the power (–9) Ans. (A)
(D) 10 raised to the power (–10) 114. The substances which reduce friction are called
Ans. (C) _________.
105. First man to go into space was (A) Irregularities (B) Lubricants
(A) Roald Amundsen (B) Reynalt Mayor (C) Adhesives (D) Viscous
(C) Robert Peary (D) Major Yuri Gagarin Ans. (B)
Ans. (D) 115. The laws which govern the motion of planets
106. Mass of an object is a _____. are called ___________________.
(A) Physical Quantity (B) Fundamental Quantity (A) Newton's Laws (B) Kepler's Laws
(C) Scalar Quantity (D) All options are correct (C) Avogadro's Laws (D) De Morgan's Laws
Ans. (D) Ans. (B)
G.S SPECIAL
(PHYSICS)
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Force and Motion

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Work Energy & Power

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