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CLAT MOCK-23

ANSWER KEY & EXPLANATIONS

1. (d) Recumbent bicycles, which were banned from competition in the 1930s and thus neglected for
much of the 20th century, offer many advantages over upright bicycles and come in many designs.
Think what this whole passage is about. You know that it describes a kind of bicycle called a
recumbent that's designed differently from a regular bicycle, which the passage refers to as an
"upright" bicycle. It mentions 'a bit about the history of recumbents and why they were banned
from competition, describes the advantages of recumbents, spends a paragraph on different
recumbent designs, and then concludes with a paragraph on how to improve recumbent hill-
climbing. It's mostly informative, but the author definitely has an agenda —notice how she dwells on
the advantages of recumbents. Choice (a) is definitely wrong. The UCI's decision is only a minor part
of the entire passage, not the main idea. Choice (b) isn't the main idea, either. Although the author
does mention that recumbents have surged in popularity, which has generated new design interest,
that's not the main idea of the whole passage; instead, it's kind of the main idea of the third
paragraph. Choice (c) is true and is one of the authors points, but it's not her main idea, which has to
apply to the entire passage. Choice (d) looks like the right answer. It sums up the gist of the entire
passage pretty well and doesn't add anything that the passage doesn't say. Choice (d) is correct.

2. (a) The seating position places the cyclist in a permanent aerodynamic tuck, with arms and legs
contained within the rider's torso profile, thereby creating less wind resistance than an upright rider
faces. The passage makes it clear that aerodynamics are the reason for recumbent speed. Look for
an answer that emphasizes the aerodynamic advantages of recumbents. Choice (a) looks good, but
check the others. Choice (b) is wrong because the author explicitly says that most recumbents are
made of steel, not of lighter materials. Choice (c) is a bit tricky because recumbents do maximize
aerodynamics, and fairings and seat position do play a role in aerodynamics, but the main way that
recumbents maximize aerodynamics is through an aerodynamic tuck. The author clearly states that
fairings are optional, so you can't assume that fairings are responsible for the aerodynamic
improvement. Choice (d) doesn't really work because you know that bicycle manufacturers
neglected recumbents for most of the 20th century. Choice (a) is the right answer.

3. (d) After a second-rate cyclist won a race and broke several records on a recumbent, the UCI
decided that recumbents offered too much mechanical advantage and that, in order for races to
reflect actual ability, all riders should use the same kind of bicycle. The UCI (incidentally, Union
Cycliste Internationale is a French name, though all the words resemble English; the English version
is International Cycling Union) banned recumbent after a lousy cyclist won a race on one, proving
that his bike was faster than the other bikes because he himself wouldn't have won on an upright
bike. Choice (a) is wrong because the passage says nothing about other cyclists petitioning anyone.
Choice (b) is totally wrong because the author never mentions anyone setting records on upright
bikes. Choice (c)isn't in the passage. Choice (d), is the correct answer.

4. (b) Recumbent bicycles are lighter than upright bicycles, which gives them an advantage at hill
climbing. Find the answer to this one by the process of elimination. If you prefer, mark the passage
where you find answer choices that do appear. Choice (a) is mentioned; the author mentions
comfort several times. Choice (b) looks wrong. The author says that recumbents are heavier than
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uprights, not lighter, so this answer certainly isn't one of the advantages shelists. Choice (c) is in the
passage as an advantage; so is Choices (d). Choice (b) is correct.

5. (a) to argue that, contrary to what they may expect, cyclists can climb hills well on recumbent
bicycles, and to suggest ways to improve climbing performance Before predicting the right answer,
you may want to quickly skim this paragraph. Now, in your own words, why did the author write this
paragraph? The last paragraph contains the authors discussion of climbing on recumbents. She
mentions that some cyclists believe that recumbents are slow at climbing, claims that they aren't,
and offers a suggestion or two of ways recumbent cyclists can improve their climbing prowess.
Choice (a) matches up with that description quite well. Choice (b) is wrong, though it may be a bit
confusing; the author does say that recumbent cyclists can climb hills well, but she isn't proving
anything just making a statement that she could back up with evidence if she chose to, though she
doesn't. Choice (c) isn't exactly right. The author does discuss cadence, but that's not her primary
purpose in writing the paragraph. Choice (d) doesn't work because, although the author does
dispute the contention that recumbents can't climb, she doesn't offer anecdotal evidence; the claim
that "most experienced recumbent riders" climb well isn't anecdotal evidence — you need some
actual examples of fast riders for this answer to be right. Choice (a) is correct.

6. (c) a short wheelbase bike with above-seat steering and a fairing. To answer this question, you
have to use information from the passage. The third paragraph discusses the different designs of
recumbent bikes: A short wheelbase is faster than a long wheelbase, and above-seat steering is
faster than below-seat steering. If you go up to the second paragraph, you find mention of fairings,
which can increase speed. So your fastest bike would be a short wheelbase bike with above-seat
steering and a fairing. That's Choice (c).

7. (d) A cyclist who wants to maximize speed and comfort and is not interested in racing should
choose a recumbent over an upright bicycle. You can't predict the answers to this one, so just read
through the choices and see which one jibes with what the author seems to believe. Choice (a)
doesn't really work because the author probably wouldn't make such a blanket statement. She's
precise in her numbers and not likely to generalize like that, with no consideration for different
riders. Choice (b) is wrong because, although the author mentions that recumbents have become
more popular, nowhere does she mention absolute numbers of recumbent cyclists as compared to
upright cyclists. For all you know, recumbent cyclists comprise a mere 1 percent of 'the cycling
population. Because she hasn't mentioned this topic, you can't assume she'd agree. Choice (c)is
wrong. A fairing would make a recumbent faster but by improving aerodynamics, not by reducing
weight; if anything, the fairing would increase weight. Choice (d) is correct; the author's points are
that recumbents offer both speed and comfort, though it's true that you can't enter them in most
bike races.

8. (c) Read the second sentence of para 3.

9. (d) This passage is about the existence of asteroid-satellite systems: astronomers used to doubt
their existence, but now recognize that they are theoretically possible, and are looking for definitive
proof. (d) correctly notes that theoreticians were on to the existence of asteroid satellite systems
before astronomers were. Moreover, (d)'s idea that astronomers agree on what would be conclusive
proof echoes the final paragraph. (a) focuses on a detail—the Heruclina event. But the passage is
about asteroid-satellite systems in general, not just about the Herculina observations.(b) Au
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contraire. The first sentence of the passage tells us that astronomers "long believed" that stable
asteroid-satellite systems weren't possible; furthermore, skepticism about the existence of such
systems has decreased. (c) Au contraire aussi. The Herculina event supported the theoreticians'
views about asteroid-satellite systems.. Besides, like (a), this choice is focused on a detail.

10. (d) Heruclina is discussed in Paragraph 3. it says there that astronomers watching the Herculina
event were surprised by an unexpected drop in brightness that occurred before the drop they were
expecting. That's (d): evidence of Herculina having a satellite was provided by "the occultation that
occurred shortly before the predicted occultation by Herculina." (a) First, the secondary body's
presence was "strongly indicated," not "directly observed. "Second, what's important is the fact that
a second body also eclipsed the star. (b) is outside the scope. The passage says nothing about a
planet near Herculina. is also outside the scope. The author never discusses the amount of time
needed to complete an orbit. When working on an explicit text question, always go back to the
passage and reread the relevant portion of text. Never answer on a hunch or vague recall of the text.

11. (a) The attitude of astronomers since the Herculina event is discussed in paragraphs 4 and
5.Paragraph 4 says the Herculina event made secondary sightings "respectable"—i.e many
astronomers came to accept the possible existence of asteroid-satellite systems. Paragraph
5indicates that even astronomers who are still doubters would be convinced by the right kind of
evidence. As (a) puts it, astronomers who were skeptical of the existence of asteroid-satellites have
become more open-minded, although many are still awaiting proof. (b) describes the attitude of
many astronomers prior to the Herculina event. (c) There's no "chaotic mix of theory" relating to
asteroid satellites; paragraph 1 indicates that a single, simple theory supports their existence.
Further, the passage doesn't say that any data is "spurious." (d) is too negative. Many astronomers
already believe that asteroid satellites exist. The skeptics are merely looking for one particular kind
of evidence; they aren't rejecting "all data not recorded automatically by state-of-the-art
instruments."

12. (c) gets to the heart of the matter. The first sentence of paragraph 4 says that after the Herculina
event secondary occultations became "'respectable'—and more commonly reported." This implies
that before the Herculina event secondary occultations weren't considered respectable, and so
weren't commonly reported. (a) Paragraph 1 indicates that a good theoretical model of asteroid-
satellite systems did exist prior to the Herculina event. (b) The author never implies that satellite
collisions were mistaken for occultations. There's no speculation on what, other than an actual
satellite, might have occasioned the rare reported observations of secondary events before the
Heruclina event. (d) Prior to the Herculina event, it wasn't even respectable to report secondary
events. The issue of what constitutes a "well-behaved" event only arises later (in Paragraph 5).

13. (d) Paragraph 4 says that reports of secondary occultations grew so common after the Herculina
event that they're now too numerous for all to be correct. Why? Because even if every asteroid has
the highest plausible number of satellites, "only one in every hundred primary occultations would be
accompanied by a secondary event." So (d) must be correct: Since the Herculina event, reports of
secondary events have been occurring at a rate greater than this maximum plausible rate of one in
every one hundred cases.(a) and (c) simply can't be concluded based on the passage's information.
We don't know how many reports of primary occultations have included secondary occultations, or
how many reports of secondary occultations there are or were, so we can't calculate the increase of
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either. (b) distorts the last parenthetical clause of paragraph 4, which describes what would be the
case if asteroid-satellite systems resembled planet-satellite systems, not what is in fact the case on
actual reports of secondary occultation’s.

14. (c) (c) is right on the money: the author's primary purpose is to trace the development of ideas
among astronomers concerning the existence of asteroid-satellite systems.(a) Much of the passage
describes how reporting "secondary occultation’s" has become respectable. (b) deals only with
information in paragraph 5.Moreover, (b)'s distinction between "spurious" and "theoretically
believable" observations isn't made in the passage. (d) The author isn't trying to bring a
"theoretician's perspective" to the discussion; instead, he's primarily interested in how experimental
results enlighten the discussion.

15. (c) Based on paragraph 5, you can expect the answer to have something to do with the
photoelectric record. (c) would provide the hard physical evidence we need; a photoelectric record
of a "well-behaved" secondary event is exactly what skeptical astronomers say "would change their
minds." (a) The existence of such early reports is only hinted at and the clear implication is that
nobody took them very seriously. (b) The author never implies that there's anything wrong with the
original theoretical model. (d) is just a more refined abstraction—it doesn't constitute the kind of
physical proof needed to resolve the question.

16. (a) Read the second sentence of the passage. 'Blocks' is the key word here.

17. (c) (c) covers the gist of the passage. The author explains . how much of 17th-
centuryexperimental work was performed by technicians, and how that work was denigrated and
distrusted for the reasons discussed in paragraph 3. (a) ignores the major concern of the passage:
why technicians' contributions were overlooked. Moreover, the passage never implies that scientific
experiments would have been absolutely impossible without the aid of technicians. (b) distorts the
passage. Lab workers, as salaried employees, belonged to a lower social caste. (d) is outside the
scope. The passage never discusses the relationship between 20th-centuryscientists and their
technicians.

18. (d) Seventeenth-century rhetoric about scientific experimentation emphasized the idea that
scientists should do their own experiments. Hence, that rhetoric would have more accurately
described the work conducted in Boyle's lab if Boyle himself had actually done his own experiments.
(a) would contradict seventeenth-century rhetoric by having Boyle admit that he relied on others. (b)
According to the passage, contempt for manual labor was characteristic of seventeenth century
scientists. Membership in the Royal Society alone wouldn't determine whether or not Boyle
performed experiments according to the rhetoric of the day.

19. (c) The "franchise" and it's relation to servants is discussed in the middle of paragraph 3,where
it's said that servants were excluded from the franchise because, as wage earners, they were
thought to be controlled by their employers. In other words, as (c) says, their political independence
was thought to be compromised.(a) Servants weren't excluded because their interests were already
represented, but because it was believed that they would blindly support the political positions of
the employers who paid their wages.(b), (d), and Nowhere does the passage state or imply that
servants were inadequately educated (b), a polarizing force (d) Don't worry about the precise
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definition of the "franchise"; it's enough to locate the word in the passage and see how it appears in
context.

20. (d) In the middle of Paragraph 1, we're told that the Royal Society of London endorsed the notion
that doing menial work in the cause of science was a good thing. As (d) puts it, the Society advocated
abandoning the traditional upper class ethic against performing manual labor—at least as far as
science was concerned. (a) is au contraire choice. Pararagraph 1 explicitly says that, as far as the
Royal Society of London was concerned, the willigness of scientists to do their own manual labor was
part of an attempt to discover God's truth in nature (a) (b) and (c) touch on issues which the Royal
Society didn't address. The Society never asked scientists to abandon the individualistic view of
scientific breakthroughs (b) or the view that wage-dependent servants shouldn't vote (c). In fact,
based on the information in the passage, it's quite likely that the upper class Royal Society would
have endorsed

21. (a) The sentence of paragraph 3 indicates that both the seventeenth and twentieth centuries
share the view that scientific discoveries result from the sudden insights of as mall number of
brilliant (c) individuals, rather than from the cooperative efforts of many, people, (b) is outside the
scope. There's nothing in the passage about either seventeenth or twentieth century views of the
connection between political values and scientific method. (c) and (d) are out because, while the
beliefs that research undertaken for pay couldn't be objective (c) and that scientific discovery could
reveal divine truth (d) were indeed both held in the seventeenth century, the passage says nothing
about twentieth-century beliefs concerning these things.

22. (d) Paragraph 3 begins by asking why the role of technicians wasn't acknowledged by
17thcentury scientists, an issue introduced in Paragraph 2. It then answers this question by
discussing three factors that contributed to the failure to acknowledge the role of technicians. (a)
The question isn't posed in the previous paragraph, nor is only one of several alternative answers
adopted. (b) None of the factors discussed in paragraph 3 is rejected. (c) The explanations discussed
aren't incompatible—the factors in paragraph 3 are shown as working together.

23. (a) In introducing the political significance of the wage relationship, the author makes the point
that workers dependent upon the wages of their employers simply weren't considered reliable,
whether in political judgments or in scientific research. As (a) says, the author puts the scientists'
failure to acknowledge the contributions of technicians in the context of general worker-employer
relations. (b) is outside the scope. The author offers no general thesis about the relationship
between scientific discovery and economic conditions. (c) goes against the gist of the passage, which
is that seventeenth-century scientists reliedon technicians to do much more than simply the most
menial tasks. (d) is also outside the scope. The author doesn't discuss political or economic changes
in seventeenth-century England.

24. (d) As we've already seen, the rhetoric of seventeenth-century English science concerned the
idea of doing hands-on research. What was the rhetoric? That scientists should conduct, observe,
and analyze their own experiments. (a) The myth about how discoveries were thought to occur is a
general trend discussed by the author, not a subject of seventeenth-century rhetoric. (b) Au
contraire. Seventeenth-century scientific rhetoric emphasized the importance of doing manual labor
in the cause of science. (c) Seventeenth-century scientists failed to acknowledge the contributions of
their technicians. The scientific rhetoric of the time never addressed that issue.
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25. (c) Authority is a kind of power that does not explicitly depend on persuasion or coercion for its
effect. This passage is tough. A bit of strategy: You will of course have read the questions before
tackling the reading, and you'll have noticed that this passage only has five questions. In this
situation, you may be well served by postponing this reading until the end. It's not worth as many
points as the others, and it's harder to understand. Often, it doesn't matter whether You work the
passages in order, but readings like this can, really bog you down. For a clue as to its topic, read the
last sentence of the first paragraph, a common place to put a thesis: it's about "the particular
manifestation of power that we call authority." This is an excerpt from a much longer piece on
Alexander the Great, which is why Alexander appears in this passage, but Alexander isn't actually the
focus of the passage; authority as is a of subcategory power Now, what's the central idea? The
author is arguing that authority is a kind of power that relies for its effect on the speaker's ability to
command and get people to obey him and doesn't depend on coercion or persuasion. Read through
the answer choices and see whether you can find one that fits. Choice (a) doesn't work; the author
has said that authority is a kind of power, which means they can't be the same thing. Choice (b) is
backward — authority is a kind of power. You don't need to bother with the rest of the answer,
which is also wrong. Choice (c) looks good. The author has said that "authority is a kind of power"
and "for us to see authority in action, both coercion and persuasion must remain in the
background," which adds up to Choice (c). Choice (d) doesn't work; though the author mentions
Alexander, he's really incidental to this discussion and even more so is his general, Antipater.
Choice(c) is correct.

26. (b) explore aspects of the concept of authority and its uneasy association with coercive and
discursive power The second paragraph contains a discussion of authority and the relationship
implied in any situation in which one person has authority over another. Choice (a) is wrong.
Alexander doesn't appear in this paragraph. Choice (b) looks good —the author does mention
"coercive power" and uses the word "uneasy" to describe relationships in which one person has
authority over another. Choice (c) isn't right. The author may in fact suggest that coercive power is
essential to authority, but that's not the point of the entire paragraph and is never really directly
stated. Choice (d) is wrong. The author doesn't mention other scholars or their interpretations
anywhere. Choice (b) is the best answer.

27. (c) The sentence in question reads: "But for us to see authority in action, both coercion and
persuasion must remain in the background, occulted." If something is in the background, you're not
supposed to see it, or at least not focus on it. Choice (c), "hidden," would make sense in this context.
The other choices don't. The only other choice that may make some sense is Choice (b), but "hidden"
makes much more sense than "understated." Incidentally, although the word occult can refer to
magic, occulted in this context has nothing to do with magical topics, so Choice (d) is way out there.
Choice (c) is correct.

28. (b) Power is a generic term for the ability to make someone do something; authority is a
particular form of power, the ability to command without explicit persuasion or coercion. The
definition of power appears in the first paragraph, and the definition of authority appears in the
second. Note the author's use of the word "generic" to describe "power. "Skimming the answers,
Choice (b) looks possible. Choice (b) looks right; the author says that authority is a kind of power and
that it shouldn't depend on outright coercion or persuasion. Choice (a) is wrong because both
authority and power can involve persuasion and coercion. Choice (c) doesn't work because nowhere
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does the author suggest that authority goes with politics and power goes with the military. Choice
(d) is likewise wrong. Choice (b) is the best answer.

29. (a) The speaker's authority becomes weaker, whereupon he can resort to persuasion or force, or
reassert his authority by invoking his privileged position. Here's what the author says: "If the listener
demands a reason for a command or asks about the consequences of disobedience, the speaker's
authority falters. At this point, authority may give way to persuasion or naked force, or it may be
reasserted by invoking the privileged, authoritative position of the speaker." Choice (a) looks like it
matches up pretty well with that. Choice (b) is wrong because the speaker doesn't necessarily lose
power but may lose authority. In addition, you should automatically be suspicious of extreme
wording such as "loses all power." Choice (c) is just plain wrong. Choice (d) isn't right either, because
the speaker could also use persuasion or re invoke his authority. Choice (a) is the best answer.

30.The Correct Answer is B The Mid-day Meal Scheme (under the Ministry of Education) is a
centrally sponsored scheme which was launched in 1995. It is considered as the world's largest
school meal programme aimed to attain the goal of universalization of primary education.

31.The Correct Answer is A TithiBhojan is a community participation programme in which people

provide special food to children on special occasions/festivals.

32.The Correct Answer is C As per the Global Nutrition Report 2020, India is among 88 countries that
are likely to miss global nutrition targets by 2025.

33.The Correct Answer is A Month of September is celebrated as POSHAN Maah since 2018 to
improve nutritional outcomes for children, adolescent girls, pregnant women, and lactating mothers.

34.The Correct Answer is D WHO's Definition: The World Health Organisation (WHO) defines 'severe
acute malnutrition' (SAM) by very low weight-for-height or a mid-upper arm circumference less than
115 mm, or by the presence of nutritional oedema. Nutritional oedema: Abnormal fluid retention in
the tissues (oedema) resulting especially from lack of protein in states of starvation or malnutrition.

35.The Correct Answer is C The concept of OSOWOG, which the British have called a Green Grid, has
been pushed by Prime Minister Narendra Modi and also found a special mention in his
Independence Day speech this year.

36.The Correct Answer is C It has been taken up under the technical assistance program of the World
Bank. The OSOWOG plan may also leverage the International Solar Alliance (ISA), co-founded by
India that has 80 countries as members.

37.The Correct Answer is B Since the first assembly on 3rd October 2018, ISA has initiated many
activities and programmes. For building domestic capacity of the ISA member countries programmes
such as STAR - C Programme, development of the Infopedia etc. have been launched. STAR C is a
Solar Technology Application Resource Centre project. Infopedia is an online platform dedicated to
the dissemination of information, best practices and knowledge on Solar Energy.

38.The Correct Answer is C The strategic benefits, if any, of having a single grid will be obliterated in
the wake of any geopolitical problem

39.The Correct Answer is C The headquarter of the ISA is situated in Gurugram, India.
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40.The Correct Answer is A The two beaches to receive the certification this year are Kovalam in
Kerala and Eden in Puducherry.

41.The Correct Answer is D International Coastal Clean-Up Day is observed on 18th September every
year.

42.The Correct Answer is B Spain tops the list with 566 such beaches; Greece and France follow with
515 and 395, respectively.

43.The Correct Answer is A On this occasion, India has also launched India's own eco-label BEAMS
(Beach Environment & Aesthetics Management Services) under ICZM (Integrated Coastal Zone
Management) project. This is launched by the Society of Integrated Coastal Management (SICOM)
and the Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC).

44.The Correct Answer is D Foundation for Environment Education is based in Copenhagen,

Denmark.

45.The Correct Answer is D China has proposed construction of the Peshawar-Kabul motorway as an
extension of CPEC in Afghanistan.

46.The Correct Answer is B CPEC aims to link the Western part of China (Xinjiang province) to the
Gwadar Port in Balochistan, Pakistan via Khunjerab Pass in the Northern Parts of Pakistan.

47.The Correct Answer is B CPEC can aid Pakistan's legitimacy in the Kashmir dispute. Therefore, b is
the correct answer as option b is wrong.

48.The Correct Answer is D The CPEC is bilateral project between Pakistan and China, intended to
promote connectivity across Pakistan with a network of highways, railways, and pipelines
accompanied by energy, industrial, and other infrastructure development projects linking the
Western part of China to the Gwadar Port in Balochistan, Pakistan running some 3000 km from
Xinjiang to Balochistan via Khunjerab Pass in the Northern Parts of Pakistan. It will pave the way for
China to access the Middle East and Africa from Gwadar Port, enabling China to access the Indian
Ocean and in return China will support development projects in Pakistan to overcome the latter's
energy crises and stabilizing its faltering economy. CPEC is a part of OBOR.

49.The Correct Answer is A The foremost concern with Afghanistan joining CPEC is that India is
apprehensive of its investment in Chabahar port in Iran. India is wary of undermining the India—
Iran—Afghanistan trilateral that gives Afghanistan access to sea via Chabahar port.

50.The Correct Answer is B The 2021 GII report highlights the performance of 132 economies,
documenting the changing landscape of innovation across economies and regions. India is ranked
46th in this report, marginally improving by two positions from 2020.

51.The Correct Answer is D WIPO currently has 193 member states. 190 of the UN Members as well
as the Holy See, Niue and the Cook Islands are Members of WIPO. Non-members are the states of
Kosovo, Federated States of Micronesia, Palau, South Sudan, and the states with limited recognition.
Palestine has observer status.
2022

52.The Correct Answer is D Every year World Intellectual Property Day is being celebrated on 26th
April.

53.The Correct Answer is B India ranks 1st among the 10 economies in Central and Southern Asia. a.
Switzerland, Sweden, U.S., and U.K. continue to lead the innovation ranking, and have all ranked in
the top 5 in the past three years. Five Asian economies feature in the top 15: Singapore (8), China
(12), Japan (13) and Hong Kong, China (14). Republic of Korea joined the top 5 of the GII for the first
time in 2021.

54.The Correct Answer is D Investments in innovation reached an all-time high before the pandemic
with R&D growing at an exceptional rate of 8.5% in 2019. Government budget allocations for the top
R&D spending economies showed continued growth in 2020. The publication of scientific articles
worldwide grew by 7.6% in 2020. India, Kenya, the Republic of Moldova, and VietNam hold the
record for overperforming on innovation relative to their level of development for the 11th year in a
row.

55.The Correct Answer is A Narendra Singh Tomar is the current Agriculture Minister of India.

56.The Correct Answer is D G20 does not have a permanent secretariat or headquarter.

57.The Correct Answer is C The United Nations (UN) has accepted India's proposal and declared
2023 as the International Year of Millets and urged the G20 nations to support the celebration of the
millet year to promote nutrition and sustainable agriculture.

58.The Correct Answer is D Florence Sustainability Charter was signed in the meet to strengthen
cooperation between G20 members and developing countries on food and agriculture.

59.The Correct Answer is C According to a recent report by the United Nations, the goal of achieving
Sustainable Development Goals (SDG) 2 i.e. 'Zero Hunger' has been hit in the wake of the novel
coronavirus disease (Covid-19) pandemic.

60.The Correct Answer is B Australia will acquire [1] with help from the U.K. and the U.S as a part of
the trilateral security partnership between the three countries.

61.The Correct Answer is D With new, nuclear-powered submarines, Australia will become the
seventh country in the world to operate nuclear-powered military vessels, joining the United States,
the United Kingdom, Russia, China, France, and India. Unlike these countries, Australia's submarines
will not be equipped with nuclear weapons, lacking the nuclear-tipped ballistic missiles common on
other vessels.

62.The Correct Answer is A The Five Eyes alliance is an intelligence-sharing arrangement between
five English-speaking democracies: the US, UK, Canada, Australia and New Zealand.

63.The Correct Answer is A US has only shared nuclear submarine technology once before, and it
started in 1958 with Great Britain.

64.The Correct Answer is B Scott Morrison is the current Prime Minister of Australia.
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65.The Correct Answer is A The theme of 'Connect Kara 2021' is "Towards Equitable, Sustainable
Indian Cities".

66.The Correct Answer is D About Connect Karo 2021: The Connect Karo 2021 event is being
organized by the World Resources Institute (WRI) through video conferencing. It brings together
Indian, global leaders, policymakers and other stakeholders committed to designing inclusive,
sustainable and climate forward Indian cities. It is held every year and it sees presenters from
various fields — air pollution, electric mobility, urban planning, urban water resilience, climate
mitigation, and public transit among others sharing their insights and research findings. Its theme
was 'Clean, Green & Just'. It will be on addressing critical challenges faced by Indian cities with an
emphasis on deep dive cities of Mumbai, Delhi, Kochi, Hyderabad and Bengaluru. The event also saw
the launch of a book, titled 'Guidance Note for Environmentally Sensitive, Climate Adaptive and
Socially Inclusive Urban Riverfront Planning and Development', by WRI-India for conserving the river
Ganga under the Union government's 'Namami Gange' project. Launching the book, Rajiv Ranjan
Mishra, director-general, National Mission for Clean Ganga.

67.The Correct Answer is B WRI India—established in 2011—works with local and national
governments, businesses, and civil society to address India"s development challenges. The World
Resources Institute is a global research non-profit organization established in 1982.

68.The Correct Answer is A It was established in London in 2012. It enables the policy makers of
member cities to share research and intelligence, and explores the vital role of culture in their future
prosperity.

69. (d) As there is absence of decision in the domestic law on the particular right, international
norms are to be read in harmony with fundamental rights guaranteed in the Constitution

70. (b) International conventions and norms are to b in harmony with the fundamental rights
guaranteed in the Constitution only when there is absence of enacted domestic law occupying the
fields.

71. (c) A censor must, as held in the case of Rengarajan, not hold the freedom of speech and
expression ransom, but it must be responsive to social change and go with the current climate.

72. (c) The college can according to the Faheema Shirin case only subject students to disciplinary
conditions imposed by Wardens or Matrons, and not some other conditions, such as those based on
academic performance.

73. (c) The coparcener, according to Indian Law, does not have the right to dispose of a whole
coparcenary property, as he/she has a probable share in it.

74. (d) The properties are bequeathed unto the daughters only when their father dies. Before the
death of their father, the daughters may not execute any transfer deed in relation to those
properties, as they do not own the same.

75. (b) Salmond clearly indicates that an inheritor has the rights as if the deceased is a continued
personality.
2022

76. (d) Even though Navdeep was a major, he was not competent to deal in the property he
bequeathed in the document, and, thus, the legal declaration is not fulfilled.

77. (a) Duty to care exists in regard to all those who can be foreseeably affected by the actions, and
any action or omission that leads to disregard to the harm is a breach of such duty.

78. (c) As established under constitutional torts, writ petitions along with tort cases under sovereign
function defence can lead to writ remedy as well as compensation to the wronged.

79. (a) The act of night patrolling is not a sovereign function of the police, and nuisance created
doing the same is not pardonable as per the Bombay High Court and Supreme Court ruling.

80. (d) Torts are violations of non-contractual duties, not those arising from breach of contract. in
the present case, terms and conditions are part of the contract.

81. (b) because giving the power to an individual to decide on another person's life is not desirable
because it can be misused. Both II and IV statements reflect this.

82. (c) because SC has legalized only passive euthanasia i.e. only the withholding of medical
treatment. Administering a lethal drug comes under active euthanasia which is still not legal.

83. (b) because the revocation of Advanced Directive was not complete as it was not in writing.

84. (a) because in cases where permission is refused by the Medical Board, it is open to the executor
or his family members or even the treating doctor or the hospital staff to approach the High Court.

85. (d) because the procedure is not complete unless the withdrawal is endorsed by the JMFC after
his/ her visit.

86. (d) Unless the minor furnish a public notice as required under Section 72 of the IPA specifying
that he chooses to become a full-fledged member, he continues to enjoy the rights as a minor.

87. (c) After becoming a full-fledged partner of the firm, a majority attained minor not only become
liable for the future liabilities but also the past liability of the firm from the date of his admission in
the partnership.

88. (c) A minor can be in the partnership only for the benefits of the partnership. It is specifically
stated that there should be partnership between two major partners before a minor can be
admitted to its benefits.

89. (b) The minor can be admitted in the partnership only for the benefit and the minor is not liable
for any losses.

90. (c) There was no wilful intention, as Karthik took the pen accidentally

91. (d) The exception of demand and refuse is applicable only to goods in a lien. This is conversion as
by keeping the goods Karthik interfered with rights of both Prajjwal and Shantanu.

92. (a) A conversion is an act, or complex series of acts, of wilful interference, without lawful
justification, with any chattel in a manner inconsistent with the right of another, whereby that other
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is deprived of the use and possession of it. Prajjwal had the immediate right to possess them along
with being the owner of it

93. (b) In this case, it becomes important to note that demand and refusal are not evidence of
conversion where the party has the lien upon the chattel. It means that a mere demand of the
chattel from the bailee and its refusal on the part of the bailer won't amount to the act of
conversion.

94. (b) Even after receiving the money, Animesh's refusal to return the horse amounts to conversion
as it interferes unlawfully with Suneel's rights

95. (d) All the above cases are of conversion

96. (b) As the prosecution for rape has never been started against Mohan, he cannot claim
protection against double jeopardy. Double Jeopardy requires that both prosecution and
punishment be given for an offence.

97. (c) As in the case here, the offence of murder and rape are separate offences, since only
procedure for murder has begun, and completed, the procedure for rape cases has not been started,
and thus does not hurt protection provided by Article 20.

98. (a) According to Article 65, Vice-President may take up functions of President during illness,
giving power to commute sentences under Article 72, among other functions and powers. 'Vice-
President may perform any decision for President' is greater than the scope provided by Article 65.

99. (c) Just informing them does not suffice to reasonable measure. Considering the degree of threat
an appropriate reasonable measure would be marking the areas where land mines are located.

100. (d) Simran is no longer a visitor because Raj asked her not to come back again thus revoking the
permission granted. And a visitor is only a person who is invited or permitted

101. (d) Raj is only liable to the people he has invited or permitted, those who are his lawful visitors
under occupier's liability

102. (d) All the three are correct, Raj took reasonable measures

103. (d) Remedies can be in the form of awards and injunctions, the person in possession of the land
also has the obligation and permission can be revoked

104. (d) Our speech can be a curse if it creates misunderstanding between the people. Hence, it
demands careful handling of words.

105. (b) 'A slip of tongue' means an accidental and usually a trivial mistake in speaking, but it is
totally unintentional.

106. (d) We should use simple words and common language, so that common man may understand
what we are saying.
2022

107. (d) According to the passage: Again different classes of people use different vocabularies and
the ordinary speech of an educated man may strike an uneducated listener as pompous. Therefore it
can be inferred that the educated man will be considered as arrogant by the uneducated man.

108. (c) Both 1 and 2 statements have been discussed in the second and third sentences of the
passage clearly. For promoting ecological sustainable growth, the Government of India initiates the
National Solar Mission and there is a great contribution of India to meet the challenges of climate
change. Statement 3 has not been discussed in the passage.

109. (b) Only Statement 2 is correct as India experiences very sunny days nationwide, hence solar
energy potential in India is immense.

110. (d) The first three options are not mentioned anywhere in the passage. Hence cannot be
inferred.

111. (a) According to the passage "The objective of the National Solar Mission is to establish India as
a global leader in solar energy" which implies that India is yet tap its solar potential. Nothing is
mentioned about hurdles hence cannot be inferred.

112. (b) The passage says "while addressing Indian energy security challenge." Therefore, it can be
inferred that is facing an energy crisis. Option A can be eliminated for the same reason. Option is
against the passage. Option D can be eliminated because of the last line of the passage "the policy
conditions for its diffusion across the country as quickly as possible."

113. (c) The question here asks about the view of democracy taken in passage and not the theme or
message of the passage, Thus, option (c) is the right answer since the passage has taken the view
that democracy is not an essentially a Western concept, though its institutional form has been
developed in the West.

114. (d) Statement 1 is incorrect. The passage does not go into the reasons why non-Western
countries have not been able to have democracy. Statement 2 is a/so incorrect. The passage does
not mention that Western countries always try to impose democracy, but instead talks about the
use of the word 'imposition'.

115. (c) C is in line with the second sentence of the paragraph and hence the correct answer choice.
A, B and D are only about one side (own interests) and not the other (own ways)

116. (d) is an assumption made in the following lines "There were several experiments in local
democracy in ancient India." Option A, B and C is against the passage

117. (c) weakens the claim made in the following lines: implicit assumption that democracy belongs
exclusively to the West, taking it to be a quintessentially Western' idea which has originated and
flourished only in the West. A is close, but the aid could be sanctioned by supporters of 'own
interests' and 'own ways'

118. (d) According to the First sentence, her work can be viewed three different ways. The rest of
the passage describes those ways: as the work of a modern poet, of a woman, and of a Native
American. Choice (A) is too vague, and the passage doesn't so much describe her work as how it
should be viewed. Choices (B) and (C) are too narrow and don't describe the overall purpose.
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119. (b) In the second paragraph the author states, "Mr. Wilson's praise gives the impression that
Feather's readership is limited to her own culture—an impression which hints that Mr. Wilson is
himself measuring her by only one criterion," which best its choice (B). Choices (A) contradicts the
passage and are too broad and extreme. Choice (C) contradicts the passage, and choice (D) is not
supported.

120. (d) product of a twentieth-century artist in the tradition of James Joyce, T.S. Eliot, and Wallace
Stevens." Thus, the author mentions Joyce, Eliot, and Stevens in order to describe one context—
twentieth-century poetry—in which Feather's work can be analyzed. Eliminate choice (A) because
the author doesn't compare Feather's political messages to those of these authors. Eliminate choice
(B) because the author doesn't use these authors to discuss differences between male and female
poets. Eliminate choice (C) because the author doesn't contrast Feather's themes with those of
these authors.

121. (a) and the first sentence of the passage talk about three parameters (yardsticks/ criteria) to
measure something. Hence A is the correct answer. Option B and C are not having three parameters.
Option D focuses on strategy and not on understanding of something.

122. (c) can be inferred from the closing lines of the passage (she writes of the American Indians of
the 1930s confined to ever-shrinking reservations)

123. (c) 1 can be inferred because Wilson limited Feather to just one criterion.2 can be inferred from
the lines "creating a whole new generation of poetry enthusiasts in an age when the reading of
poetry is on the wane. While this is undoubtedly true," 3 cannot be inferred. Wilson cannot be
inferred to be a radical feminist. His view is rather oblivious to the view of the latter. Hence, C is the
correct answer.

124. (c) The use of word 'only' weakens the Statement 4. Options (a) and (b) cannot be
substantiated from the passage. Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

125. (a) Mussels are generally the dominant species in intertidal ecosystem is clearly mentioned in
passage while Statement 2 cannot be inferred from i the passage. Hence, option (a) is the correct
answer.

126. (d) Sea star constitute an important component in energy flow in intertidal ecosystem as
mentioned in paragraph 1 of the passage, while statements 1 and 2 cannot be implied by the
passage. Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

127. (c) Only statements 1 and 3 are the assumptions of the passage.

128. (d) In the last paragraph, the author- discusses the difficulties inherent in measuring
intergalactic distances. He notes that scientists use a standard candle in combination with the
inverse square law to measure those distances.

129. (c) The passage states in the third paragraph that brighter objects are closer than dim objects,
so eliminate choice (A). The passage never species what scientists know about the age of
astronomical objects, so eliminate choice (B). The 1rst paragraph says that, according to Hubble's
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law, "objects farther away from Earth are receding faster than those closer." This means that the
farther object will travel faster, so choice (C) is correct.

130. (b) According to the last line in the paragraph, "By the inverse square law, galaxy B is ten times
farther away than galaxy A, assuming, of course, that distance is the only factor affecting
brightness." Therefore, if interstellar dust affects the brightness of an object, the brightness of the
object is affected, and the distance scientists measure may be inaccurate.

131. (c) According to the passage, "By the inverse square law, galaxy B is ten times farther away than
galaxy A, assuming, of course, that distance is the only factor affecting brightness." Therefore,
assuming that all other factors affecting brightness can be known, we can conclude that the brighter
of the supernovas will be closer to Earth.

132. (d) is the correct answer as A, B or C cannot be inferred from the passage.

133. (b) is the correct answer as the passage ends with "assuming, of course, that distance is the
only factor affecting brightness." So, it will be apt to discuss what might happen if there are other
contributing factor(s)

134. (b) A is a male and married to B. So, A is the husband and B is the wife. C is the brother of A. D is
the son of C. E. who is the sister of D will be the daughter of C. B is the daughter-in-law of F whose
husband has died means F is the mother of A. Clearly. E is the daughter of C.

135. (d) is the correct answer.

136. (d) The number of boys having age less than 15 years in 2011 = 1650 The number of girls having
age less than 15 years in 2015 = 1100 Therefore, respective ratio = 3:2

137. (a) The number of girls having age less than 15 years in 2009 = 1350 The number of boys having
age more than 15 years in 2009 = 4875 Therefore, required percentage = 1350/4875 * 100 = 27.69%

138. (d) Total number of boys having age more than 15 years for all the given years =28650 Total
number of girls having age more than 15 years for all the given years = 29050 Therefore, required
ratio = 573: 581

139. (c) The number of girls having age less than 15 years in 2011 = 1300 The number of girls having
age more than 15 in 2010 = 4550 Therefore, required percentage = (4550 -1300)/4550 = 71.42% less

140. (c) The total area of 4 walls = 2h (I + b)

The total cost of painting outer surface of the walls

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= 2(20 + 15) x 3 x 210

= 210 x 210

= ₹44,100

141. (b) The required ratio = 44,100: (2 x 15 + 2 x 15 + 2 x 25 + 2 x 17 + 2 x 13) x 3 x 150

= 44100 : 76500

= 441 : 765

= 49 : 85

142. (a) Since only outer surface are painted with costly paint, so by painting the outer surface with
lower cost paint, total amount the owner could have saved

= 60 x 210 = ₹12,600

143. (a) The total increase in the total cost of painting = 100 x 150 ₹15000

144. (d) Total area of walls painted = (510 + 210) sq m = 720 sq m

720
∴Amount of paint required = x 2 = 288. liters
5

145. (b) The total profit of the companies C and D together

15 20
= (100) x (₹82Cr) + (100) x (₹76Cr)

= ₹ 12.3 Cr + ₹ 15.2 Cr

= ₹ 27.5 Cr

146. (a)

147. (c)
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148. (b)

149. ()

150. (d)
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