Republic of the Philippines

Department of Education
Division of Sarangani
SCIENCE 10 3rd Quarter Summative Test

Name: ___________________________Grade Level & Section: _________________

Teacher: _________________________Date: _______________ Score: _________

DIRECTION: Read the following questions carefully. Choose the correct answer and
write the LETTER ONLY on a separate ½ lengthwise sheet of paper.
1. It is a chemical substance produce in the body that affects various processes as they
regulate and balance the functioning of organs especially human reproductive system.
a. Hormone b. Gland c. Estrogen d. Progesterone
2. Part of the external female genitalia that is composed of erectile tissue.
a. Penis b. Testes c. Vagina d. Urethra
3. Controls the maturation and male characteristics
a. ovaries b. testes c. penis d. vagina
4. Secretes more progesterone for pregnancy
a. ovaries b. testes c. penis d. vagina
5. A female sex hormone responsible for production of egg cells
a. Testosterone b. Estrogen c. penis d. vagina
6. Potent androgenic hormones produce by testes, responsible for SEX DRIVE
a. Testosterone b. Estrogen c. penis d. vagina
7. A part of neuron that receives impulses and carries them toward cell body.
a. Neurons b. brain c. axon d. dendrites
8. A specialized cell designated to transmit information to other nerve cells, muscle, or
gland cells.
a. Neurons b. brain c. axon d. dendrites
9. The following are observable changes in male sex characteristics, except
a. Sperm starts to be produce
b. Growth of chest, pubic hair, and armpit hair
c. Secretion release from the prostate gland
d. Menstruation begins
10. Which of the following is NOT a hormone associated with menstrual cycle?
a. FSH b. LH c. Testosterone d. Estrogen
11. How many days are in an average menstrual cycle?
a. 14 b. 28 c. 56 d. 112
12. Which of the following are the functions of progesterone
a. Initiation of the endometrium’s secretory stage
b. Inhibition of LH and FSH production
c. Inhibition of Estrogen production
d. Basal body temperature increases

13. Which of the following function is true about (LH) luteinizing hormone?
a. Stimulation of follicle development
b. Formation and maintenance of corpus luteum
c. Thinning of Graafian follicles membrane
d. Stimulates estrogen secretion
14. Why do you think that woman may feel cramping pains in her abdomen when she is
menstruating?
a. because it is a natural occurrence when a woman is starting to have
menstruation.
b. as the menstrual period progress, a discomfort in the abdomen area is
noticeable because of a sudden gush of blood produces in the uterus.
c. the walls of the uterus (myometrium) contract to help cut off the blood supply to
the endometrium, causing it to break away from the uterus.
d. because a woman is using contraceptive pill, that is why she is experiencing
abdominal discomfort during the period of menstruation.
15. At which point in the MENSTRUAL CYCLE is a woman most fertile?
a. The most fertile period of a woman is 8 days BEFORE ovulation.
b. a woman is fertile 5 days AFTER ovulation.
c. The most fertile period of a woman is from 5 days BEFORE ovulation and 1-2
days after ovulation.
d. it will occur any time of the day in a month.
16. Which of the following symptoms indicate that a woman is about to ovulate?
I. Decrease in basal body temperature III. Thickening of cervical mucous
II. Increase in basal body temperature IV. Thinning of cervical mucus
a. I and II b. II and III c. I and III d. II and IV
17. Where are luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle stimulating hormone (FHS) produced?
a. Pituitary gland b. Hypothalamus c. cerebrum d. adrenal glands
18. A negative feedback affects the production of hormones in the menstrual cycle as
_________.
a. As the level of one substance increases the level of another substance also
increases.
b. A high level of one hormone may inhibit the production of another hormone.
c. As the level of one substance decreases the level of another substance also
decreases.
d. The level of hormones remains in regular or normal level.
19. A state reached when every part of the body functions in equilibrium with the other
part. This is attained through the regulation of the bodily functions by endocrine and
nervous system.
a. Feedback mechanism c. Homeostasis
b. Making Connections d. System response
20. Where are the follicle stimulating hormone(FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH)
produce?
a. Adrenal glands b. Anterior pituitary c. Hypothalamus d. Ovary
21. It connects all your body parts and transmits signals from one part to another. It is a
system of cells, tissues, and organs that regulates the body’s responses to internal and
external stimuli.
a. Nervous system c. Homeostasis
b. Reproductive System d. Endocrine System
22. The pathway for messages sent by the brain to the body and from the body to the
brain.
a. Nerves b. Neurons c. brain stem d. Spinal cord
23. Adrenal glands produces _________ hormone.
a. Thymosin b. Estrogen c. Adrenaline d. Insulin
24. A part of the brain that controls coordination and balance.
a. cerebrum b. cerebellum c. brain stem d. hypothalamus
25. It is important organ that controls thought, memory, emotion, touch, motor skills,
vision, breathing, temperature, hunger, and every process that regulates our body.
a. Brain b. Spinal cord c. Cerebellum d. neurons
26. Secretes more progesterone for pregnancy.
a. ovaries b. testes c. penis d. vagina
27. The pathway for messages sent by the brain to the body and from the body to the
brain.
a. Nerves b. Neurons c. brain stem d. Spinal cord
28. How does the Central Nervous System (CNS) function similar to the Central
Processing Unit (CPU) of a computer?
a. In computers, CPU is considered as the brain.
b. Like the CPU, the CNS serves as the main processing center of the system.
The main function of the CNS like the CPU is to process and integrate of
information.
c. Actually, they differ because computers are non-living things while humans are
living organisms.
d. CPU will become unserviceable once it came in contact with a computer virus,
while CNS cannot function well once the human brain will be in contact with a
COVID-19 virus.
29. CEREBRUM enable to do the following, except:
a. memory b. intelligence c. posture & balance d. language
30. The following are the functions of Nervous System, except:
a. coordinate body functions to maintain homeostasis
b. enables the body to respond to changing conditions
c. quick communications of the body by sending electro-chemical impulses
d. reproduction processes to ensure survival of human race
31. All are important factors in maintaining homeostasis in the body, except:
a. to ensure balance and bodily function b. to establish optimum condition
c. to properly grow, work and survive d. to be more susceptible to
disease
32. The sequence of bases in one DNA strand is given below. Identify the
complementary sequence of bases in the other strand of DNA.
a. T T G G G A C T C A G A
b. T T C C C A G T G A C A
c. T T A A A C G A A G C T
d. A A C C C T G A G T C T

33. Show how the DNA code translates into RNA code by placing the sequence of
bases of the DNA and RNA side by side.
a. A A C C C T G A G T C T
b. C G U U C A U G G A C U
c. C G U U C T U G G T C U
d. G C U U G A U C C A G U
34. What are the DNA nitrogenous base pairs?
a. Adenine,Uracil,Cytosine,Guanine c. Adenine, Thymine,Uracil,Guanine
b. Adenine,Thymine, Cytosine, Guanine d. Adenine, Valine, Glycine,Serine
35. What type of sugar is found in RNA?
a. fructose b. galactose c. ribose d. deoxyribose
36. All of the following are TRUE, except:
a. A gene carries information through the sequence of nitrogenous bases that
may code for RNA or amino acids in proteins.
b. replication is the copying of the DNA
c. The nitrogen bases in DNA are adenine (A), uracil (U), guanine (G) and
cytosine (C). In RNA are adenine, thymine, guanine, and cytosine..
d. the gene in the DNA is usually coded by a particular sequence of base triplet
called codons
37. The following are the causes of mutation, except:
a. radiation b. chemicals c. body homeostasis d. extreme temperatures
38. Mutations are only passed on to offspring when they happen in
a. body cells c. Mitochondria
b. reproductive cells d. Prokaryotic cells
39. If a mutation occurs in an expressed gene, it will most directly affect the structure
of a cell's
a. ATP b. proteins c. energy source d. membrane
40. What type of sugar is found in DNA?
a. Fructose b. Galactose c. Deoxyribose d. Ribose
41. Which of the following is FALSE?
a. Translocation occurs when a piece of chromosome breaks off and attaches to
another chromosome.
b. An inversion involves the breakage of a chromosome in two places in which the
resulting piece of DNA is reversed and re-inserted into the chromosomes.
c. Deletion refers to the loss of segment of DNA or chromosomes.
d. The normal genetic content of the chromosome is not affected during mutation.
42. How do errors in base pairing of the DNA change the DNA sequence that causes
mutation?
a. Different protein that is usually non-functional or with altered function will be
made.
b. Cells remain normal and can function even with gene mutations.
c. Cell mutations can contribute to optimal functioning of an organism.
d. Mutation does not alter the normal functioning of an organism.
43. A sex-linked disorder that is characterized by an XXY chromosome?
a. Down’s Syndrome c. Klinefelter’s Syndrome
b. Cri du chat d. Turner’s Syndrome

44. A gene mutation disorder that is caused by an extra copy of chromosome 21

(trisomy 21)?
a. Down’s Syndrome c. Klinefelter’s Syndrome
b. Cri du chat d. Turner’s Syndrome
45. Where can most of the fossils be found?
a. Sedimentary rock b. Granite rock c. Lava flows d. Black soil
46. Which of the following statements DOES NOT describe evolution?
a. Evolution is continuous. c. The world is stable and unchanging.
b. Evolution refers to change. d. If there is mutation, there is evolution.
47. Which pairs of animals show a correct example of homologous structures?
a. Wings of butterfly and bat. c. Human finger and starfish arm
b. whale Flipper and cat forelimb. d. frog tongue and proboscis of
mosquito.
48. In what Era can the oldest fossils be found?
a. Cenozoic b. Mesozoic c. Paleozoic d. Pre-Cambrian
49. Which of the following statements best explains the Theory of Natural Selection?
a. Organs that are not used may disappear while organs that are constantly used
may develop.
b. In nature, the organisms with desirable characteristics may survive while those
with weaker traits may not.
c. Organisms develop desirable structures to survive in a given environment.
d. Acquired characteristics of parents can be passed on to offspring.
50. Using fossil record as a guide. The following are the theories develop by Jean
Baptiste de Lamarck, except
a. Theory of catastrophism c. Theory of Need
b. Theory of Use and Disuse d. Theory of Acquired Characteristics
51. A theory proposed by Charles Darwin that organisms adapt to its environment
and change over time as a result of changes in heritable physical or behavioral
traits.
a. Theory of catastrophism c. Uniformatarianism
b. Theory of Evolution by Natural Selection d. Creationism
52. Which is more definite characteristics to show relatedness of two organisms?
a. Similarity in development c. Similarity in structure
b. Similarity in courting behavior d. Similarity in genomic DNA
53. Which of the following statement explains Lamarck’s Theory of Use and Disuse?
a. Body structures develop because they are used extensively
b. Body structures develop because they are not in use
c. Body structures develop because of competition
d. Body structures develop because of mutation
54. Which of the following statements does not show the process of adaptation?
a. Dying out of dinosaurs during Cretaceous period.
b. Certain group of birds eating different kinds of food.
c. The finches in Galapagos with different beaks.
d. A child learning to walk on his own.
55. Why do organisms with close biochemical similarities show stronger evolutionary
relationships?
a. They have varied and different ancestry.
b. They have similar patterns during their early stages of development.
c. They have a common ancestor and have the same kind of proteins.
d. They possess same vestigial structure that made their evolutionary relationship
closer.
56. If the species could produce products that is good source for consumption and it
specifically impacts the economy, this value of species is categories as:
a. Direct Economic Value
b. Indirect Economy Value
c. Aesthetic Value
d. Romantic Value
57. The following situations describe indirect economic value, except
a. Trees provide shade along the road.
b. Bamboo roots hold the soil along river banks.
c. Trees freshen the air.
d. Coconut tree is a good source of lumber.
58. Which situation below describes the Density-independent limiting factor?
a. Pollution of lakes due to chemical wastes from nearby factories.
b. Mud flow due to heavy rain.
c. Quick transmission of diseases due to crowded shelter.
d. Competition on limited water supply.
59. Which of the following statements supports the idea that extinction is necessary?
a. To give way for other organisms to develop c. To know who is the fittest
b. To let other organisms evolve and progress d. All of the above
60. All of the following statements are TRUE about biodiversity except:
a. Biodiversity benefits people in economical, ecological and aesthetical value.
b. the loss of biodiversity has nothing to do with negative human activities such as
overfishing, overhunting, and loss of habitat.
c. It affects the stability of an ecosystem: the greater the biodiversity, the more
chances that stability can be attained in an ecosystem.
d. Humans are obliged to take responsibility in maintaining a clean and healthy state
of biodiversity in an ecosystem.

.….End of Test…..