I Introduction to Reading

Comprehension
 Introduction to Reading
1 Comprehension
Before you attempt a reading comprehen-
sion, you should read the instructions given
for answering the questions carefully. You
may find the wording of the instructions dif-
ferent from that given in this book, but the
meaning they convey will be the same. Once
you become familiar with the instructions
you will realize that you actually have more
time saved for understanding and attempt-
ing the questions.
Types of Reading Comprehension
Passages
The Test for Reading Comprehension involves
reading passages of around 250-300 words
taken from published material and then an-
swering questions based on these passages.
The passages may be sourced from various
fields such as:
y Social Studies Topics: These fields in-
clude subjects such as history, geography,
political science, art, literature, philoso-
phy, music, biographies, etc.
y Socio-economic and Political Topics:
These fields include issues related to In-
dian and international politics, national
and international current events, econo-
my, etc.
Introduction to Reading Comprehension
y Physical and Biological Sciences Topics:
These include physics, biology, medicine,
and environmental issues
y Other Sources such as Literary and Aca-
demic: Stanzas from famous poems, ex-
cerpts from plays and novels, discourses
and interviews, etc.
What Is a Reading Comprehension Test?
The questions given in the Reading
Comprehension test are framed to test the
following aspects of your understanding:
y Your ability to identify the information
that is clearly given.
y Your ability to understand the implica-
tions and draw inferences.
y Your ability to understand what the au-
thor wishes to state, what his purpose
is, and what style he uses to write the
passage.
y Your ability to understand the arguments
presented in the passage and to critically
analyse them.
y Your ability to understand the central or
the main idea of the passage and to ap-
preciate the author’s point of view.
y Your ability to understand and use vocab-
ulary used in the passage through ques-
tions on synonyms, antonyms, phrases,
idioms, etc.
In other words, a reading comprehension
test tests your ability to comprehend the
passage you read by choosing the correct
and most relevant response from the op-
tions given with each question.
7
 Anatomy of Question Types
Format of Reading Comprehension
In this section, a passage is taken from a pub-
lished source followed by a series of ques-
tions based on the content of the passage.
The questions given in the reading compre-
hension section intend to test your ability to
read a passage and understand its mean-
ing; you should be able to judge the correct-
ness of your answer choice on the basis of
the information given in the passage and on
what the given information implies. There
may be instances where you find that the
information given is not factual and is con-
trary to your belief; you need to choose your
response strictly based on what is stated in
the passage. In such sections, there is no
scope for subjectivity.
All the information required to answer the
question is always present in the passage. It
may be either clearly visible or is hidden or
implied.
How to Attempt Reading Comprehension
Questions?
Many test takers find the reading compre-
hension section a hard nut to crack. We will
acquaint ourselves with every reliable tech-
nique needed for successfully cracking this
8 Introduction to Reading Comprehension
section in the following pages. Before you
familiarise yourself with the types of ques-
tions generally asked in the reading com-
prehension section, you should know what
should be your approach towards the giv-
en passage. There is no question about the
need to first read and understand the pas-
sage in order to answer the questions cor-
rectly; however, the speed at which you read
the passage is equally important.
Suppose, four passages are given and you
are able to read only two with all correct
options, you will lose 50% of marks. On the
other hand, suppose you attempt all the four
passages within the stipulated time with
half correct answers, you will still get only
50% of marks. In order to answer correctly,
you must understand or comprehend what
you read. Reading and understanding what
you read are interdependent.
If you want to improve your reading speed,
you will have to improve your comprehension
and if you want to improve your comprehen-
sion, you will have to improve your reading
speed. In short, the ideal situation will be
when you are able to attempt all the given
passages within the stipulated time with the
maximum number of correct responses. This
situation can be achieved through building
adequate speed for reading and understand-
ing through continuous practice.
What are the Different Types of Questions in
a Reading Comprehension Set?
Generally, the following types of questions
are asked.
Conventional/Regular Questions Types
1. Identify the main or central idea of the
passage and assign a suitable title to the
passage.
 Tactics―Before Reading the Paragraph
Take a mental
Activate prior Frontload Set a purpose note of what pace
knowledge vocabulary for reading you need to read
the passage

Tactics―During Reading the Paragraph

Make Use Visualize Take notes,
connections, context what you Check-out
vocabulary, Generate and adjust
i.e., clues and read, and the reading
highlight context of questions in
text-to-text; reread of rate if
words your mind
text-to-self; them you get passage is
selectively confused used.
text-to-world lengthy

Tactics―After Reading the Paragraph

Respond to the
Make a graphic Recall key concepts,
questions one by one,
organizer/summary terms and sync all of
fully assessing the
of key information that to the questions
options vis-a-vis
and related options
your mental note

Quesons based on
Inferences-based
specific informaon
quesons
given

Style-, mood-, or
Main/central idea or
viewpoint-based
tle based quesons
quesons
Convenonal or
Regular
Queson Types

2. Identify the required information directly
specified in the passage.
3. Draw inferences from the given passage.
4. Specify the style, mood, and point of
view of the author.
Banking-Specific New Types
1. Specify the meanings of difficult words
used in the passage.
2. Complete the text with a group of words/
phrases.
3. Complete the text with a suitable word.
4. Error identification.
5. Words exchange.
6. Identify the sentence in the passage.
Now, let us learn about the various question
formats for the above-mentioned types.

Introduction to Reading Comprehension 9

 Vocabulary- Questions Questions
based based on text based on
specified completion words
questions with suitable exchange
words
Questions
Questions based on
Questions
based on text identifying
based on error
completion sentence in
identification
using phrases the passage

Conventional Question Types
1. Main/Central Idea or Suitable Title
Every good passage has a central or main
idea which is stated through a sentence. The
sentence that contains the main idea that
can be anywhere in the passage. However,
there may be passages which have the main
idea that is not stated but implied.
While assigning a suitable title to a passage
having more than one paragraph, the entire
paragraph should be considered. The central
idea and the suitable title is the one around
which the author has written the passage.
Generally, questions of the following for-
mats appear in this type:
y What the author wants to say in this pas-
sage is that...
y The main idea of the passage can be best
expressed as...
y The theme of the passage is...
y The most suitable title that can be as-
signed to the passage would be...

Some Important Tips to Attempt these Questions

y Read the passage and decide what can be the subject on which the passage is based.
The subject can be a person, place, thing, an idea, or a concept.
y Identify the most relevant thing or subject discussed in the passage. It can be easily no-
ticed that either the subject is active or passive, i.e., either the subject is doing something
or something is being done related to the subject. The action will form the main verb of
the subject and will be part of the title or topic around which the passage revolves.
y Identify the references, phrases, and words which are directly or indirectly relevant
to the subject. Look out for other important words which lend significance to some
statements. These statements may be handy in determining the main idea of the pas-
sage. The words which you should take note of are ‘after all, moreover, clearly, obvi-
ously, significantly, importantly’, etc.
Then there are some other important words which may be useful in choosing correct
answers. These words are ‘always, mostly, never, possibly, definitely, unless, all, least,
without’, etc.

10 Introduction to Reading Comprehension

 Make Connecons
Connect what you read to what you already know

Infer
Use your own schema and clues from the book to understand what you read

Create Images
Create images in your mind as you read

Ask Quesons
Ask quesons to help you understand

Determine Importance
Think about the most important idea

Synthesise
Bring ideas together to make a new idea

Monitor Understanding
Check to make sure you are understanding what you read

Use Fix-up Strategies

Use strategies from your past experience when you get stuck on a word

2. Questions Requiring Specific Information Generally, questions of the following for-

Such questions test your ability to locate
visible information from the passage. The
information is always given in the passage.
Readers need to find phrases, instances, ex-
amples, words from the passage in order to
justify their answer choices. The best thing
is that you have to rely on the information
given in the passage, correct or incorrect. Do
not jump on to your own assumptions and
theories.
mats appear in this type:
y Which of the following statements is cor-
rect according to the passage?
y The author wishes to state that...
y The passage includes all the below-given
items except that...
3. Questions Asking to Draw Inferences from
the Passage:
Readers find these types of questions
the most difficult to answer because the

Introduction to Reading Comprehension 11

 information required
to answer them is not
directly visible in the
passage.
You need to look out
for hidden informa-
tion and meaning. The
readers generally make
errors in making inferences. The best way to
answer these questions is to follow the au-
thor’s ideas and thought process.
You need to rule out all the inferences that
are not possible to make.
Generally, questions of the following formats
appear in this type:
y The passage is intended to...
y It can be inferred from the passage type...
y The author probably feels type...
Some important tips to
draw the correct inference
y Think about the reasons why you are
choosing or rejecting the options.
y Relate with the author’s thought
process. Try to understand how the
author feels about the subject of the
passage.
y Identify whether the passage is
complete in itself or merely a part of
a larger text. It will help you to form
an idea of the argument of the sub-
ject being discussed.
12
4. Questions Based on Author’s Mood or
Style
These questions are designed to test your
deep understanding of human behaviour.
These questions will ask you to identify au-
thor’s style, mood, and approach towards
the subject of the passage.
y Which of the following words defines the
mood of the author?
y Which of the following is the style of the
author?
Some important tips to
attempt these questions
y Look out for words which show a
cause and effect relationship in the
passage. Some words commonly
used are ‘finally, therefore, hence,
according to’, etc.
y Look out for words used for mak-
ing comparisons and contrasts in
the passage. Some words commonly
used ‘otherwise, however, but, still’,
etc.
y Look out for words calling your at-
tention towards important aspects.
Some words commonly used are
importantly, significantly, moreover,
besides, although, etc.
Introduction to Reading Comprehension
 Reading Comprehension Sample for Traditional Questions
Directions: In the following question, a passage is given which is followed by five questions.
Each question has five options. Read the passage and the questions carefully and choose the
most suitable option.

Passage
Because our limbs are such an important component of our sense of self and identity,
amputation is typically unpleasant for patients’ emotional and psychological well-being.
Patients’ capacity to do personal, work, and leisure activities might be severely hampered
for years after an amputation, and their body satisfaction can suffer. Once a limb is sev-
ered, it ceases to be a part of the total body and becomes only a ‘part.’ Despite this, pa-
tients frequently regard this ‘portion’ as ‘theirs.’ Severance from the self is not complete
until the limb is physically removed. Indeed, the grief of losing a limb is suggested to be
similar to losing a spouse.
When it comes to amputation surgery, healthcare practitioners have noticed that some
patients are very concerned about how their limbs will be disposed of. Those who have had
limbs amputated frequently question what happened to them following surgery, highlight-
ing the ambiguity around disposal and how amputated limbs are managed after surgery.
Amputation is a surgical surgery that is growing more common, with estimates predicting
that rates would double by 2050. In the next years, the impact and ramifications of limb
disposal could affect the lives of many more people. Due to all these reasons, it is an eth-
ical issue that requires more open discussion.
Patients in the United Kingdom now have few alternatives for limb disposal after amputation.
The most prevalent way is hospital burning, although recent medical waste disposal scandals
have raised concerns about the dignity of such treatments for patients and their severed limbs.
Given the sadness that patients can feel as a result of amputation, a more dignified method of
limb disposal, as well as ethical problems surrounding disposal, is now a serious topic.
The current debate over ethical limb disposal has centred on consent problems, specif-
ically what patients feel they are consenting to when they authorise hospitals to dispose
of their limbs. A study from the Netherlands looked at the matter from the standpoint of
ownership and rights, and found that hospitals and medical experts in this situation do not
have the legal authority to dispose of limbs as the hospital chooses. Medical practition-
ers in the United Kingdom have likewise emphasised the importance of patients’ right to
choose, citing the paucity of options that patients frequently face when it comes to limb
disposal. ‘The principles of medical ethics would indicate that patients with capacity have
the liberty to select how they would wish their remains handled with,’ says Simon Marlow,
a clinician at the Royal Cornwall Hospital Trust.
However, many patients may not have the opportunity to express their preferences or re-
quests for their own body parts. In the United Kingdom, limbs are commonly disposed of

Introduction to Reading Comprehension 13

 by medical waste incineration, which is a mass, impersonal process that frequently fails to
provide people with the option of receiving ashes, for example. The absence of choice, the
issues surrounding permission, and patients’ rights to make decisions about their “lost”
limbs underscore the ethical tensions surrounding limb disposal after amputation.
1. On the basis of the views presented in
the passage, one could characterise the
author as being:
(A) Opposed to the idea of giving a pa-
tient the option of deciding what
should be done with his amputated
limb.
(B) Critical of the fact that there is no
option available to patients regarding
limp disposal in the UK.
(C) Supportive of the manner in which
limbs are disposed of currently world
over.
(D) Optimistic that surgical procedures
will improve by 2050.
(E) Evasive in his dealing with the topic
of surgical amputations.
Solution: (B)
Option (B) is correct because the main fo-
cus of the author is to analyse the practice
of disposal of the amputated limbs. In his
analysis, he says, ‘our limbs can be a crucial
part of our sense of self and identity, so am-
putation is often traumatic to the emotional
and psychological wellbeing of patients’ and
is critical of the fact that patients are not
given any choice in this regard.
2. Which of the following is the most rel-
evant inference that can be made from
author’s statement, ‘the grief of losing a
limb is suggested to be similar to losing
a spouse’?
14
(A) The spouse is commonly regarded as
the better half and is as important as
one’s part of the body.
(B) One becomes hurt when he or she
loses his or her spouse because it
might show that he or she had been
very careless.
(C) Spouses take care of the limbs of
one another and if a spouse is lost
there is no one to take care of limbs.
(D) Removal of limbs is not removed
from the self, as in the case of losing
a spouse.
(E) A spouse is considered more impor-
tant than one’s limbs.
Solution: (A)
Option (A) is correct because in human so-
ciety a spouse is considered a part of one’s
self. The author has used the poetic device
of simile to make a comparison between the
pains of losing a spouse with that of losing
a limb.
3. ‘The principles of medical ethics would
indicate that patients with capacity have
the liberty to select how they would wish
their remains handled with.’ Which of the
following best captures the sense of the
given statement in the context of the
passage?
(A) Those patients who are on the edge
of death must have all the rights to
decide what should be done with
their remains.
Introduction to Reading Comprehension
 (B) Patients trust the prevalent medical
ethics and give medical practitioners
the autonomy to decide how their
remains should be disposed of.
(C) Medical ethics is a set of written rules
that give autonomy to the patients to
decide what is to be done with their
remains.
(D) It is the surgeons and not the pa-
tients who have the right to decide
on amputated limbs as it requires
expertise.
(E) Patients should be given the freedom
to decide how their limbs should be
disposed of once they are amputated.
Solution: (E)
Option (E) is correct because the medical
ethic says that it is the patient whose limb is
amputated and he should be the sole decid-
er on how to dispose it off. The medical eth-
ics suggests so because, ‘once amputated,
the limb moves from being part of the bodily
whole, to being merely a ‘part’. Yet patients
often still consider this ‘part’ as ‘theirs’.
4. All the following statements, if true,
could be seen as supporting the main
argument in the passage, EXCEPT:
(A) All over the world, patients having a
say in deciding about the way their
limbs should be treated with.
(B) Husbands have close relationships
with their wives and take care of
them as they do so with their limbs.
(C) Healthcare practitioners the world
over have a professional approach
and know their work better than an-
yone else.
(D) Disposal of amputated body parts
should be done in more humane way
Introduction to Reading Comprehension
rather than considering them as bio-
logical waste.
(E) Not only the surgeons but also the
patients are cynical about the way
amputated limbs are disposed of.
Solution: (C)
The main argument in the passage is that pa-
tients should have the right over what once
belonged to them, i.e., their amputated limbs.
Option (C) is correct because even if true the
statement cannot be seen as supporting the
main argument because the health care pro-
fessional has nothing to do with the rights of
patients in this regard.
5. Which among the following is NOT
among the instances of the ‘ethical ten-
sion’ as mentioned in the last line of the
passage?
(A) There is no consensus among those
involved in the amputation regarding
the procedures undertaken for the
disposal of limbs.
(B) Patients around the world do not
have identical rights of deciding
about the process of disposal of their
remains.
(C) There is no choice offered to pa-
tients regarding the disposal of their
lost limbs.
(D) The UK has a standard practice of
disposing of limbs through medical
waste incineration.
(E) The patients whose limbs are ampu-
tated in the UK are satisfied with the
way their limbs are dealt with.
Solution: (D)
Option (D) is correct because UK’s practicing
such procedures is not among the indicators
mentioned in the passage.
15
2 Banking Exam Specific
New Question Types
Specify the Meanings of Difficult Words
Used in the Passage
These are vocabulary-based questions ask-
ing readers to replace specific words with
words having a similar meaning. The words
given in the options are generally close in
meaning but do not exactly mean the same.
You have to choose wisely the word which is
the closest in meaning. Many times, similar-
ly sounding or similarly appearing words are
given in the options to confuse the readers.
Complete the Text With Sentences or
Groups of Words/Phrases
These questions are designed to test the
reader’s ability to understand the coherence
of the passage. The readers may find a spe-
cific portion of the passage missing from the
passage. The blank space given for the miss-
ing part may be completed with a grammat-
ically correct sentence, clause, or merely a
group of words or phrases.
The readers need to select the most suit-
able option given to complete the missing
portion. You may find a slight variation in the
words used in the given choices. These vari-
ations can be noticed if you read the options
carefully. These slight variations in form of
prepositions, adverbs, pronouns, conjunc-
tions, or determiners can change the mean-
ing of the sentence and the passage.
Complete the Text With a Suitable Word
These questions test the reader’s ability
to use words correctly. These also test the
Banking Exam Specific New Question Types
vocabulary of the readers. In these ques-
tions, a blank space is given in the passage
for readers to fill with a suitable word.
The question is followed by four to five op-
tion choices. The choices given are generally
similar in meaning, sound, and appearance
to confuse the readers. The readers need to
select the most suitable option to fill in the
blank space.
Sometimes additional sentences with blanks
are also given with the question statement
in this type. It is done to help readers select
the most suitable word that can be used not
only in the blank in the passage but also in
the additional sentence.
Error Identification
These questions are designed to test the
grammar ability of the readers. A sentence
from the passage is taken and the readers
are asked to identify the error in it. The sen-
tence may or may not contain an error.
If there is no error the readers have to choose
the option which states that there is no er-
ror in the sentence. Generally, the sentence
contains errors related to grammar usage. It
includes errors in part of speech, determin-
ers, tenses, sentence structure, etc.
Words Exchange
This is a new type of question. Certain high-
lighted or bold words are given in one of the
sentences in the passage. The question re-
quires selecting a pair of words that is a misfit
and need to be exchanged in order to make
17
 the sentence correct. The readers are given
four pairs of options and one option with a
‘no change required’ statement. You should
read each bold word separately and decide
if it fits correctly and makes any sense. You
may or may not find any misfit word.
Identify the Sentence in the Passage
In these questions, readers are asked to
identify the sentence in the given passage for
specific information. The readers are given
option choices in form of sentence number
and they are required to pick the sentence
which provides the required information.
Following are some of the questions asked
requiring specific information.
y Which sentence in the given passage is
used by the author as an evidence for...
y Which of the following sentences in the
given passage best explains the reason
for…
y Which of the following sentences in the
given passage provides a solution to…
y Which of the following sentences in the
given passage shows the consequence of…
y Which of the following sentences in the
given passage gives examples of…

Sample Reading Comprehension for Banking-Specific Questions

Directions: In the following question a passage is given which is followed by five questions.
All the questions are framed differently. Each question has five options. Read the passage
and the questions carefully and choose the most suitable option.

Passage
Pain is your body’s alarm system. It’s a …(A)… designed to tell you that something’s gone
wrong. But being in pain,says Colin Klein, a philosopher at the Australian National University,
…(B)…. Sometimes it barks at trespassers, but other times it gets upset at the postman.
Sometimes it goes wild over nothing at all, and, on occasion, it would probably let in bur-
glars if they brought snacks. Pain is correlated with tissue damage (the stuff you need
protecting from), but the two don’t necessarily go together. If you’ve ever cut yourself but
didn’t feel the slightest twinge until you saw blood, you’ve had tissue damage without pain.
If you’ve ever felt a sting in (C) anticipation of an injection or a dentist’s drill, you’ve had
pain without tissue damage.
Part of what makes pain an effective protection mechanism also makes it inherently sub-
jective. The International Association for the Study of Pain describes it as ‘an unpleasant
sensory and emotional experience’. You wouldn’t jerk your hand back so quickly from a hot
stove if the pain was just a vaguely irritating tickle. (D) Pain can protect us because we
typically unlike it and find it emotionally distressing.
This affective dimension of pain – which we might also call its ‘interpretive’ or ‘psycholog-
ical’ character – becomes complex, especially when it intersects with gender. There’s good

18 Banking Exam Specific New Question Types

 evidence that the modern Western medical system treats men’s and women’s pain quite
differently. Women are more likely to have their pain dismissed or under-treated, often
from a very young age. That’s especially true for women of colour, whose pain receives sig-
nificantly less treatment than that of their white peers. (E) Clinicians investigate women’s
chest painless symptoms than men’s – even when women have all the classic frequently
of a heart attacks, and even though heart disease is the leading cause of death in women.
Women are also far more likely than men to have a physical illness misdiagnosed as a psy-
chiatric condition, particularly depression.

1. Which of the following words given in the
options should come at the place marked
as (A) in the above paragraph to make it
grammatically correct and meaningful?
The selected word should make the fol-
lowing two sentences contextually cor-
rect and meaningful.
I. The sudden ________ of falling made
him clutch the door frame.
II. His ironic romance, Martin Birck’s
Youth, created a __________ in 1901.
(A) feeling
(B) pain
(C) sensation
Pleasure: a feeling of happy satisfaction and
enjoyment.
Correct sentence: It’s a sensation designed
to tell you that something’s gone wrong.
2. Which of the following phrases should
fill in the blank in (B) to make it contex-
tually correct and meaningful?
(A) is a bit like having your house guard-
ed with a hyperactive terrier
(B) is a bit like having your house guard-
ed by a hyperactive terrier
(C) was a bit like having your house
guarded by a hyperactive terrier

(D) activity (D) was a bit like having your house

(E) pleasure
Solution: (C)
The correct answer is (C). No other word
except ‘sensation’ is suitable to fill in all
the three blanks given in the question. The
meaning of all the given words:
Feeling: An emotional state or reaction.
Pain: Highly unpleasant physical sensation
caused by illness or injury.
Sensation: A physical feeling or perception
resulting from something that happens to or
comes into contact with the body.
Activity: The condition in which things are
happening or being done.
guarded with a hyperactive terrier
(E) is a bit like having your house guard-
ed through a hyperactive terrier
Solution: (B)
The correct answer is (B). The passage is in
present tense. Part (B) uses the correct form
of verb ‘is’ and a correct preposition ‘by’. In
all the other options there is one or the other
error which makes them unsuitable.
3. A word is given in BOLD in (C). Choose the
word which should replace the word giv-
en in BOLD without changing the mean-
ing of the sentence.
(A) excitement

Banking Exam Specific New Question Types 19

 (B) prospect
(C) eagerness
(D) clumsiness
(E) apprehension
Solution: (E)
The correct option is (E). Option (D) is straight
away rejected. All the other three options are
synonymous but they cannot be used in the
current context.
The meaning of all the given words:
Excitement: A feeling of great enthusiasm
and eagerness.
Prospect: The possibility or likelihood of
some future event occurring.
Eagerness: Enthusiasm to do or to have
something; keenness.
Clumsiness: The quality of being awkward or
careless in one’s movements.
Apprehension: Anxiety or fear that something
bad or unpleasant will happen.
4. In the passage given, a sentence (D) is
given in BOLD. There may or may not
be an error in one part of the sentence.
Choose the part which has an error in it
as your answer. If there is no error, then
choose option (E) as your answer.
(A) Pain can protect us
(B) because we
(C) typically unlike it
(D) and find it emotionally distressing.
(E) No error
20
Solution: (C)
The correct option is (C). The use of ‘unlike’
in this part is wrong. It should be replaced
with ‘dislike’.
5. The sentence given in (E) has four words
given in BOLD. Amongst the given BOLD
words, which of the following must re-
place each other to make the sentence
contextually correct and meaningful?
(A) frequently-symptoms
(B) symptoms-cause
(C) frequently-cause
(D) investigate-symptoms
(E) No change required
Solution: (A)
The correct option is (A). On careful reading,
one could easily find that ‘frequently’ and
symptoms’ are misfits. We need to use an
adjective or an adverb after ‘less’. Frequently’
is a correct word here. And we need a noun
after the adjective ‘classic’. Symptoms’ is
a suitable word here. On exchanging these
words, we get the clear meaning of the
sentence.
Correct sentence: Clinicians investigate
women’s chest painless frequently than
men’s – even when women have all the clas-
sic symptoms of a heart attack, and even
though heart disease is the leading cause of
death in women.
Hence the correct option is (A).
Banking Exam Specific New Question Types
 Reading Comprehension Samples for Identifying the Sentence in the Passage

1. Which sentence in the given passage is used by the author as an evidence for the asser-
tion made by him?
Individual performance is highly influenced by the performance of their immediate neigh-
bours. It was determined how well individuals performed, and how much the performance
of individuals was influenced by their neighbours’ performances. Consider the following
scenario: a person has two neighbours, one of whom is seated next to him and the other
of whom is sitting 30 metres away from him or her. We evaluated the performance of all
three of our co-workers on a single day. When we were finished, we used data modelling
tools to determine the impact that these workers had on one another’s productivity. This
effect was as high as 15 per cent, which means that replacing an employee with average
performance with a person who is twice as productive will result in an increase in the
productivity of the neighbours by an average of 15 per cent.
(A) First sentence
(B) Second sentence
(C) Third sentence
(D) Fourth sentence
(E) Last sentence
Solution: (E)
In the opening sentence of the paragraph, the author asserts that there is a connection be-
tween the performance of individuals and the performance of their neighbours or neighbours’
neighbours. The evidence/fact that supports this argument is presented in the final sentence.
The remainder of the paragraph explains the methodology, or the manner in which the re-
search was conducted. Hence, the correct option is (E).

2. Which of the following sentences in the given passage best explains the reason for spill
over being more casual?
For the sake of our research, we separated employees into three categories: productive
employees, quality employees, and generalists. Productive employees were divided into
three categories: quality employees, generalists, and productive employees. Employees
who were highly productive delivered quality at the expense of speed, while employees
who were highly productive delivered quality at the expense of speed, and generalists
who produced average quality at average speed. The assignment of these employees to
teams and to specific workplaces was done at random, with no consideration for their
qualifications. These personnel were not static; rather, they were constantly moving desks
and teams (semi-randomly) in response to changes in the demand/supply environment.
Following an initial assessment of the need for these individuals, the centralised human
resource department assigned employees to their respective departments. As a result, the

Banking Exam Specific New Question Types 21

 spillover, i.e., the impact that the neighbour has on the employee’s performance, may be
less severe than we had anticipated.
(A) First sentence
(B) Second sentence
(C) Third sentence
(D) Fourth sentence
(E) Last sentence
Solution: (A)
Three lines discuss how the staff were assigned at random throughout the day. Following this,
the passage ends with the argument that the spillover is more accidental than previously
assumed. So, the explanation for the increased casualness can be attributed to the random
nature of the assignments. The best explanation for this can be found in the first sentence of
the passage. The second and third sentences do not convey the whole significance of the situ-
ation: sentence two fails to mention the first assignment, and sentence three fails to mention
the dynamic nature of the assignments. Keep in mind that we were only required to choose
one sentence. Hence, the correct option is (A).

3. Which of the following sentences in the given passage provides a solution to the problem
of toxic employees?
Employees who were both interesting and productive were unable to improve the perfor-
mance of the toxic employee, but a toxic employee was able to lower the performance
of both interesting and productive employees. Moreover, sitting with a toxic employee
increases the likelihood of the non-toxic employee being toxic by 25 per cent, and sitting
with two toxic employees increases the likelihood of one of them being dismissed by 30
per cent, according to the research. As a result, toxic personnel pose a significant hazard
to the organisation. Organizations should perform regular employee engagement surveys
in order to gain a better understanding of their employees’ attitudes toward their jobs.
These surveys are critical because they can provide early notice of toxicity within an or-
ganisation, which is critical for addressing it.
(A) First sentence
(B) Second sentence
(C) Third sentence
(D) Fourth sentence
(E) Last sentence
Solution: (D)
The passage is about the negative impact toxic employees have on their co-workers’ morale.
According to the passage, employee engagement surveys can be used as a partial solution to
the problem because they give managers early notice of toxic environments within the firm.
Hence the correct option is (D).

22 Banking Exam Specific New Question Types

4. Which of the following sentences in the given passage shows consequence of ignoring
whistleblowers?
Many managers are reluctant to look into whistle-blowing complaints because they be-
lieve the vast majority of them are frivolous, which is potentially dangerous. As a result,
the culture of quiet is reinforced, resulting in fewer tip-offs. Please keep in mind that per-
sonnel are only able to pick up on little elements of larger problems. Their investigation,
evidence collection, and presentation of cases are all hampered by a lack of available re-
sources. However, a large number of minor complaints from a variety of sources might add
up to a significant amount of information for senior management.
(A) First sentence
(B) Second sentence
(C) Third sentence
(D) Fourth sentence
(E) Last sentence
Solution: (C)
As we can see from the paragraph, the management does not investigate whistle-blowing al-
legations, i.e., they do not listen to whistle-blowers’ complaints. This is problematic because
(as a result of the consequences), the culture of silence is strengthened even further. Hence
the correct option is (C).

5. Which of the following sentences in the given passage gives examples of potential prob-
lems of ignoring whistleblowers?
Middle and senior managers will not be able to build an organisational culture that en-
courages whistleblowing on their own. They require the backing of the Board of Directors
because it is ultimately accountable for the creation and maintenance of this culture.
Potential whistle-blowers will be encouraged if their concerns are thoroughly investigated
by top management or the board of directors, and they will be discouraged if their accusa-
tions are dismissed without investigation. This is a severe problem because it increases the
likelihood that management will miss the opportunity to deal with problems before they
become unmanageable. Organizations will be better positioned to detect the next LIBOR
rate-rigging incident, improper automobile emissions scheme, or sales incentives problem
before it is too late if they create a climate and process that encourage internal problem-
raising.
(A) First sentence
(B) Second sentence
(C) Third sentence
(D) Fourth sentence
(E) Last sentence

Banking Exam Specific New Question Types 23

 Solution: (E)
Internal problem solving is synonymous with whistle-blowing. Example sentences are provid-
ed only once in this passage, in the final sentence. Hence, the correct option is (E).

6. Which of the following sentences in the given passage shows the characteristics of top
performers?
When it comes to talent management components, motivation is the most talked about
and the second most significant (after talent) major driver of job performance and, as a
result, organisational success, among the most discussed. Management attempts to in-
fluence employee behaviour through the process of motivation. It is also the motivator
who determines the amount of effort and perseverance put forth by employees. The most
successful individuals in any firm will be highly motivated and exceptionally gifted. The
science of motivation has a long history of research-based theories that have been vali-
dated. Contrary to popular belief, however, these theories are practically never applied to
real-world situations, and managers instead rely on intuition and subjective experience to
motivate employees.
(A) First sentence
(B) Second sentence
(C) Third sentence
(D) Fourth sentence
(E) Last sentence
Solution: (C)
As stated in the chapter, the most successful individuals are both extremely motivated and
exceptionally competent. Hence, the correct option is (C).

7. Select the sentence that describes the criteria for passing the mark test.
Animals that have passed the mirror or mark test include great apes and human beings, to
name a couple of examples. An ink mark is placed on the test subject’s forehead without
their awareness during the mirror test, and the test subject is then placed in front of a
mirror to see how they react. Both apes and humans will understand that they are staring
at their own reflections and will attempt to touch the foreign mark to confirm their percep-
tion. Some experts believe that dolphins, killer whales, Asian elephants, and magpies are
capable of passing the mirror test, but others are sceptical of this. Although most animals
fail this test, this has been used as an argument against the animals’ ability to be self-
aware; yet, what if we were not evaluating those creatures in the proper manner?
(A) First sentence
(B) Second sentence
(C) Third sentence
(D) Fourth sentence
(E) Last sentence

24 Banking Exam Specific New Question Types

Solution: (C)
The ability of the test participant to recognise his or her own reflection is required for the mark
or mirror test to be successful. Hence the correct option is (C).

8. Which of the following sentences in the given passage explains the advantage of univer-
sal basic income?
A universal basic income is not the best solution to the problem, and we do not believe
it is. It was submitted to the Parliament in 2021 by the Modi government under the title
“Artificial Intelligence, Automation, and the Economy,” and it recommended against the im-
plementation of universal basic income. This report advised that low-skill personnel be
trained to undertake tasks that are compatible with automation in order to prepare them
for a world where artificial intelligence is increasingly important. However, universal income
is something that can be realistically adopted within the next five to ten years in order to
cope with some of the challenges associated with automation. Rather than technological
breakthroughs, this solution is based on public policy.
(A) First sentence
(B) Second sentence
(C) Third sentence
(D) Fourth sentence
(E) Last sentence
Solution: (D)
According to the text, universal basic income can be implemented in a realistic manner with-
in the next decade to address some of the concerns associated with artificial intelligence.
The only advantage of universal basic income mentioned in the passage is that it is tax-free.
Hence, the correct option is (D).

9. Which of the following sentences in the given passage shows the need for reasonable
realistic solutions?
Assumed throughout the discussion is the inevitability of an unemployment crisis in the
future; yet, historical experiences have demonstrated that our economy is more than
capable of adjusting to structural changes of this magnitude. The only variable is the
amount of time it will take to recover, which will vary depending on the rate of change and
the concentration of losses in specific job categories. There is a very real potential that
we may be forced to make severe changes in the future, but we simply do not know what
that would entail. This emphasises the need of having sensible answers that are grounded
in the actual world rather than those that are based on science fiction. Creating a media
frenzy by talking about impossible-to-implement wild ideas is simple; finding solutions
to the social, economic, and technological concerns associated with the AI crisis, on the
other hand, is more difficult.
(A) First sentence
(B) Second sentence

Banking Exam Specific New Question Types 25

 (C) Third sentence
(D) Fourth sentence
(E) Last sentence

Solution: (C)
According to the paragraph, we require sensible solutions because we face the possibility of
having to make dramatic changes. The sentence above is the only one that provides an expla-
nation for this. Hence, the correct option is (C).

10. Select the sentence that describes the change in the political environment which is scary.
The political landscape is shifting, and citizens and dissenters are seriously considering the
idea of a police state taking over their lives. The police power that has traditionally been
utilised to control ethnic minorities is not being used to control those who hold opposing
viewpoints, as has been the case. The shift is nothing new, but the amount of growth is
alarming due to its rapidity. Both citizens and non-citizens must examine and determine
how they will be able to continue living with this spectre hanging over their heads. This
transformation has impacted everyone, including civil workers, government bureaucrats,
political leaders, and others. In an increasing number of instances, they are being com-
pelled to confront their own concerns. They must determine the lengths to which they are
willing to go in resistance to, or in opposition to, the resistance they are witnessing.
(A) First sentence
(B) Second sentence
(C) Third sentence
(D) Fourth sentence
(E) Last sentence
Solution: (B)
The passage clearly states that “the police power...differently” is an issue that is scary because
of its magnitude. Hence, the correct option is (B).

26 Banking Exam Specific New Question Types

3 Sample Formats

SBI and IBPS Exams (Bank PO/Clerical/SO) [Prelims/Mains]

Passage 1
A person’s nose is an extremely important aspect of his or her face, and it has a significant
impact on his or her appearance. While a beautiful nose improves a person’s appearance,
it can also be a cause of unending embarrassment in some ...(A).... People are under im-
mense pressure to have that ideal nose for that perfect look, thanks to fast changes in
social ideas of beauty.
Plastic surgery is more popular—and more cost-effective—than it has ever been, and ‘get-
ting under the knife’ is no longer (B) frowned upon. Millions of people all over the world
are choosing cosmetic surgery operations including blepharoplasty, stomach tucks, and
rhinoplasty.
Rhinoplasty, also known as a nose job, is a cosmetic surgery treatment that changes the
shape, size, and function of the nose. Apart from cosmetic reasons, it is also used when
a person has a congenital malformation of the nose, respiratory problems, or a failed first
rhinoplasty.
Surgical rhinoplasty is divided into two types: open rhinoplasty and closed rhinoplasty, and
it can be done under local or general anaesthesia, depending on the operation. It is a rela-
tively easy surgery that takes only an hour or two from start to finish, and there is no need
for the patient to stay in the hospital unless the situation is extremely serious.
Non-surgical rhinoplasty, in which hyaluronic acid injectable fillers are utilised to correct
depressed parts of the nose, is another option. This results in the uneven areas of the nose
being smoothed out, changing its look. It is a non-surgical method that does not require
any incisions or skin breaking. However, it is merely an (C) augmentation operation, and as
a cosmetic procedure, it does not address a person’s breathing issues.
A successful nose operation can have a significant impact on a person’s self-esteem and
lead to a life makeover. However, there are some hazards associated with the operation.
The technique includes the same dangers as any other type of surgery, from post-operative
bleeding to infection. Excessive excision of the osseo-cartilaginous framework, resulting in
disfigurement of the nose’s outer skin, has also been documented. Even delivering anaes-
thetic comes with its own set of dangers.
Despite the risks, rhinoplasty has been shown to improve people’s lives, with patients ex-
periencing an unprecedented increase in self-esteem and some finding a new perspective
on life as a result of their new appearance. The removal of much of the unpleasantness

Sample Formats 27
 connected with the previous nose—the memories of the jibes, taunts, and ridicule—is a
primary reason for such good changes in a person’s life.
As a result, the same person enters the same surroundings, but is armed with a powerful
weapon: a new and enhanced self-image. This has a positive ripple effect: their confidence
attracts social attention, which leads to even more confidence and attention. (D) Changes
like this can have a significant positive impact on a person’s personal and professional life.

1. It can be inferred from the passage that: Solution: (E)

(A) If a person wants to enhance his Option E is correct.
self-esteem, he should opt for a
3. According to the passage:
nose job.
I. Non-surgical rhinoplasty is non-inva-
(B) Tummy tuck is the most favoured
sive and corrects breathing problems.
cosmetic surgery procedure in the
II. Non-surgical rhinoplasty is inva-
world.
sive and does not correct breathing
(C) Only surgical rhinoplasty can de-
problems.
crease the size of the nose.
III. Surgical rhinoplasty is neither inva-
(D) Rhinoplasty is an extremely risky
sive nor corrects breathing problems.
procedure.
Options:
(E) None of the above.
(A) Only I
Solution: (B)
(B) Only II
In Paragraph 5, in line 5, the sentence begin-
ning with the words, “However, it is only…”, (C) Only III

states that non-surgical rhinoplasty is only (D) Only II and III

‘an augmentation procedure,’ which means it
cannot decrease the size of the nose. Thus,
it can be inferred from the passage that only
surgical rhinoplasty can decrease the size of
the nose.
2. The passage implies that:
(A) Cosmetic surgery procedures have
always been popular with people de-
sirous of beautiful bodies.
(B) Plastic surgery invariably requires a
lot of money.
(C) Plastic surgery has nowadays be-
(E) None of the above
Solution: (E)
Statement I is incorrect: Non-surgical rhino-
plasty is non-invasive, but it does not cor-
rect breathing/respiratory problems.
Statement II is incorrect: Non-surgical rhi-
noplasty is not invasive, although it is correct
that it does not correct breathing problems.
Statement III is incorrect: Surgical rhino-
plasty is invasive and it does correct breath-
ing problems.
Hence, option (E) is the correct answer.

come very cheap.

4. Which of the following is correct accord-
(D) Self-esteem and a beautiful nose are
ing to the passage?
interlinked.
(E) None of the above.

28 Sample Formats
 (A) It is not as much about the shape of 6. Which of the following words given in
the nose as the public reaction to it the options should come at the place
that makes a person feel unconfident. marked as (A) in the above paragraph
(B) Personal and professional achieve- to make it grammatically correct and
ments are nearly guaranteed with a meaningful?
new nose and its effects. (A) condition
(C) Sometimes when people want a new (B) regions
perspective on life, they opt for a (C) circumstances
new look for themselves.
(D) occurrences
(D) The nose is the most important fa-
(E) substances
cial feature and has psychological ef-
Solution: (C)
fects on people due to its shape and
The correct answer is (C). No other word ex-
size.
cept ‘circumstances’ is suitable to fill in the
(E) Surgical rhinoplasty has more takers
blank given in the question.
than closed rhinoplasty.
Solution: (A) 7. A word is given in bold in (B). Choose the
In Paragraph 7, in line 3, the sentence be- word which should replace the word giv-
ginning with the words, “A major reason…”, en in bold without changing the meaning
states that a major reason why people feel of the sentence.
unconfident is due to the ‘the memories of (A) talked
the jibes, the taunts and the ridicule’, as-
(B) criticised
sociated with their noses, and rhinoplas-
(C) prohibited
ty helps remove most of such unpleasant
(D) claimed
memories.
(E) disapproved
5. As per the contents of the passage, it is Solution: (E)
true that: The correct option is (E). Frowned means
(A) Rhinoplasty can change the lives of furrowing one’s brows in an expression indi-
people for the better. cating disapproval, displeasure, or concen-
(B) Rhinoplasty has changed the lives of tration. Disapproved also means the same.
people.
8. A word is given in bold in (C). Choose the
(C) Some people may experience such word which should be opposite in mean-
a degree of increase in their confi- ing to the word in bold.
dence that they had never before (A) Contraction
experienced. (B) Enhancement
(D) All of the above. (C) Enlargement
(E) None of the above. (D) Sophistication
Solution: (D) (E) Balancing
Option (D) is the correct answer. Solution: (A)

Sample Formats 29
 The correct option is (A). Augmentation means answer. If there is no error, then choose
the action or process of making or becoming option (E) as your answer.
greater in size or amount. Contraction means (A) Changes like this
the process of becoming smaller. (B) can has a significant positive impact
Enhancement means an increase or im- (C) on a person’s personal
provement in quality, value, or extent. (D) and professional life.
(E) No error
9. In the passage given, a sentence (D) is
Solution: (B)
given in bold. There may or may not be an
The correct option is (B). The use of ‘has’ in
error in one part of the sentence. Choose
this part is wrong. It should be replaced with
the part which has an error in it as your
‘have’.

Passage 2
At the turn of the eighteenth century, the globe ...(A)... one of the most significant advance-
ments in contemporary iron production. An iron founder named James Digby—the first of
three generations of iron founders with the same name—used coke instead of coal to heat
iron in a small village called Liverpool in Hopshire, in the Midlands. Coke had numerous ad-
vantages over coal: it was free of the (B) impurities that rendered coal unsuitable for this
use, and it was more durable than charcoal.
Prior to 1709, the rate and quantity of iron production were determined by the availability of
charcoal. As a result, most English ironworks were built in forested areas. It was also why,
with vast supplies of both lumber and iron ore, Sweden was a forerunner in the fabrication
of iron, and Europe’s biggest manufacturer in the seventeenth century. The scarcity of tim-
ber in England drove up the price of charcoal to a point where the iron industry’s viability
was in jeopardy. The English iron industry already had to compete with imports of iron from
wood-rich countries like Sweden, Russia, and North America.
In such an environment, the usage of cocaine was a godsend and was widely accepted.
Because coke could hold the weight of enormous amounts of iron ore, larger blast furnaces
could be built, bringing the cost of the fuel down even further. Because the cheaper iron
was competitive in new applications, demand for both iron and coking coal, which provided
good coke, increased.
With a large supply of coal and a scarcity of timber, mining was already a big industry in
England. Britain’s mines were producing twice as much as the rest of the globe in 1662
when William II granted the royal society its charter. However, because the industry re-
quired deep-underground coal, and because England is a rainy nation, the deeper the
shafts went, the greater the risk of flooding. This created a pressing need for mechanical
pumps, and it was this pressing demand for mechanical pumps that paved the way for the
creation of a (C) reliable steam engine.

30 Sample Formats
 It is possible that the first James Digby’s development of coke-fired iron smelting in 1709
was the beginning of the Industrial Revolution. It didn’t get off to a great start, like so many
other events that changed the course of history. More innovations in iron manufacturing
were urgently needed before the metal could meet the demands created by population
increase and other inventions.
After a careful selection of ores, the second James Digby succeeded in producing a cast
iron appropriate for the production of huge forgings in 1748. By 1779, however, the vil-
lages of Hopshire had produced half of all the iron produced in England, and more than
any other country on the planet. That was the year that the third James Digby built the
most iconic monument of the Industrial Revolution: the cast-iron bridge across the
Severn River. (D) His facilities also produced the iron boiler that powered the world’s first
steam-powered locomotive. In 1804, it made its début in South Wales, pulling a 15-ton
cargo at 5 mph down a 15-mile section of track between the Pennyclan Ironworks and the
Petermorganshire Canal.

1. Coke proved to be the best fuel for heat-
ing iron in England because:
I. Charcoal was in short supply, and
expensive.
II. High-grade coal was too deep inside
the earth to be brought out without
the possibility of flooding.
III. Coke could support large quantities
of iron ore.
(A) Only I
(B) I and III
(C) II and III
(D) I, II, and III
(E) Only II
Solution: (D)
Statement I is correct because in Paragraph
2, in line 4, the sentence beginning with the
words, ‘The alarming shortage...’, mentions
that not only was there an alarming shortage
of timber (from which charcoal is derived)
in England, charcoal was also so expensive
that it ‘threatened the very survival of the
iron industry’.
Statement II is correct because in Paragraph
4, in line 3, the sentence beginning with the
words,’ However, the kind of coal...’, states
that the kind of coal required by the industry
was ‘deep underground’ and digging deep in
a wet country like England posed the ‘prob-
lem of flooding’.
Statement III is correct because in Paragraph
3, in line 1, the sentence beginning with the
words, ‘Owing to the ability...’, states that
coke possessed the strength ‘to support the
weight of large quantities of iron ore’.
Hence, option (E) is correct.
2. According to the passage, England’s
iron industry survived its period of crisis
because:
(A) Mechanical pumps were invented to
help dig out deep-seated coal with-
out causing flooding of mines.
(B) English ironworks were shifted to
forested areas where timber was in
easy and abundant supply.

Sample Formats 31
 (C) The use of coke as an alternative to
coal and charcoal saved the iron in-
dustry from collapse.
(D) The second James Digby’s success at
making a cast iron that was suitable
for the manufacture of large forgings.
(E) The sudden increase in demand lo-
cally and internationally gave the in-
dustry the much-needed fillip.
Solution: (C)
In Paragraph 2, in line 4, the sentence be-
ginning with the words, ‘The alarming short-
age...’, mentions the ‘shortage of timber’
(from which charcoal is derived) in England.
In Paragraph 4, in line 3, the sentence be-
ginning with the words, ‘However, the kind
of coal...’, mentions the problems associated
with obtaining the kind of coal that met in-
dustry standards. Therefore, England faced
a problem with the procurement of both
charcoal and coal: the two commonly used
fuels for heating iron. The use of coke was,
thus, the saviour of the English iron industry.
3. The passage implies that:
(A) The use of coke in the iron indus-
try was encouraged because of high
cost of charcoal.
(B) Coke was the obvious choice for
heating iron in the absence of indus-
try-grade coal.
(C) Coke had several benefits over char-
coal and coal.
(D) The use of coke made it possible to
build bigger blast furnaces, thereby
making the process of iron produc-
tion more economical.
(E) All the above.
Solution: (E)
Option (E) is the correct answer. All the giv-
en options correctly imply what the passage
states.
32
4. It can be inferred from the passage that:
(A) The steam locomotive industry owes
its birth to the mining industry.
(B) The James Digby family was single-
handedly responsible for breathing
new life into the tottering English
iron industry.
(C) Before coke was used to replace coal,
coal mining was the most evolved in-
dustry in England.
(D) Charcoal lost favour with iron found-
ers because of its inability to support
the weight of larger quantities of iron
ore.
(E) England imported timber from
Sweden, Russia, and North America
to fuel its industry’s needs.
Solution: (A)
Paragraph 4 makes it clear. It states that in
order to dig deep-seated industry-grade coal
without causing the flooding of the mines,
there was a pressing need for mechanical
pumps, and the need for mechanical pumps
was the reason for the invention of the
steam engine. Thus, it can be inferred that
the steam-locomotive industry derives its
origin from the coal-mining industry.
5. According to the passage it was impera-
tive for England to revive its iron industry
because:
(A) Sweden was leaving it far behind
in the race for iron production and
had captured a lion’s share of the
European market.
(B) England’s vast reserves of coal need-
ed to be put to productive use, and
with the invention of mechanical
pumps, it was not possible to pro-
cure deep-seated coal of high quality.
Sample Formats
 (C) With the introduction of coke as
a fuel for the heating iron, and its
many advantages over coal and char-
coal, there was a ray of hope for the
fledgling industry and it was impera-
tive that this new invention was suf-
ficiently harnessed.
(D) Iron was necessary for the building
of ships, and it was the shipping in-
dustry that was the backbone of the
British Empire.
(E) None of the above.
Solution: (E)
6. Which of the following words given in the
options should come at the place marked
as (A) in the above paragraph to make it
grammatically correct and meaningful?
(A) witnessed
(B) experienced
(C) manufactured
(D) produced
(E) assembled
Solution: (A)
The correct answer is (A). No other word
except ‘witnessed’ is suitable to fill in the
blank given in the question. The complete
sentence is ‘ At the turn of the eighteenth
century, the globe witnessed one of the
most significant advancements in contem-
porary iron production’.
7. A word is given in bold in (B). Choose the
word which should replace the word giv-
en in bold without changing the meaning
of the sentence.
(A) talked
(B) criticised
Sample Formats
(C) prohibited
(D) claimed
(E) disapproved
Solution: (E)
The correct option is (E). Impurities mean
degradations. Adulterations also mean the
same.
8. A word is given in bold in (C). Choose the
word which should be opposite in mean-
ing to the word in bold.
(A) Trustworthy
(B) Encouraging
(C) Pristine
(D) Cristal
(E) Dodgy
Solution: (E)
The correct option is (E). Reliable means
consistently good in quality or performance;
able to be trusted. Dodgy means dishonest
or unreliable.
9. In the passage given, a sentence (D) is
given in bold. There may or may not be an
error in one part of the sentence. Choose
the part which has an error in it as your
answer. If there is no error, then choose
option (E) as your answer.
(A) His facilities also produced
(B) the iron boiler
(C) that powered the world’s
(D) first steam-powered locomotive.
(E) No error
Solution: (E)
The correct option is (E). There is no error in
the sentence.
33
 Others [RBI Exams (Asstt./ Grade B)/IBPS-RRB/NABARD, etc.]
Directions: In the following question, a passage is given which is followed by five questions.
Each question has five options. Read the passage and the questions carefully and choose the
most suitable option.

Passage 1
It is fair to say that the ancient competition was physically much different from the sporting
activities that we have now. Because of the violence, only free Greek men (and occasion-
ally boys) were allowed to compete in the events that were held. There were also no team
sports; instead, every sport was a one-on-one competition between men against one an-
other or against others, as they were more concerned with individual achievement. Sporting
events like javelin, running (both with and without armour), and debate were among the
activities in which the Greeks competed. Furthermore, some of the more severe sports in
which they participated included wrestling, boxing, and pankration (a form of wrestling and
boxing). Some of the activities were cruel, and you had to participate in them naked, but
the goal was to demonstrate the beauty of the human body via them. The Olympic Games,
the Pythian Games, the Isthmian Games, and the Nemean Games were the four major cy-
cles of games in ancient Greece.
When it came to sports, the Romans focused on combat shows, such as the contests
between gladiators, which were very popular during their time. Gladiatorial fighting, stage
plays, chariot races, athletic competitions, and a fake naval battle were among the events
on the programme. It is undeniable that the entertainment value of the Greek games was
primarily derived from rivalry among athletes, but the Roman games were frequently char-
acterised by the staging of combat fought to the death and involving vast numbers of hu-
man beings as well as animals.

1. In ancient Greek competitions, there 2. Examples of brutal sports were?

were individual events… (A) Cricket, wrestling
(A) Because they were concerned about (B) Boxing, hockey
individual merit. (C) Cricket, football
(B) Because stadiums were small. (D) Boxing, wrestling
(C) Because they want to reduce costs. (E) Swimming, tennis
(D) There were no rules for team sports. Solution: (D)
(E) Individual events were more Moreover, some of the more brutal sports
interesting. they embarked on where wrestling, box-
Solution: (A) ing, and pankration (a form of wrestling and
Every sport was one man against another/ boxing).
others because they were more concerned
about individual merit.

34 Sample Formats
3. Roman games were based on _______. (D) Romans liked Gladiator’s combats.
(A) Individual events (E) Greeks games depended on enter-
(B) Team games tainment value.
(C) Warlike displays Solution: (B)
(D) Stage plays The statement is not correct because Greeks
(E) Athletic games did like brutal games.
Solution: (C)
5. What is the theme of this passage?
Romans, on the other hand, based their
(A) Difference between ancient and
sports around warlike displays, most notably
modern games.
the fights amongst gladiators.
(B) Types of ancient games.
4. Which one of the following statements is (C) Purpose of ancient games.
false? (D) Aim of Raman games.
(A) Ancient competitions were different (E) Comparison; Greek–Roman sports.
from today’s competitions. Solution: (E)
(B) The Greeks do not like brutal The passage brings forth a comparative study
games. of games and sports of ancient Greece and
(C) There were main four cycles of games. Rome.

Passage 2
The majority of us get our best ideas at night. By the next morning, most of these thoughts
have vanished. In other words, if you get a brilliant thought at 1 am, write it down imme-
diately. However, do not distribute it without first altering it! On the night before my big
performance, I had a difficult time falling asleep. Something had happened during the day,
and I was enraged by the outcome of the situation. So I decided to write about the things
that were driving me crazy, but I also tried to reframe them and turn them into something
as much amusing as I possibly could.
I wasn’t confident in the material I had prepared for the show, so I threw away a portion
of it (which I had been working on for more than two weeks) and substituted jokes from
my overnight inspiration instead. In five minutes, I managed to elicit two chuckles, and the
time in between them was torture to endure. I really asked my audience to give me a break
at one point throughout my presentation, but it didn’t seem to make any difference at all.
That time I sat down and said something like, (A) “The first portion was a little new, so I
thought you guys should be aware of that,” I got the loudest laugh.

In the aftermath, the critics informed me that the new section did not function, but that it
had potential. It required additional study and refinement in order to fully realise its poten-
tial. This time, however, I was not willing to let the situation go. I was forthright and truthful
in my explanation to the critic of what had transpired. The critic requested that I deliver all
of the materials to him. He was willing to lend a hand in my time of need.

Sample Formats 35
 The following day, I had a meeting with the reviewer. To my astonishment, the majority of
the material could be salvaged. The solution to the problem was straightforward. I merely
had to delete the portion of the document that was no longer required. The vital informa-
tion was tucked away in among the superfluous words.

By Saturday, everything was in place for Sunday’s programme; all of the tickets had been
sold, and everyone had made the necessary reservations. I was getting ready to give a per-
formance, I was stressed out, and I was getting the beginnings of a cold. In the middle of
the night on Sunday, I was awake and praying to the comic gods to keep a looming illness at
bay for another 24 hours or more. I took a big breath and went through my set a few times
more than I had before. I have no recollection of falling asleep. On Sunday morning, I was
breathing through my nose for the first time in weeks! It’s a miracle!
The performance had been planned, and now it was my turn. My introduction was given by
the MC, after which I prayed to God and walked up to the stage. The lights were so bright
that they were almost blinding. Despite the fact that I was unable to distinguish my pals
who were supposed to seat in the front row, I was able to make out the red light in the
back of the bus that would flash if I went over the time limit. Even though I was anxious, I
was able to get my first laugh after two minutes of standing up. Then it was simple because
everyone was laughing as directed by the script.

1. Consider the text in bold (A). What was
the main reason for the lack of laughs
received by the author?
(A) The author did not edit the material
that she used.
(B) The material used by the author was
not funny.
(C) The funny material was thrown out
by the author.
(D) The crowd was tough.
(E) The author was nervous.
(C) The author was not nervous on
stage.
(D) The author was able to edit the orig-
inal material.
(E) The show was completely sold out.
Solution: (A)
The author was expecting to fall sick but that
did not happen.
3. Why did the author lose nervousness
during the final event?

Solution: (A) (A) The author gained confidence after

The author did not get enough time for edit-
ing and working on the material.
2. What was the miracle experienced by the
author?
(A) The author did not fall sick.
(B) The author was able to get laughs
from the edited material.
looking at the faces of her friends.
(B) The author was better prepared for
the event.
(C) The critics liked the material.
(D) The author was able to take a rest
before the event.
(E) Author gained confidence due to the
success of the material.

36 Sample Formats
Solution: (E) 5. What is the main moral that we can take
The author was nervous, to begin with. The from this passage?
author gained confidence only after the first (A) There is no substitution for pre-
laugh. The first laugh showed that the mate- paredness.
rial was successful. (B) A bush in hand is worth two in the
bushes.
4. What is the most likely source of the
(C) Never use untried material on stage.
passage?
(D) It is important to take advice from
(A) An article in the newspaper
critics.
(B) An article in the magazine
(E) Laughing helps in averting nervous-
(C) An article in the blog
ness.
(D) An article in the art and science
Solution: (A)
magazine
The author failed the first time because
(E) An article in the comedy journal
she had not prepared the material proper-
Solution: (C)
ly. She succeeded the second time because
The article appears to be a personal blog
she was able to work on and prepare the
written by the writer. The colloquial way in
material.
which the author describes everything hints
that he is a blogger.

Sample Formats 37