Professional Documents
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5 6320834577032021012
5 6320834577032021012
Edition : 2019
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Mock Test – 2 1 – 14
Mock Test – 3 1 – 14
Mock Test – 4 1 – 12
Mock Test – 5 1 – 14
Mock Test – 6 1 – 14
Mock Test – 7 1 – 12
Mock Test – 8 1 – 13
Mock Test – 9 1 – 12
Mock Test – 10 1 – 13
Mock Test – 11 1 – 14
Mock Test – 12 1 – 13
Mock Test – 13 1 – 12
Mock Test – 14 1 – 12
Mock Test – 15 1 – 13
12. A uniform electric field E exists between the plates 16. The radii of two plantes are respectively R1 and R2
of a charged condenser. A charged particle enters and and their densities are respectively 1 and 2 .
the space between the plates and perpendicular to The ratio of the acceleration due to gravity at their
E. The path of the particle between the plates is surfaces is
(a) straight line (b) parabola 1 2
(a) g1 : g2 :
(c) circle (d) hyperbola R12 R22
13. A smooth sphere is moving on a horizontal surface (b) g1 : g2 R1R2 : 12
with velocity vector 2iˆ 2jˆ immediately before it
(c) g1 : g2 R12 : R2 1
hits a vertical wall. The wall is parallel to ĵ vector
and the coefficient of restitution between the (d) g1 : g2 R11 : R2 2
sphere and the wall is e = 1/2. The velocity vector 17. A student performs an experiment to determine the
of the sphere after it hits the wall is Young's modulus of a wire, exactly 2 m long, by
Searle's method. In a particular reading, the student
(a) ˆi ˆj (b) ˆi 2ˆj
measures the extension in the length of the wire to
be 0.8 mm with an uncertainty of 0.05 mm at a load
(c) ˆi ˆj (d) 2iˆ ˆj
of exactly 1.0 kg. The student also measures the
14. A solid sphere rests on a horizontal surface. A diameter of the wire to be 0.4 mm with an uncentainty
horizontal impulse is applied at height h from of 0.01 mm. Take g = 9.8 m/s2 (exact). The Young's
centre. The sphere starts rotating just after the modulus obtained from the reading is
application of impulse. The ratio h/r will be (a) (2.0 0.3) 1011 Nm 2
F C
O
F0
Product (A) of the reaction is:
CO2H
(a)
t CO2H
O T/4 3T/4 T CO2H
mu 2mu
(a) (b) (b)
T T
4mu 3mu C – CH3
(c) (d)
3T 4T O
24. Angular acceleration of the cylinder C (mass m, CO–2
radius R) shown in figure is (all strings and pulley (c)
are ideal):
CO–2
m A CH3
(d)
m CO2H
C
27. Give the best conditions for this transformation
m
H3C O
2g 2g OCH3
(a) (b)
3R 5R
2g g H3C OCH3
(c) (d) +
R 2R (a) CH3OH, H (cat), heat
25. A solid cylinder of mass M and radius R is being (b) H2O, H+(cat.), heat
pulled along a horizontal surface on which it performs
(c) Mg, ether, CH3OH
pure rolling, by a horizontal force P applied at its
centre. For this situation, mark the correct (d) SOCl2, CH3OH
statement(s). 28. Which are not cleaved by HIO4?
I : glycerol
M.R II : ethylene glycol
III : 1, 3-propanediol
A P
IV : 2-methoxy propanol
(a) 1, II, III, IV (b) I, II
(c) II, III (d) III, IV
4 MOCK TEST 1
CH3 33. H2C = CH – CH = CH – OMe + H2C = CH – CHO
(A)
Br H (major )
29. + Nal product; SN 2
H CH3 CHO OMe
CHO
CH2 CH3
product of the reaction is :
(a) (b)
CH3
I H OMe
(a) (c) (d) OMe
H CH3 CHO
OMe
CH2 CH3
CH3
CHO
H I
(b)
H CH3 CH3
Cl + I
–
CH2 CH3 34. Cl CH2 C CH2 CH2 DMF
CH3
CH3
I CH3 product; Major product of this reaction is :
(c)
H CH3
CH3
CH2 CH3
(a) l CH2 C CH2 CH2 Cl
CH3
CH3
I H
(d)
CH3 H CH3
CH2 CH3 (b) Cl CH2 C CH2 CH2 I
30. Number of moles of MnO needed to react with 7.5
4 CH3
2
moles of SO 3
in the acidic medium is __________
CH3
31. Correct order of basic strengths of given amines is:
(a) Me2NH > MeNH2 > Me3N > NH3 (Protic solvent) (c) H 2C C CH CH2 Cl
2° 1° 3°
CH3
(b) Et2NH > Et3H > EtNH2 > NH3 (Protic solvent)
2° 3° 1° (d) Cl CH2 C CH CH2
(c) Me3N > Me2NH > Me – NH2 > NH3 (Gas phase)
CH3
(d) All are correct.
32. Compare relative stability of following resonating 35. The gas absorbs 100 J heat and is simultaneously
structure. compressed by a constant external pressure of
O O– 1.50 atm from 8 litres to 2 litre. Hence E will
+ be__________
36. A 100 watt, 110 volt lamp is connected in series with
(i) C (ii) C an electrolytic cell containing cadmium sulphate
solution. What mass of cadmium will be deposited
N N
O by the current flowing for 10 hours? (Given, Atomic
+ mass of Cd = 112.4)__________
37. Standard electrode potential (E°) for OCl– / Cl– and
(iii) C Cl– / Cl2 are respectively 0.94 V and –1.36 V. The
E° value for OCl– / Cl2 will be
N–
(a) (i) > (ii) > (iii) (b) (ii) > (i) > (iii) (a) – 0.42 V (b) –2.20 V
(c) (i) > (iii) > (ii) (d) (ii) > (iii) > (i) (c) 0.52 V (d) 1.04 V
MOCK TEST 1 5
(b) CaCO3(s)
CaO(s) + CO2(g) is __________
50. For a mixture of two volatile component A and B,
(c) C(s) O 2 (g) CO 2 (g)
vapour pressure of solution (in mm Hg) is PS = 210 –
(d) N2(g) + O2(g)
2NO(g) 120 XA where XA = mole fraction of A in liquid mixture.
43. The work function of a metal is 4.2 eV. If the Hence, PA and PB (in mm Hg) should be
radiation of 2000 A falls on the metal, then kinetic (a) 210, 120 (b) 90, 210
energy of the fastest photoelectron is (c) 110, 210 (d) 120, 210
(a) 1.66 × 10–19 J (b) 3.22 × 10–19 J
(c) 1.66 × 10–20 J (d) 3.22 × 10–18 J MATHEMATICS (SECTION – C)
44. Among NO3 , AsO33 , CO32 , ClO3 , SO32 , and BO33 7
51. Let f(x) = 3x2 – 7x + a, x > , the value of a such
ions, the non-planar species are 6
that f(x) touches its inverse f–1(x) is
(a) AsO33 , SO32 and ClO3 (a) 3 (b) – 3
(b) NO3 , SO32 and ClO3 16 49
(c) (d)
3 12
(c) CO23 , AsO33 and SO32
52. If 2f(xy) = (f(x))y + (f(y))x for all x, y R and f(1) = 3,
10
(d) NO3 , CO32 and ClO3
then the value of f(r)
r 1
45. MeMgBr + D2O
?
3 10 3 9
Which of the following is product of the above (a) (3 1) (b) (3 1)
reaction? 2 2
(a) CH3OD (b) CH3D 310 1
(c) (d) None of these
(c) CH2D2 (d) CH4 2
6 MOCK TEST 1
53. The fundamental period of the function f(x) = [x] + 1
1 2 61. sin4 x cos4 x dx
x 3 x 3 3x sin 3x 1 is:
1 tan2 x 1
1 2 (a) tan 1 c
(a) (b) 2 tan x
3 3
4 tan2 x 1
(c)
3
(d) None of these (b) tan1 c
2 tan x
1
xn 1 x 1 tan2 x 1
e , then p is equal to
p
54. If lim 1
x 1 n(x 1)
(c) tan1 c
2 2 tan x
n 1 n 1
(a) (b) 1 tan2 x 1
2 2 tan 1
(d) c
n3 n3 2 2 tan x
(c) (d)
2 2 62. If A = {a, b, c, d} and B = {1, 2, 3}, then the number
1/ x
of on-to function possible from A to B satisfying
55. xlim tan1 x is equal to
2 f a 1 is __________
(a) 0 (b) 1 63. The value of ‘a’ if the line 3x + 4y + a = 0 is a tangent
(c) – 1 (d) 2 to the circle x2 + y2 – 4x + 6y + 9 = 0 is
56. Number of solutions to x + y + z = 10 where 1 x, (a) 4 (b) –16
y, z 6 & x, y, z N __________
5
57. If f(x) is a continuous function and attains only (c) 16 (d)
2
rational values, also f(0) = 3,
then roots of equation f(1)x2 + f(3)x + f(5) = 0 are 3
64. If eccentricity of a given hyperbola is , then then
(a) imaginary (b) rational 2
(c) irrational (d) real and equal eccentricity of its conjugate hyperbola is
4
58. Let 1, 2, 3, .... be a sequence with 1 = and (a) (b) 3
3 3
sec n = sec n–1 + 2 cos n–1, n 2. Then 4 < |sec 3
n| < 6, if value of n is (c) (d) 2
5
(a) 13, 14 (b) 4, 5
(c) 15, 16 (d) 26, 27 65. If the equation of a given hyperbola is xy – 3x + 4y –
6 = 0, then the equation of its conjugate hyperbola
59. The value of the expression is
22 1 5 1 5 (a) xy – 3x + 4y – 18 = 0
sin1 sin cos cos tan tan
7 3 7
(b) xy – 3x + 4y = 0
sin–1 (cos2) is
(c) xy – 3x + 4y + 6 = 0
17
(a) 2 (b) – 2 (d) xy – 3y + 4y – 12 = 0
42
66. The system of equation |x – 1| + 3y = 4, x – |y – 1|
(c) 2 (d) none of these
21 = 2 has
x {x} (a) no solution
x 1
60. If f(x) = 1 ; then {where [ . ] and (b) a unique solution
x 1
x {x} (c) two solution
2
{ . } represents greatest integer part and fractional (d) more than two solutions
part respectively.]
67. The 1025th term in the sequence 1, 22, 4444,
(a) f(x) is continuous at x = 1 but not differentiable
88888888, ... is
(b) f(x) is not continuous at x = 1
(c) f(x) is differentiable at x = 1 (a) 29 (b) 210
(c) 211 (d) 212
(d) xlim
1
f(x) does not exist
MOCK TEST 1 7
68. If a1, a2, ..., an are positive real numbers whose 72. Equation of angle bisector of the lines
product is a fixed number c, then the minimum value 3x 4y 1 0 and 12x 5y 3 0 containing
of a1 + a2 + ... + an–1 + 2an is the point (1, 2) is
(a) n(2c) 1/n
(a) 3x 11y 4 0 (b) 99x 27y 2 0
(b) (n + 1)c1/n
(c) 3x 11y 4 0 (d) 99x 27y 2 0
(c) 2nc1/n
(d) (n + 1) (2c)1/n x2 y2
73. If a tangent of slope 2 of the ellipse 1 is
69. The remainder obtained, when 1! + 2! + 3! + ... + a2 b2
175! is divided by 15 is __________ 2 2
normal to the circle x y 4x 1 0 then the
70. Let A = {x1, x2, x3, x4, x5, x6}, B = {y1, y2, y3, y4, y5, maximum value of ab is __________
y6}. Then the number of one-one mappings from A to 74. The sequence a1, a2, a3 , ..... satisfies a1 = 19,
B such that f(xi) yi, i = 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 is__________
a9 = 99, and for all n 3, an is the arithmetic mean
71. Sum to infinite terms of the series
of the first n 1 terms. Then a2 is equal to
1 2
3 3 3
cot 1 cot 1 22 cot 1 32 .... (a) 179 (b) 99
4 4 4
is (c) 79 (d) 59
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (0.1H)
11. (26.7) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (d) 17. (b) 18. (10s) 19. (c) 20. (0.1 s)
21. (c) 22. (67 cm) 23. (c) 24. (b) 25. (d) 26. (c) 27. (a) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (3)
31. (d) 32. (a) 33. (d) 34. (b) 35. (1011J) 36. (19g) 37. (c) 38. (6.94) 39. (b) 40. (b)
41. (b) 42. (b) 43. (b) 44. (a) 45. (b) 46. (c) 47. (c) 48. (d) 49. (91) 50. (b)
51. (c) 52. (a) 53. (b) 54. (a) 55. (b) 56. (27) 57. (a) 58. (b) 59. (a) 60. (c)
61. (d) 62. (12) 63. (c) 64. (c) 65. (a) 66. (c) 67. (b) 68. (a) 69. (3) 70. (265)
71. (b) 72. (b) 73. (4) 74. (a) 75. (T, F)
8 MOCK TEST 1
EXPLANATIONS
1. Let V be the total volume of the ball and v be the 6. For a stationary observer between wall and source,
volume of ball in upper liquid. Then V – v is the volume frequency from direct source is
of lower liquid displaced.
v
Using law of floatation, we have f0
v vs
Vg v1g (V v)2g
Frequency from reflected sound is
V v1 v2 v2
v
f0
v vs
H2O
So no beats will be heard.
1
v
v A DB 1
V v 7.
v B DA 2
Hg
8. Let the intensity of individual waves be I.
Then
or V( 2 ) v(1 2 )
v 2 P
2
V 1 2 2 1
d O
Y = 2 × 10 × 0.1125 = 0.225 × 10
11 11
10. L 0.1H
i / t
[ The value of Y = 2 × 10111 in all the four options]
11. P
18. 5
2mp
& T
2m 2 4mp
2 5 10s
qpB qB 2qp B
Q R 19. In a non-uniform magnetic field both Force
and Torque are non-zero
A B
PQ, PR, QR, AQ and BR are all of 10 each. Further,,
20. Use i io 1 e R t L io io 1 e R t L
2
PQ and PR are in series, whose combination is in e
Rt L 1 L
t ln 2 0.1s
parallel with QR. Finally the three resistors are in 2 R
series across A-B. Hence, equivalent resistance 21. The potential difference across inductor and capacitor
across A-B is 26.7 have a phase difference of 180o. Hence, Esource= 400
12. The motion is two dimensional, with constant velocity – 300 = 100 V
along one direction and constant acceleration along
22. At 1st null point: x 40 2
........... 1
the other direction. Hence, path is parabolic. y 100 40 3
P Approx = 19 gm
a = I/ R2 M which is a constant.
37. 2e– + OCl– Cl– E10 = 0.9 V
After 3s,
Cl– + e– = –1.36 V
P 1
3 t 3 3
I/ R M R
2
e– + OC– Cl2
– 1 F = – 2 F 0.94 + –1 F (–1.36)
So, net velocity of point A
E03 = 2 0.94 – 1.36 = 0.52 V
3 2P
v A v 2 (R)2
I/ R 2 M
38. 2SO2 (g) O2 (g) 2SO3 (g)
OCH3 2 3 5
27.
CH3OH
2
O H PSO2 3 0.6
OH 10
3
OCH3 PO2 3 0.9
10
CH3OH
H
OCH3 5
(Acetal) PSO3 3 1.5
10
28. HIO4 will not oxidize diol from 1, 3 atom & not used 2
PSO (1.5)2
for cleavage of ether. KP 3
= 6.94
2
PSO2 PO2 (0.6)2 0.9
29. Inversion of configuration takes place.
39. 2A(g)
+ B(g)
3C(g) + D (g)
32. (1) Neutral R.S. are most stable.
2 –2x 2–x 3x x
(2) With the increase in charge separation stability
of R.S. decreases, so stability order is (3x)3 x
KC
(2 2x)2 (2 x)
i > ii > iii
[A] < [B] at equilibrium
MOCK TEST 1 11
OD
40. PCl3 Cl2
PCl5
1 0 0 45. CH3MgBr + D2O CH3D + Mg
(1 ) Br
2
46. CrO2Cl2 (chromyl chloride)
2 (1 ) 2P
Kp P O O O
1 (1 )P (1 2 )
since = 0.3 at 1 atm pressure P P P
2P 1
Kp 0 = 4 3.2 1016 8 1015
(1 2 )
50. Ps = PBo PAo PBo X A
9 0.5 0.5 P 0.5 0.5 P
91 (1 0.52 ) 0.75 Comparing it with given equation, we get
1 2 1 22 5 5
{x} x x is periodic with period 3 59. 3 7 2 3 2
3 3 7 2
3 5 18 35 17
Period of f(x) = LCM ,
2 1 2
2 2 2
3 3 3 7 6 42 42
1
x {x}
(x 1)(x n 1 xn 2 .... 1) x 1 x 1
54. lim (1 form) 60. f(x) 1
x 1
n(x 1) x 1
1 x {x}2
xn 1 x 1 xn1 xn 2 .... 1 n xn 1 1 xn 2 1 x 1 11 1
lim lim
e
lim 1
x 1 n( x 1)
e
x 1
n( x 1)
e
x 1
x 1 x 1 x 1 x 1 n Consider the function f(x) in the interval (0, 2)
((n 1) (n 2) (n 3) .... 2 1)
1 n 1 x
e n
e 2 0 x 1
f(x) 1
1 2 1 x 2
1 x 1 x 1
55. Let y xlim tan x
2
1
f(1) = 1 xlim
1 f(x) = 1
lim(cot x)
x
1 x (0° form)
continuous at x = 1
lncot 1 x form
lny xlim
x 1 sec 4 x
1
61. sin 4
x cos x
4
dx
tan4 x 1
dx
lim
x (1 x 2 )cot 1 x
Let tan x t
(1 x 2 )1 0 form
lim 0
x cot 1 x
1 t dt
1
2x 2 1
t 2 dt
lim
(1 x 2 )2 x t4 1
1
x 1 2 lim t2
x 1 x2 t2
1 x2
1
2 lim 0 1 dt 1 z
x 2x Let t z tan1 c
t 2
t 2 2 2
y = e° = 1
56. x + y + z = 10
1 t 2 1
number of solution is equal to coefficient of x10 in tan1 c
2 2t
expression
(x + x2 ........x6)3 = x3(1 – x6)3(1 – x)–3 62. No of function = 33 2 C1·23 2 C2 ·13 12
Coeff. of x7 in (1 – x6)3 (1 – x)–3
63. Distance from centre to the line should be equal to
Coeff. of x7 in (1 – 3x6)(1 – x)–3
radius
= 7 + 3 – 1C7' – 31 + 3 – 1C1 = 9C2 – 9 = 27
57. f(x) is a constant function so 6 12 a
d 2 a 6 10 a 6 10
5
f(1) = f(3) = f(5) = f(0) = 3
Now 3x2 + 3x + 3 = 0 x2 + x + 1 = 0 a 16 or 4
4n < sec 2θn < 8n - 4 for the above equation to represent a pair of lines l
= –6
2 n < | secθn | < 8n - 4
equation of conjugate hyperbola is
n = 4 4 < | sec θ4 | < 2 7 < 6 s + 2l = 0
66. The given equations are 69. 5, 6, 7, 8, ..., 175 each multiple of 15
|x – 1| + 3y = 4
and 1 2 3 4 33
x 3y 5, x 1 ...(i)
Hence, required remainder = 3.
x 3y 3, x 1 ...(ii)
70. f(xi) yi
andx – |y – 1| = 2 ie, no object goes to its scheduled place. Then
x y 1, y 1 ...(iii) number of one-one mappings
x y 3, y 1 ...(iv) 1 1 1 1 1 1
6 1
1 2 3 4 5 6
Solving Eqs. (i) and (iii), we get
x = 2, y = 1 1 1 1 1 1
6
2 3 4 5 6
no solution
= 360 – 120 + 30 – 6 + 1
Solving Eqs. (i) and (iv), we get ( x 1, y < 1)
= 265
x = 2, y = 1
no solution 71. Tn cot 1 n2 3 tan1 1
4 3
n
2
Solving Eqs. (ii) and (iii), we get 4
x = 3, y = 2 no solution ( x < 1, y 1) 1 1
tan1 n tan1 n
Solving Eqs. (ii) and (iv), we get 2 2
x = 5/2, y = 3/2 ( x < 1, y < 1) n
1 1
Sn tn tan1 n 2 tan1 2
no solution n 1
1025 term is 2 .
th 10
a3 a4 a5 .... a9 99
68. Given a1 a2 a3 ... an–1 an = c
put in equation (1)
AM GM
99 a2 179
a1 a2 ... an 1 2an
(a1 a2 ...an 1 2an )1/ n
n 75. p (~ p q) is the false means p is true & ~ p q is
= (2c)1/n[from Eq. (i)] false
a1 + a2 + ... + an–1 + 2an n(2c)1/2 p is true & both ~ p & q are false p is true & q
is flase
Hence, minimum value of a1 + a2 + ... + an–1 +2an is
n(2c)1/n.
MOCK TEST – 2
5. The minimum horizontal acceleration of the container
PHYSICS (SECTION – A) so that the pressure at the point A of the container
1. A plank of mass 12 kg is supported by two identical becomes atmospheric is (the tank is of sufficient
springs as shown in figure. The plank always remains height)
horizontal. When the plank is pressed down and
released, it performs simple harmonic motion with
time period 3 s. When a block of mass m is attached
to the plank the time period changes to 6 s. The
mass of the block is_________(kg) 2m a
m
12 kg
A
3m
3 4
(a) g (b) g
2 3
4 3
2. A string of length 2L, obeying Hooke’s law, is stretched (c) g (d) g
2 4
so that its extension is L. The speed of the transverse
6. Two rods of length L 2 and coefficient of linear
wave travelling on the string is v. If the string is further
expansion 2 are connected freely to a third rod of
stretched so that the extension in the string becomes
length L1 of coefficient of linear expansion 1 to form
4L. The speed of transverse wave travelling on the
string will be an isosceles triangle. The arrangement is supported
on the knife edge at the midpoint of L1 which is
1 horizontal. The apex of the isosceles triangle is to
(a) v (b) 2v
2 remain at a constant distance from the knife edge if
1
(c) v (d) 2 2 v L1 2 L1 2
2 (a) L (b) L 1
3. Ten tuning forks are arranged in increasing order of 2 1 2
(d) U
PV
(c) U
PV
8. A solid cylinder of mass M and radius R is connected
to a spring as shown in figure. The cylinder is placed
on a rough horizontal surface. All the parts except
M2 M1 the cylinder shown in the figure are light. If the cylinder
10 cm 30 cm is displaced slightly from its mean position and
(a) + 1 (b) – 2 released, so that it performs pure rolling back and
forth about its equilibrium position, determine the
(c) + 2 (d) – 1
time period of oscillation?
2 MOCK TEST 2
2mv 0 2Bq
(a) t (b) t
qE mv 0
M 3M
(a) 2 (b) 2
k 2k 3Bq 3mv 0
(c) t (d) t
3M mv 0 qE
(c) 2 (d) None of these
k
16. An ideal choke takes a current of 10 A when
9. The maximum number of possible interference connected to an ac supply of 125 V and 50 Hz. A
maxima for slit-separation equal to twice the pure resistor under the same conditions takes a
wavelength in Young's Double slit experiment is: current of 12.5 A. If the two are connected to an ac
(a) zero (b) five supply of 100 V and 40 Hz, then the current in series
combination of above resistor and inductor
(c) infinite (d) three
is_________(A)
10. When an unpolarised light of intensity I0 is incident
17. A stone of mass 1 kg tied to a light inextensible
on a polarizing sheet, the intensity of the light which
string of length L = 10/3 m is whirling in a circular
does not get transmitted is path of radius L in a vertical plane. If the ratio of the
(a) I0 (b) zero maximum tension in the string to the minimum
tension is 4 and if g is taken to be 10 m/s2, the
I0 I0 speed of the stone at the highest point of the circle
(c) (d)
2 4 is_________(m/s)
11. An astronomical telescope has a large aperture to 18. Two blocks of masses m1 = 2 kg and m2 = 4 kg are
(a) reduce spherical aberration moving in the same direction with speeds v1 = 6 m/
s and v2 = 3 m/s, respectively on a frictionless
(b) have low dispersion
surface as shown in figure. An ideal spring with spring
(c) have high resolution constant k = 30000 N/m is attached to the back
(d) increase span of observation side of m2. Then the maximum compression of the
12. Light is incident from a medium into air at two spring after collision will be
possible angles of incidence (i) 20° and (ii) 40°. In v1 v2
the medium, light travels 3.0 cm in 0.2 ns. The ray k
will m1 m2
(a) suffer total internal reflection in case (ii) only
(b) have partial reflection and partial transmission in (a) 0.06 m (b) 0.04 m
case (ii)
(c) 0.02 m (d) none of these
(c) have 100% transmission in case (i)
19. Consider a metal exposed to light of wavelength 600
(d) suffer total internal reflection in both cases (i)
and (ii) nm. The maximum energy of the electron doubles
when light of wavelength 400 nm is used. Find the
13. Which of the following are not electromagnetic
waves ? work function in eV.
particle X ?
CH2
HBr
(a) electron (b) -particle (b) CH 3 NH CH CCl4
C D CH3 – C – CH3 H
(X)
NH4Cl
(major)
(a) 0, 0 (b) 0, 1
End product (X) of the above reaction is:
(c) 1, 0 (d) 1, 1
22. In the middle of the depletion layer of reverse biased CH2
p-n junction, the (a) CH2 = CH – CH 2 C CH3
(a) electric field is zero (b) H2C = CH – CH = C CH3
(b) potential is maximum
CH3
(c) electric field is maximum
(d) potential is zero OH
23. A positive point charge 50 C is located in the plane (c) H2C = CH – CH2 C CH3
xy at a point with radius vector r̂0 2iˆ 3ˆj . Evaluate CH3
the electric field vector E at a point with radius vector (d) H2C = CH – CH2 – CH – CH2 OH
r 8iˆ 5ˆj , where r0 and r are expressed in meters.
CH3
(a) (1.4iˆ 2.6ˆj)kNC1 (b) (1.4iˆ 2.6ˆj)kNC1
28. Which one of the following reactions is not correct?
(c) (2.7iˆ 3.6ˆj)kNC1 (d) (2.7iˆ 3.6ˆj)kNC1 (a) PbO + 2NaOH Na2PbO2 + H2O
24. A capacitor of capacitance C 0 is charged to a
(b) PbO + 2HNO3
Pb(NO3)2 + H2O
potential V0 and then isolated. A small capacitor C
is then charged from C0, discharged and charged (c) 4BCl3 + 3LiAlH4 2B2H6 + 3AlCl3 + 3LiCl
again; the process being repeated n times. Due to
this, potential of the large capacitor is decreased to (d) Al2S3 + 12H2O Al2(SO4)3 + 12H2
V. Value of C is 29. Which of the following pairs of compounds is a pair
of enantiomers?
V
1/ n
V 1/ n
(a) C0 0 (b) C0 0 1
V V Br Br
V
n
V n
(d) C0 1 (a)
(c) C0 1
V0 V0 Cl Cl
25. In an a.c. sub-circuit (figure), the resistance R = 0.2
. At a certain instant VA – VB = 0.5 V, I = 0.5 A,
I
8A / s. Find the inductance of the (b)
t
coil_________(H)
A L R B
4 MOCK TEST 2
(c)
(a) P
Cl Cl
V
(d)
Cl Cl Cl Cl
(b) P
+ BrMgCH2CH2CH2CH2MgBr
(i) THF
30. (ii) H O 3
O
O
product; Product of the reaction is : V
O
log V
HO (CH2)3 – OH
(c)
(d) log V
HO CH – CH2 – CH3
OH log P
35. Radial probability distribution curves are the plots of
(d)
R[ 4 r 2 dr 2 ] vs distance from the nucleus. The
curve has number of maxima which is different for
HO CH2 – CH2 – CH3 different orbitals. The number of spherical nodes
31. The ratio of Kp/Kc for the reaction present in 3p orbital are_________
39. Which one of the following does not show the Iodoform 44. For the reaction NH3 OCl N2H4 Cl occurring
test?
in basic medium, the coefficient of N 2H4 in the
(a) Ethanol (b) Propan-1-ol
balanced equation is_________
(c) 2-butanol (d) Acetone
45. 100 mL of 0.1 N Na2S2O3 solution decolourised iodine
40. The IUPAC name of the following complex compound produced by the addition of x g of crystalline copper
is K2[Cr(CN)2O2(O2) NH3]
sulphate (Mol. Wt. = 250) to excess of KI solution.
(a) Potassium amminedicyanodioxoperoxochromate (VI) The value of x is_________(g)
(b) Potassium amminedioxoperoxodicyanochromate (VI) 46. In the reaction Na 2S 2O 3 + 4Cl 2 + 5H 2O
(c) dipotassium amminedicyanodioxoperoxochromate (VI) Na 2SO 4 + H 2SO 4 + 8HCl
(d) Potassium amminedicyanobis (dioxo) chromate (V) The equivalent weight of Na 2S2O 3 will be [M
NH2 O–H = Mol. wt of Na 2S 2O 3]
(a) M/4 (b) M/8
41.
(A)
NaNO2 / HCl
(B), (c) M/1 (d) M/2
(mild basic medium) (major)
47. At constant temperature of 273K, 1/V vs P are plotted
CH3 for two ideal gases A & B as shown below. Ratio of
Product (B) of this reaction is: number of moles of gas A and gas B are
CH3 gas B
1 gas A
(a) V
60°
45°
N = N – Ph P
OH
3 1
(a) (b)
1 3
(b)
1 3
(c) (d)
3 1
N=N CH3 48. Phenol is heated with chloroform and alcoholic KOH
when salicyladehyde is produced. This reaction is
OH
known as
(a) Fridel-Crafts reaction
(c) (b) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
(c) Rosenmund reaction
Ph (d) Sommelet reaction
OH
49. In the given diagram a cylinder is divided by partition
P. In compartment A, two gases O2 and O3 are in
(d) equilibrium with each other. The compartment B is
in the state of vacuum. The partition P is removed
N=N CH3
and the equilibrium tends to re-establish. Which of
42. At what temperature, will the average speed of CH4 the following is likely to be observed?
molecules have the same value, as O2 molecules
have at 300 K?
A B
(a) 300°C (b) 300 K
(c) 150°C (d) 150 K
43. When BaCrO4 is used as oxidizing agent in acidic
(a) The total pressure, pO2 pO3 , remains alters
medium, the equivalent weight of barium chromate (b) Number of moles of O3 increases
is_________ (c) Number of mole of O3 decreases
[At. wt. of Ba = 137.34; Cr = 52.0; O = 16] (d) Number of moles of O3 remains same
6 MOCK TEST 2
50. A, B, C forms compound in which C follows ccp 56. If f(x) = cosec 2x + cosec 22x + .......... + cosec 2nx
arrangement whileA occupies one third of tetrahederal
and g(x) = f(x) + cot 2nx, then xlim
0
((cos x)g(x) + (sec
2
holes and B occupies th of octahederal holes. The x)cosec x) is equal to_________
5
57. If f(x) is thrice differentiable function with f'"(x0) 0
possible formula of compound will be AnBmCl.
and
Then n + m + l = ________
Lim | f "(x 0 h) f "(x 0 h) | Lim | f "(x 0 h) | Lim | f "(x 0 h) |,
h 0 h0 h 0
2 2 2 2 x2
65. 10 C0 10 C1 10 C2 ... 10 C10 71. The domain of the function f x sin1 log2
2
(a) 220 (b) 20! is
66. Let AB be a chord of the circle x2 + y2 = r2 subtanding (c) 1,2 (d) 2, 1 1,2
a right angle at the centre, then the locus of the 72. The number of positive integral solutions of the
centroid of the triangle PAB as p moves on the circle
y3 1 y2z y2 x
is
(a) a parabola (b) a circle equation yz2 z3 1 z2 x 11
ANSWERS
1. (36 kg) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (c)
11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (4J) 15. (d) 16. (10A) 17. (10m/s) 18. (c) 19. (c) 20. (c)
21. (d) 22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (b) 25. (0.05H) 26. (d) 27. (b) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (b)
31. (d) 32. (b) 33. (b) 34. (a) 35. (1, 0) 36. (a) 37. (a) 38. (d) 39. (b) 40. (a)
41. (b) 42. (d) 43. (84.45) 44. (1) 45. (2.5g) 46. (b) 47. (d) 48. (b) 49. (c) 50. (A10B6C15)
51. (c) 52. (0) 53. (a) 54. (a) 55. (b) 56. (2) 57. (c) 58. (b) 59. (b) 60. (c)
61. (108) 62. (a) 63. (126) 64. (d) 65. (c) 66. (b) 67. (c) 68. (b) 69. (b) 70. (c)
71. (d) 72. (3) 73. (c) 74. (a) 75. (a)
8 MOCK TEST 2
EXPLANATIONS
1. Let spring constant of each spring be k, then the A L1/2 D L1/2 B
equivalent spring constant of the two spring system
in parallel is 2 k.
Without mass,
L2 L2
12
T=3s= 2
2k
With mass C
so n2 = 2n1 = 72 Hz L21 L1
(21t) L22 (2 2 t) 2 2
4. For M1 : V = – 60, m1 = – 2 4 L2 1
2 4 2
MOCK TEST 2 9
As no damping forces are present, i.e.,dW = 8t sin 2t dt 2
4 dt 2 dt
When I = 0, t = 0
2k
a 3M x I = 2A, sint2 = 1 = sin
2
dx
where v and dv a t2
dt dt 2
3 10 2 and v = 2v0
12. Speed of light in the medium 1.5 108 ms 1
0.2 109
Substituting the values in equation (1), we get
Hence, refractive index of the medium 3mv 0
t
8 qE
3 10
2
1.5 108 125
16. R 12.5 10
1 1
Now, sinic ic 30
medium air 2 V 125
XL L 2nL = 12.5
I 10
(where ic is critical angle).
Hence, total internal reflection occurs for case (ii) 2nL = 12.5
whereas partial transmission and partial reflection 12.5
occurs for case (i). or 2L = 50 0.25
13. Cosmic rays are highly energetic particles XL = 2L × n = 0.25 × 40 = 10
travelling through space.
Impedance of the circuit
14. Heat L = 0.2 H, I = 2 sin t2
Z R2 XL2 10 2
Induced e.m.f.,
dI d 100 2
E L 2 (2sin t 2 ) Current = 10 A
dt dt 10 2
= – 4 cos t2 2t 17. m = 1 kg
= 8t cos t (numerically)
2
10
L m
Work done for increasing charge dq 3
r Me Me
are mirror image and are not super imposable on
Z N
each other so are enantiomers.
OM MN ON
MOCK TEST 2 11
38. Ca(H2PO4)2·H2O·2CaSO4·2H2O
30. + BrMg – (CH2)4 – MgBr
39. OH
|
O I /OH
O CH3 CH2
2
CHI3 HCOO
Ethanol
O
Propan-1-ol does not give idoform test
O – (CH2)3
–
– C – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – MgBr
– OH
|
CHI3 CH3CH2COO
I /OH
CH3 CH CH2 CH3
2
bu tan 2 ol
O
– + ||
CHI3 CH3COO
O MgBr I /OH
OH CH3 C CH3
2
H – +
(CH2)3 – OH (CH2)3 – O MgBr acetone
or log V = log constant – log P (represents graph D) Therefore, 2BaCrO4 = 6e or BaCrO4 = 3e–
P
1
. Hence P vs V is a curve but not a straight equivalent weight of Barium chromate =
V
253.34
line. 84.45
3
35. The number of spherical node = n – l – 1
–3 –2
For 3p orbital, n – l – 1 = 3 – 1 – 1 = 1 44. NH 3 N2H4 (Oxidation)
For 3d orbital, n – l – 1 = 3 – 2 – 1 = 0
2NH3 N2H4 + 2e–
HI/Pr ed
36. CH3CH2CH2COOH
CH3–CH2 CH2–CH3
2NH3 + 2OH– N2H4 + 2H2O + 2e– ... (1)
NaOH
CH3CH2CH2COOH CH3CH2CH3
CaO
1 1
CH3MgBr O Cl Cl (Re duction)
CH3– CH2CH2 – COOH CH3CH2CH2COOMgBr
+ CH4
37. 1
O Cl + 2e– Cl–1
OH
H C O H C N OCl– + H2O + 2e Cl– + 2OH–
(in basic medium, OH– will be either in reactant side
+ NH2OH or product side)
Adding (1) and (2),
Anti phenyl aldoxime
or 2NH3 + OCl– N2H4 + H2O + Cl–
Thus the coefficient of N2H4 is one.
OH
C
45. CuSO4.5H2 O + 2Kl + CuI2 Cu2I2 + I2 + 5H2O + K2SO4
N
H
Hence equivalent weight of CuSO4.5H2O
syn phenyl ketoxime
12 MOCK TEST 2
1 2
dt dt [By partial fraction]
in O. state = +4 per atom 1 t
2
1 2t 2
49.
3O2
2O3 1 x
x n x
2t 2t
I = 2(t )dt 2(t )dt 2{t} dt n
On increasing volume reaction moves in backward 0 0 n ln2 0 ln2 n
direction.
= ln2 2x 2[ x] [x]
1
50. C = 1
1 8
A 8 56. g(x) = cosec 2x + cosec22x + ......... + cosec 2nx +
3 3
cot2nx
2 8
B 4
5 5 since cosec + cot = cot
2
A 8 B 8 C4 A10B 6C15 g(x) = cot x
3 5
lim cosx-1cotx lim secx-1 cos ecx
lim cos x + secx
cotx cosecx
= e x 0 ex 0
x 0
f(x) ; 0 x 2
cos x sin x tan2 x
lim lim
e x 0 1 cos x
e x 0 sin x(sec x 1) e0 e0 2
52. a g(x) 1 ; x
2
2x 57. Since f'"(x0) 0 and f"(x0+)f"(x0–) 0
sin 2 ; x
at x0 curve change its curvature
tangent cross the curve at x = x0
53. Using LMVT for f in [1, 2] c (1, 2),
58. |A| = –1 |adj A| = |A|3 – 1 = |A|2 = 1
f(2) f(1) |adj (adj A)| = |adj A|2 = 1
f (c) 2, f(2) f(1) 2 ... (i)
2 1 ........
f(2) 4 again LMVT in [2, 4] d [2, 4], ........
|adj (adj ....... adj A)| = 1
f(4) f(2)
f (d) 2 59. We have
42
1! . 2! . 3! ... 9! = (1) (1.2)(1.2.3)...(1.2...9)
f(4) – f(2) 4
= 19 28 37 46 55 64 73 82 91 = 230 313 55 73.
8 – f(2) 4
The perfect square divisors of that product are the
f(2) 4 ... (ii) numbers of the form
from (i) and (ii) f(2) = 4
MOCK TEST 2 13
22a 32b 52c 72d 63. By selecting any 4 digits out of 1 to 9 in 9C4 ways,
with 0 a 15, 0 b 6, 0 c 2, and 0 d 1. we can arrange them only in one way. Ans 9C4
Thus there are (16) (7) (3) (2) = 672 such numbers. 64. If units place is ‘o’ then no of ways is 9 × 8 × 7
60. Circle has (2, –1) as it's center and radius of this otherwise 8 × 8 × 7 × 4
circle is 2. total possibilities = 9 × 8 × 7 + 8 × 8 × 7 × 4
Thus, if P(x, y) be any point on it. then x [0, 4] = 56 × 41 = 2296
3 2 n2 2 2 2
x x 3x 1 65. C0 n C1 n C2 ... n Cn 2nCn
Let g(x) = g'(x) = 0 x 0, 4
100 50 100 50
20
C10
Thus g(x) is increasing in [0, 4].
18 66. Let P (r cos , r sin )
g(0) = 0, g(4) = .
25 Centroid of PAB is
18 y
Hence g(x) 0, x 0, 4 g(x) 0 x 0, 4 .
25
B (0, r)
x3 x
Thus y = , simply represents the x-axis.
100 50 P
G
A D B
X
x
O A(r, 0)
CA = CB = 2, CD = 1
r 0 r cos 0 r r sin
CD 1 G ,
cos 3 3
CA 2 3
r r cos
2
Let x 3x r r cos ... (i)
3
ACB
3
r r sin
and y 3
3y r r sin ... (ii)
1 2
ACB .22.sin 3 sq. units
2 3 Squaring and adding Eqs. 9i) and (ii), we get
(3x – r)2 + (3y – r)2 = r2
1 2 2 4
Area of sector ACB = .2 . sq. units
2 3 3 2
4 4 3 3
= 3 sq. units
3 3 1
t t 2 (AM GM)
b b c c c
61. Apply A.M. G.M. for the forms as a, , , , , 2
2 2 3 3 3
a t 1 4a.
t
b c
a 2 3 1
Here, 4a = 32
3 a b · c
2 3 6
2
b 2 3 68. DC’s of the given line is
1 2 2
ab2c 3 108 , ,
3 3 3
62. For roots to be of opposite sign
Hence, the equation of line can be point in the form
c a3
0 0 a 0,3 x2 y3 z5
a a r
1/ 3 2 / 3 2 / 3
14 MOCK TEST 2
Point is 2 r , 3 2r , 5 2r
3 3 3
1 x3 1 z3 y3 1 11 x 3 y 3 z3 10
2 4 x 0
69. x = y cos 3 = z cos 3 = k
sin n
2 4 cosec b cosec n cosec n
cos cos 1 2 n 1
1 1 1 3 ,1 3 lim __ 1 ·n
, x 0
n n n
x k y k z k
1 1 1 1 2 4
x y z k 1 cos 3 cos 3 0
0 0 0 __ 1 ·n n
0
xy + yz + zx = 0
43 7
74. We have x1 1, x2
70. Since, tan–1 x(x 1) sin1 (x 2 x 1) 32 5
2
7
1 4 3
cos1 2 sin1 (x 2 x 1)
4 3x 2 5 41 x
(x x 1) 2 x3 2
3 2x 2 7 29
3 2
1 5
Hence, (x 2 x 1)
(x x 1)
2
5 1 1 1 5 1
(c) , , (d) , , h
6 2 3 2 6 3
L
k
11. Three waves A, B and C of frequencies 1600 kHz, 5
MHz and 60 MHz respectively are to be transmitted
from one place to another. Which of the following is
the most appropriate mode of communication ?
1 kh 1 mgL k
(a) A is transmitted via space wave whereas B and (a) gL (b)
2L m 2L m
C via sky wave
(b) A is transmitted via ground wave, B via sky wave mL2 1 kh2
(c) 2 (d) gL
and C via space wave mgL kh 2L m
MOCK TEST 3 3
17. A boy is walking away from a wall at a speed of 23. The amplitude of a damped oscillator decreases to
1.0 m/s in a direction at right angles to the wall. The 0.9 time its original magnitude is 5s. In another 10 s
boy blows a whistle steadily. An observer towards it will decreases to times its original magnitude,
whom the boy is moving hears 4 beats/s. If the speed where equals
of sound is 340 m/s, the frequency of whistle (a) 0.7 (b) 0.81
is_________(Hz)
(c) 0.729 (d) 0.6
24. The total energy of a particle, executing simple
harmonic motion is
(a) x (b) x 2
Wall
(c) independent of x (d) x1/2
observer
Boy where x is displacement from the mean position.
18. An electric field is expressed as E 2iˆ 3ˆj. Find 25. A player catches a cricket ball of mass 150 g, moving
the potential difference (VA – VB) between two points at a rate of 20 ms-1. If the catching process is
A and B whose position vectors are given by completed in 0.1 s, the force of the blow exerted by
the ball on the hand of the player is equal
rA ˆi 2ˆj and rB 2iˆ ˆj 3k.
ˆ
to_________(N)
(a) – 1 V (b) 1 V
(c) 2 V (d) 3 V CHEMISTRY (SECTION – B)
19. A parallel plate air capacitor is charged to 100 V 26. In which of the following reactions 1, 3-butadiene will
and is then connected to an identical capacitor in be obtained as a major product?
parallel. The second capacitor has some dielectric
(a) Br – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – Br
(CH3 )3 COK(2 mole)
(CH3 )3 COH
mdium between its plates. If the common potential
is 20 V, the dielectric constant of the medium is
(b) HO – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – OH
Conc. H2 SO4
20. In a series RC circuit a steady state charge of 10C (d) All of these
is established in time of 10 ms. If 1 ms is the time
H
constant of the circuit and 3C is the charge at any
Ph H
instant for the growth part then the decay charge in
the circuit is 27.
NaOEt
major product
(a) qd = 3C (b) qd = 7C
Me Ph
(c) qd = – 3C (d) qd = – 7C NMe3
+
21. If the terminal speed of a sphere of gold (density Major product of this reaction is:
= 19.5 kgm-3) is 0.2 ms-1 in a viscous liquid (density
Ph Ph
= 1.5 kgm-3), find the terminal speed of a sphere of
(a) C C
silver (density = 10.5 kgm-3) of the same size in the
Ph Ph
same liquid.
Ph Ph
(a) 0.4 ms-1 (b) 0.133 ms-1
(b) C C
(c) 0.1 ms-1 (d) 0.2 ms-1 Ph Me
22. Two narrow bores of diameter 3.0 mm and 6.0 mm Ph H
are joined together to form a U-tube open at both (c) C C
ends. If the U-tube contains water, what is the
Me Ph
difference in its levels in the two limbs of the tube?
Surface tension of water at the temperature of Me Me
experiment is 7.3 × 10-2 N/m. Take the angle of (d) C C
contact to be zero and density of water to Ph OEt
be_________(mm) 1.0 × 103 kg/m3. (g = 9.8 m/s2)
4 MOCK TEST 3
28. For the diazonium ions the order of reactivity towards 35. The threshold frequency of a metal ‘M’ is 1.5 × 1015
diazo-coupling with phenol in the presence of dilute s–1. The maximum K.E. of the photoelectrons, when
NaOH is: the metal is irradiated with radiations of frequency
2.5 × 1015 s–1, would be
Me2N
+
N2 O2N N2
+
(a) 6.63 × 10–20 J (b) 1.0 × 10–19 J
(c) 6.63 × 10–19 J (d) 1.0 × 10–18 J
(I) (II)
36. The wave number of the limiting line in Lyman series
of hydrogen is 109678 cm–1. The wave number of the
+ +
CH3O N2 CH3 N2 limiting line in Balmer series of He+ would be
(a) 54839 cm–1 (b) 219356 cm–1
(III) (IV)
(c) 109678 cm–1 (d) 438712 cm–1
(a) I < IV < II < III (b) I < III < IV < II
37. Which is paramagnetic
(c) III < I < II < IV (d) III < I < IV < II (a) N2 (b) O2
29. Which of the following is correct order of mobility of (c) H2 (d) Cl2
ions in aqueous solution?
38. Vander Waal constant ‘a’ related with
(a) Be2+ < Mg2+ < Na+ < K+
(a) Attractive force between the molecules
(b) Be2+ > Mg2+ > Na+ > K+ (b) Repulsive force between the molecules
(c) Na+ > K+ > Be2+ > Mg2+ (c) Volume of the molecules
(d) Na+ < K+ < Be2+ < Mg2+ (d) Eneregy of the molecules
30. Reactivity order among atomic hydrogen (H), 39. A vessel has 6 g of oxygen at pressure p and
molecular hydrogen (H2) and nascent hydrogen ([H]) temperature 400 K. A small hole is made in it so that
is oxygen leaks out. How much oxygen leaks out if the
(a) H2 > [H] > H (b) [H] > H > H2 p
final pressure is and temperature is 300
(c) [H] > H2 > H (d) H > [H] > H2 2
31. Caesium Bromide has CsCl structure (body-centered K_________(g)
cubic type of lattice). Its density is 4.49 g/cm3. The 40. An oxide of a metal (M) contains 40% by mass of
side of the unit cell is_________(A°) oxygen. The metal (M) has a relative atomic mass
of 24. The empirical formula of the oxide is
(Given: Molar Mass of CsBr = 212.8 g/mol)
(a) M2O (b) MO
32. A 4g sample of NH4NO3 is exploded. The total volume
of gas produced at 527°C and 745 torr (c) MO2 (d) M2O3
is_________(L) 41. 20 ml of decinormal HCl solution was added to
10 ml of a decinormal AgNO 3 solution. AgCl was
1 precipitated out and the excess acid was titrated
NH4NO3 2H2O(g) N2 (g) O2 (g)
2 against a decinormal NaOH solution. The volume
of NaOH required for this back titration is
33. The wavelength of radiation emitted when an electron
in H-atom makes a transition from an energy level (a) 10 ml (b) 5 ml
with n = 3 to a level with n = 2 is_________(A°) (c) 20 ml (d) 30 ml
34. The very large increase in the rate of the reaction 42. Which of the following isomeric hydrocarbons is most
due to rise in temperature is due to acidic?
(a) lowering of activation energy
(a) (b)
(b) increase in collision frequency
(c) significant increase in the number of effective
collisions
(c) (d)
(d) increase in Arrhenius constant
MOCK TEST 3 5
43. The major product formed during the reaction of 47. Consider the following reactions:
1-methyl cyclopentene with CF3CO3H is
CH3ONa
CH3 A
CH3 CH3OH
(a) (b) H3C CH3
OH
OH C C
CH3
CH3 H2SO4
CH3 H O B
(c) (d) CH3OH
O and choose correct answer ?
OH (a) A and B both are CH3 CH C(CH3) 2
44. Among the given halides, which one will give same
product in both SN1 and SN2 reactions. HO OCH3
CH3 CH3
(I) CH3 – CH2 – CH – CH – CH3 (b) A and B both are CH3 CH C
CH3
H3CO OH
Br
CH3 CH3
(c) A = CH3 CH C ;
(II) CH3
H3CO OH
Cl
CH3
Cl
B = CH3 CH C
(III) CH3
HO OCH3
(IV) CH3 – CH – Br (d) A = CH3 CH C(CH3) 2; B = CH3 CH C(CH3)2
Et HO OCH3 H3CO OH
(a) (III) only (b) (I) & (II)
48.
(c) (III) & (IV) (d) (I), (III) & (IV)
H2 C CH3
45. In the following there are three carbon
OH
oxygen bonds are denoted by x, y and z.
Their lengths are in order. (A)
O H2 C CH2 OH
x CH CH2
H3C C O CH3
y z
(B)
(a) x = y = z (b) x < y < z
(c) x < y = z (d) z < y < x OH
CH CH3
46. A compound 'X' having molecular formula,
C4H10O gave on oxidation a ketone (C 4H 8O). (C)
Which of the following is the structure of 'X'?
(a) CH3 CH2 OH Which of the following reagent gives major product
3
"B"
(b) CH3 2 CHCH2 OH (a) H2O/H+
(b) (i) BH3/THF (ii) H2O2/OH-
(c) CH3 CH OH CH2 CH3 (c) (i) Hg(OAC)2 (ii) NaBH4
(d) All of the above
(d) CH3 3 C OH
6 MOCK TEST 3
49. Ozonolysis of C7H14 gave 2-Methyl-3-pentanone. The 57. The sum of series 84C4 + 6. 84C5 + 15. 84C6 + 20. 84C7
alkene is: + 15. 84C8 + 6. 84C9 + 84C10 is equal to
(a) 2-ethyl-3-methyl-1-butene (a) 86C10 (b) 88C10
(b) 3-ethyl-2-methyl-3-butene (c) C10
90
(d) 90C12
(c) 2,5-dimethyl-3,4-dimethylhex-3-ene
(d) 3-ethyl-2-methyl-1-butene 58. Let P =
50. How many different octahedral complexes of Co 3+
are possible using only ethylenediamine and/or 5a2 + 2bc 6 8 a2 + 6ab 3 5
Cl– ion as ligands_________ 13 8b2 - 10ac - 9 , Q = 12 - b2 6 ,
1 4 17bc
MATHEMATICS (SECTION – C) -7 5 25c 2
/2
a, b, c N. if trace(P) = trace (Q) and a, b, c are
sides of ABC with BC = a, CA = b and AB = c,
51.
/ 2
[tan x]dx, (where [.] denotes the greatest integer
then cos A is (trace (P) = sum of principal diagonal
function) is equal to elements of matrix P)
(a) irrational number (b) positive real number 79 89
(c) rational number (d) none of these (a) (b)
120 120
52. If Ai is the area bounded by |x – ai| + |y| = bi i N,
33 31
3 b (c) (d)
where a i+1 = ai bi and bi1 i , a 1= 0 and 40 40
2 2
b1= 32, then
x2 y2
(a) A3 = 64 (b) A3 = 256 59. If a tangent of slope 2 of an ellipse 1, (a, b
a2 b 2
n
8 n
4 > 0) is normal to circle x2 + y2 + 4x + 1 = 0 then area
(c) nlim
Ai
i 1 3
(32)2 (d) lim A i (16)2
n
i 1 3 of the locus of (a, b) is
(a) 64 (b) 16
53. Solution of the differential equation
(c) 8 (d) 2
2
d y dy
2
60. The numbers 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 are to be placed, one
x 2y x y 0 is
dx 2 dx per square, in the diagram shown so that the sum
of the four numbers in the horizontal row equals 21
(a) y x(c 2 x 2c1 ) (b) y x(c1 2c 2 x )
2 2 and the sum of the four numbers in the vertical column
also equals 21. In how many different ways can this
(c) y x(c 2 x 2c1 ) (d) y x(c 2 x 2c1 )
2 be done_________
1 1
(a) 2, (b) 6,
4 4 61. The locus of z if z i z i 4 is
(c) (– 6, – 2) (d) not possible (a) line segment (b) ellipse
56. The equation of the curve satisfying the differential (c) hyperbola (d) null set
equation y2(x2 + 1) = 2xy1 passing through the point
(0, 1) and having slope of tangent at x = 0 is 3, is 62. The period of the function y f x if
(a) y = x2 + 3x + 2 (b) y2 = x2 + 3x + 1
f x f x 2 2·f x 1 is_________
(c) y = x3 + 3x + 1 (d) y = x3 – 3x + 1
MOCK TEST 3 7
63. The set of values of ‘a’ if the function 69. Two small squares on a chess board are chosen at
random. Probability that they have a common side is
y cot 1 x 2 2x a
; R 0, is an on-to
2
1 1
(a) (b)
3 9
function is
1 5
(a) {1} (b) (1, ) (c) (d)
18 18
(c) [1, ) (d) R
70. The number of integral values of m for which the x
64. The value of ‘a’ if the line 2x – 3y + a = 0 is a tangent coordinate of the point of intersection of the lines
to the parabola x2 = 8y 3x + 4y = 9 and y = mx + 1 is also an integer
(a) 9 (b) 3 is_________
nx
8 8 a1/ x a1/2 x ... a1/x
(c) (d) 71. The value of lim 1 n
3 9 x n
65. The locus of point whose chord of contact subtends a a ... an
a right angle at the centre of the circle x2 + y2 = a2 (a) a1 a2 ... an (b) e 1 2
is
a1 a2 ... an
(a) x2 + y2 = 2a2 (b) x2 – y2 = a2 (c) (d) a1 a2 .... an
n
(c) x2 + y2 = 4a2 (d) xy = a2
72. A window is in the shape of rectangle surmounted by
66. The value of a semi circle. If the perimeter of the window is of fixed
30 30 30 30 30 30 30 30 length 'l' then the maximum area of the window is
... ,
0 10 1
11 2 12 20 30 l2 l2
(a) (b)
2 4 8
n
where n Cr , is l2 l2
r (c) (d)
2 8 8 4
73. A point 'P' is given on the circumference of a circle
30 30
(a) (b) of radius 'r'. The chord 'QR' is parallel to the tangent
10 15 line at 'P' the maximum area of the triangle PQR is
60 31 3 2 2 3 3 2
(c) (d) (a) r (b) r
10 4 4
30
3 2 3 2
67. The equations x – y = 2, 2x – 3y = –, 3x – 2y (c) r (d) r
8 4
= – 1 are consistent for
x 1
(a) = – 4 (b) = – 1, 4 74. The number of critical point of f x
x2
(c) = + 1 (d) = 1, – 4 is_________
1 0 1 1
68. If A and A = 8A + kI2, then k is equal to
2
1 1
cot (1 x x )dx tan xdx , then '' is
2
1 7 75. If
(a) – 1 (b) 1 0 0
ANSWERS
1. (15) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (c)
11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (1.02 eV) 16. (d) 17. (680Hz) 18. (a) 19. (b) 20. (b)
21. (c) 22. (5 mm) 23. (c) 24. (c) 25. (30M) 26. (d) 27. (c) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (d)
31. (4.3 A ) 32. (11.75L)33. (6560 A )34. (c) 35. (c) 36. (c) 37. (b) 38. (a) 39. (2g) 40. (b)
41. (a) 42. (b) 43. (c) 44. (c) 45. (b) 46. (c) 47. (c) 48. (b) 49. (a) 50. (c)
51. (a) 52. (c) 53. (c) 54. (a) 55. (b) 56. (c) 57. (c) 58. (b) 59. (d) 60. (5)
61. (b) 62. (8) 63. (a) 64. (c) 65. (a) 66. (a) 67. (b) 68. (c) 69. (c) 70. (72)
71. (d) 72. (c) 73. (b) 74. (2) 75. (2)
EXPLANATIONS
A
1. y , at point P exactly in front of S1
2 Since F P n h
2
t
yd d
x
D 2D
n F
P h
S1
6.62 10 5 5 107
y n= 5 10 21
S 6.62 10 34
y
t
9 1 T
3.
16 2
S2
t
N 1 2T
N0 2
D D
For minimum intensity, x = (2n – 1) (n 1) N
2 t
N
2
2 1 T 9
or
N
0 2 N
0 16
Putting the values, we get
500
(0.5 sin t) × 10–6 + 0.25 × 10–6 = 2 10
9
N 3
or
N0 4
0.5
0.5 sin t + 0.25 = 2 Note the special technique used in the problem.
sin t = 0 t = 0, , 2, ... mv 2A
4. NA mg cos 60
t=1s R
GM GM 1
m mv
2
R 5R 2
2GM 1
1 V
R 5
mg
10. Let T PadbEc
mgR = MR 2
Writing dimensions on both sides.
g = R
[M0L0T] = [ML–1T–2]a[ML–3]b[ML2T–2]c
g [M0L0T] = Ma+b+cL–a–3b+2cT–2a–2c
R
Thus, a + b + c = 0, – a – 3b + 2c = 0, – 2a – 2c
g
0 f 0 =0
R 2
on solving these equations, we get
0 g R
ff 0
2 R 2g 5 1 1
a ,b and c
6 2 3
7. Y 11. For ground wave propagation, the frequency range
is 530 kHz. For sky wave propagation, the frequency
range is 1710 kHz-40 MHz. For space wave
0 propagation, the frequency range is 54 MHz-4.2
v0 GHz.
R 12. The truth table of OR gate is
X
O INPUTS OUTPUTS
L R mv 0 I0 X Y Z
8. T 2R 1 0 1
v
0 1 1
1/ 2
1 GMm 2GM
E mv 2 n 1 or v n 1 1 1 1
2 R R
13. Energy of infrared radiation is less than the energy
2R 2
T R(n 1) / 2 of ultraviolet radiation. In options (a), (b) and (d),
2GM / Rn 1 2GM
energy released will be less.
T R(n 1) / 2 14. Mass number will decrease by 8(= 4 + 4 + 0) and
atomic number will decrease by 3(= 2 + 2 – 1)
9. M, R
hc
5R 15. E …(1)
600 nm
m
P
hc
O and 2E …(2)
400 nm
Solving (1) and (2) we get 1.02 eV
10 MOCK TEST 3
16. The extension developed in the string due to small
2 1
values of ‘’ is VB VA 2dx 3dy
1 2
x = h sin h
Torque about ‘O’ VB – VA = – [2(2 – 1) + 3(1 – 2)]
VB – VA = – [2 – 3] = 1 V
Hence, VA – VB = – 1 V
19. c1 = c, c2 = KC, 1 100 V
L VC = 20 V, V2 = 0
C 100 KC 0
20
kx C KC
K=4
20. qg + qd = q0 = 10C qd = 7C
mg sin 2r 2 g
21. As terminal velocity, VT where,
9
mg
density of material of the body, density of
0 = (Mg sin)L + (kx)h liquid
or 0 MgL + kh2 = (mgL + kh2) From the above equation:
Also0 = I0 = mL2 VT Ag Ag 10.5 1.5
VT Ag 0.2 0.1ms1
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), VT Au Au 19.5 1.5
mL2 = (mgL + kh2) 22. Height (h) of water column rise in the tubes:
1 kh2 2Scos
2 gL h where, S-Surface tension, Angle of
L m gr
Now
contact, density of liquid, r-radius of tube
T 2 2
1
gL
kh2
The height difference, h h1 h2 2Scos 1 1
L2 m g r r 1 2
1 1 kh 2
bt
v gL
T 2L m 23. Amplitude of damped oscillator, A A oe 2m
H –
42.
32
1
Ai (2bi )2 2(bi )2
2 48 72 80
Non aromatic
"So" Above compound is acidic.
– A i 1 2(bi 1 )2 1
Ai 2(bi )2 4
So the area from a GP series
Aromatic anion So the sum of the GP upto infinite terms
44. In III & IV No. rearrangement of C takes place so +
A1 1 8
SN1 and SN2 products are same. 2(32)2 . (32)2 sq. units
1 r 1
1 3
4
O O–
2
53. x 2 y d y2 dy 2xy dy y 2 0
2
|| |
45. CH3 C O CH3 CH3 C O CH3 dx dx dx
More stable structure Less stable structure dy
2 2xy y2
d2 y dy dx
y 2 0
dx dx x2
OH O
| || d dy d y 2
O
46. CH3 CH CH2 CH3 CH3 C CH2 CH3 y 0
dx dx dx x
y c
mechanism dx x
CH3 put y = t
2
| O3 / Zn
49. CH2 C CH CH3 HCHO
| H2O 2y dy dt
C2H5 dx dx
O 1 dt t
|| c
2 dx x
C2H5 C CH CH3
|
CH3 dt 2t
c1
dx x
/2
51. I tan(0 x) dx 2
I.F e x 2
/ 2
dx 1
x
/2
I tan x dx t c
x2 x 2
/ 2 1 dx
/2 /2
2I tan x tan x dx
/ 2
/ 2
1 dx t c
1 c2
x2 x
2I x / 2
/2
y 2 c 2 x c1
I = – /2 x2 x
3 y x(c 2 x c1 )
52. a1= 0, b1= 32, a2 = a1 + b1 48
2
54. 2x2 + y2 – 2xy – 4y + 8 = 0
b2
b1 3
16, a3 48 .16 72, b3 8 4x2 + 2y2 – 4xy – 8y + 16 = 0
2 2
(2x – y)2 + (y – 4)2 = 0
So, the three loops from i = 1 to i = 3 are alike now
2x – y = 0
1
area of i loop (square) =
th (diagonal)2 andy = 4(x, y) (2, 4)
2
MOCK TEST 3 13
55. x2 – 2x = t – 1
a1
t2 – 3t + (k + 2) = 0 a2
for four real solution t must lies in (–1, ) 60. a5 a3 a6 a7
D = 9 – 4(k + 2) > 0 a4
3 x 2 1
dy
y = x3 + 3x + 1 2· 2f x 2
dx
57. The sum of series 84C4 + 6. 84C5 + 15. 84C6 + 20. 84C7 f x f x 4 0
+ 15. 84C8 + 6. 84C9 + 84C10 f x 4 f x 8 0
= (84C4 + 84C5) + 5 (84C5 + 84C6) + 10(84C6 + 84C7)
= 10(84C7 + 84C8) + 5 (84C8 + 84C9) + (84C9 + 84C10) f x f x 8
= 85C5 + 5. 85C6 + 10. 85C7 + 10 85C8 + 5 85C9 + 85C10 63. For function to be onto range = co-domain
= ( C5 + C6)+ 4 ( C6 + C7) + 6 ( C7 + C8) + 4
85 85 85 85 85 85
a b c 3
a 2 8
2a = 3b = 5c (say) 2 a
15 10 6 3 3 3
b2 c 2 a2 100 2 36 2 225 2 89 2 89 65. Let P(h, k) be a point in the locus
cos A
2bc 2(10 )(6 ) 120 2 120
Equation of chord of constant is hx + ky = a2.
59. Equation of tangent y = 2x + 4a2 b2 Pair of lines passing through origin & points of cotact
passes (–2, 0) 4 = 4a2 b2 hx ky
2
is x 2 y 2 a2
4a2 + b2 = 16 a2
64.63 1
x (x 1)
1
64C2 32.63
tan dx [tan x tan (x 1)]dx
1 1 1
2
0 1 x(x 1) 0
1 1
70. Solving given equations we get I 2 tan1 xdx tan1xdx
0 0
5
x
3 4m 2
x is an integer, if 3 + 4m = 1, 5
MOCK TEST – 4
PHYSICS (SECTION – A) 3. A cube of side a and mass m is to be tilted at point
A by applying a Force F as shown in figure. The
1. A disc of radius R rolls without slipping at speed v minimum force required is
along positive x-axis. Velocity of point P at the
instant shown in figure is
F
y
3/4 a
P
r v
a A
2
(a) mg (b) mg
3
x 3 3
(c) mg (d) mg
2 4
4. A body is fired with a velocity of magnitude
17. A cube is compressed at 0°C equally from all sides 22. An ideal gas undergoes four different processes from
by an external pressure P. By what amount should the same initial state. Four processes are adiabatic,
its temperature be raised to bring it back to the size isothermal, isobaric and isochoric. Out of 1, 2, 3
it had before the external pressure was applied? and 4 which one is adiabatic.
(Given: K is bulk modulus of elasticity of the material P
4
of the cube and is the coefficient of linear
3
expansion; =12 × 10–6/K)
2
1
P P V
(a) (b) (a) 4 (b) 3
K 3K
(c) 2 (d) 1
3 K
(c) (d) 23. Two moles of helium are mixed with n moles of
P 3P
hydrogen. The root mean square speed of the gas
18. Water rises to a height h in a capillary tube of cross
molecules in the mixture is 2 times the speed of
sectional area A, the height to which water will rise
in a capillary tube of cross-sectional area 4A will be sound in the mixture. Then value of n is__________
(a) h (b) h/2 24. Helium gas goes through a cycle ABCDA (consisting
of two isochoric and isobaric lines) as shown in
(c) h/4 (d) 4h figure. Efficiency of this cycle is nearly (assume the
19. The energy spectrum of a black body exhibits a gas to be close to ideal gas).
maximum around a wavelength 0. The temperature
of the black body is now changed such that the 2p0
energy is maximum around a wavelength 30/4. The
power radiated by the black body will now increase p0
by a factor of
(a) 256/81 (b) 64/27 V0 2V0
(c) 16/9 (d) 4/3 (a) 15.4% (b) 9.1%
20. Two moles of an ideal monoatomic gas undergoes a (c) 10.5% (d) 12.5%
cyclic process as shown in the figure. The
25. If the tem perature of the sun were to
temperatures in different states are given as 6T1 =
increase from T to 2T and its radius from R
3T2 = 2T4 = T3 = 1800 K. Determine the work done
to 2R, then the ratio of the radiant energy
by the gas during the cycle.
received on earth to what it was previously,
T
will be__________
3
CHEMISTRY (SECTION – B)
26. For the reaction
O3 , H ve, formation of ozone is
O2
favoured by
2 4 (a) Decrease in pressure
(b) Decrease in temperature
1
P (c) Removal of inert gas (if present initially) at
(a) – 10 kJ (b) – 20 kJ constant pressure
(c) – 15 kJ (d) – 30 kJ
(d) Addition of alkaline pyrogallol
21. An object, moving with a speed of 6.25 m/s, is
27. In which of the following compounds, iron has lowest
dv oxidation state?
decelerated at a rate given by 2.5 v , where
dt (a) Fe(CO)5 (b) Fe3O4
v is the instantaneous speed. The time taken by the
(c) K4[Fe(CN)6] (d) FeSO4.Al2(SO4)3.24H2O
object, to come to rest, would be__________(s)
4 MOCK TEST 4
28. Which of the following does not have peroxide 38. Two liquid A and B form an ideal solution. When total
linkage? pressure of above solution is 600 torr, the amount
(a) K3CrO8 (b) H2S2O8 fraction of A in the vapour phase is 0.35 and in liquid
(c) Na2O2 (d) H2C2O4 phase is 0.70. The vapour pressure of pure A
29. Which of the following cannot have a conjugate base? is__________
39. W hat is the oxidation state of iron in
(a) H2PO 2 (b) OH–
K4Fe(CN)6__________
(c) H2O2 (d) HSO 4 40. [Co(NH 3) 5NO 2]Cl 2 and [Co(NH 3) 5ONO]Cl 2 are
30. One mole of N2O4(g) at 310 K is 25% dissociated at related to each other as:
1 atm pressure. The percentage dissociation at 0.1 (a) geometrical isomers
atm and 310 K is (b) linkage isomers
(a) 63% (b) 50% (c) coordination isomers
(c) 75% (d) 25%
(d) ionisation isomers
31. The solubility products of MA, MB, MC and MD are
41. The possible number of isomers for the complex
1.8 × 10–10, 4 × 10–3, 4 × 10–8 and 6 × 10–5 respectively.
[MCl2Br2]SO4 is__________
If a 0.01 M solution of MX is added dropwise to a
mixture containing A–, B–, C– and D– ions, then the 42. Which of the following metallic sols cannot be
one to be precipitated first will be: prepared by Bredig's arc method?
(a) MD (b) MC (a) Gold (b) Silver
(c) MB (d) MA (c) Platinum (d) Sodium
32. The vapour pressure of a dilute aqueous solution of 43. Which of the following statements is wrong?
glucose is 750 mm of Hg at 373 K. The mole fraction (a) Among halogens, oxidising behaviour increases
of solute is: down the group
(a) 1.316 (b) 1.316 × 10–2 (b) Among alkali metals, reducing character increases
–4
(c) 1.316 × 10 (d) 13.16 down the group
33. Cl and K are isoelectronic then
– +
(c) Fluorine is the most electronegative atom.
(a) their size are same (d) Lithium is the hardest metal among alkali metals.
– +
(b) Cl is relatively bigger than K ion 44. Which of the following reacts with HBr at faster rate?
+ –
(c) K ion is bigger than Cl ion OH
(a)
(d) their reactivity is same
34. The bond length in LiF will be: OH
(a) less than that of NaF(b) equal to that of KF
(b) CH3
(c) more than that of KF(d) equal to that of NaF
35. Which of the following allotropes represents Prismatic
Sulphur? OH
(a) Rhombic Sulphur (b) Monoclinic Sulphur
(c) Plastic Sulphur (d) Colloidal Sulphur (c)
36. ABABABA.... type of arrangement of different layers CH3
in close packed structure is called OH
(a) Hexagonal close packed
(b) Cubic close packed (d)
CH3
(c) Face centred close packed
45. During the electrolysis of water, 4 mol of electrons
(d) Body centred close packed
were transferred from anode to cathode. The total
37. A weak acid HX (Ka = 10–5) reacts with caustic soda volume of the gases produced at STP will be
to form salt NaX (0.1 M) degree of dissociation of NaX approximately__________
will be__________ (Kw = 10–14)
MOCK TEST 4 5
elements
53.
m0 p 0
2n
C2m .2m C2p
52. If a, b, c R then
+
bc
ac
ab sin2 t x f(x(2 x))dx and I2 = sin2 t f(x(2 x))dx,
bc ac ab then
1 1 I1 I1
(a) (a b c) (b) abc 2 1
2 3 (a) (b)
I2 I2
1 1
(c) (a b c) (d) abc I1 I1 1
3 2 (c) is not defined (d)
I2 I2 2
6 MOCK TEST 4
60. a ten digited number is formed without repeating 70. Let f:R R be a function such that
any digit. The probability that the difference of the x y f(x) f(y)
f , f(0) = 3 and f(0) = 3, then
digits at equal distances from the begining and the 3 3
end is always 1, is
f(x)
(a) is differentiable in R
17 4 x
(a) (b)
1944 27 (b) f(x) is continuous but not differentiable in R
1 34 (c) f(x) is continuous in R
(c) (d)
945 243 (d) f(x) is bounded in R
61. The point of local maxima o the curve y = f(x) if
71. If 'z' lies on the circle z 2i 2 2 , then the value
f x x 2 x 3 x 4 x 5
2 3 4 5
is z2
of arg is equal to
(a) –2 (b) 3 z2
(c) –4 (d) 5
(a) (b)
62. The value of tan–1(tan 10) is 3 4
(a) 10 (b) 3 10
(c) (d)
6 2
(c) 10 3 (d) 4 10
72. For all complex numbers z1,z 2 satisfying z1 12
3 4 3 and z2 3 4i 5 the minimum value of z1 z2
63. If A 2 5 7 then Adj Adj A __________ is__________
1 2 3
2
3 cos x
64. (1 + tan 5°)(1 + tan 10°) … (1+ tan 45°)__________
73. x ln 3 cos x dx ___
0
65. The equation of director circle to the the circle x2
+ y2 – 8x + 6y – 25 = 0 is (a) ln3 (b) ln3
2 6
(a) x2 + y2 – 8x + 6y + 25 = 0
(b) x2 + y2 – 8x + 6y – 75 = 0 (c) ln3 (d) 0
12
(c) x2 + y2 – 8x + 6y = 0
x8 4
(d) x2 + y2 – 8x + 6y – 50 = 0 74. x 4
2x 2 2
dx
66. Let f(x) = [9 – 3 + 1] x ( ,1), then range of
x x
x5 2x 3 x5 2x 3
f(x) is ([.] denotes the greatest integer function) (a) 2x C (b) 2x C
5 3 5 3
(a) {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}
(b) {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7} x5 2x3 x5 2x3
(c) 2x C (d) 2x C
(c) {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} 5 3 5 3
75. The area of the smaller portion enclosed by the
(d) {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7}
curves x 2 y 2 9 and y2 8x is
67. If f(2x + 3y, 2x – 7y) = 20x, then f(x, y) equals
(a) 7x – 3y (b) 7x + 3y 2 9 9 1 1
(a) sin
(c) 3x – 7y (d) 3x + 7y 3 4 2 3
(cos x 1)(cos x e x ) 2 9 9 1 1
68. The integer n for which lim is (b) 2 sin
x 0 xn 3 4 2 3
a finite non-zero number is__________
2 9 9 1 1
(c) 2 sin
69. If lim( (x x 1) ax b) 0, then
4 2 2 3 4 2 3
x
(a) a = 1, b = – 2 (b) a = 1, b = 1 2 9 9 1 1
(d) sin
(c) a = 1, b = – 1/2 (d) none of these 3 4 2 3
MOCK TEST 4 7
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10. (b)
11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (600Hz) 16. (0.56cm) 17. (b) 18. (b) 19. (a)
20. (a) 21. (2s) 22. (c) 23. (2) 24. (a) 25. (64) 26. (c) 27. (a) 28. (d) 29. (a)
30. (a) 31. (d) 32. (b) 33. (b) 34. (a) 35. (b) 36. (a) 37. (0.0001) 38. (300 torr)
39. (2) 40. (b) 41. (5) 42. (d) 43. (a) 44. (b) 45. (67.2L) 46. (c) 47. (d) 48. (b)
49. (b) 50. (b) 51. (b) 52. (a) 53. (a) 54. (b) 55. (560) 56. (d) 57. (a) 58. (b)
59. (b) 60. (c) 61. (b) 62. (c) 63. (256) 64. (32) 65. (b) 66. (c) 67. (b) 68. (3)
69. (c) 70. (c) 71. (b) 72. (2) 73. (d) 74. (d) 75. (b)
EXPLANATIONS
1. Here, 4. Conservation of angular momentum of the body about
v O yields.
R
V
v
VPx v r sin ˆi 30°
R
A
v
VPy r cos ˆj
R
vr sin ˆ vr cos ˆ R
B
VP v i j O n
R R
V
vr sin ˆ vr cos ˆ
v i j
R R
(mv sin 30°)R = nV(R + h)
V V V
r sin
R (R h) V 4
2 4
90° –
Therefore, h = R
v
r 5. Let Y = [VaAbFc]
r cos
[ML–1T–2] = [Lt–1]a[LT–2]b[MLT–2]c
ML–1T–2 = McLa+b+cT–a–2b–2c
1 ml2 c = 1, a + b + c = – 1, – a – 2b – 2c = – 2
2
l 1
2. mg m 2
4 2 12 4 On solving, we get a = – 4, b = 2 and c = 1
24g 6g 6. From Einstein’s photoelectric theory, we have
2
7l 7l eV = hf –
3. See figure
where V is the potential difference and is the work
function of metal
F Y > X, fY > f X
FY is the threshold frequency of Y.
3 a FX is the threshold frequency of X.
4
Furthermore, V versus f has a constant slope of h/e.
7. Maximum wavelength means minimum energy and
vice-versa.
mg
a F3a 2mg 1 1 3K
mg ; F i.e., K 1
2 4 3 1 4 4
8 MOCK TEST 4
For maximum wavelength in Paschen series, 15. The frequency is a source dependent quantity. It will
transition corresponds to n = 4 to n = 3. not change due to change in medium.
1 1 1 7K 16. If the rise of level in the right limb be x cm, the fall of
K
2 9 10 144 level of mercury in left limb is 4x.
1 74 7 Therefore, level of water in the left limb is (36 + 4x)
So,
2 144 3 108 cm. Equating pressure at interface of mercury and
water, we have (at A1 and B1)
8. Apply v 2qV
m (36 + 4x) × 1g = 5x × 13.6 × g
9. Equate loss of gravitational potential energy with gain Solving, we get x = 0.56 cm
of elastic potential energy.
10. Applying the law of conservation of momentum,
36 cm
v 2m1v1 x
m1v1 m1 1 mv or v
A
3 3m
Initial
To describe a vertical circle v should be 5gl . So, 4x level of Hg
A1
2m1v1 m 3
5gl or v1 5gl B1
3m m1 2
11. Diameter = (main scale reading) + (circular scale
reading) × (least count)
1mm
Least count 0.01mm
100 divisions
17. K PV PV P
12. Amount of heat extracted from converting steam at V VT 3 T
100°C to water at 0°C = 10 × 540 + 10 × 1 (100 – 0) P
or T 3K
= 6400 cal
Amount of ice which will melt using the above heat 18. h 2Scos
6400 rg
80g
80 Cross sectional area increases 4 times, which
Hence, final amount of water = 500 + 80 + 10 means radius gets doubled.
= 590 g
13. The process equation will be p = kV So, h 2S h
2(rg) 2
V2
kV22 kV12 p2 V2 p1V1 nRT 19. According to Wien’s law, wavelength corresponding
W kVdV 2
2
2 to m aximum energy decreases. W hen the
V1
temperature of black body increases,
Using: Q W U
i.e., mT = constant
We can write:
T2 1 0 4
nRT
nCT nCV T T1 2 3 0 / 4 3
2
R R 5R Now according to Stefan’s law
C CV 3R 4
2 2 2 E 2 T2 4 256
4
14. Volume (V) of the wire R L 2 E1 T1 3 81
V 2R L
20. 6T1 = 3T2 = 2T4 = T3 = 1800 K
Now, V R L ...(1) T1 = 300 K;T2 = 600 K
L tensile stress 5 10 7
T4 = 900 K;T3 = 1800 K
2.5 10 4 and
L Young's Modulus 2 1011 1 4 and 2 3 are isochoric processes.
Work done = 0
V
0.02% 2 104
V W 12 = P(V2 – V1) = nR(T2 – T1)
= 2 × R(600 – 300) = 600 R
Substituting in (1), we get: R 0.25 104 . Hence,
R W 14 = P(V4 – V3) = nR(T4 – T3)
fractional decrease in R is 0.25 104 = 2 × R(900 – 1800) = – 1800R
W Total = 600R – 1800R = – 1200 R
MOCK TEST 4 9
dv
0 t 32. P = 760 mm = Vapour pressure of water at 373 K
21. 2.5 dt v 1/ 2dv 2.5 dt t 2s
v 6.25 0 760 750
760
= mole fraction of solute = 1.316×10–2
22. The slope of curve-2 is more negative as compared
to curve-3 for a certain volume. 37. HX + NaOH NaX
Na+ + X
–
3RT RT NaX
23. vrms , v sound Given, vrms 2 v sound
M M –
X + H2O
HX + OH
3
Solving we get, for the mixture c 0 0
2
c – c c c
5R 7R C 2
2 n K
n1CP1 n2CP2
3 2
2 n2 Kh = Kw (1 ) If 0. 1
Now, mix a
n1C V1 n2C V2 2 3R 5R
2 n 2
2 Kw 10 14
W Areaunder P-V diagram = 10 4 = 0.0001
24. Efficiency, 15.4% K a XC 10 5 0.1
Q Q AB QBC
38. Ptotal = 600 torr
25. E1 e 4R T 2 4
& E2 e 4 2R
2
2T 4
64E1 PA = P XA … (i) (P = total pressure)
XA = mole fraction of A in vapour pressure
26.
2O 3 (g); H ve
3O 2 (g) YA = mole fraction of A in liquid solution
Removal of inert gas (at constant P) increases PA = PA0 YA …(ii)
the partial pressure of gaseous components.
PA = vapour pressure of pure A
Alkaline pyrogallol absorbs O2.
from Eq. (i) and (ii)
27. In Fe(CO)5, Fe has zero oxidation state.
O OH PA0 YA = Ptotal XA
C
28. H2C2O4 PA0 0.70 600 0.35
C
0.35 600
O OH PA0 600 = 300 torr
0.70 2
O
41. [MCl 2 Br 2 ]SO 4 gives [MCl 2 BrSO 4 ]Br and
29. H2PO2 P [MClBr2SO4]Cl as ionization isomers and also cis
(–)
H O and trans geometrical isomers are expected.
H
30. N2O4(g)
2NO2(g)
42. Bredig’s arc method can not be used for the
t=0 1 mole 0 preparation of colloidal sol of Na because it reacts
teq (1 – ) 2 with water vigorously.
Total moles = (1 – ) + 2 = (1 + ) 43. Oxidising behaviour among halogens decreases
2 down, the group. Fluorine is the strongest oxidising
2
P agent.
[NO2 ]2 (1 ) 4 2P
Kp =
[N2O 4 ] 1 1 2 44. 3° alcohol when reacts with HBr, SN1 reaction takes
.P
1 place
4(0.25)2 OH
= 0.25, Kp = 0.267 +
1 (0.25)2 H Br CH3
CH3
(S 1 )
At a pressure of 0.1 atm; N
(3° carbocation)
4 2 (0.1)
0.267 = : 0.63 1 2 1
1 2
45. H2O H2 + 2
O2
i.e., percentage dissociation = 63
31. KSP = [M+] [anion] 1 mol 22.4 L 11.2 L
1.8 10 10 4 10 8 Decomposition of 1 mol of water required 2 mol of
A C
0.01 0.01 electrons
4 mol of electrons produce 2 × 22.4 L
4 10 3 6 10 5
B D
2
52. A.M. H.M. f(x) x
f '(x) dx 2
C
b c 2bc bc 1
(b c) ... (1) 58.
2 bc bc 4
Similarly
ac 1
(a c) ... (2)
ac 4
ab 1
(a b) ... (3)
ab 4
add all these
bc ac ab 1 3 (2, 0) 3 (4, 0)
2(a b c)
bc ac ab 4
2 3
bc ac ab 1 3 3
(a b c)
bc ac ab 2
A x x dx 4 x x dx
3 2
n m
1 1 1 1 cos2 t
.
2 2
(1 2)2n (1 2)2n .(32n 1)
4 59. I1 = xf(x(2 x) dx
sin2 t
54. Coeff of t6 : [ 4 C1t 4 C2 t 2 ..... 4 C4 t 4 ][2 C1t 2 C2 t 2 ]2
= [(1 + t)4 – 1] [(1 + t)2 – 1]2 1+cos2t
b b
= 7 C3 × 4 C3 × 4 C3 60. Split the digits into pairs viz : (0, 1), (1, 2), ..... (8, 9)
N = 35 × 4 × 4 Disjoint pairs out of these are
56. f: R R & g: R R be two one-one onto functions (0, 1), (2, 3), (4, 5), (6, 7), (8, 9)
such that f & g are mirror images of each other about
(there is no other set of 5 disjoints pairs)
line y = 0. It means one is -ve of the other
i.e. f(x) = –g(x) Now two cases are
f(x) + g(x) = 0 (a) When the pair (0, 1) is not used for first and the
last place.
h(x) = 0
The number of ways = 4 × 4! × 25
h(x) is not onto as well as not one-one
MOCK TEST 4 11
(b) When the pair (0, 1) is used for first and last
place.
69. xlim
(x 4 x 2 1) ax 2 b 0
The number of ways = 1 × 4! × 24 1
Put x t
Total number of favourable cases = 9 × 4! × 24
9 4! 24 1 (1 t 2 t 4 ) a bt 2
Probability = lim 0 ... (i)
9 9! 945 t 0 t2
From Eq. (i),
62. As range of tan–1x is ,
2 2 (1 t 2 t 4 ) 1 bt 2
lim 0
t 0 t2
tan 1 tan10 n 10
(1 t 2 t 4 )1/ 2 (1)1/ 2
lim( 1 t 2 ) b
= – 3p + 10 t 0
(1 t 2 t 4 ) 1
= 10 – 3p 1
( 1) b
2
63. Adj AdjA A n 1 44 = 256
2
1
a = 1, b = 2
64. If A + B = 45°, then (1 + tanA)(1 + tanB) = 2
65. (x – y)2 + (y + 3)2 = 2.50 70. Given, f x y f(x) f(y)
3 3
x2 + y2 – 8x + 6y – 75 = 0
Replacing x by 3x and y by zero,
2 2
sin x
2
ex 1 1 cos x f(0) = 0 + c = 3
x
x x c=3
lim
x 0 xn 3 (1 cos x) Then, f(x) = 3x + 3
For n = 3 Hence, f(x) is continuous and differentiable
(1)2 ((1) 0) 1
everywhere.
non zero finite
1.(2) 2
12 MOCK TEST 4
x x 2 2x
2 2
71. CA CB 2 2·OC 2 OA OB 2 8
4 4x 4 4x 4 4 2
74. dx dx
A 2 0i, B 2 0i x 4 2x 2 2 x 2x 2
4 2
Im
x 4
2 2x 2 x 4
2 2x 4 dx x 5
2x3
2x C
P(z)
C (2i)
x 4 2
2x 2 5 3
Re (0, 3)
B O A
x2 y2 9 , x2 y2 9
BPA
4
8 64 36 8 10
x x 9,1 x=1
z 2 2 2
arg
z 2 4 Area enclosed
2 2 2xdx 9 x 2 dx
1 3
2 2
3 cos x 3 cos x
73. I 2 x ln dx 2I 2 ln dx
0 1
0 3 cos x 0 3 cos x
2 2 2 xdx 9 x 2 dx
1 3
0 1
3 cos x 3 cos x on simplifying we get
I 2 ln dx 2 ln 3 cos x dx I I 0
0 3 cos x 0
2 9 9 1
2 sin1
3 4 2 3
MOCK TEST – 5
PHYSICS (SECTION – A) (a) 4 s (b) 2 s
(c) 3 s (d) 1 s
1. Two point masses 1 and 2 move with uniform
5. The masses of the blocks A and B are m and M.
velocities 1 and 2 , respectively. Their initial
Between A and B there is a constant frictional force
position vectors are r1 and r2 , respectively. Which F, and B can slide frictionlessly on horizontal surface
of the following should be satisfied for the collision (see figure). A is set in motion with velocity while B
of the point masses? is at rest. What is the distance moved by A relative
to B before they move with the same velocity?
r2 r1 2 1 r r
(a) (b) 2 1 2 1 v0
| r2 r1 | | 2 1 | | r2 r1 | | 2 1 |
A m
r2 r1 2 1 r2 r1 2 1
(c) (d) B M
| r2 r1 | | 2 1 | | r2 r1 | | 2 1 |
Cylinder V V
A (c) 1 (d) 1
V0 V0
30°
O X
2 MOCK TEST 5
8. For a cell, a graph is plotted between the potential 9. The cell in the circuit shown in figure is ideal. The
difference V across the terminals of the cell and the coil has an inductance of 4 mH and a resistance of
current I drawn from the cell (see figure). The e.m.f 2 m. The switch is closed at t = 0. The amount of
and internal resistance of the cell is E and r, energy stored in the inductor at t = 2 s is (take e =
respectively. 3)
V(volt)
E = 2V
2.0
L = 4 mH
1.5 R = 2 m
S
1.0
4 8
(a) J (b) 103 J
0.5 3 9
I (amp) 8
(c) 10 3 J (d) 2 × 103 J
1 2 3 4 5 3
10. If the magnetic field at ‘P’ can be written as K tan , then K is
2
P
d
0I 0I 0I 20I
(a) (b) (c) (d)
4d 2d d d
11. A sonometer wire of length 114 cm is fixed at both the ends. Where should two bridges be placed so as to divide
the wire into three segments whose fundamental frequencies are in the ratio 1 : 3 : 4 ?
(a) At 24 cm and 72 cm from one end
(b) At 72 cm and 96 cm from one end
(c) At 36 cm and 84 cm from one end
(d) At 48 cm and 96 cm from one end
MOCK TEST 5 3
24. A source of sound of frequency 600 Hz is placed 31. Chemical formula of Malachite ore and Cerrusite ore
inside water. The speed of sound in water is 1500 respectively is:
ms-1 and in air it is 300 ms-1. The frequency of sound (a) 2CuCO3.Cu(OH)2 and PbSO4
recorded by an observer who is standing in air is (b) 2CuCO3.Cu(OH)2 and PbCO3
(a) 200 Hz (b) 3000 Hz (c) CuCO3.Cu(OH)2 and PbCO3
(c) 120 Hz (d) 600 Hz (d) MgCO3.CaCO3 and PbSO4
25. A coil has an inductance of 0.7 H and is joined in 32. Froth floatation process for the concentration of ores
series with a resistance of 220. W hen an is applied for the extraction of:
alternating e.m.f. of 220 V at 50 cps is applied to it, (a) Cu (b) Al
then the wattles component of the current in the
(c) Fe (d) Na
circuit is
33. Upon heating a litre of N/2 HCl solution, 2.675 g of
(a) 5 A (b) 0.5 A
HCl is lost and the volume of the solution shrinks to
(c) 0.7 A (d) 7 A 750 ml. The normality of the resultant solution is:
CHEMISTRY (SECTION – B) (a) 0.1 (b) 0.57 (c) 5.6 (d) 1.2
34. For the complex ion [Cr(H2O)6]3+, the hybridization
26. When 0.1 mol of CH3NH2 (Kb = 5 × 10–4) is mixed
and magnetic moment are respectively.
with 0.08 mol of HCl and diluted to 1 L, the H+ ion
concentration in the solution is (a) sp3d2, paramagnetic
(a) 8 × 10–2 M (b) 8 × 10–11 M (b) d2sp3, paramagnetic
(c) 1.6 × 10–11 M (d) 8 × 10–5 M (c) sp3d2, diamagnetic
27. For the reaction (d) d2sp3, diamagnetic
35. An aqueous solution containing 5.0 gm of horse
Ag(CN)2 (aq)
–
Ag(aq) 2CN(aq) , the equilibrium
–
haemoglobin in 1 litre of water shows an osmotic
constant at 25°C is 4.0 × 10–19. Calculate the silver pressure of 1.80 10 –3 atm at 298 K. What is the
ion concentration in a solution which was originally molecular weight of horse haemoglobin ?
0.10 M in KCN and 0.03 M in AgNO3.
(a) 6800 (b) 34000
(a) 1.5 × 10–18 M (b) 2.5 × 10–18 M
(c) 68000 (d) 3400
(c) 7.5 × 10–18 M (d) 5.5 × 10–18 M
28. The number of moles of urea (solute) needs to be 36. N2O 4 + H 2O A + B
dissolved in 100 g of water in order to decrease the
vapour pressure of water by 25% is B C + NO + H2O
(a) 1.39 (b) 2.9
C + H2O A + B
(c) 3.9 (d) 2.0
Identify B and C (respectively)
29. The correct order of acidic strengths is (a) HNO3, N2O (b) HNO2, HNO3
(a) Cl2O7 > SO3 > P4O10 (c) HNO2, NO2 (d) NO2, HNO3
(b) CO2 > N2O5 > SO3 2HI(g)
37. For the reaction H2(g) + I2(g)
(c) Na2O > MgO > Al2O3
K = 55.3 at 699 K. In a mixture that consists of 0.70
(d) K2O > CaO > MgO
atm of HI and 0.02 atm each of H2 and I2 at 699 K,
30. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
what will happen?
(a) The first ionization energy of Be is greater than
(a) HI will be consumed
that of B
(b) HI will be formed
(b) 2p-orbital is lower in energy than 2s
(c) NO change
(c) F atom has a less electron affinity than Cl atom
(d) The increasing order of size, Ca2+ < Ar < Cl– < (d) HI may be consumed or formed.
S2–
MOCK TEST 5 5
38. Which of the following is not aromatic ? 44. Consider a reaction; aG + bH products. When
concentration of both the reactants G and H is
doubled, the rate increase by eight times. However,
(a) (b) when concentration of G is doubled keeping the
concentration of H fixed, the rate is doubled. The
overall order of the reaction is:
(a) 0 (b) 1
(c) (d) (c) 2 (d) 3
..
N
.. N
x
H 45. Graph between log and log P is a straight line
m
39. Which of the following carbides, on hydrolysis, yields
inclined at an angle q = 45°. When pressure of 0.5
methane?
atm and log k = 0.699, the amount of solute adsorbed
(a) Be2C (b) MgC2 per gram of adsorbent will be (log k = intercept)
(c) CaC2 (d) Mg2C3 (a) 1 g/g adsorbent (b) 1.5 g/g adsorbent
40. Chlorine gas is dried over (c) 2.5 g/g adsorbent (d) 0.25 g/g adsorbent
(a) CaO (b) NaOH 46. Heat of atomization of NH3and N2H4 are x kcal mol-
(c) KOH (d) Conc. H2SO4
1
and y kcal mol-1 respectively. Calculate average
bond energy of N-N bond.
41. In analytical chemistry, solid K 2Cr 2O 7 is used to
detect the presence of which acid radicals? 4y 3x 2y 3x
(a) kcal mol-1(b) kcal mol-1
(a) F (b) Cl 3 3
(c) Br (d) I 4y 3x 3y 4x
(c) kcal mol-1 (d) kcal mol-1
4 3
42. W hen a large amount of KMnO 4 is added to 47. The optical rotation of the -form of a
concentrated H 2SO 4, then explosive compound pyranose is +150.7°, that of the -form is
formed is:
+52.8°. In solution an equilibrium mixture of
(a) Mn2O7 (b) Mn3O4 the anomers has an optical rotation of 80.2°.
(c) MnO3 (d) MnO 3 The percentage of the -form at equilibrium
is
O
(a) 28% (b) 32%
C
(c) 68% (d) 72%
43. O
O
C
O SeO2
48. (A); Product (A) of the reaction
HO
(A)
PCl5 LiAIH4
(B)
PCC
(C)
(D) ,
Product D is
is:
CH2 – OH CO–
2
O O
(a) (b)
OH O
CO–
2 CO–
2 (a) (b)
–
CH2 – OH CH2 – O
O O
(c) (d)
O
CH2 – OH CH2 – O–
(c) (d)
6 MOCK TEST 5
(a) 5, 0 (b) 0, 5
1
70. x 2
(x 4 1)3 / 4
dx is equal to
(c) (–2, –2); (–2, 8) (d) (3, 3) & (–7, 3) 1/ 4
1
62. The numerically greatest term is the expansion of (a) 1 4 c (b) (x4 + 1)1/4 + c
x
3 1/ 4 1/ 4
(2 – 3x)12 when x = is 1 1
4 (c) 1 4 c (d) 1 4 c
x x
(a) T5 (b) T6 71. Number of ordered triplets of natural number (a, b,
(c) T7 (d) T8 c) for which abc 11 is
63. Find the value of l if the points (2, 3, –1), (5, –1, 2), (a) 52 (b) 53
(– 4, 1, 3) & (0, 2, l) are coplanar
(c) 55 (d) 56
2 1
(a)
3
(b)
3 72. The position vector of a point P is r xiˆ yjˆ zkˆ ,
2 1 when x,y,z N and a ˆi ˆj kˆ and r·a 10 , the
(c) – (d) – number of possible position of P is
3 3
64. Distance between the two parallel planes 3x – 4y + (a) 36 (b) 72
12z – 17 = 0 & 6x – 8y + 24z + 18 = 0 is (c) 66 (d) 9C2
(a) 2 (b) 4 73. In the next World Cup of cricket there will be 12
(c) 1 (d) 3 teams, divided equally in two groups. Teams of each
65. Find the value of [a] if the lines group will play a match against each other. From
each group 3 top teams will qualify for the next round.
x 2 y 4 z 1 x 1 y 1 z a
& are In this round each team will play against others once.
3 2 5 2 3 4 Four top teams of this round will qualify for the
coplanar where [ ] denotes greatest integer function
semifinal round, where each team will play against
(a) 7 (b) 8
the others once. Two top teams of this round will go
(c) 9 (d) 10 to the final round, where they will play the best of
three matches. The minimum number of matches
[cos x], x 1
66. If f(x) = ([.] denotes the in the next World Cup will be
| x 2 |, 1 x 2
(a) 54 (b) 53
greatest integer function), then f(x) is
(c) 38 (d) 58
(a) continuous and non-differentiable at x = – 1 and 74. Let A(0, 2), B and C are points on parabola y2 = x +
x=1
(b) continuous and differentiable at x = 0 4 and such that CBA then the range of
2
(c) discontinuous at x = 1/2 ordinate of C is
(d) none of these (a) ,0 4, (b) ,0 4,
67. The value of m for which the area of the triangle
(c) 0,4 (d) ,0 4,
included between the axes and any tangent to the
curve xmy =bm is constant, is 75. The locus point of intersection of tangents to the
(a) 1 (b) 2 parabola y2 = 4ax, the angle between them being
always 45° is
(c) 3 (d) 4
68. Let f(x) = x + ax + bx + 5sin2x be an increasing
3 2 (a) x 2 y 2 6ax a2 0
function in the set of real numbers R. Then, a and b (b) x 2 y 2 6ax a2 0
satisfy the condition
(a) a2 – 3b – 15 > 0 (b) a2 – 3b + 15 > 0 (c) x 2 y 2 6ax a2 0
(c) a2 – 3b + 15 < 0 (d) a > 0 and b > 0 (d) x 2 y 2 6ax a2 0
8 MOCK TEST 5
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (19.6 m/s) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (b)
11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (d) 14. (4.0J) 15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (b) 19. (d) 20. (a)
21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (2.8ms–1) 24. (600Hz) 25. (0.5 A ) 26. (b) 27. (c) 28. (1.39)
29. (a) 30. (b) 31. (c) 32. (a) 33. (0.57) 34. (b) 35. (c) 36. (c) 37. (a) 38. (a)
39. (a) 40. (d) 41. (b) 42. (a) 43. (a) 44. (3) 45. (2.5) 46. (d) 47. (28%) 48. (b)
49. (b) 50. (c) 51. (b) 52. (b) 53. (c) 54. (b) 55. (1) 56. (c) 57. (a) 58. (a)
59. (2) 60. (21) 61. (c) 62. (b) 63. (a) 64. (2) 65. (a) 66. (c) 67. (1) 68. (c)
69. (a) 70. (d) 71. (d) 72. (a) 73. (b) 74. (b) 75. (c)
EXPLANATIONS
1. For collision, 4. Acceleration of the cylinder down the plane is
r1 1t r2 2t or r1 r2 ( 2 1)t
a = (g sin 30°) (sin 30°) = 10 1 1
2.5 m / s
2
V2t 2 2
2s 25
Time taken: (t) = 2s
a 2.5
v 2t
+
r2 r2 v 1t V1t 5. Free body diagrams (figure):
+
r1
mg mg N
r1 F
A B
Equating unit vectors, we get
F = N N N
r2 r1
2 1
| r2 r1 | | 2 1 |
2
Final relative velocity of A w.r.t. B = 0
a a a2
i. ymax = a b Using
2b 2b 4b 2 u2 2as
F(m M)
dy 0 02 2 S
ii. a tan 0 mM
dx x 0
Fm 20
S
where 0 = angle of projection 0 = tan–1a. 2F(m M)
MOCK TEST 5 9
Q 1 k L 2 L0 5 ...(2)
q 4
and k L3 L0 9 ...(3)
7. C1 = C, V1 = V0, C2 = KC, V2 = 0, and
Solving (1) and (2), we get L0 5L1 4L 2 and
Vcommon = V
1
k
L 2 L1
C1V1 C2 V2
We know that Vcommon = C1 C2 substituting these in (3), we get L3 5L2 4L1
I
16. Let the object distance be x. Then, the image
distance is D – x.
From lens equation,
P
1 1 1
d
x Dx f
ds
in
0i D D(D 4f )
B (cos 0 cos(180 )) x2
4 (dsin ) 2
4 10
2e 2 2e 2 = 5 10 8 1011 M
vn v1
nh h
27. 2KCN + AgNO3
K[Ag(CN)2] + KNO3
v1 2e 2
So
c ch 0.1 M 0.03 0
20. According to Avogadro’s hypothesis, (0.1 – 0.06) 0 0.03
6.02 10 23 = 0.04
N0 2.66 10 21
226 Again by dissociation some Ag+ is formed
0.693 [Ag(CN)2]–
Ag + 2CN
+ –
Half-life = T 1620 years
0.03 0 0.04
0.6931
= 1.35 × 10 s –11
1 –1 (0.03 – a) a (0.04 + 2a) where a is
1620 3.16 107
Because half-life is very much large as compared to the new Ag ion concentration
+
21.
F A
x
Fh
100 0.5 10 2
2 10 8 m
28. By Raoult’s law,
xh A
5 10 4 5 1010 p w M
p0 m W
22. The metals used beyond elastic limit without being
ruptured are called ductile materials and this 25 w 18
; w 83.33 g
property is called ductility. 100 60 100
2 P
23. Velocity head v and pressure head Number of moles of urea =
83.33
1.388 = 1.39
2g g 60
Cr3+ 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d3 4s0 (C)
KOH,
(D)
3d 4s 4p C–H CH2OH
xx xx xx xx xx xx O
1
2HNO2 NO2 + NO + H2O slope tan tan 45
x
(C)
x
H2O log log0.5 0.699
2NO2 HNO3 + HNO2 m
x
PHI 2 2.5
0.7 0.7 m
=
PH PI
2 2
0.02 0.02
12 MOCK TEST 5
46. 53. Let the plane be ax + by + cz + d + (ax + by + cz
H N H + d) = 0
N + 3H H = x kcal/mol
H since it is parallel to x-axis
H N N H
a
2N + 4H H = y kcal/mol (a + a).1 = 0i.e.
H H a
47. form is = x%
form is = (100 - x)%
equation of the plane is ax + by + cz +
100 x a
150.7
x
52.8 80.2 x = 28% d – a (ax + by + cz + d) = 0
100 100
48. SeO2 oxidizes active methylene and methyl groups i.e. (ab – ab)y + (ac – ac)z + (ad – ad) = 0
to ketonic and aldehydic groups respectively. 54. in ABC
Besides oxidation of the active methylene and
methyl groups, the reagent has been employed for b + c – a > 0, c + a – b > 0, a + b – c > 0, so
allylic hydroxylation, allylic oxidation, (b c a) (c a b) (a b c)
dehydrogenation and as a catalyst in some 3
reactions.
1
Activated ring methylene groups are also oxidized {(b c a)(c a b)(a b c)} 3
to carbonyl groups.
1
O O P
SeO2 {(b c a)(c a b)(a b c)} 3
2
O P3 27(b c a)(c a b)(a b c) ... (i)
Cyclohexanone Cyclohexan-1,2-dione
49. Also (a b c) (b c a) (c a b) (a b c)
4
OH O OH O 1
Br2 {(a b c)(b c a)(c a b)(a b c)} 4
Ph CH C NH2 Ph CH NH2 Ph C H
KOH
(Hoffmann (unstable)
bromamide 2P
(16A)1/ 4
reaction) 4
i.e. t = ± 1
for x 2 + y 2 to be minimum x = and
2 there are two common tangents.
2 5 2
It is clear from the diagram also.
y = minimum value of (x2 + y2) is = 2
4 4 60. x1 x2 x3 = 2.5.72
57. Total 10 × 7 × 7 3 ways
x 14 × 5 × 7 6 ways
A B
35 × 2 × 7 6 ways
r 2 × 5 × 49 6 ways
Total number of ways = 21
y
25 5
61. 16 = 9(e2 – 1) e2 e
9 3
2r – x – y foci are 2, 3 5 = (–2, –2); (–2, 8)
C
9
x > 0, y > 0, 2pr – x – y > 0 13
62. P 8 117
Favourable: 9 17
1
8
x B Greatest term is T 47 T7
A y 17 1
C x > 0, y > 0, x + y < r 3 6 2
2
63. 4 2 1 0
3
3 4 1
y 18 34 52
64. d 2
2 2
6 8 24 2 26
3 5 1 a
x 102
+ 65. 3 2 5 0a
y 13
=
2 2 3 4
x r
+
y
=
r 66. We have, f(x) [cos x], x 1
| x 2 |, 1 x 2
x
= 2 – x, 1 x 2
1
1, 2 x 1
1
r.r 1 0, 0 x 1
Probability = 2
1 2
2r.2r 4
2 1, x 0
1
0, x 0
58. |PBQ| = 1 |P| |B| |Q| = 1 |B| = 1 (as |P|, |B|, |Q| 2
3 1
are natural numbers) 1, x
2 2
B–1 = adjB = A
It is evident from the definition that f(x) is
(Q–1BP–1)–1 = PB–1Q = PAQ discontinuous at x = 1/2.
14 MOCK TEST 5
67. xmy = bm dD
163 2(4 6).4 0
Taking logarithm d
m logex + logey = m logeb 23 + 4 + 6 = 0 3 + 2 + 3 = 0
m 1 dy
0
(2 – + 3) ( + 1) = 0
x y dx
=–1 ( 2 – + 3 0)
dy my
d2D
dx x Now, 48 2 8.4
d 2
Equation of tangent at (x, y) is
= 482 + 32 > 0 at = – 1
my
Y–y= (X x) D is minimum at = – 1.
x
my X + xY = xy(1 + m)
dx dx
X Y
70. 1
3/4
1
3/4
1 x 2 x 4 1 4 x5 1 4
x(1 m) y(1 m)
x x
m
1 1
Area of triangle OAB = 2 .OA.OB Put 1 t4,
x4
4
dx 4t 3 dt
x5
B 1/ 4
t 3dt 1
t3
t c 1 4
x
c
| xy | (4) 10 1
no. of solutions = C3 1 36
2
73. Use selection
= 2|xy| ( xy = b)
= 2|b| = constant
74. A 0,2 , B t1 4, t1 C t 4, t
2 2
68. f(x) > 0
2 t1 t1 t 1 1
· 1 · 1
3x2 + 2ax + b + 5 sin 2x > 0 4 t12 t12 t 2 2 t1 t t1
3x2 + 2ax + b – 5 > 0 ( sin 2x – 1)
t12 2 t t1 2t 1 0
D<0
For real t1 ,
4a2 – 4.3.(b – 5) < 0
2 t 4 2t 1 0 t 2 4t 0 t ,0 4,
2
a2 – 3b + 15 < 0.
69. Let point on parabola y2 = 8x be (22, 4) a
75. Equation of tangent is y mx
Centre of circle = (0, – 6) m
Distance between centre of circle and point on m2 x my a 0 m1 m2
y
,m m
a
parabola x 1 2 x
2 2
m1 m2 y a a
S (2 2 )2 (4 6)2 tan 45 4 1
1 m1m2 x x x
D = 44 + (4 + 6)2
x 2 y 2 6ax a 2 0
where D = S2
MOCK TEST – 6
PHYSICS (SECTION – A) 5. A particle of charge per unit mass is released
1. The variation of potential with distance R from fixed from origin with velocity V V0 ˆj in a magnetic field
point is shown in figure. The electric field at R = 5 m
3 v0
is B B0kˆ for x and B0 for
2 V0
VIV
5 3 v0
x . The x-coordinate of the particle at time
4 2 B0
3
2
t would be
1 3B 0
R/m
1 2 3 4 5 6
3 v0 3
(a) v0 t
(a) 2.5 Vm –1
(b) – 2.5 Vm –1
2 B0 2 B0
(c) 0.4 Vm –1
(d) – 0.4 Vm–1
2. A parallel plate capacitor has plates of area A and 3 v0
(b) v0 t
separation d and is charged to a potential difference 2 B0 3B 0
V. The charging battery is then disconnected and
the plates are pulled apart until their separation is
3 v0 v
2d. What is the work required to separate the plates (c) 0 t
__________(V) 2 B0 2 3B0
3. In the given circuit of figure, with steady current, the
potential drop across the capacitor must be 3 v0 v t
(d) 0
2 B0 2
V R
6. A ball is thrown from the top of a tower in vertically
V C upward direction. Velocity at a point hm below the
point of projection is twice of the velocity at a point
2V 2R h m above the point of projection. Find the maximum
(a) V (b) V/2 height reached by the ball above the top of the tower.
(c) V/3 (d) 2V/3 (a) 2h
4. In the circuit shown in figure, switch S is closed at (b) 3h
time t = 0. The charge that passes through the (c) (5/3)h
battery in one time constant is
(d) (4/3)h
7. At a height 0.4 m from the ground, the velocity of a
L R
projectile in vector form is (6iˆ 2ˆj) m / s. The
angle of projection is
E S (a) 45°
2
eR E (b) 60°
(b) E
L
(a)
L
R (c) 30°
EL eL (d) tan–1(3/4)
(c) (d)
eR 2 ER
2 MOCK TEST 6
8. In the figure, the ball A is released from rest, when 11. A body starts from rest on a long linclined plane of
the spring is at its natural (unstretched) length. For inclination 45°. The coeffiecient of friction between
the block B of mass M to leave contact with ground
the body and the plane varies as 0.3 x , where x
at some stage, the minimum mass of A must be
is the distance travelled down the plane. The body
will have maximum speed when x is equal
to__________(m) [Take g = 10 ms–2]
12. A man slides down a light rope whose breaking
strength is times his weight. What should be his
maximum acceleration so that the rope does not
A break ?
g
(a) g (b)
1
B
g
M (c) g 1 (d)
1
(a) 2 M (b) M 13. A ball whose kinetic energy is E, is projected at
(c) M/2 (d) M/4 angle of 45° with the horizontal. The kinetic energy
9. Velocity of point A on the rod is 2 m/s (leftward) at of the ball at the highest point of its trajectory will
the instant shown in the figure. The velocity of the be :
point B on the rod at this instant is E
(a) E (b)
1m 2
E
B (c) (d) zero
2
14. A sphere, a cube and a thin circular plate, all of
5m same material and same mass are initially heated
to same high temperature. Choose the correct
statement:
(a) Plate will cool fastest and sphere the slowest
VA = 2 ms–1 (b) Plate will cool fastest and cube the slowest
60°
A (c) Sphere will cool fastest and cube the slowest
2 (d) Cube will cool fastest and plate the slowest
(a) m/s (b) 1 m/s
3 15. Two particles A and B are oscillating about a point O
1 along a common line such that equation of A is given
m/s 3
(c) m/s
(d) as: x1 acos t and equation of B is given as:
2 3 2
10. A block of mass 4 kg is pressed against the wall by 3
x 2 b sin t , then the motion of A w.r.t. B is
a force of 80 N as shown in the figure. Determine 2
the value of friction force and block’s acceleration,
(a) a simple harmonic with amplitude a b
(Take s = 0.2, k = 0.15).
(b) a simple harmonic with amplitude a2 b2
(c) a simple harmonic with amplitude a b
(d) not a simple harmonic motion
4 kg
80 N 16. A 2 m wide truck is moving with a uniform speed
0 8 m / s along a straight horizontal road. A
37°
pedestrian starts to cross the road with a uniform
speed when the truck is 4 m away from him. The
(a) 8 N, 0 m/s2 (b) 32 N, 6 m/s2 minimum value of so that he can cross the road
safely is__________(m/s)
(c) 8 N, 6 m/s2 (d) 32 N, 2 m/s2
MOCK TEST 6 3
7
20. Refractive index of a prism is and the angle of
3 t(s)
prism is 60°. The minimum angle of incidence of a 4
ray that will be transmitted through the prism is
25. A car is going in south with a speed of 5 m/s. To
(a) 30° (b) 45° a man sitting in car a bus appears to move
(c) 15° (d) 50°
towards west with a speed of 2 6 m / s. What is
21. A point charge of magnitude 1C is fixed the actual speed of the bus __________(ms –1)
at (0, 0, 0). An isolated uncharged spherical
conductor, is fixed with its centre at (4, 0, CHEMISTRY (SECTION – B)
0). The potential and the induced electric
26. Number of p – d bonds present in SO3 molecule
field at the centre of the sphere is
is__________
(a) 1.8 × 105 V and -5.625 × 106 V/m
27. Which one of these is not an acid salt?
(b) 0 V and 0 V/m
(a) NaH2PO4 (b) NaH2PO2
(c) 2.25 × 105 V and -5.625 × 106 Vm-1
(c) NaH2PO3 (d) Na2H2S2O7
(d) 2.25 × 105 V and 0 V/m
4 MOCK TEST 6
N O O
28. The percentage hydrolysis of NaCN in aqueous
80 33. H – O – C – (CH2)n – C – O – H product, At
solution [Dissociation constant of HCN is 1.3 × 10–9
and Kw = 1.0 × 10–14] is what value of (n) above compound will not evolve CO2
(a) 2.48 (b) 5.26 gas __________
(c) 8.2 (d) 9.6
29. At higher altitude, the boiling point of water lowers HC – OH
because C – OH
(a) atmospheric pressure is low 34. HO H , the given is enol form of:
(b) temperature is low H OH
(c) atmospheric pressure is high H OH
(d) temperature is high
CH2OH
30. The surface tension of water at 27°C is 72.75 dyne
cm–1. Its value in SI system is
(a) D-glucose (b) D-mannose
(a) 2.275 Nm–1 (b) 07275 Nm–1 (c) D-fructose (d) All of these
(c) 0.07275 Nm–1 (d) 0.2275 Nm–1 NH2 NH2
31. What is the major product of the following reaction?
OH CH3 35. and
CH3 – CH2 – C – CH
H
Product
(aniline) (cyclohexyl amine)
CH3 CH3
can be differentiated by:
CH3 CH3 (a) Hinsberg test
CH3 CH CH3 CH CH3 (b) Iso-cyanide test
H
(a) C=C (b) C=C (c) NaNO2, HCl, then -Napthol
H CH3 (d) NaOH
CH3 CH3
CH3 36. Correct order of boiling point of following amines
Primary amine (I), secondary amines (II) and tertiary
CH CH3 CH3 CH3
H amine (III)
(c) C=C (d) C=C
(a) (I) > (II) > (III) (b) (III) > (II) > (I)
H CH2CH3 CH3CH2 CH3
(c) (II) > (III) > (I) (d) (II) > (I) > (III)
32. The correct order of rate of reaction toward
37. Which of the following is chiral.
nucleophilic addition reaction
CHO CHO CHO O
(a) CH3
H
(b) D
NO2 OMe
(a) (b) (c) H
O Cl
C Ph
(c) Cl
O
CH3 – C – Et H3C O
(d)
(d) (e)
O CH3
(a) a > b > c > d > e (b) a > b > d > c > e
(c) a > d > e > b > c (d) a > b > e > d > c
MOCK TEST 6 5
38. One of the products of the following reaction, 41. Which of the following mixtures of solutions can
O function as a buffer solution?
(a) 50 ml of 0.2 M NH3 + 50 ml of 0.1 M HCl
C H
NaOD (Conc.) (b) 50 ml of 0.2 M NH3 + 50 ml of 0.2 M HCl
; is
(c) 50 ml of 0.2 M HCl + 05 ml of 0.2 M NaOH
(d) 50 ml of 0.1 CH3COOH + 50 ml of 0.1 M HCl
CH2 OD
42. Standard electrode potential of reactions are given
(a)
below:
OMe
(c) The order of reaction I is greater than that of II
Cl
OH
Cl O
O
(a) III > II > IV > I
(b) III > II > I > IV (c) (d)
(c) II > III > I > IV
(d) II > III > IV > I OH
6 MOCK TEST 6
60. The value of the expression 67. If [x] denotes the greatest integer less than or equal
2
2( + 1) ( + 1) + 3(2 + 1) (2 + 1) + 4(3 + 1)
2 2
to x, then x dx is equal to
(32 + 1) + .... + (n + 1) (n + 1) (n2 + 1) is ( is the 0
e
cube root of unity)
(a) loge 2 (b) e2
2
n2 (n 1)2 n(n 1)
(a)
4
(b) n (c) 0 (d)
2
2 e
2
n(n 1) 68. If z = rei, then |eiz| is equal to
(c) n (d) None of these
2 (a) er sin (b) re
r sin
ANSWERS
1. (a) 2. (300V) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (a)
11. (3.3m) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (c) 16. (3.57m/s) 17. (a) 18. (c) 19. (c)
–1
20. (a) 21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (8s) 25. (7ms ) 26. (2) 27. (b) 28. (a)
29. (a) 30. (c) 31. (d) 32. (a) 33. (n = 2) 34. (d) 35. (c) 36. (a) 37. (a) 38. (a)
39. (b) 40. (d) 41. (a) 42. (d) 43. (b) 44. (b) 45. (b) 46. (c) 47. (c) 48. (72g)
49. (0.095N) 50. (0.125M) 51. (c) 52. (d) 53. (a) 54. (a) 55. (one) 56. (b)
57. (b) 58. (c) 59. (c) 60. (b) 61. (13) 62. (b) 63. (a) 64. (107) 65. (a) 66. (a)
67. (a) 68. (a) 69. (c) 70. (a) 71. (d) 72. (d) 73. (a) 74. (15) 75. (None of these)
EXPLANATIONS
1. E dV = negative of the slope of V–r graph. Here i0 = E/R and
L
dr R
t
2. W U2 U1 q 1 1
2
q idt i0 (1 e t / )dt
2 C C 2 1 0 0
E L
0 A C A
C1 , C2 1 0 i0 R
R EL
d 2 2d
e e eR 2
0 AV
q = C1 V = mv 0 v
d 5. r 0
B 0 q B0
Solve to get, W 1 0 AV
2
x 3
2 d sin 60
r 2
3. In the steady state conduction, no current will flow
through the capacitor C. u2
6. H given 2 21 ...(1)
2g
Current in the outer circuit,
A to B: 12 u2 2gh ...(2)
V R
A to C: 22 u2 2g( h) ...(3)
V A C
I I=0 I Solving (1), (2) and (3), find the value of u2 and then
u2
2V 2R get the value of H by using H
2g
2V V V
I
2R R 3R
v1 H
Potential difference between A and B.
B
VA – V + V + IR = VB
u h
V V
VB – VA = IR = R A
3R 3
h
4. The current at time t is given by C
v2
i = i0(1 – e–t/)
MOCK TEST 6 9
7. 2 u2 2gh or u2 2 2gh As 4g < 80 sin 37°, so the frictional force will act
downwards.
or u2x u2y 2x 2y 2gh
Net applied force in upward direction (excluding
u 2gh
2 2
or u (2) 2 10 0.4 12
2 2 friction force) is.
y y y
80 sin 37° – 40 = 48 – 40 = 8 N
uy = 12 2 3 m / s, ux x 6 m / s
As Fapplied in vertical direction is < fL so block won’t
uy 2 3 1 move in vertical direction and value of static friction
tan
ux 6 3 force is, f = 8 N.
= 30° Y
8. The spring will exert maximum force when the ball
is at its lowest position. If the ball has descended
through a distance x to reach the position.
V0
1 2
mgx = Kx or x = 2 mg/K ...(i)
2
For the block B to leave contact spring force A
Kx = Mg ...(ii)
Comparing equations (i) and (ii), m = M/2
9. x2 + y2 = l2
On differentiating, we get
xVx + yVy = 0 O
x
|Vy| = Vx
2
m/s 12. Fnet mg mg ma a g 1
y 3
13. If the initial speed is V, the speed at the highest
2 V E
Hence, VB cos 30° = m/s
point is . Therefore, the KE is
3 2 2
VB = 1 m/s 14. Rate of cooling is directly proportional to the surface
10. The FBD of the block is shown in the figure area of the body. Plate has the highest surface area
N = 80 cos 37° = 64 N and sphere the least.
3
80 sin 37°
15. Motion A w.r.t. B x1 x2 a cos t b sin t
80 N 2
N
a b cos t
8(2cos sin ) 7 3 3 3 1 1 1
or 0 or 2 cos – sin = 0 1 . 1
(2 sin cos )2 3 2 7 7 2 2 2
2 1 1
or tan = 2, so sin = , cos sin i > 2 or i > 30°
5 5
1N 2 kg T T 3 kg 8 b (2 6)2 52 7 m / s
B C
Kh 7.7 10 6
r1 > A – c Degree of hydrolysis “h” = conc 1
80
MOCK TEST 6 11
= 7.7 80 106
42. Greater the reduction potential, stronger is the
oxidizing agent or weaker is the reducing agent.
= 616 106 24.8 103
1
43. K
Percentage of hydrolysis = 24.8 × 10–3 × 102 = 2.48. Ea
29. At boiling point, the vapour pressure of a liquid is
O O O
equal to atmospheric pressure. At higher altitudes,
the atmospheric pressure decreases, so the boiling 44.
NaBH4
H
point of liquid also decreases.
30. 1 dyne cm–1 = (10–5 N) (10–2 m)–1 = 10–3 Nm–1 O OH
72.75 dyne cm–1 = 72.75 × 10–3 NM–1 45. HNO3 is added to decompose Na2S and NaCN
= 0.07275 Nm–1 otherwise Na2S will give black ppt. of Ag2S and NaCN
will give white ppt. of AgCN which would interfere
OH with the tests of halogens.
31. CH3 – CH2 – C – CH – CH3
H
46. At constant T, V
CH3 CH3 P nP1V1 = n1 R T1
CH3 P1 n1
+ n1 1.68 moles
CH3 – CH2 – C – CH 1, 2- H–Shift P2 n2
CH3
CH3
n2
1.68 2.5 1.05 mole
4
CH3 – CH2 CH3
C=C Number of moles of gas leaked out = n1 - n2 = 0.63
CH3 CH3
mol
32. Aldehyde is more reactive than ketone toward 47. Let there be 1 mole of Iron atom:
nucleophilic attack. (Aliphatic aldehyde is more
reactive than aromatic aldehyde) 1
We will have amount of Fe (III) = 4 mol
O
3
CO2H amount of Fe (II) = 4 mol
33. (n = 2)
O
CO2H
O 1 3 9
Total positive charge due to 1 mole = 4 3 4 2 4
Succinic acid on heating form anhydride.
36. Due to higher value of intermolecular H-bonding in 9
Total positive charge due to x mole = 4 x
primary amine is show highest B.P
37. (C) and has plane of symmetry Total +ve charge = Total -ve charge
(D) has a centre of symmetry. 9 8
x2 x
38. 4 9
Fe8 O
O O O 9
C H
C H C H
48. Tf Tb K f Kb m
OD
+
OD OD
w 1000
5 1.86 0.51 w = 72 g
CH2OD O O 342 100
C O CH2O
C O D
+ deuterium
+
49. NaOH + CO2 NaHCO3
exchange
m.m. of NaOH reacted = m.m. of CO2 reacted
39. Benzyl carbonation will be be formed due to SN1 m.eq. of NaOH remaining = 19
which is stable one. eq. of NaOH = 0.019
41. It will behave as a mixture of NH and NH3 because
0.019
Normality 0.095
4
0.2
some of the NH3 would react with HCl to form NH4 .
12 MOCK TEST 6
50. [OH–] = Kb c
54. Point P 1 t , 2 t lies between given line
(1.5 × 10–3)2 = 1.8 × 10–5 × c 2 2
(1.5 103 )2
c= = 0.125 M 15
1.8 105 0,
4
51. A
1
0,
2
C1 B1
G 15
,0
4
(1, 0)
B A1 C
A, C1, G and B1 are cyclic x + 2y – 1 = 0
BC1. BA = BG.BB1 t t
Hence 1 2 2 1 0
c 2 2 2
c BB1 .BB1
2 3 5
3t
1 0 t
4 2
2 3
c2 2 1
(2c 2 2a2 b2 )
2 3 4
c2 + b2 = 2a2 Now, 2 1 t 4 2 t 15 0
2 2
1 x2 1 10
6t
15 0 t
5 2
52. tan1 4 x0
x 2 6
4 2 5 2
taking tan on both side Hence t ,
3 6
1 x2 1 55. y2 – 2y – 2x – 1 = 0
tan 4
x y2 – 2y + 1 = 2x + 2
1 x 2 1 x tan 4
(y – 1)2 = 2(x + 1)
Normal of slope ‘m’
1 x 2 2x tan 4 1 x 2 tan 2 4
1
(y – 1) = m(x + 1) – 2am – am3 at (– 2, 2) and a = 2
2 tan 4
x = 0, 1 tan2 4
since x 0
m3
x = tan8° 1 = m(–1) – m –
2
n n
m3
r. C n
r n n 1 C r 1
n.2n 1 n 1 = – 2m –
53.
1 r 0
r 1
2
1 n
2n 2n 2
r. C
r 0
n
r 2 = – 4m – m3
m3 + 4m + 2 = 0
n
r 2 n
. Cr
1 n
only one real value of ‘m’ hence only one normal is
1
2
r 0
n
{r(r 1) r}.n Cr
2n r 0
possible as the above is a monotonically increasing
r 0
n
Cr function of m.
56. Let middle point of chord is P(h, k) then its equation
1 n n
n(n 1) Cr 2 n Cr 1
n2 n 1
is T = S1
2n r 2 r 1
xh yK h2 k2
1 2
2
2
n [n(n 1).2n 2 n.2n 1] a b a b2
2
b2hx + a2ky = b2h2 + a2k2
n(n 1) n
Now tangents at extremities intersect on director
4 2
circle
Now variance 12 (11 )2
n(n 1) n n n
2 Let Q a2 b2 cos , a2 b2 sin is point of
4 2 2 4 intersection of tangents
MOCK TEST 6 13
a2 b2 cos a2 b2 sin y
equation is (x + 3)2 + (y – 3)2 = 9
1
a2 b2
Equation (i) & (ii) are same so we have
x+y=0
+
3
=
y = mx ...(1) 0
P A P A1BPAP A 31
c
P BA
x+y=0
62. P B A c c
x+3=0
Circles is x2 + y2 + 2x – 6y + 9 = 0 64. y = 3[x] + 1 = 4[x] – 14 [x] = 15 & y = 46
Centre is (–1, 3) [x + 2y] = [x] + 2y = 15 + 92 = 107
radius = 1 2 3 42 3
65. sin1 sin1
x + y = 0 and x + 3 = 0 are normals to the required 4 8
circle
3 1
sin1
centre of the circle is (–3, 3) 2 2 12
and it contains the circle
sin1 cot 0
x2 + y2 + 2x – 6x + 9 – 0 12 6 4
14 MOCK TEST 6
70. xy = 2(x + y) y(x – 2) = 2x
1
sin n x
66. Let In
2 2x
dx y but x, y N
0 sin x / 2 x2
By trial,x = 3, 4, 6
1 1
sin n x sin n x theny = 6, 4, 3 by x y
2 2
In – In–1 dx x = 3, 4 and y = 6, 4 two solutions.
0 x
sin
2 71. a1b are is of then form
2cosnx.sin(x / 2) sinnx
a1b 7m, 7m 1,7m 2, 7m 3,7m 4,7m 6
2cos nx dx 2
0 sin(x / 2)
dx
0 n 0
a12b2 7m1, 7m1 1,7m1 4, 7m1 2,7m1 2,7m1 4,7m1 1
=0–0=0
In = In–1 a 2 ,b 2 must be of the form 7m.
Replacing n by n–1, n – 2, ...., then we get
1
In = In–1 = In–2 = ... = I1 Probability = 49
sin(3x / 2) sin 2x sin x
In = I1 = 0 sin(x / 2)
dx 0
sin x dx
7 C2
72. 1 11
C2
0
(2cos x 1)dx {2 sin x x}0
Hence, In = 73. T S1
e r sin
r3 ei3 + 3re–i2 = 0
69. |z1 – 1| < 1, |z2 – 2| < 2, |z3 – 3| < 3 Since ‘r’ cannot be zero
|z1 + z2 + z3| = |(z1 – 1) + (z2 – 2) + (z3 – 3) + 6| r2 ei5 = – 3 which will hold for
|z1 – 1| + |z2 – 2| + |z3 – 3| + 6 < 1 + 2 + 3 + 6 r= 3 and 5 distinct values of ‘’
|z1 + z2 + z3| < 12
Thus there are five solution.
MOCK TEST – 7
PHYSICS (SECTION – A) 4. Two particles of equal mass 'm' are projected from
the ground with speeds v1 and v2 at angles 1 and 2
1. Two particles start together from a point O and slide
down straight smooth wires inclined at 30° and 60° at the same time as shown in figure. The centre of
to the vertical and in the same vertical plane and on mass of the two particles;
the same side of vertical through O. The relative
acceleration of second with respect to first will be in v1 v2
magnitude and direction as: 1 2
m m
g
(a) in the vertical direction (a) will move in a vertical line if v1tan1 = v2tan2.
2
(b) will move in a vertical line if v1sin1 = v2sin2.
g 3
(b) inclined 45° to vertical (c) will move in a vertical line if v1cot1 = v2cot2.
2 (d) will move in a vertical line if v1cos1 = v2cos2.
g 5. A ball of mass m approaches a moving wall of infinite
(c) inclined 60° to vertical
3 mass with speed v along the normal to the wall. The
(d) g in the vertical direction speed of the wall is u toward the ball. The speed of
2. Two particles A and B move on a straight line. A moves the ball after 'elastic' collision with wall is:
with constant positive velocity. B moves with constant (a) u + v away from the wall
positive acceleration. At t = 0, A and B are moving
equally fast. Which of the following is not possible? (b) 2u + v away from the wall
(a) The distance between them keeps decreasing. (c) |u – v| away from the wall
(b) The distance between them first decreases and (d) |v – 2u| away from the wall
then increases.
(c) The distance between them first increases, then 6. In a wire of young's modulus Y, the longitudinal strain
decrease and finally keeps increasing. produced is then the strain energy per unit volume
(d) The distance between them first decreases, then store in the wire will be
increases, then decreases and finally keeps (a) Y2 (b) 2Y2
increasing.
(c) Y2/2 (d) Y2/2
3. From the fixed pulley, masses 2 kg, 1 kg and 3 kg are
suspended as shown in the figure. Find the extension 7. A hollow thin walled pipe is projected on a rough
in the spring if k = 100 N/m ___________(m) horizontal surface with speed v. As soon as the pipe
begins to roll, what will be its speed?
1 1
(a) v (b) v
4 3
2 kg 1
(c) v (d) v
2
1 kg
8. A block with mass 3M connected to a massless rod
of length L lies at rest on a fixed frictionless table.
A second block of mass M impinges on the system
with speed V0 strikes the opposite end of the rod at
a right angle and sticks
3 kg
V0
(a) zero (b)
2
V0
(c) V0 (d) 3
4 (a) mg (b) 3 mg
2
9. A thin bar of mass M and length L is free to rotate
5
about a fixed horizontal axis through a point at its (c) 5 mg (d) mg
end. The bar is brought to a horizontal position and 2
then released. The angular velocity when it reaches 14. There are fom concentric shells A, B, C and D of
the lowest point is radii a, 2a, 3a and 4a respectively. Shells B & D are
(a) directly proportional to its length and inversely given charges +q & –q respectively. Shell C is now
proportional to its mass earthed. The potential difference VA – VC is
(b) Dependent upon mass and inversely proportional Kq Kq
(a) (b)
to the square root of its length 6a 2a
(c) dependent only upon the acceleration du to gravity Kq Kq
and the length of the bar (c) (d)
3a 4a
(d) directly proportional to its length and inversely 15. A capacitor and a coil in series are connected to 6V
proportional to the acceleration due to gravity AC source. By varying the frequency of the source,
10. A man can swim in still water at a speed of 5 km/hr. maximum current of 600 mA is observed. If the same
He wants to cross a rive 6 km wide, flowing at the coil is now connected to a cell of emf 6V DC and
rate of 4 km/hr. If he heads in a direction making an
internal resistance of 2 , the current through it will
angle of 127° with stream direction, then he will reach
a point on the other bank (approx) be___________(A)
(a) upstream at a distance of 1.5 km 16. A uniform magnetic field exists in the space along
the x-axis as shown in the figure. A rectangular loop
(b) downstream at a distance of 1.5 km of sides (a × b) isrotated in magnetic field about an
(c) directly on the other side of the bank axis passing through themid-point of side a and
parallel to side b with angular speed (this axis is
(d) never reach the other bank parallel to direction of B). The induced current in the
11. Four particles of masses 2kg, 4kg, 1kg and m loop if the resistance of loop is R, is
are placed at four corners of a square. What y B
should be the value of m so that the centre of
mass of all four particles is exactly at the centre
of square___________(kg)
m 1kg
x
2
B b B2a
2kg 4kg (a) (b)
2R 2R
12. A convex lens forms a real image three times larger (c) zero (d) None of these
than the object on a screen. Object and screen are 17. Three point charges q, 2q and 8q are to be placed on
moved until the image becomes twice the size of a 9 cm long straight line. Find the position where the
the object, if the shift in the position of object is charges should be placed such that the potential
6 cm the shift in the position of screen energy of this system is minimum. In this situation,
is___________(cm)
MOCK TEST 7 3
what is the electric field at the position of the charge the new position of the null point from the same end,
q due to the other two charges? if one decides to balance a resistance of 3X against
(a) 20 cm, 24 N/C (b) 12 cm, 2 N/C Y, will be close to___________(cm)
(c) 3 cm, zero (d) 9 cm, zero 22. In the Bohr model an electron moves in a circular
orbit around the proton. Considering the orbiting
18. A conical pendulum consists of a slender bar AB of
electron to be a circular current loop, the magnetic
length Land mass M. If it rotates with constant
moment of the hydrogen atom, when the electron is
angular velocity , then value of cos will be
in nth excited state, is:
e n2 h e nh
(a) (b)
m 2 2m 2
e n2 h e nh
(c) 2 (d)
2m m 2
23. Consider two npn transistors as shown in figure. If 0
volts corresponds to false and 5 volts correspond to
true then the output at C corresponds to :
5V
C
g 2g 1
(a) cos (b) cos
2L 2L A
3g 3g 2
(c) cos (d) cos
2 L 2 L 2 B
19. A solid sphere and a thin loop of equal masses m
and radius R are harnessed together by rigging and
free to roll without slipping down the incline plane.
(a) A OR B (b) A NOR B
Neglect the mass of rigging, then compressive force
(c) A NAND B (d) A AND B
in rigging will be
24. From the following, the quantity (constructed from
the basic constants of nature), that has the dimen-
sions, as well as correct order of magnitude, vis-a-
vis typical atomic size, is :
e2 4 0 mc 2
(a) (b)
4 0 mc 2 e2
me 2 4 0 h2
3
mg sin mgsin (c) (d)
(a) (b) 4 0 h 2
me 2
17 17
25. If the ratio of lengths, radii and Young's moduli of
2mgsin steel and brass wires in the figure are a, b, and c
(c) 3mg sin (d)
17 respectively, then the corresponding ratio of increase
20. An electron and a proton are separated by a large in their lengths is :
distance. The electron starts approaching the proton
with energy 2eV. The proton captures the electron Steel
and forms a hydrogen atoms in first excited state. M
The resulting photon is incident on a photosensitive
metal of threshold wavelength 4600 Å. The maximum Brass
KE of the emitted photoelectron is 2M
(a) 2.4 eV (b) 2.7 eV
3c 2a2 c
(c) 2.9 eV (d) 5.4 eV (a) (b)
2ab2 b
21. In a meter bridge experiment null point is obtained at
40 cm from one end of the wire when resistance X is 3a 2ac
(c) (d)
balanced against another resistance Y. If X < Y, then 2b 2 c b2
4 MOCK TEST 7
CHEMISTRY (SECTION – B) 32. Which one of the reagents given can be used to bring
out the following conversion?
26. When 20 g of CaCO3 is put into a 10 L flask and
heated to 800°C, 35% of CaCO 3 remains CH3
undissociated at equilibrium. Calculate the value of CH3
Kp ___________(atm) OD
27. For the reaction,
D
2NH3 (g) CO2 (g)
NH2COONH4 (s) (a) Hg(OAc)2/D2O followed by NaBD4
equilibrium pressure was found to be 3 atm at 1000 (b) Hg(OAc)2/H2O followed by NaBH4
K. Hence Kp in atm3 is ___________
(c) Hg(OAc)2/D2O followed by NaBH4
28. The pH of a solution obtained by mixing equal volume
(d) Hg(OOCCD3)2/H2O followed by NaBH4
of solutions having pH = 3 and pH = 4 ___________
33. The Ksp of Mg(OH)2 is 1 × 10–12. At what maximum
[log 5.5 = 0.7404]
pH, Mg(OH)2 just begins to precipitate from a solution
29. The pH values of 1 M solutions of CH3COOH (I), containing 0.01 M MgCl2___________
CH3COONa (II), CH3COONH4 (III) and KOH (IV) will
34. Which one of the following is a non-aromatic spe-
be in the order
cies?
(a) (IV) > (III) > (II) > (I)
O
(b) (IV) > (II) > (III) > (I)
(a) (b)
(c) (I) > (III) > (II) > (IV)
(d) (II) > (I) > (III) > (IV)
O
30. The dissociation energy of H2 is 430.53 kJ mol–1. If +
H2 is dissociated by illuminating with the radiation of
wavelength 253.7 nm, the fraction of the radiant (c) (d)
energy which will be converted into kinetic energy is
given by___________ 35. At constant temperature, the equilibrium constant
31. Geraniol is a naturally occurring alcohol found in pinus (K p ) for the decomposition reaction,
tree. Geraniol converts into -terpineol in the presence
of aqueous acid
N2O4 (g)
2NO2 (g) is expressed by
4x 2P
OH Kp = where P = equilibrium pressure and
CH2 – OH – 1 x2
H/HOH
x = extent of decomposition. Which one of the
following statement is true?
(Geraniol) ( - Terpineol) (a) Kp increases with increase of P.
(b) Kp increases with increase of x.
The first step of this reaction is the formation of
(c) Kp increases with decrease of x.
carbocation. The carbocation which gives the above
mentioned product has the structure (d) Kp remains same with change in P and x.
36. Froth floation is a process of
+ (a) Oxidation (b) Reduction
+
CH2OH CH2OH (c) Refining (d) Concentration
(a) (b) 37. The true statement for the acids of phosphorus
H3PO2, H3PO3 and H3PO4 is
(a) Their acidic nature H3PO4 < H3PO3 < H3PO2
(b) All of them are tribasic acids
+
CH2OH CH2 (c) The geometry of phosphorus is tetrahedral in all
the three acids
(c) (d)
(d) None of these
+
MOCK TEST 7 5
x 1 y 1 z 1 x 3 y k z 1 1 1
52. If the line and 62. If tan1 tan1 tan1
2 3 4 1 2 1 1 2 1 2 3 1 3 4
intersect, then k = 1
.... tan1 tan1 ,
2 9 1 n n 1
(a) (b)
9 2
then
(c) 0 (d) –1
53. In an upper triangular matrix n × n, minimum number n n1
(a) (b)
of zeros is n1 n2
n(n 1) n(n 1) n n 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2 2 n2 n2
63. The line x + y = 1 meets x-axis at A and y-axis at B.
2n(n 1)
(c) (d) None of these P is the mid-point of AB. P 1 is the foot of the
2 perpendicular from P to OA; M1 is that from P1 to
54. The vertices of triangle are (0, 3) (– 3, 0) and (3, 0). OP; P2 is that from M1 to OA; M2 is that from P2 to
The co-ordinate of its orthocentre are OP; P3 is that from M2 to OA and so on. If Pn denotes
(a) (0, – 2) (b) (0, 2) the n th foot of the perpendicular on OA from Mn – 1 ,
then OPn =
(c) (0, 3) (d) (0, – 3)
55. Let p be a non-singular matrix, 1 + p + p2 + ... + pn = 1 1
0 (0 denotes the null matrix), then p–1 = (a) (b)
2 2n
(a) p n
(b) – p n
1 1
(c) – (1 + p + ... + p ) (d) None of these
n
(c) (d)
n/2
56. Number of irrational terms in the expansion of 2 2
64. The line 9x + y – 28 = 0 is the chord of contact of the
( 2 3 )15 is equal to___________
point P(h, k) with respect to the circle 2x2 + 2y2 – 3x
57. Total number of non-negative integral solutions of x1 + 5y – 7 = 0, for
+ x2 + x3 = 10 is equal to (a) P(3, –1) (b) P(3, 1)
(a) 12C3 (b) 10C3 (c) P(–3, 1) (d) no position of P
(c) 12C2 (d) 10C2 65. If OA and OB are two equal chords of the circles x2 +
58. If 2ax – 2y + 3z = 0, x + ay + 2z = 0 and 2x + az y2 – 2x + 4y = 0, perpendicualr to each other and
= 0 have a non-trivial solution, then passing through the origin, the slopes of OA and OB
(a) a = 2 (b) a = 1 are the roots of the equation
(c) a = 0 (d) None of these (a) 3m2 + 8m – 3 = 0 (b) 3m2 – 8m – 3 = 0
(c) 8m2 – 3m – 8 = 0 (d) 8m2 + 3m – 8 = 0
0 1
59. If A and I is the unit matrix of order 2, then 66. If the circle x2 + y2 + 2ax + 2by + c = 0 passes
0 0 through exactly three quadrants and does not pass
(al + bA)2, where 'a' and 'b' are given constants, is through origin, then
equal to (a) c > 0, a2 > b2
(a) a I + b A
2 2
(b) a I + 2abA
2
(b) c > 0, a2 + b2 > 2c
(c) a I + abA
2
(d) a – b A
2 2
(c) c(a2 – c) (b2 – c) > 0
(d) c > 0, a2 > c, b2 > c
cos sin 1 0
60. If A and A(adj(A)) = then 67. If the line x + y = a, touches the parabola y = x – x2,
sin cos 0 1
then the point of contact is
is equal to___________
(a) (1, 0) (b) (0, 0)
61. Number of solutions of the equation tan x + sec x =
(c) (2, –2) (d) (–2, –6)
2 cos x lying in the interval 0, 2 is___________
MOCK TEST 7 7
68. The total number of solutions of the equation 73. If the line joining the points 0,3 and 5, –2 is a tangent
3.cos ec 2 x 2 3 cos ecx.sec x 3 sec 2 x 0 c
to the curve y , then value of c is
in the interval (0, 2) is equal to ___________ x 1
(a) 1 (b) – 2
2
69. In triangle ABC, C and CD is internal angle (c) 4 (d) – 4
3
74. Equation of the plane through (3, 4, –1) which is
bisector of C, meeting the side AB at D. Length
CD is equal to
parallel to the plane r· 2iˆ 3ˆj 5kˆ 7 0 is
(a)
ab
2(a b)
(b)
2ab
ab
(a) r· 2iˆ 3ˆj 5kˆ 11 0
(c)
2ab
(d)
ab
(b) r· 3iˆ 4 ˆj 4kˆ 11 0
3(a b) ab
dy y
(c) r· 3iˆ 4ˆj kˆ 7 0
70. Solution of the differential equation x2 ,
satisfying y(1) = 1, is
dx x
(d) r· 2iˆ 3ˆj 5kˆ 7 0
(a) 4xy = x3 + 3 (b) 4xy = x4 + 3 75. The image of the point (–1, 3, 4) in the plane x – 2y
(c) 4xy = x2 +3 (d) 4xy = y3 +3 = 0 is
ANSWERS
1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (0.2 m) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (b)
11. (None of these) 12. (36 cm) 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (0.5A) 16. (c) 17. (c) 18. (c) 19. (a)
20. (b) 21. (67 cm) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (d) 25. (c) 26. (1.145 atm) 27. (4)
28. (3.26) 29. (b) 30. (8.74%)31. (d) 32. (a) 33. (9) 34. (d) 35. (d) 36. (d) 37. (c)
38. (b) 39. (b) 40. (a) 41. (b) 42. (c) 43. (c) 44. (d) 45. (a) 46. (b) 47. (d)
48. (b) 49. (a) 50. (c) 51. (d) 52. (b) 53. (a) 54. (c) 55. (a) 56. (16) 57. (c)
58. (a) 59. (b) 60. (1) 61. (2) 62. (c) 63. (b) 64. (d) 65. (b) 66. (d) 67. (a)
68. (4) 69. (d) 70. (b) 71. (b) 72. (2) 73. (c) 74. (a) 75. (c)
EXPLANATIONS
When rod is vertical
1. Acceleration = gsin. Find . a–b
2. Use relative motion, taking A at rest. l
F mg m2
2
3. Find tension between 1 kg and 3 kg block.
3 5
T = kx F mg mg mg
2 2
4. Find V cm . 14.
5. Taking m2 as infinite, use formula.
6. E 1 stress strain
V 2 +q –q
A
7. MVR = MVcmR + Icm B
8. Apply conservation of angular momentum about C
the C.M. D
Kq KQ Kq
9. Mgl 1 Iw 2
3a 3a 4a
0
2
Q q 4
10. VRM VR V m
Kq Kq 4 Kq Kq
11. Not possible for any value of m to get the com at the VA
2a 3a 4a 6a
centre.
VA VC Kq 6a
1 1 1
12.
3x x F V 6
15. R 10
i 0.6
4 1
V 6
3x F i 0.5A
R r 10 2
1 1 1 16.
2 6 x 6 x F b y
3 1 4 3
a
2 6 x F 3x 2 6 x x
x = 48 cm
shift of screen = 3x – 2(6 + x) = 36 cm
13. Loss in PE = Gain in KE
l 1 ml2 2
Don’t be confused see clearly that the angle between
mg the area vector of loop and B will always remain con-
2 2 3
stant (90°).
3g Induced emf = Ba cos 90 (no change in flux)
2
l Inducd current = 0
MOCK TEST 7 9
1 N1
Here, K
40 a
F
F
f2
For U to be minimum 2 8 should be minimum. mg
x 9x a
f1
d 2 8 mg
0
dx x 9 x
mg sin – f1 + F = ma ... (i)
2
8
0x3
f1r = mr2 ... (ii)
x2 (9 x)2
Force equation for sphere
i.e., distance of charge q from 2q should be 3 cm. mg sin – f2 – F = ma ... (iii)
So, electric field at q
2 2
f2r mr ... (iv)
K(2q) K(8q) 5
E zero
(3 10 2 )2 (6 10 2 )2
[a = r for pure rolling]
18. For equilibrium of rigid body net torque acting on Solve all equations
body should be zero
3
Here only two forces, one is gravity force and other F mg sin
17
is centrifugal force (if rod is considered as frame of
reference). 20. Initial energy of electrons = 2eV
Here notice that centrifugal force is variable because Energy of electron in 1st excited state
distance of mass from axis is variable that’s why
12
radius is variable and because of that centrifugal force (i.e., n = 2) = – 13.6 × = – 3.4 eV
22
is variable.
Photon of energy = 2 – (– 3.4) = 5.4 eV will be
emitted.
12400
KEmax Ephoton W0 5.4
4600
x
= 5.4 – 2.7 = 2.7 eV
X Y 3
21. Y X
dm2r 40 60 2
r
3X Y 3X 1
So,
l 100 l 2 100 l
(dm)g
(r = xsin) l 66.7 cm
e 2 e rn rn ev nrn
22. B irn2 rn
Torque due to centrifugal force = Torque due to weight 2 2 2
r Y
2
b b r Y
2
s s
38. order of oxidising power Cl2 > Br2 > I2
41. (K.E.)1 = 2(K.E)2
ls
Solve for hv1 – hv0 = 2(hv2 – hv0)
lb
or hv0 = 2hv2 – hv1
26. CaCO3 (s)
CaO(s) CO2
or v0 = (2v2 – v1) = 2 × 2 × 1016 – 3.2 × 1016
moles (initial) 0.2 0 0
= 8 × 1015 Hz
moles (equilib.) 0.2(1 0.65) 0.2 0.65 0.2 0.65
1
42. H+ (aq) + e– 2
H2(g)
0.2
KC 0.65
10 Here n = 1
0.0591V [pH2 ]1/ 2 0.0591V (pH )1/ 2
KP K C (R 1073) 1.145 atm. E E log 0 log 2
1
[H ] 1 [H ]
27.
2NH3 CO2
NH2COONH4 (s) (pH2 )1/ 2
2p p E will be negative if is more than 1.
[H ]
3p = 3 p = 1 when p(H2) = 2 atm and [H+] = 1 M
Kp = (2p)2(p) = 4 atm3. E will be negative.
28. At pH = 3,[H ] = 10 M + –3
45. The tri oxides of N and Bi can’t be obtained by direct
At pH = 4,[H ] = 10 M+ –4 combination with oxygen. But out of N and Bi, NCl3
When in equal volume of the two solutions are mixed, hydrolyses completely while BiCl 3 hydrolyses
the [H+] partially. Hence the oxide is Bi2O3. The reactions
involved are
10 3 104 10 3 [1 0.1] 1.1
10 3
Bi(NO3 )3 Bi2O3 3NO2
2 2 2
48. Fact
3.99 10 13 kJs mol1 3 108 ms1
= 471.8 kJ/mol 49. Fact
253.7 109 m
50. (cis/trans) i.e. Geometrical
Dissociation energy = 430.53 kJ/mol
51. Let a = a1i + a2j + a3k
Extra energy, 471.80 – 430.53 = 41.27 kJ/mol,
a × i = (a1i + a2j + a3k) × i = – a2k + a3j
is converted into kinetic energy.
(a × i)2 = (a × i) (a × i) = (– a2k + a3j) (– a2k +
41.27
Fraction 100 8.74% . a3j) a22 a32
471.80
3 5 3 5 sin2x
x 2h y 2k h k 7 0 … (i) 3 tan 2x 3
2 2 2 2 cos2x
which should be same as the given line n
2x n x
9x + y – 28 = 0 ...(ii) 3 2 6
or
x 1 m2 x 4m 2 0
72. 2 6 2 0
3m2 8m 3 0
parallel to the plane is r· 2iˆ 3ˆj 5kˆ 0
66. It is possible if origin lies outside the circle and circle
intersects both co-ordinate axis in two distinct points. If r xiˆ yjˆ zkˆ , we get 2x 3y 5k 0
c > 0, a2 > c, b2 > c This plane passes through the point (3, 4, –1) if
67. a – x = x – x2 should have equal roots 2 3 3 4 5 1 0 or it x = 11 and hence the
a=1 h 1 k 3 p 4 1 6
75. 2
and that equal root is 1 2 0 5
2
x 1 9 13
2 h, k, p 5 , , 4
5
x = 1, y = 0.
MOCK TEST – 8
5. Starting from the mean position a body oscillates
PHYSICS (SECTION – A)
simple harmonically with a period of 2 s.
1. A wire frame in the shape of an equilateral triangle is
(a) Its kinetic energy will become 75% of the total
hinged at one vertex so that it can swing freely in a
vertical plane, with the plane of the always 1
energy after s
6
1
remaining vertical. The side of the frame is m. (b) Its kinetic energy will become 75% of the total
3
1
The time period in seconds of small oscillations of energy after s
the frame will be 12
(c) Magnitude of its momentum will become half of
(a) (b) 2 1
2 initial after s
12
(d) Magnitude of its momentum will become half of
(c) (d)
6 5
1
initial after s
7 6
2. In an adiabatic expansion of air the volume
5 6. A certain object floats in fluids of density
increases by 5%. Then, the percentage change in
pressure is approximately (i) 0.90 (ii) 0 (iii) 1.10
(a) + 7% (b) + 3% Which of the following statements is true?
(c) – 5% (d) – 7% (a) the buoyant force of fluid i is greater than the
3. A tube of length L1 is open at both ends. A second buoyant forces of the other two fluids
tube of length L2 is closed at one end and open at (b) the buoyant force of fluid 3 is greater than the
the other end. Both tubes have the same fundamental buoyant forces of the other two fluids
frequency of vibration of air in it. What is the value of (c) the three fluids exert the same buoyant force
L2?
(d) the object displace the same volume of all three
(a) 4L1 (b) 2L1 fluids
L1 L1 7. Two whistles A and B each have frequency of 500
(c) (d)
2 4 Hz. A is a stationary and B is moving towards the
4. A rectangular bar of soap had density 800 kg/m3 floats right (away from A) at a speed of 50 m/s. An observer
in water of density 1000 kg/m3. Oil of density 300 is between the two whistles moving towards the right
kg/m3 is slowly added, forming a layer that does not with a speed of 25 m/s. The velocity of sound in air
mix with the water. When the top surface of the oil is is 350 m/s. Assume that there is no wind. Which of
at the some level as the top surface of the soap. the following is false?
What is the ratio of the oil layer thickness to the (a) the apparent frequency of whistle B as heard by
x A is 437 Hz approximately.
soap's thickness, ? (b) the apparent frequency of whistle B as heard by
L
observer is 469 Hz approximately.
Oil x (c) the difference in the apparent frequencies of A
L Soap and B as heard by the observer is 4.5 Hz.
(d) the apparent frequencies of the whistles as
observer by each other are the same.
2 2 8. 3 moles of an ideal monoatomic gas at 400 K are
(a) (b)
10 7 mixed at constant volume with 2 moles of helium at
600 K in an insulated vessel. The temperature of the
3 3
(c) (d) resulting mixture is________(K)
10 8
2 MOCK TEST 8
9. Three identical metal rods A, B and C are placed 16. A conducting sphere is connected with earth and a
end to end and a temperature difference is maintained concentric spherical shell is given a charge Q.
between the free ends of A and C. If the thermal Choose the correct option.
conductivity of B(KB) is twice that of C(KC) and half
that of A(KA), then the effective thermal conductivity Q
of the system will be
r
KA 6KB
(a) (b)
7 7
R
6K A
(c) (d) none
7 (a) the charge on the sphere must be zero
10. A clock pendulum made of invar has a period of 0.5 (b) the charge on the sphere must be positive
sec at 20°C. If the clock is used in a climate where Qr
average temperature is 30°C, approximately how (c) the magnitude of charge on the inner sphere is
R
much fast or slow will the clock run in 106 sec. [invar
(d) None of the above
= 1×10–6/°C]
17. A half section of thin uniform pipe of mass m and
(a) 5 sec fast (b) 10 sec fast
radius r is released from rest. Pipe rolls without
(c) 10 sec slow (d) 5 sec slow slipping. The change in PE of pipe when it has rolled
11. Kinetic energy of a particle moving in a straight line through 90°.
varies with time t as K = 4t2. The force acting on it
is
(a) increasing (b) constant
(c) decreasing (d) None of these
6 36
h
E
(a) 3 (b) 6
(c) 12 (d) 36 (a) h1 = h2 (b) h1 < h2
(c) h1 > h2 (d) h2 = 2h1
MOCK TEST 8 3
4 5
(a) (b) (d) I2 2Br 2I Br2
5 4
39. If S O2
SO2 ; H 298.2 kJ
3 5
(c) (d)
4 3
1
SO2 O2 SO3 ; H 98.7 kJ
33. Equal mass of methane and ethane have their 2
kinetic energy in the ratio 3 : 1. Then their
temperatures are in the ratio of SO3 H2O
H2SO4 ; H 130.2 kJ
(a) 5 : 8 (b) 45 : 8
(c) 15 : 8 (d) 8 : 5 1
H2 O2
H2 O ; H 227.3 kJ
2
34. In the reaction C(s) CO2 (g)
2CO(g) the The enthalpy of formation of H2SO4 at 298 K will be
equilibrium pressure is 12 atm. If 50% of CO 2 (a) 754.4 kJ (b) 320.5 kJ
reacts then Kp will be________(atm)
35. Under the same conditions, how many ml of 1 M (c) 650.3 kJ (d) 433.7 kJ
KOH and 0.5 M H2SO4 solutions respectively when
mixed for a total volume of 100 ml produce the 40. For reaction A 2 2B
2AB
highest rise in temperature?
(a) 33 : 67 (b) 67 : 33 [A2] [B] Rate (M sec –1 )
–2
(c) 40 : 60 (d) 50 : 50 0.1 0.2 1 10
36. Carbohydrates which differ in configuration at the –2
0.2 0.2 210
glycosidic carbon (i.e. C1 is aldose and C2 in ketoses)
0.2 0.8 4 10–2
are called
(a) Anomers Then order w.r.t. A2 and B are respectively
(b) Epimers (a) 1, 2 (b) 2, 1
(c) Diastereomers 1
(c) 1, (d) 2, 2
(d) Enantiomers 2
37. If the total vapour pressure of the liquid mixture A 41. The correct order of decreasing acidic strength of
and B is given by the equation: oxyacids of group 15 elements is
P = 180 XA + 90 then the ratio of the vapour pressure (a) HNO3, H3SbO4, H3AsO4, H3PO4
of the pure liquids A and B is given by : (b) H3PO4, H3AsO4, H3SbO4, HNO3
(a) 3 : 2 (b) 4 : 1 (c) HNO3, H3PO4, H3AsO4, H3SbO4
(c) 3 : 1 (d) 6 : 2 (d) HNO3, H3AsO4, H3PO4, H3SbO4
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3 2
(c) Co(H2O)6 (d) Co(H2O)6 H 2(1mole)Pt
49. A
44. The geometry of Ni(CO)4 and Ni(PPh3)2Cl2 are
(a) both square planar Double bond equivalent (degree of unsaturation) of
(b) tetrahedral and square planar (A) is________
(c) both tetrahedral 50. Gobar gas obtained by bacterial fermentation of
(d) square planar and tetrahedral animal refuse contains mainly methane. If heat of
combustion of CH 4 is 809 kJ, then gobar gas
45. The two isomers given below are
produced per day for small village community of
CO2H CO2H 100 families, assuming that each family has to
be supplied 20,000 kJ of energy per day to meet
H OH H OH all needs and that the methane content in gobar
HO H H OH gas is 80% by weight, would be________(kg)
CO2H CO2H
MATHEMATICS (SECTION – C)
(a) Enantiomers (b) Diastereomers
51. The G.M. of the numbers 3, 32, 33 ... 3n is
(c) Mesomers (d) Position isomers
2 n1
46. Relative rate reaction of following amine with methyl
(a) 3 n (b) 3 2
iodide is
n n1
(c) 3 2 (d) 3 2
N N
N
N
52. If A B where A, B R+, then maximum value
2
(A) (B) (C)
of sinA + sinB is equal to
and
1 1
(a) (b)
H 3 6
H
1 1
(i) (ii) (c) (d)
9 12
(a) Diastereomer (b) Enantiomer
(c) Epimer (d) None
6 MOCK TEST 8
ANSWERS
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (480K) 9. (b) 10. (d)
11. (b) 12. (49) 13. (1m) 14. (140°C) 15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (a)
21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (200 m/s) 24. (a) 25. (b) 26. (3 atm) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (c) 30. (+6)
31. (c) 32. (a) 33. (d) 34. (16 atm) 35. (d) 36. (a) 37. (c) 38. (d) 39. (a) 40. (c)
41. (c) 42. (a) 43. (a) 44. (c) 45. (b) 46. (c) 47. (b) 48. (c) 49. (3) 50. (49.44 kg)
51. (b) 52. (c) 53. (d) 54. (d) 55. (a) 56. (c) 57. (a) 58. (2) 59. (d) 60. (c)
61. (0) 62. (d) 63. (c) 64. (1) 65. (1875) 66. (d) 67. (a) 68. (d) 69. (c) 70. (a)
71. (d) 72. (c) 73. (c) 74. (c) 75. (a)
8 MOCK TEST 8
EXPLANATIONS
1. T 2 I . V2 4E2 4E2
mgd P , P3 , P6
R 121 3 121 6
P P
2. V r V . 81E 2 81E2
P12 P36
121 12 121 36
V V
3. .
2L1 4L 2 Hence P12 is maximum.
4. Buoyant Force = Weight 16. As the sphere is earthed the net potential on it must
5. Use phase relationship. be zero. To make potential zero on the sphere some
electrons will flow from earth to sphere.
6. B = mg (in all three cases)
V V0 B
7. n n0 Q
V Vs A q
n1T1 n2T2
8. T r
n1 n2
3l l l l R
9. k k k k
eg 1 2 3
10. t 1 T (Vnet )A 0
t 2
1 q 1 Q
1 (VA )r (VA )R 0 0
11. mv 2 4t 2 40 r 4 0 R
2
v = kt [Potential due to Q on shell and on sphere will be
same]
dv
k constant
dt Qr
q
Hence force is constant. R
IC 98
12. 17.
IE 100
if IE = 100 IC = 98 IB = 2
IC 98 CM
49 R
IB 2
13. v 2iˆ a 2iˆ 4jˆ R–2R/
v2 4 4
ar ; r 4 1m
r r
2R
PEmax mgR mg R
14. R R R
200°C B C 20°C
200 20 2R
mgR mgR mg
R 2R
400 2 20 140C
2R
PEmax mg
15. 3 12
100 0.0103977 100 2R 2
2
current i.e., l 2 R2 2 2R
l
100 1.039% 1.04% 22. 5.5 1 ig 120 ig 0.045A
l
where ig is the maximum deflection current
19.
Rough 100 92
23. v or 200ms1
surface k 0.5 0.46
dE1
24. Force of one dipole on the other: F p2 , where
h1 dr
v
E1 is the electric field of dipole of dipole moment p1.
k·2p1
A ball rolls for rough surface, the linear and angular Also, E1
r3
both the velocities reduce and at the highest point
ball will come at momentarily rest. dE1 6kp
41
and
dr r
So, 1 mv 2 1 T2 mgh1 ...(i)
2 2 6p1p2
F
40r 4
For plane surface, only the linear velocity of the ball
will become zero due to ‘mg sin’ at the highest
point. 25. CP monoatomic 5R , CP diaatomic 7R
2 2
39.555 100
kg = 49.44 kg 1 cos x
4 (1 sin2 x)(1 2 sin2 x)
80 dx
1
54. | z | | 1 , arg z
z
i 60. a (a b) 2 b
2
z (a. b)a (a. a)b 1 b
1 | z | | | 1 2
1
a. b 0, a. a (which is not possible)
z z 2
arg is purely imaginary
2 Thus information are inconsistent.
z z z 61. As z1,z2,...,z3 lie on the circle z 2 , zi 2
0; z z 0 z z
2
zi 4
z i | |2 i.
i zi zi 4 for i = 1, 2, 3, ..., n
55. ee e(cos isin ) ecos .eisin
1 1
ecos [cos(sin ) isin(sin )] Thus, z1 for i = 1, 2, ..., n
zi 4
(4 2 1) or t 2 t 3 1
sq. units.
2
12 MOCK TEST 8
63. We have 67. Altitude are AA1, BB1 and CC1.
A
1 1 1 1
x ,y
1 sin2 cos 2 1 cos2 sin2
1 1
Also, cos cos cos2 sin2
x y C1 B1
1 1
1 1 B C
x y
A1
n 1 1 1
1 1 1 xy AA1(a) (BB1 )b (CC1)c
Thus, z x y
1 1
xy y x 2 2 2
n 0
1
x y
2 2 2
AA1 , BB1 , CC1
a b c
z xy y x xy or xyz xy yz xz
Since, sinA, sinB, sinC are in A.P., therefore
64. We have
Since, a, b, c are in A.P.,
log2 18 1 2log2 3
a log12 18 and 1 1 1
log2 12 2 log2 3 , , are in H.P..
a b c
2 2 2
log2 54 1 3log2 3 AA1 , BB1 , CC1
b log24 54 a b c
log2 24 3 log2 3
Since, sinA, sinB, sinC are in A.P., therefore
Putting x = log23, we have
Sinc, a, b, c are in A.P.,
1 2x 1 3x 1 2x 1 3x
ab 5 a b 5 1 1 1
2 x 3 x 2 x 3x , , areinH.P.
a b c
6x 2 5x 1 5 x 2 1
x 2 5x 6
1 2 2 2
x 2 x 3 x 2 x 3 , , are in H.P..
a b c
65. Using prime-factorization of 1050, we can write the AA1, BB1, CC1 are in H.P..
given equation as
68. x2 + ax + bc = 0 ...(i)
x1 x 2 x 3 x 4 x5 2 3 52 7 x2 + bx + ca = 0 ...(ii)
We can assign 2, 3 or 7 to any of 5 variables. We x2 + cx + ab = C ...(iii)
can assign entire 52 to just one variable in 5 ways or From (i) – (ii), we get
can assign 52 = 5 × 5 to two variables in 2C2 ways.
x(a – b) + c(b – a) = 0
Thus, 52 can be assigned in
x=c
5
C1 5C2 5 10 15 ways
From (ii) – (iii), we get
Hence, required number of solutions x(b – c) + a(c – b) = 0
= 5 × 5 × 5 × 15 = 1875 x=a
66. a3x2 – 2hxy + b3y3 = 0 From (i) – (iii), we get
Let the slope of lines be m1 and m2 x(a – c) + b(c – a) = 0
3 x=b
Then m1 + m2 2h3 , and m1m2 a3
b b Thus sum of common roots = a + b + c.
69. For the first key, maximum number of trials needed is
Let m22 m1
n. For second key it will be (n – 1). In general for rth
a3 a 2h key, maximum number of needed trials is (n – r + 1).
m32 m2 and m22 m2 3
b3 b b Thus required answeres = n + (n – 1) + ...... + 1
2
2h a a 2h
ab a2 n(n 1) n1
b3 b b2 b C2
2
2h = a2b + ab2 = ab(a + b)
MOCK TEST 8 13
sin n
1 cosec b 2 cosec n
Minimum value = f 13 81 .
cosec n
n 1
lim .... 1 ·n 2 4
x0 n
n n
75. r ·a 10
0 0 0 ... 1 ·n n
x y z 10, x, y, z N
Number of solutions = 10 1
C3 1 36
MOCK TEST – 9
5. Interference fringes are obtained in Young's double-
PHYSICS (SECTION – A)
slit experiment on a screen. Which of the following
1. A wire of negligible mass elongates by l mm when a statements will be incorrect about the effect of
load W is hanged from it. If the wire goes over a introducing a thin transparent plate in the path of
pulley and two weights W each are hung at the two one of the two interfering beams.
ends, the elongation of the wire will be (in mm) (a) The separation between fringes remain unaffected.
(a) l (b) 2l (b) The entire fringe system shifts towards the side
on which plate is placed
l
(c) zero (d) (c) The conditions for maxima and minima are
2
2. A gas mixture consists of 2 moles of oxygen and 4 reversed i.e., maxima for odd multiple of and
moles of argon at temperature T. Neglecting all 2
vibrational modes, the total internal energy of the
system is minima for even multiple of .
2
(a) 4RT (b) 15RT (d) Shape of the fringe also remains unaffected.
(c) 9RT (d) 11RT 6. According to the Bohr theory of the hydrogen atom,
3. A cyclic process ABCA is shown in PT diagram. When electrons starting in the 4th energy level and eventually
presented on PV, it would ending in the ground state could produce a total of
how many lines in the hydrogen spectra?
P B
A 7. An object was placed upright 25 cm in front of a
converging lens with a focal length of 20 cm. A
C concave mirror with a focal length of 15 cm was
T
placed 120 cm behind the lens. Which of these
describes the final image?
P B P B
A A (a) real, enlarged (b) virtual, upright
(a) (b) (c) virtual, inverted (d) inverted, diminished
C C
V V 8. A radioactive source has a half life of 20 days. During
a period of 60 days fraction of the atoms that have
P P decayed would be
B A B A
(a) 100% (b) 87.5%
(c) C (d) C
V V (c) 64% (d) 50%
9. A current I flows along a wire frame having the shape
4. In the figure shown the angle made by the light ray shown total of six straight wires of length L each,
with the normal in the medium of refractive index 1 soldered to form two perpendicular square shapes.
is: The magnetic moment of this wire frame is
30°
n1 = 3
n2 = 2
n3 = 1
n4 = 2
n5 = 1.6 (a) IL2 2 (b) 2IL2 2
10. In the circuit shown in figure switch S is closed at 15. A homogeneous chain rests on a rough horizontal
time t = 0, current through inductor after long time of
table, the coefficient of friction between the chain &
closing of switch.
the table is 0.5. The maximum fraction of the length
L of the chain that can hang over the table without
slipping is
R
1 1
R S (a) (b)
2 4
E
1 1
(c) (d)
E E 3 6
(a) (b)
R 2R
16. The spring mass system inside frictionless tube
(c) zero (d) none rotating with constant as given. Find angular
11. In a meter bridge experiment, null point is attained frequency n of mass SHM about its mean position.
at 20 cm from one end to the wire when resistance
X is balanced against another resistance Y. If X < Y,
then the new position of null point from same end, if
one decides to balance a resistance of 4X against
Y will be__________(cm)
12. When a metallic surface is illuminated with light of k
wavelength , the stopping potential is V, when the m
same surface is illuminated by light of wavelength
V
2 , the stopping potential is . The threshold
3
wavelength is
k
4 (a) (b)
(a) (b) 4 m
3
8 k
(c) 6 (d) (c) 2 (d)
3 m 2k
13. A particle is released from rest from a tower of height
17. An optical system consists of a diverging and
3h. The ratio of times to fall equal heights h i.e.
converging lens. Focal length of lens is 40 cm. Object
t1 : t2 : t3 is
is at a distance of 80 cm in front of converging lens.
(a) 5 : 3 : 1
Distance of image from converging lens is
(b) 3 : 2 : 1
(c) 9 : 4 : 1
(d) 1 :
2 1 : 3 2
14. An LC resonant circuit contains 400 pF capacitor &
100 H inductor. It is set into oscillation coupled to O
an antenna, the wavelength of the radiated
electromagentic waves is
80 cm Very small
(a) 377 mm
(b) 377 m
(c) 377 cm (a) 40 cm (b) 100 cm
(d) 3.77 cm (c) 120 cm (d) 80 cm
MOCK TEST 9 3
18. Two equal point charges are fixed at x = –a and (a) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false.
x = +a on the x-axis. Another point charge Q is placed (b) Statement 1 and Statement 2 both are true. But
at origin. The change in electrostatic potential energy Statement 2 is not the correct explanation of
of the system when Q is displaced by a small distance Statement 1.
x along the x-axis is approximately proportional to (c) Statement 1 and Statement 2 both are true. But
(a) x (b) x2 Statement 2 is the correct explanation of
Statement 1.
1
(c) x3 (d) (d) Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true.
x
23. When a metallic surface is illuminated by a light of
19. Two springs of force constants 300 N/m (Spring A)
frequency 8 × 1014 Hz, photoelectron of maximum
and 400 N/m (Spring B) are joined together in series.
energy 0.5 eV is emitted. When the same surface is
The combination is compressed by 8.75 cm. The
illuminated by light of frequency 12 × 10 14 Hz,
EA E photoelectron of maximum energy 2 eV is emitted.
ratio of energy stored in A and B is . Then A
EB EB The work function is__________(eV)
is equal to:
24. Difference between nth and (n + 1)th Bohr's radius of
4 16 hydrogen atom is equal to (n –1)th Bohr's radius.
(a) (b)
3 9 The value of n is__________
3 9 25. The binding energies per nucleon of deuteron (1H2)
(c) (d) and helium (2He4) atoms are 1.1 MeV and 7 MeV. If
4 16
two deuteron atoms react to form a single helium
20. A uniform electric field E exists between the plates atom, then the energy released is__________(MeV)
of a charged condenser. A charged particle enters
the space between the plates and perpendicular to CHEMISTRY (SECTION – B)
E . The path of the particle between the plates is a: 26. Alkene(s) that would give the following alcohol by
(a) parabola (b) hyperbola oxymercuration-demercuration reaction is
(c) circle (d) straight line CH3
21. An engine approaches a hill with a constant speed. OH
When it is at a distance of 0.9 km, it blows a whistle
whose echo is heard by the driver after 5 seconds. If
CH3 CH2
the speed of sound in air is 330 m/s, then the speed
of the engine is : (a) (b)
(a) 32 m/s (b) 27.5 m/s
(c) 30 m/s (d) 60 m/s
(c) (d) both (a) and (b)
22. Chamber I Chamber II
ideal real
gas gas CH3
1 2 3 4
27. A 0.01 M solution of glucose in water freezes
There are two identical chambers, completely at – 0.0186°C. A 0.01 M solution of KNO 3 in water
thermally insulated from surroundings. Both will freeze at
chambers have a partition wall divinding the chambers
in two compartments. Compartment 1 is filled with (a) – 0.0093°C (b) – 0.0372°C
an ideal gas and Compartment 3 is filled with real (c) – 0.0186°C (d) – 0.093°C
gas. Compartments 2 and 4 are vacuum. A small 28. 20 ml of HCl having a certain normality neutralises
hole (orifice) is made in the partition walls and the exactly 1.0 g CaCO 3 . The normality of acid
gases are allowed to expand in vacuum. is__________(N)
Statement 1 :No change in the temperature of the 29. For the cell reaction, Cu(s)|Cu 2+(aq)||Ag+|Ag(s), if
gas takes place when ideal gas expands in vacuum.
However, the temperature of real gas goes down E = +0.34 V and E = 0.80 V and
Cu2 / Cu Ag / Ag
(cooling) when it expands in vacuum.
Statement 2 :The internal energy of an ideal gas is [Cu+2] = 0.01 and [Ag+] = 1.0 mol dm –3 the emf of
only kinetic. The internal energy of a real gas is the cell is__________(V)
kinetic as well as potential.
4 MOCK TEST 9
30. A radioactive isotope having t 0.5 = 3 days was 39. The end product 'C' in the following sequence of
received after 12 days. If 3 g of isotope is left in chemical reactions is
the c ontainer, what was the initial wt. of
CaCO NH OH
isotope__________(g) CH3 COOH
3
A B
2 C
31. Keeping in mind that the EAN = 36, Co 2(CO) x will
be (a) acetaldehyde oxime
(a) Co2(CO)5 (b) Co2(CO)7 (b) formaldehyde
(c) Co2(CO)9 (d) Co2(CO)8 (c) methyl nitrate
32. Action of caustic soda on Al(OH) 3 gives a (d) acetoxime
compound having formula 40. A sample of wusitite FexO contains one Fe(III) for
(a) Na3AlO3 (b) NaAlO2 every three Fe(II). Calculate the value of x__________
(c) Na2Al(OH)4 (d) Al2(OH)4 41. -D-glucose and -D-glucose have a specific rotation
33. In the borax bead test of Co 2+, the blue colour of of +112° and +19° respectively. In aqueous solution
bead is due to the formation of the rotation becomes +52°. This process is called
(a) B2O3 (b) Co3B2 (a) Inversion (b) Racemisation
(c) Co(BO2)2 (d) CoO (c) Mutarotation (d) Enolisation
34. Correct formula of the complex formed in the brown 42. In chlorobenzene solutions, the basic strength of
ring test for nitrates is amines increases in the order
(a) FeSO4NO (b) [Fe(H2O)5NO]2+ (a) (C2H5)3N < (C2H5)2NH < C2H5NH2
(c) [Fe(H2O)5NO]+ (d) [Fe(H2O)5NO]3+ (b) C2H5NH2 < (C2H5)2NH < (C2H5)3N
35. Which of the following gives blood red colour with (c) (C2H5)2NH < C2H5NH2 < (C2H5)3N
KCNS?
(d) (C2H5)3N < (C2H5)NH2 < (C2H5)2NH
(a) Cu2+ (b) Fe3+
43. The correct order of increasing boiling points of the
(c) Al3+ (d) Zn2+ following compounds is
36. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) Calcium carbide when heated with N2 produces O O
calcium cyanamide. C , C ,
(b) Water gas is a mixture of CO and H 2 . CH3 NH2 CH3 Cl
(c) Producer gas is a mixture of CO 2 and N2. I II
(d) SiCl4 on hydrolysis produces silicic acid.
37. Optical isomerism is not shown by complex. O O
(a) [Cr(OX)3]3 – C , C
(b) [Co(en)2Cl2]+ (Cis -form) CH3 OCH3 CH3 OCOCH3
(c) [Co(en)2Cl2]+ (Trans -form) III IV
(d) [Cr(en)3]3+
(a) I < II < III < IV
O O
(b) II < III < IV < I
O3/Zn
38. (A) . (c) II < IV < III < I
H2O H3C H
(A) is (d) II < III < I < IV
44. Certain ketone A (capable of showing iodoform test
positive) on reduction gives B. B on acidic dehydration
(a) (b)
at 443K gives C. C on reductive ozonolysis gives
CH
H3 only MeCHO. A and C in the above sequence are
CH3
respectively
CH3
(a) CH3COCH3 and CH3CH = CH2
CH3 (b) CH3COC2H5 and CH3CH2CH = CH2
(c) (d)
(c) CH3COC2H5 and CH3CH = CH – CH3
CH3 (d) CH3COC2H5 and CH3CH2 – CH(OH)CH3
MOCK TEST 9 5
45. The major product formed in the following reaction is O
CH3OH(excess) Mg / ether
(i) Hg(OAc) , THFH O (a)
CH = CHCH3
2
(ii) NaBH
2 H SO 2 4
4
H2O / H O
3
OH
O
(a) CH – CH2 – CH3 H2O / H O
Mg / ether
( b)
3
OH OH CH OH / H
3
(b) CH2 – CH – CH2
O
Mg / ether CH3OH(excess)
(c) CH2 – CH2 – CH2OH
( c) –
OH
H2O / H O
3
(d) HO CH2 – CH2 – CH3
2 H O / H O
CH3OH(excess)
46. Iso-electric point of alanine is (pH = 6). At which pH, (d)
3
Mg / ether
H SO 2 4
maximum concentration of zwitter ion of alanine will O
be present__________
47. Which of the following orders regarding thermal
stability of hydrides MH3 of group 15 is correct?
MATHEMATICS (SECTION – C)
(a) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 (b) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3
(c) NH3 > PH3 < AsH3 (d) NH3 < PH3 > AsH3 x 1 x2 2 x(x 1)
+ +
51. If x(x 1) x 1 x(x 2 2)
48. (y)H3N NH3(z)
x2 2 x(x 1) x 1
COOH
(x) p0 x 6 p1x 5 p2 x 4 p3 x 3 p4 x 2 p5 x p6 ,
The order of decreasing acidity of these acidic
then (p5, p6) =
sites is:
(a) (– 3, – 9) (b) (1, 7)
(a) x > z > y (b) z > x > y
(c) (– 3, – 5) (d) (3, – 9)
(c) x > y > z (d) y > x > z
52. The number of points with integral coordinates that
49. Solution of NH 4Cl and NaCl are taken in two test
are interior to the circle x2 + y2 = 16 is__________
tubes A and B. What will happen when precipitate
53. The term independent of x in the expansion of
of Mg(OH2) is added to both the test tubes?
n
1
(a) Precipitation will occur in A and B. (1 x)n 1 is
x
(b) T here will be a clear solution in A and
precipitation will occur in B. (a) 1 (b) (n + 1) Cn2n
(c) There will be clear solutions in both A and B.
(d) T here will be a clear solution in B and (c) Cn2n (d) None of these
precipitation will occur in A. 54. The median AD of the triangle ABC is bisected at E,
50. Give the correct sequence of reagents for the BE meets AC in F. Then AF : AC =
following conversion:
3 1
O (a) (b)
4 3
Br ?
C CH3 HO 1 1
(c) (d)
2 4
O 55. If the circle x2 + y2 = 4 bisects the circumference of
CH2 CH2 C CH3 the circle x 2 + y2 – 2x + 6y + a = 0, then a
equals__________
6 MOCK TEST 9
1 k 2n 2n Ck
2n
(a) a2 > 8b2 (b) b2 > 8a2 k 2
is
(c) a2 > 4b2 (d) b2 > 4a2 k 0
57. Equation of parabola having the extremities of it's (a) nA (b) –nA
latus rectum as (3, 4) and (4, 3) is (c) 0 (d) none of these
1 0
2
xy6
2 2 62. If A , then A100 is equal to
(a) x y
7 7
1/ 2 1
2 2 2
1 0
(a) 50 1
2 2 2
x y8
(b) x y
7 7
1 0
2 2 2
(b)
1/ 2
100
1
2 2 2
xy4
(c) x y
7 7
1 0
2 2 2 (c)
(d) None of these 25 0
58. The line y = mx + c, will be a normal to the ellipse (d) none of these
x2 y2 x 1 5x 7
1, if
2 2
a b 63. If x 2 1 x 1 8 ax 3 bx 2 cx d then value
2x 3x 0
a2 (b2 a2 )2
(a) b2 of c is given by
m2 c2
(a) –1 (b) 12
2 2 2 2
c (b a ) (c) 15 (d) 17
(b) b2
2 2 64. A group of 6 boys and 6 girls is randomly divided
m a
into two equal groups. The probability that each group
b2 (b2 a2 )2 contains 3 boys and 3 girls is
(c) a2
m2 c2 10 5
(a) (b)
231 531
b2 (b2 a2 )2
(d) c 2 90 100
m2 a2 (c) (d)
231 231
3 5 65. If the value of
59. The numerical value cos cos cos is equal
7 7 7 3 5 7 9 11 13
to sin sin sin sin sin sin sin is
14 14 14 14 14 14 14
1 3 equal to
(a) (b)
2 2 1 1
(a) – (b)
16 8
3 1
(c) (d) 1
2 2 (c) (d) 1
64
60. If f(x) = sin x + cos x, then range of f(x) is
6 6
66. If f1(x) = ex, f2(x) = e–x and f3(x) = f2(f1(x)), then f3 (0)
1 1 3 is equal to
(a) , 1 (b) ,
4 4 4
1
(a) – e (b)
3 e
(c) , 1 (d) None of these
4 (c) –1 (d) None of these
MOCK TEST 9 7
67. n N, n 1 such that 8n + 1 is a perfect square, 71. The point (1, 2) is one extremity of focal chord of
then parabola y2 = 4x. The length of this focal chord is
(a) n must be odd (a) 2 (b) 4
(b) n can't be perfect square (c) 6 (d) none of these
(c) n must be prime number 72. If a and b are chosen randomly from the set
(d) 2n can't be a perfect square consisting of number 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 with
replacement. Then probability that
68. Locus of complex number satisfying
2x
z 5 4i ax bx
z 3 2i 3 , is the arc of a circle whose radius lim 6 is
x 0
2
is equal to
1 1
10 (a) (b)
(a) 5 2 (b) 3 4
3
1 2
5 (c) (d)
9 9
(c) 5 3 (d)
3
73. The number of solutions of the equation
69. AB is any focal chord of y2 = 4ax, locus of mid point
of AB is a parabola whose directrix is
16 sin5 x cos5 x 11 sin x cos x in the interval
ANSWERS
1. (a) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (6) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (a)
11. (50 cm) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (a)
21. (c) 22. (b) 23. (2.5 eV) 24. (4) 25. (23.9 MeV) 26. (d) 27. (b) 28. (1.0 N)
29. (0.52 V) 30. (48 g) 31. (d) 32. (b) 33. (c) 34. (b) 35. (b) 36. (c) 37. (c)
38. (a) 39. (d) 40. (8/9) 41. (c) 42. (b) 43. (b) 44. (b) 45. (a) 46. (pH = 6) 47. (a)
48. (c) 49. (b) 50. (a) 51. (b) 52. (45) 53. (c) 54. (b) 55. (16) 56. (b) 57. (b)
58. (a) 59. (d) 60. (a) 61. (b) 62. (a) 63. (d) 64. (d) 65. (c) 66. (b) 67. (d)
68. (b) 69. (c) 70. (d) 71. (b) 72. (c) 73. (6) 74. (2) 75. (12)
8 MOCK TEST 9
EXPLANATIONS
1. Tension remains equal to W.
t1 t1
2 1 t 3 t1 3
n Cv n2Cv 2
2. U 1 1
n1 n2
T .
t3 3 2 t1
3. PV = nRT
4. Use Snell’s law.
t1 : t 2 : t 3 1: 2 1 : 3 2
5. Optical path becomes non-zero at the centre.
1 C
14. f
n(n 1) 2 LC
6.
2
7. The image formed by the lens acts as an object for the mirror. 2 3 108 4 10 10 104
1 1 1 1 1 1 377 m
v1 u1 f1 ; v 2 (v1 120) f2
mg m l x g
15. x
1 l l
8. In three half lives, th remains.
8
(l – x)
9. Meff M2 M2
X 20 1
11.
Y 80 4
Y 4X x 0.5 1
x l x ;
l 1 1.5 3
4X l
Now, 16. The free body diagram of system at x displacement from
Y 100 l
mean position.
l = 50 cm
x
hc
12. eV m (L + x)
2
m
eV hc 2 hc L
or eV 2 NL Mean position
3 2 3
At mean position,
2 hc hc
2
3 m2L k
hc 4 hc hc At x displacement,
or
3 3 4 0
ma k( x) m2 (L x) (k m2 )x
0 4
k
So, n 2
1 1 m
13. h gt12 ; 2h g t1 t 2
2
2 2 17. Image formation from 1st lens
2h h 1 1 1
t1 t1 t 2 2
g 9 v u f
1 1 1
t2
h
g
2 2 t1 2 1 v 80 40
80
v cm
1
and 3h g t1 t 2 t 3 3
2
2
For second lens,
6h 1 1 1
t1 t 2 t 3 3t1
g v u f
MOCK TEST 9 9
1 1 1 K NO3
27. KNO3 ionises as, KNO3
v 80 / 3 40 Concentration in solution = 2 × 0.01 = 0.02
v = –80 cm Tf = Tf – T° = kf × m for glucose
Tf 0.018
1 2Qq q2 kf 1.86 m–1
18. Ui m 0.01
40 a 4 0 2a
Tf for KNO3 = 1.86 × 0.02 = 0.0372°C
1 Qq 1 Qq q 2 Tf = T° – Tf = 0.0000 – 0.0372 = – 0.0372°C
Uf
40 a x 40 a x 40 2a 28. CaCO3 + 2HCl CaCl2 + H2O + CO2 is
(100 g) (73 g)
1
1 2Qqa q 2
2qQ x
2
q2 100 g of CaCO3 is neutralised exactly by 73 g of HCl
1 2
4 0 a 2 x 2 4 0 2a 4 0a a 40 2a 1g of CaCO3 shall be neutralised by
73
2qQ 2 0.73 g HCl
U Uf Ui 100
x
40a 1N HCl is required.
9 x 1 x2 2 x(x 1)
Total positive charge due to x mole = x
4 2
+ x(x 1) x 1 x(x 2)
Total +ve charge = Total –ve charge 2x 2x 1 1
9 8
x2 x
4 9 6p0 x 5 5p1x 4 4p 2 x 3 3p3 x 2 2p 4 x p 5
< CH3CONH2 n
Extensive 1 n n 1 n 1 n 1
1 x C0 C1 1 C2 2 ..... Cn n
intermolecular x x x
hydrogen bonding
the term independent of x will be
OH n
C0 .nC0 nC1nC1 ..... nCn .nCn C02 C12 ....... Cn2 Cn2n
Reduction
44. CH3COC2H5 CH3 – CHCH2CH3
LiAlH4 54.
(A) (B)
A (a)
H2 SO4
CH3CH CH CH3
443K
(C) 1 F
45. In oxymercuration demercuration reaction, the product formed E
is same as in case of acid catalysed addition of water to 1
carbon-carbon double bond but it is without any rearrangement.
(0) (c)
It is believed to be due to the formation of cyclic mercurim ion B D C
which do not allow any rearrangement. However, the final
1
product formed corresponds to the most stable intermediate c
2
carbocation.
46. Aniline is c
a+
NH 2
Position vector of E = 2 =a+c
H3C C COOH
2 2 4
H Let AF : FC = : 1 and BE : EF : 1
47. Bond strength thermal stability
c a
49. On adding Mg(OH)2 in test tube A, NH4OH will be formed which 1.0
is weak electorlyte. Thus concentration of OH–1 will decrease λc + a 1
Position vector of F = and of E =
and value of solubility product will be more than the ionic 1+ λ 1
product. Therefore, a clear solution will be obtained. In test
tube B, NaCl will form NaOH gets highly ionised. Thus a c
a c
concentration of OH–1 ions will increase, due to which product 2 4 (1 )(1 ) (1 )(1 )
of ionic concentrations will be more than its solubility product
and it will remain in precipitated state. 1 1
and
2 (1 )(1 ) 4 (1 )(1 )
1 2 0
51. Putting x = 0 in both sides, we get, 0 1 0 p6
1
2 0 1 1 AF AF 1
; 2 .
2 AC AF FC 1 3 3
p6 = 1 by expansion. 2
p5 is the coefficient of x or constant term in the differentiation 55. The common chord of given circles is
of determinant.
S1 – S2 = 0 2x – 6y – 4 – a = 0
Differentiate both sides,
which passes through the centre of second circle, a = 16
1 2x 2x 1 x 1 x 22
x(x 1) 56. Let the chord get bisected at P(0, ), then other extremely of
the chord is (–a, 2 – b). It must lie on the circle, thus
x(x 1) x 1 x(x 2 2) + 2x 1 1 3x 2 2
a2 + (2 – b)2 = – a2 + b(2 – b)
x2 2 x(x 1) x 1 x 2 2 x(x 1) x 1
42 – 6b + 2b2 + 2a2 = 0
MOCK TEST 9 11
This equation should have distinct and real roots Writing the terms in S in the reverse order, we get
36b > 16(2b + 2a )
2 2 2
2n 2
S 1 k
k 2n
9b2 > 8b2 + 8a2 Ck … (2)
k 0
b > 8a
2 2
Adding (1) and (2) we get
7 7
2n
57. Focus is , and it’s axis is the line y = x. Corresponding 2
2S 2n 1
k 2n
2 2 Ck 2nA
k0
1 2 S nA
value 'a ' ( 1 1) . Let the equation of it’s directrix be
4 4
1 0 1 0 1 0
y + x + = 0. 62. A 2
1 2 1 1 2 1 2 1 2 1
|3 4| 2
2. 1 0 1 0 1 0
2 4 A3 A 2A
2 1 2 1 1 2 1 1
3 1 2
= – 6, – 8
Continuning in this way, we get
Thus equation of parabola is
1 0 1 0
2
(x y 6)2
2 A100
100 1 2 1 50 1
7 7
x 2 y 2
2
63. Differentiating both the sides of (1), we get
2 2 2
or x 7 x 7 (x y 8) x 1 5 0 x 1 5x 7 x 1 5x 7
2 2 2
x 2 1 x 1 8 2x 1 0 x2 1 x 1 8
58. Let the foot of normal is (a cos, b sin),
2x 3x 0 2x 3x 0 2 3 0
ax by
then a2 b2 3ax 2 2bx c
cos sin
and the given lines will be identical. Putting x = 0, we get
mcos sin c 1 5 0 1 0 7 1 0 7
Thus, 2
a b (b a 2 ) c 1 1 8 0 1 0 1 1 8
0 0 0 0 0 0 2 3 0
ac
cos ,
m(b2 a2 ) c 0 0 17 17
bc 64. The number of ways of choosing 6 persons out of 12 for a
sin group is 12C6.
(b2 a2 )
a2 (b2 a2 )2 The number of ways in which this group can contain 3 boys
b2
m 2
c 2
and 3 girls is 6
C3 6
C3 .
3 1 2
cos
100
.
59. cos cos
3
cos
5 7 2 7 3 6
C3 6
C3
.sin Therefore required probability
7 7 7 7 12
231
sin C6
7
65. The given expression can be written as
3 3 6
cos .sin sin 3 5 5
7 7 7 sin sin sin sin sin
14 14 14 2 14
sin 2.sin
7 7 3 2
sin sin k
14 14
sin
7 1 3 5
2 where k sin sin sin
2.sin 14 14 14
7
60. f(x) = cos6x + sin6x = (cos2x + sin2x) 3 5
cos cos cos
(sin4x + cos4x – cos2x.sin2x) 2 14 2 14 2 14
= ((sin2 + cos2)2 – 3sin2x.cos2x) 3 2
cos cos cos
3 2 7 7 7
= 1 sin 2x
4 1 2 4
2 sin cos cos cos
7 7 7 7
f(x) , 1
1 2 sin
7
4
1 4 4
sin cos
2n 2
1 k 2n 7 7
k 2n
61. Let S Ck ...(1) 4 sin
k 0 7
1 8 1
2n k 2n C2n k
2n 2 sin
S 1
2n k
7 8
k 0
8 sin
7
12 MOCK TEST 9
x 71.
66. f3(x) = f2(f1(x)) = e f1(x) e e Y
A(1, 2)
x
f3 (x) e e , e x
0 1 S(1, 0) X
f3 (0) e e , e0
e
67. 8n + 1 is clearly odd. B
Let 8n + 1 = (2 + 1)2, 1 The parabola y2 = 4x, here a = 1 and focus is (1, 0)
8n = 42 + 4 The focal chord is ASB. This is clearly latus rectum of
parabola, its value = 4
2n = ( + 1)
2x
Thus 2n is the product of two consecutive integer, hence 2n a x bx
can’t be a perfect square. 72. lim 6
2
x 0
1
100 r 2 r 2 2r 2 . sin4 x sin3 x cos x sin2 x cos2 x
2 sin x cos x 16 11 0
sin x cos3 x cos 4 x
100 10
r2 r
3 3
90° A B
6. A block of mass m is at rest with respect to a rough 12. The relation between U, P and V for an ideal gas
incline kept in elevator moving up with acceleration in adiabatic process is given by U = a + bPV.
Find the value of adiabatic exponent of the
a. Which of following statement is correct?
a gas
b 1 b 1
(a) (b)
b a
(a) The contact force between block & incline is a 1 a
(c) (d)
parallel to the incline. a ab
(b) The contact force between block & incline is of 13. The ratio of energy stored in 5 F capacitor to 4 F
magnitude m(g + a). capacitor in the above circuits is___________
(c) The contact force between block & incline is
perpendicular to the incline. 4 5 F
(d) The contact force is of magnitude mg cos.
7. A particle is constrained to move in a circle with a
2
10-meter radius. At one instant, the particle's speed
is 10 m/s and is increasing at a rate of 10 m/s2. The 4
angle between the particle's velocity and acceleration 4 F
vectors is___________
10V
8. A particle is projected at angle 53° to the horizontal
at speed of 10 m/s. Find its tangetial acceleration at 14. A closed organ pipe & an open organ pipe of same
t = 1.4 sec. length produce 2 beats when they are set into
(a) 5 m/s2 (b) 5 2 m / s2 vibrations simultaneously in their fundamental mode.
The length of open organ pipe is now halved and of
(c) 10 2 m / s2 (d) 10 m/s2 closed organ pipe is doubled, the no. of beats
9. A small particle is placed on top of a fixed hemisphere. produced is___________
15. Ratio of magnetic field at the centre of a current
Particle is projected with a speed v 2gR . What
carrying coil of radius R & at a distance of 3R on its
is the radius of curvature of the path of the particle at axis is
the given instant is nR. Then 'n' is ___________
v = 2gR (a) 20 10 (b) 2 10
(c) 10 (d) 10 10
16. A thin flexible wire of length L is connected to two
fixed points and carries a current I in the clockwise
10. The potential across a 3 F capacitor is 12V when it
direction as shown in the figure. When the system
is not connected to anything. It is then connected in
is put in a uniform magnetic field of strength B going
parallel with an uncharged 6 F capacitor. At
into the plane of the paper, the wire takes the shape
equilibrium, the charge q on the 3 F capacitor and
of a circle. The tension in the wire is
the potential difference V across it are
(a) q = 12C, V = 4V (b) q = 24C, V = 8 V
(c) q = 36C, V = 12 V(d) q = 12C, V = 6V
11. There is a concentric hole of radius R in a solid
sphere of radius 2R. Mass of remaining portion
is M. W hat is the gravitation potential at the
centre ?
IBL IBL
5 GM 5 GM (a) (b)
(a) (b) 16
7 R 14 R
IBL IBL
(c) (d)
3 GM 9 GM 2 4
(c) (d)
7 R 14
MOCK TEST 10 3
17. A glass prism of refractive index 1.5 is immersed in 20. A small block is shot into each of the four tracks as
water (refractive index is 4/3). A light beam incident shown in the figure below. Each of the tracks rises
normally on the face AB is totally reflected to reach to the same height. The speed with which the block
the face BC if enters the track is the same in all cases. At the
highest point of the track, the normal reaction is
B A maximum in
(a) (b)
C (c) (d)
8 2 8
(a) sin (b) sin 21. On a linear temperature scale Y, water freezes at –
9 3 9 160°Y and boils at – 50°Y. On this Y scale, a tem-
2 perature of 340 K would be read as: (water freezes
(c) sin (d) None of these
8 at 273 K and boils at 373 K)
18. The variation of induced emf (e) with time (t) in a coil (a) – 86.3°Y (b) – 233.7°Y
if a short bar magnet is moved along its axis with a (c) – 106.3°Y (d) – 73.7°Y
constant velocity is best represented as 22. The gravitational field, due to the 'left over part' of a
uniform sphere (from which a part as shown, has
been 'removed out'), at a very far off point, P, located
as shown, would be (nearly):
e e
Mass of compete
Removed sphere = M
Part
P
(a) (b) R R
x
e e
8 GM 6 GM
(a) (b)
9 x2 7 x2
(c) (d) 5 GM 7 GM
(c) 2 (d)
6 x 8 x2
23. Photons of an electromagnetic radiation has an
19. A uniform ring of mass m is lying at a distance energy 11 keV each. To which region of
3a from centre of a sphere of mass M just over the electromagnetic spectrum does it belong?
sphere where a is the radius of ring as well as that of (a) Ultra violet region (b) Infrared region
sphere. Then, gravitational force exerted is (c) visible region (d) X-ray region
24. A uniform sphere of weight W and radius 5 cm is
being held by a string as shown in the figure. The
tension in the string will be:
3a
8 cm
GMm GMm
(a) (b) W W
8a 2
3a2 (a) 13 (b) 12
5 5
3GMm 3GMm W W
(c) (d) 2 (c) 13 (d) 5
2 8a
a 12 12
4 MOCK TEST 10
25. This question has Statement-1 and Statement-2. 29. Arrange the following ions in order of decreasing
of the four choices given after the Statements, X – O bond length where X is the central atom
choose the one that best describes the two
(a) ClO4 , SO24 ,PO34 , SiO44
Statements.
Statement-1 :A capillary is dipped in a liquid and (b) SiO44 , PO34 ,ClO4 , SO24
liquid rises to a height h in it. As the temperature of
the liquid is raised, the height h increases (if the (c) SiO44 , SO24 ,PO34 , ClO4
density of the liquid and the angle of contact remain
(d) SiO44 , PO34 ,SO24 , ClO4
the same)
30. On the basis of the information available for the
Statement-2 :Surface tension of a liquid decreases
reaction:
with the rise in its temperature.
4 2
(a) Statement 1 is false and Statement 2 is true. Al O2 Al2O3 , G 827KJ mol1 the
3 3
(b) Statement 1 and Statement 2 both are true, minimum magnitude of e.m.f. required to carry
Statement 2 is not the correct explanation of out electrolysis of Al2O3 is (F = 96500 C mol–1)
Statement 1. (a) 8.56 V (b) – 4.28 V
(c) Statement 1 and Statement 2 both are true, (c) – 2.14 V (d) 6.42 V
Statement 2 is the correct explanation of
31. A substance C 4H10O yields on oxidation a com-
Statement 1.
pound C4H8O which gives an oxime and a positive
(d) Statement 1 is true and Statement 2 is false. iodoform test. The original substance on treatment
with conc. H2SO 4 gives C4H8. The structure of the
CHEMISTRY (SECTION – B) compound is
26. The reaction X Product follows first order
(a) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH
Kinetics. In 40 minutes, the concentration of X
changes from 0.1 M to 0.025 M. Then the rate of (b) CH3CH(OH)CH2CH3
reaction when concentration of X is 0.01 M (c) (CH3)3COH
(a) 1.73 × 10–4 M min–1 (d) CH3CH2 – O – CH2CH3
(b) 3.47 × 10–5 M min–1 32. The most reactive compound towards formation
(c) 3.47 × 10 M min
–4 –1 of cyanohydrin on treatment with KCN followed
by acidification is
(d) 1.73 × 10–5 M min–1
(a) Benzaldehyde
27. Equal volum es of the f ollowing Ca 2+ and
F– solutions are mixed. In which of the following (b) P-Nitrobenzaldehyde
will precipitation occur? (c) Phenyl acetaldehyde
[Given KSP of CaF2 = 1.7 × 10 –10
] (d) p-Hydroxybenzaldehyde
(A) 10 MCa + 10 MF
–2 2+ –5 – 33. If N and S elements are present in organic
(B) 10 MCa + 10 MF
–3 2+ –4 – compound, then during Lassaigne's test both
change into
(C) 10–4 MCa2+ + 10–2 MF–
(a) Na2S and NaCN
(D) 10–2 MCa2+ + 10–3 M F–
(b) NaSCN
Select the correct answer:
(c) Na2SO3 and Na2CO3
(a) In (D) only
(d) Na2S and NaCNO
(b) In A and B
34. A compound A has a molecular formula C 7H7NO.
(c) In (C) and (D) On treatment with Br2 and KOH, A gives an amine
(d) In (B), (C) and (D) B whic h gives c ar bylam ine tes t. B upon
28. The heat liberated when 1.89 g of benzoic acid is diazotisation and coupling with phenol gives as
burnt in a bomb calorimeter at 25°C increases the azodye. A can be
temperature of 18.94 kg of water by 0.632°C. If (a) C6H5CONHCH3
the specific heat of water at 25°C is 0.998 cal/g
(b) C6H5CONH2
deg., the value of the heat of combustion of ben-
zoic acid is___________(kcal/mole) (c) C6H5NO
(d) o, m- or p-C6H4(NH2)CHO
MOCK TEST 10 5
35. Dye test can be used to distinguish between (c) Significant p – p interaction between B and F
(a) Ethylamine and acetamide in BF3 whereas there is no possibility of such
(b) Ethylamine and aniline interaction between C and F in CF4
(c) Urea and acetamide (d) Lower degree of p – p interaction between B
(d) Methylamine and ethylamine and F in BF3 than that between C and F in CF4.
36. Among the following, which exhibits aromaticity? 43. The decreasing order of C–N bond length in the
(a) Cyclopentadienyl cation following compounds:
(b) Cyclopentadienyl radical OMe
MeO OMe
(c) Cycloheptatrienyl radical
(d) Cycloheptatrienyl cation
MeO OMe
37. The solubility product of A2X3 is 1.08 × 10–23. Its
NO2 NO2 NO2 NO2
solubility will be
(a) 1 × 10–3 (b) 1 × 10–6 (a) (IV) > (III) > (II) > (I)(b) (IV) > (II) > (III) > (I)
(c) (III) > (II) > (I) > (IV)(d) (III) > (I) > (II) > (IV)
(c) 1 × 10–4 (d) 1 × 10–5
44. How many unit cells are present in a cube shaped
x ideal crystal of NaCl of mass 1.0g?
38. Graph between log and log P is a straight line
m (a) 1.28 × 1021 (b) 1.71 × 1021
inclined at an angle q = 45°. When pressure of 0.5 (c) 5.14 × 1021 (d) 2.57 × 1021
atm and log k = 0.699, the amount of solute adsorbed
45. A gaseous mixture of three gases A, B and C has a
per gram of adsorbent will be___________
pressure of 10 atm. The total number of moles of all
(log k = intercept)
the gases is 10. If the partial pressures of A and B
39. Phenol is heated with chloroform and alcoholic KOH are 3.0 and 1.0 atm respectively and if C has a
when salicyladehyde is produced. This reaction is mol/wt. of 2.0. What is the weight of C in g present
known as in the mixture___________
(a) Fridel-Crafts reaction
(b) Reimer-Tiemann reaction 46. The C.FS.E of Co NH3 6 Cl3 is
(c) Rosenmund reaction (a) 7.2 0 (b) 0.4 0
(d) Sommelet reaction
40. A compound 'X' having molecular formula, (c) 2.4 0 (d) 3.6 0
C4H10O gave on oxidation a ketone (C 4H8O). 47. In the extraction of copper, metal is formed in the
Which of the following is the structure of 'X'? Bessemer converter due to reaction.
(a) CH3 CH2 3 OH (a) Cu2S + 2Cu2O 6Cu + SO2
(b) Cu2S 2Cu + S
(b) CH3 2 CHCH2 OH
(c) Fe + Cu2O 2Cu + FeO
(c) CH3 CH OH CH2 CH3 (d) 2Cu2O 4Cu + O2
(d) CH3 3 C OH 48. Which of the following curve represents the Henry's
law ?
41. 60g CH3COOH and 46g C2H5OH react in 5L flask to
form 44g CH3COOC2H5 at equilibrium. On taking 120g
CH3COOH and 46g C2H5OH, CH3COOC2H5 formed
log P log P
at equilibrium is___________(g)
(a) (b)
42. The bond dissociation energy of B–F in BF3 is 646
kJ mol–1 where as that of C–F in CF4 is 515 kJ log x log x
mol–1. The correct reason for higher B–F bond
dissociation energy as compared to that of C–F is
log P log P
(a) Smaller size of B–atom as compared to that of C
atom (c) (d)
(b) Stronger the bond between B and F in BF3 as log x log x
compared to C – F in CF4
6 MOCK TEST 10
a2 b 2 (a) 2n + n + 1 (b) 2n – n + 1
a2 b2
(a) (b) (c) n – 2n + 1 (d) n – 2n – 1
a a
70. Let a ˆi ˆj, b 2iˆ – k.
ˆ Then the position vector of
a2 b2 a2 b 2
(c)
(d) b
b the point of intersection of the lines r a b a
64. If is the angle between the line and r b a b is
r 2iˆ 3ˆj kˆ ˆi ˆj kˆ t and the plane (a) 3iˆ ˆj kˆ (b) 3iˆ ˆj kˆ
r· 3iˆ 4 ˆj 5kˆ q , then (c) 3iˆ ˆj kˆ (d) None of these
n (n 1) 7 3 1 7 3 1
(a) (b) (c) m (d) m
2 2 2 3 1 2 3 1
ANSWERS
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (1.5) 6. (b) 7. (45°) 8. (b) 9. (2R) 10. (a)
11. (d) 12. (a) 13. (1.25) 14. (7) 15. (d) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (b) 19. (d) 20. (b)
21. (a) 22. (d) 23. (d) 24. (c) 25. (a) 26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (771.4 kcal.mole) 29. (d)
30. (c) 31. (b) 32. (b) 33. (b) 34. (b) 35. (b) 36. (d) 37. (d)
38. (2.5 g/g adsorbent) 39. (b) 40. (c) 41. (58.66g) 42. (c) 43. (a) 44. (d) 45. (12) 46. (c)
47. (a) 48. (a) 49. (b) 50. (a) 51. (b) 52. (c) 53. (b) 54. (b) 55. (c) 56. (c)
57. (d) 58. (d) 59. (b) 60. (c) 61. (c) 62. (c) 63. (d) 64. (b) 65. (a) 66. (d)
67. (2) 68. (3) 69. (c) 70. (a) 71. (0) 72. (8) 73. (b) 74. (a) 75. (19)
EXPLANATIONS
10
1. Angle of incidence becomes A . 13. i 1A
10
2
. V5 6V V4 6V
2. PE
1
3. Voltage across B increases. E5 2 5 36
1.25
4. May be a maxima or a minima. E4 1
4 36
2
5. E 75 R E 60 . v v
100 R r 100 14. f0 fC
2l 4l
6. contact force = friction + normal reaction
v
7. atotal ac at f0 fC 2 beats
4l
2 v v
8. at Now f '0 f 'C
R l 8l
9. The particle loses contact. 7v
2
f '0 f 'C 7 beats
V 8l
g
R 0i
15. Bc
C V C2 V2 2R
10. V 1 1
C1 C2
0iR2
B
M 3M
32
11. P 2 R 2 9R2
4
3
2R R 3
3
28 R3
BC
10 10 10
32
4 8 B
M1 P 2R M
3
3 7 16. Consider a small arc as below
Vrem Vwhole Vhole Fm
3 GM1 3 GM2
2 2 2 R d d
3G 1 8M M 9GM
2R 2 7 7 14R T
12. U = a b PV = a + b nRT
dU = bnRdT
but dU = nCVdT
CV = bR
d d
CP = CV + R = (b + 1)R
CP b 1
Y
CV b
MOCK TEST 10 9
Clearly, net force 2Tsin(d) will be by magnetic
mv 20
force on the wire hence, Nmax mg
Rminm
2Tsin(d) = Fm = l dLB sin90°
R is minimum for first case hence (b) is correct.
2T(d) l dLB
ldLB L
T lB lBR lB ( L 2R) Y 160 50 160
2d 2 21.
X 273 373 273
lBL
T
2 11
Y 160 X 273
17. Consider the diagram below 10
For X = 340, Y = – 86.3°Y
A B M
G
GM 8 GM 1 1 7 GM
22. Ig 2 x 2 8x 2 8 x 2
x R
i x
2
i=
23. conceptual
24. T cos mg .... for vertical equilibrium &
Clearly, the angle of incident the face BC will also be Hence, T 13 mg or 13W
12 12
as shown in above diagram.
18. When the bar magnet is entering and leaving the 2Scos
25. h , which decreases with increase in
coil, the polarity of emf should be opposite in two rg
cases. Only in option (b) polarity is different. temperature as surface tension-S decreases,
19. For all point out the sphere we can treat it as point density ( ) and angle of contact ( )remain
mass at its centre so, effectively it will be the force constant.
between ring and point mass.
26. K 2.303 log 0.1 2.303 0.6021
Gravitation field at x 3a on axis of ring is 40 0.025 40
calorie
Now, 1.89g of acid liberates heat = 11946.14 calories
mg
so heat liberated by 122g of acid (1 mol)
N
11946.14 122
= 771126.5 calorie = 771.12 kcalorie
mv 02 1.89
N mg
R 29. Greater the bond order, shorter is bond length. Bond
order of
mv 02
N mg ClO 4 1.75, SO24 1.5, PO34 1.25, SiO 44 1
R
10 MOCK TEST 10
30. For the reverse reaction OH O
[O]
2 4 40. CH3 – CH – CH2 – CH3 CH3 – C – CH2 – CH3
Al O Al O2, (G = 872 × 103 J mol–1)
3 2 3 3
41. Molar mass of CH3COOH = 60g mol–1
4 3 4
Al 4e Al so n = 4 Molar mass of C2H5OH = 46g mol–1
3 3
1
Molar mass of CH3COOC2H5 = 88g mol–1
Now, E G 827000 J mol 1 2.14 V 0
nF 4 96500 C mol [CH3COOH]Initial 0.2 mol L–1
60 5
conc.H SO
31. CH3CH(OH)CH2CH3
2 4 CH CH CHCH
3 3 46
(C4H10 O) (C4H8 ) [C2H5OH]Initial 0.2 mol L–1
46 5
[O]
CH3CHOHCH2CH3
CH3COCH2CH3 44 1
2 Bu tanol Bu tanone [CH3COOC2H5 ]eqm 0.1 mol L–1
88 5
Butanone gives both an oxime and positive iodoform
test, therefore, the original compound is 2-butanol. CH3COOH + C2H5OH CH3COOC2H5 + H2O
32. Due to electron withdrawing nature of NO2 group, the Initial
partial +ve charge on the carbon atom of the > C = O
0.2 M 0.2 M
group in p-nitrobenzaldehyde increases and hence
becomes more susceptible to nucleophilic attack by At eqm.
CN– ion. (0.2 – 0.1)M (0.2 – 0.1) M 0.1 M 0.1 M
O [CH3COOC2H5 ][H2O] 0.1 0.1
K 1
Br2 + KOH [CH3COOH][C2H5OH] 0.1 0.1
C NH2 NH2
34. In second case,
[CH3COOH]initial = 0.4 M
Benzamide [C2H5OH]initial = 0.2 M
(A) (B)
If x is the amount of acid and alcohol reacted
NaNO2/HCl
N2Cl– Phenol [CH3COOH]eqm. = (0.4 – x] M
+
ice cold
[C2H5OH]eqm.= [0.2 – x] M
[CH3COOC2H5]eqm. = [H2O]eqm. = x M
N=N OH
(Azodye) x2
K 1
35. Aniline (aromatic amine) give dye test whereas (0.4 – x)(0.2 – x)
ethylamine (aliphatic amine) does not. x2 = (0.4 – x)(0.2 – x)
x2 = 0.08 + x2 – 0.6x
36. cyclopeptatrienyl cation 0.6x = 0.08
8
( ) x M
60
4x 2 e (where x = 1) 8 2
Moles of ethyl acetate produced 5
37. A2X3 is 2 : 3 type electrolyte 60 3
1.08 10 23
5
K sp 108 S 108S
5
2
Mass of ethyl acetate produced 88 58.66g.
3
S5 10 25 S = 1 × 10–5
42. In BF3 there is considerable p – p interaction
x 1
38. KP n between unfilled p-orbital (having no electron) over
m
boron and the lone pair of electrons over fluorine in
x 1
log log P log K 2p orbital
m n
1 F F + F+
slope tan tan45 B F B F B F
x F F F
x
log log0.5 0.699
m F
B F
x +F
log0.5 log5 log log2.5
m 43. Decreasing order of C–N bond length will be (IV) (Due
x to steric inhibition of resonance) > (III) (Due to cross
2.5
m conjugation) > (II) > (I) (Due to extended conjugation)
MOCK TEST 10 11
Partial pressure of A
Number of moles of A
10 12 12 1
10 2h 4k
3 = Number of moles of A. 53. We have an 1.2.3.............n n! , nn n.n.n........ to n
Number of moles of B times
Partial pressure of B 10
10
nn n.(n 1)(n 2)....{n (n 1)}
= Number of moles of B.
nn n.(n 1)(n 2).........2.1
Number of moles of C = 10 – (3 + 1) = 6.
Now 1 mole of C = 2g nn n! nn an . So (a) is false nn (n 1)!
6 mol of C = 2 × 6 = 12 g.
nn an 1 . So (c) is false
46. Due to strong ligand t 62geg0
1 2 3 ..... n
47. Self reduction (1.2.3......n)1/ n
n
Cu2S + 2Cu2O 6Cu + SO2
n(n 1) (n!)1/ n n 1 (n!)1/ n .
48. P = KH x 2n 2
log P = logKH + log X n
n 1 n! . So (b) is true.
49. Electraode potential is intensive property while gibb’s 2
free energy is extensive. 54. f(x) 1 x x 2 ....... xn
50. A 2B C
Pi 0 0 Pressure at t = 0 f (x) 1 2x 3x 2 ...... n xn 1
Pi P 2P P Pressure at any t f (x).g(x) (1 2x 3x2 .... n xn 1 )
Pt Pi
Pt Pi 2P or P 2 3 n n 1
2 1 x 2 ...... ( 1)
x xn
2.303 Pi
K log constant term in f (x) g(x) is
t Pi P
c 12 22 32 42 ....... n2 ( 1)n 1
2.303 Pi When n is odd,
log 2.303 log 2Pi
t P t Pi
P t 3P P
i t
i 2
c [12 22 ..... n2 ] 2[22 42 6 2 ...... (n 1) ]
2
2
n(n 1)(2n 1) n 1
51. y 1 3 (x 1) Y 2 3 X
2
= 2.22 [12 22 32 ......
2 2 2 2
6
where, 1
Y y ,X x 1 n(n 1) n(n 1)
2 (2n 1 2(n 1))
6 2
1 1
Focus (X = a, Y = 0); x 3 1 5 ; y 0 x 1, x even
8 8 2 2 55. f(x)
x 1, x odd
5 1
Focus = ,
8 2 which is clearly one one and onto.
52. Y 56. y | sin x | | cos x |
B y 2 1 | sin 2x |
Q(h, k)
R 1 y2 2
X X
O A y [1, 2]
P
f(x) 1 x R
Y
12 MOCK TEST 10
Equation of a tangent to the ellipse (i) is
2x
57. Period of is 1.
2[x] x
cos y sin 1
2
… (ii)
Period of sin {x} is 1. –1
Period of sin1( cos x ) is 2, whereas sin–1(cosx2) is Equation of the ellipse x2 2y2 6 can be written as
non-periodic. x2 y2
1 … (iii)
x2 6 3
58. We must have 1 log2 1
2
Suppose (ii) meets the ellipse (iii) at P and Q and
the tangents at P and Q to the ellipse (iii) intersect
x2
1 log2 2 at (h, k), then (ii) is the chord of contact of (h, k)
2
with respect to the ellipse (iii) and thus its equation
1 x2 is
4
2 2
hx ky
1 x2 < 8 1 … (iv)
6 3
x ( 8, 1] [1, 8) Since (ii) and (iv) represent the same line
59. lim(x 1){x} 0 as lim(x 1) 0 h6 k3
x 1 x 1 1
cos 2 sin
and lim {x} 0, lim {x} 0.
x 1 x 1 h 3 cos , k 3 sin
f(h) f(0) and the locus of (h, k) is x2 + y2 = 9
60. f (0 0) hlim
0 h 63. Equations of the normal at P is
2 h
lim
h 0
eh
h
b
ax by cosec a2 b2 sec … (i)
(eh
2 h
1 (1 b))(h2 h)
and the equation of the normal at Q a sec , b sec is
lim ,
h0 h(h2 h)
ax by cosec a2 b2 sec … (ii)
= 1, provided b = 1
Subtracting (ii) from (i) we get
ah b b
f(0 – 0) lim h
a
h0 a2 b 2 sec sec
y
Thus for f(x) to be differentiable, at x = 0, b cosec cosec
a = b = 1.
a2 b2 sec sec 2
61. Let the lines represented by the given equation be y So that k y
b cosec cosec 2
= m1 x and y = m2 x then m1 + m 2 = –2h/b, m1m2
= a/b 2
The product of the perpendicular from (1, 1) to these
a 2 b2 sec cosec a 2 b2
lines is
b cosec sec b
1 m1 1 m2
1 (given)
1 m12 1 m2 64. The line is parallel to the vector ˆi ˆj kˆ and the normal
to the plane is 3iˆ 4ˆj 5kˆ , so that the angle between
1 m1 m2 m1m2 1 m1 m 2 m1 m2
2 2 2 2 2
these vectors is 2 .
345 2 6
sin
a b2 4h a b a b2 0 3 50 15
4ab 4h a b 0 65. Let P 2r1, 3r1, r1 and Q 3r2 2, 5r2 1, 2r2 2 be the
h a b ab 0 points on the given lines so that PQ is the line of
shortest distance between the given lines. Now
62. We can write x2 4y2 4 as direction ratios of PQ are
x2 y2 2r1 3r2 2, 3r1 5r2 1, r1 2r2 2
1 … (i)
4 1
Since it is perpendicular to the given lines
MOCK TEST 10 13
1 5
their real part equal to . 3
2 9 sec 2 4 cosec 2
1
Hence sum of real parts of roots (n 1). But Min. of 9sec 2 4 cosec 2 25
2
and x3 can be treated as the sides of a right angled 72. Given hyperbola is 1
16 9
triangle whose hypotenuse is x3 and perimeter is
24. The obvious solution is x1 = 8, x2 = 6, x3 = 10 or Length of the transverse axis is 2a = 8
x1 = 6, x2 = 8, x3 = 10. 74. a x hcot 60 h 3
Thus there are two sets of positive integral solutions.
68. Let the first term be ‘a’. Then x 7 hcot 45 h h h 3 7
3n 7 3
S(3n) (2a (3n 1)5) h
2 3 1
A
2n
S(2n) (2a (2n 1)5)
2
n
S(n) (2a (n 1)5) h
2
n
S(2n) S(n) (2a 5(4n 2 n 1)) 45° 60°
2
D 7 C x B
n
(2a (3n 1)5)
S(3n) S(3n) 75. The given expression can be written as
3
2 3 S(2n) S(n)
log3 7
S (alog3 7 ) (blog7 11)log7 11 (c log11 25 )log11 25
n n n
69. r.(n Cr n Cr 1) r. nCr (r 1 1) nCr 1
11
log11 25
r 1 r 1 r 1
27log3 7 49log7 11 = 73 + 11
12 + 5 = 469
n n n
= r. Cr (r 1) Cr 1 Cr 1 Sum of digits = 19.
n n n
r 1 r 1 r 1
MOCK TEST – 11
(c) The electron beams do not produce magnetic
PHYSICS (SECTION – A) fields on each other
1. Somewhere in a circuir is a resistor. A constant (d) The magnetic forces caused by the electron
current is flowing in the direction as indicated in the beams on each other are weaker than the
B electrostatic forces between them
figure. In going from A to B, we measure E.d l . 5. The mobile side of the triangular conducting frame
A
What do we find? made of uniform wire as shown in the figure is slid
symmetrically at a uniform speed of v = 0.1 m/s along
the two other sides. The horizontal frame is in a
A B
vertical homogeneous magnetic field with an induction
(a) a positive value of B = 0.4T. At a certain instant, the length of each
(b) a negative value side is l = 1 m and combined resistance of all three
(c) zero sides is 1.
(d) we do not have enough information to answer
2. Two straight wires are perpendicular to the plane of
this page.
One, located at point M, carries a positive current
B
into the page.
v
One, located at point N, carries a positive current
out of the page.
The vector that best represents the resultant magnetic
field at point P is____________
2
How much is the electromotive force induced in the
P circuit at the moment shown?
1 3
(a) 0.04 V (b) 0.12 V (c) 0.06 V(d) None of these
4 6. In a Young's double-slit experiment, if the slits are of
X unequal width,
M N (a) fringes will not be formed
3. In a coaxial cable, a thin straight conductor is fixed (b) the positions of minimum intensity will not be
along the axis of an outer hollow conductor. The two completely dark
carry equal currents flowing in opposite directions.
(c) bright fringe will not be formed at the centre of the
Let X denote the region between the two conductors,
screen
and Y denote the region outside the outer conductor.
The magnetic field is zero in (d) distance between two consecutive bright fringes
will not be equal to the distance between two
(a) Y but not in X (b) X but not in Y
consecutive dark fringes
(c) both X and Y (d) Neither X nor Y
7. A small sphere A of mass m and radius r rolls without
4. Two parallel conductors carrying current in the same slipping inside a large fixed hemispherical bowl of
direction attract each other, while two parallel beams radius R(>>r) as shown in figure. If the sphere starts
of electrons moving in the same direction repel each from rest at the top point of the hemisphere find the
other. Which of the following statements cannot be normal force exerted by the small sphere on the
the reason for this? hemisphere when it is at the bottom B of the
(a) The conductors are electrically neutral hemisphere.
(b) The conductors produce magnetic fields on each
other
2 MOCK TEST 11
A 13. The pressure at the bottom of an open tank of
water is 3P where P is the atmospheric pressure.
R If water is drawn out till the level of water remains
one fifth, the pressure at the bottom will be
B
13
10 17 (a) 2P (b) P
(a) mg (b) mg 5
7 7
4 7
5 7 (c) P (d) P
(c) mg (d) mg 5 5
7 5
8. A glass (R.I. = 1.5) slab having thickness 6 cm is 14. A radioactive element X converts into a stable
placed infront of a concave mirror of focal length element Y. Half-life of X is 2 hours. Initially only X is
20 cm as shown a point object O is placed on the present. After time t, the ratio of atoms of X and Y is
axis of mirror at a distance of 27 cm from the pole.
found to be 1 : 4, then t is
(a) 2 hours
(b) 4 hours
O P
(c) between 4 & 6 hours
(d) 6 hours
Find the distance (in cm) of final image from
P____________ 15. Two trains move towards each other with same speed.
Speed of sound is 340 m/s. If the frequency of tone
9. A particle performs uniform circular motion with an
angular momentum L. If the frequency of particle's 9
motion is doubled and its kinetic energy is halved, of whistle of one heard by other changes by times
8
the angular momentum becomes
as they cross each other, then the speed of each
(a) 2L (b) 4L
train is____________(m/s)
L L
(c) (d) 16. Two coherent light source radiate in phase. The
2 4
10. A solid sphere, a hollow sphere and a disc, all having d
distance between sources is d, where is the
same mass and radius, are placed at the top of an 4
incline plane and released. The friction coefficients wavelength of light produced. The angles are
between the objects and the incline are same but measured from the line connecting the two sources.
not sufficient to allow pure rolling in any of three cases. The distance from source to point of observation is
Least time will be taken in reaching the bottom by significantly larger than wavelength, then
(a) the solid sphere P
(b) the hollow sphere
(c) the disc
S1
(d) all will take same time
d/2
11. Young's double slit experiment is made in a liquid.
The 10th bright fringe in liquid lies where 6th dark d/2
fringe lies in vacuum. The refractive index of liquid S2
is____________
(a) at = 60°, maxima at P
12. The maximum tension in the string of pendulum
(b) at = 30°, minima at P
is two times the minimum tension. Let 0 be
(c) at = 60°, minima at P
the angular amplitude. Then, cos 0 is (d) at = 30°, maxima at P
17. The initial state of an ideal gas is represented by the
1 3 point a on the p-V diagram and its final state by the
(a) (b)
2 4 point e. The gas goes from the state a to the state e
by three quasi stationary processes represented by
2 3 (i) abe (ii) ace (iii) ade. The heat absorbed by the
(c) (d) gas is
3 5
MOCK TEST 11 3
e u u2 gdsin2
pressure (p) (c) tmin
g tan
b d c
u u2 gdcos 2
a (d) tmin
gcos
volume (V)
21. Two balls of same mass and carrying equal charge
(a) the same in all the processes
are hung from a fixed support of length l. At
(b) the same in processes (i) and (ii) electrostatic equilibrium, assuming that angles made
(c) greater in process (i) than in (iii) by each thread is small, the separation, x between
(d) less in process (ii) than in (iii) the balls is proportional to:
18. Time period of small oscillation of plate of mass m (a) l 2 (b) l
and given dimension is
(c) l 1 3 (d) l 2 3
22. A person lives in a high-rise building on the bank of
k
a river 50 m wide. Across the river is a well lit tower
of height 40 m. When the person, who is at a height
of 10 m, looks through a polarizer at an appropriate
angle at light of the tower reflecting from the river
b
surface, he notes that intensity of light coming from
distance X from his building is the least and t h i s
corresponds to the light coming from light bulbs at
a
height 'Y' on the tower. The values of X and Y are
m m(a2 b2 ) respectively close to (refractive index of water 4 3 )
(a) 2 (b) 2
k 3ka2
ma L
(c) 2 (d) None of these
kb
40m
19. A particle moves with simple harmonic motion in
straight line. In 1st second, it covers d1 and in 2nd 10m Y
second, it covers d2. What will be the amplitude of X
SHM (particle start from rest)? 50 m
(a) 22 m, 13 m (b) 17 m, 20 m
d1
(a) d1d2 (b) (c) 25 m, 10 m (d) 13 m, 27 m
d2
23. A letter 'A' is constructed of a uniform wire with
d12 2d12 resistance 1.0 per cm. The sides of the letter are
(c) (d)
2d1 d2 3d1 d2 20 cm and the cross piece in the middle is 10 cm
20. A projectile is fired with velocity u at an angle , so long. The apex angle is 60°. The resistance between
to strike a point on the inclined plane at an angle the ends of the legs is close to____________()
with the horizontal. The point of projection is at a 24. A bullet of mass 10 g and speed 500 m/s is fired
distance d from the inclined plane on the ground. into a door and gets embedded exactly at the centre
The angle is adjusted in such a way, so that the of the door. The door is 1.0 m wide and weighs
projectile can strike the inclined plane in minimum 12 kg. It is hinged at one end and rotates about a
time, find that minimum time. vertical axis practically without friction. The angular
speed of the door just after the bullet embeds into it
u u2 gdtan2 will be:
(a) tmin (a) 6.25 rad/sec
gtan
(b) 0.335 rad/sec
u u2 gdsin2 (c) 3.35 rad/sec
(b) tmin
gcos (d) 0.625 rad/sec
4 MOCK TEST 11
25. A ray of light of intensity I is incident on a parallel O
glass slab at point A as shown in diagram. It
undergoes partial reflection and refraction. At each (c) CH3 C C CH3
reflection, 25% of incident energy is reflected. The N OH
rays AB and A'B' undergo interference. The ratio Imax (d) CH3CH2 C CH3
and Imin is:
N OH
B B’ 30. In order to refine "blister copper", it is melted in a
A’ furance and is stirred with green logs of wood.
A The purpose is:
(a) To expel the dissolved gases in the blister
copper.
(b) To bring the impurities to surface and oxidise
C C’
them.
(a) 7 : 1 (b) 8 : 1 (c) To increase the carbon content of copper.
(c) 49 : 1 (d) 4 : 1 (d) To reduce the metallic oxide impurites with
hydrocarbon gases liberated from the wood.
CHEMISTRY (SECTION – B) 31. The reaction of hydrogen and iodine mono chloride
26. How many moles of BH 3 are needed to react is given as H2(g) + 2ICl(g) 2HCl(g) + I2(g)
c om pletely with 2 m ole of 1–Pentene in This reaction is of first order with respect to H 2(g)
hydroboration-Oxidation reaction: and ICl(g), following mechanisms (given below)
2 were proposed
(a) mole (b) 2 mole
3 Mechanism I
3 H2(g) + 2ICl(g) 2HCl(g) + I2(g)
(c) mole (d) 3 mole
2 Mechanism II
27. The compound which undergoes SN1 reaction most H2(g) + ICl(g) HCl(g) + HI(g) : slow
rapidly is: HI(g) + ICl(g) HCl(g) + I2(g) : fast
W hich of the above mechanism(s) can be
(a) Br (b) Br consistent with the information about the reaction?
(a) I only (b) II only
(c) CH2Br (d) Br (c) I and II both (d) neither I nor II
32. The energies of activation for the forward and
NHCH2CH3
reverse reactions for A2 + B2 2AB are 180kJ
28. + CH3I (excess) Product, The
mol and 200 kJ mol respectively. The presence
–1 –1
dx
MATHEMATICS (SECTION – C) 60. x 2 / 3 (1 x 2 / 3 ) is equal to
51. If y = 3[x] + 1 = 4[x – 1] – 10, where [.] denotes the
greatest integer function, then [x + 2y] is equal 1
to____________ (a) tan1(x1/ 3 ) C
3
52. Let f(x) = 1 x 2 , then
(b) 3 tan1(x1/ 3 ) C
(a) f(xy) = f(x).f(y) (b) f(xy) f(x).f(y)
(c) f(xy) f(x).f(y) (d) None of these 17
(c) sin1(x1/ 3 ) C
53. Total number of values of 'x' where the function 88
(c) x 2 y 2 1 (d) x2 – y2 = 1
MOCK TEST 11 7
70. If the tangent to the curve xy + ax + by = 0 at (1, 1)
x y 1
64. Let f f x f y for real x and y. If f'(0)
2 2 ab
makes an angle tan–1(2) with x-axis, then is
ab
exists and equals –1 and f(0) = 1 then the value of
f(2) is equal to
(a) 1 (b) –1 1 1
(a) (b)
2 2
1 (c) 1 (d) –1
(c) (d) 2
2 71. The orthocentre of the triangle formed by the lines x
65. The equation of the common tangent to the curves + y = 1, 2x + 3y = 6 and 4x – y + 4 = 0 lies in
y2 = 8x and xy = –1 is (a) I quadrant (b) II quadrant
(a) 3y = 9x + 2 (b) y = 2x + 1 (c) III quadrant (d) IV quadrant
(c) 2y = x + 8 (d) y = x + 2 72. The ratio of sum of first three terms of a G.P. to the
66. Range of f(x) = [cos–1{x}], where [.] and {.} denotes sum of first six terms is 64 : 91, the common ratio
the greatest integer function and fractional part of G.P. is
respectively, is
1 3
(a) {0, 1} (b) {0, 1, 2} (a) (b)
4 4
(c) {0, 1, 2, 3} (d) None of these 5 7
67. If f(x + f(y)) = f(x) + y x, y R and f(0) = 1, then (c) (d) 4
4
value of f(7) is____________ 73. The coefficient of the term independent of x in the
68. f(x) = [x2] – {x}2, where [.] and {.} denote the greatest 10
x 1 x 1
integer function and fractional part respectively, is expansion of 23
x x 1 x x1 2
13
(a) Continuous at x = 1, – 1 ____________
(b) Continuous at x = – 1 but not at x = 1 74. The complex number 3 + 4i is rotated about origin
(c) Continuous at x = 1 but not at x = – 1 by an angle of 4 and then stretched 2-times. The
(d) Discontinuous at x = 1 and x = – 1 complex number corresponding to new position is
69. Domain of definition of f(x), where f(x) = maximum
(a) 2 3 4i (b) 2 1 7i
{x, 1, x2} x R, is
(c) 2 3 4i (d) 2 1 7i
(a) R ~ {–1, 0, 1} (b) R ~ {0, 1}
(c) R ~ {–1, 0} (d) R ~ {–1, 1} 75. ( 2 1)6 ( 3 1)6 ([·] denotes greatest
integer function) ____________
ANSWERS
1. (a) 2. (4) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (102) 9. (d) 10. (d)
11. (1.8) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (c) 15. (20 m/s) 16. (a) 17. (c) 18. (b) 19. (d) 20. (b)
21. (c) 22. (d) 23. (26.7 ) 24. (d) 25. (c)
26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (d) 31. (b) 32. (a) 33. (d) 34. (b) 35. (d)
36. (d) 37. (3) 38. (d) 39. (c) 40. (c) 41. (b) 42. (c) 43. (b) 44. (a) 45. (4)
46. (b) 47. (c) 48. (16) 49. (0.4) 50. (20 cc)
51. (107) 52. (c) 53. (1) 54. (b) 55. (d) 56. (d) 57. (b) 58. (d) 59. (b) 60. (b)
61. (b) 62. (d) 63. (d) 64. (b) 65. (d) 66. (a) 67. (1) 68. (d) 69. (d) 70. (a)
71. (a) 72. (b) 73. (210) 74. (b) 75. (612)
8 MOCK TEST 11
EXPLANATIONS
B 13. P pg 5h 3P
1. V E.dl .
A pg 5h 2P
11 Nx 1
11. 6th dark fringe lies at
2 Ny 7
C 1 1 1
, ' lies between &
V ' 4 3 7
20
1.8 16. i.e., d
11 4
For = 60°, x = 4 3 2 3
T 2
mg Neither maxima nor minima.
mg
1
For = 30°, x 4 2 maxima at P..
mv 2 2
Tmax mg
R 17. As initial and final condition is same that’s why U
will be same for all three.
1
mv 2 mgR 1 cos 0
2 For abe, Q = U + W
Overall work done is positive as we can see that in
mv 2
2mg 2mgcos 0 upper part of graph, net volume increases.
R
So, Q will be sum of U(>0) and W(>0).
Tmax mg 2mg 2mgcos 0
In ae part, W = 0 so Q = U
2cos 0 3 2cos 0 In ade part, W < 0, Q = U – W
So, heat absorbed by gas is greater in process (i)
3
cos 0 than process (iii).
4
MOCK TEST 11 9
18. For small value of , spring force will be = K(a) 21. For equilibrium:
Restoring torque about hinge = (ka)a = (ka2) mgsin qEcos
kq2
tan
k mgx 2
x kq2
a
2l mgx 2
2kq2
x 3 l x l 3
1
mg
For tmin, dt 0 which, gives tan = cot 29. CH3 CH C CH3 CH3 CH C CH3
d
O N N O
+
2 CH3
Now, substituting this value of in Eq. (iv) CH3 C C
u u2 gdsin2 O
N (Major)
tmin O
H
gcos
10 MOCK TEST 11
31. Since the given reaction is first order with respect to +
38. HO + N2 Cl ¯
H2 and ICl, the slow step should involve 1 molecule
of H2 and 1 molecule of ICl. Hence II is the correct
HO N N
mechanism.
32. The presence of catalyst does not affect the enthalpy 39. Limiting reagent is O2
change of the reaction. ACC to equation5 moles O2 gives 6 moles H2O
H = 180 – 200 = – 20 kJ mol –1
60 moles O2 gives 72 moles H2O
33. Tb = Kb × m and Tf = Kf × m 0.693 0.693
41. hours 1 = 0.462 hr–1
t1/ 2 1.5
Tb + Tf = (Kb + Kf)m
Now, Tb – Tf = (T°b + Tb) – (T°f – Tf) N0 = 1; N 1
16
105 = (Tb + Tf) + (T°b – T°f)
2.303 N 2.303
105 = (Tb + Tf) + 100 t log 0 log 16 6hr 360min
N 0.462
Tb + Tf = 5 42. P = P°A XA + P°BXB
Tb Tf 5 5 P = P°A(1 – XB) + P°BXB
m 2.11
Kb K f 1.86 0.51 2.37 P = P°A – (P°A – P°B)XB
Moles of solute But P = 120 – 75 XB
Molality
Mass of solvent(kg) P°A = 120 Torr
1.79 10 3
= 4.0g atoms
no of moles of (A) 2 10 5 moles
90 Br
46. CaBr2 0.01 2, Br KBr 0.01 Ag AgNO3 0.05
1.34
no of moles of CH4 6 10 5 moles Both Br and Ag ions act as common ions, so
22400
3 active hydrogen are present larger the conc. of Br and Ag more is the
suppression of ionization of gBr
MOCK TEST 11 11
Hence mole fraction of solute is 0.4 when vapour 57. For y = cosx, dy sin x.
dx
pressure decreases to 20 mm Hg.
50. 20 ml ammonia gas will neutralize with 20 ml Let the point of contact be (x0, cosx0).
hydrogen chloride gas and form ammonium chloride. Equation of tangent to y = cosx at this point is
So, at same temperature and pressure, the volume
(y – cosx0) = sinx0(x0 – x).
of gaseous mixture will be 20 ml
NH3(g) + HCl(g) NH4Cl. It must pass through (0, 0).
dy 2 A
, which is always positive.
dx x 2
y2 = 4x
P
Thus, a 0 or signs of ‘a’ and ‘b’ must be opposite.
b O
12 MOCK TEST 11
Let P (t 2 , 2t). ax 2 bx c
63. xlim
1 cos ax 2 bx c lim 2sin 2
2
Equation of normal at ‘P’ is
x 2 x
x 2
y = – tx + 2t + t , 3
dx = 3t2dt f x 2f x 2 1 … (i)
2 f 0 h f 0
I 23t dt2 3 dt 2 Since f ' 0 1 we get lim 1
t (1 t ) 1 t h 0 h
f h 1
3 tan1(t) C = 3tan–1(x1/3) + C lim 1
h0 h
x 1 Let x R , then
61. f x loga x 2 1 loga
2
x x 1
f 2x f 2h
log x x 2 1 f x f ' x lim
h 0
f x h f x
h
lim
h0
2
h
f x
ax a x f h 1
f 1 x , so graph of f, cannot by symmetric lim
1
f x 1 f h f x lim 1
2 h 0 h h 0 h
about the line y = x. Non-symmetry about x-axis
Thus f ' x 1 , so we get f(x) = –x + C
and y-axis is clear.
But f(0) = 1, therefore, 1 = f(0) = –0 + C
sin1 x tan1 x 0
62. lim form C1
x0 x3 0
Thus f(x) = 1 – x, in particular
1 1 f(2) = 1 – 2 = –1
2
lim 1 x2 1 x
2
65. Differentiating the given curve w.r.t. x, we get
x 0 3x
(L Hospital rule) dy dy dy 2x
3y 2 6x 12 2
dx dx dx y 4
1 1 1 x 2 1 x2
lim 2 dy
3 x 0 x 1 x 2 1 x 2
At point where the tangent(s) is (are) vertical,
dx
is
not defined, i.e. at those points.
1
1 1 x
lim 2
2 2
1 x2
·
1
y 2 4 0 y 2
3 x 0 x
1 x 2
1 x 2
1 x 2
1 x 2
when y = 2, 8 + 3x2 = 12(2) 3x2 = 16
4
x=
1
lim
x2 3 x2
1
3
3 x 0 x2 1 x 2 1 x 2 1 x 2 1 x 2 When y = –2, –8 + 3x2 = –24 3x2 = –16 .
This is not possible.
1 3 1
3 2 2 Thus, the required points are 4 3 , 2 .
MOCK TEST 11 13
k4
66. Range of cos–1{x} is 0, 4 1
2 h3
y=x
2
y y=x Hence, orthocentre lies in I quadrant.
y=1
72. Given
S3 64 a r 1
3
S6 91 a r 6 1
x
–1 1
r 3
1
64
70. xy + ax + by = 0, (1, 1) lies on it, r 3
1 r3 1 91
a+b+1=0
27 3
Also, x. dy y a b dy 0 r3
64
r
4
dx dx
dy (y a)
dx (x b)
73. Given expression
x 1
13 3
x 1
dy
(1 a)
2 (given)
x 23
x13
1 x 12
x 12
1
dx 1, 1 1 b
–1 – a = 2 + 2b
x 13
1 x 2 3 x1 3 1 x 12
1 x1 2 1
3+b+b+a=0
b = – 2, a = 1
x 23
x 13
1 x 12
x1 2 1
a b 1 1
ab
2 2
x1 3 1 1 x 1 2 x1 3 x 1 2
3 8
71. Coordinates of A and B are (– 3, 4) and , if x 1 x 1
10
5 5 23 12
x x 1 x x
13
orthocentre p(h, k)
y
=0
10
x 1 x 1
4
23 12
y+
x x 1 x x
13
+
4x
A C
2x
10
+ x1 3 x 1 2
B 3y
= 6
10
O x Tr 1 in x1 3 x 1 2 is
I2 ( 3 1)6,F2 ( 3 1)6
10 r r
If 0r 4
3 2
I2 F2 ( 3 1)6 ( 3 1)6
[I2 ] 415
I1 F1 ( 2 1)6 ( 2 1)6
[I1] [I2 ] 197 415 612
2 6C0 ( 2)6 6C2 ( 2)4 6C4 ( 2)2 6C6 ( 2)0
MOCK TEST – 12
PHYSICS (SECTION – A) P
1. A bulb and a capacitor are connected in series to a 6P0 B
source of alternating current. If its frequency is
increased, while keeping the voltage of the source 3P0
constant, then A
(a) bulb will give more intense light V
P V0 5V0
(b) bulb will give less intense light 3R 13R
(c) bulb will give light of same intensity as before (a) (b)
2 6
(d) bulb will stop radiating light 5R
2. 110 volts (rms) is applied across a series circuit (c) (d) 2R
2
having resistance 11 and impedance 22. The 8. A particle of mass m and charge q is attached to a
power consumed is____________() light rod of length L. The rod can rotate freely in the
3. Suppose the potential energy between electron and proton plane of paper about the other end, which is hinged
at P. The entire assembly lies in a uniform electric
ke2 field E also acting in the plane of paper as shown.
at a distance r is given by . Application of Bohr's
3r 3 The rod is released from rest when it makes an angle
theory to hydrogen atom in this case show that with the electric field direction. Determine the speed
of the particle when the rod is parallel to the electric
(a) Energy in the nth orbit is proportional to n6
field.
(b) Energy is proportional to m–3 (m : mass of electron)
m, q
(c) both (a) and (b) are correct
(d) none are correct E
L
4. The half-life of the radioactive Radon is 3.8 days.
1
The time, at the end of which th of the Radon
20 P
sample will remain undecayed, is (given log 10e 1 1
= 0.4343) 2qEL(1 cos ) 2 2qEL(1 sin ) 2
(a) 3.8 days (b) 16.5 days (a) (b)
m m
(c) 33 days (d) 76 days
5. A radioactive element is disintegrating having half 1 1
life 6.92 sec. The fractional change in number of qEL(1 cos ) 2 2qEL cos 2
(c) (d)
nuclei of the radioactive element during 10 sec is: 2m m
(a) 0.37 (b) 0.63 9. A biconvex lens of focal length 15 cm is in front of a
(c) 0.25 (d) 0.50 plane mirror. The distance between the lens and the
6. A series combination of resistor and capacitor is mirror is 10 cm. A small object is kept at a distance
connected across with an applied AC voltage of 30 cm from the lens. The final image is
source. Separate voltmeter reading across the (a) virtual and at a distance of 16 cm from the mirror
resistor and capacitor give values of 50 V (rms) and (b) real and at a distance of 16 cm from the mirror
75 V (rms) respectively. The effective (rms) voltage (c) virtual and at a distance of 20 cm from the mirror
of the source, is nearly____________(V) (d) real and at a distance of 20 cm from the mirror
7. One mole of a monoatomic ideal gas undergoes the 10. A point source S is placed at the bottom of different
process A B
layers as shown in the figure. The refractive index of
in the given P-V diagram. The specific heat for this bottom most layer is m0. The refractive index of any
process is 0
other upper layer is 0 where n = 1, 2,
4n 18
2 MOCK TEST 12
..... A ray of light with angle i slightly more than 30° 16. Imagine an atom made up of a proton and a
starts from the source S. Total internal reflection hypothetical particle of double the mass of the
takes place at the upper surface of a layer having n electron but having the same charge as the electron.
The wavelength of the radiation that will be emitted
equal to____________
when this particles jumps from first excited state to
ground state (in terms of the Rydberg constant R for
the hydrogen atom) is equal to
=3
=2 2 1
(a) (b)
=1 3R 3R
0
1
S (c) (d) None of these
2R
11. Capacity of an isolated sphere is increased n times
17. Let be the angular velocity of earth's rotation about
when it is enclosed by an earthed concentric sphere.
its axis. Assume that the acceleration due to gravity
The ratio of their radius is on earth's surface has value at equator and the poles.
n2 n An object weighed at the equator gives same reading
(a) (b) as taken at depth d below surface at pole (d << R).
n 1 n 1
The value of d is
2n 2n 1
(c) (d) 2R2 2R2
n1 n 1 (a) (b)
12. Magnetic moment of an electron in the nth orbit of g 2g
hydrogen atom is (m = mass of electron, h = Planck's
22R2 R
constant) (c) (d)
g g
neh neh
(a) (b) 18. The potential difference between the points A and B
m 4m is +40 V. If the electric field is uniform then the value
meh meh of electric field at B
(c) (d)
2n 4n 2 cm
A B
13. In a series L-R growth circuit, if maximum current
(a) must be equal to 20 V/cm
and maximum voltage across inductor of inductance
3mH are 2A and 6V, then the time constant of the (b) may be less than 20 V/cm
circuit is____________(ms) (c) Both (a) and (b) are correct
14. The combination of gates shown in figure produces (d) Both (a) and (b) are not correct
19. Figure (a), shows a parallel-plate capacitor having
A
square plates of edge a and plate-separation d. The
Y gap between the plates is filled with a dielectric of
B dielectric constant K which varies parallel to an edge
a, where K and are constant and x is the distance
(a) NOR gate (b) NAND gate
from the left end.
(c) AND gate (d) OR gate
K = K0 + x
15. Time taken by the projectile to reach from A to B is
Calculate the capacitance?
t. Then, the distance AB is equal to
u a
K
B
x
° dx
60
30° (a) (b)
A
(a) ut 3 (b) 2ut 0 a 2 a 0 2a2 a
(a) K 0 2 (b) 3K 0 2
ut 3 d d
(c) (d) ut
3 2 3 0 a 2 a 0 a 2 a
(c) 3K 0 4 (d) K 0 2
4d 6d
MOCK TEST 12 3
20. A rigid body oscillates angularly about point O. 24. In the circuit shown here, the voltage across L and
Distance between O and center of gravity is L and C are respectively 300 V and 400 V. The voltage E
radius of gyration is K, then what will be equivalent of ac source is :
length? L
K K2
(a) (b)
L L C
2 2
L K
(c) L (d) L
L L E
21. Two coils, X and Y, are kept in close vicinity of each (a) 100 Volt (b) 400 Volt
other. When a varying current, I(t), flows through (c) 500 Volt (d) 700 Volt
coil X, the induced emf (V(t)) in coil Y, varies in the 25. Two simple pendulums of length 1 m and 4 m
manner shown here. The variation of I(t), with time, respectively are both given small displacement in
can then be represented by the graph labelled as
the same direction at the same istant. They will be
graph:
again in phase after the shorter pendulum has
completed number of oscillations equal
V(t) to____________
t
CHEMISTRY (SECTION B)
26. When MnO 2 is fused with KOH in the presence of
I(t) I(t) air, a coloured compound is formed, the product
(A) t (B) t and its colour is:
(a) K2MnO 4, dark green (b) KMnO4, purple
(c) Mn2O 3, brown (d) Mn3O 4, black
I(t) I(t) 27. Which of the following will not show geometrical
(C) t (D) t isomerism?
(a) [CO(NH3)5 NO2] Cl2 (b) [Cr(NH3)4Cl2] Cl
(a) A (b) C (c) [CO(en)2Cl2]Cl (d) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2]
(c) B (d) D 28. A white salt turns yellow on heating but becomes
22. If a carrier wave c t A sin c t , were to be white on cooling. It may be a salt of :
amplitude modulated by a modulating signal (a) Fe (b) Pb
(c) Al (d) Zn
m t A sin m t , the equation representing the
29. The configuration at C – 2 and C – 3 of the
modulated signal Cm t , and its modulation compound given:
index, would be respectively: CH3
H Cl
(a) Cm t A 1 sin c t sin m t and 2 Cl H
(b) Cm t A 1 sin c t sin m t and 1 C2H5
(a) 2R, 3S (b) 2S, 3R
(c) Cm t A 1 sin m t sin c t and 1 (c) 2S, 3S (d) 2R, 3R
(d) Cm t A 1 sin m t sin c t and 2 30. The principle product of the reaction between
methyl butanoate and 2 moles of CH 3MgBr after
23. When Uranium is bombarded with neutrons, it
hydrolysis is:
undergoes fission. The fission reaction can be
written as : OH
31. 50 mL of 0.1M of H 3CCOOH is titrated against 41. The rate of the reaction
0.1M NaOH solution. _________will be the pH of 2NO + Cl2 2NOCl is given by
the solution when 25 mL of NaOH is added?
[Given: Ka of H3C–COOH = 2 × 10–5; log 2 = 0.3] the rate = k[NO]2 [Cl2]
32. The decomposition of a certain mass of CaCO 3 The value of the rate constant can be increased by
gave 11.2 dm 3 of a CO 2 at S.T.P. The mass of (a) increasing the temperature
KOH required to completely neutralize the gas (b) increasing the concentration of NO
is__________(g) (c) increasing the concentration of Cl2
33. The compound that is both paramagnetic and (d) doing all three
coloured is
42. At low pressure, the compressibility factor can be
(a) CuF 2 (b) K3[Cu(CN) 4] expressed by:
(c) K2[TiCl6] (d) K2CrO4
a RTV
34. The equivalent weight of MnO 2 is equal to its mo- (a) 1 (b) 1
RTV a
lecular weight when it is converted to
(a) Mn2O 3 (b) MnO a RTV
(c) 1 (d) 1
(c) MnO24 (d) MnO4 RTV a
35. The complex having the highest magnetic moment 43. 2L of SO2 gas at 760 mm Hg are transferred to 10L
is flask containing oxygen at a particular temperature,
the partial pressure of SO 2 in the flask
(a) [Zn(H2O)6]2+ (b) [Cr(H2O)6]2+
is____________(mm Hg)
(c) [Mn(H2O)6]2+ (d) [Cu(H2O)6]2+
44. What is the solubility of PbSO4 in 0.01 M Na2SO4
36. Which of the following molecules is T- shaped? solution if Ksp for PbSO4 is 1.25 × 10–9?
(a) PCl3 (b) BCl3
(a) 1.25 × 10–7 mol L–1
(c) NH3 (d) CIF3
(b) 1.25 × 10–9 mol L–1
37. On heating a mixture of NaCl, K2Cr2O7 and conc.
H2SO4, which of the following is formed? (c) 1.25 × 10–10 mol L–1
48. If E0cell for a given reaction is negative which gives 52. The order of the differential equation whose general
solution is y = c1 cos2x + c2 cos2x + c3 sin2x + c4,
the correct relationship for the value of G0 and keq is____________
? 53. Value of positive real parameter 'a' such that the area
of the region bounded by the parabolas y = x – ax2,
(a) G0 0, k eq 1 (b) G0 0, k eq 1 ay = x 2 attains it's maximum value, is equal
to____________
(c) G0 0, k eq 1 (d) G0 0, k eq 1
54. Total number of points of discontinuity of f(x) = [3 + 4
49. Equivalent conductance of Ba 2+ and Cl– ions are sinx], where [.] denotes the greatest integer function,
127 and 76 ohm –1 cm –1 eq –1 respectively. in [, 2] is equal to____________
Equivalent conductance of BaCl 2 at infinite
dilution is 1 2 1 1 2 1
55. Range of f(x) = sin x cos x ,
(a) 132.4 (b) 101.5 2 2
(c) 139.5 (d) 204.5 where [.] denotes the greatest integer function, is
50.
(a) , (b) {}
(X) NaBH4 Conc.HBr 2
Y Z W
N2H4/OH 1. Mg, ether
NBS 2. CO2 (c) (d) None of these
M 3. H3O + 2
56. If both the roots of x2 – ax + a = 0 are greater than 2,
Ph CH C2H5
then
COOH
(a) a ( , 4) (b) a (0, 2)
Which is not correctly matched? (c) a (4, ) (d) None of these
Cl
(a) (X) is 57. If x3 + ax + 1 = 0 and x4 + ax2 + 1 = 0 have a common
+ AlCl3 root, then complete set of values of a is
O
OH (a) ( , 2) (b) {2}
5 27
(a) 3, 2, (c) , 2 (d) 2 ,
2 4 4
67. In acute angled triangle ABC, r = r2 + r3 – r1 and
3 21 ac
B
1,
(b) 4, , then exhaustive range of is (r1, r2,
2 3 b
r1, r and s have usual meanings)
(c) , 1 1 1
(a) , 1 (b) ,
2 4 2
(d) 1,
1 1
(c) , 1 (d) , 1
2
x 1 4 3
62. If I x4
dx , then I equals
68. The side of a triangle ABC are in A.P. (order being a,
2! 2! 1 8a
, then the
32
2 b, c) and satisfy,
1 x 1
1 2 1!9! 3!7! 5!5! (2b)!
(a) C 3 2
(b) x x 1 C value of cosA + cosB is
3 x3
12 13
1 x
2
32 (a) (b)
x 12 1 7 7
(c) C (d) C
x2 3 x2 11 10
(c) (d)
7 7
3x 2 3x x 1 cos x 1 dx , then
0
2 x
3
63. If I 69. The combined equation of straight lines that can be
I equals obtained by reflecting the lines y = |x – 2| in the
y-axis, is
(a) –4 (b) –3
(a) y2 + x2 + 4x + 4 = 0 (b) y2 + x2 – 4x + 4 = 0
(c) –2 (d) –1
(c) y2 – x2 + 4x – 4 = 0 (d) y2 – x2 – 4x – 4 = 0
dy 3x 4y 2 70. Tangent drawn to x2 + y2 = 25 at the point P(3, 4)
64. The solution of the equation is
dx 3x 4y 3 meets the circle x2 + y2 = 81 at the points A and B.
If the tangents drawn to x2 + y2 = 81 at the points A
and B intersect at C, then co-ordinates of 'C' is
(a) x y 2 C log 3x 4 1
243 81 243 81
(b) x y C log 3x 4y 4 (a) , (b) ,
25 25 25 5
(c) x y C log 3x 4y 3
243 81
(c) , (d) None of these
(d) x y C log 3x 4y 1 5 25
2 9 9
1
sin1
for all x and y and f x 2x 2 3x g x for all x
(a)
3 4 2 3
where g(x) is continuous and g(0) = 9 then f ' x is
2 9 9 1 1 ____________
(b) 2 sin
3 4 2 3 75. Let f : R R be given by
2 9 9 1 1
(c) 2 sin x x ,When x is odd
3 4 2 3
f(x) W here [.]
x x 1,When x is even
2 9 9 1
(d) sin1
3 4 2 3 4
denotes the greatest integer function, then f x dx
f y x 4
73. Solution of the equation xdy y x dx
f ' y x is equal to____________
x y
(a) f cy (b) f cx
y x
y y
(c) f cxy (d) f 0
x x
ANSWERS
1. (a) 2. (275) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (90V) 7. (b) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (4)
11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (1 ms) 14. (d) 15. (c) 16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (d)
21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (a) 25. (2) 26. (a) 27. (a) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (b)
31. (4.70) 32. (56 g) 33. (a) 34. (a) 35. (c) 36. (d) 37. (b) 38. (b) 39. (101 pm) 40. (b)
41. (a) 42. (a) 43. (152 mm Hg) 44. (a) 45. (b) 46. (b) 47. (5) 48. (a) 49. (c)
50. (b) 51. (a) 52. (2) 53. (1) 54. (8) 55. (b) 56. (d) 57. (b) 58. (c) 59. (b)
60. (a) 61. (b) 62. (a) 63. (a) 64. (d) 65. (b) 66. (a) 67. (d) 68. (a) 69. (d)
70. (a) 71. (b) 72. (b) 73. (b) 74. (27) 75. (4)
8 MOCK TEST 12
EXPLANATIONS
1. Impedance decreases.
2. P = I2R 16. i.e., 1 RZ2 12 12
n m
6.
Veff VR2 VC2
2
Q 3R
7. C
T 17. At equator g = g – 2R
1 2
8. Work done by electric field = 2
mv d
At depth, d on the pole g = g 1
9. The mirror reflects the ray coming from the lens. R
raser Both should be equal, then
10. For T.I.R, sin
denser
g g
11. C1 4 0 R1
RR 2R d
C2 4 0 1 2 nC1 g 1 g 1
g R
R2 R1
R2 n
2R2
R1 n 1 So, the value of d = g
Magnetic momentum q 2
12. Angular momentum 2m 2m 18. So, every one must understand the relation between
V and E.
e nh neh
Magnetic moment
2m 2 4m V
E
Vmax 6 r
13. R 3
imax 2 Two cases are possible
L = 3mH Case-1
L R 1ms
14. A ·B A B E
A B
2 cm
A B A B A·B A ·B A B
0 0 1 1 1 0 0
1 0 0 1 0 1 1
0 1 1 0 0 1 1 For this case, E 20V along A B
1 1 0 0 0 1 1 cm
u Case-2
15.
° C
60
30°
A C E
r x B
u
uH ucos 60 A Ex x
2
ut
AC
2
In this case r < x, so Ex < E
AC ut 2 ut
AB
cos 30 3 2 3 E 20V .
cm
MOCK TEST 12 9
19. Consider a small strip of width dx at a separation x
31. CH3COOH NaOH CH3COONa H2O
from the left as figure (b).
Millimoles t 0 5 2.5 0 0
This strip form a small capacitor of plate area xdx. Millimoles t t 2.5 0 2.5
Its capacitance is
Here, millimoles of CH3COOH and CH3COONa are
(K x)0adx same.
dC 0
d
Together they constitute acidic buffer and for acidic
The given capacitor may be divided into such strips buffer
with x varying from 0 to a.
[salt]
All these strips are connected in parallel. The pH pKa log
[acid]
capacitance of the given capacitor is,
because [salt] = [acid], so
a
(K ax)0adx a2 a pH = pKa
C 0 0 K 0
d d 2
0 pH = – log 2 × 10–5
20. Consider rigid body oscillates about O. Torques due pH = 4.7
to gravity mgL sin 33. CuF2(d9, Cu2+) is coloured and paramagnetic
For small K3[Cu(CN)4] is colourless; Cu+, d10, diamagnetic
(mgL) K2[TiCl6] is colourless; Ti+4, d0, diamagnetic
K2CrO4 is yellow; Cr+6, d0, diamagnetic. It is coloured
O
due to charge transfer.
4 3
34. MnO2 Mn2O3
In the above reaction change in the oxidation state
is 1. Hence the equivalent weight of MnO2 is the
mg same as its molecular weight.
So, time period Molecular weight
Equivalent weight
Number of electrons transferred
I0
T 2
mgL Molecular weight
= 1
where, I0 is moment of inertia about O
I0 = ICOM + mL2 35. [Zn(H2O)6]2+:
= mK2 + mL2 3d 4s 4p 4d
x x x x x x
K2 [Cr(H2O)6]2+:
L
T 2 L x x x x x x
g
[Mn(H2O)6] : 2+
2 x x x x x x
So, Leq K L
L [Cu(H2O)6] : 2+
d di x x x x x x
21. Use M
dt dt
36. F
22. Conceptual. Refer “Communication System” from
NCERT book. Cl F
23. Conceptual F
24. As VL & VC are having a phase difference of 180°. 37. K2Cr2O7 + 4 NaCl + 6H2SO4 2KHSO4 + CrO2Cl2
25. 2Tshort Tlong + 4NaHSO4
(Chromyl chloride test)
26. 2MnO2 + 2KOH + O2 2K2MnO4 + 2H2O.
27. Octahederal complex of type (MA5B) do not show a
39. rNa rCl r 282 181 101 pm
geometrical isomerism. 2 Na
28. ZnO turns yellow on heating but becomes white on 40. Rb+ is large cation
cooling. Be2+ is smaller cation
10 MOCK TEST 12
41. The rate constant of a reaction depends only on
c c c c
temperature and does not depend on the 2 3 c 4 c1 2 3 cos 2x = A + B cos2x
2 2 2 2
concentration of the reactants. It increases with
increase in temperature. That means there are two effective parameters. Thus
the order of differential equation will be 2.
42. P a2 V RT
V x2
53. At point A, x ax 2
a PV a a
PV RT ; 1
V RT VRT
2
ay = x
a
Z 1
VRT
P V 760 2000 A
43. pSO2 152 mm Hg
VTotal 10,000
CH 2 Br CH 3 CH 3
Br a /1 a2
Br d x2 d a
2
x 2 dx 0.
47. (i) (ii) (iii) da 0 a da 1 a2
CH 3 CH 3 a /1 a2
(1 a2 ) a(1 a2 ) a(1 a)(1 a)
= x3
3a 2
3(1 a2 )3 (1 a2 )3
(iv) (v) 0
Br
Br d 0 a (0, 1) and, d 0 a (1, )
da da
48. G 0.059logk nFE0cell
Thus, a = 1 is the point of maxima for .
k 1, G 0
54. f(x) = 3 + [4 sinx].
1 127 Clearly, f(x) is non-differentiable at all these points
49. BaCl2 Ba2 Cl 76
2 2 where g(x) = [4 sinx] is non-differentiable.
= 139.5 ohm–1 cm–1 eq–1. In [, 2] g(x) is clearly non-differentiable at eight
points. It should be noted that g(x) is differentiable
51. I tan1 xdx
at x = 3 .
1 1 1 x 2
x.tan1 x . .x dx x.tan1 x dx
1 x 2 x 2 1 x
2
x
1
Now putting x t i.e., dx dt –1
2 x
–2 y = [4 sinx]
dx = 2t dt, we get I x.tan1 x 1 t 2 2t dt
2 1 t –3
t2 1 1 –4
1
x.tan1 x dt x.tan x t tan1 t C
2
1 t
55. x 2 1 x 2 1 1 1 x 2 1 .
1 1 2 2 2
x.tan x x tan x C
52. y = c1 cos2x + c2 cos2x + c3 sin2x + c4, Thus for domain point of view.
2 1
c1 cos 2x
c2 c
(1 cos2x) 3 (1 cos 2x) c 4 x 2 0, 1 x 2 1 1, 0
2 2 2
MOCK TEST 12 11
f(x) = sin–1(1) + cos–1(0) For f(x) to be decreasing for all x, we must have
or sin–1(0) + cos–1(–1) f’(x) < 0 for all x.
f(x) = {}
a4 4 3
56. x2 – ax + a = 0 1 a 1 x 5 x
D = a2 – 4a 0
a ( , 0] [4, ) This is possible only if
a4
1 0
1 a
Both roots are greater than 2, if f(2) > 0
a ( , 4) This inequality is always true if a > 1, i.e. a 1, .
Moreover, we must have a 4 for a4 to be real.
and a 2,
2 a4
Therefore, we have 1 a 4 1 a [ we
a > 4. 1 a
1+a+1=0
62. Put x = tan so that x 2 1 sec , dx sec 2 d
a=–2
58. r((r)!) = (r + 1 – 1) (r!) sec sec 2 cos
I d d
= (r + 1)! – r! tan4 sin4
= V(r) – V(r – 1)
2 32
n 1 1 1 sec 3 1 x 1
C
r(r!) V(n) V(0) = (n + 1)! – 1 3 sin3
C 3
3 tan
C
3 x3
r 1
H1 2ab 2 ab 4 2 ab 2
G1 (a b) ab a b 5 a b
Put x + 1 = t, so that
9 ( a b )2 1 ( a b )2
, I
1
1 t
3
1 t cos t dt
5 ab 5 ab
2
9 ( a b )2
1
1 dt t 11 2
( a b) 1
a b
as t3 + t cos t is an odd function.
3
a b
dy dX
64. Put 3x 4y X 3 4
a:b=1:4 dx dx
i
(i) dy 1 dX
60. z (i)(i) (e 2) 3
dx 4 dx
(s a)(s c) a c
X3 4
dX dx 1 dX dx s(s b) b
X1 X 1
B ac
tan2 .
X 4log X 1 x cons tan t 2 b
B
4log 3x 4y 1 x 3x 4y cons tan t Since B , , therefore ,
3 2 2 6 4
log 3x 4y 1 x y C
ac 1
, 1
b 3
65. p x q p p · p x q p · x q p 2! 2 1
68.
1!9! 3!7! 5!5!
p x q p·x p p · q 0 2 10 2 10 1 10
( C1) ( C3 ) ( C5 )
10! 10! 10!
Similarly, q x r q q x r q · x q
2
1 10
( C1 10 C9 10 C3 10 C7 10 C5 )
10!
and r x p r r x p r · x r
2
1 10 1 29 8a
(2 ) (given).
without loss of generality we can assume that 10! 10! (2b)!
3a = 9, 2b = 10
p p ˆi,q p ˆj r p kˆ p q r
a = 3, b = 5
Therefore, L.H.S. of the given expression
Also a, b, c are in A.P.
2
3p x p
2
p q r 2
p ˆi · x ˆi ˆj · x ˆj b · x kˆ
c = 7.
b2 c 2 a2 25 49 9 13
2
3p x p
2
p q r 2
p x cos A
2bc 2.5.7 14
2
2p x p
2
p q r
a2 c 2 b2 9 49 25 11
cosB
This expression will be equal to 0 if 2ac 2.3.7 14
1 13 11 24 12
x p q r cos A cosB
2 14 14 7
b sasc c a
s(s b) (s c)(s a) (s c)(s a)
x2 + y2 = 25 x2 + y2 = 81
MOCK TEST 12 13
y
xe sin x cos xdx esin x sec x tan x dx logf v logcx f cx
x
lim
2h 2
3h g h
lim 2h 3 g h
h0
72. h0 h
(0, 3)
3g 0 3.9 27
75. f(x)
O {x}, [x] is odd
(-3, 0) (3, 0)
1 {x}, [x]is even
1
x 2 y 2 9 , x 2 8x 9 0
8 64 36 –4 –3 –2 –1 0 1 3
x 2 4
2
8 10 4 1
x 9, 1 x =1
2
4
f(x)dx 8 f(x)dx 4
Area enclosed 0
2 2 2xdx 9 x 2 dx 2 2 2 xdx 9 x 2 dx
1 3 1 3
0 1 0 1
On simplifying we get
2 9 9 1
2 sin1
3 4 2 3
MOCK TEST – 13
PHYSICS (SECTION – A)
1. A radioactive substance is being produced at a constant
mg mg
rate of 200 nuclei/s. The decay constant of the (a) (b)
substance is 1 s –1. After what time the number of r B B
2
x
2
z rB z
radioactive nuclei will become 100. Initially there are mg mg
no nuclei present (c) (d)
rB x r B x B z
1 6. Equal volumes of two immiscible liquids of densities
(a) 1s (b) s
ln 2 and 2 are filled in a vessel as shown in figure.
(c) ln (2) s (d) 2 s h 3h
2. When an electron in the hydrogen atom in ground state Two small holes are punched at depth and
2 2
absorbs a photon of energy 12.1 eV, its angular from the surface of lighter liquid.
momentum:
(a) decreases by 2.11 × 10–34 J–s
(b) decreases by 1.055 × 10–34 J–s h v1
(c) increases by 2.11 × 10 J–s
–34
4a2
time t = 0 to t = 2 is R
(d) all of the above
5. A rigid circular loop of radius r and mass m lies in the x-
y plane on a flat table and has a current i flowing in it. At downwards with an acceleration a (< g). The spring
this particular place, the earth’s magnetic field is length:
(a) will become zero
B B x i Bz k.
The value of i so that one edge of the
(b) may increase, decrease or remain constant
loop lifts from the table is: (c) will decrease
(d) will increase
2 MOCK TEST 13
8. The potential energy of a particle of mass 1 kg is, U = 13. In the circuit shown find the charge stored in the 5F
10 + (x – 2)2. Here, U is in joule and x in metres. On
capacitor.
the positive x-axis particle travels upto x = + 6 m.
Choose the wrong statement:
2F 2F 3F 5F 3F 4F
(a) On negative x-axis particle travels upto x = – 2m
(b) The maximum kinetic energy of the particle is 16 J
(c) The period of oscillation of the particle
is 2 seconds
(d) None of the above 100V
9. Frequency of a particle executing SHM is 10 Hz. The
(a) 60 C (b) 20 C
particle is suspended from a vertical spring. At the
highest point of its oscillation the spring is (c) 30 C (d) zero
unstretched. Maximum speed of the particle is : (g =
14. Photons with energy 5eV are incident on a cathode
10 m /s2)
C on a photoelectric cell. The maximum energy of
(a) 2 m / s (b) m / s the emitted photoelectrons is 2 eV. When photons of
energy 6 eV are incident on C, no photoelectrons
1 1 willl reach the anode A if the stopping potential of A
(c) m/s (d) m/s
2 relative to C is
10. A satellite S is moving in an elliptical orbit around the (a) –3 V (b) 3 V
earth. The mass of the satellite is very small (c) –1 V (d) 4 V
compared to the mass of the earth: 15. The modulating frequency is 5 kHz and the carrier
(a) the acceleration of S always directed towards the frequency is 100 kHz. What is the bandwidth of AM
centre of the earth transmission___________ (kHz)
(b) the angular momentum of S about the centre of 16. Two coils A and B have coefficient of mutual
the earth changes in direction, but its magnitude inductance M = 2H. The magnetic flux passing
remains constant through coil A changes by 4 Wb in 10 s due to the
(c) the total mechanical energy of S varies change in current in B. Then:
periodically with time (a) change in current in B in this time interval is 0.5 A
(d) the linear momentum of S remains constant in (b) the change in current in B in this time interval is 2
magnitude A
11. An ideal gas 1.5 is expanded adiabatically.. (c) the change in current in B in this time interval is 8
A
How many times has the gas to be expanded to
(d) a change in current of 1A in coil A will produce a
reduce the root mean square velocity of molecules
change in flux passing through B by 4 Wb
two times?
17. The horizontal range and maximum height attained
(a) 4 times (b) 16 times
by a projectile are R and H respectively. If a constant
(c) 8 times (d) 2 times
12. An impulse J is applied on a ring of mass m along a g
horizontal acceleration a is imparted to the
line passing through its centre O. The ring is placed 4
on a rough horizontal surface. The linear velocity of projectile due to wind, then its horiztontal range and
centre of ring once it starts rolling without slipping is maximum height will be:
O H H
J (a) (R H), (b) R , 2H
2 2
J J (c) (R 2H), H (d) (R H), H
(a) (b)
m 2m
18. A 1.5 kg block is initially at rest on a horizontal
J J frictionless surface when a horizontal force in the
(c) (d) positive direction of x-axis is applied to the block.
4m 3m
MOCK TEST 13 3
24. In the fission reaction of 92U there is a mass defect
235
2 ˆi N, where x is in of 0.7 u (a.m.u)___________(kg) uranium fuel will be
The force is given by F 4 – X
needed by a nuclear plant having capacity of
metre and the initial position of the block is 100 MW in a month of 30 days.
x = 0. The maximum kinetic energy of the block 25. When two tuning forks (fork 1 and fork 2) are sounded
between x = 0 and x = 2.0 m is : simultaneously, 4 beats per second are heard. Now,
(a) 2.33 J (b) 8.67 J some tape is attached on the prong of the fork 2.
(c) 5.33 J (d) 6.67 J When the tuning forks are sounded again, 6 beats
per second are heard. If the frequency of fork 1 is
d 200 Hz, then ___________(Hz) Was the original fre-
19. In Young’s double slit experiment = 10 4 (d =
D quency of fork 2.
distance between slits, D = distance of screen from
the slits). At a point P on the screen resulting intensity CHEMISTRY (SECTION – B)
is equal to the intensity due to individual slit I0. Then
the distance of point P from the central maximum is 26. Which one of the following has S° greater than
zero?
: ( 6000Å)
(a) CaO(s) + CO 2(g)
CaCO3(s)
(a) 2 mm (b) 1 mm
(c) 0.5 mm (d) 4 mm
(b) NaCl(aq)
NaCl(s)
20. An AC source producing emf V = V0 [sin t + sin
Na+(aq) + NO3 (aq)
(c) NaNO 3(s)
2 t] is connected in series with a capacitor and a
resistor. The current found in the circuit is i = i1 sin
(d) N2(g) + 3H2(g)
2NH3(g)
( t + 1 ) + i2sin(2 t + 2 ). Then:
27. If the heat of neutralisation for a strong acid-base
(a) i1 = i2 reaction is -57.1 kJ/mole ___________(kJ) would
(b) i1 < i2 be the heat released when 350 cm3 of 0.20 M H2SO4
(c) i1 > i2 is mixed with 650 cm 3 of 0.10 M NaOH.
(d) i1 may be less than, equal to or greater than i2 28. The vapour density of N2O4 at a certain temperature
21. Two bodies of masses m1 and m2 are initially at rest is 30. What is the percentage dissociation of N 2O4
at infinite distance apart. They are then allowed to at this temperature?
move towards each other under mutual gravitational (a) 53.3% (b) 106.6%
attraction. Their relative velocity of approach at a (c) 26.7% (d) None
seperation distance r is 29. Both HCOOH and CH3COOH solutions have equal
K1
m1 m2
12
2G
12
m1 m2
pH. If (ratio of acid ionisation constants) of
(a) 2G (b) K2
r r
these acids is 4, their molar concentration ratio
12
will be___________
r 2G
12
30. The values of van der Waal's constant 'a' for the
(c) (d) m1m2
2G m1m2 r gases O2, N2, NH3 and CH4 are 1.360, 1.390, 4.170
and 2.253 L atm.mol–2 respectively. The gas which
22. A person is running towards a large concave mirror can most easily be liquefied is
of radius of curvature 10 m. At some point of time (a) O2 (b) N2
he is 30 m away from the mirror and is running with
(c) NH3 (d) CH4
1 m/s. ___________(m/s) will be the relative velocity
of his image with respect to him. 31. On the basis of the information available for the
23. A vessel contains two immsicible transperent liquids 4 2
reaction Al O2
Al2O3 , G = – 827 kJ
of refractive index 1.5 and 1.2 respectively they are 3 3
having depths of 1.5 and 1.2 respectively they are mol–1 of the minimum e.m.f. required to carry out
having depths of 15 cm and 12 cm respectively. electrolysis of Al2O3 is___________.
___________(cm) will be the apparent depth of the (F = 96500 C mol–1)
bottom of the vessel on seeing it from above.
4 MOCK TEST 13
a b 1 3
(c) d c (d) 2c – d + a – b N2 H2 NH3 , the equilibrium constant is K'.
2 2 2
35. For a zero order reaction, a plot of rate (along Y- K and K' will be related as
axis) and concentration (along X-axis) is (a) K = K' (b) K K
(a) a rectangular parabola
(b) a line with –ve slope and zero Y-intercept (c) K K (d) K × K' = 1
(c) a line with +ve slope and a non-zero Y-intercept 42. Which of these series of elements listed would have
(d) a line with zero slope and a positive Y-intercept nearly the same atomic radii?
36. 50% neutralisation of solution of formic acid (Ka = 2 (a) Fe, Co, Ni (b) Na, K, Rb
× 10-4) with NaOH would result in a solution having (c) F, Cl, Br (d) Li, Be, B
hydrogen ion concentration of 43. Which is a pair of geometrical isomers
(a) 2 × 10-4 (b) 3.7 Cl CH2CH3
(c) 2.7 (d) 1.85 I. C=C
37. H Br
4r 2 r2
r
This radial probability distribution graph can
represent the orbital
(a) 5s (b) 5d
(c) 4p (d) 6d (a) I and II (b) I and III
38. Which of the following molecule or ion has highest (c) II and IV (d) III and IV
number of total electrons in antibonding molecular 44. Which is the decreasing order of strength of bases:
orbitals
OH , NH2 , HC C and CH3 CH2 ?
(a) O2 (b) N2
2 (a) CH3 CH2 NH2 HC C OH
(c) N2 (d) O2
39. Which of the following combination of gases is most (b) OH NH2 HC C CH3 CH2
easiest to separate
(c) OH NH2 CH3 CH2 HC C
(a) H2 and He (b) CO 2 and N2O
235 238
(c) U F6 and U F6 (d) C3H8 and C3H6 (d) NH2 HC C OH CH3 CH2
MOCK TEST 13 5
45. The reaction of propane with HOCl proceeds via the MATHEMATICS (SECTION – C)
addition of
(a) H+ in the first step 51. If n N > 1, then sum of real part of roots of
(b) Cl+ in the first step zn = (z + 1)n is equal to
(c) OH– in the first step
n n 1
(d) Cl+ and OH– in a single step (a) (b)
2 2
46. Which of the following is a condensation homopolyme
(a) Nylon-6,6 n 1 n
(b) Nylon-6 (c) (d)
2 2
(c) Nylon-6,10 52. Total number of positive integral solutions of
(d) Da cron
x 1 + x 2 + x 3 = 24 and x 21 x 22 x 32 is equal
47. At a particular temperature, the vapour pressures of
the two ligands A and B are respectively. 120 mm to___________
and 180 mm of mercury. If 2 moles of A and 3 moles 53. If S(n) denotes the sum of first ‘n’ term of certain A.P.
of B are mixed to form an ideal solution. The mole with common difference equal to 5, then
fraction of B in vapour phase will be
S 3n
(a) 4/13
S 2n S n is always equal to___________
(b) 2/5
(c) 9/13 54. The number of divisors of 9600 including 1 and 9600
(d) None of these are ___________
48. Which type of linkage is present in starch ? n
1 tan2 x 1
tan1 c
coordinates x,e where x > 0. Point B has
x 2
(a)
2 tan x coordinates (x, 0). If 'O' is the origin then the
maximum area of the triangle AOB is
2
1 tan x 1
1 1
(b) tan c
(a) (b)
2 tan x 2e 4e
1 tan2 x 1 1 1
tan1 c
(c)
2 2 tan x (c)
e
(d)
8e
1 tan2 x 1 72. If f x 4x3 x 2 2x 1 and
1
tan c
(d)
2 2 tan x min f t : 0 t x; 0 x 1
g x
62. If A = {a, b, c, d} and B = {1, 2, 3}, then the number of 3 x ; 1 x 2
on-to function possible from A to B satisfying f(a) = 1 is Then, g 1 4 g 3 4 g 5 4
(a) 8 (b) 10 7 9
(a) (b)
(c) 12 (d) 16 4 4
63. The value of ‘a’ if the line 3x + 4y + a = 0 is a tangent 13 5
(c) (d)
to the circle x2 + y2 – 4x + 6y + 9 = 0 is 4 2
(a) 4 (b) –16 73. The line which is parallel to x-axis and
5 crosses the curve y x at angle of is
(c) 16 (d) 4
2
1 1
64. If eccentricity of a given hyperbola is 3/2, then then (a) y (b) x
2 2
eccentricity of its conjugate hyperbola is
1 1
4 (c) y (d) y
(a) (b) 3 4 2
3 74. Number of solutions of the equation 3 tanx + x 3
3
(c) (d) 2 = 2 in 0, is
5 4
65. If the equation of a given hyperbola is xy – 3x + 4y – (a) 0 (b) 1
6 = 0, then the equation of its conjugate hyperbola is (c) 2 (d) 3
(a) xy – 3x + 4y – 18 = 0(b) xy – 3x + 4y = 0
75. xdy ydx y 2 dy, y 0 and y(1) = 1 then (–3) =
(c) xy – 3x + 4y + 6 = 0 (d) xy – 3y + 4y –12 = 0
(a) 2 (b) 3
66. The number of real roots of the equation |x|2 – 3|x| + 2
(c) 4 (d) 5
= 0 is___________
MOCK TEST 13 7
ANSWERS
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (d) 10. (a)
11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (10 kHz) 16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (c) 19. (a)
20. (b) 21. (b) 22. (1.04 m/s) 23. (20 cm) 24. (115 kg) 25. (196 Hz)
26. (c) 27. (3.71 kJ) 28. (a) 29. (0.25) 30. (c) 31. (2.14 V)
32. (1.07 volt) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (d) 36. (a) 37. (d) 38. (d) 39. (a) 40. (200 gm)
41. (b) 42. (a) 43. (c) 44. (a) 45. (b) 46. (b) 47. (c) 48. (c) 49. (d) 50. (a)
51. (d) 52. (2) 53. (3) 54. (48) 55. (c) 56. (d) 57. (a) 58. (c) 59. (d) 60. (c)
61. (d) 62. (c) 63. (c) 64. (c) 65. (a) 66. (4) 67. (c) 68. (3) 69. (c) 70. (d)
71. (d) 72. (d) 73. (d) 74. (b) 75. (b)
EXPLANATIONS
1. Let N be the number of nuclei at any time t. dB
Then 4. e = (a2) dt =(a2)(2); Induced emf e = 2a2
dt
dN dN
200 N ; or
dt 200 N through any section of the coil is
0 0
N
200
1 e t i
e
or
2a 2
i
= constant
R R
Given that N = 100 and = 1s–1
t 1 Charge passed through any section between
100 = 200(1 – e–t) or e 2 ; t = 1n (2) sec. t = 0 and t = 2s is
2. After absorbing a photon of energy 12.1 eV 2a2 4 a 2
electron jumps from ground state (n = 1) to q it 2 or q
R R
second excited state (n = 3). Therefore change
in angular momentum Further P = i2R = constant (as i is constant)
h h h 5. The torque on the loop must be equal to the
L = L3 – L1 3 2 2 gravitational torque exerted about an axis tangent to
the loop.
6.6 10 34
Js = 2.11 × 10–34 J-s The gravitational torque:
3.14
3. Voltage lags the current. 1 = mgr ...(1)
Hence, XC > XL Only Bx, causes a torque. Therefore torque to the
Further magnetic field
cos
R
R
1 2 | M B | = MB sin 90° = r2iBx ...(2)
Z
2 2
R XC XL
2
X XL
1 C mg
R Eqs. (1) and (2), we get, i
rB x
To raise the power factor, the denominater
should decrease. For this either R should
increase or XC – XL should decrease. If a h
6. v1 2g 2 gh
resistance is added in series, the denominater
1 From Bernoulli’s theorem
will decrease. X C – X L or L can be
C
decreased either by increasing C or L. If we h 1
gh 2g 2 v 22
put a capacitor in series the equivalent 2 2
C1C2
capacitance of the circuit will v1 1
C1 C2 v 2 2gh ;
v2 2
decrease. Hence, either a resistance or an
inductor should be put in series to raise the
power factor.
8 MOCK TEST 13
Not let x be the new compression. Then 10. Force on satellite is always towards earth, therefore,
W – kx – F = ma acceleration of satellite S is always directed towards
centre of the earth. Net torque of this gravitational
or W kx g a F W a force F about centre of earth is zero. Therefore,
g g
angular momentum (both in magnitude and direction)
a a of S about centre of earth is constant throughout.
or W F kx F W
g g Since, the force F is conservative in nature, therefore
or kx kx a F W a mechanical energy of satellite remains constant.
g g Speed of S is maximum when it is nearest to earth
and minimum when it is farthest.
or x x F W a
gx
kx upthrust = F kx F 11. Vrms 3RT
M
V1
if V2 then T2 T1
2 4
a
also, T1V1 1 T2 V2 1
T1
T1 V1 V2
Weight = W W 4
Now since, V2 16V1
F<W
12. V = J/m
x < x
By coservation of L about point of contact
Therefore, length of spring will increase.
mvr = mvr + I
8. U(6 m) = 10 + (6 – 2)2 = 26 J
U(–2 m) = 10 + (– 2 – 2)2 = 26 J mvr mv 'r mr 2 vr '
As U(6 m) = U(– 2 m), mvr 2mv 'r
On negative x-axis particle travels upto J
v' v 2
x=–2m 2m
Mean position of the particle is x = 2 m 13. 5F capacitor is short circuited, hence zero charge
U(2 m) = 10 J
14. K max hc
K(2 m) = (26 – 10)J = 16J = Kmax
Put x – 2 = X 2eV 5eV
U = 10 + X2
3eV
dU
F 2X Now, Kmax 6eV 3eV 3eV
dX
F V0 3V
a 2X (m = 1 kg)
m
15. Bandwidth = 5 + 5 = 10 kHz
2
2
T 16. Mi
T 2 d 4
d M(di) or (di) 2A
mg M 2
9. Mean position of the particle is distance below
k Further d M(di) = (2) (1) = 2Wb
the unstretched position of spring. Therefore,
2uy u2y
amplitude of oscillation is 17. T ,H and R = uxT
g 2g
mg
A where, T = time of flight of the projectile and ux and uy
k
are respectively the horizontal and vertical
k
2f 20 (f = 10 Hz) components of initial velocity.
m
MOCK TEST 13 9
When a horizontal acceleration is also given to the 22. The mirror formula is
projectile uy and hence T and H will remain un- 1 1 1
changed while the range will become v u f
2 Differentiating it with respect to time, we have
1 2 R 1 g 4uy
R ux T aT 2 =R+H 1 dv 1 du
2 2 4 g 0
v 2 dt u2 dt
18. From work-energy theorem kinetic energy of block at
u2 du dt
x = x is; ...(i)
v2 dv dt
3
x x u = –30, f = –5m, v = ?
K (4 x 2 ).dx or K 4x
0 3
1 1 1
dK
For K to be maximum 0 v 30 5
dx
1 1 1 1 6
or 4 – x2 = 0 or x = 2m
v 30 5 30
At x = +2m is negative 30
v 6
i.e., kinetic energy (K) is maximum. 5
(2)3 16 Putting it in Eq. (i)
Kmax = (4)(2) – J 5.33 J
3 3 30 30 1
2 2 66 x
19. I 4I0 cos ; I0 4I0 cos
2 2
66 1
x 0.04 m / s
1 30 30 25
cos 2 2 or
2 3 Velocity of image = 0.04 m/s in opposite
1 1 d yd direction, so relative velocity = 1 + 0.04
or y. x
3 D D = 1.04 m/s
6 107 23. For the lower layer of liquid,
y = 2 × 10–3 m = 2 mm
3
d 3 104
D
V0 V0 12 cm 1.2 (x)
20. i1 and i2
Z1 Z2
15 cm 1.5 (y)
2 2
1
2 1
2
Here, Z1 R and Z2 R
C 2C Re al depth 1.5
xwy
As Z2 < Z1 ; i1 < i2 Apparent depth 1.2
21. Let velocities of their masses at distance r from each
15 15
other be v1 and v2, respectively.
d1 12
By conservation of momentum,
d1 = 12 cm
m1v1 m2v 2 0
For upper layer of liquid,
m1v1 m2v 2 ...(i) Re al depth
w a x 1.2
By conservation of energy, Apparent depth
4 3 4
3.11 1016 Al 4e Al
0.296 1027 3 3
10.5 1011
n=4
0.296 1027
Number of moles of U-235 0.49 × Here G = –nE°F
6.02 1026
kg-mole G 827000 J mol1
E = – 2.14 V
nF 4 96500 C mol1
Mass in kg = 0.49 × 235 kg = 115.15 kg
25. Let the two frequencies be v1 and v2. v2 may be Thus minimum e.m.f. required = 2.14 V
either 204 Hz or 196 Hz. 0.0591 [Zn2 ]
32. E = E° – log [Here n = 2]
2 [Cu2 ]
+ 4 Hz 204 Hz
(v2)
E = 1.1 V – 0.0591 V log 1
200 Hz 2 0.1
(v1)
= (1.1 – 0.02955)V = 1.07045V 1.07 V
– 4 Hz 196 Hz
(v2) 33. Adsorption is accompanied by decrease in enthalpy
(H =–ve) and decrease in entropy (S = –ve).
As mass of second fork increases, v2 decreases.
34. a
c X bdY x 24He y 1
If v2 = 204 Hz, a decrease in v2 decreases beats/
sec. But this is not given in question. Here x = -particles emitted and y = -particles emit-
If v2 = 196 Hz, a decrease in v 2 increases beats/ ted.
sec. a = b + 4x
This is given in the question when beats increase ab
to 6 x= 4
Original frequency of second fork = 196 Hz. c = d + 2x – y
27. Amount of H2SO4 = M × V = 0.20 × 350 = 70 m mol y = d – c + 2x
Amount of H+ ions = 2 × 70 = 140 m mol
Amount of NaOH = M × V = 0.10 × 650 = 65 m mol y = d – c + ab
2
Amount of OH– ions = 65 m mol
a b
Thus NaOH is the limiting reactant. As such 65 m y = d + – c
2
mol of OH– ions will react with 65 m mol of H+ ions to
give 65 m mol of water. 35. For a zero order reaction the graph between rate and
1 mol of H+ ions react with 1 mol of OH– ions to give concentration is a straight line with zero slope and
+ve Y-intercept.
1 mol of H2O and in the process 57.1 kJ of heat is
produced. 36. 2 × 10-4
So, the heat produced = 57.1 × 65 × 10–3 = 3.71 kJ
pH pK a log
salt
29. As pH of HCOOH sol. = pH of CH3COOH sol. acid
[H+] in HCOOH sol. = [H+] in CH3COOH sol.
salt acid
[HCOO ][H ] [H ]2
K1
[HCOOH] [HCOOH] pH = pKa; [H+] = Ka = 2 × 10-4
[CH3COO ][H ]
37. 6d
[H ]2
K2
[CH3COOH] [CH3COOH] 38. O22
K1[HCOOH] = K2[CH3COOH];
rH2 4
[HCOOH] K 1 39. 2
2 0.25 rHe 2
[CH3COOH] K1 4
x
31. For the reverse reaction 40. m kp1 n
2 4
Al2O3 Al O2 logk 0.3 ; n=1
3 3
r. C C r. r 1 1 C
K K
55.
n
r
n
r 1
n
Cr n
r 1
42. Fe, Co, Ni have nearly the same atomic radii because r 1 r 1 r 1
Increasing order of acid strength of these Lewis = n.2n–1 – (n.2n–1 – n.nCn) – (2n – 1) = n – 2n + 1
acids is 56. f(x – y) = f(x) f(y) – f(a – x) f(a + y) ( f(0) = 1)
CH3CH3 < NH3 < HC CH < H2O put y = 0
45. HO – Cl OH– + Cl+ f(x) = f(x) f(0) – f(a – x) f(a) f(a – x) f(a) = 0 ... (1)
put x = a, y = a – x
CH3 CH CH2
Cl
Pr opene f(x) = f(a – x) f(a) – f(0).f(2a – x)
46. Nylon - 6 f(x) = 0 – f(2a – x) f(2a – x) = –f(x)
180 3 5
47. xa 9 13 57. 1 From
2 3
120 180
5 5 1 1
l lim x sin cos 1
50. A is more reactive than B x
x x
51. zn = (z + 1)n, this equation will have exactly (n – 1)
1
roots. put x = t
n
z 1 z 1
We have, 1 z 1 |z + 1| = |z| 1 1 t t t
z = lim [sin t cos t 1] = lim 2 sin cos 2 sin2
t 0 t
t 0 t 2 2 2
‘z’ lies on the right bisector of the segment
connecting the points (0, 0) and (–1, 0)
1 t t 1
= lim 2 sin cos sin = 1 = e1
t 0 t 2 2 2
1
Thus, Re(z) = . Hence roots are collinear and will
2
1
58. Put y = 0 f x f(x) f(3x) = 3f(x)
their real part equal to . 3 3
2
f(3x) f(3h)
1 f(x h) f(x) f(x)
Hence, sum of real parts of roots
2
n 1. f(x) = hlim
0 h
= hlim
0
3
h
52. x 21 x 22 x 32 and x1 + x2 + x3 = 24 8f(x) 3f(x)
f(x) f(h) f(0)
= hlim 3 = hlim f (0)
These given informations give us the idea that x1, x2 0 h 0 h
and x3 can be treated as the sides of a right angled f(x) = 3
triangle whose hypotenuse is x3 and perimeter is 24. f(x) = 3x + c
The obvious solution is x1 = 8, x2 = 6, x3 = 10 or x1 = f(x) = 3x
6, x2 = 8, x3 = 10. 59. y sin –1(x 1 x x 1 x 2 )
Thus there are two sets of positive integral solutions. dy 1
53. Let the first term be ‘a’. dx 2 x(1 x) p
3n
Then, S(3n) = (2a + (3n – 1)5) y = sin–1(x) + sin–1 ( x )
2
dy 1 1
2n n
S(2n) = (2a + (2n – 1)5); S(n) = (2a + (n – 1)5) dx 1 x2 2 x 1 x
2 2
n 60. f(x) = 1 + 2x2 + 4x4 + 6x6 + ... + 100x100
S(2n) – S(n) = (2a + 5(4n – 2 – n + 1))
2 f(x) = 4x + 16x3 + 36x5 + ... + (100)2 x99
n S 3n S 3n f(x) = x(4 + 16x2 + 36x4 + ...+ (100)2 x98)
(2a + (3n – 1)5) 3
=
2 3 S 2n S n f(x) = 0
54. Since 9600 = 27 × 31 × 52 x=0
Hence number of divisors = (7 + 1)(1 + 1)(2 + 1)
x = 0 is minima point
= 48. 0
12 MOCK TEST 13
1 sec 4 x
61. sin 4
x cos4 x
dx
tan4 x 1
dx
Let tan x t
1
1 t dt
2 1
t 2 dt
t4 1 2 1
t 2 69. x2 + 2xy + 2y2 + 4y + 7 = x2 + 2xy + y2 + y2 + 4y + 7
t
= (x + y)2 + y2 + 4y + 7 = (x + y)2 + (y + 2)2 + 3
Let t 1 z least value of (x + y)2 is 0 when y = – x
t
least value of (y + 2)2 is 0 when y = – 2
dt 1 z
tan1 c least value is = 0 + 0 + 3 = 3
t2 2 2 2
1 t2 1 70. x2 – (a – 2)x – a – 1 = 0
tan1 c
2 2t
2 2 2
2
62. No of function = 33 2 C1·23 2 C2·13 12
63. Distance from centre to the line should be equal to = (a – 2)2 + 2(a + 1) = a2 – 2a + 6
Min 2 2 at 2A 2 1 a = 1
radius 8 2
6 12 a 2
d 2 xe x 1 2 2
5 71. A Area = A ' e x 2x 2e x
2 2
a 6 10 a 6 10 1
A' 0 x gives A max
a 16 or 4 2
e 1 2 1
1 1 4 1 A max
64. 1 2 1 2 2 8e
e12 e 22 9 e2
72.
9 3
e22 e2
5 5
xy 3x 4y 18 0
f x , 0 x 1 2
for the above equation to represent a pair of lines
g x f 1 2 , 1 2 x 1
l = -6
3 x, 1 x 2
equation of conjugate hyperbola is
73. y x and y = c x = c 2
s + 2l = 0
dy 1
xy – 3x + 4y – 18 = 0 y x;
dx 2 x
66. |x|2 – 3|x| + 2 = 0 (|x| – 2) (|x| – 1) = 0 dy 1 1
1 c
x 1, 2 dx P 2c 2
25 5 x O x x O x
(c) (d)
2 E0 2B0
5. n identical cells are joined in series with two cells A
2. A hollow sphere of radius 2R is charged to V volts and B with reversed polarities. EMF of each cell is E
and another smaller sphere of radius R is charged to and internal resistance is r. Potential difference
across cell A or B is (n > 4) :
V
volts. Now the smaller sphere is placed inside
2 2E 1
(a) (b) 2E 1
the bigger sphere without changing the net charge n n
on each sphere. The potential difference between
the two spheres would be: 2
4E
(c) (d) 2E 1
3V V n n
(a) (b)
2 4 6. A ring consisting of two parts ADB and ACB of same
conductivity K carries an amount of heat H.
V
(c) (d) V The ADB part is now replaced with another metal
2 keeping the temperatures T 1 and T 2 constant.
3. In the circuit shown in figure potential difference The heat carried increases to 2H. What should be
between A and B is_____________ the conductivity of the new ADB part?
E = 190V ACB
Given ADB 3
C 3C C
A
B
C 3C
A B T
4. Four equal charges of magnitude q each are placed T1 2
g
(c) g (d)
3
MOCK TEST 14 3
18. An ionized gas contains both positive and negative 25. A cubical block of side 30 cm is moving with
ions. If it is subjected simultaneously to an electric velocity 2 m s–1 on a smooth horizontal surface.
field along the +x-direction and a magnetic field along The surface has a bump at a point O as shown in
the +z-direction, then: figure. The angular velocity (in rad/s) of the block
immediately after it hits the bump is_____________
(a) positive ions deflect towards +y-direction and
negative ions towards –y-direction a = 30 cm
(b) all ions deflect towards +y-direction
(c) all ions deflect towards –y-direction
(d) positive ions deflect towards –y-direction and O
negative ions towards +y-direction
19. The binding energies of nuclei X and Y are E1 and E2 CHEMISTRY (SECTION – B)
respectively. Two atoms of X fuse to give one atom of 26. Potassium fluoride KF has NaCl structure.
Y and an energy Q is released. Then: Its density is 248 g cm –3 and its molar mass is 58
(a) Q = 2E1 – E2 g mol–1. The distance between K + and F – ions in
KF is _____________(pm)
(b) Q = E2 – 2E1
27. The reaction, X Product follows first order
(c) Q < 2E1 – E2
kinetics. In 40 minutes the concentration of X
(d) Q > E2 – 2E1 changes from 0.1 M to 0.025 M. Then the rate of
20. Which of the following about hysteresis loss is reaction when concentration of X is 0.01 M
correct? (a) 1.73 × 10–4 M min–1 (b) 3.47 × 10–5 M min–1
(a) It is more in case of soft iron (c) 3.47 × 10–4 M min–1 (d) 1.73 × 10–5 M min–1
(b) It is more in case of steel 28. Which is deliquescent?
(c) It is equal in both the cases (a) MgCl2 (b) NaOH
(d) There is no hysteresis loss in both iron and (c) CaCl2 (d) All
steel 29. Non combustible hydride is
21. When a disc is rolling up an inclined plane, (a) NH3 (b) PH3
its speed decreases gradually. What is the (c) AsH3 (d) SbH3
direction of friction force acting on it? 30. T he c or r ec t produc t of m ono- nitr ation of
(a) In upward direction parallel to inclined plane
(b) In downward direction parallel to inclined plane CH2–COO is
(c) No friction at all as there is perfect rolling
(d) None of the above
22. In an AC generator, armature is perpendicular (a) CH2–COO
to magnetic field and is rotating with angular
velocity of 50 cycle per second. Find the
NO2
time at which current will be 1 2 times the
maximum current for the first time.
(b) CH2COO
(a) 2.5 ms (b) 5 ms
(c) 7.5 ms (d) 10 ms
NO2
23. The ratio of wavelength of the last line of Balmer
series and the last line of Lyman series is (c) NO2 CH2COO
(a) 1 (b) 4
(c) 0.5 (d) 2
24. According to Bohr's theory, the time averaged (d) CH2COO NO2
magnetic field at the centre (i.e., nucleus) of a
hydrogen atom due to the motion of electrons in the 31. Glucose is
nth orbit is proportional to (n = principal quantum (a) Aldopentose (b) Aldohexose
number) n–x, then x is _____________
(c) Ketopentose (d) Ketohexose
4 MOCK TEST 14
32. If K a1 and K a2 are the ionization constants of 39. Which of the following will not produces aromatic
major product
H3N+CHICOOH and H3N+CHICOO –, respectively,
the pH of the solution at the isoelectric point is Red hot
(a) Me C CH
(a) pH pK a1 pK a2 (b) pH pK a1 pK a2 Fe tube
1 (pK a1 pK a2 ) Al2O3
(c) pH (pK a1 pK a2 ) 2 (d) pH (b) n-Hexane
2 CO2O3/
33. Carbohydrates which differ in configuration at the
glycosidic carbon (i.e. C 1 in aldose and C 2 in CHCl3
ketoses) are called (c)
(a) Anomers (b) Epimers KOH
(c) Diastereomers (d) Enantiomers Cl
Cl Cl
34. NH3 I2 ' A ' HI ; Alc. KOH
(d)
' A '
Rubbed
'B ' N2 NH4I
Cl Cl
A and B are
Cl
(a) NH2NI4 and I2 (b) NH3NI3 and H2
40. Two liquid A and B form an ideal solution. When
(c) NH3NI3 and I2 (d) NH2NI4 and H2 total pressure of above solution is 600 torr, the
35. When iodine reacts with NaF, NaBr and NaCl: amount fraction of A in the vapour phase is 0.35 and
(a) It gives mixture of F 2, Cl2 and Br2 in liquid phase is 0.70. The vapour pressure of pure
(b) It gives chlorine A is_____________(torr)
(c) It gives bromine 41. In which case formation of butane nitrile is possible?
(d) None of the above
(a) C3H7Br + KCN (b) C4H9Br + KCN
36. For reaction X2(g) + y2(g) 2XY(g) (c) C3H7OH + KCN (d) C4H9OH + KCN
The following data are observed 42. Increasing order of reactivity of the following alkyl
[X2] [Y2] Rate of appearance of XY (M/sec) halides in the Williamson’s synthesis is
0.1 0.1 5 × 10
-6 CH2 = CHCH2Cl, CH3CH2CH2Br,
-5
I II
0.2 0.1 10 (CH3)3CCH2Br, CH3CH2CH2Cl
-5
0.2 0.2 4 × 10 III IV
Rate constant of reaction will (in M1-n sec-1) where 'n' (a) II < III < IV < I (b) III < II < IV < I
is order of reaction. (c) IV < III < I < II (d) III < IV < II < I
(a) 2.5 × 10-4 (b) 5 × 10-3
(c) 2.5 × 10-3 (d) 5 × 10-4 43.
37. Which of the following will give -ve Tollen's but +ve
The product A is
iodoform test-
(a) methanal (b) ethanal
(c) pentan-3-one (d) 2, 3-pentanedione (a)
38. Br
HBr (b)
P1 + P 2
x 4 3
sin t dt (a) ln (b) ln
2
3 4
72. lim 0
x 0 x 1 cos x 3
(c) ln (d) 0
1 2
(a) (b) -2
3 74. Set of real values of K for which the lines x + 3y + 1
2 = 0, Kx + 2y - 2 = 0 and 2x - y + 3 = 0 form a triangle
(c) 2 (d) is_____________
3
73. If I1 lim
2n
r 2
n
2
and
75. Range of f x ln x 3 x 2
2
is, (where {x}
n
r 1 3rn 2n represents fractional part of x)
n
2r
n (a) [2, 6) (b) (ln2, ln6)
I2 lim 2 2
, then the value of
n 3rn n
r 1
2I1 I2 is equal to
(c) [ln2, ln6) (d) ,ln2
ANSWERS
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (10 V) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (d) 8. (1.57 m/s) 9. (c) 10. (d)
11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (d) 16. (a) 17. (300 m/s) 18. (c) 19. (b)
20. (b) 21. (a) 22. (a) 23. (b) 24. (n )
–5
25. (5.0) 26. (268.7 pm) 27. (c) 28. (d)
29. (a) 30. (d) 31. (b) 32. (d) 33. (a) 34. (c) 35. (d) 36. (b) 37. (d) 38. (a)
39. (d) 40. (300 torr) 41. (a) 42. (d) 43. (c) 44. (b) 45. (b) 46. ( ) 47. (2.7) 48. (d)
2
49. (c) 50. (d) 51. (a) 52. (c) 53. (a) 54. (a) 55. (d) 56. (c) 57. (c) 58. (b)
59. (d) 60. (b) 61. (108) 62. (a) 63. (126) 64. (2296) 65. (c) 66. (a) 67. (a) 68. (d)
69. (b) 70. (b) 71. (29) 72. (d) 73. (c) 74. ( R 2 3, 4, 6 5 ) 75. (c)
8 MOCK TEST 14
EXPLANATIONS
1. Let q be the charge and m the mass of the particle.
8. l 3
At (x0, 0, 0) speed of the particle is 5 units. 2
Applying work-energy theorem 2l 2 0.6
m 0.4m
3 3
1 25 25m 25
qE0 x 0 mv 2 m ; x0 T 80
2 2 2qE 2 E0 v 20m / s
0
0.2
V 40RV N N N N
2. Charge on smaller sphere q C 2
2
q 1 1 VR 1 V
Potential difference = 4 R 2R 2 2R 4 3
0 l=
2
E = 190V E = 190V
3. v 20
f Hz 50 Hz
0.4
C 3C
C 3C
Vmax amax
A
B B
0.5 102 m 2 50 m / s
2
m/s = 1.57 m/s
C 3C 3 9. First harmonic of closed = Third harmonic of open
C
4
V v l1 1
E = 190V 3 ;
4l2 2l2 l2 6
15
C T MT 2 1
1 1 LT
C 4 10.
ML T
V1 V2 11. Q P nCP T 70
15 7
CP 7 R
4 C 15 4 2
V1
; V2 190 40V
V2 C 4 19 Gas is diatomic (H2)
12.
3 v
Now this 40V is distributed in C and 3C in the ratio of
1
mg
VAB = 10 V
4. At the centre of square net force on +Q is zero. But
at x = 0, it is in unstable equilibrium position i.e., 2
1 mv
potential energy is maximum. mv 2 mgR 1 cos & mgcos
2 R
i
n 4E . 2
5. Current in the circuit will be cos
nr 3
Hence, potential difference across A and B is
g 5
n 4 E r 2E 1 2 Tangential acceleration gsin
V = E + ir = E + 3
nr n
13.
KA T1 T2 KA T1 T2 4
6. H1 + H2 KA T1 T2 P
3l l 3l x 2 4 2
x
In later case
7KA KA 7 S1 S2
H2 = 2H – H1 3l T1 T2 l T1 T2 K 3 K 2
3
x x 2 4 2 x
PM 1 2
7. and
RT V
3 2
During AB, and hence V is constant. x 2 4 2 x 2 3x
4
Therefore, work done is zero.
7
During BC, P i.e, T x
12
and hence, U is constant.
MOCK TEST 14 9
19. During fusion, binding energy of daughter nucleus is
14. E·dr 0 or 4dx + dy = 0
always greater than the total binding energy of the
line is 4x + y = 2 parent nuclei. The difference of binding energies is
15. vmax A released. Hence, Q = E2 – 2E1
20.
4A 4A
v avg I I
T 2
2
v avg v max B B
v
16. f0
2l
Hysteresis curve of Hysteresis curve of
Now beat frequency = f1 – f2 steel soft iron
Hysteresis curve shows the pattern of change in I
vis-a-vis by change in B. The area under hysteresis
v v
v 1 1
l l 2 l loop represents loss of energy in one complete cycle
2 l 2 l
2 2 l l l of magnetising and demagnetising of a magnetic
2 2
material from the figure above it is clear that in case
l 2 l l 2l
of steel hysteresis loss is more.
2 2
(f0l) 2f0l l2 4( l)2 21.
l 2 l l 2 l
4 l 8f l Force of friction
2f0l 2 0
l l
v v0 f v
17. f f0 f0 0 0
v v In the figure above movement of rolling disc is shown.
It is clear that the point on the disc in touch with the
0 f g inclined plane tends to go down. So, force of friction
v0 = gt; f f0 v t will act in upward direction parallel to the surface.
22. emf generated according to equation,
f g
i.e., f–t graph is a straight line of slope 0v e e0 sin t
e0
e0 sin t
f0g f0 g (103 )(10) sin t sin
or slope or v 300 m / s 2 4
v slope 103
30
t
4
1
18. We can write E Ei and B Bi
2
t n T
T 4
Velocity of the particle will be along q.E direction.
2nt
Therefore, we can write 4
1 1
t
V Aq Ei 8n 8 50
1000
In E, B and V , A, E and B are positive constants
s t ms 2.5 ms
8 50
while q can be positive or negative.
23. The wavelength of last line of Balmer series
Now, magnetic force on the particle will be
1 1 1 R
R 2 2
B 2 4
The wavelength of last line of Lyman series
1 1 1
Since, Fm is along negative y-axis, no matter what R 2 2 R
L 1
is the sign of charge q. Therefore, all ions will deflect
towards negative y-direction. B 4
4
L 1
36. From given data rate = K[1/2]1 [1/2]2
0I
24. Magnetic field at the centre, Bn
5 10 6 K 0.1 0.1
2rn 2
4 58
ring B is bonded to group (a deactivating
155.318 10 24 cm3
2.48 6.023 10 23 and m-directing group) p-nitro group on ring A will
a = 5.375 × 10–8 cm = 5.375 × 10 –10 m be sterically most stable.
= 537.5 × 10 –12 = 537.5 pm 44. Both Zn(Hg), HCl and NH2NH2, OH– can reduce –
COCH3 group to –CH2–CH 3 group, but HCl will also
a 537.5
Now r+ + r – = 2 = 268.7 pm bring about dehydration of alcohol to form alkene.
2
Therefore, appropriate reagent for the conversion is
2.303 0.1 2.303 2.303 0.6021 NH 2NH2, OH– (B).
27. k 40 min log 0.025 40 min log 4 40
min–1
45.
2.303 0.6021
Rate = k[X] 10 2 Mmin –1
40
2.303 6.021
10 4 Mmin–1 = 3.47 × 10 –4 M min–1
4
28. Because MgCl3, NaOH and CaCl2 all absorbs water
from the atmosphere moisture. h 1 T2
46. and v T
mv 2 T1
47. Let the mass of mixture = 100 gm 56. d = (a2 – a1) = (a3 – a2) = ... = (an – an–1 0)
w CO2 66gm , w H2 34gm sind[cosec a1 cosec a2 + coseca2 cosec a3 + ...
+ cosec a n–1 cosec an]
nCO2 1.5 nH2 17
sind sind sin d
= ..
100 sina1 sina2 sina2 sina3 sin an 1 sinan
M.wtmix 5.4
18.5
n
V.D. = 2.7 n
sin(a ar 1) sin(ar cosar 1 cosar sinr 1
sina r
sin ar r2
sina 1 sin ar sinar 1 sin ar
51. r a b a r2 r 1 r
n
r b a 0 r b 1 a 2iˆ kˆ 1 ˆi ˆj (cot ar 1 cot ar ) cot a1 cot an
r2
ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ 57. x – px 2 + qx – r = 0
3
r b a b r a 2b i j 2 2i k
p Satisfy given equation
At the point of intersection;
p3 – p3 + pq – r = 0
2iˆ kˆ 1 ˆi ˆj ˆi ˆj 2 2iˆ kˆ pq = r
2 + 1 = 1 + 22 + 1 = 1, 2 = 1 1 = 1, 2 = 1 58. ax2 + bx + c = 0, a 0,
CA – A B
X
| A |2
t1 t2
1
dt
t2 = 2t1 ... (1) 1 3
2 3 4t 2 3
R[at1t2, a(t1 + t2)] 3 4t
lim lim 0
k2 9 x 0 3 1 cos x x 0 x3
h 2a 2 k ah 2
x
9a 2 2
x
sin x 2 2
2 lim
x 0 3x 2 3
67. 3x + ky – 2z = 0 2
x
x + ky + 3z = 0 1
73. I1 2
dx ln3 2
2x + 3y – 4z = 0 3x 2
0
D=0 1
2x
1
I2 dx ln3 2
2
3x 1
0
74. Three lines forms a triangle if they are non-concurrent
3(– 4k – a) – k(– 4 – 6) – 2(3 – 2k) = 0 and so two lines are parallel answer R 2 3, 4, 6 5
– 12k – 27 + 4k + 6k – 6 + 43k = 0
75. ln is increasing
2k = 33; min at n = 0
max at n = 1 Range [ln2, ln6)
MOCK TEST – 15
PHYSICS (SECTION – A) immersed in a liquid of refractive index 1.5 the
corresponding y coordinates will be:
1. A steady current flows in a metallic conductor of non- (a) 2 cm, 7.5 cm (b) 3 cm, 6 cm
uniform cross section. The quantity/quantities which
4 10
remain constant along the length of the conductor (c) 2 cm, 4 cm (d)
cm, cm
is/are: 3 3
6. The maximum intensity in Young's double slit
(a) current, electric field and drift speed experiment is I0. Distance between the slits is
(b) drift speed only1 d 5, where is the wavelength of
(c) current and drift speed monochromatic light used in the experiment. What
(d) current only will be the intensity of light in front of one of the slits
on a screen at a distance D = 10d?
2. A real image is formed by a convex lens, then it is
connected with a concave lens and again a real image I0 3
(a) (b) I0
is formed. This image will: 2 4
(a) shift towards the lens system I0
(c) I0 (d)
4
(b) shift away from the lens system
7. A spherical surface of radius of curvature R,
(c) remain in its original position separates air from glass. The centre of curvature is
(d) shift to infinity in the glass. A point object P placed in air is found to
have a real image Q in the glass. The line PQ cuts
3. Refraction takes place at a concave spherical
the surface at a point O and PO = OQ. The distance
boundary separating glass air medium. For the image
PO is equal to m R, then ‘m’ is ___________
3 8. A capacitor of capacity 6F and initial charge 160C
to be real, the object distance g :
2
is connected with a key S and resistance as shown
(a) should be greater than three times the radius of in figure. Point M is earthed. If key is closed at t = 0;
curvature of the refracting surface then the current through resistance R 1 at t =
(b) should be greater than two times the radius of 16 s is:
curvature of the refracting surface
2 N 1
(c) should be greater than the radius of curvature of
the refracting surface S
+
(d) is independent of the radius of curvature of the 2 C R 1
refracting surface
d 4 M 2
4. In Young’s double slit experiment 10 4
D
10 10
(d = distance between slits, D = distance of screen (a) A (b) A
from the slits). At a point P on the screen resulting 3e e
intensity is equal to the intensity due to individual 20
(c) A (d) none of these
slit I0. Then the distance of point P from the central 3e
maximum is___________(mm) 6000 Å 9. A 100 W bulb B1, and two 60 W bulbs B2 and B3, are
connected to a 250 V source, as shown in the figure.
5. In Young’s double slit experiment the y co-ordinates Now, W 1, W 2 and W 3 are the output powers of the
of central maxima and 10th maxima are 2 cm and bulbs B1, B2 and B3 respectively. Then:
5 cm respectively. When the YDSE appratus is
2 MOCK TEST 15
B1 B2 1 1
(a) (b)
4 8
1 1
(c) (d)
B3 3 6
15. A 120 V, 60 W lamp is run from a 240 V, 50 Hz
250 V mains supply using a capacitor in series. Find the
capacitance required to operate the lamp at its
normal rating___________(F)
(a) W 1 > W 2 = W 3 (b) W 1 > W 2 > W 3
16. A hollow sphere of radius 2R is charged to V volts
(c) W 1 < W 2 = W 3 (d) W 1 < W 2 < W 3 and another smaller sphere of radius R is charged
10. A point charge q is placed at a distance of r from the
V
centre of an uncharged conducting sphere of radius to volts. Now the smaller sphere is placed inside
2
R(< r). The potential at any point on the sphere is:
the bigger sphere without changing the net charge
1 q on each sphere. The potential difference between
(a) zero (b) .
40 r v
the two spheres would be , then x is ___________
x
1 qR 1 qr 2
(c) . (d) .
40 r 2 4 0 R 17. The dimensions of b 4 ( = Stefan’s constant and
b = Wein’s constant) are :
11. A tiny sphere of mass m and density is dropped
(a) [M0L0T0] (b) [ML4T–3]
in a tall jar of glycerine of density . When the
(c) [ML–2T] (d) [ML6T–3]
sphere acquires terminal velocity, the magnitude of
viscous force is 18. Two bodies of mass m and 4 m are attached with
string as shown in the figure. The body of mass m
mg mg hanging from a string of length l is executing
(a) (b)
oscillations of angular amplitude while the other
body is at rest. The minimum coefficient of friction
between the mass 4m and the horizontal surface
(c) 1 mg (d) mg 1 should be:
2mv 2
(c) 0 (d)
d
25. In a series resonant LCR circuit, the voltage across
R is 100 volts and R 1 k with C 2F. The
resonant frequency is 200 rad/s. At resonance
the voltage across L is___________(V)
CHEMISTRY (SECTION – B)
(a) 1 : 4 (b) 2 : 1
(c) 4 : 13 (d) 2 : 5 26. The ionization constant of HCO 2H is 1.8 × 10 –4.
W hat is the percent ionization of a 0.001 M
1 solution___________(%)
21. The dimension of 0E2 ( 0 : Permittivity of free
2 27. Coupling of diazonium salts of following takes
space, E : Electric field) is place in the order
29.
I2 , NaHCO3
Major product:
O G CH2 – Br +
Acetone
SN 1
I N
+
(a) O G CH2 – N Br
–
O
The rate of the reaction depends on the nature
O
(b) O of G. The rate order for the reaction (where G is)
I (a)CH3 – > CH3 – CH2 – > (CH3)2CH – > (CH3)3C
– due to hyperconjugation
I
– + (b)CH3 – > CH3 – CH2 – > (CH3)2CH – > (CH3)3C
COONa – due to steric acceleration
(c)
I (c) (CH3)3C – > (CH 3)2CH – > CH 3CH2 – > CH 3 –
due to inductive and steric effects
OCOONa
(d)(CH3)3C – > (CH 3)2CH – > CH 3 – > CH3CH2 –
(d) COONa due to hyperconjugation
I 34. The correct order of basicity is
I II III IV
30.
HCl
CCl4
Major product: N
> > >
N N N
Cl Cl
H H
(a) (b)
Identify the correct statement.
Cl (a) In III, lone pair of electrons is involved in
delocalisation but not in II.
Cl (b) In IV, lone pair of electrons is involved in
(c) (d) delocalisation but not in III.
(c) I is more basic than II because six membered
31. The root mean square velocity of one mole of a ring is more stable than five membered ring.
monoatomic gas having molar mass M is U rms. (d) In III lone pair of electrons is present in sp orbital
The relation between the average kinetic energy but in I, II and IV lone pair of electrons is present
(E) of gas and Urms is in sp2 orbital.
35. The com pound with the structural formula
3E 2E
(a) Urms (b) Urms
2M 3M
is
2E E
(c) Urms (d) Urms (a) aromatic and non-polar
M 3M
(b) aromatic and polar with definite dipole moment
32. 'a' and 'b' are vander waal's constants for gases.
Chlorine is more easily liquified than ethane (c) non-aromatic and non-polar
because (d) non-aromatic and polar with definite dipole
(a) a and b for Cl2 < a and b for C2H6 moment
0
(b) a for Cl2 < a for C2H6 but b for Cl2 < b for C2H6 36. For strong electrolyte m m 10 C . Then
(c) a for Cl2 > a for C2H6 but b for Cl2 < b for C2H6
calculate m at 0.01 M if its value at 0.16M is 200
(d) a and b for Cl2 > a and b for C2H6
Scm2mol-1___________(Scm2mol-1)
MOCK TEST 15 5
37. Select the correct statement about [Mn(CO)4NO] 44. Identify the correct statement regarding a
which is diamagnetic spontaneous process
(a) It is diam agnetic because Mn metal is (a) Lowering of energy in the reaction process is the
diamagnetic in free state only criterion for spontaneity.
(b) It is diamagnetic because Mn is in +1 oxidation (b) For a spontaneous process in an isolated sys-
state in this complex tem, the change in entropy is positive.
(c) NO is present as positive ligand (c) Endothermic reaction are never spontaneous.
(d) All of these (d) Exothermic reactions are always spontaneous.
38. Which of the following reaction from N2O
45. The radioactive decay of 35
X88 by a -emission
(a) NH4NO3
produces an unstable nucleus which spontaneously
emits a neutron. The final product is___________
(b) NH3 (excess) + Cl2
46. Which of the following oxoacids of sulphur has more
(c) NH4NO2 than one oxidation state of oxygen?
(a) H2S2O3 (b) H2S2O4
(d) FeSO4 + HNO3
(c) H2S2O6 (d) H2S2O8
39. Benzylamine & aniline can be distinguished by
47. 0.246 g of the organic compound gave 22.4 cm3 of
(a) Isocynide test (b) Musturd oil test nitrogen gas at STP as determined by Duma's
(c) Dye-azo test (d) Hinsberg test method. The percent of nitrogen in the compound
40. Which of the following reaction is not correctly is___________
matched with its products: 48. Assuming 100% ionization, the increasing order of
the freezing point of the solution will be
(a) P4 + 10SO2Cl2 4PCl3 + 10SO2
(a) 0.10 mol kg-1 Ba3 (PO4)2 < 0.10 mol kg-1 Na2SO4
(b) P4 + 8SOCl2 4PCl3 + 4SO2 + 2S2Cl2 < 0.10 mol kg-1 KCl
(c) 3CH3COOH + PCl3 3CH3COCl + H3PO3 (b) 0.10 mol kg-1 KCl < 0.10 mol kg-1 Na2SO4 < 0.10
mol kg-1 Ba3 (PO4)2
(d) Sn + PCl5 SnCl2 + PCl3
(c) 0.10 mol kg-1 Na2SO4 < 0.10 mol kg-1 Ba3 (PO4)2
41. Which of the following acids has the smallest < 0.10 mol kg-1 KCl
dissociation constant? (d) 0.10 mol kg-1 KCl < 0.10 mol kg-1 Ba3 (PO4)2 <
(a) CH3CHFCOOH (b) FCH2CH2COOH 0.10 mol kg-1 Na2SO4
(c) BrCH2CH2COOH (d) CH3CHBrCOOH 49. 2g of impure CaCO3 reacts with HCl to produce 410
42. The product of acid hydrolysis of P and Q can be ml of CO2 at 1 atmospheric pressure and 27°C.
distinguished by Calculate the percentage purity of the CaCO 3
used___________
is 50. In IF3 the bond angle of F-I-F is
(a) equal to 90° (b) less than 90°
(c) greater than 90° (d) None of these
is
MATHEMATICS (SECTION – C)
(a) Lucas reagent (b) 2, 4-DNP e1/ x
2
, x0
(c) Fehling’s solution (d) NaHSO3 51. If (x) = , then f(x) is
0
, x0
43. The strongest base among the following is
(a) Differentiable at x = 0
(a) (b) (b) Continuous but not differentiable at x = 0
(c) Discontinuous at x = 0
(d) None of these
(c) (d)
6 MOCK TEST 15
1 1
(a) 2 (b) , 2 (a) (b)
4 4 2 2
(c) 0 (d) 1
58. Given the family of lines, a(3x + 4y + 6) + b(x + y +
(c) , 2 (d) 2 ,
4 4 2) = 0. The line of the family situated at the greatest
distance from the point P(2, 3) has equation
53. The side of a triangle ABC are in A.P. (order being a,
(a) 4x + 3y + 8 = 0 (b) 5x + 3y + 10 = 0
2! 2! 1 8a (c) 15x + 8y + 30 = 0 (d) none
b, c) and satisfy, 1!9! 3!7! 5!5! 2b ! , then
59. The greatest distance of the point P(10, 7) from the
circle x2 + y2 – 4x – 2y – 20 = 0 is
the value of cosA + cosB is
(a) 5 (b) 15
12 13 (c) 10 (d) none of these
(a) (b)
7 7 60. If (t2, 2t) is one end of a focal chord of the parabola y2
= 4x then the length of the focal chord will be
11 10
(c) (d) 2
1
(a) t
7 7 1 2 1
(b) t t t2
t t
54. The combined equation of straight lines that can be
obtained by reflecting the lines y = |x – 2| in the
1 1
y-axis, is (c) t t 2 (d) none
t t2
(a) y2 + x2 + 4x + 4 = 0
(b) y2 + x2 – 4x + 4 = 0 61. The locus of z if z i z i 4 is
(c) y2 – x2 + 4x – 4 = 0
(a) line segment
(d) y2 – x2 – 4x – 4 = 0 (b) ellipse
55. Tangent drawn to x2 + y2 = 25 at the point P(3, 4) (c) hyperbola
meets the circle x2 + y2 = 81 at the points A and B. (d) null set
If the tangents drawn to x2 + y2 = 81 at the points A
and B intersect at C, then co-ordinates of ‘C’ is 62. The period of the function y f x if
f x f x 2 2·f x 1 is
243 81 243 81
(a) , (b) ,
25 25 25 5 (a) 2 (b) 4
(c) 8 (d) 12
243 81 63. The set of values of ‘a’ if the function
(c) , (d) None of these
5 25
y cot 1 x 2 2x a ; R 0, is an on-to
2
56. If a, b, c are three non-coplanar non-zero vectors and
function is
r is any vector in space, then (a) {1} (b) (1, )
(a b) (r c) (b c) (r a) (c a) (r b) (c) 1, (d) R
is equal to 64. The value of ‘a’ if the line 2x - 3y + a = 0 is a tangent
to the parabola x2 = 8y
(a) 2[a b c]r (b) 3[a b c]r
(a) 9 (b) 3
(c) [a b c]r (d) None of these 8 8
(c) (d)
3 9
MOCK TEST 15 7
65. The locus of point whose chord of contact subtends 71. If is an imaginary cube root of unity then the
a right angle at the centre of the circle x2 + y2 = a2 10
is value of cos
225 r r is
r 1
(a) x2 + y2 = 2a2 (b) x2 - y2 = a2
1
(c) x2 + y2 = 4a2 (d) xy = a2 (a) –1 (b)
2
66. If ax = by = cz = dt and a, b, c, d are in G.P., then x, y,
z, t are in 1
(c) (d) 1
(a) A.P. (b) G.P. 2
(c) H.P. (d) None of these 72. If A = 5° then the value of
2
sec A cosec A
1 is___________
67. The sum r2 1 1 4 sin A 4cos2 A 1
2
r 2
73. The sum of series
3 84
C4 6· 84C5 15· 84C6 20· 84 C7 15· 84 C8 6· 84C9 84
C10
(a) 1 (b)
4 is equal to
88
4 (a) 86
(b) C10
(c) (d) None of these C10
3 90
(c) (d) 90
C10 C12
68. The last two digits of the number 3400 are___________
69. Number of terms free from radical sign in the 44
expansion of (1 + 31/3 + 71/7)10 is___________ cosn
n 1
70. The locus of the centers of the circles which cut the 74. Let x 44
find the greatest integer that
circles x2 + y2 + 4x – 6y + 9 = 0 and x2 + y2 – 5x + 4y
– 2 = 0 orthogonally is
sinn
n 1
ANSWERS
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (2 mm) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (5R) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (b)
V
11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (7.7 F) 16. ( ) 17. (b) 18. (d) 19. (c) 20. (c)
4
21. (c) 22. (d) 23. (a) 24. (b) 25. (250 V) 26. (34%) 27. (a) 28. (a) 29. (c) 30. (a)
31. (c) 32. (c) 33. (a) 34. (b) 35. (b) 36. (203 Scm2mol–1) 37. (c) 38. (a) 39. (c)
40. (d) 41. (c) 42. (c) 43. (c) 44. (b) 45. (36X )87
46. (d) 47. (11.38) 48. (a) 49. (83.5)
50. (a) 51. (a) 52. (a) 53. (a) 54. (d) 55. (b) 56. (a) 57. (d) 58. (a) 59. (b)
60. (a) 61. (b) 62. (c) 63. (a) 64. (c) 65. (a) 66. (c) 67. (b) 68. (01) 69. (6)
70. (c) 71. (d) 72. (24) 73. (c) 74. (241) 75. (2056)
8 MOCK TEST 15
EXPLANATIONS
1. i neAv d yd
6. Path difference x
D
1 1
Drift speed, v d
d 5
neA A
Here, y (as d = 5 )
2 2
Therefore, for non-uniform cross-section (different
values of A) drift speed will be different at different and D = 10d = 50
sections. Only current (or rate of flow of charge) will
be same. so x 5
5
2 50 4
2. Power of concave lens should be less than that of
Corresponding phase difference will be
the convex lens to form a real image. So, net power
will decrease or focal length will increase. For real 2 2
x or
image v is positive, u is negative and f is positive. 4 2 2 4
From lens formula (substituting all values with sign),
I
1 1 1 I I0 cos2 I0 cos2 0
2 4 2
v u f
7. Let us say PO = OQ = X
u is constant, f is increasing. So v will also increase.
3. Applying 2 1 2 1
2 v u R
1
1= 1.0
Object
P
O Q
2 1 2 1
Applying, +ve
v u R
6 107
y 160
3
d 3 10 4 t /
D i i0 e t / c 6 e t / c 10e c
32
12
2 10 3 m 2 mm
V2 V2 1 240
2
9. P ; So, R z R2
R P
C 0.5
R1
V2
and R 2 R3
V2 C 7.7 F
100 60
V 4 0RV
16. Charge on smaller sphere q C
(250)2 2 2
Now, W1 .R1
(R1 R 2 )2
q 1 1 VR 1 V
2 2
Potential difference = 4 R 2R 2 2R 4
(250) 0
W2 .R2 and W3 (250)
(R1 R2 )2 R3
energy
17. mT b or b4 m T and
4 4 T 4
W 1 : W 2 : W 3 = 15 : 25 : 64 or W 1 < W 2 < W 3 area time
10. Since, potential V is same for all points of the sphere. energy
energy 4
Therefore, we can calculate its value at the centre of or ; b 4
(area time)T 4 area time m
the sphere.
[ML2 T 2 ]
V
1 q
. V
4
or [b ] [L4 ] [ML4 T 3 ]
40 r [L2 ][T]
11. F = mg - B
F mg 1
NA NB
NA
1 (4mg) Tmax
;
23 26 NB 8
3 2cos 0
or 4mg mg(3 2cos 0 ) or
P 60 4
15. i 0.5A
V 120
19. | (m1v1 m2v 2 ) (m1v1 m2v 2 ) |
V 2
120 120
Rbulb 240 = |change in momentum of the two particle|
P 60
= |External force on the system| × time interval
Now, i V = (m1 + m2)g(2t0) = 2(m1 + m2)gt0
z
10 MOCK TEST 15
20. After collision balls exchange their velocities E
25. Current I
Z
where E VR2 VL – VC 2
Z R2 XL – XC
2
At resonance, XL = XC
Z =R
Again at resonance, VL = VC
E = VR
VR 100
i.e., v A 2gh and vB 2g(4h) 2 2gh I 0.1 A
R 1 103
v2 I 0.1
Height attained by A will be hA 2gA h VL I L
C (2 10 –6 ) (200)
But path of B will be first straight line and then VL = 250 volt
parabolic as shown in figure.
H+ + HCO2
26. HCO2H
ˆi ˆj kˆ
1 2 3 ˆi 2 1 3 1 ˆj 1 1 3 1 kˆ 1 1 2 1 28. NH2
NaNO2
HCl, 273 K C6H5N2Cl
1 1 1
p wire = 2mv
31. For 1 mole of the gas
·d 2 d
t
v 2v 1
PV = 3 Mu2
p 4mv 2
Average force = 3PV
3RT
t d or Ur.m.s. =
M M
MOCK TEST 15 11
46. H2S2O8
is aromatic and polar with definite 47. 11.38
V
% of Nitrogen = 22400 MN2 W
N2 100
dipole moment.
22.4 100
28 11.38
22400 0.246
+ PV 1 0.410
49. nCO2 0.0167mol
RT 0.082 300
–
0.0167 mol of CO2 1.67 g mol of CaCO3
The seven membered ring with positive charge and 1067
% of purity = 100 = 83.5 %
three alternate double bonds is aromatic. Similarly, 2
the five membered ring with negative charge and 50. F
alternate double bonds is aromatic. The molecule is
polar. I F
0 F
36. 200 m 10 0.40
2 2
e1/ h 0 e1/ h 1
1
0
m 204 10 0.1 203 Scm2m1 as h 0, − ends to at a much faster rate as
h2
37. NO is present as positive ligand
1
lnh
compared to –lnh Lime h2 =0
h0
38. NH4NO3 N2O 2H2O
Thus, f(x) is differentiable at x = 0
39. Dye-azo test
12 MOCK TEST 15
52. We must have, –1 x2 – 4x + 5 1
56. (a b) (r c) (b c) (r a) (c a) (r b)
If x2 – 4x + 5 1, then x2 – 4x + 4 0 (x – 2)2 0 P W V
x=2
P (r c) W (r a) (c a) V
If x2 + 4x + 5 –1, then x2 – 4x + 6 0 x R.
Thus x = 2 is the only solution. (P.c)r – (P.r )c (W.a)r – (W.r )a (c.V)a – (a.V)c
[a b c]r [a b r ]c [b c a]r [b c r ]a [c r b]a [a r b]c
4 2a 0, a 2
2 4
2[a b c]r
2! 2
53. 1!9! + 3!7! + 5!5!
10!
10 C1 10! 10 C3 10! 10 C5
1 2 2 1
57. cos0 cos cos 2 cos 3 cos 4 cos 5 cos 6
7 7 7 7 7 7
2 3 3 2
1
10!
10
C1 10C9 10C3 10C7 10C5 1 cos
7
cos
7
cos
7
cos
7
cos
7
9 a cos
1 10 1 2 8 given . 7
10!
2
10! 2b !
2 3 3 3 2
1 cos cos cos cos cos cos
3a = 9, 2b = 10 a = 3, b = 5 7 7 7 7 7 7 7
=1
Also a, b, c are in A.P.
58. P(2, 3)
c = 7.
b 2 c 2 a2 25 49 9 13 A
cos A
2bc 2.5.7 14
a 2 c 2 b 2 9 49 25 11
cosB
2ac 2.3.7 14
PM is maximum if required line intersection of
13 11 24 12
cosA + cosB = 3x + 4y + 6 = 0
14 14 7
(–2, 0)
54. If we reflect y = |x – 2| in y-axis, it will become
x+y+2=0
y = |–x –2| = |x + 2|
30 3
mAP
Hence, reflected lines are y = x + 2, y = –x – 2 22 4
Their combined equation is (y – x – 2)(y + x + 2) = 0 Slope m –
4
3
y2 – x2 – 4x – 4 = 0
4
55. Equation of tangent at ‘P’ is y 0 – (x 2) 4x 3y 8 0
3
3x + 4y = 25 ....(i) 59. x2 + y2 – 4x – 2y – 20 = O, P(10, 7)
Let C be (h, k) then AB is chord of contact of ‘C’. S1 = 100 + 49 – 40 – 14 – 20 > 0
P lies outside
C(h, k)
O(2, 1), r 4 1 20 r=5
A
greatest distance = PA = PO + OA
P 82 62 5 10 5 15
60. y2 = 4x a=1
B
P(t2, 2t) t1t2 = –1 For focal chord
1
2 2
x + y = 81 t2 –
x2 + y2 = 25 t
1 2
This equation of AB is, Q 2 ,
t t
hx + ky = 81 ...(ii)
2 2
1 2
(i) and (ii) are equations of same line PQ t 2 2 2t
t t
h k 81 243 81 2 2
h , k 1 1 1
3 5 25 25 5 t t 4 t
t t t
MOCK TEST 15 13
61. If PA + PB = k, where k > AB, then locus of Z is 68. 3400 = (32)200 = (9)200 = (10 – 1)200
ellipse = 200C010200 + 200C110199 + 200C210198 + ……
62. f x f x 2 2·f x 1 200
C199101 + 200C200100 – [200C010198 + 200C110197
Substituting xx2 + 200C210196 + 200C198] + 200C199101 + 200C200100
f x 2 f x 4 2f x 3 = (k)100 + 200(10) + 1(1) = (k + 20)100 + 01
Adding So last two digits is 01.
f x 2f x 2 f x 4 2 f x 1 f x 3 69.
3
7 1
2· 2f x 2 0 0 10
3 0 7
f x f x 4 0
6 0 4
f x 4 f x 8 0 9 0 1
3 7 0
f x f x 8
0 7 3
63. For function to be onto range = co-domain
no. of terms are 6
x
2 2
cot 1 2
2x a should take all values from 0, 2 70. Let centre (h, k) & circle; x + y + 2gx + 2fy + c = 0
h = –g, k = – f; For S : g = 2, f = – 3, c = 9,
x 2 2x a should take all values from 0, 1 1 1 1
5
D 0 4 4a 0 a 1 For S : g = 2 , f = 2, c = – 2; 2.g.2 + 2.f(–3)
2 2 2 2
64. Equation of tangent to x 2 4ay will be in the form =c+9
4g – 6f = c + 9 … (1)
y mx am2
–5g + 4f = c – 2 … (2)
3
a 2 8 Subtract (2) from (1), – 9g + 10f = 11
2 a
3 3 3
9x – 10y + 11 = 0
65. Let P(h, k) be a point in the locus
Equation of chord of constant is hx + ky = a2. 71. r r r r r r 1
2 2
Pair of lines passing through origin & points of cotact 10 10
hx ky
2
(r )(r ) (r 2
r 1) 450
is x y a
2 2
2
2
r 1 r 1
a
10
As angle between pair of lines is 90° cos (r )(r ) cos 2 1
225 r 1
h2 k 2 2
2 a2 4 2
a 1
1 1 1
72.
Locus is x2 + y2 = 2a2 cos A 4 cos2 A 3 sin A 3 4 sin2 A cos3A sin3A
x y z t
66. a = b = c = d = k(let) 2 2 2 2
A 5 24
x log a = log k, y log b = log k 3 1 3 1
z log c = log k, t log d = log k
73. 1 x 84 184C1 x 84C3 x2 84C3 x3 84C4 x4 84C5x5 84C6 x6 ....
a, b, c, d in G.P.
log a, log b, log c, log d in A.P.. x 1
4
x 6 6x 5 15x 4 20x 3 15x 2 6x 1
logk logk logk logk
, , , in A.P.. 84
x y z t C 4 6· 84 C 5 15· 84 C 6 20· 84 C 7 15· 84 C8 6· 84 C9 84 C10 x10
1 1 1 1
, , , in A.P. x, y, z, t in H.P.. in 1 x x 1 90C10
84 6
x y z t
1
1 1
1 1 sin 22
67. r 2 2 r 1r 1 2 r 1 r 1 sin 1 2
·cos 22.5
1 2 1 2 1 2 cos1 cos 2 ... cos 44
74. x
sin1 sin 2 ... sin 44 sin 22
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 ·sin 22.5
1 sin 1 2
2 3 2 4 3 5 n 1 n 1
1
n 0 cot 2 1 2.414
n +1 8
1 1 3
1
2 2 4
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×
×
× × ×
× ×
× ×
° °
°
°
NEt
Asn Ser (CH3CO)2 O
3
P
(excess)
×
×
26.
31.
H
32. S
T
T=
( dx) x2
2
30.
At cathode:
At anode:
2C + 3O2 3CO2()
O CH2 OH
49. NH 2 – C C NH CH CO2 H 60.
CH2
CONH2
NEt
Asn Ser (CH3 CO)2 O
3
P
excess
P is
50.
SOLVED PAPER
(APRIL 2019)
5. An alternating voltage (t) = 220 sin100 t volt is
applied to a purely resistive load of 50. The time
1. Four identical particles of mass M are located at taken for the current to rise from half of the peak
the corners of a square of side ‘a’. What should value to the peak value is:
be their speed if each of them revolves under the
(a) 7.2 ms (b) 5 ms
influence of others’ gravitational field in a circular
orbit circumscribing the square? (c) 2.2 ms (d) 3.3 ms
6. A boy’s catapult is made of rubber cord which is
42 cm long, with 6 mm diameter of cross-section
and of negligible mass. The boy keeps a stone
weighing 0.02 kg on it and stretches the cord by
20 cm by applying a constant force. When
released, the stone flies off with a velocity of
GM GM 20 ms–1. Neglect the change in the area of cross-
(a) 1.21 (b) 1.41
a a section of the cord while stretched. The Young's
GM GM modulus of rubber is closest to:
(c) 1.16 (d) 1.35 (a) 106 Nm–2 (b) 103 Nm –2
a a
2. Two particles move at right angle to each other. (c) 108 Nm–2 (d) 104 Nm –2
Their de Broglie wavelengths are 1 and 2 7. The reverse breakdown voltage of a Zener diode
respectively. The particles suffer perfectly is 5.6 V in the given circuit.
inelastic collision. The de Broglie wavelength ,
of the final particle, is given by:
(a) (b)
2
(c) (c)
The current Iz through the Zener is:
(a) 7mA (b) 15mA
3. In SI units, the dimensions of µ0 (c) 10mA (d) 17mA
3
(a) 2 (b) A–1T ML3 8. Two identical beakers A and B contain equal
(c) AT2 M–1L–1 (d) A2T3M–1L–2 volumes of two different liquids at 60°C each and
left to cool down. Liquid in A has density of
4. A particle moves in one dimension from rest under
the influence of a force that varies with the 8 × 102 kg/m3 and specific heat of 2000J kg–1 K–1
distance travelled by the particle as shown in the while liquid in B has density of 103 kg m–3 and
figure. The kinetic energy of the particle after it specific heat of 4000J kg –1 K –1. Which of the
has travelled 3 m is: following best describes their temperature versus
time graph schematically? (Assume the emissivity
of both the beakers to be the same)
(a)
(c) S (d) S
31. For the reaction 2A + B C, the values of
initial rate at different reactant concentrations 34. Maltose on treatment with dilute HCl gives:
are given in the table below. The rate law for the (a) D-Glucose and D-Fructose
reaction is:
(b) D-Glucose
Initial Rate (c) D-Fructose
(d) D-Galactose
0.05 0.05 0.045 35. The IUPAC name of the following compound is:
0.10 0.05 0.090 CH3 OH
0.20 0.10 0.72 | |
I. n = 4 I = 2 m1 = –2 ms
II. n = 3 I = 2 m 1 = 1 ms
(a)
III. n = 4 I = 1 m1 = 0 ms
IV. n = 3 I = 1 m1 = 1 ms
(a) V2+ > Cr2+ > Ru3+ > Fe2+ (a) Assertion and reason are incorrect
(b) V2+ > Ru3+ > Cr2+ > Fe2+ (b) Assertion is false, but the reason is correct
(c) Cr2+ > V2+ > Ru3+ > Fe2+ (c) Assertion the reason is the correct explanation
for the assertion
(d) Cr2+ > Ru3+ > Fe2+ > V2+
(d) Assertion and reason are correct, but the
42. Coupling of benzene diazonium chloride with
reason is not the explanation for the assertion
1-naphthol in alkaline medium will give:
46. Adsorption of a gas follows Freundlich adsorption
isotherm. x is the mass of the gas adsorbed on
x
mass m of the adsorbent. The plot of log
m
(a) x
versus log p is shown in the given graph. is
m
proportional to :
3
(b)
(a) P 2 (b) P3
2
(c) P 2 (d) P 3
47. With respect to an ore, Ellingham diagram helps 53. The vapour pressures of pure liquids A and B are
to predict the feasibility of its 400 and 600 mmHg, respectively at 298 K. On
(a) Thermal reduction (b) Electrolysis mixing the two liquids, the sum of their initial
volumes is equal to the volume of the final
(c) Zone refining (d) Vapour phase refining
mixture. The mole fraction of liquid B is 0.5 in
48. The major product of the following reaction is: the mixture. The vapour pressure of the final
solution, the mole fractions of components A and
B in vapour phase, respectively are:
(a) 500 mmHg, 0.4, 0.6
(b) 450 mmHg, 0.4, 0.6
(c) 500 mmHg, 0.5, 0.5
(d) 450 mmHg, 0.5, 0.5
54. The major product of the following reaction is:
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
(a) (b)
49. In order to oxidise a mixture of one mole of each
of FeC2O4, Fe2(C2O4) 3, FeSO4 and Fe2(SO4)3 in
acidic medium, the number of moles of KMnO 4
required is:
(c) (d)
(a) 1.5 (b) 3
(c) 2 (d) 1
55. Element ‘B’ forms ccp structure and ‘A’ occupies
50. The following ligand is
half of the octahedral voids, while oxygen atoms
occupy all the tetrahedral voids. The structure of
bimetallic oxide is:
(a) AB2O4
(b) A2B2O
(c) A2BO4
(d) A4B2O
(a) tetradentate (b) bidentate
56. An organic compound neither reacts with
(c) hexadentate (d) teidentate neutral ferric chloride solution nor with Fehling
51. Which is wrong with respect to our responsibility solution. It however, reacts with Grignard reagent
as a human being to protect our environment ? and gives positive iodoform test. The compound
(a) Avoiding the use of floodlighted facilities is :
(b) Setting up compost tin in gardens
(c) Restricting the use of vehicles
(d) Using plastic bags (a) (b)
52. In the following compounds, the decreasing order
of basic strength will be:
(a) (C2H5) 2 NH > NH3 > C 2H5 NH2
(b) (C2H5) 2 NH > C2H5NH2 > NH3
(c) C2H5NH2 > NH3 > (C2H5)2 NH (c) (d)
(d) NH3 > C2H5 NH2 > (C2 H5) 2 NH
57. An organic compound ‘X’ showing the following 64. The sum of the series 2. 20C0 + 5. 20C1 + 8. 20C2 +
solubility profile is: ....... + 62. 20C20 is equal to
(a) 223 (b) 224
(c) 226 (d) 225
65. Let A and B be two non-null events such that
. Then, which of the following statements
(a)
(a) x (b)
(b) tan 3
(c) 2x (d)
6
(c) sin
89. If the tangents on the ellipse 4x 2 + y2 = 8 at the
points (1, 2) and (a, b) are perpendicular to each
(d) cos other, then a2 is equal to:
64 2
86. Let f:[0, 2] R be a twice differentiable (a) (b)
17 17
function such that f (x) > 0, for all x (0, 2).
4 128
If (x) = f(x) + f(2 – x), then is: (c) (d)
17 17
(a) Increasing on (0, 1) and decreasing on (1, 2)
5x
(b) Decreasing on (0, 1) and increasing on (1, 2)
90. dx is equal to:
(c) Decreasing on (0, 2)
(d) Increasing on (0, 2) 2
87. The sum of the solutions of the equation (Where c is a constant of integration)
(a) x + 2 sinx + 2 sin2x + c
is equal to:
(b) 2x + sinx + sin2x + c
(a) 10 (b) 4 (c) 2x + sinx + 2 sin2x + c
(c) 12 (d) 9 (d) x + 2 sinx + sin2x + c
1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (a)
11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (a) 16. (d) 17. (d) 18. (b) 19. (c) 20. (c)
21. (a) 22. (d) 23. (Bonus)24. (d) 25. (d) 26. (b) 27. (b) 28. (c) 29. (a) 30. (c)
31. (d) 32. (a) 33. (a) 34. (b) 35. (a) 36. (c) 37. (a) 38. (c) 39. (d) 40. (b)
41. (a) 42. (a) 43. (a) 44. (b) 45. (d) 46. (d) 47. (a) 48. (d) 49. (c) 50. (a)
51. (d) 52. (b) 53. (a) 54. (d) 55. (a) 56. (d) 57. (a) 58. (a) 59. (d) 60. (b)
61. (a) 62. (d) 63. (b) 64. (d) 65. (d) 66. (d) 67. (d) 68. (c) 69. (d) 70. (a)
71. (d) 72. (b) 73. (a) 74. (a) 75. (a) 76. (c) 77. (b) 78. (b) 79. (b) 80. (c)
81. (b) 82. (d) 83. (c) 84. (a) 85. (c) 86. (b) 87. (d) 88. (a) 89. (b) 90. (d)
5.6
7. Current through 800 is
800
1. 3.4
a 2a Current through 200 is
200
Then current Iz is 10 mA.
8. We know,
GM
a 9.
C
2.
Along z-direction
µ0
10.
Hence, p : q is 1 : 2
For He+,
Hence, Dimension of µ 0 is
A2T3 M–1 L–2.
4.
5. T
13.
6. We know, d
20.
dt
20
t = T ln 2 = 2 ln 2
21. a cm
m
Time period T is
k
10
t
No. of oscillations is and t is given by t
T
16. 22.
tan
2 x
19.
d
x
No. of collisions
x
25. New resistance becomes 500.
2
26.
27. Velocity of A w.r.t B is CH3 OH
| |
km/hr
35.
3-hydroxy-4-methylpentanoic acid
36. By aufbau rule.
IV < II< III< I
V
(3p)(3d) (4p) (4d)
I max
28. 37. Diborane burns in O2 forming B2O3.
r = 62KJmol–1.
41. V2+ has d 3 configuration of which all the 3 are
a=1 unpaired electrons,
r Cr2+ has d4 configuration. On low spin the 4
electrons are arranged as one pair and 2 unpaired
electrons,
b=2
Ru 3+ has d 5 configuration. In low spin the 5
Therefore, r = K[A] [B]2. electrons are arranged as 2 pairs and 1 electron
remain unpaired.
Fe2+ has d6 configuration. In low spin complex all
32. the six electrons are paired so no unpaired
electrons.
Hence, the corect order is given by first option.
42.
33.
Let “s” be the solubility, then
Ksp = 6912 × s7
1
57.
47. Ellingham diagrams can be used for the thermal
reduction of ores.
63.
YB = 1 – YA = 1 – 0.4 = 0.6
65.
72. f’(x) = 36x3 + 36x2 – 72x
66. Magnitude of projection of vector is given by
= 36x (x2 + x – 2)
= 36x (x – 1) (x + 2)
S1 = {–2, 1}, S2 = {0}
73. Let the remaining two observations are a,b
67. Given numbers are 101, 102, 103, …..199
Required value = sum of numbers divisible by – 64
7 + sum of numbers divisible by 13-sum of numbers
divisible by 91
75.
76. If you are not a citizen of India then you are not
born in India
& y (0) 0 c = 0
77. 2
78. (x – 1)2 = –1 = i2 x = 1 ± i
70.
79. Equation of the line is
Equation of plane is
tan(2) = tan( + + – )
1 sin 2 x
80. lim
71. 2
A3
86. f” (x) > 0 f’(x) is increasing in [0,2].
81.
(2, –1, 4)
For
Direction ratio’s
For
87. Here,
50
perpendicular distance = 3, 4
4
82. Given : O(0, 0) and A(0, 1) are two fixed points.
OP + AP + PA = 4 OP + AP = 3, locus of P is an
ellipse and equation to the locus is
88.
2
x
5x
1
84. 90. dx
2
85.
dx
= x + sin2 x + 2 sin x + c