______________________ ________________________

Roll No. of Candidate Signature of Candidate

ECAT ENTRANCE TEST - 2
Total MCQs: 100
Max. Marks: 400 Time Allowed: 100 Minutes

PHYSICS

1. An object having spherical shape of radius ‘r’ experiences a retarding force ‘F’ from a fluid of
coefficient of viscosity ‘’ when moving through the fluid with speed ‘v’. What is the ratio of
retarding force to speed?
6 6
(a) 62 (b) 2
(c) 6r (d)
r r
2. A monochromatic light of wavelength ‘’ is used to produce diffraction pattern through a
single slit of width ‘x’. Which one of the following graphs represents the intensity distribution
across the screen?

3. The spectrum of a star’s light is measured and the wavelength of one of the lines identified as
the sodium  line is found to be 589 nm. The same line has a wavelength of 497 nm when
observed in a laboratory. This means the star is
(a) Moving away from the earth (b) Stationary
(c) Moving towards the earth (d) Revolving around the planet
4. What is the period of mass spring system during SHM if ratio of mass to spring constant is
1/4?
1 1
(a)  (b) (c) 2 (d)
 2
5. Waveform of SHM is given in figure. At what time/times displacement is equal to zero?

T T T 3T
(a) only (b) 0, , , and T
4 4 2 4
3T T
(c) only (d) 0, and T
4 2

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6. A simple pendulum having length ‘l’ with bob of mass ‘m’ is slightly displaced from its mean
position so that its string makes an angle ‘’ with vertical lines as shown in figure. Then bob
of pendulum is released. What will be the expression of torque with which the bob starts to
move towards the means position?

(a) mgl sin  (b) mgl cos  (c) mgl (d) mgl tan 
7. Three resistors of resistance R1, R2 and R3 are connected as shown in figure

A B

Equivalent resistance between A and B is

R1 R2  R1 R3  R2 R3
(a) R1  R2  R3 (b)
R2  R3
R1  R2 R1 R2 R3
(c) R1  (d)
R1 R2 R1  R2
8. If the number of turns in a solenoid coil is doubled but the current in the coil and
crosscetional area of coil remain unchanged
(a) The magnetic flux density is halved
(b) The magnetic flux density increases by different amounts at different point
(c) The magnetic flux density remains unchanged
(d) The magnetic flux density is doubled
9. The diagram shows a wire, carrying a current “I”, placed between the poles of magnet

In which direction does the force on the wire act?

(a) Outwar (b) Towards the ‘N’ pole of the magnet
(c) Inward (d) Towards the ‘S’ pole of magnet
10. The ratio of the rate of decay of parent atom to the number of radioactive nuclei present at
that time is equal to the
(a) Half life of radioactive element (b) Decay constant of radioactive element
(c) mean life (d) Activity of radioactive element
11. In which case, more work is done?

(a) in first case (b) in 2nd case

(c) some work is done in both case (d) none
   
12. What is the angle between c  d and c + d ?
(a) 0 (b) 45 (c) 60 (d) 90
13. For 1.406 no. of significant digits:
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1
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14. A projectile is thrown at an angle of 45 with the vertical. If K be the kinetic energy with
which the projectile was thrown, then the kinetic energy at the top of the trajectory is:
K K
(a) 2 K (b) 4 K (c) 2 (d) 4
15. Two thin lenses of focal lengths 20 cm and 25 cm are placed in contact. The effective power of
the combination is:
1
(a) 45 D (b) 9 D (c) 9 D (d) 6 D
16. The Young’s Modulus of a copper wire of radius ‘r’ in Y. The Young’s Modulus of copper wire
of radius 2r will be:
Y Y
(a) Y (b) 4 (c) 4Y (d) 2
17. In a photoelectric emission experiment using light of a certain frequency, the maximum
kinetic energy Ek of the emitted photoelectrons is measured. Which graph represents the way
in which Ek depends on the intensity I of the light?
(a) E k (b) (c) (d)

0
0 I
18. Three resistances each having value ‘R’ are connected as shown in figure. What is the
equivalent resistance between ‘X’ and ‘Y’?

(a) 3R (b) R/3

(c) R (d) R3
19. A man in an elevator ascending with decreasing acceleration will conclude that his weight has
(a) Decreased (b) Increased (c) Reduced to zero (d) Remain constant
20. The minimum wavelength of X-ray produced if 10 KV potential differences is applied across
the anode and cathode of the tube
(a) 0.124 x 10-10 m (b) 1.24 x 10-10 m (c) 12.4 x 10-10 m (d) none of these
21. The zirconium nucleus 100
40 Zr is   particle emitter. The product nucleus is also a   particle
emitter. What is the final resulting nucleus of these two decays?
100
(a) 98
40 Zr (b) 102
40 Zr (c) 42 Mo (d) 100
38 Sr
22. Two forces acts together on a body, the magnitude of their resultant is greatest when the
angle between the forces is:
(a) 45o (b) 60o (c) 0o (d) 180o
23. A force F is applied to a beam at a distance d F

from a pivot. The force acts at an angle  to a pivot
line perpendicular to the beam.
Which combination will cause the largest d

turning effect about the pivot?

Force distance θ
(a) large large large
(b) small small small
(c) large large small
(d) small small large

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24. The graph shows how the force acting on a body varies with time. Assuming that the body is
moving in straight line, by how much does its momentum change?
(a) 40 kg ms1 (b) 36 kg ms1
(c) 20 kg ms1 (d) 16 kg ms1

Force/N
4

2 4 6
Time/s
25. A tuning fork when sounded together with a tuning fork of frequency 256 Hz emits two beats
per second. On loading the tuning fork of frequency 256 Hz, the number of beats heard is 1
per second. The frequency of first tuning fork is:
(a) 257 Hz (b) 258 Hz (c) 256 Hz (d) 254 Hz
26. The work done in figure is:

5
10

3 3
1m 2m
v
(a) 3  105 J (b) 2  105 J (c) 105 J (d) Zero
27. Flux coming out from a unit positive charge placed in air is:
1
(a) o (b)  (c) (4o)1 (d) 4o
o
28. A cooper ring is suspended by a thread in a vertical plane. The north pole of a magnet is
brought near the ring in horizontal direction as shown in figure. What will be effect on the
ring?
(a) Attracted towards the magnet (b) Will be repelled away
(c) Will make SHM (d) No change of position

S N

29. A D.C. motor has an internal resistance 4 ohm. It is operated at 220 V and draws 5 A current.
The back emf produced is:
(a) 80 V (b) 160 V (c) 200 V (d) 120 V
30. The stress versus strain graphs for wires of two materials A and B are shown in the figures. If
YA and YB are the Young’s Modulus of the material, then: A
(a) YB = 2YA (b) YA = YB
B
(c) YB = 3YA (d) YA = 3YB
Stress

60O
CHEMISTRY FLT-2 30O
31. 8g of SO3 occupies volume of __________at STP. Strain
(a) 22.4dm3 (b) 2.24dm3 (c) 1.12 dm3 (d) 11.2 dm3
32. Which of the following sequence is correct for enthalpies of phase changes?
(a) Hs>Hv>Hf (b) Hv>Hs>Hf
(c) Hf>Hs>Hv (d) all have same enthalpies
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33. Which pair shows Debye forces
(a) Ne and He (b) Na+ and water
(c) HCl and Ar (d) water and alcohol
34. For the principal quantum number n=3, which is incorrect:
(a) 3 subshells (b) 9 orbitals (c) 18 electrons (d) none of these

35. The shape of NH 2 is
(a) linear (b) angular (c) pyramidal (d) tetrahedral
36. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers represents the highest energy of an atom?
(a) n = 3, l = 2, m = l, s=+1/2 (b) n = 3, l = 0, m = 0, s=+1/2
(c) n=4, l=0, m=0, s= +1/2 (d) n=3, l=1, m=1, s=+1/2
37. A mixture contains 7g N2 and 8g of O2, the mole fraction of O2 is:
(a) 1 (b) 0.1 (c) 0.5 (d) 0.2
38. By the electrolysis of CuCl2(aq) using inert electrodes of platinum which species is deposited at
cathode?
(a) H2 (b) Cu (c) O2 (d) Cl2
39. For a reversible reaction the value of Kc is 4, if the concentration of products is reduced to half,
then the value of Kc for that reaction at constant temperature will be:
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 1.5 (d) 4
40. Which of the following solutions has highest pH value?
(a) 0.10 M H2SO4 (b) 0.01 M NaOH
(c) 0.02 M CH3COONa (d) 0.01 M NaHCO3
1.5
41. Which order of reaction obeys the expression t ½ =
ka 2
(a) First order (b) Second order
(c) Third order (d) Zero order
42. Which property of the first six elements of period 3 (sodium to sulphur) continuously
increases numerically?
(a) Atomic radius (b) maximum oxidation number in oxide
(c) first ionization energy (d) melting point
43. Which of the following elements imparts crimson colour to the flame?
(a) Na (b) K (c) Ca (d) Sr

44. Which one of the following has the highest pKa

(a) HClO (b) HClO2 (c) HClO3 (d) HClO4

45. Which one of the following reactions is not useful for the preparation of respective hydride of
halogen?
(a) H2 + Cl2  (b) H2 + Br2  (c) NaBr + H2SO4 (d) NaCl + H2SO4
46. Which graph correctly describes a trend of Bond energy of halogen group

(a) (b) (c) (d)

47. Nitric acid react with V group elements (P,As,Sb) to give their:
(a) oxyacids (b) oxides (c) hydroxides (d) nitrates
48. Reaction of 1,2-Dichloroethane with alc. KOH gives………..
(a) ethane (b) ethene (c) ethyne (d) glycol
49. Which of the following elements has highest paramegnetism in its atomic state?
(a) Cr (b) Mn (c) Fe (d) Cu
50. What is the electronic configuration of iron cation in the complex [Fe(CN)6]4-?
(a) [Ar]3d34s2 (b) [Ar]3d64s0 (c) [Ar]3d44s2 (d) [Ar]3d54s0

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51. In which of the following reactions addition does not take place according to Markownikoff’s
rule?
(a) CH3CH= CH2+HCl  (b) CH3CH = CH2+HBr 
(c) CH3 CH2CH = CH2+ Hl  (d) CH3CH =CHCH3+HBr 
52. Which of the following compound reacts with sodium to yield hydrogen gas
(a) CH3-CH3 (b) CH3-CH=CH2 (c) CHCH (d) CH3-CC-CH3
53. Iodoform reactions are undergone by:
(a) alcohols (b) aldehydes
(c) methyl ketones (d) secondary alcohols
54. Carboxylic acids in exist as dimers:
I. liquid ammonia II. Water III. Benzene IV. gas form
(a) I & II only (b) III & IV only (c) I,III & IV only (d) I, II, III & IV
55. Which of the following is pyrimidine base?
(a) Adenine (b) Uracil (c) Guanine (d) None of these
56. The thickness of ozone layer is:
(a) 25—50km (b) 3km only (c) 25—28km (d) 1km only
57. During esterificaiton of carboxylic acid with alcohol, which bond of carboxylic acid undergoes
cleavage?
(a) C – C (b) C – O (c) C = C (d) O - H
58. Acetone when reacts with strong oxidizing agent like acidified potassium dichromate
produces
(a) CH3OH (b) CH3COOH
(c) CH3-CH2-OH (d) Reaction is not possible
59. Addition of HBr to iso-butylene mainly gives
(a) iso-butyl bromide (b) Tert-butyl bromide
(c) n-butyl bromide (d) Sec-butyl bromide
60. Which of the following compounds will be most easily attacked by an electrophile?

Computer – ECAT/FUNGAT
(Full Length Test-2)
31. Pixel is short for:
(a) Picture dots (b) Picture element (c) Picture center (d) None
32. The errors are detected and removed from the software in phase:
(a) Design (b) implementation (c) Coding (d) Testing
33. The idea of the stored program is given by:
(a) Charles Babbage (b) John Leibniz
(c) Johan Von Neumann (d) Pascal
34. The components of the computer that stores data and program while these are being
executed is called
(a) Main memory (b) Control unit (c) Bus interconnection (d) ALU
35. Which of the following is non-volatile memory?
(a) RAM (b) DRAM (c) ROM (d) SRAM
36. A BUS that communicates data between CPU and memory is called
(a) Data bus (b) Address bus (c) Control bus (d) Host bus
37. Which of the following register acts as counter for looping process?
(a) AX (b) BX (c) CX (d) DX
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38. The output of the compiler is called
(a) Instructions code (b) Source code (c) Object code (d) None
39. In which communication type the time is not fixed between two characters?
(a) Asynchronous (b) Synchronous (c) Parallel (d) Full duplex
40. The electromagnetic or light waves representing data are called
(a) Presentation of data (b) Information
(c) Signal (d) Refraction
41. An asynchronous line that is idle is identified with a value
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 101 (d) 100
42. Which of the following communication medium requires “line-of-sight”?
(a) Microwave (b) Fiber-optic-cable (c) Twisted pair (d) Coaxial cable
43. Which type of modem does not require any cable as transmission channel to transmit signal?
(a) External modem (b) Wireless modem (c) Internal modem (d) None
44. In which network model data can be managed easily?
(a) P2P (b) Client server (c) Hybrid (d) All
45. In which communication type data is not saved before it transmitting?
(a) Asynchronous (b) Synchronous (c) Parallel (d) None
46. The larger computer to which the terminal or PC is attached is called
(a) Web server (b) Main frame computer
(c) Host computer (d) None
47. Which one represents the shape of network?
(a) Protocol (b) Topology (c) Technology (d) Hub
48. Which device is used to connect a compute in LAN?
(a) Ethernet card (b) Video card (c) Sound card (d) Modem
49. Which of the following is most commonly used protocol in LAN?
(a) TCP/IP (b) ARCnet (c) Token ring (d) Ethernet
50. Which of the following layers of OSI model provides network services to user applications?
(a) Presentation (b) Network (c) Session (d) Application
51. The organization of the data in relational tables is known as…..
(a) Physical view (b) Logical view (c) Tree view (d) View
52. Which is used to access the contents of the fields?
(a) Location (b) Name (c) Primary key (d) ALL
53. Which of the following data models have no physical connection between entities?
(a) Hierarchical model (b) Network model
(c) Relational (d) None
54. Which one is not the feature of the DBMS?
(a) DA (b) Dictionary (c) Report generator (d) Utilities
55. Backup files store data prior to its…..
(a) Arranging (b) Sorting (c) Classifying (d) Processing
56. Which one is used to view the meaning of database terminology?
(a) Report (b) Data dictionary (c) SQL (d) ALL
57. Which one is used to combine the object program with additional program?
(a) Loader (b) Linker (c) Compiler (d) None
58. Only ______ can be incremented in an expression
(a) Constant (b) Variable (c) Macro (d) ALL
59. Which symbol is used to convert the letter to upper case?
(a) < (b) > (c) >+ (d) <=
60. The name of an object represents
(a) File (b) Record (c) Field (d) Data base

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 ENGLISH
Reading Comprehension

The 32,000–word novella The Time Machine by H.G. Wells, published in 1895, is
generally credited with popularizing the idea of time travel by means of a time
machine, a vehicle which takes the occupant backward or forward in time. Dozens of
sequels and adaptations over the years have further promoted the notion. Indeed,
5 Albert Einstein’s Theory of Relativity lays the foundation for the possibility of time
travel. So far, no one has demonstrated the ability to travel in time. However, time
machines have been constructed, and they do allow glimpses into the past.

The most efficacious time machine currently in existence is the Hubble Telescope,
named after the American astronomer Edwin P. Hubble. Its capability to locate distant
10 astronomical targets and lock in on them, permitting their faint light to aggregate on
its detectors, allows it to peer far into the past. Light travels 186,000 miles per second.
The Hubble Telescope has looked back in time at 10,000 galaxies whose light left
them billions of years ago. Therefore, utilizing the telescope as time machine,
astronomers are able to contemplate galaxies as they were eons ago.

15 Although the telescope was launched into space in 1990, its inception was almost a
half-century earlier as astronomer Lyman Spitzer, Jr. mulled over the possibility of a
large space telescope in a 1946 report, “Astronomical Advantages of an Extra-
Terrestrial Observatory.” Because the earth is bathed in its constantly churning
atmosphere, earth–based telescopes cannot penetrate deep space; the atmosphere
20 distorts the view. Telescopes were constructed on mountains, but there was still no
way to wholly escape the effects of the layers of gases enveloping the earth.

During the 1960s, the Space Race between the then Soviet Union and the United
States was accelerating. The National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA)
was established. Funds for space endeavors were abundant, and plans for a large
25 space telescope, by then designated the LST, were underway. The designs called for a
2.4-meter primary telescope mirror which could be transported into space by one of
NASA’s rockets. According to National Geographic’s Imaging Space and Time, the
resolving power of the deep space telescope would be “equivalent to being able to
distinguish the left and right headlights of a car in California seen from New York, or
30 features less than 1/30,000th the size of the full moon. This was at least a tenfold
increase over the atmospheric limit.”

One of the primary challenges involved in successfully transporting the telescope into
space was protecting the mirror from the jarring vibrations that occur during launch.
It was crucial that the mirror be able to withstand the shuttle’s vicissitudes as well as
35 the volatile atmospheric conditions found in space. If not, the precise shape of the
mirror could be compromised, and its imaging capability significantly weakened.

After the telescope had been launched, astronomers subsequently realized that the
primary mirror had not been ground correctly. A lens in the test instrument was about
one millimeter askew, which is large by optical standards. In 1993, space-walking
40 astronauts installed corrective lenses which improved the eyesight of the Hubble. In
2009, the corrective lenses themselves were replaced with a supersensitive

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 spectrograph with built-in corrective lenses. The new spectrograph is expected to
provide insight into the origins of stars and galaxies. The successor to Hubble, the
James Webb Space Telescope, is expected to be launched in 2014. It will observe only
in infrared, so it will complement the Hubble Telescope, which observes in the visible
45 and ultraviolet light ranges.

Hubble currently has the capability to view galaxies that were formed 13.7 billion
years ago, long before humans existed, in an area called the Hubble Ultra Deep Field.
Astronomers aspire to see beyond the Hubble Ultra Deep Field to a time that is devoid
50 of galaxies, a time before galaxies had formed. If H.G. Wells was onto something in his
novella, that time may be close at hand. As one of the characters in the popular work
asked, “If Time is really only a fourth dimension of Space, why it is, and why has it
always been, regarded as something different? And why cannot we move in Time as
we move about in the other dimensions of Space?”

55 Less than a decade after Wells’ novella, Einstein’s Theory of Relativity seemed to
concur with Wells’ character by proposing that traveling through space at the speed
of light would alter time by causing it to dilate, raising the possibility of not merely
glimpsing the past, but perhaps traveling to it.

61. According to the passage, which of the following statements is/are true of the Hubble
Telescope?
I) It is unable to observe light on the infrared part of the spectrum.
II) It will be replaced by the James Webb Space Telescope in 2014.
III) It was initially constructed in 1946, but not launched until 1990.
(a) I only (b) II and III only (c) III only (d) I and II only

62. According to the passage, who had the idea for the Hubble Telescope?
(a) H.G. Wells (b) Albert Einstein (c) Lyman Spitzer, Jr. (d) Edwin P. Hubble

63. In line 33, “vicissitudes” most closely means

(a) long delays which may compromise the shuttle launch
(b) toxic emissions which may cause corrosion around the mirror
(c) sound waves which may penetrate the mirror
(d) shaking and quivering which may cause changes in the mirror

64. In the context of the passage, which of the following best articulates the author’s opinion of
the inception of the Hubble?
(a) It was a pipedream with little imminent chance of success.
(b) It was a literary vehicle with little basis in reality.
(c) It was an emergency response to the quickening Space Race.
(d) It was based on a scientific proposition which was not proven.
65. The primary purpose of the passage is to
(a) draw a comparison between H.G. Wells’ notion of time travel with Albert Einstein’s Theory
of Relativity.
(b) discuss the construction of the Hubble Space Telescope as a tool for exploring deep space.
(c) examine difficulties which precipitated construction of corrective lenses for the Hubble’s
primary mirror.
(d) describe the circumstances which underlay the mid–century national drive toward a large
space–based observatory.
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66. It can be inferred that the author regards time travel as
(a) an effective hook for a work of fiction, but an improbability in the reality of astronomy.
(b) an interesting literary notion, but proven to be impossible by Einstein’s Special Theory.
(c) a persuasive topic in fiction, as well as a hypothetical possibility in light of Einstein’s Special
Theory.
(d) a ridiculous idea whose time has come and gone, as well as an astronomical improbability.

67. It can be inferred from the passage that scientists believe that time is
(a) a constant. (b) unidirectional.
(c) a spatial dimension. (d) an impenetrable mystery.

68. Hubble Ultra Deep Field

(a) is the place where Hubble telescope is installed.
(b) shows the capability of Hubble Telescope to view galaxies.
(c) is astronomers’ aspiration to see beyond galaxies.
(d) is the determinant of visual dimensions of space.

69. The primary challenge involved in the successful launching of Hubble into space is
(a) atmospheric conditions.
(b) supersensitive spectrograph.
(c) the jarring vibrations that occur during the launch.
(d) air pressure and temperature.

70. As given in line 16, the word “mulled over” most nearly means
(a) considered.
(b) planned.
(c) reserved.
(d) initiated.

MATHEMATICS
71. Asim is now three times as old as Irfan. After 10 years, Asim will be twice as old as Irfan.
Asim’s age at this time is:
(a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 30 (d) 40
72. Vectors u =a i - j +k and v= i -2 j +b k are collinear if:
(a) a = 1, b = 1 (b) a = 1/2, b = 2
(c) a = 2, b = 1/2 (d) a = -1, b = -1
73. vectors u  ai  j  k and v  i  2 j  bk are perpendicular if:
(a) a = 3, b = -1 (b) a = 2, b = -1 (c) a = 1, b = -3 (d) a = 1/2, b = 2
74. Equation of a circle with center at (4,3) and radius = 2 is given by:
(a)  x  4    y  3   4
2 2
(b) 4 x 2  3 y 2  4
(c)  x 2 / 16    y 2 / 9   4 (d) x 2  y 2  8 x  6 y  21  0
75. If y  esin x cos x , then dy/dx is:
(a) esin x cos x sinx cosx (b) esin x cos x cos 2 x
(c) esin x cos x sin 2 x (d) None of the above
76. The line that passes through the point of intersection of x + y – 1 = 0 and x = 0, and is parallel
to the line x – y = 0 is given by:
(a) y = x – 1 (b) y = -x – 1 (c) y = x + 1 (d) y = -x + 1
77. The period of the function y  3 sin  t / 8 is:
(a) 24 (b) 24 (c) 8 (d) 16
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78. A wire of length L can be shaped into a circle or a square. The ratio of the area of the square
divided by the area of the circle is:
(a)  / 4 (b)  L / 4 (c)  2 / L2 (d) None of these
79. If sin  x   / 2   cos  x    and   x  2 , then x equal to:
(a)  / 2 (b) 7 / 4 (c) 3 / 2 (d) 2

80. log 2 8 x  18 means that x is equal to:

(a) 215 (b) 26 (c) 1/ 3  218 (d) 2 45

81. A box contains 15 red, 10 green and 5 yellow toffees. Asim picks 2 green toffees and 1 red
toffee out of the box and eats them. What is the probability that Irfan will now pick a green
toffee to eat?
(a) 10/30 (b) 8/27 (c) 8/30 (d) 8/22
f  x  6x  x  4x 1
3 3
82. Let
(a)  x  2  is a factor of f  x  (b) x  1 is a root of f  x   0
(c)  x  1 is a factor of f  x  (d) x  2 is a root of f  x   0
83. If the set S  1, 0,1
(a) Division is a binary operation on S (b) Addition is a binary operation on S
(c)S is closed with respect to division (d) S is closed with respect to multiplication
84. The additive inverse of 10/(3 - i) , where i  1 , is:
(a) 3  i (b) 3  i
(c) 3  i (d) 3  i
1 0 0 0
85. The reduced low echelon form of a linear system given by 0 2  1 3  has:

0 0 0 1 
(a) No solution (b) Exactly one solution
(c) Two solutions (d) infinitely many solutions
1 1 1 3
2 0 0 2
86. A  . The rank of matrix A is:
0 2 0 2
 
0 0 2 2
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four
87. Out of 20 members in a family, 11 like to take tea and 14 like coffee. Assume that each one
like at least one of the two drinks then:
(a) 9 like coffee only (b) 6 like tea only
(c) 5 like both tea and coffee (d) All of these
88. 10
C1 10 C2 10 C3  ... 10 C10 is equal to
(a) 1000 (b) 1023
(c) 1050 (d) 1010
8
 1 
89. The term free from x in expansion  3 x   is
 2x 
2836 2835
(a) (b)
4 8
2853 2835
(c)  (d)
4 16
90. The vertices of PQR are P (2,1), Q ( 2, 3) and R (4, 5) , then area of triangle is
13 15
(a) (b)
2 2
(c) 10 (d) None of these
91. If lines represented by ax 2  2 xy  6 y 2  0 are coincident, then a  ?
(a) -6 (b) 6
1 1
(c)  (d)
6 6

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92. The angle of rotation to remove xy  term from 5 x 2  6 xy  5 y 2  8  0 is
(a) 60 (b) 45

(c) 30 (d) 135
93. In a single throw of two dices the probability of getting a total other then 9 or 11 is:
17 1
(a) (b)
18 9
8 5
(c) (d)
9 6
 3 
94. The value of x which satisfies the equation tan 1 x  sin 1   is
 10 
(a) 3 (b) -3
1 1
(c) (d) 
3 3

2

 sin x dx  ?
2
95.
0
 
(a) (b)
4 3

(c) (d) 
2
sin 2 x
96. ?
(1  cos 2 x )sin x
(a) cos x (b) tan x
(c) sec x (d) cot x
 
97. In a ABC , A  30 , C  105 and a  8 then value of b is;
(a) 8 2 (b) 2
(c) 6 2 (d) 8
98. If 2,3,4 are sides of a triangle then cosine of largest angle is;
1 1
(a) (b)
2 4
1 1
(c) (d)
4 2
99. If x  k is a factor of x 4  13 x 2  36 , then;
(a) k  2 (b) k  2
(c) k  1 (d) Both (a) & (b)
2 1
x
100. lim 2 ?
x 0 x  1

(a) 1 (b) 0
(c) -1 (d) 

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