FIITJEE COMMON TEST

PHASE TEST
QP CODE:
Time : 2 Hrs. Maximum Marks : 100

Scholastic Aptitude Test

Instructions

➢ The question paper consists of 100 multiple choice questions divided into five sections.
Section – I contains 40 questions of SST.
Section – II contains 20 questions of Mathematics.
Section – III contains 13 questions of Physics.
Section – IV contains 13 questions of Chemistry.
Section – V contains 14 questions of Biology.
➢ Each question carries +1 marks for correct answer.
➢ There is No negative marking.
➢ Attempt All questions.
➢ Use of Calculator is NOT PERMITTED.
➢ All symbols have their usual meanings, if not mentioned in the question.
➢ The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your rough work.
No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
➢ This booklet also contains OMR answer sheet.

Name of the Candidate : ……………….…………………………………..

Enrollment Number :…………………………………………………….

 CFY_PHASE-2_SAT-3

SECTION – I
SOCIAL SCIENCE
1. The leader of the Bolshevik party was
(A) Stalin (B) Lenin
(C) Karl Marx (D) Louis Blanc
1. B
Sol. Option (B) is correct.

2. Tsarist power in Russia collapsed in the year

(A) 1905 (B) 1916
(C) 1917 (D) 1920
2. C
Sol. Option (C) is correct.

3. Tsarina Alexandra was of the

(A) German origin (B) French origin
(C) Russian origin (D) Dutch origin
3. A
Sol. Option (A) is correct.

4. Jadidists were ………………… within the Russian empire.

(A) Muslim reformers (B) Muslim educationists
(C) Parsi reformers (D) German refugees
4. A
Sol. Option (A) is correct.

5. The main occupation of the people of Russia in the beginning of the twentieth century was
(A) manufacturing (B) poultry farming
(C) fishing (D) agriculture
5. D
Sol. Option (D) is correct.

6. A Labour Party in Britain was formed by socialist and

(A) trade unionists (B) peasants
(C) industrialists (D) young students
6. A
Sol. Option (A) is correct.

7. The Central powers during the First World War included countries like Germany, Turkey and
(A) France (B) Austria
(C) Britain (D) Russia
7. B
Sol. Option (B) is correct.

8. The name associated with April Theses is

(A) Karl Marx (B) Robert Owen
(C) Lenin (D) Stalin
8. C
Sol. Option (C) is correct.

9. The successor of Lenin was

(A) Stalin (B) Kerenskii
(C) Trotskii (D) Louis Blance
9. A
Sol. Option (A) is correct.

10. Which of the following factors made autocracy unpopular in Russia?

(A) The German origin of the Tsarina Alexandra
(B) Poor advisors like the Monk Rasputin

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 CFY_PHASE-2_SAT-4

(C) The huge cost of fighting in the World War I

(D) Both (A) and (B)
10. D
Sol. Option (D) is correct.

11. Who among the following is known as father of Indian Constitution?

(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (B) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(C) Dr. B. R. Ambendkar (D) Jawahar Lal Nehru
11. C
Sol. Father of the Indian Constitution, Dr. Bhimrao Ramji Ambedkar was born on 14 April 1891 at Mhow in the
Central Provinces in British India

12. Which among the following terms refers to the existence of more than one level of government in the
country?
(A) Socialism (B) Communism
(C) Federalism (D) Secularism
12. C
Sol. Federalism is a mixed or compound mode of government that combines a general government (the
central or "federal" government) with regional governments (provincial, state, cantonal, territorial or other
sub-unit governments) in a single political system.

13. First meeting of the Constituent Assembly was held in:

(A) 1940 (B) 1942
(C) 1944 (D) 1946
13. D
Sol. The first meeting was held in the constitution hall (now the Central Hall of Parliament House). 1st person
to address - J. B. Kripalani. Temporary president appointed - Sachchidananda Sinha.

14. The constituent assembly was set up under which plan:

(A) Cabinet Mission (B) Wavel Plan
(C) Attlee’s Announcement (D) The Mountbatten Plan
14. A
Sol. Cabinet Mission was a high-powered mission sent in February 1946 to India by the Atlee Government
(British Prime Minister.) The mission had three British cabinet members – Pethick Lawrence, Stafford
Cripps, & and A.V. Alexander.

15. The principles of Liberty, equility & Fraternity are taken from:
(A) Irish Constitution (B) Canadian Constitution
(C) South Africa Constitution (d) French Constitution
15. D
Sol. The principles of Republic and the ideals of liberty, equality and fraternity in the Preamble of the
Constitution of India are borrowed from the French Constitution. These ideals were born during the
French Revolution of 1789.

16. Who is called as “Modern Manu” of India

(A) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar (B) J.L. Nehru
(C) Sardar Patel (D) Syed Mohammad Sadullah
16. A
Sol. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar Dr. B. R. Ambedkar, famously recognized as the ‘Father of the Constitution of India
and modern manu.

17. Lake Chilika lies in the state of

(A) Jharkhand (B) Telangana
(C) Odisha (D) Tamil Nadu
17. C
Sol. Chilika Lake is a brackish water lake and a shallow lagoon with estuarine character spread across the
districts of Puri, Khurda and Ganjam in the state of Odisha in eastern India.

18. A landmass bounded by sea on three sides is referred to as

(A) Coast (B) Island
(C) Peninsula (D) None of these

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18. C
Sol. Peninsula is a piece of land almost surrounded by water or projecting out into a body of water.

19. Mountain ranges in the eastern part of India forming its boundary with Myanmar are collectively called as
(A) Himachal (B) Uttarkhand
(C) Purvanchal (D) None of these
19. C
Sol. Purvanchal is a geographic sub-region of Uttar Pradesh that is within the larger Bhojpuri region. It
comprises the eastern end of Uttar Pradesh.

20 The western coastal strip, south of Goa is referred to as;

(A) Coromandel (B) Konkan
(C) Kannad (D) Northern Circar
20. C
Sol. The western coastal strip that runs from south from Goa to the southernmost tip of India (Kanyakumari)
is called the Malabar Coast. ...
The northern segment of the Malabar coast is called Karnataka Coast or Kannada Coast or Kanara.

21. The highest peak in the Eastern Ghats is

(A) Anai Mudi (B) Kanchenjunga
(C) Mahendragiri (D) Mahendragiri
21. C
Sol. Mahendragiri, is a mountain in Rayagada subdivision of the district of Gajapati, Odisha, India. It is situated
amongst the Eastern Ghats at an elevation of 1,501 metres.

22. A narrow gap in a mountain range providing access to the other side is:
(A) Mound (B) Pass
(C) Strait (D) Valley
22. B
Sol. A NARROW GAP IN A MOUNTAIN RANGE PROVIDING ACCESS TO THE OTHER SIDE IS MOUND.
PASS. STRAIT.

23. Which two hills are located in the south-east of Eastern Ghats?
(A) Mizo Hills and Naga Hills (B) Javadi Hills and Shevroy Hills
(C) Patkoi Hills and Manipuri Hills (D) Mizo Hills and patkoi Hills
23. B
Sol. The two hills located in the south-east of Eastern Ghats are - JAVADI HILLS and SHEVROY HILLS.
*JAVADI HILLS is spread accross Vellore and Tiruvannamalai districts of northern part of the state Tamil
Nadu. *SHEVROY HILLS are found near the city of Salem in Tamil Nadu.

24. The longitudinal valleys lying between lesser Himalayas and Shivaliks are known as.
(A) Kangra Valley (B) Patkai Bum
(C) Passes (D) Duns
24. D
Sol. The longitudinal valley is a longitudinal valley, known as 'duns' in the west and 'duars' in the
east, between the lesser Himalayas and shiwaliks

25. What are lesser Himalayas known as?

(A) Himadri (B) Himachal
(C) Shivaliks (D) Purvanchal
25. A
Sol. Lesser Himalayas, also called Inner Himalayas, Lower Himalayas, or Middle Himalayas

26. Which of the following is the highest peak in India?

(A) Mt. Everest (B) Kanchenjunga
(C) Nanga Parbat (d) Nandadevi
26. B
Sol. Kangchenjunga is the highest peak in India. It is the third highest mountain in the world with an elevation
of 8,586 meters.

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27. The Himalayas consist of three parallel ranges in its longitudinal extent. Which of the following is the
name of the northern most range?
(A) The Himadri (B) The Himachal
(C) The Shivaliks (D) The Purvanchal
27. A
Sol. The Himadri also called the Great or Inner Himalayas, is the northern most range of the Himalayas.

28. Which of the following are young-fold mountains?

(A) The Aravalis (B) The Nilgiris
(C) The Himalayas (D) The Sahyadri
28. C
Sol. The Himalayas in India are called young fold mountains. The Himalayan range comprises of many of the
highest peaks of the world.

29. According to the ‘Theory of Plate Tectonics,’ what have been the effects of the movement of the plates?
(A) Change in position and size of continents.
(B) Formation of ocean basins.
(C) Evolution of the present landforms and relief of India.
(D) All of the above.
29. D
Sol. Plate tectonics is a scientific theory describing the large-scale motion of the plates making up the Earth's
lithosphere since tectonic processes began on Earth between 3.3 and 3.5 billion years ago. The model
builds on the concept of continental drift, an idea developed during the first decades of the 20th century

30. According to the ‘Theory of Plate Tectonics,’ when some plates move away from each other, which of the
following is formed?
(A) Convergent boundary (B) Divergent boundary
(C) Transform boundary (D) None of these
30. B
Sol. In plate tectonics, a divergent boundary or divergent plate boundary (also known as a
constructive boundary or an extensional boundary) is a linear feature that exists between two tectonic
plates that are moving away from each other.

31 ____ is considered the greatest asset of a nation.

(A) Wealth (B) Land
(C) Industries (D) Healthy and literate population
31. D
Sol. We all recognise that an educated population is the nation's greatest asset.

32. India’s rising population can be changed very easily into an asset through ____.
(A) Medical resource development (B) Education resource development
(C) Industrial training resource development (D) Human resource development
32. D
Sol. Human resources development (HRD) refers to the vast field of training and development provided by
organizations to increase the knowledge, skills, education, and abilities of humans.

33. Activities that lead to the production of goods and services, and contribute to national income are called
____.
(A) Developmental activities (B) Secondary activities
(C) Primary activities (D) Economic activities
33. D
Sol. Option (D) is correct.

34. _______ can turn population into a productive asset.

(A) Quantity (B) Raw material
(C) Industry (D) Education
34. D
Sol. A large population can be turned into a productive asset by investment in human capital by spending
resources on education and health for all, training of industrial and agricultural workers in the use of
modern technology, and useful scientific researches, etc.

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35. The New Education Policy in India was announced in the year ____.
(A) 1986 (B) 1988
(C) 1987 (D) 1998
35. A
Sol. The first came in 1968 and the second in 1986, under Indira Gandhi and Rajiv Gandhi respectively; the
NEP of 1986 was revised in 1992 when P V Narasimha Rao was Prime Minister.

36. ____ workers suffer the most from seasonal unemployment.

(A) Tribal (B) Urban
(C) Fishing (D) Rural
36. D
Sol. Rural workers suffer the most from seasonal unemployment.

37. A high rate of unemployment in a country leads to ____.

(A) Depression (B) Law and order problems
(C) Inflation (D) Poverty
37. D
Sol. Unemployment affects the unemployed individual and his family and make them poor.

38. Trade, transport and communication are included in the ____ sector.
(A) Tertiary (B) Industrial
(C) Primary (D) Private
38. A
Sol. Sector which includes trade, transport, banking, communication and services is known as tertiary sector

39. The strategy of ____ was formulated to provide better knowledge and techniques to farmers
(A) increase production. (B) The Green Revolution
(C) Industrialisation (D) The Blue Revolution
39. B
Sol. The Green Revolution, or the Third Agricultural Revolution, is the set of research technology transfer
initiatives occurring between 1950 and the late 1960s, that increased agricultural production worldwide,
beginning most markedly in the late 1960s.

40. Why is literacy rate is low in the females?

(A) lack of equal education opportunities (B) lack of transport facilities
(C) lack of infrastructure (D) lack of income
40. A
Sol. Due to lack of equal education opportunities the literacy rate is low in females.

SECTION – II
MATHEMATICS
1. The point which divides A(0, 1) and B(3, -1) externally in the ratio 3 : 1 is
(A)  , − 2  (B)  5, − 
9 5
2   2
 11   7
(C)  , − 3  (D)  6, − 
 2   2
1. A
9−0 9
x= =
2 2
−3 − 1 9 
y= = −2  Point is  , −2 
2 2 

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 CFY_PHASE-2_SAT-8

2. In ABC, the points B and C are (-3, 1) and (0, -2) respectively. If the centroid of this triangle is
the origin, then the coordinates of A are
(A)  , 
7 1
(B) ( 4,0)
2 2
(C) (1, 2) (D) ( 3, 1)
2. D
Let coordinates of A be (x1, y1)
x1 − 3 + 0
 = 0  x1 = 3
3
y1 + 1 − 2
=0  y1 = 1
3
 A ( 3, 1)

3. The circumcentre of a triangle whose vertices are (–2, –3), (–1, 0) and (7, –6) is
(A) (–3, 3) (B) (3, –3) (C) (–3, –3) (D) none of these
3. B
Let circumcetre be (x, y)
( x + 2 )2 + ( y + 3 )2 = ( x + 1)2 + y 2
and ( x + 1) + y 2 = ( x − 7 ) + ( y + 6 )
2 2 2

on solving we get ( x,y ) = ( 3, − 3 )

4. If the points (a, 0), (0, b) and (1, 1) are collinear then which of the following is true?
1 1
(A) + =2 (B) 1 − 1 = 1 (C) 1 − 1 = 2 (D) 1 + 1 = 1
a b a b a b a b
4. D
a0
0b
=0
11
a0
1 1
+ =1
a b

5. Distance of the point (−3, 4) from the y-axis is

(A) 4 units (B) 3 units (C) 5 units (D) none of these
5. B
3 units
logx aloga ylogy z
6. x is equal to
(A) x (B) y (C) z (D) none of these
6 C
logx alogx ylogy z
X
= Xlogx z
=Z

log2 x log2 y log2 z

7. If = = and x3y2z = 1 then k is
4 6 3k
(A) –2 (B) –6 (C) –8 (D) –10
7 C

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log2 x log2 y log2 z

= = = m ( let )
4 6 3k
Now x3 y2 z = 1  212m 212m 23km = 2º
 k = −8

8. If two sides of a triangle whose area is 54 sq. cm are 12 cm and 15 cm. What is the measurement of the
third side?
(A) 9 cm (B) 8 cm (C) 10 cm (D) None of these
8. A
 = s ( s − a )( s − b )( s − c )
Put  = 54
27 + x
s=
2
a = 12
b = 15
 x=9

9. If the point (1, 1), (3, 2) and (7, k) are on the same straight line, then k =
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 7
9. B
1 1
3 2
=0
7 k
1 1
k=4

10. The graph of 2x – 1 = 0 and 12y + 36 = 0 intersect at the point

(A) (1/2, –3) (B) (–1/2, –3) (C) (–1/2, 3) (D) none of these
10. A
2x − 1 = 0, 12y + 36 = 0
1
after solving x = , y = −3
2

11. A right triangle has hypotenuse of length ‘p’ cm and one side of length ‘q’ cm. If p - q = 1, then length of
the third side of the triangle is
1
(A) 2p -1 (B) (2p -1)
2
(C) 2p + 2 (D) 2p − 1
11. D
p2 = q2 + x 2
x 2 = p2 − q2
= ( p − q)(p + q)
x = p + q = 2p − 1

12. If the centroid of the triangle formed by (7, x), (y, -6) and (9, 10) is at (6, 3), then (x, y) =
(A) (4, 5) (B) (5, 4) (C) (-5, -2) (D) (5, 2)
12. D

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 CFY_PHASE-2_SAT-10

7+y+9
=6 y=2
3
x − 6 + 10
=3 x=5
3
13. The value of y for which the distance between the points P (2, -3) and Q (10, y) is 10 units is
(A) – 9 (B) – 3 (C) 8 (D) None of these
13. A
(10 − 2 )2 ( y + 3 )2 = 100
y = −9

14. In the figure, AEB and ADC are two straight lines such that line DE is parallel to the line BC. It is given
that AE : AB = 2 : 3 and co-ordinates of points A and B are (4, 7) and (0, 1) respectively. What is the
coordinate of the point E?

4  8 5   8 19  8 
(A)  ,3  (B)  ,  (C)  ,  (D)  , 5 
3   5 17  7 7  3 
14. A
0+4 3
x= =
3 4
2+7
y= =3
3
15. Solve 22 + x – 22–x = 15
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
15. B
22 + x − 22 − x = 15
Let 2 x = y
4y 2 − 15y − 4 = 0
y = 4  2x = 4
x=2

16. Find x when log2 (3 − x ) + log2 (1 − x ) = 3

(A) –1 (B) 5 (C) 2 (D) None of these
16. A
log2 ( 3 − x ) + log2 (1 − x ) = 3
 23 = x 2 − 4x + 3
x = −1

17. Find x when log3 (5 + 4log3 ( x − 1)) = 2

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
17. D
log3 5 + 4log3 ( x − 1)  = 2
5 + 4log3 ( x − 1) = 9
log3 ( x − 1) = 1
x=4

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 CFY_PHASE-2_SAT-11

1
18. The value of ‘b’ satisfying log 8 b = 3 is
3
(A) 30 (B) 31 (C) 32 (D) 33
18. C
1
log 8
b=3
3
10
b= ( 8) 3 = 32

19. The sides of a right triangle are 9cm, 12 cm and 15 cm long. Then the sum of the squares of the medians
is equal to
(A) 332.5 cm (B) 335.5cm (C) 337.5 cm (D) 339.5 cm
19. C
Sum of squares of medians
=
3 2
4
(
9 + 122 + 152 )
= 337.5 cm

20. The lengths of the sides of a triangle are integral. If the perimeter of the triangle is 6 cm, then how many
such triangles are possible
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
20. B
Only one

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SECTION – III
PHYSICS
1. A stone dropped from the top of the tower touches the ground in 4 sec. The height of the tower is about
(a) 80 m (b) 40 m
(c) 20 m (d) 160 m
1. (a)
1 2 1
Sol.: h= gt =  10  (4 )2 = 80 m
2 2

2. The slope of distance-time graph gives

(a) speed (b) Change in acceleration
(c) displacement (d) (a),(b)&(c) all are correct
2. (a)
Sol.: The slope of distance-time graph gives speed

3. If a particle moves in a circle describing equal angles in equal times, its velocity vector
(a) Remains constant (b) Changes in magnitude
(c) Changes in direction (d) Changes both in magnitude and direction
3. (c)
Sol.: In uniform circular motion velocity vector changes in direction but its magnitude always remains constant.
| v1 | =| v 2 | =| v 3 | =| v 4 | = constant

v2

v1


v3

v4

4. If r represents the radius of the orbit of a satellite of mass m moving around a planet of mass M,
the velocity of the satellite is given by
(a) v 2 = g M (b) v 2 = GMm
r r
GM GM
(c) v= (d) v =
2
r r
4. (d)
Sol.: Conceptual

5. Orbital velocity of an artificial satellite does not depend upon

(a) Mass of the earth (b) Mass of the satellite
(c) Radius of the earth (d) Acceleration due to gravity
5. (b)
Sol.: Conceptual

6. The time period of a geostationary satellite is

(a) 24 hours (b) 12 hours
(c) 365 days (d) One month
6. (a)
Sol.: Conceptual

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7. A satellite whose mass is M, is revolving in circular orbit of radius r around the earth. Time of
revolution of satellite is
r5 r3
(a) T (b) T
GM GM
r r3
(c) T (d) T
GM 2 / 3 GM 1 / 4
7. (b)
Sol.: Conceptual

8. The orbital velocity of a planet revolving close to earth's surface is

(a) 2 gR (b) gR

2g g
(c) (d)
R R

8. (b)
Sol.: Conceptual

9. The figure shows the motion of a planet around the sun in an elliptical orbit with sun at the focus.
The shaded areas A and B are also shown in the figure which can be assumed to be equal. If t1
and t2 represent the time for the planet to move from a to b and d to c respectively, then
(a) t1  t2 b
a
A
(b) t1  t2
S
(c) t1 = t2
(d) t1  t2 B
d c
9. (c)
Sol.: Conceptual

10. Orbit of a planet around a star is

(a) A circle (b) An ellipse
(c) A parabola (d) A straight line
10. (b)
Sol.: Conceptual

11. According to Kepler, the period of revolution of a planet (T) and its mean distance from the sun
(r) are related by the equation
(a) T 3r3 = constant (b) T 2r−3 = constant
(c) Tr 3 = constant (d) T 2r = constant
11. (b) constant = constant
Sol.: Conceptual

12. The earth E moves in an elliptical orbit with the sun S at one of the foci as shown in figure. Its
speed of motion will be maximum at the point E
C
(a) C
(b) A A B
S
(c) B
(d) D D

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12. (b)
Sol.: Conceptual

13. Two satellite are revolving around the earth with velocities v1 and v 2 and in radii r1 and
r2 (r1  r2 ) respectively. Then
(a) v1 = v 2 (b) v1  v 2
v1 v 2
(c) v1  v 2 (d) =
r1 r2
13. (c)
Sol.: Conceptual

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 CFY_PHASE-2_SAT-15

SECTION – IV
CHEMISTRY
1. The volume of gas become zero at
(A) 273.15°C (B) 273.15K
(C) -273.15K (D) -273.15°C
1. D
Sol. Factual

2. As the pressure of a system changes, boiling points can change in which direction?
(A) Increase (B) Decrease
(C) Both (D) Neither
2. C
Sol. Factual

3. Which is not a compound?

(A) Graphite (B) Silica
(C) Rust (D) Sugar
3. A
Sol. Graphite is not a compound.

4. Milk is :
(A) Fat dispersed in water (B) Water dispersed in fat
(C) Water dispersed in oil (D) Fat dispersed in fat
4. A
Sol. Factual

5. In washing machines, wet clothes are dried by using the process of :

(A) Filtration (B) Sedimentation
(C) Evaporation (D) Centrifugation
5. D
Sol. Factual

6. Amorphous solids are those which have

(A) Fixed arrangement of atoms and molecules (B) No fixed melting point
(C) Have regular geometry (D) All the above properties
6. B
Sol. Factual

7. Which of the following is a physical change?

(A) Souring of milk (B) Digestion of food
(C) Dissolution of common salt in water (D) Mixing of common salt with acid
7. C
Sol. Dissolution of common salt in water is a physical change.

8. Mixture of ethyl alcohol and water can be easily separated by using:

(A) Separating funnel (B) Fractional distillation
(C) Filter paper (D) None of the above
8. B
Sol. Factual

9. The rate of diffusion of hydrogen is about:

(A) one-half that of helium (B) 1.4 times that of helium
(C) twice that of helium (D) four times that of helium
9. B
Sol. Factual

10. A liquid is found to scatter a beam of light but leaves no residue when passed through the filter paper. The
liquid can be described as:
(A) a suspension (B) oil
(C) a colloidal sol (D) true solution

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10. C
Sol. A colloidal sol is found to scatter a beam of light but leaves no residue when passed through the filter
paper.

11. Among the following, identify the substance in which molecules possess vibratory, rotator motions and
translator motion, but their movements are not random.
(A) Bromine (B) Iodine
(C) Ammonia gas (D) Silicon dioxide
11. A
Sol. Factual

12. Movement of charged colloidal particles under the influence of applied electric potential towards
oppositely charged electrodes is known as:
(A) dialysis (B) electrophoresis
(C) sedimentation (D) ultrafiltration
12. B
Sol. Movement of charged colloidal particles under the influence of applied electric potential towards
oppositely charged electrodes is known as electrophoresis.

13. The effect of temperature on solubility of a sugar in water is that, it

(A) decreases with increase in temperature (B) increases with increase in temperature
(C) no change (D) may increase or decrease
13. B
Sol. Factual

SECTION – V
BIOLOGY
1. The high biological oxygen demand (BOD) in a particular segment of a river indicates that
(A) the segment is free from pollution
(B) the segment is highly polluted
(C) aquatic life has started to flourish
(D) the river has less pathogenic contamination.
1. B
Sol. BOD is more in heavily polluted areas in water.

2. Which among the following are the smallest living cells, known without a definite cell wall,
pathogenic to plants as well as animals and can survive without oxygen?
(A) Pseudomonas (B) Mycoplasma (C) Nostoc (D) Bacillus
2. B
Sol.: Mycoplasma are smallest living organisms.

3. “Drone” in the honey bee colony are born out from:

(A) unfertilized eggs (B) fertilized eggs and well nourished larvae
(C) same as worker bee (D) fertilized eggs giving heat treatment
3. A
Sol.: Drones are formed from unfertilized egg.

4. Key stone species of an ecosystem are those ones that are:

(A) present in maximum number (B) most common species
(C) attain large biomass (D) contribute maximum to ecosystem
4. D
Sol.: The species which contribute more to an area is key stone species.

5. Which of the following crop is grown by the transplantation method?

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(A) Bajra (B) Maize (C) Paddy (D) Wheat

5. C
Sol.: Paddy crop is grown in nursery bed first then transferred to main field.

6. Breeding of crops with higher level of vitamins and minerals or higher level of protein and
healthier fat is called ______.
(A) biofortification (B) malnutrition (C) bioremediation (D) recombination
6. A
Sol.: Biofortification is the technique of improving nutrients of food crop.

7. Select the incorrect match.

A B C
(A) Cow Exotic breed Jersey
(B) Buffalo Local breed Murrah
(C) Fowl Local breed Rhode Island
(D) Fish Fresh water breed Rohu
7. C
Sol.: Rhode Island is exotic breed of fowl.

8. Insect resistance transgenic cotton has been produced by inserting a piece of DNA from
(A) an insect (B) a bacterium
(C) a wild relative of cotton (D) a virus
8. B
Sol.: Bacillus bacterium genome is added to cotton crop for insect resistance.

9. Fluid mosaic model of cell membrane states it has lipid bilayer with
(A) Proteins on both the surfaces
(B) Proteins on the outer surface only
(C) Proteins embedded in it only
(D) Some proteins embedded and some on the surface
9. D
Sol. Fluid mosaic model of cell membrane states that is made up of phospho lipid bilayer and
proteins.

10. Low visibility during cold weather is due to

(A) Formation of fossil fuel
(B) Unburnt carbon particles or hydrocarbons suspended in air
(C) Lack of adequate power supply
(D) None of these
10. B
Sol. Smog is responsible for low visibility.

11. Nitrosomonas bacteria convert

(A) Nitrite to nitrate (B) Ammonia into nitrate
(C) Ammonia into nitrite (D) Nitrite into ammonia
11. C
Sol. Nitrosomonas bacteria convert ammonia into nitrite.

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12. Norman Borlaug the ‘Father of Green Revolution’ has developed a highly recognized and
appreciated cultivating variety of ______.
(A) Wheat (B) Rice
(C) Onion (D) Sugarcane
12. A
Sol. Green Revolution is related with cereals specially wheat.

13. What does Bt stand for a popular crop at Bt cotton?

(A) Biotechnology (B) Bacillus tomatina
(C) Best type (D) Bacillus thuringiensis
13. D
Sol. Bt stands for Bacillus thuringiensis.

14. Uprooting of weeds is a method of controlling them

(A) Mechanically (B) Culturally
(C) Chemically (D) Biologically
14. A
Sol. Mechanically (manually) weeds can be controlled by uprooting them.

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