NDA GAT MOCK TESTS

 Mock Test – 01

1. Match the national leaders with the epithets by which they were known:

List – I List – II
A. Lala Lajpat Rai (i) Grand old man of India
B. BG Tilak (ii) Iron Man of India
C. CF Andrews (iii) Deenabandhu
D. Vallabhbhai Patel (iv) Lokmanya
E. Dadabhai Naoroji (v) Lion of Pujab

Codes:
A B C D E
(a) i ii iii iv v
(b) v iv i ii iii
(c) v iv iii ii i
(d) v iv ii iii i

2. The first Congress and nationalist leader to face repeated imprisonment was

(a) Pheroze Shah Mehta (b) Gopal Krishna Gokhale

(c) Dadabhai Naoroji (d) BG Tilak

Answers are given at the bottom

3. Where did Mahatma Gandhi first apply his technique of Satyagraha?

(a) Dandi (b) Noakhali

(c) England (d) South Africa

4. Which of the following writers did not have a profound influence on the thinking of
Mahatma Gandhi?

(a) Tolstoy (b) Thoreau

(c) Ruskin (d) Marx

5. Who composed the song “Sare Jahan Se Achha Hindostan Hamara”?

(a) Mohammed Iqbal (b) Josh Malihabadi

 (c) Bhagat Singh (d) Chandra Shekhar Azad

6. The Communist Party of India was founded in 1921 by

(a) Hiren Mukherjee (b) SM Joshi

(c) MN Roy (d) RC Dutt

7. The actual name of Dayanand Saraswati, the founder of the Arya Samaj was

(a) Daya Shankar (b) Mula Shankar

(c) Virjanand (d) Mool Chandra

8. The slogan of ‘Bande Matram’ was first adopted during the ______Movements?

(a) Non-cooperation (b) Civil Disobedience

(c) Swadeshi (d) Quit India

9. The youngest President of the Indian National Congress who held that office at the
age of 35, was

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Subhash Chandra Bose

(c) Annie Besant (d) Abul Kalam Azad

10. Two socio-religious reform movements founded in India in 1875 were

(a) Brahmo Samaj and Prarthana Samaj

Answers are given at the bottom

(b) Arya Samaj and Ramakrishna Mission
(c) Theosophical Society and Arya Samaj
(d) Aligarh Movement and Servants of Indian Society

11. The Headquarters of the Ramakrishna Math and Mission established by

Vivekananda in 1898 are at

(a) Kanyakumari (b) Belur

(c) Hyderabad (d) Murshidabad

12. Who declared that he would talk of religion only when he succeeded in removing
poverty and misery from the country, for religion could not appease hunger?

(a) Swami Vivekananda (b) Mahatma Gandhi

 (c) Jawaharlal Nehru (d) Dadabhai Naoroji

13. The English who twice served as President of the Indian National Congress was

(a) George Yule (b) Sir William Wedderburn

(c) AO Hume (d) Mrs. Annie Besant

14. August Offer 1940 was made by the Viceroy

(a) Willingdon (b) Linlithgow

(c) Minto (d) Lytton

15. The Muslim League passed a resolution demanding the partition of India in the
__________session held in 1940.

(a) Lahore (b) Allahabad

(c) Karachi (d) Dacca

16. As per the Regulating Act a Supreme Court was established in

(a) Bengal (b) Bombay

(c) Delhi (d) Madras

17. During the first Carnatic War, the French Governor-General of Pondicherry was

(a) La Bourdonnais (b) Captain Paradise

Answers are given at the bottom

(c) Dupleix (d) Count-de-Lally

18. The use of the mother tongue in India in the law Court was permitted by

(a) Lord Hastings (b) Cornwallis

(c) Lord Dalhousie (d) Bentinck

19. The English established their first factory in Bengal in 1651 at _____.

(a) Hugli (b) Kassimbazar

(c) Patna (d) Calcutta

20. The privileges of free trade granted to the English East India Company were
confirmed in 1717 by Emperor
 (a) Bahadur Shah (b) Farrukh-Siyar
(c) Muhammad (d) Aurangzeb

21. Where is the old and over 2 km-long ‘Pamban Railway Bridge’, which attracts
tourists from all over the country?

(a) Nilgiris (b) Krishna delta

(c) Palk straits (d) Malabar coast

22. Which National Highway connects Chennai and Visakhapatnam?

(a) NH 4 (b) NH 5
(c) NH 6 (d) NH 8

23. Which one of the following is also known as Top Slip?

(a) Simlipal National Park

(b) Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary
(c) Manjira Wildlife Sanctuary
(d) Indira Gandhi Wildlife Sanctuary and National Park

24. Which one of the following National Highways passes through, Maharashtra
Chattisgarh and Orissa?

(a) NH4 (b) NH5

Answers are given at the bottom

(c) NH6 (d) NH7

25. Which one of the following is located in the Bastar region?

(a) Bandhavgarh National Park (b) Dandeli Sanctuary

(c) Rajaji National Park (d) Indravati National Park

26. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

Railway zone Headquarters

(a) North Eastern Railway : Gorakhpur
(b) South Eastern Railway : Bhubhaneswar
(c) Eastern Railway : Kolkata
(d) South East Central Railway : Bilaspur
27. Which one of the following statements on biosphere reserves is not correct?

(a) In 1973, UNESCO launched a worldwide programme on man and biosphere

(b) Biosphere reserves promote research ecological conservation
(c) Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve is located in Madhya Pradesh
(d) Biosphere reserves are multipurpose protected areas to preserve the genetic
diversity in ecosystems

28. Which one of the following is correct sequence of the given tiger reserves of India
from north of south?

(a) Dudwa – Kanha – Indravati – Bandipur

(b) Kanha – Bandipur - Dudwa - Indravati
(c) Indravati - Kanha – Dudwa - Bandipur
(d) Dudwa - Kanha – Bandipur - Indravati

29. Match the following:

Tiger Reserve State

(a) Indravati (1) Karnataka
(b) Periyar (2) Orissa
(c) Simlipal (3) Kerala
(d) Bandipur (4) Chattisgarh

A B C D

Answers are given at the bottom

(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 4 2 3 1

30. Match the following:

Name of the Shipyard Location

(A) Hindustan Shipyard Limited 1. Kolkata
(B) Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers Limited 2. Vasco-da-Gama
(C) Goa Shipyard Limited 3. Mumbai
(D) Mazgaon Dock Limited 4. Viskhapatnam
 A B C D
(a) 4 2 1 3
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 4 1 2 3
(d) 3 2 1 4

31. Which one of the following is NOT the port town of Gujarat?

(a) Jamnagar (b) Okha

(c) Porbandar (d) Verval

32. The position of Indian Railways network in the world is

(a) second (b) third

(c) fourth (d) fifth

33. Kanha National Park belongs to which one among the following biogeographical
areas in the world?

(a) Tropical Sub-humid Forest (b) Tropical Humid Forests

(c) Tropical Dry Forests (d) Tropical Moist Forests

34. Which one is not located on National Highway-2 (NH-2)

(a) Aurangabad (b) Sasram

(c) Mohania (d) Patna

Answers are given at the bottom

35. Match the following:

National Highway Cities

(A) NH 1 1. Delhi-Kolkata
(B) NH 2 2. Mumbai-Agra
(C) NH 3 3. Chennai-Thane
(D) NH 4 4. Delhi – Amritsar

A B C D
(a) 3 1 2 4
(b) 4 2 1 3
(c) 3 2 1 4
(d) 4 1 2 3
36. The ‘Grand Trunk Road’ connects:

(a) Kolkata and Mumbai (b) Delhi and Chennai

(c) Kolkata and Amritsar (d) Tirupati and Ludhiana

37. With reference to National Highways Development Project (NHDP), consider the
following statements:

1. Belgaum and Nellore lie on the Golden Quadrilateral.

2. Vadodara and Jhansi lie on the East-West Corridor
3. Ambala and Kanpur lie on the North-South Corridor.

Which of these statements is/are correct?

(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 only

38. Consider the following places:

1. Shimla
2. Gangtok
3. Mumbai
4. Delhi

Arrange these places in decreasing order of their atmosphere pressure on their ground
surface using the code given below:

Answers are given at the bottom

(a) 3, 4, 1, 2 (b) 4, 3, 2, 1
(c) 3, 1, 4, 2 (c) 2, 4, 1, 3

39. Match the following:

Biosphere Reserves States

A. Simplipal 1. Sikkim
B. Dehong Debang 2. Uttranchal
C. Nokrek 3. Arunachal Pradesh
D. Kanchenjunga 4. Odisha
5. Meghalaya
A B C D
(a) 1 3 5 4
(b) 4 5 2 1
 (c) 1 5 2 4
(d) 4 3 5 1

40. To elect the President of India, which one of the following election procedures is
used?

(a) System of proportional representation by means of the single transferable

vote
(b) Proportional representation through list system
(c) Collective voting system
(d) Secondary voting system

41. The only instance when the President of India exercised his power of veto related to
the:

(a) Hindu code (b) PEPSU Appropriation Bill

(c) Indian Post Office (Amendement Bill) (d) Dowry Prohibition Bill

42. If the President returns a Bill sent to him for his assent and the Parliament once
again passes the Bill in Its original form, then the President:

(a) can once again return the Bill for further reconsideration
(b) can ask for a referendum on the Bill
(c) has to give assent to the Bill
(d) can seek the opinion of the Supreme Court on the bill

Answers are given at the bottom

43. Who among the following’ are appointed by the President of India?
I. Chairman, Finance Commission
II. Deputy Chairman, Planning Commission
III. Chief Minister of a Union Territory

(a) I only (b) I and II

(c) I and III (d) II and III

44. Appointment of the members of the Council of Ministers is made by the President:

(a) on the advice of the Prime Minister (b) in his own discretion
(c) on the advice of the Vice-President (d) on the basis of election results
45. Who among the following are appointed by the President of India?
I. Governors of States.
II. The Chief Justice and Judges of High Courts.
III. The Chief Justice and the Judges of the Supreme Court.
IV. The Vice-President

(a) I and II (b) I, II and III

(c) II, III and IV (d) I, III and IV

46. When the Vice-President officiates as President, he draws the salary of:

(a) President (b) Member of Parliament

(c) Chairman (d) Both (a) and (b)

47. The Vice-President’s letter of resignation is to be addressed to the:

(a) Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha (b) Chief Justice of India

(c) President (d) Speaker

48. Which one of the following resigned as Vice-President to contest for the office of the
President?

(a) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan (b) V.V.Giri

(c) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed (d) Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy

49. The resolution for removing the Vice-President of India can be moved in the:

Answers are given at the bottom

(a) Lok Sabha alone (b) either House of Parliament
(c) Joint Sitting of Parliament (d) Rajya Sabha alone

50. Which of the following Chief Justices of India has acted as President of India?

(a) M. Hidayatullah (b) P.B. Gajendra Gadkar

(c) P.N. Bhagwati (d) All of the above

51. Which Indian journalist has been awarded the Fukuoka Grand Prize for 2021?

(a) Palagummi Sainath (b) Rajat Sharma

(c) Vikram Chandra (d) Shiv Aroor
52. Recently, which Indian has been honoured with the highest civillian award of
Mongolia ‘The Order of Polar Star’?

(a) Narendra Modi (b) RK Sabharwal

(c) Ratan Tata (d) Mukesh Ambani

53. Who has become the first Indian swimmer to qualify for Tokyo Olympics?

(a) Anshul Kothari (b) Srihari Nataraj

(c) Sachet Engineer (d) Sajan Prakash

54. Recently, which country has been certified as malaria-free by the World Health
Organisation (WHO)?

(a) India (b) China

(c) Bhutan (d) Sudan

55. Who has become the first Indian female swimmer to qualify for Tokyo Olympics?

(a) Maana Patel (b) Shivani Kataria

(c) Shikha Tandon (d) Shyamala Goli

56. Recently, which state government has launched the Mukhyamantri Covid-19
Pariwar Aarthik Sahayata Yojana?

(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Madhya Pradesh

Answers are given at the bottom

(c) Karnataka (d) Delhi

57. Which of the following has introduced a new IT platform called ‘e-PGS’ for its group
business operations?

(a) SBI (b) LIC

(c) HDFC Bank (d) ICICI Bank

58. India’s first indigenous aircraft carrier, INS Vikrant to be commissioned into the
Indian Navy in which year?

(a) 2023 (b) 2024

(c) 2022 (d) 2025
59. Which state has topped the India Smart Cities Awards Contest (ISAC) 2020?

(a) Kerala (b) Uttar Pradesh

(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Haryana

60. The book titled ‘It’s A Wonderful Life’ has been authored by ______.

(a) Ruskin Bond (b) Amitabh Ghosh

(c) Salman (d) Arundhati Roy

61. Recently, who has been named as the “Ambassador of Forest Frontline Heroes” by
WWF India?

(a) Pankaj Mishra (b) Ashutosh Rana

(c) Upasana Kamineni (d) None of the above

62. Recently, which Indian has been named as a member of a High-Level Advisory
Group (HLAG) formed by the World Bank and the International Monetary Fund
(IMF)?

(a) Amitabh Kant (b) Montek

(c) Urjit Patel (d) Raghuram Rajan

63. Which country has won the inaugural ICC World Test Championship?

(a) Australia (b) England

Answers are given at the bottom

(c) India (d) New Zealand

64. Which country has opened the World’s longest Pedestrian bridge?

(a) Spain (b) Greece

(c) Portugal (d) Switzerland

65. Which space agency has announced plans to send its first mobile robot to the moon
in 2023?

(a) ISRO (b) JAXA

(c) CNSA (d) NASA

66. Crimson Solar Project has been approved by_____________.

 (a) USA (b) India
(c) Japan (d) Russia

67. _________ will become the world’s first country to ban all synthetic cannabinoid
substance.

(a) Japan (b) China

(c) Russia (d) Canada

68. What is the name of world’s largest iceberg that broke apart from Antarctica?

(a) A 72 (b) A 74
(c) A 76 (d) A 78

69. Which company has launched the first ever “Asia Pacific Sector Cyber Security
Executive Council”?

(a) Apple (b) Google

(c) Samsung (d) Microsoft

70. Which country is building its first naval ship which will be fully equipped with stealth
technology?

(a) India (b) China

(c) Japan (d) Russia

Answers are given at the bottom

71. Desease caused by HIV-

(a) Tuberculosis
(b) Cancer
(c) Acquired immune deficiency syndrome
(d) None of these

72. The biggest single – celled organism is

(a) Yeast (b) Acetabularia

(c) Acobacter (d) Amoeba

73. Agar – Agar is obtained from –

 (a) Fungi (b) Algae
(c) Moss (d) Bacteria

74. Red rot of sugarcane is caused by

(a) Colletotichum falcatum (b) Cercospora percoruata

(c) Alternaria alternate (d) Phylophtora infestans

75. Aflatoxins a produced by –

(a) Fungi (b) Bacteria

(c) Algae (d) Viruses

76. Statements:

I. In Gymnosperms, seeds are enclosing in side fruits.

II. Dicots and monocots a included in Angiosperm.

(a) Both statements I and II are correct.

(b) Both statements I and II are incorrect.
(c) Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect.
(d) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct.

77. Which part of the cinchona yields a drug?

(a) Endosperm (b) Pericap

Answers are given at the bottom

(c) Bark (d) Leaf

78. Fiber of cotton is obtain from-

(a) Stem (b) Seed

(c) Fruit (d) Root

79. An enzyme produced by HIV that allows the integration of HIV DNA into the host
cell’s DNA is-

(a) Integrase (b) Ligase

(c) Helicase (d) DNA gyrase

80. Dr. Norman E. Borlaug belonged to -

 (a) Spain (b) Mexico
(c) America (d) Austria

81. Species containing same number of electrons are called:

(a) Isotopes (b) Isobars

(c) Isoelectronic (d) Isotones

82. Isobars are lines displaying areas of equal-

(a) Humidity (b) Temperature

(c) Rainfall (d) Atmospheric pressure

83. The phenomenon of radioactivity was discovered in 1898 A.D. by-

(a) Henri Becquerel (b) J.J Thomson

(c) Marie Curie (d) Pierre Curie

84. The �-particles are-

(a) High energy electrons

(b) Positively charged hydrogen ions
(c) High energy x-ray radiations
(d) double positively charged helium nuclei

85. Heavy water is used as a coolant in nuclear reactors Heavy water is

Answers are given at the bottom

(a) Water rich in minerals
(b) Ionized water
(c) Water containing minerals of heavy metal
(d) Water containing heavy isotope of hydrogen

86. Gamma rays are-

(a) high energy electrons

(b) low energy electrons
(c) high energy electromagnetic
(d) high energy positions waves

87. Nuclear fission is caused by the impact of -

 (a) Neutrons (b) Protons
(c) Deuterons (d) Electrons

88. Hydrogen bomb is based on the principal of-

(a) nuclear fission (b) nuclear fusion

(c) natural radioactivity (d) artificial radioactivity

89. In nuclear reactors the speed of neutrons is slowed down by-

(a) heavy water (b) ordinary water

(c) zinc rods (d) molten caustic soda

90. In treatment of cancer, which of the following is used-?

(a) 131�53 (b) 32�15

(c) 60��27 (d) 2�1

91. In which Eco-system Grassland is included?

(a) marine (b) Fresh Water

(c) Terrestrial (d) Artificial

92. The main pollutant responsible for Bhopal Gas Tragedy is:

(a) Methyl isocyanate (b) Bromine

Answers are given at the bottom

(c) Chlorofluro carbon (d) Chlorine

93. An organism which can monitor air pollution is:

(a) Alage (b) Fungi

(c) Bacteria (d) Lichen

94. Which among the following is a symbiosis Nitrogen-fixing bacterium?

(a) Pseudomoria (b) Rhizobium

(c) Azotobacter (d) Xanthomonas
95. The concentration of pollutants in atmosphere is generally expressed in:

(a) Parst per billion (b) Kilogram per square metre

(c) Parts per trillion (d) Parst per million

96. Which one among the following groups is the most abudant in terms of number or
species identified?

(a) Fungi (b) Green plants

(c) Bacteria (d) Insects

97. Which of the following can be found as pollutants in the drinking water in some parts
of India?

1. Arsenic
2. Sorbital
3. Dluoride
4. Formaldehyde
5. Uranium

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

(a) 1and 3 only (b) 2, 4 and 5 only

(c) 1, 3 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

98. Due to improper / indiscrimate disposal of old and used computers or their parts,

Answers are given at the bottom

which of the following are released into the environment as e-waste?

1. Beryllim 2. Cadmium
3. Chromium 4. Heptachlor
5. Mercury 6. Lead
7. Plutonium

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 3, 4, 6, and 7 only (b) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 only

(c) 2, 4, 5 and 7 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
99. Which one of the following terms describes not only the physical space occupied by
an organism, but also its functional role in the community of organism?

(a) Ecotone (b) Ecological niche

(c) Habitat (d) Home range

100. The depletion of Ozone layer is mainly due to-

(a) Radioactive rays (b) Chloroflurocarbons

(c) Volcanic Eruptions (d) Aviation fuels

Direction: - From Q101 to 110 some words are given with four options. You have
to select one option for an appropriate synonym.

101. Abortive

(a) Vain (b) Effectual

(c) Successful (d) Progressive

102. Abjure

(a) Approve (b) Adopt

(c) Revoke (d) Patronize

103. Authentic

(a) Genuine (b) Valid

Answers are given at the bottom

(c) Guaranteed (d) All of the above

104. Abettor

(a) Colleague (b) Antagonist

(c) Rival (d) Adversary

105. Charity

(a) Liberality (b) Malevolence

(c) Unkindness (d) Malignity
106. Consternation

(a) Fear (b) Peace

(c) Calm (d) Repose

107. Sympathy

(a) Clemency (b) Barbarity

(c) Cruelty (d) Persecution

108. Harmony

(a) Encounter (b) Dissenting

(c) Compatible (d) None of these

109. Immaculate

(a) Pure (b) Honorable

(c) Virtuous (d) All of the above

110. Catastrophy

(a) Misfortune (b) Disaster

(c) Both (a) & (b) (d) None of these

Direction:- From Q111 to 120 some words are given with four options. You have
to select one option for an appropriate antonym.

Answers are given at the bottom

111. Truth

(a) Caricature (b) Parody

(c) Imitation (d) All of the above

112. Repulse

(a) Hug (b) Spurn

(c) Repel (d) Displease

113. Cavity

(a) Mound (b) Hole

(c) Depth (d) Aperture
114. Chastise

(a) Punish (b) Admonish

(c) Encourage (d) Lustful

115. Contempt

(a) Praise (b) Scorn

(c) Disregard (d) Oppose

116. Decay

(a) Progress (b) Collapse

(c) Decompose (d) Coarse

117. Defer

(a) Accelerate (b) Prolong

(c) Suspend (d) Devote

118. Delicious

(a) Unsavoury (b) Tasteful

(c) Palatable (d) Ruin

119. Disdain

(a) Praise (b) Detest

Answers are given at the bottom

(c) Despise (d) Strange

120. Eliminate

(a) Accept (b) Expel

(c) Oust (d) Halting

Directions: - there are some words given to you. You all have to select an
appropriate one word from given alternatives and mark in your answer sheet.

121. One who feed on human flesh only?

(a) Cannibal (b) Omnivorous

(c) Carnivorous (d) Herbivorous
122. A lover of oneself

(a) Egoist (b) Egotist

(c) Epicure (d) Cynic

123. One hard to please

(a) Fastidious (b) Fatalist

(c) Fugitive (d) Gourmand

124. One who acts against religion?

(a) Hedonist (b) Heretic

(c) Highbrow (d) Snob

125. One who is breaker of images and traditions?

(a) Iconoclast (b) Impostor

(c) Henpecked (d) Gourmet

126. One who holds a post without salary?

(a) Honorary (b) Temporary

(c) Hypochondriac (d) Hedonist

127. One who is bad in spellings?

(a) Cacographist (b) Chauvinist

Answers are given at the bottom

(c) Bigot (d) Fanatic

128. The fear of high places

(a) Acrophobia (b) Hydrophobia

(c) Aglophobia (d) Androphobia

129. Fear of books.

(a) Biblophobia (b) Cacophobia

(c) Catrophobia (d) Cellophobia

130. Fear of thirst

 (a) Dipsophobia (b) Dipsomania
(c) Cynophobia (d) Autophobia

Directions: - find out the errors in given statements and mark in your answer
sheet.

131. I was shocked to hear (a) / that his father (b) / died of an accident (c) / No error (d)

132. I must start at dawn (a) / to reach the station (b) / in time (c) / No error (d)

133. I shall put on (a) / a note in this regard (b) / for your consideration and necessary
decision (c) / No error (d)

134. None could dare (a) / to encroach (b) / on his rights (c) / No error (d)

135. The father brought the sweets (a) / and distributed them (b) / between his five
children (c) / No error (d)

136. Raman developed the habit (a) / for sleeping late (b) / when he was staying in the
hostel (c) / No error (d)

137. It is the duty of every right thinking citizen (a) / to try to make (b) / the whole world
a happier place to live (c) / No error (d)

138. The top-ranking candidates (a) / will be appointed in senior jobs (b) / in good
companies (c) / No error (d)

139. My niece has been married (a) / with (b) / the richest man of the town (c) / No error
(d)

Answers are given at the bottom

140. The venue of examination (a) / is one mile (b) / further up the hill (c) / No error (d)

Directions:-There are some idioms and phrases given. You have to select an
appropriate meaning and mark in your answer sheet.

141. Fall foul of.

(a) To hate (b) To love

(c) To quarrel (d) Upright

142. Foot the bill

(a) Pay the bill (b) Give a tip

(c) Bear expense (d) Enjoyment
143. The fourth estate.

(a) Bollywood (b) The press

(c) The TV Anchor (d) The actors

144. Feather in one’s cap.

(a) Additional loss (b) Additional success

(c) To delay (d) To decorate

145. Grease the palm

(a) To survive (b) To bribe

(c) To gift (d) To smooth

146. Go to the dogs

(a) To be happy (b) To play with dogs

(c) To be ruined (d) To ruin

147. Give up the ghost.

(a) To think badly for someone (b) To pass away

(c) To impress the ghost (d) To hate someone

148. Great hand

(a) Expert (b) Hard worker

Answers are given at the bottom

(c) Try to achieve something (d) Introduction speech

149. Good turn.

(a) Take an appropriate turn (b) To be kind

(c) An act of kindness (d) An act of love

150. Hang together

(a) To support each other (b) To abuse each other

(c) To ask the questions (d) To give answers together
NDA Answers Keys
01 - b 02 - d 03 - d 04 - d 05 - a 06 - c 07 - b 08 - c 09 - b 10 - b
11 - b 12 - b 13 - b 14 - b 15 - a 16 - a 17 - c 18 - d 19 - a 20 - b
21 - c 22 - b 23 - d 24 - c 25 - d 26 - b 27 - c 28 - d 29 - b 30 - b
31 - d 32 - c 33 - d 34 - a 35 - b 36 - c 37 - b 38 - b 39 - d 40 - a
41 - b 42 - c 43 - b 44 - a 45 - c 46 - a 47 - c 48 - d 49 - b 50 - a
51 - a 52 - c 53 - b 54 - c 55 - d 56 - b 57 - b 58 - a 59 - c 60 - a
61 - b 62 - c 63 - d 64 - d 65 - d 66 - a 67 - d 68 - d 69 - c 70 - b
71 - c 72 - b 73 - b 74 - a 75 - a 76 - a 77 - c 78 - a 79 - a 80 - c
81 - c 82 - b 83 - a 84 - d 85 - d 86 - c 87 - a 88 - b 89 - a 90 - a
91 - c 92 - a 93 - d 94 - b 95 - d 96 - c 97 - a 98 - d 99 - b 100 - b
101 - a 102 - c 103 - d 104 - a 105 - a 106 - a 107 - a 108 - c 109 - d 110 - c
111 - d 112 - a 113 - a 114 - c 115 - a 116 - a 117 - a 118 - a 119 - a 120 - a
121 - a 122 - a 123 - a 124 - b 125 - a 126 - a 127 - a 128 - a 129 - a 130 - a
131 - c 132 - d 133 - c 134 - d 135 - c 136 - b 137 - d 138 - b 139 - b 140 - d
141 - c 142 - a 143 - b 144 - b 145 - b 146 - c 147 - b 148 - a 149 - c 150 - a

Answers are given at the bottom