BM350 Marketing Management

BM350 Marketing Management
Ashworth College
BM350 Assignment 4
ASSIGNMENT 04

Directions: Be sure to save an electronic copy of your answer before submitting it to Ashworth
College for grading. Unless otherwise stated, answer in complete sentences, and be sure to use
correct English, spelling, and grammar. Sources must be cited in APA format. Your response should
be four (4) double-spaced pages; refer to the "Assignment Format" page located on the Course Home
page for specific format requirements.
Respond to the items below.
1. Explain customer-perceived value.
2. Explain total customer satisfaction.
3. What valuable functions can brands perform for a firm?
4. Given that the power of a brand resides in the minds of consumers and how it
changes their response to marketing, there are two basic approaches to measuring
brand equity. Briefly, describe each of these approaches.
5. Incorporating the concepts discussed in this assignment, answer the following:

How does a loyal brand community support the positioning and branding of a small
business? Provide an example to support your explanation.

BM350 Assignment 8
ASSIGNMENT 08

Directions: Be sure to save an electronic copy of your answer before submitting it to Ashworth
College for grading. Unless otherwise stated, answer in complete sentences, and be sure to use
correct English, spelling, and grammar. Sources must be cited in APA format. Your response should
be four (4) double-spaced pages; refer to the "Assignment Format" page located on the Course Home
page for specific format requirements.
Respond to the items below.
Part A: With Products, Is It Form or Function?

The "form versus function" debate applies in many arenas, including marketing. Some marketers
believe that product performance is the end all and be all. Other marketers maintain that the looks,
feel, and other design elements of products are what really make the difference.
Take a position: Product functionality is the key to brand success versus product design is the key to
brand success.

Part B: Is the Right Price a Fair Price?
Prices are often set to satisfy demand or to reflect the premium that consumers are willing to pay for a
product or service. Some critics shudder, however, at the thought of $2 bottles of water, $150 running
shoes, and $500 concert tickets.
Take a position: Prices should reflect the value that consumers are willing to pay versus prices should
primarily just reflect the cost involved in making a product or service.

BM350.2.1.2 60 questions
Question-1
Cocktail lounges in restaurants are examples of:
A. differential pricing.
B. cultivating nonpeak demand.
C. complementary services.
D. reservation systems.
Question-2
A consumer products firm manufactures and sells over 200 different sizes and varieties of jams and
jellies. We can say that this manufacturer's product mix has high:
A. consistency.
B. depth.
C. intensity.
D. range.
Question-3
Services high in __________ are those services that have characteristics the buyer normally finds
hard to evaluate even after consumption.
A. trial qualities
B. search qualities
C. experience qualities
D. credence qualities
Question-4
__________ is a measure of the probability that a product will not malfunction or fail within a specified
time period.
A. Reparability
B. Durability
C. Reliability
D. Specialty
Question-5
Customers today want separate prices for each service element and they also want the right to select
the elements they want. The customers are said to be pressing for:
A. complementary services.
B. perishable services.
C. variable services.
D. unbundled services.
Question-6
A(n. __________ is defined as a distinct unit within a brand or product line distinguishable by size,
price, appearance, or some other attribute.
A. stockkeeping unit
B. inventory turn
C. individual brand
D. product type
Question-7
Unlike physical products, services cannot be seen, tasted, felt, heard, or smelled before they are
bought. This is known as the __________ aspect of services.
A. inseparability
B. intangibility
C. variability
D. perishability
Question-8
Which of the following is an example of a hybrid service?
A. Teaching
B. Car
C. Restaurant meal
D. Soap
Question-9
A computer falls into the __________ category of service mix.
A. pure tangible good

B. tangible good with accompanying services
C. hybrid
D. major service with accompanying minor goods
Question-10
__________ refer(s. to logos, symbols, characters, and slogans that service providers use in order
to make the service and its key benefits more tangible.
A. Brand engagement
B. Brand orientation
C. Brand elements
D. Brand loyalty
Question-11
Expensive equipment manufacturers not only install the equipment but also train the staff and
undertake the maintenance and repair activities of the equipment. By doing so, they are providing:
A. payment equity.
B. value-augmenting services.
C. differential pricing.
D. facilitating services.
Question-12
Josh gets his bike serviced at Dean's Garage even though there's another garage much closer to
home. He prefers Dean's because the work is usually done quickly and the staff tries to solve the
issues with the bike as soon as possible. Dean's Garage excels at which of the following five
determinants of service quality?
A. Reliability
B. Responsiveness
C. Assurance
D. Empathy
Question-13
When customers calculate the perceived economic benefits of a continuously provided service in
relationship to the economic costs, they are gauging the:
A. private equity.
B. brand equity.
C. payment equity.
D. customer-service equity.
Question-14
The __________ rates the various elements of the service bundle and identifies required actions.
A. company performance analysis

B. voice of customer measurement
C. customer factor measurement
D. importance-performance analysis
Question-15
A group of products within a product class that are closely related because they perform a similar
function, are sold to the same customer groups, are marketed through the same outlets or channels,
or fall within given price ranges is known as a:
A. product type.
B. product class.
C. need family.
D. product line.
Question-16
Industrial goods can be classified as __________, capital items, or suppliers and business services
based on their relative cost and how they enter the production process.
A. service components
B. sub-assemblies
C. accessories
D. materials and parts
Question-17
What types of goods are purchased frequently, immediately, and with minimum effort by the
consumers?
A. Specialty goods
B. Shopping goods
C. Convenience goods
D. Durable goods
Question-18
Marketers have traditionally classified products on the basis of three characteristics: __________,
tangibility, and use.
A. availability
B. affordability
C. aesthetics
D. durability
Question-19
Which of the following is a benefit of product mapping?
A. Studying market matrices

B. Integrating target markets
C. Identifying market segments
D. Educating consumers
Question-20
Capital items are long-lasting goods that facilitate developing or managing the finished product. They
include two groups: installations and:
A. natural products.
B. component materials.
C. operating supplies.
D. equipment.
Question-21
Deducting the desired profit margin from the price at which a product will sell, given its appeal and
competitors' prices, is known as:
A. overhead costing.
B. target costing.
C. activity based costing.
D. benefit analysis.
Question-22
Which of the following is the first step in setting a pricing policy?
A. Selecting a pricing method

B. Selecting the pricing objective
C. Determining demand
D. Estimating cost
Question-23
In a(n. __________, the buyer announces something he or she wants to buy, and potential sellers
compete to offer the lowest price.
A. Dutch auction with one buyer and many sellers

B. English auction with one buyer and many sellers
C. English auction with one seller and many buyers
D. sealed-bid auction
Question-24
A market-penetration pricing strategy is most suitable when:
A. a low price slows down market growth.

B. production and distribution costs fall with accumulated production experience.
C. a high price dissuades potential competitors from entering the market.
D. the market is characterized by inelastic demand.
Question-25
A retailer who holds on to a(n. __________ policy charges a constant low price with little or no price
promotions and special sales.
A. everyday low pricing

B. high-low pricing
C. low cost
D. going-rate pricing
Question-26
While shopping at the mall, Jane is asked by one of the sales representatives at the cosmetics
counter to try out a new lipstick that her company is test marketing. The company representative asks
her how much she would be willing to pay for the lipstick. After trying it out, Jane is of the opinion that
$5 is just the right price for it. What type of a reference price is Jane using?
A. Usual discounted price

B. Fair price
C. Maximum retail price
D. Last price paid
Question-27
The first step in estimating demand is to:
A. analyze competitors' cost.

B. select a pricing method.
C. understand what affects price sensitivity.
D. calculate fixed costs.
Question-28
Which of the following is the most elementary pricing method?
A. Value pricing
B. Going-rate pricing
C. Markup pricing
D. Target-return pricing
Question-29
In __________, the firm bases its price largely on competitors' prices.
A. going-rate pricing
B. auction-type pricing
C. markup pricing
D. target-return pricing
Question-30
A firm that is plagued with overcapacity, intense competition, or changing wants would do better if it
pursues __________ as its major objective.
A. market skimming
B. product-quality leadership
C. survival
D. profit maximization
Question-31
Companies that aim to __________ strive to be affordable luxuries.
A. survive in the market

B. partially recover their costs
C. maximize their market share
D. be product-quality leaders
Question-32
__________ price refers to what the consumers feel the product should cost.
A. Fair
B. Typical
C. Usual discounted
D. List
Question-33
The reservation price or the maximum that most consumers would pay for a given product is known
as the __________ price.
A. expected future
B. usual discounted
C. upper-bound
D. typical
Question-34
__________ is the cost per unit at that level of production.
A. Target cost
B. Average cost
C. Marginal cost
D. Opportunity cost
Question-35
Which of the following is true regarding price elasticity?
A. The higher the elasticity, the lesser is the volume growth resulting from a 1 percent price reduction.
B. Within the price indifference band, price changes have little or no effect on demand.
C. If demand is elastic, sellers will consider increasing the price.
D. Price elasticity does not depend on magnitude and direction of the contemplated price change.
Question-36
The decline in the average cost of production with accumulated production experience is called the:
A. demand curve.
B. supply chain.
C. learning curve.
D. value chain.
Question-37
__________ consist of the sum of the fixed and variable costs for any given level of production.
A. Total costs
B. Average costs
C. Opportunity costs
D. Learning costs
Question-38
Companies that believe that a higher sales volume leads to lower unit costs and higher long-run
profits are attempting to:
A. maximize their market share.

B. skim the market.
C. become a product-quality leader.
D. merely survive in the market.
Question-39
When a company introduces a product at a very high price and then gradually drops the price over
time, it is pursuing a __________ strategy.
A. market-penetration pricing
B. market-skimming pricing
C. value-pricing
D. switching cost
Question-40
When consumers examine products, they often compare an observed price to an internal price they
remember. This is known as a(n. __________ price.
A. markup
B. reference
C. market-skimming
D. accumulated
Question-41
The number of different persons or households exposed to a particular media schedule at least once
during a specified time period is known as:
A. range.
B. impact.
C. intensity.
D. reach.
Question-42
Which of the following is an element of an offer strategy?
A. The medium used for delivery

B. The number of customers in the locality
C. The vision of the company
D. The skills required for production
Question-43
Which of the following steps in the innovation-adoption model of marketing communications
corresponds to the cognitive stage that a buyer passes through?
A. Interest
B. Evaluation
C. Trial
D. Awareness
Question-44
__________ refers to simple exaggerations in advertisements that are not meant to be believed and
that are permitted by law.
A. Puffery
B. Boasting
C. Pseudo promotion
D. Doublethink
Question-45
Which of the following is an example of an advertising platform?
A. Posters and leaflets

B. Company magazines
C. Fairs and trade shows
D. Sales presentations
Question-46
The Internet provides marketers and consumers with opportunities for much greater interaction and
__________ than other marketing channels.
A. control
B. data security
C. high involvement selling
D. individualization
Question-47
Which of the following sequences accurately represents the hierarchy-of-effects model of marketing
communications?
A. Attention-interest-desire-action
B. Awareness-interest-evaluation-trial-adoption
C. Awareness-knowledge-liking-preference-conviction-purchase
D. Exposure-reception-cognitive response-attitude-intention-behavior
Question-48
Buzz and viral marketing both try to:
A. use unethical methods to popularize a brand.

B. market products by providing free samples to customers.
C. create a splash in the marketplace to showcase a brand.
D. induce impulse sales by displaying products close to the pay counters.
Question-49
According to researchers, which of the following is the correct order in which content of print
advertisements matter?
A. Picture-headline-copy
B. Copy-picture-headline
C. Headline-copy-picture
D. Picture-copy-headline
Question-50
__________ is the number of times the average buyer buys a product during the period.
A. Buyer turnover
B. Purchase frequency
C. Customer retention rate
D. Advertising impressions
Question-51
Which of the following is an example of a trade promotion?
A. Free samples
B. Discount coupons
C. Display allowances
D. Contests for sales reps
Question-52
Which of the following media timing factors expresses the rate at which new customers enter the
market?
A. Buyer turnover
C. Media reach
D. Weighted number of exposures
Question-53
The weighted number of exposures (WE. of an advertising message over a given medium is given by:
A. WE = reach * frequency.
B. WE = (reach * frequency. / impact.
C. WE = reach * frequency * impact.
D. WE = (reach + frequency. / impact.
Question-54
The original and oldest form of direct marketing is:
A. billboards.
B. banner advertising.
C. mail campaigns.
D. field sales calls.
Question-55
The qualitative value of an exposure through a given medium is known as:
A. frequency.
B. reach.
C. amplitude.
D. impact.
Question-56
Which of the following marketing communications tools is most influential at the maturity stage of a
product's life cycle?
A. Sales promotions
B. Direct marketing
C. Advertising
D. Publicity
Question-57
Marketing communication strategy can be decided by conducting an image analysis by profiling the
target audience in terms of:
A. brand knowledge.
B. purchase patterns.
C. demographic characteristics.
D. income levels.
Question-58
Which of the following is generally acknowledged as the most powerful advertising medium and
reaches a broad spectrum of consumers at low cost per exposure?
A. Television
B. Radio
C. Newspapers
D. Magazines
Question-59
Which of the following elements of the marketing communications mix involves a variety of short-term
incentives to encourage trial or purchase of a product or service?
A. Advertising
B. Direct marketing
C. Public relations
D. Sales promotion
Question-60
People who know and communicate with a great number of other people are called:
A. buzzers.
B. connectors.
C. informants.
D. stickers.
BM350 Marketing Management Part I

Question 1
When consumers share a strong need that cannot be satisfied by an existing product, it is called ________.
A) negative demand
B) latent demand
C) declining demand
D) irregular demand
Question 2
Consider the real estate industry. The ________ for this industry includes construction companies, financing
institutions, paint manufacturers, interior decorators, furniture manufacturers, and plumbing industries.
A) marketspace
B) latent market
C) need market
D) metamarket
Question 3
When demand is ________, it implies that more customers would like to buy the product than can be satisfied.
A) latent
B) irregular
C) overfull
D) full
Question 4
What is the traditional view of marketing?
A) Firms should just focus on production because if the products are good then they will automatically sell.
B) Firms should just focus on production and selling because marketing occurs as a part of the selling process.
C) Firms should have a proper marketing team that can increase consumers' awareness of their products and
rouse their interest in them.
D) Firms should price their products as low as possible so that marketing them becomes easy.
Question 5
The value of an offering is described as ________.
A) the price consumers are charged for a product
B) the cost of manufacturing a product
C) the degree to which consumer demand for a product is positive
D) the sum of the tangible and intangible benefits and costs to customers
Question 6
When consumers share a strong need that cannot be satisfied by an existing product, it is called ________.
A) negative demand
B) latent demand
C) declining demand
D) irregular demand
Question 7
The ________ lays out the target markets and the value proposition that will be offered, based on an analysis of
the best market opportunities.
A) organizational plan
B) strategic marketing plan
C) corporate tactical plan
D) corporate mission
Question 8
________ is a direction or sequence of events that has some momentum and durability; it reveals the shape of
the future and can provide strategic direction.
A) fad
B) fashion
c) trend
D) megatrend
Question 9
A ________ is a set of procedures and sources managers use to obtain everyday information about
developments in the marketing environment.
A) data warehousing system
B) viral marketing campaign
C) product management system
D) marketing intelligence system
Question 10
Which of the following would be the best illustration of a secondary belief or value?
A) belief in work
B) belief in giving to charity
C) belief in getting married
D) belief in getting married early
Question 11
The ________ phase of marketing research is generally the most expensive and the most prone to error.
A) data collection
B) research planning
C) questionnaire design
D) contact
Question 12
According to the concept of ________, a series of increasingly more specific "why" questions can reveal
consumer motivation and consumers' deeper, more abstract goals.
A) word association
B) projection
C) visualizing
D) laddering
Question 13
The ________ phase of marketing research is generally the most expensive and the most prone to error.
A) data collection
B) research planning
C) questionnaire design
D) contact
Question 14
The marketing research process begins by ________.
A) developing a research plan
B) defining the problem, the decision alternatives, and research objectives
C) analyzing the internal environment
D) reading marketing research journals
Question 15
Total customer satisfaction is measured based on the relationship of ________.
A) expected value and total customer benefit
B) perceived performance and expectation
C) advertised outcomes and real outcomes
D) past experience and present experience
Question 16
_______ is the process by which we select, organize, and interpret stimuli into a meaningful and coherent
picture.
A) Consumption
B) Perception
C) Acculturation
D) Assimilation
Question 17
________ is the tendency to interpret information in a way that will fit our preconceptions.
a. Selective retention
b. Cognitive dissonance
c. Selective distortion
d. Subliminal perception
Question 18
A given percentage increase in consumer demand can lead to a much larger percentage increase in the demand
for plant and equipment necessary to produce additional output. Economists refer to this as:
A) derived demand
B) inelastic demand
C) the acceleration effect
D) a straight rebuy
Question 19
A company's ________ includes all the experiences the customer will have on the way to obtaining and using
the offering.
A) value proposition
B) value delivery system
C) customer-value analysis
D) total customer benefit
Question 20
In reordering office supplies, the only stages that the buyer passes through are the product specification stage
and the ________ stage.
A) problem recognition
B) general need description
C) order-routine specification
D) performance review
Question 21
The process of building, maintaining, and using customer databases and other databases for the purpose of
contacting, transacting, and building customer relationships is called ________.
A) data warehousing
B) data mining
C) database marketing
D) participatory marketing
Question 22
Identify the four pillars of brand equity, according to brand asset valuator model.
A) relevance, performance, bonding, and advantage
B) presence, performance, advantage, and bonding
C) energized differentiation, relevance, esteem, and knowledge
D) brand salience, brand feelings, brand imagery, and brand performance
Question 23
Brand equity can be built by ________, which create(s) equity by linking the brand to other information in
memory that conveys meaning to customers.
A) internal marketing
B) brand transferability
C) secondary associations
D) customer alignment
Question 24
____ are associations designed to overcome perceived weaknesses of the brand
A) Conceptual points-of-parity
B) Category points-of-parity
C) Competitive points-of-parity
D) Competitive points-of-difference
Question 25
________ brands are positioned with respect to competitors' brands so that more important (and more
profitable) flagship brands can retain their desired positioning.
A) Flanker
B) Attacker
C) Defender
D) Simulation

BM350 Marketing Management Part II

Question 1
The first step in the strategic brand management process is ________.
A) measuring consumer brand loyalty
B) identifying and establishing brand positioning
C) planning and implementing brand marketing
D) measuring and interpreting brand performance
Question 2
The American Marketing Association defines a ________ as "a name, term, sign, symbol, or design,
or a combination of them, intended to identify the goods or services of one seller or group of sellers
and to differentiate them from those of competitors."
A) copyright
B) trademark
C) slogan
D) brand
Question 3
________ is a company's ability to perform in one or more ways that competitors cannot or will not
match.
A) Brand positioning
B) Market research
C) Competitive advantage
D) Competitor analysis
Question 4
The ________ attack offers the firm an opportunity to diversify into unrelated products, into new
geographical markets, and leapfrogging into new technologies.
A) bypass
B) flank
C) frontal
D) guerrilla
Question 5
Sony is an unusual market leader. It gives its customers new products that they have never asked for
(e.g., Walkmans, VCRs, video cameras, CDs). This makes Sony a(n) ________ firm.
A) market-driven
B) market-driving
C) operations-driven
D) vision-driven
Question 6
________ is a period of rapid market acceptance and substantial profit improvement.
A) Stagnancy
B) Introduction
C) Maturity
D) Growth
Question 7
Which of the following is true about market-nichers?
A) They are market followers in small markets.
B) They tend to have high manufacturing costs.
C) Their return on investment exceeds that in larger markets.
D) A nicher achieves high volume as against a mass marketer that achieves high margin.
Question 8
A(n) ________ is another name for identifying shifts in market segments that are causing gaps to
develop, then rushing in to fill the gaps and developing them into strong segments.
A) frontal attack strategy
B) flanking strategy
C) encircling strategy
D) counteroffensive strategy
Question 9
An alternative to being a market follower in a large market is to be a leader in a small market. This
type of competitor is called a ________.
A) marketing king
B) market nicher
C) segment king
D) guerilla marketer
Question 10
________ is the ability of a company to prepare on a large-scale basis individually designed products,
services, programs, and communications.
A) Mass customization
B) Reverse engineering
C) Interoperability
D) Backward compatibility
Question 11
A ________ is the set of all products and items a particular seller offers for sale.
A) product line
B) product mix
C) product extension
D) product system
Question 12
BRZ Shoes targets the youth market with vibrant, visually appealing ads in modern styles. BRZ ads
appeal to the ________ dimension of brand experience.
A) sensory
B) affective
C) behavioral
D) intellectual
Question 13
The ________ determinant of service quality refers to the knowledge and courtesy of employees and
their ability to convey trust and confidence in the service they provide.
A) conscientious
B) assurance
C) empathy
D) reliability
Question 14
Marketers have traditionally classified products on the basis of characteristics: ________, tangibility,
and use.
a.availability
b.affordability
c.aesthetics
d. durability
Question 15
consumers?
A) specialty goods
B) shopping goods
C) convenience goods
D) durable goods
Question 16
Costs that do not vary with production levels or sales are known as:
a. overhead costs
b. variable costs
c. average costs
d. opportunity costs
Question 17
After determining its pricing objectives, a firm should take what next logical step in setting its pricing
policy?
It should analyze its competitors' costs, prices, and offers.
It should select its pricing method.
It should select its final price.
It should determine the demand for its product.
Question 18
A company that is looking to maximize its market share would do well to follow ________ pricing.
A) markup
B) market-penetration
C) market-skimming
D) target-return
Question 19
A) selecting a pricing method
B) selecting the pricing objective
C) determining demand
D) estimating cost
Question 20
pursues ________ as its major objective.
A) market skimming
B) product-quality leadership
C) survival
D) profit maximization
Question 21
Which of the following is a form of mass communications channel?
A) interactive marketing
B) personal selling
C) public relations
D) word-of-mouth marketing
Question 22
_____ questions ask about the consequences of the buyer's problems.
a. Situation
b. Problem
c. Implication
d. Need-payoff
Question 23
________ is the time necessary to prepare a promotional program prior to launching it.
A) Sell-in time
B) Link time
C) Setup time
D) Lead time
Question 24
________ is a measure of communications effectiveness that describes the percentage of target
market exposed to a communication.
A) Frequency
B) Reach
C) Width
D) Depth
Question 25
A) sales promotions
B) direct marketing
C) advertising
D) publicity

BM350 Semester Exam
Question-1
The three essential managerial skills include:

technical, human, and empirical.
human, empirical, and conceptual.
technical, interpersonal, and controlling.
technical, human, and conceptual.
Question-2
A(n)________ is the existence of a discrepancy between an existing and a desired state of

affairs.
opportunity
solution
weakness
problem
Question-3
The quantitative approach involves applications of:

statistics, information models, and computer simulations.
psychology testing, focus groups, and mathematics.
optimization models, interviews, and questionnaires.
surveys, strategic planning, and group problem solving.
Question-4
Ethics training sessions can provide what benefit?

They clarify acceptable and unacceptable practices.
They create ego strength in employees.
They evaluate decisions and management practices in terms of the code of ethics.
They strengthen the employees' locus of control.
Question-5
Planning is often called the primary management function because it:

offers some basis for future decision making.
creates the vision for the organizational members to work toward.
establishes the basis for all the other functions.
sets the tone for the organizational culture.
Question-6
__________ teams tend to be more task-oriented especially if the team members have never
personally met.
Cross-functional
Problem-solving
Self-managed
Virtual
Question-7
A theory that suggests that employees compare their inputs and outcomes from a job to the
ratio of input to outcomes of relevant others is known as:
action motivation.
goal setting.
reinforcement theory.
equity theory.
Question-8
How would a manager motivate low-skilled, minimum-wage employees?

Offer more pay for high levels of performance
Use employee recognition programs
Provide the opportunity for training
Provide the opportunity for full-time employment
Question-9
Managers can't really know whether their work units are working properly until they've
evaluated what activities have been done:
with those who remain.
and have compared actual performance to a desired standard.
and evaluate the performance of each of their employees.
successfully.
Question-10
The prevalent thinking today is that:
organizations must make everyone fit a common corporate mold.
organizations should support, nurture, and utilize people's differences in a way that respects
employees' unique perspectives and promotes a shared vision.
employees have a single identity.
All of the above.
Question-11
When a company calculates __________, the company looks at how much profit it expects to
make from a particular customer, including each purchase he or she will make from the
company now and in the future.
customer lifetime value
customer relationship management
utility
the exchange function
Question-12
By definition, a(n) __________ is a community, nation, or group that shares common

traditions, institutions, activities, and interests.
market
society
environment
marketplace
Question-13
It is easiest for marketers to create an emotional connection between a consumer and a(n)
__________ product.
approach
augmented
core
avoidance
Question-14
Information collected from government publications is an example of __________ data.

primary
secondary
observational
experimental
Question-15
A __________ is a promise to deliver specific benefits associated with products or services to

consumers.
service
brand
license
patent
Question-16
Which type of segmentation is MOST related to the use of the word when, such as when
consumers get the idea to buy, when they actually make their purchase, or when they use the
purchased item?
Behavioral
Psychographic
Needs
Impulse
Question-17
Multisegment marketing is likely to __________ and __________.

increase research costs; decrease shipping costs
decrease resale value; increase sales volume
increase sales potential; increase costs
increase sales potential, decrease costs
Question-18
Demand would MOST likely be inelastic for which of the following?

Lamb chops and T-bone steaks
Gourmet cheese
Basic necessities
Luxury watches

Question-19
Financial services provider USAA sends materials about teaching teenagers how to drive
safely to USAA customers who have children approaching driving eligibility age. USAA is
using __________ information from a customer database to determine which customers
should receive the materials.
demographic
geographic
psychographic
behavioral
Question-20
Some television shows have shown actors drinking a cup of Starbucks coffee. In these
instances, Starbucks has chosen __________ as a marketing tool.
networking
direct marketing
broadcast advertising
branded entertainment
Question-21
Which of the following are a manager's three primary responsibilities?

Planning, Directing, Controlling
Budgeting, Planning, Controlling
Budgeting, Directing, Controlling
Budgeting, Planning, Directing
Question-22
All of the following are ethical principles identified in the IMA's Statement of Ethical
Professional Practice except:
honesty.
teamwork.
objectivity.
responsibility.

Question-23
Which of the following companies would use a job costing system?

Health care provider
Crayon manufacturing company
Potato chip manufacturing corporation
Spring water bottling company
Question-24
When selecting a manufacturing overhead allocation base, managers should select the:
number of products produced.
activity-based products.
cost driver of those manufacturing overhead costs.
same number used in prior years.
Question-25
Conversion costs include:

direct labor and manufacturing overhead.
manufacturing overhead only.
direct materials and direct labor.
direct materials and manufacturing overhead.
Question-26
If the sales price is $20 per unit, the variable cost is $12 per unit, total fixed costs are
$12,000, and 15,000 units are produced, the contribution margin per unit is:
20
9
12
8
Question-27
Which of the following budgets is the comprehensive planning document for the entire
organization?
Sales budget
Capital expenditure budget
Master budget
Budgeting income statement
Question-28
Which of the following is a true statement regarding fixed overhead volume variance?
If production volume is less than anticipated, then fixed overhead has been under allocated
and the fixed overhead volume variance is favorable.
If production volume is less than anticipated, then fixed overhead has been under allocated
and the fixed overhead volume variance is unfavorable.
If production volume is greater than anticipated, then fixed overhead has been under
allocated and the fixed overhead volume variance is favorable.
If production volume is greater than anticipated, then fixed overhead has been over allocated
and the fixed overhead volume variance is unfavorable.
Question-29
Which of the following is a cash equivalent?

Accounts receivable
Certificates of deposit that mature in less than three months
Certificates of deposit that mature in one year or less
Prepaid expenses
Question-30
All of the following are business reasons for adopting environmentally sustainable practices
except:
cost reduction.
competitive strategy.
stakeholder influence.
historical orientation of accounting.
Question-31
The science of ________ was developed by applying general concepts to a particular

situation, person, or group.
Organizational Behavior
Anthropology
Psychology
Sociology

Question-32
Organizational behavior is a field of study that investigates the impact the individuals,
groups, and structure have on behavior within organizations, for the purpose of applying such
knowledge toward improving:
an organization's effectiveness.
an organization's social responsibilities.
the manager's pay.
the quality of the firm's products.
Question-33
Which of the following is an example of an affective attitude?

Believing that you did a good job
The observation that most dogs have four legs
The opinion that it is never acceptable to steal
Anger at being unfairly accused of a wrongdoing
Question-34
Which of the following terms indicates the degree to which people like or dislike themselves?
Core self-evaluation
Authoritarianism
Self-monitoring
Machiavellianism
Question-35
What is the main strength of job rotation?

It eliminates management involvement.
It increases motivation.
It increases productivity.
It decreases training costs.
Question-36
Which of the following is a group decision-making technique?

Mind mapping
Brainstorming
Lateral thinking
Group polarization
Question-37
Which theory of leadership proposes that followers attribute heroic or extraordinary

leadership abilities when they observe certain behaviors?
Charismatic leadership theory
Authentic leadership theory
Transactional leadership theory
Attributional leadership theory
Question-38
According to the traditional view of conflict, conflict is:

harmful.
natural.
necessary.
healthy.
Question-39
You describe to your students a new committee within the university that brings together
specialists from all different departments to develop a new interdisciplinary program. The
structure of the committee best meets the definition of the:
matrix structure.
simple structure.
boundaryless organization.
virtual organization.
Question-40
________ refers to the degree to which jobs within the organization are standardized.
Formalization
Decentralization
Departmentalization
Span of control
Question-41
Oak Construction Company built 128 houses in Hilltop Estates. If the company built 7 times
as many colonial style houses as ranch style houses, how many ranch style houses were
erected?
14
21
16
24
Question-42
Calculate the weighted mean for the following data: value=10, weight=2; value=12,
weight=6; value=15, weight=8; value=18, weight=6; value=20, weight=2
36
4.8
24
15
Question-43
This year Bronson's Tire Co. reported assets of $545,350 which is $120,640 more than last
year. If owner's equity was $192,500 last year, what was the amount of liabilities reported on
last year's balance sheet?
$232,210
$473,490
$352,850
$427,930
Question-44
Laser Printing and Graphics offers cash discounts of 2/15, 1/20, n/30 to customers on all
purchases. A customer purchased $18,000 of merchandise on May 20. What is the amount of
the net payment if the invoice was paid on June 8?
$17,640
$18,000
$17,820
$16,200
Question-45
Matt Stinson invested $4,000 in a simple interest account paying 5.5% per year. If he
received $385 in interest, how long did he leave the money in the investment? (Express your
answer to the nearest hundredth of a year.)
21 months
1.5 years
21 weeks
175 days
Question-46
Junko Kiera borrowed $13,000 at a discount loan rate of 12% for 30 months. Determine the
true interest rate of Junko's loan.
0.171
0.152
0.133
0.141
Question-47
Klemson High-Tech Industries borrowed $65,000 for three years at 14% compounded semi-
annually. How much interest will they pay on the loan when they pay it off at the end of the
term of the loan? (Express your answer to the nearest cent.)
$32,547.52
$14,627.80
$9,100.00
$32,306.73
Question-48
Determine the future value of an ordinary annuity paying 10% quarterly for nine years if
quarterly deposits of $450 are made throughout the nine years.
$25,785.64
$29,830.08
$4,479.53
$6,813.19
Question-49
An asset was purchased on January 3rd costing $75,000 with a salvage value of $2,800 and
an estimated useful life of five years. Find the depreciation expense using the straight-line
method.
$15,000
$15,440
$14,440
$13,750
Question-50
Mahalyk's Water Fun Shoppe specializes in jet skis. Mahalyk's inventory records showed the
following for the past year: purchased 30 jetskis on February 10th at a cost of $4,000 per
jetski; purchased 100 jetskis on May 12th at a cost of $3,000 per jetski; purchased 20 jetskis
on June 15th at a cost of $3,500 per jetski; purchased 50 jetskis on July 20th at a cost of
$2,500 per jetski Use the Average Cost Method to determine Mahalyk's value of ending
inventory at the end of July if they had 75 jetskis left in inventory.
$230,625
$210,000
$255,000
$187,500

BM350 Lesson 1 Exam SCORE 100 PERCENT

Question 1 (5 points)
Question 1
Janet is very upset that she can't get tickets to the Rolling Stones concert because they are sold out.
Which of the following demand states applies to Janet's situation?
a) Nonexistent demand
b) Latent demand
c) Full demand
d) Overfull demand
Question 2
The __________ environment includes the actors involved in producing, distributing, and promoting
an offering. The main actors are the company, suppliers, distributors, dealers, and the target
customers.
a) economic
b) management
c) strategic
d) task
Question 3
The __________ in the value chain cover the sequence of bringing materials into the business
(inbound logistics), converting them into final products (operations), shipping out final products
(outbound logistics), marketing them (marketing and sales), and servicing them (service).
a) operations processes
b) manufacturing processes
c) primary activities
d) secondary activities
Question 4
The success of online purchasing resulted in __________ in the delivery of products and services by
intervening in the traditional flow of goods through distribution channels.
a) disintermediation
b) diversification
c) reduced competition
d) deregulation
Question 5
When companies measure the number of people who are willing and able to buy their products, they
are measuring:
a) demand.
b) price elasticity.
c) real needs.
d) standard of living.
Question 6
Juan Garcia plans the daily promotional releases about his company's products and services. He can
be described as a __________ planner.
a) strategic
b) selective
c) tactical
d) niche
Question 7
As economies advance, a growing proportion of their activities focuses on the production of:
a) products.
b) events.
c) experiences.
d) services.
Question 8
The actual and potential rival offerings and substitutes that a buyer might consider are referred to as
the:
a) competition.
b) integrated market.
c) supply chain.
d) marketspace.
Question 9
The value of an offering is described as the:
a) price consumers are charged for a product.
b) cost of manufacturing a product.
c) degree to which consumer demand for a product is positive.
d) sum of the tangible and intangible benefits and costs to customers.
Question 10
Which of the following holds that consumers prefer products that are widely available and
inexpensive?
a) The product concept
b) The production concept
c) The selling concept
d) The marketing concept
Question 11
The __________ lays out the target markets and the value proposition that will be offered, based on
an analysis of the best market opportunities.
a) organizational plan
b) strategic marketing plan
c) corporate tactical plan
d) corporate mission
Question 12
If a marketer uses warehouses, transportation companies, banks, and insurance companies to
facilitate transactions with potential buyers, the marketer is using a _____ channel.
a) service
b) distribution
c) communication
d) relationship
Question 13
Michael Porter's value chain would identify which of the following as a support activity?
a) Shipping out final products
b) Marketing products
c) Procurement
d) Servicing products
Question 14
The holistic marketing framework is designed to address three key management questions. Which of
the following is one of those questions?
a) Value claims-how does the company deal with value clutter?
b) Value proposition-how can value propositions be made profitable?
c) Value erosion-are there weak links in the company's value chain?
d) Value exploration-how can a company identify new value opportunities?
Question 15
A(n) __________ strategy is when a company might seek new businesses that have no relationship
to its current technology, products, or markets.
a) concentric
b) conglomerate
c) horizontal
d) intensive growth
Question 16
Which of the following is one of the five major characteristics of good mission statements?
a) They focus on a large number of goals.

b) They expand the range of individual employee discretion.
c) They define the major competitive spheres within which the company will operate.
d) They take a short-term view.
Question 17
James Frank has been put in charge of gathering marketing intelligence, disseminating it within his
organization, and eventually directing action on the information. Mr. Frank's task is best described as
part of the _____ process.
a) market-sensing
b) new-offering realization
c) customer acquisition
d) customer relationship management
Question 18
The __________ is the channel stretching from raw materials to components to final products that are
carried to final buyers.
a) communication channel
b) distribution channel
c) supply chain
d) service chain
Question 19
__________ allows the company to discover who its target markets are, how they behave, and what
they need or want. It also enables the company to respond appropriately, coherently, and quickly to
different customer opportunities.
a) Total quality management
b) Supply chain management
c) Marketing management
d) Customer relationship management
Question 20
The last step in the value creation and delivery sequence is __________ the value where the sales
force, sales promotion, advertising, and other communication tools announce and promote the
product.
a) developing
b) positioning
c) communicating
d) reversing


Question 1
__________ attached to television sets in participating homes now record when the set is on and to
which channel it is tuned.
Question options:

a) Tachistoscopes

b) Polygraphs

c) Audiometers

d) GPS systems
Question 2
The marketing research process begins by:
Question options:

a) developing a research plan.

b) defining the problem, the decision alternatives, and research objectives.

c) analyzing the internal environment.

d) reading marketing research journals.
Question 3
__________ analyze(s) data from a variety of sources, such as retailer scanner data, company
shipment data, pricing, media, and promotion spending data, to understand more precisely the effects
of specific marketing activities.
Question options:

a) Marketing metrics

b) Marketing-mix models

c) Marketing forecasting

d) Marketing intelligence databases
Question 4
__________ beliefs and values are passed from parents to children and reinforced by social
institutions-schools, churches, businesses, and governments; they are very difficult to change.
Question options:

a) Transient

b) Secondary

c) Core

d) Protected
Question 5
__________ data are data that were collected for another purpose and already exist.
Question options:

a) Primary

b) Secondary

c) Primitive

d) Cross-sectional
Question 6
The demand estimates of an organization are comprised of five space levels: They are world, country,
region, territory, and:
Question options:

a) zone.

b) organization.

c) customer.

d) product.
Question 7
__________ is the systematic design, collection, analysis, and reporting of data and findings relevant
to a specific marketing situation facing the company.
Question options:

a) Marketing communications

b) Internal marketing

c) Marketing research

d) Market segmentation
Question 8
The sites which offer positive or negative product or service reviews and are built by the retailers of a
particular product or service are called:
Question options:

a) combo sites.

b) distributor or sales agent feedback sites.

c) public blogs.

d) independent service review forums.
Question 9
The __________ market is the set of consumers with an adequate interest, income, and access to a
particular offer.
Question options:

a) potential

b) available

c) target

d) penetrated
Question 10
The most scientifically valid research is __________ research.
Question options:

a) observation

b) focus-group

c) survey

d) experimental
Question 11
__________ refer to groups of individuals who are born during the same time period and travel
through life together.
Question options:

a) Cohorts

b) Populations

c) Clans

d) Societies
Question 12
If the goal of marketing research is to shed light on the real nature of a problem and to suggest
possible solutions or new ideas, the research is said to be:
Question options:

a) descriptive.

b) quantitative.

c) primary.

d) exploratory.
Question 13
People vary in their views of society and their consumption patterns often reflect their social attitudes.
__________ usually live more frugally, drive smaller cars, and wear simpler clothing.
Question options:

a) Makers

b) Escapers

c) Seekers

d) Changers
Question 14
In the United States, people born between the years __________ are called baby boomers.
Question options:

a) 1978 and 2002

b) 1946 and 1964

c) 1925 and 1945

d) 1965 and 1985
Question 15
When a company is said to have engaged in "greenwashing," it means that the:
Question options:

a) company has significantly changed its business processes to incorporate a greener, more
environmentally friendly philosophy.

b) company has moved its production facilities to countries where environmental laws and
regulations are less rigorous.

c) company has changed its "green" image in order to appeal to a different, usually older,
demographic.

d) company's products are not nearly as green and environmentally beneficial as its marketing
might suggest.
Question 16
The __________ begins with sales representatives and dealers sending orders to firms and is
followed by the sales department preparing invoices, and finally generating shipping and billing
documents which are then sent to various departments.
Question options:

a) payroll system

b) market research process

c) human resources system

d) order-to-payment cycle
Question 17
Which of the following economies provide limited opportunities to international marketers to develop
product sales?
Question options:

a) Capitalist economies

b) Subsistence economies

c) Raw-materials-exporting economies

d) Industrializing economies
Question 18
A company can take several steps to improve the quality of its marketing intelligence. If the company
purchases competitive products for study, attends open houses and trade shows, and reads
competitors' published reports and stockholder information, the company is using __________ to
improve the quality of its marketing intelligence.
Question options:

a) sales-force surrogates

b) intermediaries

c) external networks

d) advisory panels
Question 19
A scale that connects two bipolar words is called a:
Question options:

a) semantic differential.

b) multiple-choice question.

c) Likert scale.

d) dichotomous question.
Question 20
According to the concept of __________, a series of increasingly more specific "why" questions can
reveal consumer motivation and consumers' deeper, more abstract goals.
Question options:

a) word association

b) projection

c) visualizing

d) laddering

BM350 Week 3 Threaded Discussion

Compare and contrast B2B marketing with B2C marketing. Choose whether you would rather be engaged in
B2B or B2C marketing. Support your choice.
(291 words, 1 reference)

BM350 Lessons 4 & 5 Exam SCORE 97.5 PERCENT

Quiz
Note: It is recommended that you save your response as you complete each question.

Question 1 (2.5 points)
__________ defines which other brands a brand competes with and therefore which brands should
be the focus of competitive analysis.
Question 1 options:
a) Consumer profitability analysis
b) Competitor indexing
c) The service blueprint
d) The competitive frame of reference
__________ are product associations that are not necessarily unique to the brand but may in fact be
shared with other brands.
Question 2 options:
a) Points-of-parity
b) Points-of-difference
c) Points-of-inflection
d) Points-of-presence
__________ is a company's ability to perform in one or more ways that competitors cannot or will
not match.
Question 3 options:
a) Brand positioning

b) Market research
c) Competitive advantage
d) Competitor analysis
The American Marketing Association defines a __________ as "a name, term, sign, symbol, or
design, or a combination of them, intended to identify the goods or services of one seller or group of
sellers and to differentiate them from those of competitors."
Question 4 options:
a) copyright
b) trademark
c) slogan
d) brand
According to BrandAsset Valuator model, leadership brands show:

Question 5 options:
a) high levels of energy, differentiation, relevance, knowledge, and esteem.
b) higher levels of esteem and knowledge than relevance, whereas both differentiation and
energy are lower still.
c) higher levels of differentiation and energy than relevance, whereas both esteem and knowledge
are lower still.
d) low levels on energy, differentiation, relevance, knowledge, and esteem.
__________ brand equity is the differential effect that brand knowledge has on consumer response
to the marketing of that brand.
Question 6 options:
a) Mission-driven
b) Customer-based
c) Product-driven
d) Service-driven
A supplier creates better information systems, and introduces bar coding, mixed pallets, and other
methods of helping the consumer. The supplier is most likely to be differentiated on its:
Question 7 options:
a) innovativeness.
b) reliability.
c) insensitivity.
d) resilience.
Marketers typically focus on brand __________ in choosing the points-of-parity and points-of-
difference that make up their brand positioning.
Question 8 options:
a) equity
b) awareness
c) benefits
d) architecture
Brand __________ is the added value endowed to products and services.

Question 9 options:
a) loyalty
b) equity
c) preference
d) identity
Brand __________ are devices that can be trademarked and serve to identify and differentiate the
brand.
Question 10 options:
a) elements
b) value propositions
c) perceptions
d) images
Competitive superiority and channel support are factors that influence the __________ multiplier of
the brand value chain.
a) program
b) customer
c) brand
d) profit
Brand salience:
a) is customers' emotional responses and reactions with respect to the brand.
b) is how often and how easily customers think of the brand under various purchase or
consumption situations.
c) is how well the product or service meets customers' functional needs.
d) describes the extrinsic properties of the product or service, including the ways in which the
brand attempts to meet customers' psychological or social needs.
Brand __________ are short, three- to five-word phrases that capture the irrefutable essence or
spirit of the brand positioning and ensure that the company's own employees understand what the
brand represents.
a) mantras
b) symbols
c) logos
d) alliances
Which of the following statements about the branding guidelines for a small business is TRUE?
a) A small business must creatively conduct low-cost marketing research.
b) A small business must avoid leveraging secondary brand associations.
c) A small business must separate the well-integrated brand elements to enhance both brand
awareness and brand image.
d) A small business must disintegrate the brand elements to maximize the contribution of each of
the three main sets of brand equity drivers.
Which of the following value creation processes means translating milestones into symbols and
artifacts?
a) Staking
b) Evangelizing
c) Milestoning
d) Badging
A brand __________ can be defined as any information-bearing experience a customer or prospect

has with the brand, the product category, or the market that relates to the marketer's product or
service.
a) value
b) personality
c) trait
d) contact
__________ branding consists of activities and processes that help inform and inspire employees
about brands.
a) Internal
b) Personal
c) Individual
d) External
With respect to the "six brand building blocks," brand __________ signifies how well the product or
service meets customers' functional needs.
a) judgment
b) imagery
c) salience
d) performance
__________ are attributes or benefits that consumers view as essential to a legitimate and credible
offering within a certain product or service class.
a) Category points-of-difference
b) Conceptual points-of-parity
c) Competitive points-of-parity
d) Category points-of-parity
Brand __________ is the job of estimating the total financial worth of the brand.
a) tracking
b) auditing
c) equity
d) valuation

When the total market expands, the market __________ usually gains the most.
a) challenger
b) leader
c) follower
d) nicher
type of competitor is called a:
a) marketing king.
b) market nicher.
c) segment king.
d) guerilla marketer.
When firms look for new users in groups that have never used the product before, the firm is using
the __________ strategy.
a) new-market segment
b) market-penetration
c) geographical-expansion
d) product development
Which of the following marketing strategies requires either identifying additional opportunities to
use the brand in the same basic way or identifying completely new and different ways to use the
brand?
a) Increasing the amount of consumption
b) Decreasing the level of consumption
c) Increasing dedication to consumption
d) Increasing frequency of consumption
The __________ attack attempts to capture a significant share of the consumer market by launching
a grand offensive on several fronts.
a) frontal
b) bypass
c) flank
d) encirclement
Which of the following is the MOST constructive response a market leader can make when
defending its market share?
a) Maintain basic cost control
b) Innovate continuously
c) Provide desired benefits
d) Meet challengers with a swift response

In __________ defense, the market leader stretches its domain over new territories that can serve
as future centers for defense and offense.
a) counteroffensive
b) flank
c) contraction
d) mobile
Which of the following is TRUE about proactive marketing?

a) A company needs creative anticipation to see the writing on the wall.
b) Proactive companies create new offers to serve unmet and unknown consumer needs.
c) Proactive companies refrain from practicing uncertainty management.
d) A company needs responsive anticipation to devise innovative solutions.
As a market follower strategy, the __________ duplicates the leader's product and packages and
sells it on the black market or through disreputable dealers.
a) innovator
b) counterfeiter
c) imitator
d) adapter
If Microsoft announces plans for a new-product development, smaller firms may choose to
concentrate their development efforts in other directions to avoid head-to-head competition. In this
example, Microsoft is employing a __________ defense strategy.
a) preemptive
b) counteroffensive
c) mobile
d) flank
A firm that is willing to maintain its market share, and not attack the leader and other competitors in
an aggressive bid for further market share, is known as a market:
a) challenger.
b) leader.
c) follower.
d) nicher.
A market leader on the lookout for more usage from existing customers should focus on increasing
the frequency of consumption and:
a) decreasing the product price.
b) the product line.
c) the amount of consumption.
d) decreasing production turnover time.
A(n) __________ strategy is another name for identifying shifts in market segments that are causing
gaps to develop, then rushing in to fill the gaps and developing them into strong segments.
a) frontal attack
b) flanking
c) encircling
d) counteroffensive
Aron, a company manufacturing snack food and soft drinks, replicates its product taste and
packaging from Lay's, a market leader in snack food industry. Later, it sells these imitated products
on the black market. This is an example of:
a) cloning.
b) imitating.
c) counterfeiting.
d) adapting.
The __________ attack can be used when the challenger spots areas where the opponent is
underperforming.
a) encirclement
b) frontal
c) flank-geographic
d) backwards-flank
__________ defense is an aggressive maneuver where the firm attacks first, perhaps with guerrilla
action across the market, keeping everyone off-balance.
a) Position
b) Flank
c) Contraction
d) Preemptive

In a __________ defense strategy, the market leader can meet the attacker frontally and hit its flank,
or launch a pincer movement so that it's forced to pull back to defend itself.
a) position
b) counteroffensive
c) preemptive
d) contraction

A(n) __________ marketer looks ahead to needs customers may have in the near future.
a) anticipative
b) creative
c) inexperienced
d) responsive

When large companies can no longer defend all their territory, they launch a __________ defense
where they give up weaker markets and reassign resources to stronger ones.
a) contraction
b) preemptive
c) flank
d) mobile

Clorox runs ads stressing the many benefits of its bleach-such as how it eliminates kitchen odors-in
order to generate additional opportunities to use the brand in the same basic way. This is an attempt
to increase the _____ of consumption.
a) amount
b) level
c) perception
d) frequency

BM350 B2B buying process

Imagine that you are a B2B sales consultant. What steps are there in the B2B buying process? In
which of these steps might you be able to provide guidance and/or influence the buying decision?
How?
(215 words)

BM350 Exam-1
Question-1
A __________ is a cluster of complementary products and services that are closely related in the minds of
consumers but are spread across a diverse set of industries.
A. metamarket
B. vertically integrated market
C. horizontally integrated market
D. marketspace
Question-2
When eBay and Amazon.com cut out the majority of middlemen that normally would participate in the
exchange process, it is an example of:
A. deregulation.
B. reverse auctioning.
C. reintermediation.
D. disintermediation.
Question-3
As economies advance, a growing proportion of their activities focuses on the production of:
A. products.
B. events.
C. experiences.
D. services.
Question-4
Michael Porter's value chain would identify which of the following as a support activity?
A. Shipping out final products

B. Marketing products
C. Procurement
D. Servicing products
Question-5
__________ goods constitute the bulk of most countries' production and marketing efforts.
A. Durable
B. Impulse
C. Physical
D. Luxury
Question-6
The value of an offering is described as:
A. the price consumers are charged for a product.

B. the cost of manufacturing a product.
C. the degree to which consumer demand for a product is positive.
D. the sum of the tangible and intangible benefits and costs to customers.
Question-7
The __________ is the channel stretching from raw materials to components to final products that are carried to
final buyers.
A. communication channel
B. distribution channel
C. supply chain
D. service chain
Question-8
Companies address needs by putting forth a __________, a set of benefits that they offer to customers to satisfy
their needs.
A. brand
B. value proposition
C. deal
D. marketing plan
Question-9
Juan Garcia plans the daily promotional releases about his company's products and services. He can be
described as a __________ planner.
A. strategic
B. selective
C. tactical
D. niche
Question-10
Which of the following is one of the five major characteristics of good mission statements?
A. They focus on a large number of goals.

B. They expand the range of individual employee discretion.
C. They define the major competitive spheres within which the company will operate.
D. They take a short-term view.
Question-11
Rising promotion costs and shrinking profit margins are the result of:
A. new and improved technology.

B. disintermediation.
C. industry convergence.
D. heightened competition.
Question-12
The __________ lays out the target markets and the value proposition that will be offered, based on an analysis
of the best market opportunities.
A. organizational plan
B. strategic marketing plan
C. corporate tactical plan
D. corporate mission
Question-13
The success of online purchasing resulted in __________ in the delivery of products and services by intervening
in the traditional flow of goods through distribution channels.
A. disintermediation
B. diversification
C. reduced competition
D. deregulation
Question-14
When companies measure the number of people who are willing and able to buy their products, they are
measuring:
A. demand.
B. price elasticity.
C. real needs.
D. standard of living.
Question-15
James Frank has been put in charge of gathering marketing intelligence, disseminating it within his organization,
and eventually directing action on the information. Mr. Frank's task is best described as part of the:
A. market-sensing process.
B. new-offering realization process.
C. customer acquisition process.
D. customer relationship management process.
Question-16
What are hollow corporations?
A. Companies that market their products through franchisees

B. Companies that have liabilities exceeding their assets
C. Companies that outsource all production to suppliers
D. Companies that do not have any physical presence and only operate online
Question-17
A characteristic of a __________ is that it can be a single business or collection of related businesses that can be
planned separately from the rest of the company.
A. strategic business unit

B. subsidiary unit
C. merged unit
D. niche market unit
Question-18
If a marketer uses warehouses, transportation companies, banks, and insurance companies to facilitate
transactions with potential buyers, the marketer is using a:
A. service channel.
B. distribution channel.
C. communication channel.
D. relationship channel.
Question-19
A(n) __________ is when a company might seek new businesses that have no
relationship to its current technology, products, or markets.
A. concentric strategy
B. diversification strategy
C. horizontal strategy
D. intensive growth strategy
Question-20
The __________ in the value chain cover the sequence of bringing materials into the business (inbound
logistics), converting them into final products (operations), shipping out final products (outbound logistics),
marketing them (marketing and sales), and servicing them (service).
A. operations processes
B. manufacturing processes
C. primary activities
D. secondary activities
BM350 Online Exam-2

Question-1
__________ attached to television sets in participating homes now record when the set is on and to
which channel it is tuned.
A. Tachistoscopes
B. Polygraphs
C. GPS systems
D. Audiometers
Question-2
The marketing research process begins by:
A. developing a research plan.

B. defining the problem, the decision alternatives, and research objectives.
C. analyzing the internal environment.
D. reading marketing research journals.
Question-3
A company can take several steps to improve the quality of its marketing intelligence. If the company
purchases competitive products for study, attends open houses and trade shows, and reads
competitors' published reports and stockholder information, the company is using __________ to
improve the quality of its marketing intelligence.
A. sales-force surrogates
B. intermediaries
C. external networks
D. advisory panels
Question-4
The sites which offer positive or negative product or service reviews and are built by the retailers of a
particular product or service are called:
A. combo sites.
B. distributor or sales agent feedback sites.
C. public blogs.
D. independent service review forums.
Question-5
The internal records system supplies results data, but the marketing intelligence system supplies
__________ data.
A. internal
B. revenue
C. thematic
D. happenings
Question-6
__________ beliefs and values are passed from parents to children and reinforced by social
institutions—schools, churches, businesses, and governments; they are very difficult to change.
A. Transient
B. Secondary
C. Protected
D. Core
Question-7
According to the concept of __________, a series of increasingly more specific "why" questions can
reveal consumer motivation and consumers' deeper, more abstract goals.
A. word association
B. projection
C. visualizing
D. laddering
Question-8
If the goal of marketing research is to shed light on the real nature of a problem and to suggest
possible solutions or new ideas, the research is said to be:
A. descriptive.
B. quantitative.
C. primary.
D. exploratory.
Question-9
The consumer environmental segment termed __________ claims to be knowledgeable about
environmental issues, but does not express pro-green attitudes or behaviors. Indeed, it is practically
hostile toward pro-environmental ideas. This segment has chosen to reject prevailing notions about
environmental protection and may even be viewed as a potential threat to green initiatives.
A. not me greens
B. business first greens
C. mean greens
D. go-with-the-flow greens
Question-10
__________ are data that were collected for another purpose and already exist.
A. Primary data
B. Secondary data
C. Primitive data
D. Cross-sectional data
Question-11
The heart of the internal records system is the:
A. payroll system.
B. purchase order cycle.
C. order-to-payment cycle.
D. expense cycle.
Question-12
__________ approach uses concepts and tools from anthropology and other social science
disciplines to provide deep cultural understanding of how people live and work.
A. Cognitive research
B. Inductive research
C. Archaeological research
D. Ethnographic research
Question-13
__________ analyze(s) data from a variety of sources, such as retailer scanner data, company
shipment data, pricing, media, and promotion spending data, to understand more precisely the effects
of specific marketing activities.
A. Marketing metrics
B. Marketing-mix models
C. Marketing forecasting
D. Marketing intelligence databases
Question-14
__________ is the systematic design, collection, analysis, and reporting of data and findings relevant
to a specific marketing situation facing the company.
A. Marketing communications
B. Internal marketing
C. Marketing research
D. Market segmentation
Question-15
In which of the following types of tests is a picture presented and respondents are asked to make up a
story about what they think is happening or may happen in the picture?
A. Visual perception test

B. Rorschach ink-blot test
C. Story completion test
D. Thematic Apperception Test
Question-16
__________ refer to groups of individuals who are born during the same time period and travel
through life together.
A. Cohorts
B. Populations
C. Clans
D. Societies
Question-17
A field-service firm is a:
A. custom marketing research firm.

B. syndicated-service research firm.
C. specialty-line marketing research firm.
D. consumer marketing research firm.
Question-18
The __________ market is the set of consumers with an adequate interest, income, and access to a
particular offer.
A. potential
B. available
C. target
D. penetrated
Question-19
Why must the researchers avoid generalizing from focus-group participants to the whole market?
A. Participants' responses are not reliable.

B. Most of the participants are likely to be ignorant about the topic of discussion.
C. The size of the group is too small and the sample is not drawn randomly.
D. Most of the participants are likely to exhibit similar tastes and preferences.
Question-20
The most scientifically valid research is __________ research.
A. observation
B. focus-group
C. survey
D. experimental
BM350 Online Exam-3

Question-1
A. differential pricing.
B. cultivating nonpeak demand.
C. complementary services.
D. reservation systems.
Question-2
A consumer products firm manufactures and sells over 200 different sizes and varieties of jams and
jellies. We can say that this manufacturer's product mix has high:
A. consistency.
B. depth.
C. intensity.
D. range.
Question-3
Services high in __________ are those services that have characteristics the buyer normally finds
hard to evaluate even after consumption.
A. trial qualities
B. search qualities
C. experience qualities
D. credence qualities
Question-4
__________ is a measure of the probability that a product will not malfunction or fail within a
specified time period.
A. Reparability
B. Durability
C. Reliability
D. Specialty
Question-5
Customers today want separate prices for each service element and they also want the right to
select the elements they want. The customers are said to be pressing for:
A. complementary services.
B. perishable services.
C. variable services.
D. unbundled services.
Question-6
A(n. __________ is defined as a distinct unit within a brand or product line distinguishable by size,
price, appearance, or some other attribute.
A. stockkeeping unit
B. inventory turn
C. individual brand
D. product type
Question-7
Unlike physical products, services cannot be seen, tasted, felt, heard, or smelled before they are
bought. This is known as the __________ aspect of services.
A. inseparability
B. intangibility
C. variability
D. perishability
Question-8
A. Teaching
B. Car
C. Restaurant meal
D. Soap

Question-9
A computer falls into the __________ category of service mix.
A. pure tangible good
B. tangible good with accompanying services
C. hybrid
D. major service with accompanying minor goods
Question-10
__________ refer(s. to logos, symbols, characters, and slogans that service providers use in order
to make the service and its key benefits more tangible.
A. Brand engagement
B. Brand orientation
C. Brand elements
D. Brand loyalty
Question-11
Expensive equipment manufacturers not only install the equipment but also train the staff and
undertake the maintenance and repair activities of the equipment. By doing so, they are providing:
A. payment equity.
B. value-augmenting services.
C. differential pricing.
D. facilitating services.

Question-12
Josh gets his bike serviced at Dean's Garage even though there's another garage much closer to
home. He prefers Dean's because the work is usually done quickly and the staff tries to solve the
issues with the bike as soon as possible. Dean's Garage excels at which of the following five
determinants of service quality?
A. Reliability
B. Responsiveness
C. Assurance
D. Empathy
Question-13
When customers calculate the perceived economic benefits of a continuously provided service in
relationship to the economic costs, they are gauging the:
A. private equity.
B. brand equity.
C. payment equity.
D. customer-service equity.
Question-14
The __________ rates the various elements of the service bundle and identifies required actions.
A. company performance analysis
B. voice of customer measurement
C. customer factor measurement
D. importance-performance analysis
Question-15
A group of products within a product class that are closely related because they perform a similar
function, are sold to the same customer groups, are marketed through the same outlets or channels,
or fall within given price ranges is known as a:
A. product type.
B. product class.
C. need family.
D. product line.
Question-16
Industrial goods can be classified as __________, capital items, or suppliers and business services
based on their relative cost and how they enter the production process.
A. service components
B. sub-assemblies
C. accessories
D. materials and parts
Question-17
consumers?
A. Specialty goods
B. Shopping goods
C. Convenience goods
D. Durable goods
Question-18
Marketers have traditionally classified products on the basis of three characteristics: __________,
tangibility, and use.
A. availability
B. affordability
C. aesthetics
D. durability
Question-19
A. Studying market matrices
B. Integrating target markets
C. Identifying market segments
D. Educating consumers
Question-20
Capital items are long-lasting goods that facilitate developing or managing the finished product.
They include two groups: installations and:
A. natural products.
B. component materials.
C. operating supplies.
D. equipment.

BM350 Online Exam -4
Question-1
Deducting the desired profit margin from the price at which a product will sell, given its appeal and
competitors' prices, is known as:
A. overhead costing.
B. target costing.
C. activity based costing.
D. benefit analysis.
Question-2
A. Selecting a pricing method

B. Selecting the pricing objective
C. Determining demand
D. Estimating cost
Question-3
In a(n. __________, the buyer announces something he or she wants to buy, and potential sellers
compete to offer the lowest price.
A. Dutch auction with one buyer and many sellers

B. English auction with one buyer and many sellers
C. English auction with one seller and many buyers
D. sealed-bid auction
Question-4
A. a low price slows down market growth.

B. production and distribution costs fall with accumulated production experience.
C. a high price dissuades potential competitors from entering the market.
D. the market is characterized by inelastic demand.
Question-5
A retailer who holds on to a(n. __________ policy charges a constant low price with little or no price
promotions and special sales.
A. everyday low pricing

B. high-low pricing
C. low cost
D. going-rate pricing
Question-6
While shopping at the mall, Jane is asked by one of the sales representatives at the cosmetics
counter to try out a new lipstick that her company is test marketing. The company representative asks
her how much she would be willing to pay for the lipstick. After trying it out, Jane is of the opinion that
$5 is just the right price for it. What type of a reference price is Jane using?
A. Usual discounted price

B. Fair price
C. Maximum retail price
D. Last price paid
Question-7
The first step in estimating demand is to:
A. analyze competitors' cost.

B. select a pricing method.
C. understand what affects price sensitivity.
D. calculate fixed costs.
Question-8
Which of the following is the most elementary pricing method?
A. Value pricing
B. Going-rate pricing
C. Markup pricing
D. Target-return pricing
Question-9
In __________, the firm bases its price largely on competitors' prices.
A. going-rate pricing
B. auction-type pricing
C. markup pricing
D. target-return pricing
Question-10
pursues __________ as its major objective.
A. market skimming
B. product-quality leadership
C. survival
D. profit maximization
Question-11
Companies that aim to __________ strive to be affordable luxuries.
A. survive in the market

B. partially recover their costs
C. maximize their market share
D. be product-quality leaders
Question-12
A. Fair
B. Typical
C. Usual discounted
D. List
Question-13
The reservation price or the maximum that most consumers would pay for a given product is known
as the __________ price.
A. expected future
B. usual discounted
C. upper-bound
D. typical
Question-14
__________ is the cost per unit at that level of production.
A. Target cost
B. Average cost
C. Marginal cost
D. Opportunity cost
Question-15
Which of the following is true regarding price elasticity?
A. The higher the elasticity, the lesser is the volume growth resulting from a 1 percent price reduction.
B. Within the price indifference band, price changes have little or no effect on demand.
C. If demand is elastic, sellers will consider increasing the price.
D. Price elasticity does not depend on magnitude and direction of the contemplated price change.
Question-16
The decline in the average cost of production with accumulated production experience is called the:
A. demand curve.
B. supply chain.
C. learning curve.
D. value chain.
Question-17
__________ consist of the sum of the fixed and variable costs for any given level of production.
A. Total costs
B. Average costs
C. Opportunity costs
D. Learning costs
Question-18
A. maximize their market share.

B. skim the market.
C. become a product-quality leader.
D. merely survive in the market.
Question-19
A. market-penetration pricing
B. market-skimming pricing
C. value-pricing
D. switching cost
Question-20
When consumers examine products, they often compare an observed price to an internal price they
remember. This is known as a(n. __________ price.
A. markup
B. reference
C. market-skimming
D. accumulated
Question-21
The number of different persons or households exposed to a particular media schedule at least once
during a specified time period is known as:
A. range.
B. impact.
C. intensity.
D. reach.
Question-22
Which of the following is an element of an offer strategy?
A. The medium used for delivery

B. The number of customers in the locality
C. The vision of the company
D. The skills required for production
Question-23
Which of the following steps in the innovation-adoption model of marketing communications
corresponds to the cognitive stage that a buyer passes through?
A. Interest
B. Evaluation
C. Trial
D. Awareness
Question-24
__________ refers to simple exaggerations in advertisements that are not meant to be believed and
that are permitted by law.
A. Puffery
B. Boasting
C. Pseudo promotion
D. Doublethink
Question-25
Which of the following is an example of an advertising platform?
A. Posters and leaflets

B. Company magazines
C. Fairs and trade shows
D. Sales presentations
Question-26
The Internet provides marketers and consumers with opportunities for much greater interaction and
__________ than other marketing channels.
A. control
B. data security
C. high involvement selling
D. individualization
Question-27
Which of the following sequences accurately represents the hierarchy-of-effects model of marketing
communications?
A. Attention-interest-desire-action
B. Awareness-interest-evaluation-trial-adoption
C. Awareness-knowledge-liking-preference-conviction-purchase
D. Exposure-reception-cognitive response-attitude-intention-behavior
Question-28
A. use unethical methods to popularize a brand.

B. market products by providing free samples to customers.
C. create a splash in the marketplace to showcase a brand.
D. induce impulse sales by displaying products close to the pay counters.
Question-29
According to researchers, which of the following is the correct order in which content of print
advertisements matter?
A. Picture-headline-copy
B. Copy-picture-headline
C. Headline-copy-picture
D. Picture-copy-headline
Question-30
__________ is the number of times the average buyer buys a product during the period.
A. Buyer turnover
C. Customer retention rate
D. Advertising impressions
Question-31
A. Free samples
B. Discount coupons
C. Display allowances
D. Contests for sales reps
Question-32
Which of the following media timing factors expresses the rate at which new customers enter the
market?
A. Buyer turnover
C. Media reach
D. Weighted number of exposures
Question-33
The weighted number of exposures (WE. of an advertising message over a given medium is given by:
A. WE = reach * frequency.
B. WE = (reach * frequency. / impact.
C. WE = reach * frequency * impact.
D. WE = (reach + frequency. / impact.
Question-34
A. billboards.
B. banner advertising.
C. mail campaigns.
D. field sales calls.
Question-35
A. frequency.
B. reach.
C. amplitude.
D. impact.
Question-36
A. Sales promotions
B. Direct marketing
C. Advertising
D. Publicity
Question-37
Marketing communication strategy can be decided by conducting an image analysis by profiling the
target audience in terms of:
A. brand knowledge.
B. purchase patterns.
C. demographic characteristics.
D. income levels.
Question-38
Which of the following is generally acknowledged as the most powerful advertising medium and
reaches a broad spectrum of consumers at low cost per exposure?
A. Television
B. Radio
C. Newspapers
D. Magazines
Question-39
Which of the following elements of the marketing communications mix involves a variety of short-term
incentives to encourage trial or purchase of a product or service?
A. Advertising
B. Direct marketing
C. Public relations
D. Sales promotion
Question-40
A. buzzers.
B. connectors.
C. informants.
D. stickers.

BM350 Online Exam-5

Question-1
In the purchasing decision process, the major role of __________ is in selecting vendors and
negotiating.
A. gatekeepers
B. buyers
C. initiators
D. approvers
Question-2
The __________ says people have a general tendency to attribute success to themselves and failure
to external causes.
A. availability heuristic
B. trait-role theory
C. awareness set
D. hedonic bias
Question-3
With respect to consumer decision making, the __________ is the set of strong contenders from
which one will be chosen as a supplier of a good or service.
A. total set
B. awareness set
C. consideration set
D. choice set
Question-4
Many business buyers prefer to buy a total solution to a problem from one seller. This process is also
known as:

A. channel consolidation.
B. systems buying.
C. vertical buying.
D. horizontal buying.
Question-5
In a __________ purchasing situation, the buyer wants to make some change to existing product
specifications, prices, delivery requirements, or other terms.
A. new rebuy
B. regular buy
C. straight rebuy
D. modified rebuy
Question-6
With respect to e-procurement, which of the two types of e-hubs are websites organized around?
A. Vertical and horizontal hubs
B. Vertical and functional hubs
C. Functional hubs and organizational hubs
D. Supplier and user hubs
Question-7
__________ portrays the "whole person" interacting with his or her environment.
A. Attitude
B. Personality
C. Lifestyle
D. Self-concept
Question-8
Brands that meet consumers' initial buying criteria are called the:
A. total set.
B. awareness set.
C. consideration set.
D. choice set.
Question-9
In reordering office supplies, the only stages that the buyer passes through are the product
specification stage and the __________ stage.
A. problem recognition
B. general need description
C. order-routine specification
D. performance review
Question-10
A(n) __________ group is one whose values or behavior an individual rejects.
A. aspirational
B. disassociative
C. membership
D. primary
Question-11
A __________ is a person, household, or company that over time yields a revenue stream that
exceeds by an acceptable amount the company's cost stream of attracting, selling, and servicing that
customer.
A. prospector
B. profitable customer
C. market challenger
D. market nicher
Question-12
Ultimately, the amount of steel sold to General Motors depends on the consumers' demand for GM
cars and trucks. From the standpoint of the steel manufacturer, which of the following demand forms
is most pertinent?
A. Derived demand
B. Inelastic demand
C. Geographic demand
D. Relational demand
Question-13
Marketers need to identify the hierarchy of attributes that guide consumer decision making in order to
understand different competitive forces and how these various sets get formed. This process of
identifying the hierarchy is called:
A. market partitioning.
B. brand association.
C. market valuation.
D. market estimation.
Question-14
A __________ establishes a long-term relationship in which the supplier promises to resupply the
buyer as needed, at agreed-upon prices, over a specified period of time.

A. stockless purchase plan
B. direct stock purchase plan
C. defined contribution plan
D. stock purchase plan
Question-15
__________ teaches marketers that they can build demand for a product by associating it with strong
drives, using motivating cues, and providing positive reinforcement.
A. Demand theory
B. Learning theory
C. Economic theory
D. Psychological theory
Question-16
The 80-20 rule reflects the idea that:
A. 20% of the company's profits are generated by the top 80% of customers.
B. the top 20% of customers are highly satisfied and 80% of customers will recommend the company
to a friend.
C. 20% of customers are unprofitable, and 80% make up a company's profits.
D. the top 20% of customers often generate 80% of the company's profits.
Question-17
The __________ approach to consumer research asks customers to attach a monetary value to
alternative levels of a given attribute. The value of a given configuration is determined by adding the
average values of each of the given attributes.
A. benchmarking
B. compositional
C. importance rating
D. focus-group
Question-18
The relatively homogeneous and enduring divisions in a society, which are hierarchically ordered and
whose members share similar values, interests, and behavior, constitute:
A. a culture.
B. a subculture.
C. a social class.
D. a family.
Question-19
__________ is the perceived monetary value of the bundle of economic, functional, and psychological
benefits customers expect from a given market offering.
A. Total customer cost
B. Total customer benefit
C. Total benefits of ownership
D. Value proposition
Question-20
A company's __________ includes all the experiences the customer will have on the way to obtaining
and using the offering.
A. value proposition
B. value delivery system
C. customer-value analysis
D. total customer benefit
Question-21
A supplier creates better information systems, and introduces bar coding, mixed pallets, and other
methods of helping the consumer. The supplier is most likely to be differentiated on its:
A. innovativeness.
B. reliability.
C. insensitivity.
D. resilience.
Question-22
__________ are attributes or benefits that consumers view as essential to a legitimate and credible
offering within a certain product or service class.
A. Category points-of-difference
B. Conceptual points-of-parity
C. Competitive points-of-parity
D. Category points-of-parity
Question-23
The first step in the strategic brand management process is:
A. measuring consumer brand loyalty.
B. identifying and establishing brand positioning.
C. planning and implementing brand marketing.
D. measuring and interpreting brand performance.
Question-24
__________ defines which other brands a brand competes with and therefore which brands should be
the focus of competitive analysis.
A. Consumer profitability analysis
B. Competitor indexing
C. The service blueprint
D. The competitive frame of reference
Question-25
If a consumer, trying to decide between alternatives, believes that a particular brand delivers
acceptable product performance and can be short-listed, she is in the __________ level of the brand
dynamics pyramid.
A. presence
B. relevance
C. performance
D. advantage
Question-26
Which of the following value creation processes means translating milestones into symbols and
artifacts?
A. Staking
B. Evangelizing
C. Milestoning
D. Badging
Question-27
With respect to the "six brand building blocks," __________ signifies how well the product or service
meets customers' functional needs.

A. brand judgment
B. brand imagery
C. brand salience
D. brand performance
Question-28
__________ is a company's ability to perform in one or more ways that competitors cannot or will not
match.
A. Brand positioning
B. Market research
C. Competitive advantage
D. Competitor analysis
Question-29
A __________ can be defined as any information-bearing experience a customer or prospect has with
the brand, the product category, or the market that relates to the marketer's product or service.
A. brand value
B. brand personality
C. brand trait
D. brand contact
Question-30
__________ are product associations that are not necessarily unique to the brand but may in fact be
shared with other brands.
A. Points-of-parity
B. Points-of-difference
C. Points-of-inflection
D. Points-of-presence
Question-31
__________ refers to the products or sets of products with which a brand competes and which
function as close substitutes.
A. Consumer profitability analysis
B. Competitive frame of reference
C. Category membership
D. Value membership
Question-32
Which of the following criteria relates to consumers seeing the brand association as personally
relevant to them?
A. Deliverability
B. Authenticity
C. Desirability
D. Differentiability
Question-33
Which of the following statements about the branding guidelines for a small business is true?
A. A small business must creatively conduct low-cost marketing research.
B. A small business must avoid leveraging secondary brand associations.
C. A small business must separate the well-integrated brand elements to enhance both brand
awareness and brand image.
D. A small business must disintegrate the brand elements to maximize the contribution of each of the
three main sets of brand equity drivers.
Question-34
_________ are short, three- to five-word phrases that capture the irrefutable essence or spirit of
the brand positioning and ensure that the company's own employees understand what the brand
represents.
A. Brand mantras
B. Brand symbols
C. Brand logos
D. Brand alliances
Question-35
Competitive superiority and channel support are factors that influence the __________ of the brand
value chain.
A. program multiplier
B. customer multiplier
C. brand multiplier
D. profit multiplier
Question-36
Which of the following types of differentiation refers to companies effectively designing their
distribution medium's coverage, expertise, and performance to make buying the product easier and
more enjoyable and rewarding?
A. Service differentiation
B. Channel differentiation
C. Image differentiation
D. Product differentiation
Question-37
__________ is the job of estimating the total financial worth of the brand.
A. Brand tracking
B. Brand auditing
C. Brand equity
D. Brand valuation
Question-38
Branding is:
A. all about creating unanimity between products.
B. the process of performing market research and selling products or services to customers.
C. endowing products and services with the power of a brand.
D. the process of comparing competing brands available in the market.
Question-39
Suppliers who are dependable in their on-time delivery, order completeness, and order-cycle time are
most likely to be differentiated based on:
A. resilience.
B. innovativeness.
C. insensitivity.
D. reliability.
Question-40
One common difficulty in creating a strong, competitive brand positioning is that many of the attributes
or benefits that make up the points-of-parity and points-of-difference are:
A. negatively correlated.
B. always correlated.
C. directly proportional.
D. never correlated.

BM350 Online Exam-6

Question-1
A marketing manager has planned a strategy that will require the organization to erect outposts to
protect its weak front-running brands. In this __________ defense, the outposts will be central to the
organization's new competitive strategy.
A. position
B. flank
C. preemptive
D. counteroffensive
Question-2
A firm that is willing to maintain its market share, and not attack the leader and other competitors in an
aggressive bid for further market share, is known as a:
A. market challenger.
B. market leader.
C. market follower.
D. market nicher.
Question-3
__________ defense involves occupying the most desirable market space in the minds of the
consumers and making the brand almost impregnable.
A. Position
B. Flank
C. Preemptive
D. Mobile
Question-4
Which of the following is true about proactive marketing?
A. A company needs creative anticipation to see the writing on the wall.

B. Proactive companies create new offers to serve unmet and unknown consumer needs.
C. Proactive companies refrain from practicing uncertainty management.
D. A company needs responsive anticipation to devise innovative solutions.
Question-5
In a pure __________ attack, the attacker matches its opponent's product, advertising, price, and
distribution.
A. guerilla
B. bypass
C. encirclement
D. frontal
Question-6
If Microsoft announces plans for a new-product development, smaller firms may choose to
concentrate their development efforts in other directions to avoid head-to-head competition. In this
example, Microsoft is employing a __________ strategy.
A. preemptive defense
B. counteroffensive defense
C. mobile defense
D. flank defense
Question-7
A(n. __________ marketer looks ahead to needs customers may have in the near future.
A. anticipative
B. creative
C. inexperienced
D. responsive
Question-8
When Starbucks introduced its Tazo Tea line to bring in new customers who had never gone to
Starbucks because they don't drink coffee, Starbucks was employing a __________ strategy.
A. market-penetration
B. new-market segment
C. geographical-expansion
D. niche identification
Question-9
As a market follower strategy, the __________ duplicates the leader's product and packages and
sells it on the black market or through disreputable dealers.
A. innovator
B. counterfeiter
C. imitator
D. adapter
Question-10
When large companies can no longer defend all their territory, they launch a __________ defense
where they give up weaker markets and reassign resources to stronger ones.
A. contraction
B. preemptive
C. flank
D. mobile
Question-11
Clorox runs ads stressing the many benefits of its bleach—such as how it eliminates kitchen odors—
in order to generate additional opportunities to use the brand in the same basic way. This is an
attempt to:
A. increase the amount of consumption.

B. increase the level of consumption.
C. increase the perception of consumption.
D. increase the frequency of consumption.
Question-12
Aron, a company manufacturing snack food and soft drinks, replicates its product taste and packaging
from Lay's, a market leader in snack food industry. Later, it sells these imitated products on the black
market. This is an example of:
A. cloning.
B. imitating.
C. counterfeiting.
D. adapting.
Question-13
In __________, the market leader stretches its domain over new territories that can serve as future
centers for defense and offense.
A. counteroffensive defense
B. flank defense
C. contraction defense
D. mobile defense
Question-14
In a __________ defense strategy, the market leader can meet the attacker frontally and hit its flank,
or launch a pincer movement so that it's forced to pull back to defend itself.
A. position
B. counteroffensive
C. preemptive
D. contraction
Question-15
When the total market expands, the __________ usually gains the most.
A. market challenger
B. market leader
C. market follower
D. market nicher
Question-16
__________ marketers are not just market-driven, they are proactive market-driving firms.
A. Creative
B. Responsive
C. Inexperienced
D. Laidback
Question-17
When food product companies advertise recipes that use their branded products in entirely different
ways, they are increasing the __________ of the brand.
A. amount of consumption
B. level of consumption
C. dedication to consumption
D. frequency of consumption
Question-18
Which of the following is the most constructive response a market leader can make when defending
its market share?
A. Maintain basic cost control
B. Innovate continuously
C. Provide desired benefits
D. Meet challengers with a swift response
Question-19
The __________ attack attempts to capture a significant share of the consumer market by launching
a grand offensive on several fronts.
A. frontal
B. bypass
C. flank
D. encirclement
Question-20
type of competitor is called a:
A. marketing king.
B. market nicher.
C. segment king.
D. guerilla marketer.
BM350 Lessons 6 & 7 Exam SCORE 95 PERCENT

Question 1
Customers today want separate prices for each service element and they also want the
right to select the elements they want. The customers are said to be pressing for _____
services.
Question options:
a) complementary
b) perishable
c) variable
d) unbundled
Question 2
The zone of __________ is a range where a service dimension is deemed satisfactory,
anchored by the minimum level consumers are willing to accept and the level they
believe can and should be delivered.
Question options:
a) immunity
b) tolerance
c) reliability
d) assurance
Question 3
Services high in __________ qualities have characteristics that the buyers can evaluate
before purchase.
Question options:
a) search
b) experience
c) credence
d) privacy
Question 4
Companies may wish to implement a(n) __________ to achieve more growth, to realize
higher margins, or simply to position themselves as full-line manufacturers.
Question options:
a) up-market stretch
b) rebranding plan
c) outsourcing strategy
d) disintermediation policy

Question 5
How a consumer shops for organic foods and how he or she uses and disposes of the
product is part of the consumers' __________ that is important for marketers to
consider.
Question options:
a) value proposition
b) consumption system
c) value system
d) quality perception

Question 6
The way the user performs the tasks of getting and using products and related services
is the user's total _____ system.
Question options:
a) consumption
b) consumable
c) consistent use

d) augmented
Question 7
A customer judges a product offering by three basic elements: product features and
quality, services mix and quality, and:
Question options:
a) performance.
b) utility.
c) tangibility.
d) price.
Question 8
A consumer products firm manufactures and sells over 200 different sizes and varieties
of jams and jellies. We can say that this manufacturer's product mix has high:
Question options:
a) consistency.
b) depth.
c) intensity.
d) range.
Question 9
Josh gets his bike serviced at Dean's Garage even though there's another garage much
closer to home. He prefers Dean's because the work is usually done quickly and the staff
tries to solve the issues with the bike as soon as possible. Dean's Garage excels at which
of the following five determinants of service quality?
Question options:
a) Reliability
b) Responsiveness
c) Assurance
d) Empathy
Question 10
Marketers have traditionally classified products on the basis of three characteristics:
__________, tangibility, and use.
Question options:
a) availability
b) affordability
c) aesthetics
d) durability
Question 11
Regular maintenance and repair costs are known as _____ costs.
Question options:
a) service contract
b) out-of-pocket
c) fixed
d) facilitating services

Question 12
Question options:
a) differential pricing.
b) cultivating nonpeak demand.
c) complementary services.
d) reservation systems.

Question 13
Question options:
a) Teaching
b) Car
c) Restaurant meal
d) Soap
Question 14
Question options:
a) Studying market matrices
b) Integrating target markets
c) Identifying market segments
d) Educating consumers

Question 15
The __________ of the product mix refers to the total number of items in the mix.
Question options:
a) width
b) length
c) depth
d) breadth
Question 16
Capital items are long-lasting goods that facilitate developing or managing the finished
product. They include two groups:
Question options:
a) installations and natural products.
b) installations and component materials.
c) installations and operating supplies.
d) installations and equipment.

Question 17
Unlike physical products, services cannot be seen, tasted, felt, heard, or smelled before
they are bought. This is known as the __________ aspect of services.
Question options:
a) inseparability
b) intangibility
c) variability
d) perishability
Question 18
Services high in __________ qualities are those services that have characteristics the
buyer normally finds hard to evaluate even after consumption.
Question options:
a) trial
b) search
c) experience
d) credence
Question 19
The __________ rates the various elements of the service bundle and identifies required
actions.
Question options:
a) company performance analysis
b) voice of customer measurement
c) customer factor measurement
d) importance-performance analysis

Question 20
Industrial goods can be classified as __________, capital items, or suppliers and
business services based on their relative cost and how they enter the production process.
Question options:
a) service components
b) sub-assemblies
c) accessories
d) materials and parts

Lesson 7 Exam
Question 21
In __________ pricing, the firm bases its price largely on competitors' prices.
Question options:
a) going-rate
b) auction-type
c) markup
d) target-return
Question 22
Question options:
a) Fair
b) Typical
c) Usual discounted
d) List
Question 23
While shopping at the mall, Jane is asked by one of the sales representatives at the
cosmetics counter to try out a new lipstick that her company is test marketing. The
company representative asks her how much she would be willing to pay for the lipstick.
After trying it out, Jane is of the opinion that $5 is just the right price for it. What type
of a reference price is Jane using?
Question options:
a) Usual discounted price
b) Fair price
c) Maximum retail price
d) Last price paid

Question 24
Question options:
a) Selecting a pricing method
b) Selecting the pricing objective
c) Determining demand
d) Estimating cost

Question 25
A firm that is plagued with overcapacity, intense competition, or changing wants would
do better if it pursues __________ as its major objective.
Question options:
a) market skimming
b) product-quality leadership
c) survival
d) profit maximization

Question 26
__________ auctions let would-be suppliers submit only one bid; they cannot know the
other bids.
Question options:
a) Descending bid
b) Sealed-bid
c) English
d) Dutch
Question 27
When consumers examine products, they often compare an observed price to an
internal price they remember. This is known as a(n) __________ price.
Question options:
a) markup
b) reference
c) market-skimming
d) accumulated
Question 28
Deducting the desired profit margin from the price at which a product will sell, given its appeal
and competitors' prices, is known as:
Question options:
a) overhead costing.
b) target costing.
c) activity based costing.
d) benefit analysis.

Question 29
The key to perceived-value pricing is to:
Question options:
a) reengineer the company's operations.
b) deliver more unique value than competitors.
c) adopt subtle marketing tactics compared to competitors.
d) deliver more value but at a lower cost.

Question 30
Which of the following is TRUE regarding price elasticity?
Question options:
a) The higher the elasticity, the lesser is the volume growth resulting from a 1 percent price
reduction.
b) Within the price indifference band, price changes have little or no effect on demand.
c) If demand is elastic, sellers will consider increasing the price.
d) Price elasticity does not depend on magnitude and direction of the contemplated price
change.
Question 31
Many consumers are willing to pay $100 for a perfume that contains $10 worth of scent because
the perfume is from a well-known brand. What kind of a pricing is the company depending on?
Question options:
a) Going-rate pricing

b) Image pricing
c) Market-skimming pricing
d) Target pricing

Question 32
A manufacturer has invested $750,000 in a new product and wants to set a price to earn a 15
percent ROI. The cost per unit is $18 and the company expects to sell 50,000 units in the first year.
Calculate the company's target-return price for this product.
Question options:
a) $20.25
b) $18.23
c) $18.10
d) $20.70
Question 33
__________ cost is the cost per unit at that level of production.
Question options:
a) Target
b) Average
c) Marginal
d) Opportunity
Question 34
Question options:
a) market-penetration pricing
b) market-skimming pricing
c) value-pricing
d) switching cost

Question 35
The decline in the average cost of production with accumulated production experience is called
the:
Question options:
a) demand curve.
b) supply chain.
c) learning curve.
d) value chain.

Question 36
If demand changes considerably with a small change in price, the demand is said to be:
Question options:
a) unit elastic.
b) elastic.
c) inelastic.
d) marginal.
Question 37
Costs that differ directly with the level of production are known as _____ costs.
Question options:
a) fixed
b) overhead
c) opportunity
d) variable
Question 38
Question options:
a) a low price slows down market growth.
b) production and distribution costs fall with accumulated production experience.
c) a high price dissuades potential competitors from entering the market.
d) the market is characterized by inelastic demand.

Question 39
Question options:
a) maximize their market share.

b) skim the market.
c) become a product-quality leader.
d) merely survive in the market.

Question 40
A company must make payments each month for rent, heat, interest, and salaries. These are
_____ costs.
Question options:
a) total
b) fixed
c) variable
d) opportunity

Question 1
Which of the following elements of the marketing communication mix involves use of
mail, telephone, fax, email, or Internet to communicate with or solicit response or
dialogue from specific customers and prospects?
Question options:
a) Advertising
b) Personal selling
c) Direct marketing
d) Public relations

Question 2
Which of the following is a form of earned media for marketing communication
messages?
Question options:
a) Experts providing product reviews
b) Celebrities endorsing products
c) Social network discussions about products
d) Company salespeople contacting target buyers

Question 3
Marketing communication strategy can be decided by conducting an image analysis by
profiling the target audience in terms of:
Question options:
a) brand knowledge.
b) purchase patterns.
c) demographic characteristics.
d) income levels.

Question 4
In __________, marketers bid in a continuous auction on search terms that serve as a
proxy for the consumer's product or consumption interests.
Question options:
a) paid searches
b) pop-up advertising
c) display advertising
d) banner marketing

Question 5
Question options:
a) use unethical methods to popularize a brand.
b) market products by providing free samples to customers.
c) create a splash in the marketplace to showcase a brand.
d) induce impulse sales by displaying products close to the pay counters.
Question 6
__________ is a measure of communications effectiveness that describes the percentage
of target market exposed to a communication.
Question options:
a) Frequency
b) Reach
c) Width
d) Depth
Question 7
Question options:
a) frequency.
b) reach.
c) amplitude.
d) impact.
Question 8
The number of different persons or households exposed to a particular media schedule
at least once during a specified time period is known as:
Question options:
a) range.
b) impact.
c) intensity.
d) reach.
Question 9
An advertising __________ is a specific communications task and achievement level to
be accomplished with a specific audience in a specific period of time.
Question options:
a) medium
b) objective
c) channel
d) budget
Question 10
According to researchers, which of the following is the correct order in which content of
print advertisements matter?
Question options:
a) Picture-headline-copy
b) Copy-picture-headline
c) Headline-copy-picture
d) Picture-copy-headline
Question 11
Question options:
a) Free samples
b) Discount coupons
c) Display allowances
d) Contests for sales reps

Question 12
Which of the following is generally acknowledged as the most powerful advertising
medium and reaches a broad spectrum of consumers at low cost per exposure?
Question options:
a) Television
b) Radio
c) Newspapers
d) Magazines
Question 13
The weighted number of exposures (WE) of an advertising message over a given
medium is given by:
Question options:
a) WE = reach * frequency.
b) WE = (reach * frequency) / impact.
c) WE = reach * frequency * impact.
d) WE = (reach + frequency) / impact.

Question 14
__________ refers to simple exaggerations in advertisements that are not meant to be
believed and that are permitted by law.
Question options:
a) Puffery
b) Boasting
c) Pseudo promotion
d) Doublethink
Question 15
__________ advertising aims to stimulate repeat purchase of products and services.
Question options:
a) Reinforcement
b) Comparative
c) Persuasive
d) Reminder
Question 16
Question options:
a) billboards.
b) banner advertising.
c) mail campaigns.
d) field sales calls.

Question 17
Which of the following sequences accurately represents the hierarchy-of-effects model
of marketing communications?
Question options:
a) Attention-interest-desire-action
b) Awareness-interest-evaluation-trial-adoption
c) Awareness-knowledge-liking-preference-conviction-purchase
d) Exposure-reception-cognitive response-attitude-intention-behavior

Question 18
Question options:
a) buzzers.
b) connectors.
c) informants.
d) stickers.
Question 19
Which of the following elements of the marketing communications mix involves a
variety of short-term incentives to encourage trial or purchase of a product or service?
Question options:
a) Advertising
b) Direct marketing
c) Public relations
d) Sales promotion

Question 20
Which of the following is a disadvantage of using a percentage-of-sales method to
determine the marketing communications budget?
Question options:
a) It discourages stability when competing firms spend approximately the same
percentage of their sales on communications.
b) By using a percentage-of-sales method, communication expenditures tend to be
extremely high irrespective of what a company can afford.
c) It discourages management from thinking of the relationship among
communication cost, selling price, and profit per unit.
d) Dependence of the percentage-of-sales method on year-to-year sales fluctuations
interferes with long-range planning.

BM350 Marketing Management

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BM350 Marketing Management

BM350 Marketing Management

Respond to the items below.

1. Explain customer-perceived value.

2. Explain total customer satisfaction.

3. What valuable functions can brands perform for a firm?

5. Incorporating the concepts discussed in this assignment, answer the following:

BM350 Marketing Management

Respond to the items below.

Part A: With Products, Is It Form or Function?

A. pure tangible good

A. company performance analysis

A. Studying market matrices

A. Selecting a pricing method

A. Dutch auction with one buyer and many sellers

A. a low price slows down market growth.

A. everyday low pricing

A. Usual discounted price

A. analyze competitors' cost.

A. survive in the market

A. maximize their market share.

A. The medium used for delivery

A. Posters and leaflets

A. use unethical methods to popularize a brand.

BM350 Marketing Management Part I

BM350 Marketing Management Part II

The three essential managerial skills include:

A(n)________ is the existence of a discrepancy between an existing and a desired state of

The quantitative approach involves applications of:

Ethics training sessions can provide what benefit?

Planning is often called the primary management function because it:

How would a manager motivate low-skilled, minimum-wage employees?

By definition, a(n) __________ is a community, nation, or group that shares common

Information collected from government publications is an example of __________ data.

A __________ is a promise to deliver specific benefits associated with products or services to

Multisegment marketing is likely to __________ and __________.

Demand would MOST likely be inelastic for which of the following?

Which of the following are a manager's three primary responsibilities?

Which of the following companies would use a job costing system?

Conversion costs include:

Which of the following is a cash equivalent?

The science of ________ was developed by applying general concepts to a particular

Which of the following is an example of an affective attitude?

What is the main strength of job rotation?

Which of the following is a group decision-making technique?

Which theory of leadership proposes that followers attribute heroic or extraordinary

According to the traditional view of conflict, conflict is:

BM350 Lesson 1 Exam SCORE 100 PERCENT

a) They focus on a large number of goals.

BM350 Lesson 2 Exam SCORE 100 PERCENT

BM350 Week 3 Threaded Discussion

(291 words, 1 reference)

BM350 Lessons 4 & 5 Exam SCORE 97.5 PERCENT

a) Consumer profitability analysis

b) Competitor indexing

c) The service blueprint

d) The competitive frame of reference

Question 2 (2.5 points)

Question 3 (2.5 points)

a) Brand positioning

c) Competitive advantage

d) Competitor analysis

Question 4 (2.5 points)

Question 5 (2.5 points)

Multisegment marketing is likely to and .