1.

Triggering substances include bacterial cell walls, 11. Agar is more preferred than agarose in conducting
especially those containing lipopolysaccharide. passive Immunodiffusion.
a. Lectin a. True
b. Alternative b. False
c. Classical 12. Which of the following describes INDIRECT
2. This hypersensitivity reaction occurs when immune ANTIGLOBLIN TEST?
complexes in tissues bind to complement. a. Used to determine the presence of a particular
a. Type I antibody in a patient
b. Type II b. One-step process
c. Type III c. A positive test indicates that an immune
d. Type IV reaction I taking place in that individual
3. T cells mature in what lymphoid organ? d. None of the above
a. Thymus 13. IgM is detectable for 7-10 days after onset of
b. Bone marrow Rubeola symptoms.
c. Spleen a. True
d. Lymph nodes b. False
4. Which of the following is NOT an example of Type II 14. What is the stage of syphilis where it is highly
hypersensitivity? infectious?
a. Hashimoto’s disease a. Latent
b. Myasthenia Gravis b. Tertiary
c. Goodpasteur’s syndrome c. Secondary
d. Rheumatoid arthritis d. Primary
5. This type of immunity is the primary defense against 15. What is the hematopoietic stimulator for
bacterial antigen. lymphocytes?
a. Innate a. IL-3
b. Cell- mediated b. IL-5
c. Humoral c. M-CSF
d. Adaptive d. G-CSF
6. Accumulation of this nucleoside leads to Purine 16. What is the step in phagocytosis that receptors on
Nucleoside Phosphorylase Deficiency. phagocytes come into contact with the foreign
a. Deoxyguanosine monophosphate particle?
b. Deoxyadenine diphosphate a. Attachment
c. Deoxyguanosine diphosphate b. Adherence
d. Deoxyguanosine triphosphate c. Chemotaxis
7. Secretory Components (SC) for IgA are derived from d. Both A and B
what cells? e. Both B and C
a. Connective tissue 17. What are the substances that stimulate cells
b. Kidney cells expressing antigen receptors specific for an epitope.
c. Epithelial cell a. Polyclonal activator
d. Spleen cells b. Monoclonal activator
8. What is the most common congenital c. Oligoclonal activator
immunodeficiency? d. Non of the above
a. Common variable immunodeficiency 18. Goodpasteur’s Syndrome is characterized by:
b. Isolated IgG subclass deficiency a. It affects neuromuscular junction
c. IgA deficiency b. Autoantibody to basement membranes
d. X- linked Bruton’s agmmaglobinemia c. Formation of lesions in white matter of the brain
9. It is the first test to evaluate antibody response of d. None of the above
Lyme disease. 19. What are the activating receptors of NK cell?
a. RIA a. MICA
b. Western blot b. MICB
c. IFA c. MICC
d. ELISA d. Both A and B
10. Most commonly used laboratory test for Rubella. e. Both B and C
a. ELISA 20. This cytokine induces the lysis of tumors.
b. FAMA a. TGF- B
c. RT-PCR b. IL-6
d. Q-PCR c. IL-1
d. TNF-a
21. What is the serum half- life of IgA? 32. Repeated freeze and thaw of serum for HIV
a. 5 days screening
b. 4 days a. False positive
c. 6 days b. False negative
d. 1-3 days 33. What is the other sensitive test for HTLV detection
22. Which of the following is lso known as T cell growth aside from PCR?
factor? a. PCR
a. IL-13 b. Radio Immunoprecipitation Assay (RIPA)
b. IL-2 c. Western Blot
c. IFN-y d. Culture
d. IL-4 34. It is used to demonstrate in vivo attachment of
23. The following cells bind to IgE EXCEPT: antibody or complement to an individual’s red blood
a. Basophils cells.
b. Mast cells a. Direct Antiglobulin Test
c. Macrophage b. Indirect Antiglobulin Test
d. All of the above c. Direct agglutination
24. What is the cell surface marker immature d. Agglutination Inhibition
thymocytes? 35. What is the autoantibody of SLE that binds to the
a. CD25 different classes of histones?
b. CD21 a. Anti-Sm
c. CD44 b. Anti- nucleolar
d. CD19 c. Anti- DNP
25. PCR is the most sensitive test for Lyme disease d. Anti-histone
detection. 36. What is the hepatitis marker that indicated recovery
a. True from hepatitis B?
b. False a. Anti- HBs
26. Most common cause of contact dermatitis? b. HBsAg
a. Poison ivy c. Anti- HBe
b. Urshiol d. HBeAg
c. LMW compound 37. RPR is stable up to?
d. Catechols a. 4 months
27. Fluorescent Immunoassay absorb energy and b. 1 month
convert that energy into light of a longer wavelength c. 2 months
and _________ energy. d. 3 months
a. Lower 38. A type of immunoassay which uses chemical rections
b. Shorter to emit light.
c. Higher a. Fluorescent immunoassay
d. Longer b. Enzyme immunoassay
28. What are the mutated genes that causes Severe c. Chemiluminescent immunoassays
Combined Immunodeficiency? d. Radioimmunoassay
a. Common gamma chain 39. What is the usual solution used for blank control?
b. WASp gene defect a. Distilled water
c. RAG1/RAG2 mutation b. NSS
d. Defect in NAPH oxidase c. Deionized water
29. Viral culture of Rubella is not routinely done because d. Phosphate buffered saline
it is? 40. What is used in order to decrease the ionic strength
a. Too time consuming during agglutination reactions?
30. What binds to the receptors of anti-acetylcholine a. LISS
receptors to cause precipitation in detection of b. Albumin
Myasthenia Gravis? c. Dextran
a. DRB1*1501 d. Polyethylene glycol
b. DR4 alleles e. Both A and B
c. Ds-DNA 41. The use of monoclonal antibody increases cross-
d. Radio-labeled snake venom (a- bungarotoxin) reactivity for agglutination reactions.
31. Immunochromatography is a 2 step process a. True
a. True b. False
b. False

42. T. Pallidum lipoprotein induces the expression of 52. Sum of all the attractive forces between an antigen
____ in macrophages. and an antibody.
a. HLA DR3 a. Avidity
b. HLA DR4 b. Affinity
c. CCR5 c. Precipitation
d. HLA-DQ d. Cross-reactivity
43. It is the differential slide agglutination test using 53. The process of combining soluble antigen with
horse RBCs for EBV detection soluble antibody to produce an insoluble complx
a. DAT that are visible.
b. Monospot test a. Agglutination
c. FAMA b. Precipitation
d. Paul- Bunnell c. Opsonization
44. Accumulation of ________ causes Purine Nucleoside d. Toxic
Phosphorylase Deficiency. 54. These are antibodies that produce aggregation
a. Deoxyguanine triphosphate reactions.
b. Adensine triphosphate a. Antiglobulin
c. Deoxyadenine diphosphate b. Immunoglobulin
d. Deoxyguanine diphosphate c. Hemagglutinin
45. Delayed hypersensitivity test for immunodeficiencies d. Agglutinins
a. Screening 55. An autoimmune disease that is characterized by
b. Confirmatory having a specific antigen known s HLA B27
46. It refers to the destruction of potentially self- a. Ankylosing Spondylitis
reactive lymphocytes in the secondary lymphoid b. Rheumatoid Arthritis
organ. c. Multiple Sclerosis
a. Central tolerance d. SLE
b. Peripheral tolerance 56. Women are more likely to have Systemic Lupus
c. Forward tolerance Erythematosus (SLE) than men.
d. Side tolerance a. True
47. Which immunoglobulin is the key reactant for type I b. False
hypersensitivity? 57. Chronic RA with neutropenia, splenomegaly and
a. IgA possibly thrombocytopenia.
b. IgM a. Felty’s Syndrome
c. IgE b. Hashimoto’s Disease
d. IgG c. Grave’s Disease
48. What is the treatment done in order to decrease the d. SLE
replication of HIV? 58. Autoimmune disease caused by insufficient insulin
a. Non- nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors production.
b. Nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase a. SLE
inhibitors b. Type 1a Diabetes Mellitus
c. Highly Active Anti-Retroviral Therapy (HAART) c. Multiple Sclerosis
d. Protease inhibitors d. Hashimoto’s Disease
49. Antigen in type III hypersensitivity is insoluble 59. Which of the following describes Wiscott- Aldrich
a. True Syndrome?
b. False a. Cerebellar ataxia
50. What kind of antibodies are induced that causes b. WASp gene defect
prolonged PT and APTT? c. JAK3 gene defect
a. Anti-histone d. Adenosine- deaminase deficiency
b. Ds-DNA 60. CBC and WBC differential count is a screening test
c. Antiphospholipid antibodies for all immunodeficiencies.
d. Anti-nuclear antibodies a. True
51. Measures the light that is scattered at a particular b. False
angle from the incident beam as it passes through a 61. Which of the following are confirmatory tests for
suspension. immunodeficiencies?
a. Turbidimetry a. B cell proliferation in vitro
b. Immunoelectrophoresis b. T cell proliferation in vitro
c. Passive immunodiffusion c. Both A and B are correct
d. Nephelometry d. Both A and B are incorrect

 62. Autoimmune disease that is characterized as 71. Which of the following induces FALSE NEGATIVE
chronic, symmetric, and erosive arthritis of the results in HIV antibody detection.
peripheral joints that can also affect multiple organs. I. Specimen collection prior to Ab formation
a. SLE II. Heat inactivation of serum
b. Multiple sclerosis III. Immunosuppressive therapy/replacement
c. Rheumatoid Arthritis therapy
d. Myasthenia Gravis IV. Defective Ab synthesis
63. Which of the following describes Passive a. I, II and III only
Agglutination? b. I, III and IV only
a. Indirect agglutination c. I, II and IV only
b. Particles that are coated with antigens not d. I, II, III and IV
normally found on their surfaces 72. What is the confirmatory test for antibody
c. Both A and B are correct detection?
d. Both A and B are incorrect a. ELISA
64. Which of the following describes Direct Antiglobulin b. PCR
test? c. Western Blot
a. One step process d. Virus Isolation
b. A positive test indicates that an immune 73. It is the type of agglutination that involves RBCs.
reaction is taking place the that individual a. Hemagglutination
c. Both A and B are correct b. Agglutination inhibition
d. Both A and B are incorrect c. Coagglutination
65. Which of the following describes Reverse Passive d. Senstization
Agglutination? 74. Fluorescent compounds that is being used in
a. Antigens are found naturally on a particle Fluorescent Immunoassays is called:
b. Significant finding is fourfold increase in a. Fluorophores
antibody titer over time b. Fluorospores
c. Both A and B are correct c. Photosphores
d. Both A and B are incorrect d. Photochromes
66. The type of RNA that acts as the site for protein 75. I^125 or Iodine 125 is the most popular radioisotope.
synthesis directed by the mRNA What kind of radiation does it emit?
a. tRNA a. Gamma ray
b. rRNA b. X-ray
c. miRNA c. Alpha ray
d. scRNA d. Beta ray
67. Transcription is the process where mRNA is 76. Enzyme immunoassays uses labels such as:
transcribed in cytoplasm to proteins. a. Glucose-6- phosphate dehydrogenase
a. True b. Alkaline phosphatase
b. False c. Both A and B
68. Which of the following is true about Polymerase d. None of the above
Chain Reaction (PCR) 77. What is/ are the serological marker/s of Hepatitis A?
a. It has 2 cycles of 60-90 seconds a. IgM anti- HAV
b. Not the best known and most widely used b. Total anti-HAV
amplification method c. HAV RNA
c. Carryover causes false negative results d. All of the above
d. None of the above 78. What is the incubation period(in days)of Hepatitis B?
69. The causative agent of AIDS a. 28 days
a. HIV b. 32 days
b. HBV c. 45-90 days
c. VZV d. 120 days
d. HCV 79. The serological marker for active hepatitis B
70. What is the standard screening method for antibody infection
detection of HIV? a. HBeAg
a. Western Blot b. HBsAg
b. PCR c. IgM anti-HBc
c. ELISA d. HBV DNA
d. FAMA


 80. The serological marker for immunity to hepatitis B: 90. DNA is a highly stable specimen
a. Anti- HBe a. True
b. Anti-HBs b. False
c. Anti- HBc 91. During Leukocyte Adhesion Deficiency, which marker
d. IgM anti-HBc is greatly reduced among neutrophils?
81. Hepatitis virus that requires coinfection of HBV in a. CD4
order to be virulent b. CD8
a. HDV c. CD25
b. HEV d. CD18
c. HCV 92. Lack of mature CD19 cells is a characteristic of what
d. HGV B cell system deficiency?
82. During type 1a DM, which cells of the pancreas are a. IgA deficiency
being destroyed? b. Common Variable Immunodeficiency
a. Alpha cells c. Isolated IgG Subclass deficiency
b. Kupffer cells d. X-linked Bruton’s agammaglobinemia
c. Beta cells
d. Langerhans cells
83. What is the most common test for the diagnosis of
Multiple Sclerosis?
a. TSH screening
b. GAD antibody screening
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above
84. Goodpasteur’s syndrome is characterized by:
a. It affects neuromuscular junction
b. Formation of lesions in white matter of the brain
c. Hematologic abnormalities
d. None of the above
85. Which of the following is a mechanism of bacteria to
inhibit immune response?
a. Optimizing its virulenc factor
b. Blocking phagocytosis
c. Activating the complement cascade
d. All of the above
86. Most commonly used laboratory test for Rubella
a. RT-PCR
b. q-PCR
c. ELISA
d. FAMA
87. What is the most sensitive and reliable serological
test for VZV?
a. RT-PCR
b. q-PCR
c. ELISA
d. FAMA
88. What is the incubation period of Mumps?
a. 10 days
b. 3-5 days
c. 7-14 days
d. 14-18 days
89. The causative agent of Kissing Disease and can be
obtained from intimate contact with saliva
a. CMV
b. VZV
c. HSV
d. EBV