FCPS II MCQs - 29th March, 2022

Compiled by Trainees CMH Rwp

1. A patient with multidirectional shoulder instability

a. Plication of capsule in area of maximum instability
b. Inferior pouch reefing

2. A child with swelling in proximal tibia. Xray shows eccentric lesion. What is the most likely
tumor
a. ABC
b. UBC

3. A patient sustained injury to ankle, presented with swelling, can bear weight but feels
something coming out. On examination, when ankle is dorsiflexed, inverted and
circumduction force is applied, the instability/pain is reproduced. What is the most likely
structure damaged
a. ATFL
b. AITFL
c. Calcaneofibular ligament?? (Talar Tilit Test)
d. Deltoid ligament

4. Some patient with increased serum ALP and imbalance between osteolysis and
osteogenesis. Diagnosis
a. Paget’s disease

5. A 4 year old child was brought to ER with spiral oblique fracture of tibia. He had other
fractures in the past. His parents are concerned if this is due to osteogenesis imoerfecta. OI
is ruled out. What is next step
a. Call child protection
b. Intramedullary nail for tibia fracture
a. Skilful neglect

6. A patient with neck pain since few years complains of bilateral wrist pain and hand
numbness. He has broad based gait. Lhermitte’s sign is positive. MRI brain is normal.
a. Cervical myelopathy?
b. Cervical spondylosis
c. Multiple sclerosis?

7. A female patient with C3 – C7 vertebral collapse with positive neurology. What is the
treatment
a. Multi-level corpectomy and fixation

8. A child with proximal third of femur fracture which is spiral and comminuted. He was treated
with elastic nails. What is the most common type of deformity after this type of treatment
a. Shortening? (Comminution?)
b. Overgrowth
c. Varus angulation
 d. Valgus angulation

9. A patient with fracture of tibia who was treated with I/L nail now presented with clawing of
toes and mild equinus deformity.
a. FDL and FHL lengthening at the toes level
b. Tendo-achilles lengthening and FDL FHL lengthening behind ankle level?

10. 25 year old male brought to ER after 8 hours of suffering close range gunshot wound to right
leg. He has large wound with visible fragments of bones. Distal pulses are not palpable and
foot has decreased sensation. BP remains low despite fluid resuscitation. What is MESS
score
a. 4
b. 6
c. 12
d. 9

11. A young patient with history of neck of femur fracture who underwent CRIF with multiple
screws a few months ago. Now presented with increasing pain and inability to bear weight.
Xray was given which showed varus collapse and screws pullout. What to do now
a. Remove screws and reapply after core decompression
b. Remove screws and apply DHS
c. Remove screws and reapply and decrease Pauwel’s angle
d. Remove screws and reapply and increase Pauwel’s angle
e. bone grafting

12. A child with elbow dislocation which was reduced in ER. Post reduction xray shows
ulnohumeral gap. What is the cause
a. Interposed medial epicondyle fragment
b. Interposed lateral epicondyle fragment
c. Interposed brachialis muscle?

13. Titanium implant breakage due to

a. Increased malleability?
b. Increased modulus than bone
c. Increased corrosion resistance

14. Orthopedic implants are mostly made of

a. Chromium
b. SS 316L
c. Alloys

15. Lead aprons in OT protect from radiation in AP shot of hip by a factor of 20 times and in
lateral shot by 4-10 times. Thyroid shields provide how much further protection
a. 2.5?
b. 10
c. 4.5?
16. A patient with history of RTA. X-ray shows Symphysis separation and dislocation of the
sacroiliac joint. What is the most common complication after this injury?
a. Hemorrhage
b. Urethral injury
c. Bladder injury

17. A patient treated with I/l nail for tibia shaft fracture 8 months ago. The nail was dynamized
two months ago. Recent xray still show hypertrophic non-union. What is the next step
a. Exchange nail
b. DCP plate
c. Bone graft

18. Scenario of osteoid osteoma which is responsive to aspirin. What is the reason of response
to this drug
a. 100-1000 fold increase in prostaglandins?
b. Increase vascularity around the tumor

19. A patient with GA II open tibia fracture presented to ER. He was given TT and IV antibiotic.
His wound was washed with 9L of saline and debrided. He was taken to OT and I/M nailing
was done for the tibia fracture. What is the single most important factor that reduced the
chances of infection in this patient?
a. IV antibiotic in ER
b. TT dose in ER
c. Continuous irrigation with 9L of saline

20. A patient with suspected ACJ injury. X-ray shoulder AP and axillary views are insignificant.
What is next step
a. AP view with weight tied to both wrists
b. AP view with weight tied to affected side
c. AP view with patient holding weight in both hands

21. Patient with ACJ dislocation. What is best view

a. Zanca view

22. Patient with Rockwood type 3 injury to shoulder. What is best treatment
a. CC ligaments reconstruction
b. Repair and reconstruction of AC and CC ligaments

23. A female athlete came with injury to her foot. There’s swelling and tenderness in the region
of midfoot. X-ray foot was given which showed increase gap between 1st and 2nd metatarsal.
What is the best treatment
a. Primary arthrodesis?
b. ORIF
c. Cast immobilization for 6 weeks

24. Bunion is caused by

a. Imbalance between muscles
b. Tibialis posterior dysfunction
25. A patient injured his foot. X-ray shows fractured freckle of bone from 2nd metatarsal base.
What is the most common complication after this injury if left untreated
a. Planovalgus
b. Cavovarus
c. Cavovalgus

26. A patient with loss of medial arch and too many toes sign. What is the cause
a. Tibialis posterior dysfunction

27. A patient with pes planus and subtalar arthritis due to stage 3 PTT insufficiency. His hindfoot
deformity is fixed. Ankle joint is normal.
a. Triple arthrodesis

28. An athlete injured his foot. There is tenderness at lateral border of foot. Xray showed un-
displaced fracture 5th metatarsal base at the junction of metaphysis and diaphysis. What is
this fracture called?
a. Jones
b. James

29. Lichtblau procedure

a. Lateral column lengthening

30. A women who does cycling and swimming complains of pain lateral border of foot.
a. Stress fracture?

31. A police trainee complains of pain in the shin region. Xray is insignificant. What is next to
diagnose
a. MRI
b. Tc99 Scintigraphy

32. 50 year old female generalized pain in body. She has normal siblings!! Investigations reveal
normal serum calcium and phosphorus while increased ALP. 24 hr urinary calcium and
hydroxyproline are raised. What is the diagnosis
a. Multiple myeloma
b. Osteomalacia
c. Postmenopausal osteoporosis
d. Secondary hyperparathyroidism

33. A 2 month old baby has radial club hand. There is extension contracture at elbow. Thumb is
present. He also has Holt Oram syndrome. (Clinical picture was also given) What is the next
step
a. Pollicization is the initial step in management
b. Centralization is the first step in management
c. Deal with the atrial septal defect first

34. A young patient with medial meniscus tear which on arthroscopy is 16mm and vertical, in
the red-red zone. What is the treatment
 a. Partial meniscectomy
b. Repair

35. A 70 year old lady with Evans 2 fracture of intertrochanteric region and sigh index 4
(supposedly Singh index). She was treated with DHS. Lag screw was placed in postero-
inferior location in neck and head. She was allowed partial weight bearing at 4 weeks. At 8
weeks she presented with implant failure. What is the reason
A. Wrong choice of implant
B. Poor bone quality?
C. Malposition of lag screw
D. Early weight bearing

36. 68 year old female had TKR 15 years back. Now presented with valgus instability. What is the
revision option?
a. Hinged knee implant
b. Constrained condylar knee
c. Posterior stabilized knee
d. Rotating platform

37. Fingertip glomus tumor in young patient. He has excruciating tenderness in the finger. What
is the single and most easy step in diagnosis
a. Night Pain
b. Pin head touch??
c. MRI
d. X-ray

38. A patient presented with fingertip pain. There is discolouration of the nail bed. He doesn’t
remember any significant trauma, although he had a fall while tackling in a football game a
few days ago. What is the diagnosis?
a. Acral lentiginous melanoma
b. Subungual hematoma?

39. Reverse total shoulder arthroplasty was done is a patient with post-traumatic arthritis. On
follow-up xrays, there is scapular notching. What is the step that prevents this complication?
a. Place baseplate anterior
b. Place baseplate posterior
c. Place baseplate inferior

40. Synovectomy of knee in RA effects?

a. Decreases pain and swelling?
b. Decreases requirement of TKR
c. Increases ROM

41. Osteopetrosis is a
a. No extraskeletal manifestation
b. Collagen defect
42. A patient with medial joint arthritis of knee. Other than pharmacologic treatment, what is
conservative measure to address this
a. Lateral wedge for heel and foot
b. Lateral wedge for heel
c. Medial wedge

43. Erectile dysfunction after anterior approach to L4-L5 region fixation is due to
a. Sympathetic nerves damage
b. Traction on parasympathetic plexus?
c. Due to retrograde ejaculation?
d. Not related to surgery

44. A patient had ACL reconstruction with BPTB graft. At 4 weeks, he presented with inability to
do straight leg raise. Xray show patella alta. What is the treatment?
a. Continue with ACL rehab
b. Redo ACL recon
c. Repair patella tendon

45. A patient presented with pain and swelling in the knee. X ray show patella tooth sign.
a. Quads avulsion

46. A 12 year old girl had transphyseal ACL reconstruction. What is the most damaging to the
growth plate
a. Horizontal and oblique transphyseal tunnel position
b. Vertical tunnel position
c. Slow reaming of the tunnel

47. A 60 year old with trivial injury suffered subtroch femur fracture. He has no previous history
of any surgery. There is increased acid phosphatase in the urine and multiple other lesions
on x-rays
a. Metastatic disease
b. Prostate Carcinoma

48. A patient with gradual onset pain and swelling in the distal thigh. X ray show lytic lesion on
the posterior surface of the femur
a. Parosteal osteosarcoma
b. Talengiectatic osteosarcoma

49. A 13 year old boy with proximal tibia swelling. Biopsy was taken. 4 weeks later presented
with red hot swelling, engorged veins, and pain. Biopsy wound has healed. X-ray show
extension of the tumour with poor demarcation. What is the most likely tumour
a. High grade intramedullary osteosarcoma
b. Talengiectatic osteosarcoma
c. Parosteal osteosarcoma

50. A patient with tumour in the posterior elements of spine which is responsive to aspirin.
Radiographs show large nidus (no size mentioned). What is the tumour
a. Osteoblastoma
 b. Osteoid osteoma

51. Forehead cortical lesion with nidus on radiographs. Investigation of choice is

a. CT Scan

52. A 70year old lady has swelling in the shoulder region. X-ray shows lesion in the proximal
humerus with cortical erosion and soft tissue extension. No significant past history except
weight loss. What tumour is it most likely
a. Chondrosarcoma
b. Osteosarcoma

53. Diabetic patient with swelling, redness and tenderness of foot. Best investigations
a. MRI
b. CT scan

54. Diabetic patient developed hypoglycaemia after foot surgery. What is the cause
a. Hypothermia
b. Anesthetic drugs
c. Prolonged fasting

55. A 12 year old boy complains of pain and swelling in the heel. Xray pic of calcaneum was
given
a. Sever’s disease

56. A patient sustained ankle trauma. X-ray pic was given (it showed oblique MM fracture and
transverse LM fracture). What is the mechanism of injury
a. Supination adduction

57. A 25 year old man presented with pain and swelling in the foot region. No history of trauma.
O/E tenderness in the region of navicular, spring ligament and deltoid ligament
a. Incipient flat foot

58. A patient with Galeazzi fracture for which ORIF was done. DRUJ was reduced after ORIF but
still unstable. What position should the limb be kept after k-wire fixation of DRUJ
a. Supination
b. Mid prone

59. A patient with wrist pain which is worse with extension and radial deviation. X ray show
negative ulnar variance. What could be the problem
a. Keinbock’s disease
b. AVN of scaphoid

60. X-ray of a patient show negative ulnar variance. Which bone is at risk
a. Scaphoid
b. Lunate

61. Athlete with degenerative TFCC tear and ulnocarpal impaction.

a) arthroscopic distal ulna resection
 b) Ulnar shortening using specialized jig and compression plating

62. A patient with medial epicondyle fracture. The fragment is flexed and irreducible. What is
the reason
a. Attachment of MCL
b. Attachment of flexor pronator mass

63. A patient with sudden onset of weakness and sensory deficit in the upper limb, most at
shoulder abduction and elbow flexion (pointing weakness & deficit in C5-C6 region). What is
the most likely diagnosis
a. Brachial plexopathy
b. Thoracic outlet syndrome

64. A baby who had brachial plexus injury at birth presented with no improvement at 9 months.
What is the next step
a. Nerve transfer
b. Continue physio

65. A patient with ankylosing spondylitis have kyphosis at thoracolumbar region with loss of
horizontal gaze. What is the best surgery to avoid laminectomy!! (something like that, not
sure)
a. Pedicle subtraction osteotomy
b. Posterior fusion

66. A patient with low back pain have morning stiffness. Small joints are spared
a. Ankylosing spondylitis
b. Rheumatoid arthritis

67. Young patient with difficulty in walking and hand writing.

a. Freidrich ataxia
b. Charcot-Marie tooth disease

68. In posterior approach to radius, what is the most important principle to keep in mind
a. Stay between ECRB and brachioradialis proximally
b. Stay between APL and EPB distally
c. Make the incision over the length of radius from lateral epicondyle to lister
tubercle distally (can’t remember the exact wording )

69. A female patient with radius and ulna shaft fracture who was treated by a quack by long
sticks and tight bandage. 6 weeks after injury, her fractures have healed but she has stiff
elbow, atrophied forearm muscles and some sensory loss. What is the treatment choice at
this time
A. Physiotherapy

70. A lady with distal radius fracture who was treated by a bone settler. Now presented with
malunion and wrist pain. What is the treatment
a. Osteoclasis & ORIF
71. Most common tendon rupture due to volar plating of distal radius fracture
a. FPL tendon

72. What is the treatment of lateral condyle humerus fracture in children

a. ORIF

73. A female with radial sided wrist pain which increases on flexion of thumb. Diagnosis?
a. DeQuervain’s Tenosynovitis

74. A patient injured his upper limb while falling and trying to hold something. He presented
with wrist drop and sensory loss over posterior arm and forearm. What is most likely the
cause
a. Radial nerve injury in the axilla
b. Radial nerve injury in elbow

75. A Patient with forearm bones fracture. There is swelling. What is the indication of
fasciotomy in this patient
a. Passive stretching of fingers

76. A 65 years old man have fracture of humerus shaft. There is 1.5cm shortening, 60°
angulation in AP and 45° in lateral. What is the treatment choice
a. U slab for 6 weeks
b. Antegrade Intramedullary nail

77. A patient with oblique lateral malleolus fracture and posterior malleolus fracture. What
internervous plane to use for approaching both fractures
a. Deep peroneal nerve and tibial nerve
b. Superficial peroneal nerve and tibial nerve

78. A young patient with pain in knee joint. OCD is suspected. What is the most common
location
a. Posterolateral aspect of medial femoral condyle

79. An X-ray was given showing femur shaft fracture fixed with DCP plate on anterolateral
surface. There was non-union and implant bending. Also butterfly fragment and evidence of
bone graft. 4 bicortical screws in the proximal segment. 5 screws in distal segment in which
one was unicortical, one in fracture and 3 were bicortical. Reason for non-union was asked

a. Short size of implant

b. Implant on compression side
c. Implant on tensile surface
d. Wrong choice of implant
e. Resorption/malposition of bone graft

80. A clinical picture of wound at wrist in which some structure on medial side was repaired.
a. Ulnar artery (most likely as watertight repair was evident along with pinkish colour
of the vessel)
b. Ulnar nerve
 c. FCU tendon

81. A patient who underwent flexor tendons repair. Post-op picture of his upper limb was given
showing forearm and hand in back slab, and rubber bands tied to fingers via pins on volar
surface. What is this protocol of rehab called
a. Passive flexion and active extension of fingers (Kleinert protocol)

82. In posterior approach to hip for THR, what structures are incised to gain access
a. Superior and inferior gamelli
b. Priformis
c. Gluteus medius

83. TKR was done in a patient. On 4th post-op day he has swelling, fever and ooze from the
wound. What to do
a. Joint washout and poly exchange
b. Change antibiotics
c. Take culture for C/S

84. A patient with pelvis fracture. Inlet view is advised. What is shown in this view
a. Anterior pelvis fractures
b. Posterior SI joint

85. A patient had acetabular fracture. X-ray shows all fragments detached from the supporting
ilium (Spur sign). Which type of fracture is it
a. Both column fracture

86. A patient with transverse acetabular fracture. Decision for surgery is made on which criteria
a. Roof arc angle

87. A 6 month old baby with DDH who was treated with pavlic harness. Now presented with
inability to extend his knee against gravity. What structure has been damaged
a. Femoral nerve
b. Sciatic nerve

88. A child born with DDH. Best investigation is

a) MRI
b) USG

89. A 3 year old child has DDH. Which osteotomy is preferred

a. Salter innominate osteotomy

90. A patient with polytrauma and pelvis fracture. He had laparotomy for splenectomy. He
developed abscess on his abdominal wall. What is the organism
a. Staph aureus
b. E.coli
c. Pseudomonas

91. In anterior approach to cervical spine, what structure is at most risk

 a. Recurrent laryngeal nerve

92. Cervical spine instability in a patient. Criteria on radiograph for fixation

a. 4.5mm translation and 10° rotation

93. In spinal cord injury, how to assess for spinal shock

a. Bulbocavernous reflex

94. Old lady sustained single burst fracture of L1. Now presented with kyphosis of 15°, mild pain
and intact neurology. How will you manage
a) TLSO
b) post fusion

95. You are asked to apply a tourniquet to an obese patient in the OT. How do u apply it
a. Pull flesh of thigh proximally and apply cone shaped tourniquet
b. Push flesh distally and apply thick padded cotton and wide tourniquet

96. What is the pressure of tourniquet in the upper limb

a. 100 – 150 mmHg above systolic pressure
b. 200 mmHg

97. A patient underwent THR. Now he is asking about resuming his sexual activities in supine
position. When will you allow it
a. 4 weeks post-op
b. 6 weeks post-op?
c. 2 months
d. Next day of surgery

98. A patient had knee injury in sports. Lachman is positive 3+. External rotation of foot is
increased in 30° of knee flexion and decreased in 90° of knee flexion.
a. ACL recon
b. PCL recon
c. ACL recon and PLC repair

99. Locking screw mechanism

a. Interfragmentary compression
b. Applied 90° to plate

100. An xray was given showing tibia comminuted fracture fixed with long plate. Mode of
fixation was asked
a. Bridge
b. Rigid construct

101. Bridge plating provides

a. Relative stability
102. A 70 year old underwent TKR. Now presented with swelling and pain distal thigh
after fall at home. Xray shows fracture supracondylar region of femur and prosthesis is
stable.
a. ORIF with LCP

103. A patient had TKR 15 years ago. Now presented with infected implant (signs of
raised ESR CRP and swelling were given). What is best management
a. Two stage revision
b. Resection arthroplasty
c. Arthrodesis

104. During TKR of a varus knee, which didn’t require much release for coronal plane
stability, you find loose both flexion and extension gaps. What to do
a. Increase size of poly
b. Cut more distal femur and augment with metal
c. Increase size of tibia base plate

105. TBW is planned for olecranon fracture in a patient. What structure is at risk while
placing k-wires
a. AIN
b. PIN
c. Radial nerve

106. In RA patient there is deformity of finger. DIP is in flexion and PIP is in extension.
What structure is injured
a. Terminal tendon
b. Volar plate
c. Lateral band

107. In a patient with flexion deformity of ulnar sided fingers, what structure is involved
a. Palmer fascia
b. Cleland ligaments

108. A young patient with bone tumour was advised to have bone scan. He is worried
about radiation exposure. What is the dose of radiation compared to simple chest x-ray
a. 200
b. 100
c. 1000

109. A patient with Game keeper thumb injury. What structure is involved
a. Ulnar collateral ligament of first CMC joint

110. Fracture of first metacarpal base. Shaft of 1st metacarpal is dislocated. What is the
treatment
a. CRIF with k-wires
b. Closed reduction and thumb spika

111. Vitamin D resistant rickets Vs Fanconi syndrome

 a. 24 hour urinary phosphate
b. 24 hour urinary calcium

112. Major criteria for the diagnosis of fat embolism

a. Hypoxia

113. Investigation of choice for fat embolism

a. ABGs

114. A patient with multiple fractures presented with tachypnea, tachycardia and shortness
of breath after 24 hours. What is the cause
a. Fat embolism

115. Ankle fracture dislocation which is irreducible. What is the cause

a. Postero-lateral ridge of tibia

116. A patient with posterior dislocation of hip along with ipsilateral femur shaft fracture.
What is the best treatment method
a. Prompt reduction of hip and IM nailing of femur shaft
b. Open reduction of hip and IM nailing of femur shaft

117. Parathyroid hormone in orthopaedics

a. Used in osteoporosis treatment

118. A patient had trauma to arm. He is unable to extend his fingers. Wrist extension is weak,
no sensory loss.
a. PIN injury
b. Radial nerve injury

119. A female was a front seat passenger and hit the windshield in an accident. She was
brought to ER with face swelling. She was talking. What to worry about
a. Airway
b. C-spine xray
c. Circulation

120. A tumour biopsy showing epitheloid and spindle shaped cells. What is the diagnosis
A. Synovial sarcoma
B. Fibrosarcoma

121. Lubrication in metal on metal THR, considering it is congruent

a. Elastohydrodynamic
b. Boundary
c. Elasto(something)
d. (no hydrodynamic in options)

122. A child fell while holding his father’s hand. He is having pain in elbow. What to do
a. Supinate the elbow
b. Reassure the parents
123. A young man suffers firearm injury in right thoracic region. He has ipsilateral motor loss
and contralateral pain and temperature loss
a. Brown Sequard Syndrome

124. A patient with firearm injury in the inguinal region presented with profuse bleeding. He
was transfused 4 pints of blood while on the way to ER. The patient is still in shock. What is
the initial step in management
a. Clamp the bleeding vessel

125. A patient with shoulder pain/weakness, he cannot lift his hand from his lower back
a. Subscapularis

126. A patient with suspected pars fracture. Xray Ap and lateral show no abnormality. What is
the view to confirm
a. Oblique view of the spine

127. A polytrauma patient with pneumothorax. He has tibia, humerus and both bone forearm
fractures. His tibia fracture was fixed with plate. He has no shortness of breath and other
parameters are within normal range. What to do for remaining fractures
a. ORIF of humerus and radius ulna
b. IM nail humerus and ORIF radius ulna
c. ORIF radius ulna and conservative Rx for humerus

128. Prognosis of Ewing sarcoma

a. Grade of tumour?
b. Size
c. Age
d. Histological response to chemotherapy?

129. A tumour on X-ray having features of ground glass appearance

a. Fibrous dysplasia

130. During THR, what is the safe zone of screw placement in acetabulum
a. Posterosuperior
b. Posteroinferior

131. A 4mm arthroscope has what view angle

a. 70
b. 30
c. 90

132. Milwaukee Shoulder is due to

a. Deposition of calcium phosphate
b. Crystal deposition in gout
c. (no hydroxappatite in options)
133. A 65 years old female had shoulder dislocation 3 weeks back. What will you find positive
in clinical testing
a. Drop arm test

134. A young volley ball player had shoulder dislocation. MRI shows bankart lesion. What is
the treatment choice
a. Capsulo-labral repair

135. During cemented THR, what is best for stabilization of femoral stem
a. Pressurization of cement in canal
b. Not using cement restrictor

136. Increasing horizontal offset in THR results in

a. Increased abductor lever arm

137. A 60 year old man has neck of femur fracture. He plays golf and is active in community.
What is best treatment in this age group
a. THR
b. Hemiarthroplasty
c. Screw fixation

138. Hip arthrodesis position

a. 20-30° flexion, 0-5° adduction and 0-15° external rotation

139. Pain in the anterior arm

a. Bicipital tendonitis
b. Cuff tear

140. A patient with GA 3B injury of right tibia. His distal pulses are feeble and sensation are
also decreased in the foot. What is the treatment
a. Amount of soft tissue injury determines the need for amputation?
b. Early amputation results in better functional outcomes in these patients

141. A patient with fracture at junction of proximal third and middle third of tibia was treated
with IM nail. He presented with anterior angulation of the proximal segment. What step
could have prevented this during surgery
a. Entry of nail that is proximal
b. Entry of nail that is distal
c. Entry of nail that is posterior

142. A patient with midshaft tibia fracture and intact fibulae. What is the common deformity
that occurs if treated conservatively
a. Procurvatum?
b. Varus
c. Valgus
d. Recurvatum

143. Ulnar nerve compression in the Guyon’s canal affects which muscle the most
 a. Abductor digiti minimi
b. Adductor pollicis

144. A patient with pain and numbness in the hand which relieves by shaking hand
a. Carpal tunnel syndrome

145. In PRP, which layer contains the most growth factors and platelets
a. Buffy layer

146. In a patient who underwent flap graft of fingers, what is the easiest method of
monitoring the graft in the ward
a. Temperature monitoring
b. Transcutaneous PaO2 measurement

147. Duchenne muscular dystrophy is

a. X-linked recessive disorder

148. Duchenne muscular disorder presents commonly at what age

a. 3-6 years

149. A patient with cerebral palsy who has increased reflexes and increased muscle tone.
What is the type of CP
a. Spastic
b. Ataxia

150. A CP patient with subluxed hip and acetabular index of 50°.

a. Pemberton
b. Salter
c. Shelf

151. 3 years old child with 40° scoliosis and wedge unsegmented vertebra
a. Close observation?
b. Excision and fixation

152. Which tumour is chemo sensitive

a. Synovial sarcoma

153. A young patient who had swelling in proximal arm which recently increased in size and is
causing pain. She also has swelling in distal thigh and proximal leg. Picture of the x-ray was
given, which showed large exostosis in the proximal humerus. What is the treatment

a. Wide local excision (increased size plus symptoms pointing towards malignancy 😟)

154. A patient with right sided radius ulna fracture and other fractures. The patient is in
hypotension. You were about to insert an IV cannula and you find out that he has an AV
fistula in his left forearm created for CRF. What will you do now
a. Insert central line
b. Insert IV line in foot
 c. Insert IV line proximal to fistula
d. Insert IV line proximal to fracture

155. A polio patient with subluxed right hip. His right iliopsoas is 5/5, abductor 2/5, and
extensor 3/5. What is the treatment choice
a. Sharrard’s procedure

156. A polio patient with foot drop

a. AFO

157. A picture of an x-ray showing distal tibia physis injury. Scenario of only medial sided pain
was given.
a. Salter Harris type 1 (clear type 1 injury)
b. SH 2
c. SH 3
d. Tillaux fracture

158. A 9 year old child after a fall presented with hip pain. X-ray show epiphyseal slip of femur
head. What is the most common complication after this injury
a. AVN

159. A child presented with hip pain and fever. ESR and CRP and xray is normal. Hip is flexed
and externally rotated. Diagnosis?
a. Transient synovitis

160. A child with swelling of the knee joint, fever and redness of overlying skin. What is
the next step
a. Aspiration and C/S

161. Restoring pinch in ulnar nerve injury. Which transfer provides abduction of index finger
a. EIP to medial side of proximal phalanx

162. Reamed intramedullary nailing is contraindicated in

a. Pregnant lady in 3rd trimester
b. Fracture below hip implant
c. Distal fracture in child