Republic of the Philippines

Department of Education
REGION III-CENTRAL LUZON
SCHOOLS DIVISION OF SAN JOSE CITY
CPNHS KITA-KITA EXTENSION
REGIONAL DIAGNOSTIC ASSESSMENT IN SCIENCE 10
1. How will you relate the distribution of active volcanoes, earthquake epicenters
andmountain belts all over the world?
A. Active volcanoes, earthquake epicenters and mountain belts are somewhat
located almost on same areas.
B. Some volcanoes and mountain belts all over the world are situated on
same location.
C. The location of earthquake epicenters is an indication of the presence of
active volcanoes.
D. Volcanic activities caused for occurrence of earthquake and formation of
mountain and mountain ranges.
2. What does the locations of the earthquake epicenters say about
lithosphericplates?
A. The origin of the earthquake epicenters is always above the focus.
B. The origin of the earthquake epicenters is also the location of volcanoes.
C. Location of mountain ranges are often areas where earthquake epicenters
are detected.
D. The location of earthquake epicenters are most likely the edges of the
tectonic plate boundaries.
3. Refer to figure below. Which plate less likely experienced earthquake activity?

A. Antarctic Plate
B. Pacific Plate
C. Philippines Plate
D. South American Plate
 4. Which of the following best describes the plate boundaries represented
by theimage below?

I. Divergence between plates A and B

II. Divergence between plates A and C
III. Convergence between plates B and C
IV. Transform between plates A and C
V. Transform boundary between B and C

Figure. Plate boundaries

A. I, II, III C. I, IV, V
B. I, III, IV D. II, III, IV

5. Refer to figure below. Which of the following is a convergent boundary?

A. Arabian Plate and African Plate

B. Caribbean Plate and Eurasian Plate
C. North American Plate and Cocos Plate
D. Philippine Plate and Eurasian
6. What do you expect to find near a divergent boundary?
A. oceanic ridge, trench, rift valley
B. rift valley, volcanoes, oceanic ridge
C. volcanic Island arc, trench, rift valley
D. volcanic island arc, trench, mountain range
7. If you visit a place in the Pacific known to be along converging plates,
which ofthese geologic features should you expect to see?
I. active volcanoes IV. trench
II. oceanic ridge V. volcanic islands
III. rift valleys
A. I, II, V
B. I, IV, V
C. II, III, IV
D. II, III only
 8. Plate Y is an oceanic plate. When it converges with the continental Plate X,
whichof the following will most likely to happen? Refer to figure 4.
A. Part of Plate X will go up and turn into magma.
B. Part of Plate Y will subduct and turn into magma.
C. Plate X will subduct and become crust above Plate Y. D.
Plate Y will subduct, become new crust and turn into magma.

Figure. Map of Plate Boundaries

9. Which of the following statements best explain the cause of the

movement ofplates?
A. Earth’s lithosphere is divided into several plates that ride over the weak
asthenosphere.
B. Heat is produced in the core that produces convection in the mantle causes
the plate to move around.
C. Mantle is fluid that is why the solid lithosphere floats on it.
D. Subduction or the process in which the crust plunges back into the earth
causes for plates to move.
10. Which of the statement/s best explain and illustrate the
convectionoccurring in the mantle?

I. II.

III. IV.

A. I and II. Convection causes upward and downward direction changes and
influence sea floor to separate or spread.
B. II and IV. After heating, the alternate current direction causes the plates to
converge, diverge and slide past another.
C. III only. Convection current and inward rotational movement form the chain of
mountains under the oceans.
D. IV only. Convection current outward rotational mass movements cause the crustal
plates to diverge.
11. What evidence do scientists use to support the Continental Drift Theory?
A. Rocks, fossils, oceans
B. Rocks, water, ice caps
C. Rocks, fossils, human beings
D. Rocks, fossils, climatic zones, mountain ranges
12. Which of the following evidence support tectonic plates movement?
A. Electromagnetic theory, geological deflection, Paleomagnetic theory
B. Continental drift theory, magnetic reversal, convection, ocean waves
C. Continental drift theory, Sea Floor Spreading, convection, solar energy
D. Seafloor spreading theory, magnetic reversal, Continental drift, convection
13. What is the example of wave with a long wavelength and low frequency?
A. Gamma rays C. Visible light
B. Ultraviolet D. Radio waves
14. Which of the following is the correct order of increasing wavelength in
theelectromagnetic spectrum?
A. Gamma rays, X-rays, ultraviolet rays, infrared, microwave, radio wave,
visible light.
B. Gamma rays, X-rays, ultraviolet rays, visible light, infrared, microwave,
radio waves.
C. Radio waves, infrared, ultraviolet rays, microwaves, X-rays, gamma rays,
visible light.
D. Radio waves, infrared, visible light, ultraviolet rays, microwave, gamma
rays, X-rays.
15. You are an electronics and instrument engineer in the military when
someone asked you to explain why X-rays are not used for radar purposes, what
will be youranswer?
A. We cannot use it since it has high frequencies and short wavelengths.
B. Other electromagnetic waves will interfere with X-rays as it hits the target.
C. High frequency X-rays would penetrate targets instead of reflecting and
coming back.
D. X-rays are completely reflected by metal target aircrafts or ships that are
visible to radar.
16. Which of the following frequency range is commonly used in
FrequencyModulation (FM) radio broadcasting?
A. Low Frequency (LF)
B. High Frequency (HF)
C. Very High Frequency (VHF)
D. Extreme High Frequency (EHF)
17. Which of the following EM waves is responsible for the food production of
plantsthrough photosynthesis?
A. UV rays
B. radio waves
C. visible lights
D.UV infrared rays
 18. You and your friends will have a party on a beach resort. Your parents
advised you to limit your time in the mid-day sun, always use sunscreen and wear
protectivesunglasses – These are precautionary measures to minimize the
negative effects of
.
A. infrared, ultraviolet rays, x-rays
B. visible light, X-rays, microwaves
C. gamma rays, X-rays, microwaves
D. infrared, ultraviolet rays, visible light
19. Which of the following statements are TRUE?
I. Gamma rays can cause genes to mutate.
II. Cell phone towers emit radio frequency that can cause blindness.
III. Radiation from microwave ovens can destroy the anti-cancer ability of
vegetables.
IV. Low-frequency radiation from home appliances will not cause any health
problems.

A. I and III B. I and II C. III and IV D. II and IV

20. Which of the following is correct about the image formed by a 10-cm
objectplaced 1 meter in front of a plane mirror?
A. It is virtual, image size is 5 cm, reversed left to right and upright.
B. It appears real, farther away from the mirror, smaller than the object and upright.
C. It is virtual, reversed laterally, has the same size and distance as the object in
front.
D. It is virtual, reversed laterally, has the same size as the object and appears
farther than 1 meter.
21. When an object is placed at the center of the curvature of a
concave mirror, theimage is .
A. real, upright, and bigger than the object.
B. real, inverted, and bigger than the object
C. virtual, upright, and bigger than the object
D. real, inverted, and the same size with the object
22. Which of the following statements best describe a compound microscope?

I. It makes small object looks bigger.

II. It is used to magnify distant object clearly.
III. It has two converging lens and at least 1 diverging lens.
IV. It has an eyepiece that enlarges the image of the object lens.
V. It consists of two converging lens- an objective lens and eyepiece.
A. I, IV, V
B. II, III, V
C. II, IV, V
D. II, III only
23. Which of the optical instruments use at least 2 convex lenses to view an object?
A. camera and simple periscope.
B. microscope and refracting telescope.
C. oscilloscope and stethoscopes.
D. refracting telescope and periscope.
24. Which of the following is correct about motors and generators?
A. Motors and generators convert mechanical energy or motion to electrical
energy.
B. Generators convert motion to electricity while motors turn electricity to
mechanical energy.
C. Most generators convert electrical energy to motion while some motors do
the reverse function.
D. Most modern motors and generators have the same operations including
their functions and uses.

Stator

Current source

25. Refer to figure 3. Which is the correct order of operation of an electric motor?
I. The cycle continues as long as there is electric current.
II. The loop of wire will produce a magnetic field around it.
III. The stator magnetism acts on both sides of the coil to rotate it in one direction.
IV. Electric current passes to the loop of wire through brushes and the commutator.
V. The magnetic field of the coil will interact with the magnetic field of the stator
magnet.
A. I – III – IV – II – V
B. III – IV – V – I - II
C. IV – II – V – III – I
D. IV – II – III – V - I
26. Female reproductive system enables a woman to produce eggs, provide space
and conditions to allow a baby to develop. What is the female reproductive
organ?
A. Ovary.
B. Oviduct.
C. Uterus.
D. Vagina.
27. Arrange the statements describing the pathway of the sperm cell from where it
was produced in the male reproductive system?
1. Sperm leaves the body by passing through the urethra.
2. The vas deferens is a long tube that connects the epididymis to the
urethra.
3. After being produced in the seminiferous tubules, sperm travel to the
epididymis.
4. The penis deposits sperm in the female reproductive system during
sexual activity.
A. 2, 1, 3 ,4
B. 3, 4, 2, 1
C. 3, 2, 1, 4
D. 1, 2, 3, 4
28. Which of the following is the correct effect or primary hormones in
reproductive system?
A. Plays an important role in pregnancy.
B. Stimulates the production of sperm and egg cell.
C. Produces androgen and testosterone in the male’s body.
D. Manufactures estrogen and progesterone in female’s body.
29. What is the result of a strong contractions of uterine wall that occurs before
and after menstruation?
A. Bloating.
B. Cramps.
C. Menstrual cramps.
D. Nausea.
30. According to evolutionists, which is the best test to show the similarities two
organisms?
A. Development.
B. Courting behavior.
C. Structure.
D. Genomic DNA.
31. Logging companies cut down and burn rain forest trees for flooring, furniture,
and other products, as well as to generate power. These human activities
pose a threat to the Rainforest. Which of the following is the most effective
method for Rainforest conservation?
A. Advertise it as a camping site.
B. Get only minor forest products.
C. Cut trees into logs and make timber.
D. All of the above.

32. Which of the following classifications of value of biodiversity is described in a

variety of rice grains thriving in different places that makes it more attractive to
tourists?
A. Indirect economic value
B. Direct economic value
C. Ethical / Cultural
D. Both b and c
33. In promoting reproductive health and wellness, which is most likely should not
be included based on the following suggestions below?
A. Engage with spiritual activities and sports.
B. Practice proper hygiene and have a balance diet.
C. Engage in the dating site from the web to find a partner.
D. Create a slogan, poster or pamphlet to disseminate information.
34. Darwin observed the Finches on the
Galapagos Island were similar in form except
for variations of their beaks. He deduced that
these variations were useful for .
A. Getting food.
B. Building nests.
C. Attracting a mate.
D. Surviving the cold.
35. What can an individual do to help the environment?
A. Be mindful.
B. Build factories.
C. Use a refillable water bottle.
D. Notice how he/she uses water.
36. Which of the following causes to loss wildlife population in most of the places
in our country?
A. Habitat
B. Limiting factor
C. Carrying capacity
D. Natural disturbances
37. Biodiversity is all the different kinds of life you'll find in one area—the variety of
animals, plants, fungi, and even microorganisms like bacteria that make up our
natural world. Each of these species and organisms work together in
ecosystems, like an intricate web, to maintain balance and support life. What is
the best definition of the term biodiversity?
A. The animals that live in an area.
B. Species that have become extinct.
C. Species that look different from one another.
D. The number and variety of species that lives in an area.
38. At constant volume, the temperature of a gas decreases. What will happen to
its pressure?
A. decreases
B. increases
C. undetermined
D. remains the same
39. What will happen to the volume of a gas when its temperature increases at
constant pressure?
A. decreases
B. increases
C. undetermined
D. remains the same
40. What happens to pressure when the speed
of gas in a tank is greater? It becomes
A. lesser
B. greater
C. the same
D. unpredictable
41. What will happen when a container filled
with gas is shaken for a couple of minutes?
A. The pressure of gas increases.
B. The temperature of gas increases.
C. The pressure and temperature of gas decreases.
D. The pressure and temperature of gas increases.
42. He explained the existing relationship between volume and amount of gas. A
gas law which states that temperature and pressure, equal volumes of different
gases contain an equal number of molecules.
A. Boyle’s Law
B. Charles’ Law
C. Avogadro’s Law
D. Gay-Lussac’s Law
43. A rubber balloon is already filled with air but Kurt still pumps air in it. Why is
this possible?
A. The molecules of air move freely.
B. The molecules of air are compressible.
C. A rubber balloon is new and branded.
D. The high temperature of molecules of air inside the balloon.
44. Lean beef, pork, eggs, and almonds are some examples of proteins. They are
the building blocks of the living material.
A. lipids
B. proteins
C. carbohydrates
D. nucleic acids
45. Lactose is a type of sugar known as disaccharide. What are the simple sugars
that made up lactose?
A. glucose and fructose
B. galactose and glucose
C. glycogen and cellulose
D. amylose and amylopectin
46. DNA is composed of a five-carbon sugar deoxyribose, a phosphate group and
a nitrogenous base. What is the base that is present only in DNA but not in
RNA?
A. adenine
B. cytosine
C. guanine
D. thymine
47. Carbohydrates are a group of biomolecules joined by chemical bonds. What do
you call the bond between sugar units?
A. Covalent bond
B. Glycosidic bond
C. Hydrogen bond
D. Peptide bond
48. In chemical equation, Na + Cl à NaCl, what symbol is used to separate two
reactants and
two products.
A. à
B. +
C. =
D. ß
 49. Which of the following skeleton equation is correct when calcium
carbonate is heated, calcium oxide and carbon dioxide are produced?
a. Ca + CO3 à CaOCO2
b. Ca + CO3 à CaO + CO2
c. CaCO3 à CaOCO2
d. CaCO3 à CaO + CaO2
50. Which of the following statements is true about collision theory?
a. Particles that are moving faster collide with each other
b. The particles colliding has the same amount of energy
c. Even without collision of particles, reaction will happen
d. Reactions will occur if the colliding particles have enough energy
Please refer to the figure below to answer Questions 51 and 52.

51. How are electromagnetic waves arranged from radio wave to gamma
ray interms of wavelength?
A. Increasing C. From constant to infinite value
B. Decreasing D. From infinite to constant value
52. What is true between the energies carried by radio wave and microwave?
A. Both carry the same value of energy.
B. Have greater amount of energy than microwave.
C. Carries lesser amount of energy than microwave.
D. Does not carry energy at all whereas microwave carries maximum amount ofenergy.
53. Satellite communications around the world are brought about by the utilization of

A. infrared. C. radio waves.

B. microwaves. D. x-ray.
54. Tuning a radio over 103.1 Megahertz (MHz) will allow the radio to subscribe the
radio station MOR Baguio. What does 103.1 MHz indicate? This is the frequency
modulation
a. of the station’s signal carried by an infrared.
b. of an ultra violet ray coming from the station.
c. allocated to a radio waveband coming from the station.
d. assigned to a micro wave carrying signal from the station.
 55. In which scenario does infrared scanner beneficial?
A. In a diagnostic center for the detection of potential blood clots in the brain.
B. In a maternal clinic in which a pregnant mother wants to know the sex of her baby.
C. In a hospital in which a patient is being scanned for the presence of potentialcancer cells.
D. In an airport in which passengers are scanned for abnormal body temperaturewhich is an indicator
of contagious deadly fever.
56. Why would a doctor NEVER recommend his patient to undergo diagnostic X-ray
procedure every month?
A. It can penetrate the bones in the body and can cause osteoporosis.
B. Too much exposure to it can damage body tissues and can cause cancer.
C. It carries the highest amount of energy, thus the most dangerous electromagneticwave.
D. Over exposure to it produces too much Vitamin D in skin than can cause thirddegree burn
57. How much larger will your classroom seem to appear if the entire two opposite
walls consist of plane mirrors?
A. 2x larger B. 3x larger C. 4x larger D. Infinite
58. An object is placed between a concave mirror and its focal point. What is the
type and orientation of the image formed?
A. Real and erect C. Virtual and erect
B. Real and inverted D. Virtual and inverted
59. This optical instrument is also called field glasses and uses 2 convex lenses to
make smaller object larger where the 1st lens catches light rays from the distant
object and makes a focused image a short distance behind the lens.
A. Binoculars B. Microscope C. Oscilloscope D. Telescope
60. How does a periscope contribute its working principle in a submarine?
A. It forms magnified images of distant object.
B. It displays and analyzes waveforms of electronic signals.
C. It uses lenses to magnify minute objects not seen by the naked eyes.
D. It displays and analyzes waveforms of electronic signals. a. It uses a system ofprisms, lenses or
mirrors to reflect images through a tube.