LICENSURE EXAMINATION FOR CRIMINOLOGISTS

PRE-BOARD ON CRIME DETECTION AND INVESTIGATION (15%)

Direction: Choose the letter of the correct answer.

1. It deals with the identity, location and arrest of a person who commits a crime and
simultaneously identify, collect, preserve and evaluate evidence for the purpose of bringing
criminal offender to justice.
a. Investigation c. Investigative process
b. Criminal investigation d. Criminal inquest
2. After identifying, collecting and preserving information gathered about the crime, the
investigator shall _______________ such information to determine whether it can stand
prosecution and trial.
a. Recognize c. Preserve
b. Collect d. Evaluate
3. Which of the following is not one of the form of information the investigator obtained from
regular, cultivated or grapevine sources?
a. Sensory c. Concrete
b. Written d. Physical forms
4. Through this tool of criminal investigation tangible things maybe, used to detect crimes,
identify the criminals, facilitate, and assist the investigator in its task in achieving the objectives
of criminal investigation.
a. Information c. Instrumentation
b. Criminalistics d. Interview/Interrogation
5. Which phase of criminal Investigation that the investigator apprised the person of his right
under Republic Act 7438?
a. During the identification of criminal offender
b. During the arrest, detention and interrogation of the offender
c. During the gathering of evidence to prove the guilt of criminal offender
d. During police line-up
6. What specific offence has been committed? Who committed it? When it was committed?
Where it was committed? Why it was committed? And how it was committed? This are
called_______________________ of criminal investigation.
a. Cardinal Points c. Golden Rule
b. Three I’s d. Bridges burn
7. One of the stages of criminal investigation is the identification of criminals, which can be
done in any or a combination of the following, except:
a. By confession or admission by the criminal
b. By corpus delicti
c. By circumstantial evidence
d. By eyewitness
8. Coerced and uncounseled statements are considered involuntary or forced confession which
are usually an:
a. Judicial c. Prosecutorial
b. Extra judicial d. Admission
9. After apprising him of his rights under Republic Act 7438, Lauro Galit who was invited and
interrogated for the crime of murder executed an extra-judicial confession acknowledging his
guilt to the crime charged. What is the effect of such confession to his case?
a. It can be used as evidence against him
b. He will be convicted for the crime of murder
c. He waived his rights to prove his innocence
d. His case will prosper
10. Which of the following is not an element of corpus delicti?
a. Proof of the occurrence of certain event
b. Person’s criminal responsibility for the acts
c. Additional evidence of a different character to the same point
d. Proper chain of custody
11. An act or declaration made in the presence and within the hearing or observation of a party
who does or says nothing, when the act or declaration naturally calls for action if comment is
not true.
a. Admission by Silence c. Admission
b. Res inter alios acta d. Negative pregnant
12. In this process, written confession of the accused is used as a script in describing events of
the crime. This strengthens the prosecutor’s case and serves to convince the judge that the
accused was not maltreated nor affected by sinister psychological influence.
a. Mental reconstruction c. Reconstruction
b. Crime reenactment d. Physical reconstruction
13. Statement no. 1. Confession is a voluntary statement, either oral or written, made by a
person charged with the commission of a crime which he admits participation in, or commission
of, the criminal act. It cannot be implied, it should be direct and positive acknowledgment of
guilt. Statement no. 2 Admission is a statement by the accused regarding facts pertinent to the
crime. It tends, in connection with the proof of other facts, to prove the suspect’s guilt. It can
be implied.
a. Statement No. 1 is true while statement no. 2 is false
b. Statement No. 1 is false while statement no. 2 is true
c. Statements No. 1 and 2 are both true
d. Statements No. 1 and 2 are both false
14. Which of the following need not be present in order to prove the guilt of the accused by
means of confession or admission?
a. Confession must be supported by corroborative evidence
b. Corpus delicti must be established separately
c. Confession must be voluntarily and freely given
d. Confession must be ratified by the judge or the fiscal
15. Assume that you are an investigator who investigates a murder case perpetrated by an
unknown suspect. A person in the name of Ruel, a call center agent, saw the crime and he is
willing to identify the suspect. Which of the following methods will you not utilize to establish
the identity of the suspect?
a. Verbal Description (Portrait Parle) and Rogue’s Gallery (Photographic Files)
b. General Photographs and Cartographic Sketch (Artist’s Assistance) [Composite Artist]
c. Police Line-up
d. Systematic interview that may lead to the identity of a known criminals
16. You are an investigator, investigating a suspected rape-slaying case which was allegedly
witnessed by a certain person who volunteered to identify and testify against the perpetrator.
What are the factors that you should not consider to determine the accuracy of his
identification of the suspect?
a. His ability to observe and remember the distinct appearance of the suspect
b. The prevailing conditions of visibility and observation when the crime was committed
c. His state of mind when he witnessed the commission of the crime
d. The lapse of time between the criminal event and when identification was made
17. Circumstantial Evidence is an evidence that indirectly proves a fact in issue through an
inference which fact-finder draws from the evidence presented. It is sufficient to produce the
conviction of the accused if:
a. There are more than one circumstances present
b. The facts from which the inferences derived are proven
c. The combination of all the circumstances is such as to produce a conviction beyond
reasonable doubt
d. All of the above
18. You are an investigator who investigates an alleged robbery with homicide case perpetrated
by an unknown suspect. Since there are no witnesses to the crime the following may give you a
hint to identify the suspect, except one.
a. Motive and opportunity
b. Declaration and acts indicative of guilt, preparation for a commission of crime and possession
of fruits of a crime of the perpetrator
c. Modus Operandi, associative evidence and criminal potentiality
d. Knowledge, skills, tools or facilities that could easily be adopted to criminal use by the
suspect
19. Person who by social or professional position possesses or has access to information of
continuing interest, and who willingly provides information to the police either in response to a
specific request or his own initiative.
a. Incidental informant c. Automatic informant
b. Casual informant d. Recruited informant
20. Covert observation of a person, place, or things by human or technical means to acquire
information.
a. Surveillance c. Mobile
b. Stationary surveillance d. Technical
21. In this method of shadowing, operatives are station at a fixed point assuming that subject
followed the same general route each day.
a. ABC Method c. Combined Foot- Auto Surveillance
b. Leap Frog Method d. None of the above
22. Sometimes called “roping”. An investigation technique whereby the operative conceals his
true identity and adopts an assumed role to obtain information or accomplish a specific
mission.
a. Undercover assignment c. Work assignment and social assignment
b. Dwelling assignment d. Personal contact assignment
23. You are an investigator tasked to investigate a suspected murder case which the there is no
known suspect, no witnesses nor any other circumstantial evidence, except physical evidence.
Where can you get these pieces of evidence that may lead you to the identity of the suspect?
a. The Crime Scene c. The Suspect
b. The Victim d. All of the above
24. You were an investigator who tries to reconstruct the crime scene. What are the
components of the crime scene situation which you would analyzed?
a. Suspect arrival at the scene and place of entry
b. Movement of suspect from point of entry and his contact with the victim
c. Place of exit
d. All of the above
25. What is the type of reasoning whereby the collected information is analyzed carefully to
develop a theory of the crime.
a. Inductive c. Systematic
b. Deductive d. Logical
26. Statement no. 1. In the reconstruction of a crime, the investigator rational theory of the
crime may, begins with deductive logic and later on inductive logic; Statement no. 2. A rational
theory of crime is more than a learned guess, but less than a certainty, but have very high order
of probability.
a. Statement no. 1 is true while statement no. 2 is false
b. Statement no. 1 is false while statement no. 2 is true
c. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both true
d. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both false

27. Statement no. 1. In Physical of reconstruction, the physical appearance of the crime scene
is reconstructed from the description, of the witnesses and the indication of the physical
evidence. Statement no. 2. In mental reconstruction after physical reconstruction, conclusions
are made about the consistency of the accounts of the various witnesses. No assumption is
made without supporting evidence.
a. Statement no. 1 is correct
b. Statement no. 2 is incorrect
c. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both correct
d. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both incorrect
28. After reconstructing the crime scene, the following are the minimal requirements to be
observed by the investigator to insure admissibility of photographs in court.
a. The object which is represented should not be immaterial or irrelevant
b. The photograph should not unduly incite prejudice and sympathy
c. The photograph should be free from distortion
d. All of the above
29. Why does the dead body of the victim of violence needs to be photographed after its
removal from the crime scene?
a. To have a set of view showing the relationship of the body with the surrounding
b. To identify the victim and have close-up picture of the wounds
c. To provide reserve picture in case of loss or damage
d. All of the above
30. Photographs to be taken at the scene of the crime except what?
a. Over-All and environment’s photograph
b. Photographs of articles of evidence and photographs of the deceased
c. Photographs of the scene of the crime operatives showing their identity
d. Special techniques photograph of the body after removal
31. It supplements photographs of the crime scene and considered to be the simplest and the
most effective way of showing actual measurements and of identifying significant items of
evidence in their location at the scene.
a. Crime scene sketch c. Finished sketch
b. Rough sketch d. Direction sketch
32. In searching for physical evidence at the crime scene, the following types of search could be
used depending upon locale, number of personnel available, type of object sought and speed
desired, except:
a. Strip and double strip or grid search
b. Zone search
c. Rectangular and circular search
d. Spiral and wheel search
33. Which of the following must be done to maintain the physical integrity of evidence?
a. Evidence must be photographed and packaged
b. Evidence must be properly documented
c. Maintain its chain of custody
d. Identify, tag and seal the evidence
34. Which of the following must be done to maintain the legal integrity of evidence?
a. Evidenced must be properly documented
b. Maintain its chain of custody
c. Identify, tag and seal the evidence
d. Photographed and packaged the evidence
35. The methodology involving the systematic searching, handling, distribution and
accountability of all evidence found at the crime scene, including the documentation of every
article of evidence from the point of initial discovery at the scene, to its collection and transport
to the point of examination, its temporary storage and its final disposal is referred to us.
a. Corpus delicti c. Blotter
b. Necropsy report d. Chain of custody
36. To prove the chain of custody of evidence the following must be demonstrated except:
a. The evidence must be free for alteration, contamination and switching
b. The evidence offered is the same evidence found at the scene
c. There is no opportunity to replace or improperly alter the evidence
d. Any change in the condition of the evidence can be explained
37. Which of the following is not one of the questioning techniques that should be utilized in
interrogation?
a. Chronological c. Going backward
b. General to specific d. Going upward
38. In questioning a witness, an ideal type of written statement is:
a. Narrative type because it is easier and will be short
b. Question and answer because it provides details of acts
c. Combination of the two
d. Your convenient type
39. Jessie was invited by the NBI operatives to answer questions pertinent to the, murder case
investigated. After the questioning at the NBI Headquarters however, he was held for further
questioning and considered him a suspect already. Persons who can visit him are as follows,
except:
a. Lovers, friends and countrymen
b. Immediate member of his family
c. Any medical doctor, priest or religious minister
d. Personnel of the C.H.R.
40. Republic Act No. 7438 defines immediate members of the family are as follows, except:
a. Spouse, fiancé/fiancée, parents, child, brother or sister
b. Grandparents, grandson/daughter, great granddaughter/grandson
c. Uncle, aunt, guardian, ward
d. Relatives, intimate friends and best friends
41. What are the Golden Rules in homicide investigation?
a. Never touch, alter and change the position of anything until identified, measured and
photographed
b. If article has been move it can never be restored again to its original position
c. A and B are true
d. All of the above
42. The interview of a witness can be described by the acronym IRONIC, which stands for:
a. Inquiry, Recognition, Organization, Novelty, Identity, Continuity
b. Identity, Rapport, Omnipresent, Narration, Inquiry, Conclusion
c. Identity, Recognition, Opening statement, Narration, Inquiry, Conclusion
d. Identity, Rapport, Opening statement, Narration, Inquiry, Conclusion
43. Which one is not a means of recording crime a scene?
a. By photographs c. By sketches
b. By notes d. Surveying
44. Application of all procedures for the search of missing persons.
a. Rogues gallery c. manhunt
b. Tracing d. order of battle
45. Physical evidence are contaminated, altered of shape, damaged or lost because of:
a. Improper packaging
b. Corruption of investigator
c. Non-maintenance of chain of custody
d. A, and C are true
46. The Land Transportation Office (LTO) is under the___________, and part of
traffic_____________:
A. DILG-engineering C. DPWH-engineering
B. DOTC-enforcement D. DEPED-traffic education
47. The study of biorhythm is an important aspect of traffic safety because a person can avoid
accident:
A. By hinting on how he will tend to feel in a certain day
B. By knowing his intellectual capacity on certain day
C. By knowing his physical capacity on certain day
D. By ascertaining his physical, emotional and intellectual condition in a certain day
48. Safety campaign is an important aspect of traffic safety education because:
A. It is designed to make road users behave more safely
B. It informs the public of any updates in traffic
C. It focuses on the strict compliance to traffic signs
D. It can prevent accident
49. What is the primary aim of driver instruction programs?
A. To teach the rudiments of driving
B. To instill awareness of one’s legal and moral responsibilities in traffic
C. To teach the abilities required for one to be eligible for a driving license
D. To help the learners know the basic of traffic rules and regulations
50. Traffic safety education for children needs to be systematic to:
A. Instill safety consciousness among the children
B. Cope up with the demands of time
C. Lessen the fatalities among children while they are young
D. Learn easier than adults
51. Land Transportation Code of the Philippines is:
A. RA 4136 C. RA 6975
B. PD 4136 D. RA 9708
52. When a driver unloads passengers on the middle of the road, he committed:
A. Illegal unloading C. Illegal loading
B. Traffic obstruction D. illegal stopping
53. An accident which is accompanied by an unidentified road user who flees immediately
thereafter.
A. Hit and Run cases C. Motor vehicle non-traffic accident
B. Motor vehicle traffic accident D. Non motor vehicle none traffic accident
54. Separation of traffic units in a vehicular accident is referred to as:
A. final position C. hazards
B. disengagement D. stopping
55. Seeing, feeling or hearing and understanding of an unusual or unexpected condition
indicative of a sign that the accident might takes place.
A. perception of hazards C. starts of evasive action
B. initial contact D. maximum engagement
56. An enforcement action which the violator is commanded to appear in court without
detaining him.
A. traffic arrest C. traffic citation
B. traffic warning D. dogwatch
57. Marks left on the roadway by tires when the brakes were applied strongly, hence the
wheels locked, and not free to rotate.
A. skid marks C. scuff marks
B. key event D. debris
58. Used when traffic enforcer observed a minor violation but preoccupied at a moment.
A. visual warning C. verbal warning
B. written warning D. oral warning
59. Considered as emergency vehicle, except:
A. Police car on call C. Ambulance on call
B. Fire truck on call D. Physician’s car
60. Motor vehicle used by ambassador of Singapore.
A. government C. diplomatic
B. foreign D. gate away
61. These are the conditions exist which lend cohesiveness to modern-day drug trafficking
organizations, except:
a. Vertical integration and alternative sources of supply
b. Exploiting social and political conditions
c. Insulation of leaders
d. Corrupt government official and society indifference
62. An offense whose inception, prevention and/or direct or indirect effects involved more than
one country.
a. Drug trafficking and human smuggling c. Transnational crimes
b Terrorism, piracy and cybercrimes d. Global crimes
63. Unlawful activities of the members of a highly organized, disciplined association engaged in
supplying illegal goods and services.
a. Enterprise Crime c. White collar crime
b. Organized Crime d. Economic crime
64. Organized crime is an enterprise of group of persons engaged in a continuing illegal activity
which has as its primary purpose is:
a. the generation of profits irrespective of national boundaries
b. the control of certain illegal activities in a specific territory
c. the creation of fear among its enemies
d. the domination of a certain community
65. Where does the concept of organized crime emerged?
a. In China, when the Triad was established b. In Japan, when Yakuza was founded
c. In Sicily Italy, when the Mafia was first to emerged d. In the US, when Al Capone ran
Chicago with
blood and guns
66. Founders of organized crime in the US like Alphonse Capone, Charles “Lucky” Luciano,
Meyer Lansky and Benjamin “Bugsy” Siegel, are notably, members of a small street gang in New
York called:
a. Five Points Gang c. Outlaws
b. Tongs d. Hells Angels
67. Structural group of three or more persons existing for the period of time and acting in
concert, with the aim of committing one or more serious crimes or offenses established in
accordance with this conviction in order to obtain, directly or indirectly, a financial or other
material benefit.
a. Crime syndicate c. Criminal gang
b. Organized criminal group d. Fraternity
68. Which of the following is not one of the attributes of organized criminal group?
a. Non-Ideological, hierarchical and exclusive Membership
b. Dominating, witty, influential and generous contributor to the church, politicians etc.
c. Self-perpetuating, violent, involvement in bribery and constitutes a unique subculture
d. Monopolistic, governed by rules and regulations and has specialization/ division of labor.
69. Member of the organized criminal group difficult assignments involving the use of violence
in a rational manner.
a. Money mover c. Enforcer
b. Fixer d. Intelligence analyst
70. Commission of transnational crimes are motivated by the following, except one:
a. political influence c. hate and revenge
b. economic gain d. social control in a global scope.
71. The Mafia is believed to be originated from:
a. Morte Alla Francia, Italia Anela
b. the practice of the criminals to seal a black handprint at the scene of the crime
c. Italian’s beauty, perfection, grace, and excellence
d. the Sicilian struggle in the 13th Century against French Rule
72. The Mafioso connotes:
a. Pride, self- confidence, and vainglorious behavior
b. Brave and self-reliant, a man of action, and one not to be taken lightly
c. Man of honor or man of respect d. A, and B
73. Which of the following is not one of the categories of organized crime behavior?
a. Violence and strong commitment and determination to get what they want
b. Provision of illicit goods and services
c. Conspiracy and penetration of legitimate business
d. Extortion and corruption
74. Membership in organized crime group requires:
a. Loyalty c. Lifetime commitment
b. Obedience to the boss d. Specialized criminal skills
75. Criminality of an organized crime group is directed by:
a. The pursuit of profit along well-defined lines
b. Violence, when the interests of the organization are threatened
c. The boss
d. The pursuit of eliminating competitors
76. A person found guilty of use of dangerous drugs for the first time shall be punished with:
A. Imprisonment of 6 yrs and one day to 12 years
B. Rehabilitation of a minimum period of 6 months
C. Rehabilitation for 6 months to 18 months
D. Imprisonment of at least 6 months

77. What drug classification are solvents, paints and gasoline which are examples of substances
that are sniffed to obtain intoxication fall?
A. Depressants C. Energizers
B. Tranquilizers D. Inhalants
78. Operation of drug syndicates are usually made secretly that makes it detection quite
difficult. Various techniques were made by its operator in concealing their activities.
A. Hide –out operation C. Clandestine Operation
B. Disguised operation D. Confidential
79. Considered to be one of the prime suppliers of Heroin in Asia is the so called Golden
Triangle where 80% of illicit drugs of the world originate. This lies on the borders of:
A. Thailand –Laos –Burma C. Iran –Afghanistan – Pakistan
B. Thailand – Laos- Myanmar D. Peru- Columbia- Bolivia
80. A type of Drugs according to pharmacological classification which often relives pain and
induces sleep.
A. Hallucinogens C. Stimulants
B. Sedatives/Depressant D. Narcotics
81. One of the most abuse hallucinogenic drugs in the Philippines that contain active
components known as Tethrahydro-cannabinol?
A. Mescaline C. LSD (Lysergic Acid Diethylamine)
B. Marijuana D. Ecstacy (methylenedioxymethamphetamine)
82. Marijuana has been one of the most abuse hallucinogens in the Philippines and its control
becomes difficult according to some authorities due to the fact that:
A. It is easy to smoke it secretly C. It is easy to cultivate
B. It is sellable in the market D. It is in demand
83. Drugs that affects sensation, thinking and self-awareness and emotion:
A. Hallucinogens C. Stimulants
B. Sedatives/Depressant D. Narcotics
84. Drugs that is commonly used by athletes having the properties of increasing stamina and/or
energy.
A. Ecstasy C. MDMA
B. Shabu D. Anabolic Steroid
85. They serve as permanent consultant of the Dangerous Drug Board:
A. Secretary of DILG and Secretary of Justice
B. NBI Director and PNP Director General
C. PDEA Director General and PNP, Chief
D. PNP Director and PDEA Director
86. A form of physical dependence, severe craving for the drug even to the point of interfering
with the person’s ability to function normally.
A. Tolerance C. Habituation
B. Addiction D. Psychological Dependence
87. Removal of toxic substances from the body as a result of abusing drugs:
A. Cleansing process C. Abstinence
B. Aversion treatment D. Detoxification
88. A dangerous drug which predominant legitimate use as a veterinary anesthetic.
A. Ketamine C. Anesthesia
B. Codeine D. Sleeping pills
89. Also known as Papaver Somniferum and considered as the mother drugs of other narcotics
substance.
A. Codeine C. Morphine
B. Heroin D. Opium Poppy
90.The following shall undergo Mandatory Drug Testing according to R.A. 9165, EXCEPT.
A. Officers and Employee of public and private offices.
B. Applicant for firearms license and for permit to carry firearms outside residence.
C. Officers and Members of the Military, police and other law enforcement agencies.
D. All persons charged before the prosecutor’s office with a criminal offense having an
imposable penalty of not less than six (6) years and one (1) days.

91. The prevention of drug addiction is primarily a responsibility of what institution so as to

prevent its members from being hook to addiction?
A. Church C. Barangay
B. Family D. School
92. Percentage of alcohol blood which indicates that the person is under the influence of the
liquor (alcohol)?
A. 0.05 C. 1.5
B. 0.15 D. 0.50
93. What group of drugs is used medically as pain killers?
A. opiates C. shabu
B. track D. coke
94. The source of most analgesic narcotic is:
A. Opium C. heroine
B. morphine D. All of them
95. Which of the factors below is perceived to be the major cause of initial drug abuse?
A. poor environment C. domestic violence
B. experimental thrill D. peer pressure
96. If cocaine is a stimulant, what is LSD?
A. solvent C. hallucinogen
B. narcotic D. depressant
97. Marijuana plant can easily be identified by:
A. Its stalk that grows up to 12 feet
B. Its pungent scent when matured or fully grown.
C. Its branches which occur at opposite points on the stalk
D. Its finger-like leaves broken into leaflets whose edges are serrated in shape.
98. Which of the following is the commonly known as the “poorman’s cocaine”.
A. Amphethamine C. Methamphetamine
B. Ecstasy D. Shabu
99. Transhipment point of all forms of heroin in the world.
a. Japan c. Philippines
b. Hongkong d. Burma
100. Cocaine has originated from Columbia; Shabu originated from:
a. Japan c. Mexico
b. China d. India