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BAG
PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEY (CBRT)

Name of the post Deputy Commissioner, Food and Drugs Control Administration, Class 1
Advertisement No. 117/2020-21
Preliminary Test held on 16-09-2021
Question No 001 – 300
17-09-2021

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Publish Date
Last Date to Send Suggestion(s) 24-09-2021

THE LINK FOR ONLINE OBJECTION SYSTEM WILL START FROM 18-09-2021; 04:00 PM ONWARDS

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Instructions / ૂચના
Candidate must ensure compliance to the instructions mentioned below, else objections

a.
shall not be considered: -
(1) All the suggestion should be submitted through ONLINE OBJECTION SUBMISSION SYSTEM only.
Physical submission of suggestions will not be considered.

di
(2) Question wise suggestion to be submitted in the prescribed format (proforma) published on the
website / online objection submission system.
(3) All suggestions are to be submitted with reference to the Master Question Paper with provisional
answer key (Master Question Paper), published herewith on the website / online objection
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submission system. Objections should be sent referring to the Question, Question No. & options of the
Master Question Paper.
ap
(4) Suggestions regarding question nos. and options other than provisional answer key (Master Question
Paper) shall not be considered.
(5) Objections and answers suggested by the candidate should be in compliance with the responses given
by him in his answer sheet. Objections shall not be considered, in case, if responses given in the answer
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sheet /response sheet and submitted suggestions are differed.


(6) Objection for each question should be made on separate sheet. Objection for more than one question
in single sheet shall not be considered.
ar

ઉમેદવાર નીચેની ૂચનાઓ ુ ં પાલન કરવાની તકદાર રાખવી, અ યથા વાંધા- ૂચન ગે કરલ ર ૂ આતો યાને લેવાશે નહ

(1) ઉમેદવાર વાંધાં- ૂચનો ફ ત ઓનલાઈન ઓ શન સબમીશન સી ટમ ારા જ સબમીટ કરવાના રહશે. બ અથવા ટપાલ
Ph

ારા આયોગની કચેર એ મોકલવા આવેલ વાંધા- ૂચનો યાને લેવામા આવશે નહ ની ખાસ ન ધ લેવી.

(2) ઉમેદવાર વાંધા- ૂચનો ર ૂ કરવા વેબસાઈટ / ઓનલાઈન ઓ શન સબમીશન સી ટમ પર િસ ધ થયેલ િનયત ન ૂનાનો
જ ઉપયોગ કરવો.

(3) ઉમેદવાર પોતાને પર ામાં મળે લ પ ુ તકામાં છપાયેલ માક જ


ુ બ વાંધા- ૂચનો ર ૂ ન કરતા તમામ વાંધા- ૂચનો
he

વેબસાઈટ પર િસ ધ થયેલ ોિવઝનલ આ સર ક (મા ટર પ )ના માંક જ


ુ બ અને તે સંદભમાં ર ૂ કરવા.

(4) મા ટર પ માં િન દ ટ અને િવક પ િસવાયના વાંધા- ૂચનો યાને લેવામાં આવશે નહ .

(5) ઉમેદવાર ના િવક પ પર વાંધો ર ૂ કરલ છે અને િવક પ પે જવાબ ૂચવેલ છે એ જવાબ ઉમેદવાર પોતાની ઉ રવહ માં
T

આપેલ હોવો જોઈએ. ઉમેદવાર ૂચવેલ જવાબ અને ઉ રવહ નો જવાબ ભ હશે તો ઉમેદવાર ર ૂ કરલ વાંધા- ૂચનો
યાનમા લેવાશે નહ .

(6) એક માટ એક જ વાંધા- ૂચન પ ક વાપર .ુ ં એક જ વાંધા- ૂચનો પ કમાં એકથી વધાર ોની ર ૂ આત કરલ હશે તો તે
ગેના વાંધા- ૂચનો યાને લેવાશે નહ .

Website link for online objection submission system : www.safevaults.in/login

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001. suLku ‘MkÃíkMktøk{’ íkhefu Ãký yku¤¾ðk{kt ykðu Au, yuðe ðkiXk{kt {¤íke Mkkík LkËeykuLke Mkqr[{kt Lke[uLke Ãkife fE LkËe
LkÚke ?
(A) {kÍ{ (B) {uïku
(C) ¼kËh (D) Mkkçkh{íke
002. Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞk rsÕ÷kLke MkhnË Lk{oËk rsÕ÷k òuzu òuzkÞu÷ LkÚke ?
(A) Ãkt[{nk÷ (B) ðzkuËhk

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(C) íkkÃke (D) Akuxk WËuÃkwh
003. Lke[uLke Ãkife ðøko yLku ðýoLkLke fE òuze Mkk[e heíku {u¤ ¾kíke LkÚke ?

co
(A) MkkÄkhý økkZ støk÷ – ð]ûkLke Aºk ½Lkíkk 40% yLku íkuÚke ðÄw Ãkhtíkw 70% fhíkkt ykuAe
(B) ¾wÕ÷k støk÷ – ð]ûkLke Aºk ½Lkíkk 10% yLku íkuÚke ðÄw Ãkhtíkw 40% fhíkkt ykuAe
(C) Íkze – Ãkríkík støk÷Lke s{eLk su{kt ð]ûk AºkLke ½Lkíkk 10% Úke ykuAe

a.
(D) ¾qçk økkZ støk÷ – 90% yÚkðk íkuÚke ðÄw ð]ûkLkk AºkLke ½Lkíkk
004. økwshkík hkßÞ{kt ............... ÞwøkLkk ¾zfku ÿ~Þ{kLk Au.
(1) fIrçkúÞLk Ãkqðo (Pre Cambrian)

di
(2) {æÞSðe {nkfÕÃk (Mesozoic)
(3) ÃkqhkSðe {nkfÕÃk (Paleozoic)
e
(4) LkqíkLkSð {nkfÕÃk (Cenozoic)
ap
Lke[uLkk Mktfuíkku{ktÚke Mkk[ku sðkçk ÃkMktË fhku.
(A) 2 yLku 3 (B) 1, 2 yLku 4
(C) 1, 2, 3 yLku 4 (D) fuð¤ 1
005.
m

økwshkík hkßÞLke ÞwrLkðŠMkxe yLku íkuLkk MÚk¤ Ëþkoðíkk òuzfk Ãkife fÞw òuzfwt ÞkuøÞ LkÚke ?
(A) rðh Lk{oË MkkWÚk økwshkík ÞwrLkðŠMkxe – ¼Y[
(B) nu{[tÿk[kÞo LkkuÚko økwshkík ÞwrLkðŠMkxe – Ãkkxý
ar

(C) {nkhkò r¢»ý fw{kh®MknS ÞwrLkðŠMkxe – ¼kðLkøkh


(D) økwshkík xufLkku÷kuSf÷ ÞwrLkðŠMkxe (GTU) – y{ËkðkË
006. MkuL[whe yLku MkçktrÄík hkßÞkuLke òuzeyku Ãkife fE òuze ÞkuøÞ LkÚke ?
Ph

(A) hýÚkt¼kuh LkuþLk÷ Ãkkfo – hksMÚkkLk (B) çkktËeÃkwh LkuþLk÷ Ãkkfo – {nkhk»xÙ
(C) fkÍehtøkk LkuþLk÷ Ãkkfo – ykMkk{ (D) fkuhçkux LkuþLk÷ Ãkkfo – W¥khk¾tz
007. òuzfkt òuzku.
he

MkhkuðhLkwt Lkk{ MkhkuðhLkku «fkh


(i) Mkkt¼h Mkhkuðh (a) ÷økwLk yLku ¾khk Ãkkýe
(ii) Ãkw÷efx Mkhkuðh (b) ytíkËuoþeÞ yLku ¾khk Ãkkýe
T

(iii) ðuBçkLkkz (c) çkufðkuxh


(iv) ðw÷h Mkhkuðh (d) íkkò Ãkkýe
(A) (i) - (b), (ii) - (a), (iii) - (c), (iv) - (d) (B) (i) - (c), (ii) - (d), (iii) - (a), (iv) - (b)
(C) (i) - (b), (ii) - (c), (iii) - (a), (iv) - (d) (D) (i) - (a), (ii) - (b), (iii) - (c), (iv) - (d)

BAH - GS - MASTER ] 1 P.T.O.

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008. òuzfkt òuzku.


ÞkËe I - LkËe ÞkËe II - LkËeLke rðþu»kíkk
(i) økkuËkðhe (a) çkeS MkkiÚke {kuxe Ãkrù{u ðnuíke LkËe
(ii) fkuþe (b) rçknkhLkwt Ëw:¾
(iii) íkkÃíke (c) fåALkk hý{kt MkqfkE òÞ Au
(iv) ÷qýe (d) Ãkqðuo ðnuíke LkËe

m
(A) (i) - (b), (ii) - (c), (iii) - (d), (iv) - (a) (B) (i) - (d), (ii) - (b), (iii) - (a), (iv) - (c)
(C) (i) - (c), (ii) - (d), (iii) - (b), (iv) - (a) (D) (i) - (a), (ii) - (b), (iii) - (c), (iv) - (d)

co
009. fÞwt hkßÞ ¼khíkLkwt 70% íkktçkw WíÃkLLk fhu Au ?
(A) rn{k[÷ «Ëuþ (B) hksMÚkkLk
(C) Íkh¾tz (D) yktÄú«Ëuþ

a.
010. ÃkkÃkLkkþ{T s¤rðãwík ÃkrhÞkusLkk fE LkËe Ãkh íkiÞkh fhðk{kt ykðu÷ Au ?
(A) ÃkkÞfkhk (B) íkk{úÃkýeo

di
(C) ÃkurhÞkh (D) fkðuhe
011. Lke[uLkk{ktÚke fÞw ðÄw MkqÞo«fkþ ÃkkAwt «rík®çkrçkík fhu Au ?
(A) ÃkýoÃkkíke ðLk
(C) {uËkLk / MíkoÃke
e (B) huíke hý
(D) MkËkÃkýeo / MkËkçknkh ðLk
ap
012. ÃkqðeoÞ ½kxku yLku Ãkrù{ ½kx {¤u Au íÞkt Lke[uLke Ãkife fE xufheyku ykðu÷e Au ?
(A) fkzko{ku{ (B) Lke÷røkrh
(C) þuðhkuÞ (D) yÒkk{÷kE
m

013. “«Úk{ økku¤{uS Ãkrh»kË” ð¾íku rçkúxLkLkk ðzk«ÄkLk fkuý níkk ?


(A) hk{Mku {ufzkuLkkÕz (Ramsay Mcdonald) (B) [uBçkh ÷eLk (Chamberlain)
ar

(C) zeÍhkÞu÷e (Disraeli) (D) [[eo÷ (Churchill)


014. {nkí{k økktÄeSyu Lke[uLkk Ãkife fkuLku ËeLkçktÄw (Deenbandhu) Lkku r¾íkkçk (Title) ykÃku÷ níkku ?
(A) r[¥khtsLk ËkMk (B) çkk¤ øktøkkÄh rx¤f
Ph

(C) [tÿþu¾h (D) Mke. yuV. yutz›Í (C. F. Andrews)


015. ¼khíkeÞ hk»xÙeÞ fkUøkúuMkLkk «Úk{ yrÄðuþLk{kt ònuh ÚkÞu÷k æÞuÞku çkkçkíku Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞwt rðÄkLk ¾kuxwt Au ?
(A) ytøkúus Mkhfkh rðYØ y®nMkf hksfeÞ [¤ð¤Lke þYykík.
he

(B) hk»xÙeÞ yufíkkLke ¼kðLkkLkku rðfkMk yLku MkwøkXLk.


(C) Ëuþ{kt sLkíkkLke íkk÷e{ yLku MktøkXLk.
(D) hk»xÙðkËe hksfeÞ fkÞofhku ðå[u {iºkeÃkqýo MktçktÄkuLku «kuíMkknLk ykÃkðwt.
T

016. ¼khíkLkk EBÃkeheÞ÷ økuÍuxu LkkUæÞwt fu {wtçkE «urMkzLMkeLkk .......... ¾kíku 1857 Lkku çk¤ðku òuðkt {éÞku níkku.
(A) ¼kðLkøkh (B) sqLkkøkZ
(C) fhkt[e yLku y{ËkðkË (D) hksfkux

BAH - GS - MASTER ] 2 [Contd.

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017. ¼khík{kt ykðu÷ rðËuþe Þkºkefku yLku suíku Mk{ÞLkk þkMkf / þkMkLkLke rðøkíkku Ëþkoðíke òuzeyku Ãkife fE òuze ÞkuøÞ Au ?
1. {kfkuoÃkku÷ku – ÃkktzÞ hkßÞ
2. zkur{økkus ÃkuEs – f]»ýËuðhkÞ / rðsÞLkøkh
3. {LkqMke – snktøkeh
4. Ãkexh {tze – þknsnkt
(A) 2, 3 yLku 4 (B) 1, 2 yLku 4

m
(C) 1, 3 yLku 4 (D) 1, 2 yLku 3
018. {w½÷ fk¤Lkk nkuÆkyku ytøkuLke òuzeyku Ãkife fE òuze ÞkuøÞ LkÚke ?

co
(A) çkûke – fkÞËku ÔÞðMÚkk ò¤ðLkkhLkku y{÷Ëkh
(B) Mkÿ – Ä{oËk, MkËkðúík WÃkh æÞkLk hk¾Lkkh y{÷Ëkh
(C) {ehu çknkh – çktËhku, sfkík ðøkuhu çkkçkíku æÞkLk hk¾Lkkh y{÷Ëkh

a.
(D) rËðkLk – {nuMkw÷ ÔÞðMÚkkLkku Mkðkuoå[ yrÄfkhe
019. ßÞkhu {nt{Ë økÍLkeyu Mkku{LkkÚkLkk {trËh WÃkh yk¢{ý fÞwO yLku ÷qtxe ÷eÄw, íku Mk{Þu Mkku÷tfe ðtþLkku þkMkf fkuý níkku ?

di
(A) rMkæÄhks (B) ¼e{-çkeòu
(C) ¼e{-Ãknu÷ku (D) {q¤hks
020.
e
1923{kt Lke[uLkk Ãkife fE Ãkrh»kË{kt MðhksÃkûkLku Ãkqýo çknw{ík {éÞku níkku ?
(A) UP Ãkrh»kË (B) çktøkk¤ Ãkrh»kË
ap
(C) fuLÿeÞ «Ëuþ Ãkrh»kË (D) ¼khíkeÞ ÄkhkMk¼k
021. økwshkík{kt fÞk ð»ko{kt Wíkhký yLku ytf÷uïh ðå[u Mkðo«Úk{ hu÷ðu ÷kELk Lk¾kE níke ?
(A) E.Mk. 1853 (B) E.Mk. 1854
m

(C) E.Mk. 1855 (D) E.Mk. 1851


022. ÃkþwÃkrík {nkËuðLkwt Mke÷ Lke[uLkk Ãkife fE søÞkyu «kÃík ÚkÞu÷ níkwt ?
ar

(A) hk¾eøkZ (B) {kunuLkòu-Ëhku


(C) ÷kuÚk÷ (D) fk÷eçktøkLk
Ph

023. íkhkELkwt «Úk{ ÞwØ (1191){kt fÞk hkßðeyku ðå[u ÚkÞu÷ níkwt ?
(A) fwíçkwÆeLk yiçkf yLku Ãk]Úðehks [kinký (B) ykhk{þkn yLku EÕíkwík{þ
(C) EÕíkwík{þ yLku íkßswrËLk (D) {wnB{Ë ½kuhe yLku Ãk]Úðehks [kinký
024. økwshkíkLkk “Mkku÷tfe ðtþ” MkçktÄeík fÞk ðkõÞku ÞkuøÞ Au ?
he

1. {w¤hks Mkku÷tfe {w¤ MÚkkÃkf níkk.


2. ykMk{Þ{kt rMkØÃkwh{kt Áÿ{nk÷ÞLkwt rLk{koý ÚkÞu÷ níkwt.
3. hkýe WËÞ{íkeyu Ãkkxý{kt “hkýfe ðkð” çktÄkðe níke.
T

4. {eLk¤Ëuðeyu rðh{økk{{kt {÷kð ík¤kðLkwt rLk{koý fhkðu÷.


(A) 1, 2 yLku 3 (B) 1, 3 yLku 4
(C) 2, 3 yLku 4 (D) 1, 2 yLku 4

BAH - GS - MASTER ] 3 P.T.O.

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025. Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞk rðÄkLk/rðÄkLkku Mkk[kt Au ?


1. f÷{fkhe r[ºkf÷kLkku WËT¼ð yktÄú«Ëuþ{ktÚke ÚkÞu÷ Au.
2. VkË (Phad) r[ºkf÷kLkku WËT¼ð hksMÚkkLk{ktÚke ÚkÞu÷ Au.
3. ðkuh÷e r[ºkf÷kLkku WËT¼ð rçknkh{ktÚke ÚkÞu÷ Au.
(A) rðÄkLk (1) yLku (3) Mkk[kt Au. (B) rðÄkLk (1), (2) yLku (3) Mkk[kt Au.
(C) rðÄkLk (2) yLku (3) Mkk[kt Au. (D) rðÄkLk (1) yLku (2) Mkk[kt Au.

m
026. “ykøktíkwf” yLku “ðktMkLkku ytfwh” f]ríkyku Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞk MkkrníÞfkhLke Au ?
(A) ÄeYçkuLk Ãkxu÷ (B) h½wðeh [kiÄhe

co
(C) ðeLkuþ ytíkkýe (D) ð»kko yzk÷ò
027. økwshkíkLkk fÞk «ÏÞkík rfÕ÷kLkk [kh «ðuþîkh Au, su{kt Ãkqðo{kt ykðu÷k îkhLku nehk ¼køk¤, Ãkrù{Lkk îkhLku ðzkuËhk
îkh, W¥khLkk îkhLku [ktÃkkLkuh îkh yLku Ërûkýe îkhLku LkkËkuË îkh íkhefu yku¤¾ðk{kt ykðu Au ?

a.
(A) z¼kuE rfÕ÷ku (B) E÷ðk Ëwøkko
(C) ÄkuhkS rfÕ÷ku (D) WÃkhfkux rfÕ÷ku

di
028. økwshkíkLke MkkrníÞ ÃkhtÃkhk {kuxu¼køku .......... MkkÚku òuzkÞu÷e Au.
(A) {nkøkwshkík yktËku÷Lk (B) {hkXk yktËku÷Lk
(C) {nfkuþk÷ yktËku÷Lk e (D) ¼Âõík yktËku÷Lk
029. MkVuË {÷{÷ yÚkðk MkVuË Íeýk fkÃkz (¢u{çkúef) WÃkh MkVuË Ëkuhk ðzu ðu÷, ÃkkLk yLku Vw÷kuLkwt fwþ¤ yLku MkwtËh ¼híkfk{
ap
f÷k, Lke[uLkk Ãkife fE ¼híkfk{ f÷kLkw WËknhý Au ?
(A) ÷¾LkkiLke r[fLkfkhe (B) Ãktòçke Vw÷fkhe ¼híkfk{ f÷k
(C) fk~{ehe ¼híkfk{ f÷k (D) WÃkhLkk Ãkife fkuE Lknª
m

030. hkò hrð ð{koLkk r[ºkku økwshkíkLkk fÞk BÞwrÍÞ{{kt òuðk {¤u Au ?
(A) fåA BÞwrÍÞ{ (B) Víku®Mkn hkð BÞwrÍÞ{
(C) yu÷. ze. BÞwrÍÞ{ (D) fur÷fku BÞwrÍÞ{
ar

031. ‘ÞwLkuMfku ðÕzo nurhxuÍ MkkEx’ ÃkMktËøke {kxu Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞk {kÃkËtz Au ?
(A) Wíf]ü WËknhý MðYÃk E{khíkLkku «fkh, MÚkkÃkíÞf¤k yÚkðk xufLkku÷kuSLkk yuftËhu Ãkrhýk{Lkwt YÃk yÚkðk «kf]ríkf
á~Þ (s{eLk WÃkhLkwt)
Ph

(B) {kLkð MksoLkkí{f çkwrØ «rík¼kLke ©ucf]rík


(C) çktLku (A) yLku (B)
(D) A Ãký Lkrn B Ãký Lkrn
he

032. økwhshkík{kt Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞk rMk¬kyku {¤e ykÔÞk níkk ?


1. Ãkt[ r[Lneík rMk¬k (Punch Marked Coin)
2. MkkMkkrLkÞLk rMk¬k (Sassanian Coin)
T

3. ¼khíkeÞ ÞwLkkLke rMk¬k (Indo-Greek Coin)


4. ûkºkÃk rMk¬k (Kshatrap Coin)
(A) Võík 2 yLku 3 (B) Võík 3 yLku 4
(C) 1, 2, 3 yLku 4 (D) Võík 1 yLku 2

BAH - GS - MASTER ] 4 [Contd.

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033. Lke[uLke r[ºkf¤k Ãkife fE r[ºkf¤k MkÃko (Lkkøk) r[ºkf¤k Ãký fnuðkÞ Au ?
(A) ðkh÷e r[ºkf¤k (B) Ãkxwyk ykxo
(C) {tòw»kk r[ºkf÷k (D) õÞwrçkMx «fkhLke r[ºkf¤k (½Lk ¼qr{ríkLke ykf]ríkðk¤k)
034. Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞk Lkk{u «Úk{ ÃkkhMke - økwshkíke Lkkxf nt{uþk ¼sðkÞw níkw ?
(A) ÷û{e Lkkxf (B) YMík{ Mkkunhkçk
(C) MksoLknkh (D) ykøkøkkze

m
035. økwshkíkLkk Mkku{LkkÚk {trËh Mkt˼o{kt Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞwt/fÞk rðÄkLk Mkk[w/Mkk[kt Au ?
1. ¼khíkLkk çkkh ßÞkurík‹÷øk{ktÚke «Úk{ yLku MkkiÚke swLkw «k[eLk ßÞkurík‹÷øk {kLkðk{kt ykðu Au.

co
2. ykÄwrLkf fk¤{kt fLkiÞk÷k÷ {wLþe yLku MkhËkh Ãkxu÷Lkk «ÞíLkkuÚke ykÄwrLkf {trËhLkwt rLk{koý ÚkÞwt.
3. E. Mk. 1951{kt zkp. hksuLÿ «MkkË hk»xÙLku Mk{ŠÃkík fÞwO.
4. Mkku{ Ëuðíkk yÚkkoík [tÿ Ëuðíkk yux÷u [tÿLkk Ëuðíkk.

a.
(A) Võík 1 yLku 3 (B) Võík 1, 2 yLku 3
(C) 1, 2, 3 yLku 4 (D) Võík 3

di
036. økkÞ økkinheLkku {u¤ku fÞk MÚk¤u ¼hkÞ Au ?
(A) ËknkuË rsÕ÷kLkk suMkkðkzk ¾kíku (B) zktøk rsÕ÷kLkk yknðk ¾kíku

037.
(C) Akuxk WËuÃkwh rsÕ÷kLkk ftðkx ¾kíku
e (D) ËknkuËLkk økhçkkzk íkk÷wfkLkk LkZu÷kð økk{u
ÔkMíke rÔk»kGkf Mkt¢BkÛkLkk MktËÇkuo LkeåkuLkk Ãkife fE òuz Ïkkuxe heíku òuzkGkuÕke Au ?
ap
(A) íkçk¬ku III - Lkeåkku Bk]íGkw Ëh yLku Lkeåkku sLBk Ëh (B) íkçk¬ku II - Ÿåkku Bk]íGkw Ëh yLku Lkeåkku sLBk Ëh
(C) íkçk¬ku I - Ÿåkku Bk]íGkw Ëh yLku Ÿåkku sLBk Ëh (D) WÃkhLkk Ãkife fkuE Lknª
038.
m

ÇkkhíkBkkt rLkÇkohíkk økwÛkku¥khLke økÛkíkhe fhÔkk Bkkxu LkeåkuLkk Ãkife fGkwt Mkqºk ÔkÃkhkGk Au ?

(A) (B)
ar

(C) (D)
Ph

039. ÔkÕzo VkELzuõMk heÃkkuxo (World Findex Report) MktËÇkoBkkt LkeåkuLkk Ãkife fE çkkçkík GkkuøGk Au ?
(A) yk ynuÔkkÕk UNDP îkhk çknkh ÃkkzÔkkBkkt ykÔku Au. íkuBkkt Ëu~kkuLke LkkÛkkrfGk MÚkerík ÔkÛkoÔkÔkkBkkt ykÔku Au.
(B) ynuÔkkÕk ÔkÕzo çkuLf îkhk çknkh ÃkkzÔkkBkkt ykÔku Au yLku ÔGkÂõíkøkík, çkåkík, åkwfÔkÛke yLku òuÏkBkkuLkwt MktåkkÕkLk suÔke
çkkçkíkku æGkkLku ÕkuÔkkGk Au.
he

(C) yk heÃkkuxo ÔkÕzo RfkuLkkurBkõMk VkuhBk îkhk çknkh ÃkkzÔkkBkkt ykÔku Au. íkuBkkt BkkLkrÔkGk MkkækLkku ytøku yÇGkkMk fhÔkkBkkt
ykÔku Au.
(D) yk ynuÔkkÕk RLxhLku~kLkÕk BkkuLkuxhe Vtz îkhk çknkh ÃkkzÔkkBkkt ykÔku Au.
T

040. LkeåkuLkk Ãkife fGkk WãkuøkBkkt ÃkkÛkeLkku MkkiÚke Ôkækkhu WÃkGkkuøk ÚkkGk Au ?
(A) ÕkkuÏktz yLku MxeÕk ÃÕkkLx (B) RLVhBku~kLk xufLkkuÕkkuS Wãkuøk
(C) åkkBkzk Mktçktrækík Wãkuøk (D) ÚkBkoÕk ÃkkÔkh ÃÕkkLx

BAH - GS - MASTER ] 5 P.T.O.

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041. økwshkík MkhfkhLke SWAGAT ykuLk÷kELkLke þYykíkLkku nuíkw ..........


(A) hkßÞLkk ík{k{ «ðkMke MÚk¤kuLkwt ÃkhMÃkh íktºk îkhk Mktf÷Lk yLku ËkuzÄk{ rðLkkLke {wMkkVheLkk ykÞkusLk {kxu Au.
(B) MkhfkhLkk rðrðÄ Míkhu LkkøkrhfkuLke VrhÞkËkuLkk yMkhfkhf, ÃkkhËþof yLku ÍzÃke rLkhkfhý {kxu Au.
(C) hkßÞ{kt rðËuþe «ðkMkeykuLke {nu{kLkøkrík yLku Mðkøkík {kxu Au.
(D) ÷kuf f÷k yLku Lk]íÞLke ÷kufr«Þíkk {kxu Au.
042.

m
økwshkík MkhfkhLke ‘f{oÞkuøke íkk÷e{ Ãknu÷’Lkku nuíkw ..........
(A) Lkkufhe ykfktûke W{uËðkhLke LkkUÄýe fhðe yLku íku{Lku rLkck yLku ¾tík rð»kÞf «rþûký ykÃkðk {kxu Au.
(B) rþûkfku, ðneðxfíkkoyku, økútÚkÃkk÷kuLku Wå[rþûkýLkk ÃkzfkhkuLku ÃknkU[e ð¤ðk yLku íku{Lke Mkðkuoå[ ûk{íkkykuLku ykfkh

co
ykÃkðkLkk «rþûký {kxu Au.
(C) hksfeÞ Lkuíkkyku yLku Mkðkuoå[ Mkhfkhe yrÄfkheykuLku hku®sËk ÃkzfkhkuLkku Mkk{Lkku fhðk, þkMkLk f¤k{kt «rþûký
ykÃkðk {kxu Mk{ÚkoLk ykÃkðkLkku Au.

a.
(D) ÃkûkLkk Lkuíkkyku ònuh nkuÆk WÃkh ykðu íku Ãknu÷k íku{Lku Lkiríkf yLku Lkeríkrð»kÞf «rþûký ykÃkðk {kxu Au.
043. Lke[uLkwt Ãkife fÞwt yLkk{ík Lkkýk{kt Mk{krðü LkÚke ?

di
(A) çkUfku ÃkkMku {ktøk s{k (B) RBI ÃkkMku Mkhfkhe ÚkkÃký
(C) [÷ý{kt Lkkýk (D) RBI {kt çkUfkuLke ÚkkÃký
044. ¼khík{kt çkUfku îkhk «kÚkr{f ûkuºkLkk rÄhký fkuLku yÃkkÞ Au ?
e
1. f]r»k 2. Mkwû{ yLku LkkLkk Wãkuøk 3. Lkçk¤k ûkuºk 4. ÷ku¾tz yLku Mxe÷ Wãkuøk
ap
Lke[uLkk Mktfuíkku{ktÚke Mkk[ku sðkçk ÃkMktË fhku.
(A) 1 yLku 3 (B) 2 yLku 4
(C) 1, 2 yLku 3 (D) 1 yLkuu 2
m

045. ¼khík{kt nuz÷kELk Vwøkkðku .......... Lke [Z-WíkhÚke {kÃkðk{kt ykðu Au.
(A) f]r»k ©{ef {kxu SðLk Äkuhý Mkq[fktf (B) Lkkýkt ÃkwhðXku
ar

(C) Úkkuf {qÕÞ Mkq[fktf (D) WÃk¼kuõíkk {qÕÞ Mkq[fktf


046. ykX {wÏÞ WãkuøkkuLku ¼khíkeÞ yÚkoíktºkLke fhkuzhßsw økýðk{kt ykðu Au. Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞku Wãkuøk yu{kt Mk{krðü LkÚke ?
(A) fwËhíke økuMk WíÃkkËLk (B) fkÃkz WíÃkkËLk
Ph

(C) ðes¤e WíÃkkËLk (D) Mxe÷ WíÃkkËLk


047. Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞw / fÞkt ¼khík{kt Mkuðk ûkuºkLkk ¼køk Au ?
1. ÃkrhðnLk 2. çkktÄfk{ 3. nkuxu÷ yLku huMxkuhLx 4. ðe{k
he

Lke[uLkk Mktfuíkku{ktÚke Mkk[ku sðkçk ÃkMktË fhku.


(A) {kºk 3 (B) 1, 2, 3 yLku 4
(C) 3 yLku 4 (D) 1, 3 yLku 4
T

048. zâwxe yuLxkÞx÷{uLx ÃkkMk çkwf (Duty Entitlement Pass Book) yu ¼khík MkhfkhLke ÞkusLkk fkuLkk {kxu ½zðk{kt
ykðu÷e Au ?
(A) sÚÚkkçktÄ ðuÃkkhe (whole-sale traders) (B) Awxf ðuÃkkhe (Retailers)
(C) rLkfkMkfkh (exporters) (D) ykÞkíkfkh (importers)

BAH - GS - MASTER ] 6 [Contd.

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049. rLkÞtºkf - {nk÷u¾k ÃkheûkfLkk Ãkøkkh yLku MkuðkLke çkeS þhíkku fkuý Lk¬e fhe þfu Au ?
(A) hk»xÙÃkrík (B) Lkkýk rð¼køk, ¼khík Mkhfkh
(C) ðzk«ÄkLk (D) MktMkË
050. økúk{Mk¼k, økúkBÞ Míkhu fkuLkk îkhk rLkÞík fhkÞu÷ òuøkðkE yLkwMkkh Mk¥kkyku ðkÃkhe þfu Au yLku fkÞkuo fhe þfu Au ?
(A) Ãkt[kÞík yLku økúk{ øk]n rLk{koý rð¼køk (B) hkßÞ rðÄkLk{tz¤ fkÞËkÚke òuøkðkE fhu íku {wsçk

m
(C) MktçktrÄík rsÕ÷kLkk rsÕ÷k rðfkMk yrÄfkhe (D) rðfkMk fr{þLkh
051. ¼khíkeÞ LÞkÞíktºk ÃkkMku fkÞËkLku økuhçktÄkhýeÞ ònuh fhðkLke Mk¥kk Au, òu .....
(A) fkÞËku hk»xÙÃkríkLkk rðrþü nfLke rðYæÄ{kt nkuÞ.

co
(B) fkÞËku hk»xÙLkk {q¤ ykí{kLkwt WÕ÷t½Lk fhíkku nkuÞ.

(C) fkÞËku çktÄkhýLke fkuEÃký òuøkðkELkwt WÕ÷t½Lk fhíkku nkuÞ.

a.
(D) WÃkhkuõík Ãkife fkuE Lknª

052. hkr»xÙÞ {kLkð yrÄfkh ykÞkuøk .......... Au.

di
(A) yÄo LÞkrÞf MktMÚkk (B) MktMÚkk ð¤íkh [qfððk hkßÞLku rLkËuoþ ykÃke þfu.

(C) çktÄkhýeÞ MktMÚkk (D) ðiÄkrLkf MktMÚkk


053.
1. Lkkøkrhfíð
e
¼khíkLkk çktÄkhýLke Lke[uLke Ãkife fE òuøkðkEykuLke íkkífkr÷f yMkh 26 LkðuBçkh, 1949 Úke ykÃkðk{kt ykðe níke ?
2. fxkufxeLke òuøkðkEyku 3. [qtxýeyku 4. Mk{ðkÞe íktºk
ap
(A) Võík 1 yLku 4 (B) Võík 1 yLku 3
(C) Võík 1 (D) Võík 2 yLku 3
m

054. ¼khíkLkk çktÄkhýLkk yk{w¾{kt ¼khíkLkk LkkøkhefkuLku Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞk «fkhLke MðíktºkíkkLke ¾kºke Ãkqhe Ãkkzðk{kt ykðe
Au ?
1. rð[khLke Mðíktºkíkk 2. Ä{o yLku WÃkkMkLkkLke Mðíktºkíkk 3. yr¼ÔÞÂõíkLke Mðíktºkíkk 4. {kLÞíkkLke Mðíktºkíkk
ar

(A) Võík 2, 3 yLku 4 (B) 1, 2, 3 yLku 4


(C) Võík 1 yLku 2 (D) Võík 1, 2 yLku 3
055.
Ph

hks¼k»kk ykÞkuøk Mkt˼uo Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞwt / fÞkt rðÄkLk / rðÄkLkku Mkk[wt / Mkk[kt Au ?
(A) yu ¼khíkLkk hk»xÙÃkrík îkhk rLkÞwõík fhkÞu÷e çktÄkhýeÞ MktMÚkk Au.
(B) ykX{k Ãkrhrþü{kt ËþkoÔÞk {wsçk «íÞuf ¼k»kkLkk MkÇÞLkwt yu{kt «ríkrLkrÄíð nkuÞ Au.
(C) (A) yLku (B) çktLku
he

(D) (A) yLku (B) Ãkife fkuE Lknª


056. ¼khíkLkk WÃkhk»xÙÃkríkLkk Mkt˼uo Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞwt / fÞkt rðÄkLk / rðÄkLkku Mkk[wt / Mkk[kt Au ?
(A) íku{Lkku fkÞofk¤ Ãkkt[ ð»koLkku nkuÞ Au, Ãkhtíkw fkÞofk¤ Ãkqhku ÚkÞk ÃkAe Ãký, íku{Lkk yLkwøkk{e ykðu Lknª, íÞk MkwÄe ÃkË
T

WÃkh [k÷w hne þfu Au.


(B) WÃkhk»xÙkÃkríkLkku fkÞofk¤ Ãkqhku ÚkkÞ yLku ÃkË ¾k÷e Ãkzu íkku yu ËkrÞíð fkuý rLk¼kðu íku çkkçkíkLkku çktÄkhý{kt WÕ÷u¾ LkÚke.
(C) (A) yLku (B) çktLku
(D) (A) yLku (B) Ãkife fkuE Lknª

BAH - GS - MASTER ] 7 P.T.O.

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057. ‘÷k¼Lkwt ÃkË’ / ‘ykpVeMk ykpV «kuVex’ Mkt˼uo Lke[uLkk rðÄkLkku swyku.
1 ‘÷k¼Lkwt ÃkË’ / ‘ykpVeMk ykpV «kuVex’Lku ¼khíkeÞ MktrðÄkLk yLku ÷kuf «ríkrLkrÄíð yrÄrLkÞ{ 1951{kt ÔÞkÏÞkrÃkík
fhu÷ Au.
2. MP yÚkðk MLA {kxu ‘÷k¼Lkwt ÃkË’ / ‘ykpVeMk ykpV «kuVex’ «ríkçktrÄík Au fkhý fu íku íku{Lku LkkýkfeÞ ÷k¼
{u¤ððkLke ÂMÚkrík{kt {qfe þfu Au.
Lke[uLkk Mktfuíkku{ktÚke Mkk[ku sðkçk ÃkMktË fhku.

m
(A) 1 yLku 2 çkLLku Mkk[kt (B) 1 yLku 2 {ktÚke fkuE Mkk[kt LkÚke.

(C) Võík 1 Mkk[wt (D) Võík 2 Mkk[wt

co
058. yrÄrLkÞ{ Mkt˼uo Lke[uLkwt / Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞwt / fÞk rðÄkLk / rðÄkLkku Mkk[wt / Mkk[kt Au ?
1. yrÄrLkÞ{Lke {n¥k{ {kLÞíkk 6 {rnLkk yLku 6 yXðkrzÞk Au.

a.
2. MktMkËLkk çkLLku øk]n Mkºk{kt ykðíkk yrÄrLkÞ{ 6 yXðkrzÞk{kt Mk{kÃík ÚkE òÞ Au.
Lke[uLkk Mktfuíkku{ktÚke Mkk[ku sðkçk ÃkMktË fhku.

di
(A) çkLLku 1 yLku 2 (B) 1 yLku 2 {ktÚke fkuE Lknª
(C) Võík 1 (D) Võík 2
059.
e
“ykËþo yk[khMktrníkk”Lkk y{÷ ËhBÞkLk MkhfkhLke fk{økehe Mkt˼uo Lke[uLkkt rðÄkLkku rð[khku.
1. ykÃkr¥k ykðe Ãkzu íkku Mkhfkh yMkhøkúMíkku {kxu MknkÞ, ÃkkÞkLke MkwrðÄkyku yLku ÃkwLk:ðMkðkx Ãkqhk ÃkkzðkLke ònuhkík
ap
fhe þfu Au.
2. [qtxýeÃkt[Lke {tsqheÚke f{o[kheykuLke çkË÷e fhe þfu Au íkÚkk þY ÚkE økÞu÷ ÞkusLkkyku Ãkqhe fhe þfu Au.
m

WÃkh Ëþkoðu÷ Ãkife fÞwt / fÞkt rðÄkLk / rðÄkLkku Mkk[wt / Mkk[kt Au ?


(A) çkeswt (B) yufÃký Lknª
(C) çktLku (D) «Úk{
ar

060. 73{k çktÄkhýeÞ MkwÄkhkLkk Mkt˼o{kt Lke[uLkk rðÄkLkku íkÃkkMkku.

1. Ãkt[kÞíke hks ÔÞðMÚkk MðefkhðkLke hkßÞkuLke Vhs çkLke Au.


Ph

2. økúk{Mk¼kLkku ÃkkÞkLkk yuf{ íkhefu Mðefkh LkÚke.


WÃkh Ëþkoðu÷ Ãkife fÞwt / fÞkt rðÄkLk / rðÄkLkku Mkk[wt / Mkk[kt Au ?
(A) çkeswt (B) yufÃký Lknª
he

(C) Ãknu÷wt (D) çktLku


061. økúný çkkçkíku Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞwt / fÞkt rðÄkLk / rðÄkLkku Mkk[wt / Mkk[kt Au ?
1. ßÞkhu MkqÞo, [tÿ yLku Ähíke MkeÄe ÷exe{kt nkuÞ yLku [tÿ yu MkqÞo yLku ÄhíkeLke ðå[u nkuÞ íÞkhu MkqÞoøkúný ÚkkÞ Au.
T

2. ßÞkhu MkqÞo, Ähíke yLku [tÿ MkeÄe ÷exe{kt nkuÞ yLku Ähíke yu MkqÞo yLku [tÿLke ðå[u nkuÞ íÞkhu [tÿøkúný ÚkkÞ Au.
(A) 1 yLku 2 çktLku (B) 1 yLku 2 Ãkife fkuE Lknª
(C) Võík 1 (D) Võík 2

BAH - GS - MASTER ] 8 [Contd.

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062. HDTV (High Definition Television) çkkçkíku Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞwt / fÞkt rðÄkLk / rðÄkLkku Mkk[wt / Mkk[kt Au ?
1. íku yuLku÷kuøk rMkøLk÷ (Analog Signal) Lkku WÃkÞkuøk fhu Au.
2. íku 35 mm rVÕ{ Mk{fûk á~Þ økwýð¥kk ykÃku Au.
(A) 1 yLku 2 çktLku (B) 1 yLku 2 Ãkife fkuE Lknª
(C) Võík 1 (D) Võík 2

m
063. Mk{kLkð yðfkþÞkºkk MkV¤íkkÃkqðof ÞkusLkkhk Ëuþ fÞk Au ?
1. y{urhfk 2. hrþÞk 3. [eLk
(A) Võík 1 yLku 3 (B) 1, 2 yLku 3

co
(C) Võík 1 (D) Võík 1 yLku 2
064. V¤kuLku þeíkkøkkh{kt hk¾ðkÚke íku{Lke ykðhËk ðÄu Au fkhý fu...

a.
(A) CO2 Lkwt Mkktÿý ðÄu Au. (B) ïMkLk «r¢ÞkLkku Ëh ½xu Au.
(C) ¼us ðÄu Au. (D) MkqÞo«fkþ nkuíkku LkÚke.

di
065. yLLk þ]t¾÷k (Food Chain) {kt Lke[uLkk Ãkife fkuLke ðMíke MkkiÚke ðÄw Au ?
(A) «kÚkr{f WÃk¼kuõíkk (Primary Consumer) (B) økkiý WÃk¼kuõíkk (Secondary Consumer)
(C) rð½xLk fhLkk (Decomposers) e (D) WíÃkkËf (Producer)
066. Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞk íkíðLku ði¿kkrLkfkuyu rðï{kt MkkiÚke Ãkkík¤wt økÛÞwt Au ?
ap
(A) rMkr÷fkuLk (B) õðkxTÍo
(C) Vw÷uhuLk (D) økúuVeLk
067. Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞwt MkkiÚke ykuAwt «Ëw»ký fhu Au ?
m

(A) fuhkuMkeLk (B) nkEzÙkusLk


(C) fku÷Mkku (D) zeÍ÷
ar

068. [qtxýe Mk{Þu yktøk¤e Ãkh rLkþkLk fhðk {kxu WÃkÞkuøk{kt ÷uðkíke þkne{kt þuLkku WÃkÞkuøk ÚkkÞ Au ?
(A) rMkÕðh LkkExÙux (B) rMkÕðh ykÞkuzkEz
Ph

(C) rMkÕðh õ÷kuhkEz (D) WÃkhkuõík Ãkife yuf Ãký Lknª


069. Lke[uLkk rðÄkLkku Ãkh rð[khýk fhku :
1. Ãke¤ku VkuMVhMkT Ãkkýe{kt hk¾ðk{kt ykðu Au.
2. çkhVLku ykuøk¤íkku yxfkððk S÷uxeLkLkku WÃkÞkuøk ÚkkÞ Au.
he

(A) 1 Mkk[wt yLku 2 ¾kuxwt Au. (B) 1 yLku 2 çktLku Mkk[kt Au.
(C) {kºk 1 Mkk[wt Au. (D) {kºk 2 Mkk[wt Au.
T

070. 1. Ãkkýe{kt yðks {kÃkðk {kxu nkEzÙkuVkuLk ðÃkhkÞ Au.


2. Mk{wÿLke ŸzkE {kÃkðk {kxu VuÄku{exh ðÃkhkÞ Au.
(A) rðÄkLk 1 Mkk[wt Au 2 ¾kuxwt Au. (B) rðÄkLk 1 ¾kuxwt Au 2 Mkk[wt Au.
(C) çktLku rðÄkLkku Mkk[kt Au. (D) çktLku rðÄkLkku ¾kuxkt Au.

BAH - GS - MASTER ] 9 P.T.O.

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071. RxkE-RxkE (itai itai) .......... îkhk WíÃkLLk Úkíkku hkuøk Au.
(A) fizr{Þ{ rð»kkfíkLk (B) MkeMkw rð»kkfíkLk
(C) Ãkkhk rð»kkfíkLk (D) WÃkhkuõík Ãkife yuf Ãký Lknª
072. nðk yLku ËrhÞkE MkVhLkwt ytíkh Mk{wÿe {kE÷ (Lkkurxf÷ {kE÷)Úke {kÃkðk{kt ykðu Au, yuf Mk{wÿe {kE÷ çkhkçkh
..........

m
(A) 1.609 rf.{e. (B) 1.852 rf.{e.
(C) 1.452 rf.{e. (D) 2.212 rf.{e.
073. çkkuõMkkEx{ktÚke yuÕÞwr{rLkÞ{ rLk»f»koý fhðkLke «r¢ÞkLku .......... fnuðkÞ Au.

co
(A) rzMxe÷uþLk (B) £uõMkLk÷ r¢Mx÷kÞÍuþLk
(C) rhzõþLk (D) R÷uõxÙku÷kÞMkeMk

a.
074. ¾uíke MktçktrÄík ‘Mkkøkw-çkkøkw’ ÃkrhÞkusLkk (Saagu-Baagu Project) fÞkt hkßÞ îkhk þY fhðk{kt ykðu÷ Au ?
(A) íku÷tøkkýk (B) yktÄú«Ëuþ

di
(C) A¥keMkøkZ (D) ykurhMMkk
075. W¥kh-ÃkqðoLkk hkßÞku{kt þktrík íkhVLkk Ãkøk÷k íkhefu fkhçke-yutøk÷kUøk fhkh (Karbi-Anglong Agreement) fhðk{kt
ykÔÞku. fkhçke-yutøk÷kUøk fÞk hkßÞLkk yuf rsÕ÷kLkwt Lkk{ Au ?
e
(A) yYýk[÷«Ëuþ (B) ykMkk{
ap
(C) {ýeÃkwh (D) r{Íkuh{
076. Lke[uLkk rðÄkLkku íkÃkkMke ÞkuøÞ rðfÕÃk ÃkMktË fhku.
1. hkßÞku yLku fuLÿ þkr»kík «Ëuþku{kt økðLkoLMkLku Ëþkoðíkku ÃkÂç÷f yVuMko ELzuõMk 2020 (Public Affairs Index,
m

2020) NITI ykÞkuøk îkhk çknkh Ãkkzðk{kt ykðu Au.


2. {kuxk hkßÞkuLkLke ©uýe{kt «Úk{ ¢{ktf {nkhk»xÙ yLku LkkLkk hkßÞkuLke ©uýe{kt «Úk{ ¢{ktf rºkÃkwhkLku ykÃkðk{kt ykÔÞku
ar

Au.
(A) {kºk 1 Mkk[wt (B) {kºk 2 Mkk[wt
(C) 1 yLku 2 çkLLku Mkk[kt (D) 1 yLku 2 çkLLku ¾kuxkt
Ph

077. ¼khíkLkk fÞkt hkßÞLku ‘VkÕfLk furÃkx÷ ykuV Ä ðÕzo’ (Falcon Capital of the World) fnuðkÞ Au ?
(A) Lkkøkk÷uLz (B) {ýeÃkwh
(C) r{Íkuh{ (D) {u½k÷Þ
he

078. Lke[uLkk rðÄkLkku [fkMke ÞkuøÞ rðfÕÃk ÃkMktË fhku.


1. «çkwæÄ ¼khík hk{f]»ý r{þLk îkhk «fkrþík {krMkf Ãkrºkfk Au.
2. «çkwæÄ ¼khík ytøkúuS ¼k»kk{kt «fkrþík ÚkkÞ Au.
T

3. «çkwæÄ ¼khíkLke MÚkkÃkLkk 1896{kt ÚkE níke.


(A) {kºk 1 yLku 2 Mkk[kt (B) {kºk 1 yLku 3 Mkk[kt
(C) {kºk 2 yLku 3 Mkk[kt (D) 1, 2 yLku 3 Mkk[kt

BAH - GS - MASTER ] 10 [Contd.

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079. ðirïf ÷Irøkf ytíkhk÷ rhÃkkuxo (Global Gender Gap Report) fE MktMÚkk îkhk «fkrþík fhðk{kt ykðu Au ?
(A) MktÞwõík hk»xÙ þiûkrýf, ði¿kkrLkf yLku MkktMf]ríkf MktøkXLk (UNESCO)
(B) rðï çkUf (World Bank)
(C) rðï ykŠÚkf {t[ (World Economic Forum, WEF)
(D) yktíkhhk»xÙeÞ ©{ MktøkXLk (International Labour Organization)

m
080. Lke[uLkk rðÄkLkku [fkMke ÞkuøÞ rðfÕÃk ÃkMktË fhku.
1. ‘¼khík híLk’ yu ¼khíkLkku Wå[ík{ Lkkøkrhf ÃkwhMfkh Au.
2. ðehíkk ÃkwhMfkhLke ©uýe{kt ‘{nkðeh [¢’ Wå[ík{ ÃkwhMfkh Au.

co
(A) {kºk 1 Mkk[wt (B) {kºk 2 Mkk[wt
(C) 1 yLku 2 çkLLku Mkk[kt (D) 1 yLku 2 çkLLku ¾kuxkt

a.
081. Lke[uLkk Ãkife fE òuze Mkk[e LkÚke ?
(A) {tøk¤ÞkLk – ¼khík (B) nkuÃk r{þLk – Þw.yuMk.yu.

di
(C) çkeøk÷ 2 – ÞwhkuÃkeÞLk ÞwrLkÞLk (D) ríkÞkLkðuLk-1 – [eLk
082. ÞwæÄ yÇÞkMk 20 fÞk ËuþkuLkku rîÃkûkeÞ MktÞwõík MkiLÞ yÇÞkMk Au ?
(A) ¼khík – Þw.yuMk.yu. e (B) ¼khík – hrþÞk
(C) ¼khík – Þw.fu. (D) ¼khík – £kLMk
ap
083. hk»xÙeÞ «kiãkurøkfe ÃkwhMfkh 2020 (National Technology Awards, 2020) rðþu Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞk rðÄkLk / rðÄkLkku
Mkk[kt Au ?
1. yk ÃkwhMfkh «kiãkurøkfe rðfkMk çkkuzo (Technology Development Board) îkhk «ËkLk fhðk{kt ykðu Au.
m

2. ykLku ytíkøkoík MðËuþe «kiãkurøkfeLkk MkV¤ ÔÞðMkkÞefhý {kxu hk»xÙeÞ ÃkwhMfkh ykÃkðk{kt ykðu Au.
3. ykLku ytíkøkoík «kiãkurøkfe MxkxoyÃMkLku hk»xÙeÞ ÃkwhMfkh ykÃkðk{kt ykðu Au.
ar

(A) ^fík 1 yLku 2 (B) Võík 1 yLku 3


(C) Võík 2 yLku 3 (D) 1, 2 yLku 3
Ph

084. Lke[uLkk rðÄkLkku [fkMke ÞkuøÞ rðfÕÃk ÃkMktË fhku.


1. LkuþLk÷ MkwÃkh ftÃÞq®xøk r{þLk (NSM) Lkku ykht¼ ð»ko 2015 {kt ÚkÞku níkku.
2. Ãkh{ 8000 (PARAM 8000) ¼khíkLkwt «Úk{ MkwÃkh fBÃÞqxh níkwt.
3. nk÷{kt Ãkh{-rMkÂæÄ (PARAM Siddhi) ¼khíkLkwt MkkiÚke ÍzÃke fBÃÞqxh Au.
he

(A) {kºk 1 yLku 2 Mkk[kt (B) {kºk 1 yLku 3 Mkk[kt


(C) {kºk 2 yLku 3 Mkk[kt (D) 1, 2 yLku 3 Mkk[kt
085. 27 {k[o, 2021 Lkk hkus yÚko yðh 2021 (Earth Hour 2021) {LkkðkÞku níkku. ‘yÚko yðh’ {LkkððkLke þYykík fÞk
T

ËuþÚke ÚkE níke ?


(A) ykuMxÙur÷Þk (B) £kLMk
(C) s{oLke (D) LkuÄh÷uLzTMk

BAH - GS - MASTER ] 11 P.T.O.

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086. hks yLku rðsÞ, yuf fk{ 12 rËðMk{kt rðsÞ yLku ~Þk{ 15 rËðMk{kt yLku ~Þk{ yLku hks 20 rËðMk{kt Ãkqýo fhu Au.
òu hks, rðsÞ yLku ~Þk{ çkÄks MkkÚku {¤eLku fk{økehe fhu íkku fux÷k rËðMk{kt fk{økehe Ãkqýo ÚkkÞ ?
(A) 10 rËðMk (B) 15 rËðMk
(C) 5 rËðMk (D) 20 rËðMk
087. P ÃkkEÃk [k÷w fhðkÚke yuf xktfe 8 f÷kf{kt ¼hkE òÞ Au. Q ÃkkEÃkÚke 6 f÷kf{kt ¼hkE òÞ Au. «Úk{ çku f÷kf {kxu
P yLku Q ÃkkEÃk [k÷wt hk¾ðk{kt ykðu Au. yk Mktòuøkku{kt çkkfeLke xktfe ¼hðk Q ÃkkEÃk fux÷k f÷kf [k÷w hk¾ðku sYhe

m
Au ?
(A) 2 f÷kf (B) 3 f÷kf

co
(C) 4 f÷kf (D) WÃkhkuõík Ãkife yuf Ãký Lknª
088. òu x + y – 20 = 0 yLku x – 5y – 2 = 0 nkuÞ íkku 3x + y2 – 21 Lke ®f{ík fux÷e nþu ?
(A) + 277 (B) +81

a.
(C) +39 (D) WÃkhkuõík Ãkife yuf Ãký Lknª
089. òu fqx¼k»kk{kt RELATED ™u IVOZGVW ÷¾ðk{kt ykðu íkku ALTERED Lku yk s fqx¼k»kk{kt fE heíku ÷¾kÞ ?

di
(A) ZVOVIGW (B) ZGOVVIW
(C) ZIVOGWV (D) ZOGVIVW
090. e
YrÃkÞk 6000 Lku 5 ð»ko {kxu «rík ð»ko 4% Lkk MkkËk ÔÞksu {qfíkk su ykðf ÚkkÞ íkux÷e s ykðf YrÃkÞk 8000 Lku 3% Lkk
«rík ð»kuo MkkËk ÔÞksLkk Ëhu {qfíkk fux÷k Mk{Þ{kt ÚkkÞ ?
ap
(A) 5 ð»ko (B) 6 ð»ko
(C) 4 ð»ko (D) 3 ð»ko
091. r¢fuxLke yuf {u[{kt «Úk{ 22 ykuðh{kt 3.5 hLkLke MkhuhkþÚke hLk {u¤ðu÷ níkk. òu 50 ykuðhLke {u[{kt 231 hLk
m

fhðkLkk nkuÞ íkku çkkfeLke ykuðh{kt fux÷k Mkhuhkþ hLk fhðk sYhe Au ?
(A) 5.5 (B) 3.5
ar

(C) 4.5 (D) 5


092. þtfhu yuf YrÃkÞk{kt 12 [kpf÷ux ¾heËe Au. òu íkuLku 20% LkVku ÷uðku nkuÞ íkku 1 YrÃkÞk{kt fux÷e [kpf÷ux ykÃkðe òuEyu ?
(A) 12 (B) 10
Ph

(C) 9 (D) 11
093. sÞuþ 35% ðMíkwykuLkwt ðu[ký fhu Au yLku íÞkh çkkË 1950 ðMíkwyku íkuLke ÃkkMku hnu Au. íkku þYykík{kt sÞuþ òuzu fux÷e
ðMíkwyku nþu ?
(A) 5500 (B) 5000
he

(C) 3000 (D) 3500


094. X yLku Y çku ¾k{eÞwõík ½rzÞk¤ku Au. Ëh f÷kfu X 10 r{Lkex {kuze Ãkzu Au yLku Y 10 r{Lkex ykøk¤ Lkef¤u Au. yuf
rËðMku çkÃkkuhu 12:00 ðkøku çkLLku ½rzÞk¤kuLkk Mkh¾k Mk{Þ {u¤ððk{kt ykðu Au íkku yu s rËðMku òu Y MkktsLkk 7:00 f÷kf
T

çkíkkðíke nkuÞ íkku X fÞku Mk{Þ çkíkkðíke nþu ?


(A) MkktsLkk 5:30 (B) MkktsLkk 6:30
(C) MkktsLkk 6:00 (D) WÃkhkuõík Ãkife yuf Ãký Lknª

BAH - GS - MASTER ] 12 [Contd.

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095. hkurník, ÃkkÚko yLku MktsÞ ºkýuÞ MkkÚku 18 rËðMk{kt Yk. 3,240 f{kE þfu Au. hkurník yLku MktsÞ MkkÚku 10 ËðMk{kt Yk.
1,200, ßÞkhu ÃkkÚko yLku MktsÞ MkkÚku 14 rËðMk{kt Yk. 1,820 f{kE þfu Au. íkku ÃkkÚkoLke hku®sËe f{kýe fux÷e nþu ?
(A) Yk. 60 (B) Yk. 65
(C) Yk. 50 (D) Yk. 70
096. 7x + y = 39 yLku 2x + 4y = 0 nkuÞ íkku y Lke ®f{ík þkuÄku.
(A) 4 (B) –3

m
(C) –2 (D) 2
097. yuf ½zeÞk¤Lkku r{rLkx fktxku 20 r{rLkx çkkË, {w¤ ÂMÚkrík MkkÚku fux÷k ytþLkku ¾wýku çkLkkðþu ?

co
(A) 120° (B) 180°
(C) 240° (D) 210°
098. yuf fkÞo¢{{kt fw÷ 420 rxrfxLkwt ðu[ký ÚkÞwt. íku Ãkife yzÄe rxrfx Yk. 500 Lke, yuf ºkwíkeÞktþ (1/3) rxrfx Yk. 300 yLku

a.
çkkfeLke rxrfx Yk. 200 Lke níke. yk Mktòuøkku{kt fw÷ hf{ fux÷e {¤e nþu ?
(A) 1,58,000 (B) 1,61,000

di
(C) 1,67,000 (D) 1,73,000
099. yuf {k yLku ÃkwºkeLke ô{hLkku økwýku¥kh 9:5 Au òu íku{Lke ô{hLkku Mkhðk¤ku 70 ð»ko nkuÞ íkku íku{Lke ô{hLkku íkVkðík fux÷ku
nþu ? e
(A) 45 (B) 25
ap
(C) 32 (D) 20
100. yuf{ ðíkwo¤Lkwt ûkuºkV¤ fux÷wt Úkþu ?
(A)  [ku. yuf{ (B) 2 [ku. yuf{
m

(C) 1 [ku. yuf{ (D) 4 [ku. yuf{


ar
Ph
he
T

BAH - GS - MASTER ] 13 P.T.O.

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101. All of the following changes to a metal are physical changes EXCEPT
(A) Bending (B) Melting
(C) Rusting (D) Polishing
102. In the formulation of suspension and emulsion, which type of diameter is more important?
(A) Projected diameter (B) Surface diameter
(C) Volume diameter (D) Stokes diameter

m
103. HLB value of detergent is
(A) 3-6 (B) 6-9
(C) 9-12 (D) 13-16

co
104. Interfacial tension is invariably _______ Surface tension.
(A) Less than (B) Equal to
(C) More than (D) Double than

a.
105. Dilatant flow is characterized as a reverse phenomenon of
(A) Newtonian flow (B) Plastic flow

di
(C) Pseudoplastic flow (D) Rheopexy
106. If zeta potential of a suspension is high, then the system will be considered as
(A) Flocculated e (B) Deflocculated
(C) Partially flocculated (D) Controlled flocculated
ap
107. Temperature at which solubility of surfactant is equal to Critical Micellar Concentration
(CMC) is known as
(A) Krafft point (B) Transition temperature
(C) Cloud point (D) None of the above
m

108. What do you mean by otic dosage form?


(A) Dosage form for drug administration through the ears
(B) Dosage form for drug administration through the eyes
ar

(C) Dosage form for drug administration through the nose


(D) Dosage form for drug administration through the rectum
109. Suspended particles become flocculated in a suspension, because
Ph

(A) Particles are closely packed


(B) Attractive forces between particles are appreciable
(C) Repulsive forces between particles are appreciable
he

(D) Vehicle rejects the particles


110. Which of the following is an example of hydrophilic bases?
(A) Hydrogenated oil (B) Emulsified cocoa butter
(C) Glycero-gelatin (D) None of the above
T

111. Which of the following oral liquid formulations which would be considered as an oropharyngeal
formulation?
(A) Syrup (B) Elixir
(C) Mouthwash (D) Linctus

BAG - MASTER ] 14 P.T.O.

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112. Which one is the zero order route of administration


(A) Oral (B) Intramuscular
(C) Subcutaneous (D) Intravenous
113. The first vaccine was developed by
(A) Louis Pasteur (B) Gregor Mendel
(C) Alexander Fleming (D) Edward Jenner

m
114. Porosity of a porous powder is defined as:
(A) Bulk volume/void volume (B) Void volume/bulk volume
(C) Void volume/true volume (D) True volume/bulk volume

co
115. Which of the following diluents used in tablet manufacturing is not directly compressible?
(A) Spray dried lactose (B) Anhydrous lactose
(C) Microcrystalline cellulose (D) None of the above

a.
116. Chewable tablet contains the following base:
(A) Mannitol (B) Glucose

di
(C) Lactose (D) None of the above
117. Green bone is a source of
(A) Type A Gelatin (B) Type B Gelatin

118.
(C) Both (A) and (B)
e (D) None of the above
Select the equation that explains the rate of drug dissolution from a tablet
ap
(A) Fick’s law (B) Henderson-Hasselbach equation
(C) Noyes-Whitney equation (D) Michaelis Menten equation
119. Water attack test is generally performed on which type of glass container
m

(A) Type I (B) Type II


(C) Type III (D) Type IV
120. Total solids permitted for water of injection as per GMP
ar

(A) 0.1 ppm (B) 1 ppm


(C) 10 ppm (D) 100 ppm
121. Aerosols should be stored at temperature
Ph

(A) 37°C or less (B) below 120°F


(C) below 95°F (D) below 100°F
122. A non-ionic surfactant based multilamellar or unilamellar vesicular structure is called as
(A) Microsphere (B) Liposome
he

(C) Niosome (D) Nanoparticle


123. Rigidity of the liposomal membrane is due to
(A) Phosphotidylcholine (B) Cholesterol
T

(C) Dicetyl phosphate (D) Stearylamine


124. Flow rate of granules from the hopper can be improved by adding
(A) Disintegrant (B) Glidant
(C) Binder (D) Lubricant

BAG - MASTER ] 15 [Contd.

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125. Shellac is used for the purpose of coating of the tablets as


(A) Polishing agent (B) Film coating agent
(C) Sub-Coating agent for sugar coating (D) Sealant for sugar coating
126. The disintegration time for sugar coated tablets is
(A) 30 minutes (B) 45 minutes
(C) 60 minutes (D) 75 minutes

m
127. Aerosil is used as
(A) Glidant (B) Lubricant
(C) Antiadherant (D) Diluent

co
128. Identify the type of flow, when the value of Reynold’s number is less than 2000
(A) Turbulent (B) Transient
(C) Laminar flow (D) None of the above

a.
129. Which of the following absorption of drug from gastrointestinal tract is based on concentration
gradients?
(A) Passive transport (B) Active transport

di
(C) Facilitated transport (D) Pore transport
130. Fick’s law is used for study of
(A) Dissolution rate e (B) Disintegration rate
(C) Dissociation rate (D) Diffusion rate
ap
131. Which one of the following has very low perfusion rate?
(A) Cartilage and bone (B) Muscle and skin
(C) Lungs and kidney (D) Liver and Heart
132. Absorption of the riboflavin takes place via
m

(A) Passive diffusion (B) Active transport


(C) Facilitated diffusion (D) pore convection
ar

133. Which of the following characteristics is most likely to be associated with a high apparent
volume of distribution?
(A) High hepatic extraction ratio (B) Extensive binding to tissue constituents
Ph

(C) Extensive binding to plasma protein (D) Distribution into total body water
134. Which of the following fluid can be considered as an ideal fluid?
(A) Viscous fluid (B) Non-viscous fluid
(C) Compressible fluid (D) All of the above
he

135. Non-linear relationship between shear stress and shear rate exists in:
(A) Newtonian fluids (B) Non-Newtonian fluids
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above
136. Drum dryers are used
T

(A) When the material is too thick for spray dryer and too thin for rotary dryer
(B) When the material is too thick for rotary dryer and too thin for spray dryer
(C) When the material is not biodegradable
(D) When large crystal size is to be obtained

BAG - MASTER ] 16 P.T.O.

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137. Thermal conductivity is maximum for which substance:


(A) Silver (B) Ice
(C) Aluminium (D) Diamond
138. The 1st edition of Indian Pharmacopoeia was published in the year
(A) 1966 (B) 1955
(C) 1950 (D) 1960

m
139. In the Patent Cooperation Treaty (PCT), patent application enters national phase within
(A) 12 months (B) 24 months
(C) 31 months (D) 36 months

co
140. The metric equivalent value of 1 dessertspoonful is
(A) 8 millilitre (B) 10 millilitre
(C) 15 millilitre (D) 4 millilitre

a.
141. Which of the following materials are not used for drying in a freeze dryer?
(A) Seafood (B) Fruits

di
(C) Pharmaceuticals (D) Dyes
142. Solvent extraction is basically known as
(A) Gas-liquid extraction (B) Liquid- liquid extraction

143.
(C) Liquid-solid extraction
e
The size reduction by ball mill is by
(D) None of the above
ap
(A) Attrition and impact (B) Only impact
(C) Only attrition (D) Compression
144. Crystallization is based on the
m

(A) Difference in melting point (B) Difference in boiling point


(C) Difference in pressure (D) Difference in solubility
145. The prescription is an order written by a Registered Medical Practitioner to
ar

(A) Patient (B) Pharmacist


(C) Compounder (D) Nurse
146. Posology is a branch of pharmacy which deals with
Ph

(A) Study of dosage forms (B) Study of doses


(C) Study of drug interaction (D) All of the above
147. Which is measured for the neutral form of a drug?
(A) Log P (B) Log D
he

(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above


148. At what temperature blood is cooled immediately after withdrawal from the donor?
(A) 7-8°C (B) 6-8°C
T

(C) 4-6°C (D) -2 to 0°C


149. When tetracycline is administered with antacids the absorption of tetracycline
(A) Increases (B) Decreases
(C) Minimally altered (D) Not altered at all

BAG - MASTER ] 17 [Contd.

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150. Translate Statim into English


(A) A Drop (B) According to the art
(C) Immediately (D) Bed Time
151. The mole fraction of C2H5OH in a solution containing 46 g of Ethanol and 64 g of Methanol
is
(A) 1/3 (B) 1/2

m
(C) 2/3 (D) 1/4
152. Which law governs the relative lowering of vapour pressure in solution?
(A) Van’t Hoff Law (B) Boyle’s Law

co
(C) Amagat’s Law (D) Raoult’s Law
153. Isotonic solutions must have the same
(A) Solute (B) Molecular Weight

a.
(C) Elevation of Boiling Point (D) Depression in Freezing Point
154. Which of the following is not the property of the system?

di
(A) Pressure (B) Temperature
(C) Heat (D) Density
155. Change in enthalpy of a system is the heat supplied at:
e
(A) Constant Pressure (B) Constant Temperature
ap
(C) Constant Volume (D) N.T.P. Conditions
156. First law of thermodynamics gives the relationship between
(A) Heat & Work (B) Heat, Work & Properties of System
(C) Heat & Internal Energy (D) Various properties of System
m

157. Carnot cycle has maximum efficiency for


(A) Reversible Engine (B) New Engine
ar

(C) Petrol Engine (D) Diesel Engine


158. For desalination of water, the material used for making semi permeable membrane is:
(A) Parchment Membrane (B) Cellulose Acetate
Ph

(C) Cell Membrane (D) Potassium Nitrate


159. Which of the following factors do not affect the electrode potential of an electrode?
(A) Nature of the electrode (B) Temperature of the solution
(C) Molarity of the solution (D) Size of the electrode
he

160. Conjugate base for the Bronsted Acids H2O & HF are:
(A) H3O+ & H2+F respectively (B) OH- & H2F+ respectively
(C) H3O+ & F2-2 respectively (D) OH- & F- respectively
T

161. If the rate constant for a first order reaction is “K”, then the time “t” required for the
completion of 99% of the reaction is given by
(A) t = 2.303/K (B) t = 0.693/K
(C) t = 6.909/K (D) t = 4.606/K

BAG - MASTER ] 18 P.T.O.

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162. Precipitation occurs when the ionic product is


(A) Equal to the solubility product (B) More than the solubility product
(C) Less than the solubility product (D) Almost zero
163. Faraday’s law of electrolysis is related to
(A) Atomic number of cation (B) Speed of cation
(C) Speed of anion (D) Equivalent weight of electrolyte

m
164. The value of Henry’s Law constant
(A) Increases with increase in temperature
(B) Decreases with decrease in temperature

co
(C) Remains constant
(D) First increases, then decreases
165. Which of the following will undergo Hydrogenation reaction?

a.
(A) Acetylene (B) Ethane
(C) Ethanol (D) Ethyl amine

di
166. In MS, fragmentation of ions is achieved through
(A) Ionization (B) Splitting
(C) Coupling e (D) Solubilization
167. Which of the following is most acidic in nature?
ap
(A) Acetic Acid (B) Water
(C) Methanol (D) Acetone
168. Which of the following is a protecting group for amino functional group?
(A) Carbonate (B) Ester
m

(C) Chloride (D) None of the above


169. Which of the following is a disaccharide?
ar

(A) Dextrose (B) Lactose


(C) Glucose (D) Fructose
170. Which of the following is an essential amino acid?
Ph

(A) Alanine (B) Serine


(C) Valine (D) Glycine
171. The addition of HCN to carbonyl compounds is an example of
(A) Electrophilic Addition (B) Nucleophilic Addition
he

(C) Free Radical Addition (D) Electromeric Addition


172. Which of the following is a sulphur containing amino acid?
(A) Methionine (B) Leucine
T

(C) Glycine (D) Alanine


173. Which of the following is not a peptide hormone?
(A) Thyroxine (B) Insulin
(C) Cortisol (D) Oxytocin

BAG - MASTER ] 19 [Contd.

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174. Which amino acid is the precursor of histamine?


(A) Tyrosine (B) Histidine
(C) Proline (D) Alanine
175. Tryptophan is biosynthesized by
(A) Acetate Pathway (B) Shikimate Pathway
(C) Mevalonate Pathway (D) None of the above

m
176. Which of the following compounds will undergo sulfonation radically?
(A) Benzene (B) Nitrobenzene
(C) Toluene (D) Chlorobenzene

co
177. A new C-C bond formation is possible in:
(A) Cannizzaro Reaction (B) Friedel Craft Reaction
(C) Clemmensen Reduction (D) None of the above

a.
178. The reaction of ethyl formate with an excess of CH3MgI followed by hydrolysis gives
(A) Ethanol (B) n-propyl alcohol

di
(C) Propanol (D) Isopropyl alcohol
179. The instrument used to determine the optical activity is called
(A) Refractometer (B) Oscillator

180.
(C) Polarimeter
Regioselective reaction produces
e (D) All of the above
ap
(A) Selective constitutional isomer (B) Selective dextro isomer
(C) Selective levo isomer (D) Racemic mixture
181. In polysaccharides, monosaccharides are joined by
m

(A) Peptide Bond (B) Glucose Bond


(C) Glycosidic Bond (D) Covalent Bond
182. Chlorpheniramine is used to treat
ar

(A) Migraine (B) Hay Fever


(C) Rashes (D) All of the above
183. Which of the following is absent in Oral Rehydration Salt:
Ph

(A) Potassium (B) Chloride


(C) Sodium (D) Calcium
184. Boron Trifluoride is _______ in nature.
(A) Acidic (B) Basic
he

(C) Amphoteric (D) Neutral


185. What is prevented by alcohol in the limit test of sulphate?
(A) Saturation (B) Super-Saturation
T

(C) Precipitation (D) None of the above


186. Which of the following is a -lactamase inhibitor?
(A) Tazobactam (B) Sulbactam
(C) Clavulanic Acid (D) All of the above

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187. Penicillin are degraded by


(A) Acid (B) Alkali
(C) Penicillinase (D) All of the above
188. Amphotericin acts as an antifungal due to
(A) Binding with fungal ergosterol (B) Inhibition of squalene epoxidase
(C) Blocking of intercellular microtubes (D) Inhibition of 14-demethylase

m
189. Which of the following is a mitotic inhibitor and causes metaphase arrest?
(A) Busulfan (B) Vincristine
(C) Cytarabine (D) Procarbazine

co
190. Which of the following is a sulfa prodrug?
(A) Sulphadimidine (B) Sulphasalazine
(C) Sulphacetamide (D) Sulphadiazine

a.
191. Tetracyclines inhibit protein synthesis by binding on:
(A) 30S ribosomal subunit (B) Topoisomerase ribosomal subunit

di
(C) 60S ribosomal subunit (D) None of the above
192. Which of the following is not an imidazole antifungal?
(A) Terconazole (B) Clotrimazole

193.
(C) Tioconazole
e (D) Sertaconazole
Which of the following cannot be treated by anti-viral drugs?
ap
(A) Tuberculosis (B) Smallpox
(C) Hepatitis (D) Warts
194. The guidelines that describe the analytical method validation are:
m

(A) ICH Q 2 (B) ICH Q 1


(C) ICH Q 8 (D) ICH Q 9
195. Which of the following is a primary standard?
ar

(A) Sodium Hydroxide (B) Sodium Tetraborate


(C) Sodium Bicarbonate (D) Sodium Thiosulphate
196. Which of the following is amphiprotic in nature?
Ph

(A) Boric Acid (B) Oxalic Acid


(C) Acetic Acid (D) Hydrochloric Acid
197. Which of the following is a self indicator?
(A) Potassium Iodate (B) Potassium Permanganate
he

(C) Potassium Iodide (D) Potassium Bromate


198. Iodine solution is standardized using
(A) Potassium Iodate (B) Potassium Iodide
T

(C) Sodium Oxalate (D) Arsenic Trioxide


199. Potassium Chromate is used as an indicator in
(A) Volhard’s Method (B) Mohr’s Method
(C) Fajan’s Method (D) None of the above

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200. Ammonium Thiocyanate is standardized using


(A) Sodium Chloride (B) Potassium Chloride
(C) Silver Nitrate (D) Sodium Bromide
201. Solvent extraction is governed by
(A) Boyle’s Law (B) Ostwald Dilution Law
(C) Nernst Distribution Law (D) Beer’s Law

m
202. Molar absorptivity is unrelated to
(A) Concentration (B) Path Length

co
(C) Molecular Weight (D) Solubility in Water
203. Which of the following compounds exhibit fluorescence?
(A) Aspirin (B) Indomethacin

a.
(C) Quinine (D) Paracetamol
204. The choice of solvent in thin layer chromatography depends on
(A) Nature of the substance to be separated

di
(B) Materials n which the separation is to be carried out
(C) Both (A) and (B)

205.
(D) None of the above
e
The approximate value of methyl proton in NMR is
ap
(A) 1.3 (B) 1.5
(C) 0.9 (D) 2.5
206. Urinary elimination of an acidic drug is enhanced by adjusting
m

(A) Urinary pH to more acidic (B) Urinary pH to more basic


(C) Urinary pH like pKa of the drug (D) None of the above
ar

207. The neurotransmitter at the sympathetic ganglia is


(A) Adrenaline (B) Noradrenalin
(C) Acetylcholine (D) Adrenaline and Acetylcholine
Ph

208. Following are the adverse effects of Morphine - EXCEPT


(A) Miosis (B) Mydriasis
(C) Dependence (D) Drowsiness
209. Antiarrhythmic agents are classified as –
he

Class Drugs
I P. Beta receptor
II Q. K+ channel
T

III R. Na+ channel


IV S. Ca2+ channel
(A) I-S, II-P, III-Q, IV-R (B) I-R, II-S, III-P, IV-Q
(C) I-R, II-P, III-Q, IV-S (D) I-Q, II-R, III-S, IV-P

BAG - MASTER ] 22 P.T.O.

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210. Following statements about thiazide diuretics are correct - EXCEPT


(A) They exhibit antihypertensive activity (B) They are sulphonamide derivatives
(C) They cause hypocalcaemia. (D) They cause hypercalcaemia
211. Prednisone is a prodrug which is converted in liver to its active form as
(A) Methylprednisolone (B) Desmethylprednisone
(C) Prednisolone (D) None of the above

m
212. Which of the following drug is used is used to reduce Methotrexate overdose or toxicity
(A) Lomustine (B) Leucovorin
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above

co
213. Which vitamin deficiency cause Bitot’s spots and Corneal Xerosis?
(A) Vitamin C (B) Vitamin A
(C) Vitamin D (D) None of the above

a.
214. Which of the following drug is NOT used as immunosuppressant?
(A) Cyclosporine (B) Cycloserine
(C) Cyclophosphamide (D) All of the above

di
215. Which statement about Dornase-alfa is INCORRECT?
(A) It is recombinant human deoxyribonuclease
(B) It selectively cleaves DNA e
(C) It increases viscosity of sputum
ap
(D) It is used in Cystic fibrosis
216. The common cause of inflammation includes all the following - EXCEPT
(A) Infection (B) Hypersensitivity
(C) Necrosis (D) Apoptosis
m

217. Select the situation that may lead to metabolic acidosis


(A) Severe diarrhoea (B) Ketosis
ar

(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above


218. Which virus is known to causes lymphoma?
(A) West-Nile virus (B) Harpes-simplex virus
Ph

(C) Epstein-Barr virus (D) Human immunodeficiency virus


219. Which cell is NOT involved in Type -IV hypersensitivity?
(A) TH 1 (B) TH 2
(C) TH 17 (D) All of the above
he

220. In adult women, which microorganism protect vagina from pathogens


(A) E. coli (B) Lactobacilli
(C) Yeast (D) None of the above
221. Following are the causes of Secondary Gout - EXCEPT
T

(A) It is caused due to idiopathic reason


(B) It is manifested by crystallization of monosodium urate within & around joints
(C) It is caused due to known reason of increased uric acid production
(D) It is caused due to decreased excretion of uric acid

BAG - MASTER ] 23 [Contd.

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222. In pathogenesis of gastritis, which enzyme secreted by H. pylori plays an important role?
(A) Urase (B) Carbamoyl Phosphate Synthase
(C) Uricase (D) None of the above
223. Hepcidin inhibit iron transfer from
(A) Enterocyte to plasma.. (B) Plasma to enterocyte
(C) Ferric to ferrous form (D) None of the above

m
224. Proton pump inhibitors (PPI) markedly reduce bioavailability of Ketoconazole (K). It is
because
(A) PPI decreases gastric pH (B) PPI increases gastric pH

co
(C) PPI enhance elimination of K from gut (D) None of the above
225. Which of the following statement about Adverse Drug Reaction (ADR) Type-B is
INCORRECT?

a.
(A) These are unpredictable reactions
(B) Their incidence is low

di
(C) These are drug-dose dependent reactions.
(D) These usually lead to high mortality.
226. In Elderly, all the following drugs can be used safely for management of hypertension-
e
EXCEPT
(A) Amlodipine (B) Metoprolol
ap
(C) Propranolol (D) Hydrochlorothiazide
227. Following are the most common methods used for identification of Adverse Drug Reactions
(ADR) – EXCEPT
m

(A) Clinical Trial - Phase-II (B) Case report


(C) Case- control study (D) Cohort study
228. A diabetic patient was taking sulfonylureas. He was prescribed sulphonamide for an infection.
ar

However, he developed hypoglycaemia due to increased activity of sulfonylureas. Pharmacist


suspected a drug interaction which has occurred due to co-administration of Sulphonamide
leading to-
Ph

(A) Reduced metabolism of sulfonylureas


(B) Reduced elimination of sulfonylureas
(C) Enhanced absorption of sulfonylureas
(D) Displacement of sulfonylureas from their protein binding site
he

229. In Paracetamol toxicity, a hepatotoxic metabolite N-acetyl-p-benzo-quinone-imine (NABQI)


is formed, which is detoxified in liver by conjugation with
(A) Glycine (B) Glucuronide
T

(C) Glutathione (D) Methyl


230. Select a drug which is having 5HT1A receptor agonistic activity
(A) Buspirone (B) Ondansetron
(C) Cyproheptadine (D) Clozapine

BAG - MASTER ] 24 P.T.O.

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231. Which of the following is a parenterally used anticoagulant?


(A) Acenocoumarol (B) Enoxaparin
(C) Warfarin (D) Phenindione
232. Which tumour marker is used for screening of Hepatocellular carcinoma?
(A) CA125 (B) -Fetoprotein
(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) None of the above

m
233. All the following statements about Serum are true - EXCEPT
(A) It is thick liquid (B) It contains clotting protein

co
(C) It lacks clotting factors (D) It formed outside the blood vessels
234. All these are salivary glands – EXCEPT
(A) Submandibular gland (B) Sublingual gland

a.
(C) Parotid gland (D) Pyloric gland
235. The inhibitory neurotransmitter at synapses between rods and some bipolar cells is

di
(A) Dopamine (B) Glycine
(C) Glutamate (D) None of the above
236. Which statement is INCORRECT regarding Parathyroid hormone (PTH)?
e
(A) It is secreted by endocrine parathyroid gland.
ap
(B) It increases the number and activity of Osteoblast cells.
(C) It increases the number and activity of Osteoclast cells.
(D) It promotes formation of Calcitriol
m

237. An average Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR) in an adult male is


(A) 55 mL/min (B) 125 mL/min
(C) 105 mL/min (D) 25 mL/min
ar

238. Select an INCORRECT statement about thyroid hormones


(A) They down-regulate â - receptor, decreasing heart rate
Ph

(B) They increase Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR)


(C) They have calorigenic effect, leading to rise in body temperature.
(D) They increase lipolysis and cholesterol excretion.
239. Which class of antibody can cross placenta and enter from mother to foetus?
he

(A) Ig E (B) Ig M
(C) Ig G (D) Ig A
240. Which is the correct sequence of cardiac conduction system?
T

(A) SA node  AV node  Purkinje fibre  Bundle of His.


(B) Bundle of His  Purkinje fibre  SA node  AV node.
(C) AV node  Bundle of His  Purkinje fibre  SA node.
(D) SA node  AV node  Bundle of His  Purkinje fibre

BAG - MASTER ] 25 [Contd.

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241. Which of these statements about the composition of biological membranes is false?
(A) In a given eukaryotic cell type (e.g., a hepatocyte), all intracellular membranes have
essentially the same complement of lipids and proteins
(B) The carbohydrate found in membranes is virtually all part of either glycolipids or
glycoproteins
(C) The plasma membranes of the cells of vertebrate animals contain more cholesterol than
the mitochondrial membranes

m
(D) The ratio of lipid to protein varies widely among cell types in a single organism
242. An electrogenic Na+ transporter:

co
(A) Catalyzes facilitated diffusion Na+ from a region of high Na+ concentration to a region of
lower Na+ concentration
(B) Must catalyze an electron transfer (oxidation-reduction) reaction simultaneously with
Na+ transport

a.
(C) Transports Na+ without concurrent transport of any other charged species
(D) Transport Na+ against its concentration gradient

di
243. Which of the following molecules or substances contain, or are derived from, fatty acids?
(A) Prostaglandins (B) Sphingolipid
(C) Triacylglycerols (D) All of the above
244.
e
Which of the following vitamin deficiency leads to the disease pellagra?
(A) Vitamin A (B) Vitamin C
ap
(C) Vitamin B3 (D) Vitamin B2
245. Which of the following are electron donors during mitochondrial electron transport chain?
(A) NADH and FADH2 (B) NADPH and FADH2
m

(C) ATP, NADH and FADH2 (D) NADH and FMN


246. Which of the following statements about the competitive inhibition of an enzyme-catalyzed
reaction is correct?
ar

(A) A competitive inhibitor and substrate can bind simultaneously to the enzyme
(B) The Vmax and Km (Michaelis constant) for a reaction are unchanged in the presence of a
competitive inhibitor
Ph

(C) The Vmax for a reaction remains unchanged in the presence of a competitive inhibitor
(D) The Km for a reaction remains unchanged in the presence of a competitive inhibitor
247. Which of the following pattern of inheritance is related to autozygosity mapping?
(A) Autosomal dominant (B) Autosomal recessive
he

(C) X-linked dominant (D) X-linked recessive


248. A medium which is composed of chemically defined compound is known as
(A) Natural media (B) Synthetic media
T

(C) Artificial media (D) None of the above


249. Which of the following are the characteristics of a normal cell?
(A) Anchorage independent (B) Continuous cell lines
(C) Dependent on external growth factor (D) No contact inhibition

BAG - MASTER ] 26 P.T.O.

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250. What is the growth condition for Saccharomyces cerevisiae with glucose as energy source?
(A) Aerobic (B) Anaerobic
(C) Tryptophan limited (D) Glucose limited
251. A DNA vaccine is:
(A) A DNA molecule that is recognized by an antibody
(B) A vaccine that works by stimulating the immune system to recognize pathogen DNA

m
(C) RNA interference based technology
(D) A vaccine which is administered as DNA and then expressed to produce protein which
stimulates the immune system

co
252. Which of the following enzymes in bacteria are responsible for restricting the growth of
viruses?
(A) Restriction endonuclease (B) Topoisomerase

a.
(C) Gyrase (D) Protease
253. Which of the following COVID-19 vaccine is NOT based on recombinant DNA technology?
(A) Covishield (B) Covaxin

di
(C) Sputnik (D) None of the above
254. The presence of only one living microorganism means an object is:
(A) Aseptic
(C) Disinfected
e (B) Sanitized
(D) Contaminated
ap
255. Magnification range of light microscope is:
(A) 1000x – 5000x (B) 1000x – 2000x
(C) 500x – 1000x (D) None of the above
m

256. When a bacterial cell and mitochondria are treated with cyanide and carbon monoxide what
happens initially?
(A) Inhibition of respiration (B) Inhibition of photosynthesis
ar

(C) Inhibition of protein synthesis (D) No effect occurs


257. Discontinuous heating is known as
(A) Pasteurization (B) Sterilization
Ph

(C) Fermentation (D) Tyndallization


258. Which of the following is not a symptom of Rhinocerebral Mucormycosis?
(A) Shortness of breath (B) Headache
(C) Fever (D) Black lesions on nasal bridge
he

259. The medicinal plants mentioned under ‘Rasayana’ promotes the quality of body tissues
through which of the following ways
(A) Poshaka rasa (B) Srotasas
T

(C) Agni (D) All of the above


260. Glycosides are condensation products of
(A) Sugar + Aglycone (B) Sugar + Protein
(C) Protein + Aglycone (D) Fats + Aglycone

BAG - MASTER ] 27 [Contd.

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261. Magnesium turnings and concentrated HCl is used in which of the following chemical
identification tests:
(A) Picrolonic test (B) Thionine test
(C) Shinoda test (D) Selivanoff½s test
262. Match the correct pairs of morphological class of drug example
a. Roots I Quassia

m
b. Woods II Turmeri
c. Rhizomes III Kurchi
d. Bark IV Rauwolfia

co
(A) a-IV, b-I, c-II, d-III (B) a-I, b-IV, c-II, d-III
(C) a-IV, b-I, c-III, d-II (D) a-III, b-II, c-I, d-IV
263. Which of the following drugs does not belong to purine alkaloids:

a.
(A) Tea (B) Ephedra
(C) Kola (D) Cocoa seed
264. All of the following about ‘Tannins’ is true except:

di
(A) Tannins are not precipitated by salts of tin and lead
(B) It forms colloidal solutions with water and are non-crystalline substances
e
(C) They are precipitated by chromic acid solution
(D) They show colour reactions with iron salts
ap
265. The chemical formula of ‘Sesquiterpene’ is:
(A) C5H8 (B) C10H16
(C) C15H24 (D) C20H32
m

266. All of the following hydrocarbons are ‘Monocyclic monoterpenes’ except


(A) d-Limonene (B) -Phellandrene
(C) Ocimene (D) -Phellandrene
ar

267. Give the correct match from following:


Drugs Category of alkaloids
a. Kurchi I Steroidal
Ph

b. Curare II Isoquinoline
c. LobeliaI III Imidazole
d. Aconite IV Indole
V Pyridine
he

VI Terpenoid
(A) a-III, b-II, c-IV, d-VI (B) a-I, b-II, c-V, d-VI
(C) a-I, b-II, c-VI, d-V (D) a-IV, b-I, c-II, d-III
T

268. The main intermediates of Mevalonic acid pathway are:


P. Isopentenyl pyrophosphate Q. Dimethyl allyl pyrophosphate R. Quinnic acid
(A) P and Q (B) Q and R
(C) P and R (D) P, Q and R

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269. Which amino acid is not formed by Shikimic acid pathway:


(A) Tyrosine (B) Tryptophan
(C) Methionine (D) Phenylalanine
270. Pyruvic acid derivative used as a precursor in Shikimic acid pathway is obtained after:
(A) Glycogenolysis (B) Glycolysis
(C) TCA cycle (D) Glyconeogenesis

m
271. Which of the following are histidine derived alkaloids?
(A) Tropane alkaloids (B) Indole alkaloids

co
(C) Imidazole alkaloids (D) Quinoline alkaloids
272. On the basis of taste raw drugs (herbs) can be divided into _______ categories.
(A) 6 (B) 5
(C) 3 (D) 4

a.
273. Which of the following is not considered as natural plant growth regulator?
(A) Brassinosteroids (B) Gibberellins

di
(C) Indole-3-Butyric acid (D) Zeatin
274. For evaluation of hypoglycemic activity of plant extracts, experimental diabetes is induced
in animals by: e
(A) CCl4 (B) Streptozocin
ap
(C) Embelin (D) Carrageenan
275. Which of the following is not a tropane alkaloid?
(A) Hyoscamine (B) Atropin
(C) Diosgenin (D) Scopolamine
m

276. A Camera Lucida is


(A) An aid to artist and microscopist (B) An early box camera
ar

(C) Type of rangefinder camera (D) None of the above


277. The natural substances which increase the non-specific resistance of organisms against
different type of stressors are termed as
Ph

(A) Anti-inflammatory agents (B) Adaptogens


(C) Antifertilty agents (D) C.N.S. depressants
278. Convolvulus prostatis is the botanical name of
(A) Shankhapushi (B) Liqourice
he

(C) Shatavar (D) Brahami


279. Paederia foetida is the botanical name of:
(A) Gandhaprasarini (B) Rasna
T

(C) Tuvaraka (D) Pashanabheda


280. Which of the following is used to visualize live cells?
(A) Scanning electron microscope (B) Transmission electron microscope
(C) Phase contrast microscope (D) All of the above

BAG - MASTER ] 29 [Contd.

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281. The names of authoritative book of Ayurvedic, Siddha and Unani Tibb systems are specified
in the
(A) First Schedule of D&C Act 1940 (B) Second Schedule of D&C Act 1940
(C) Schedule T of D&C Rules 1945 (D) Part XVI of D&C Rules 1945
282. Form 25-E is related to which one of the following
(A) Licence to repack for sale or distribution of drugs being drugs other than those specified

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in Schedule C and C (1)
(B) Licence to manufacture for sale or for distribution of homoeopathic medicines

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(C) Licence to manufacture for sale of Ayurvedic (including Siddha) or Unani drugs
(D) Loan licence to manufacture for sale of Ayurvedic (including Siddha) or Unani drugs
283. When the medicines for treatment of animals are kept in a retail shop premises as per
D & C Act 1940 they are to be labelled with which one of the following words

a.
(A) “Veterinary drugs”
(B) “Not for human use - for treatment of animals only”

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(C) “Animal medicines”
(D) “Medicines not to be sold for human use”
284.
e
Who acts as Chairman of Drugs Technical Advisory Board (DTAB)?
(A) Drugs Controller of India
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(B) Director General of Health Services
(C) President Pharmacy Council of India
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(D) President Medical Council of India


285. Fish liver oil and preparation containing fish liver oil are included in which one of the following
schedules
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(A) Schedule C (B) Schedule C (1)


(C) Schedule D (D) Schedule F
286. The Definition of “patented articles” and “patentee is mentioned in
Ph

(A) section 87 of the Indian Patent Act 1970


(B) section 82 of the Indian Patent Act 1970
(C) section 89 of the Indian Patent Act 1970
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(D) section 89 of the Indian Patent Act 1970


287. Which one of the following preparations is referred to as ‘restricted preparations’ as per
The Medicinal and Toilet Preparations Act 1955?
T

(A) All homoeopathic preparations containing alcohol


(B) Ayurvedic preparations containing 2% self generated proof spirit
(C) Ayurvedic ‘Asavas’ preparations
(D) Ayurvedic ‘Aristas’ preparations

BAG - MASTER ] 30 P.T.O.

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288. Which of the following advertisement is/are prohibited under the Drugs and Magic Remedies
(Objectionable Advertisements) Act 1955?
(A) Advertisement of a drug claims to prevent conception in women
(B) Advertisement of a drug claims to correct menstrual disorder in women
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

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289. Which one of the following is not the ex-officio members of State Pharmacy Council?
(A) Chief administrative medical officer of the state
(B) Officer-in-charge of Drugs and Cosmetics Act 1940

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(C) President of the Medical Council of the state
(D) Government analyst under the D&C Act 1940 appointed by State Government
290. _______ means an article of food, being a produce of agriculture or horticulture or animal

a.
husbandry and dairying or aquaculture in its natural form, resulting from the growing, raising,
cultivation, picking, harvesting, collection or catching in the hands of a person other than a
farmer or fisherman.

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(A) Primary food (B) Unsafe food
(C) Misbranded food (D) None of the above
291. Which one of the following is not patentable as per Indian Patent Act 1970?
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(A) An inventive biological process for production of plants
ap
(B) An invention which is not obvious to a person skilled in the light of the prior knowledge
(C) An invention possessing utility and can be used in industry
(D) An invention possessing utility so that it can be made
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292. The transfusion of medicines, medical devices and blood components in United Kingdom is
regulated by
(A) MHRA (B) TGA
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(C) ASTM (D) All of the above


293. The TGA does not regulate
(A) Veterinary medicines (B) Health insurance
Ph

(C) Cosmetics (D) All of the above


294. Which level of management is responsible for establishing a vision for the organization,
developing broad plans and strategies, and directing subordinate managers?
(A) Executive managers (B) First level managers
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(C) Second level managers (D) Middle managers


295. Work specialization, span of control, centralization and decentralization, and formalization
are the
T

(A) Key elements of organizational structure designing


(B) Leadership traits of organizational structure designing
(C) Power and policies of organization
(D) Foundations of individual behaviour

BAG - MASTER ] 31 [Contd.

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296. Which one of the following types of communication keeps mangers aware of how employees
feel about their jobs, co-workers, and the organization in general
(A) Downward communication (B) Upward communication
(C) Lateral communication (D) Central communication
297. Which of the following is not an inventory?
(A) Tablet compression machine

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(B) Paracetamol powder
(C) Paracetamol tablets

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(D) Spare parts for the tablet compression machine
298. According to Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs theory, the lowest level need is
(A) Psychological needs (B) Social need

a.
(C) Esteem need (D) None of the above
299. One advantage of the use of job rotation as a development tool is that
(A) The training is practical

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(B) The learner is encouraged to make mistakes
(C) It is relatively easy to perceive factual information

300.
e
(D) The time horizons are relatively short
Union oppose incentives schemes because
ap
(A) It dilutes union power (B) It reduces union membership
(C) Standard may go up (D) Management may not be honest
m
ar
Ph
he
T

BAG - MASTER ] 32

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