Pak 16 2022 23

BEA(CBRT)
PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEY
Name of the post Law Officer, Class-2, Gujarat Skill Training Service, Labour,
Skill Development and Employment Department
Advertisement No. 16/2022-23

Preliminary Test held 22-01-2023
Question No. 01-300
Publish Date 23-01-2023
Last Date to Send Suggestion(s) 28-01-2023

THE LINK FOR ONLINE OBJECTION SYSTEM WILL START FROM 24-01-2023; 04:00 PM ONWARDS
Instructions / ૂચના
Candidate must ensure compliance to the instructions mentioned below, else objections
shall not be considered: -
(1) All the suggestion should be submitted through ONLINE OBJECTION SUBMISSION SYSTEM only.
Physical or submission through E- Mail of suggestions will not be considered.
(2) Question wise suggestion to be submitted in the prescribed format (proforma) published on the
website / online objection submission system.
(3) All suggestions are to be submitted with reference to the Master Question Paper with provisional
answer key (Master Question Paper), published herewith on the website / online objection
submission system. Objections should be sent referring to the Question, Question No. & options of
the Master Question Paper.
(4) Suggestions regarding question nos. and options other than provisional answer key (Master
Question Paper) shall not be considered.
(5) Objections and answers suggested by the candidate should be in compliance with the responses given
by him in his answer sheet. Objections shall not be considered, in case, if responses given in the answer
sheet /response sheet and submitted suggestions are differed.
(6) Objection for each question should be made on separate sheet. Objection for more than one question
in single sheet shall not be considered.
ઉમેદવાર નીચેની ૂચનાઓ ુ ં પાલન કરવાની તકદાર રાખવી, અ યથા વાંધા- ૂચન ગે કરલ ર ૂ આતો યાને લેવાશે નહ
(1) ઉમેદવાર વાંધાં- ચ

ૂ નો ફ ત ઓનલાઈન ઓ શન સબમીશન સી ટમ ારા જ સબમીટ કરવાના રહશે. બ અથવા ટપાલ
અથવા ઇ- મેઇલ ારા આયોગની કચેર એ મોકલવા આવેલ વાંધા- ૂચનો યાને લેવામા આવશે નહ ની ખાસ ન ધ
લેવી.
(2) ઉમેદવાર વાંધા- ૂચનો ર ૂ કરવા વેબસાઈટ / ઓનલાઈન ઓ શન સબમીશન સી ટમ પર િસ ધ થયેલ િનયત
ન ૂનાનો જ ઉપયોગ કરવો.
(3) ઉમેદવાર પોતાને પર ામાં મળેલ પ ુ તકામાં છપાયેલ માક ુજબ વાંધા- ૂચનો ર ૂ ન કરતા તમામ
વાંધા- ૂચનો વેબસાઈટ પર િસ ધ થયેલ ોિવઝનલ આ સર ક (મા ટર પ )ના માંક ુજબ અને તે સંદભમાં
ર ૂ કરવા.
(4) મા ટર પ માં િન દ ટ અને િવક પ િસવાયના વાંધા- ૂચનો યાને લેવામાં આવશે નહ .
(5) ઉમેદવાર ના િવક પ પર વાંધો ર ૂ કરલ છે અને િવક પ પે જવાબ ૂચવેલ છે એ જવાબ ઉમેદવાર પોતાની
ઉ રવહ માં આપેલ હોવો જોઈએ. ઉમેદવાર ૂચવેલ જવાબ અને ઉ રવહ નો જવાબ ભ હશે તો ઉમેદવાર ર ૂ કરલ
વાંધા- ૂચનો યાનમા લેવાશે નહ .
(6) એક માટ એક જ વાંધા- ૂચન પ ક વાપર ું. એક જ વાંધા- ૂચનો પ કમાં એકથી વધાર ોની ર ૂઆત કરલ હશે તો
તે ગેના વાંધા- ૂચનો યાને લેવાશે નહ .
Website link for online objection submission system : http://gpsc.safevaults.in/login/

001. ytË{kLk yLku rLkfkuçkkh îeÃk Mk{qnLkwt Ërûkýík{ ®çkËw ‘EÂLËhk ÃkkuELx’ .......... W¥kh yûkktþ Ãkh ykðu÷wt Au.
(A) 7° (B) 6°45'
(C) 8° (D) 9°
002. ¼khíkLkk fÞk hkßÞku ¼khík íkÚkk BÞkLk{khLke ðå[u yktíkhhk»xÙeÞ Mke{k MkkÚku òuzkÞu÷k Au ?
(A) yYýk[÷ «Ëuþ, Lkkøkk÷uLz, rMkr¬{, r{Íkuh{
(B) yYýk[÷ «Ëuþ, Lkkøkk÷uLz, rMkr¬{, rºkÃkwhk
(C) yYýk[÷ «Ëuþ, Lkkøkk÷uLz, ykMkk{, r{Íkuh{
(D) yYýk[÷ «Ëuþ, Lkkøkk÷uLz, {rýÃkwh, r{Íkuh{
003. fwÕ÷q ¾eý{kt hkuníkktøk ½kxLke Ërûkýu ykðu÷k ÔÞkMkfwtz{ktÚke Lke[uLkk{ktÚke fE LkËe Lkef¤u Au ?
(A) rçkÞkMk (B) Mkík÷ws
(C) Íu÷{ (D) hkðe
004. ¼khíkeÞ nðk{kLk rð¿kkLk rð¼køk yLkwMkkh rLkðíkoLk-{kuLMkwLk Éíkw fÞk {rnLkk{kt nkuÞ Au ?
(A) ykuõxkuçkh yLku LkðuBçkh (B) MkÃxuBçkhÚke LkðuBçkh
(C) ykuõxkuçkhÚke {æÞ rzMkuBçkh MkwÄe (D) ykuõxkuçkhÚke òLÞwykhe MkwÄe
005. yMk{{kt “Íq{ ¾uíke” íkhefu yku¤¾ðk{kt ykðíke ¾uíkeLku fuh¤{kt fÞk Lkk{Úke yku¤¾ðk{kt ykðu Au ?
(A) ÃkkuLk{ (B) Ãkkuzw
(C) çkeðkh (D) {þkLk
006. Lke[uLkk rðÄkLkku rð[khýk{kt ÷ELku ÞkuøÞ rðfÕÃk ÃkMktË fhku.
1. Ërûký ¼khík{kt þuhzeLke ¾uíke {kxu «kf]ríkf ÃkrhÂMÚkrík W¥kh ¼khíkLke Mkh¾k{ýeyu ðÄw yLkwfq¤ Au.
2. fÃkkMk Mk{þeíkku»ý íkÚkk W»ýfrxçktÄeÞ Akuz Au.
(A) rðÄkLk (1) Mkk[wt yLku (2) ¾kuxwt Au. (B) çktLku rðÄkLkku Mkk[kt Au.
(C) çktLku rðÄkLkku ¾kuxkt Au. (D) rðÄkLk (1) ¾kuxwt yLku (2) Mkk[wt Au.
007. EÂLzÞk Mxux ykuV VkuhuMx rhÃkkuxo, 2021 yLkwMkkh Lke[uLkk hkßÞku Ãkife fÞk hkßÞ{kt, hkßÞLkk fw÷ ¼kiøkkur÷f rðMíkkhLkk
MktË¼o{kt ðLk ykåAkËLkLke MkkiÚke ðÄw xfkðkhe Au ?
(A) yYýk[÷ «Ëuþ (B) {u½k÷Þ
(C) {rýÃkwh (D) r{Íkuh{
008. ¼khíkeÞ ðLÞ Sð{tz¤ (Indian Board for Wild Life)Lke h[Lkk fÞk ð»ko{kt fhðk{kt ykðe níke ?
(A) E.Mk. 1960 (B) E.Mk. 1972
(C) E.Mk. 1952 (D) E.Mk. 1978
009. Lke[uLkk hkßÞku Ãkife fÞk hkßÞ{kt {UøkuLkeÍLkw WíÃkkËLk MkkiÚke ðÄw ÚkkÞ Au ?
(A) {nkhk»xÙ (B) {æÞ«Ëuþ
(C) ykurzþk (D) fýkoxf
010. rnLËwMíkkLk Mxe÷ r÷r{xuzLke MÚkkÃkLkk fE Ãkt[ð»keoÞ ÞkusLkk Ëhr{ÞkLk ÚkE níke ?
(A) Ãknu÷e (B) çkeS
(C) ºkeS (D) WÃkhkuõík Ãkife yuf Ãký Lknª
BEA - MASTER ] 1 P.T.O.

011. yiríknkrMkf þuhþkn Mkqhe {køkoLku hk»xÙeÞ Äkuhe{køko .......... fnu Au.
(A) 6 (B) 2
(C) 8 (D) 1
1. E.Mk. 1901 Úke 2011 MkwÄeLkk Ëhuf ËkÞfk{kt økwshkíkLkku ðMkrík ðÄkhkLkku Ëh, ¼khíkLkk ðMkrík ðÄkhkLkk fhíkk Ÿ[ku
hÌkku Au.
2. E.Mk. 1901 Úke 2011 MkwÄeLkk ËkÞfkyku Ãkife 1961-71 Lkk ËkÞfk{kt økwshkíkLkku ðMkrík ðÄkhkLkku Ëh MkkiÚke ðÄw níkku.
(A) çktLku rðÄkLkku Mkk[kt Au. (B) çktLku rðÄkLkku ¾kuxkt Au.
(C) rðÄkLk (1) Mkk[wt yLku (2) ¾kuxwt Au. (D) rðÄkLk (1) ¾kuxwt yLku (2) Mkk[wt Au.
013. «ÏÞkík r[ºkfkh {tMkqh, rçkþLkËkMk yLku {Lkkunh Lke[uLkk{ktÚke fkuLkk þkMkLkfk¤ ËhBÞkLk níkk ?
(A) þknsnkt (B) yfçkh
(C) snktøkeh (D) Ëkhkrþfkun
014. ÔÞkMk MkB{kLk, 2022 Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞk rnLËe ÷u¾fLku {¤u÷ Au ?
(A) LkMkehk þ{ko (B) zkp. yMkøkh ðòník
(C) MkwhuLÿ ð{ko (D) {{íkk fkr÷Þk
015. furLÿÞ MktMf]rík {tºkk÷Þ îkhk ð»ko 2019 {kt þY fhðk{kt ykðu÷ ‘¼khíkeÞ MktMf]rík Ãkkuxo÷’ Lke[uLkk{ktÚke fE MktMÚkk îkhk
rðfrMkík fhðk{kt ykðu÷ ?
(A) ¼khíkeÞ «kiãkurøkfe MktMÚkkLk, {ÿkMk (B) ¼khíkeÞ «kiãkurøkfe MktMÚkkLk, ¾zøkÃkwh
(C) ¼khíkeÞ «kiãkurøkfe MktMÚkkLk, økktÄeLkøkh (D) ¼khíkeÞ «kiãkurøkfe MktMÚkkLk, {wtçkE
016. “Mktøkeík MkwÄkfh” Lkk{Lke f]rík Lke[uLkk{ktÚke fkuýu íkiÞkh fhe níke ?
(A) nrhÃkk÷ Ëuð (B) hkýk fwt¼k
(C) økkuÃkk¤ LkkÞf (D) yk[kÞo MkkhtøkËuð
017. n¤kuíkhkt / n¤òuíkhkt ÷kufWíMkð økwshkíkLkk fÞk rðMíkkhLkk ¾uzqíkkuLkku ykøkðku WíMkð Au ?
(A) Ërûký økwshkíkLkk (B) W¥kh økwshkíkLkk
(C) Mkkihk»xÙLkk (D) fåALkk
018. økwshkíke MkkrníÞ Ãkrh»kËLkk {rn÷k yæÞûk íkhefu Lke[uLkk Ãkife fkuý Lke{kÞu÷ Lk níkk ?
(A) rðãkøkkihe h{ý¼kE Lke÷ftX (B) ÄeYçkuLk Ãkxu÷
(C) þkhËkçkuLk {nuíkk (D) ð»kkoçkuLk yzk÷ò
019. íktíkwðkã{kt Lke[uLkk{ktÚke fkuLkku Mk{kðuþ Úkíkku LkÚke ?
(A) hkðýnÚÚkku (B) stíkh
(C) MkwhtËku (D) ¾tshe
020. fuLÿeÞ ¼khíkeÞ ¼k»kk MktMÚkk fÞk MÚk¤u ykðu÷e Au ?
(A) {iMkqh (B) LÞq rËÕne
(C) fku÷f¥kk (D) [uLLkkE
BEA- MASTER ] 2 [Contd.

021. zkp. MkrðíkkçkuLk {nuíkk yLku økwY rçkrÃkLk®Mk½ Lk]íÞfkhku Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞk Lk]íÞ MkkÚku Mkt÷øLk níkk ?
(A) fwr[Ãkwze (B) fÚkf÷e
(C) {rýÃkwhe (D) fÚÚkf
022. “ÃkkÚkoLku fnku [zkðu çkký” f]ríkLkk h[rÞíkk Lke[uLkk Ãkife fkuý níkk ?
(A) Íðuh[tË {u½kýe (B) fLkiÞk÷k÷ {w™þe
(C) {Lkw¼kE Ãkt[ku÷e ‘Ëþof’ (D) ÃkLLkk÷k÷ Ãkxu÷
023. E÷kuhkLke økwVkyku{kt ykðu÷ fi÷kMk {trËh fÞk hksðeykuLke ¼ux Au ?
(A) hk»xÙfqx (B) ÃkÕ÷ð
(C) [ku÷ (D) WÃkhkuõík Ãkife yuf Ãký Lknª
024. ykuMfkh yuðkuzo {kxu Lke[uLkk{ktÚke fE ¼khíkeÞ rVÕ{ku Lkk{ktrfík ÚkÞu÷ níke ?
(A) {Äh RÂLzÞk (B) Mk÷k{ çkkuBçku
(C) (A) íkÚkk (B) çktLku (D) çktLku{ktÚke yuf Ãký Lknª
025. Lke[uLkk{ktÚke fE òuz Mkk[e LkÚke ?
1. ËkËk¼kE LkðhkuS – hkMíkøkkuVíkkh
2. yìLke çkuMkLx – LÞq RÂLzÞk
3. yh®ðË ½ku»k – «çkwØ ¼khík
4. Eïh[tÿ rðãkMkkøkh – Mkku{«fkþ
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 2 (D) 1
1. çkeò yUø÷ku-{iMkwh ÞwØ{kt niËhy÷eLkwt {]íÞw ÚkÞwt níkwt.
2. [kuÚkk yUø÷ku-{iMkwh ÞwØ{kt xeÃkw Mkw÷íkkLkLkwt {]íÞw ÚkÞwt níkwt.
(A) rðÄkLk (1) Mkk[wt yLku (2) ¾kuxwt Au. (B) rðÄkLk (1) ¾kuxwt yLku (2) Mkk[wt Au.
(C) çktLku rðÄkLkku ¾kuxkt Au. (D) çktLku rðÄkLkku Mkk[kt Au.
027. {hkXe Mk¥kk{kt «Úk{ Ãkuïk fkuý níkk ?
(A) çkk÷kS çkkShkð (B) çkk÷kS rðïLkkÚk
(C) çkkShkð (D) MkËkþeð hkð
028. fÞk [kxoh yuõx îkhk RMx RÂLzÞk ftÃkLkeLku MktÃkqýoÃkýu rçkúrxþ MktMkËLkk rLkÞtºký{kt {qfe Ëuðk{kt ykðe níke ?
(A) [kxoh yuõx, E.Mk. 1813 (B) [kxoh yuõx, E.Mk. 1835
(C) [kxoh yuõx, E.Mk. 1833 (D) [kxoh yuõx, E.Mk. 1836
029. rnLËe hk»xÙeÞ {nkMk¼k îkhk fÞk MÚk¤u Þkusðk{kt ykðu÷k yrÄðuþLk{kt snk÷ðkËeyku {nkMk¼kÚke y÷øk ÚkE økÞk ?
(A) rMk{÷k (B) LkkøkÃkwh
(C) fku÷f¥kk (D) Mkqhík

030. Mðíktºk ¼khík{kt «kÚkr{f rþûkýLkk rðfkMk {kxu ¼khík Mkhfkh îkhk ð»ko 1948{kt fkuLkk yæÞûkÃkýk nuX¤ yuf Mkr{ríkLke
h[Lkk fhe níke ?
(A) ©e çke. S. ¾uh (B) zkp. yu. ÷tfkMðk{e {wËr÷Þkh
(C) zkp. MkðoÃkÕ÷e hkÄkf]»ýLk (D) WÃkhkuõík Ãkife yuf Ãký Lknª
031. ¼khík{kt ykfkþðkýe yLku ËqhËþoLkLku fÞk ð»ko{kt y÷øk fhðk{kt ykÔÞk níkk ?
(A) E.Mk. 1974 (B) E.Mk. 1975
(C) E.Mk. 1976 (D) E.Mk. 1972
032. yinku÷ yr¼÷u¾ Lke[uLkk Ãkife fÞk hksðeLkku Au ?
(A) hkò ¼kus (B) Ãkw÷fuþe çkeò
(C) f®÷øk hkò ¾khðu÷ (D) hkò rðsÞMkuLk
1. ðirËf Þwøk{kt fçke÷kE «fkhLke hksÔÞðMÚkk òuðk {¤u Au yLku ‘Mk¼k’ íkÚkk ‘Mkr{rík’ suðe hksfeÞ MktMÚkkyku {wÏÞ
níke.
2. ðirËf Þwøk{kt Mk{ksLkwt MðYÃk sLkòíkeÞ yLku {kík]«ÄkLk níkwt.
(C) rðÄkLk (1) ¾kuxwt yLku (2) Mkk[wt Au. (D) rðÄkLk (1) Mkk[wt yLku (2) ¾kuxwt Au.
034. Lke[uLkk rðÄkLkku Ãkife fÞwt rðÄkLk / fÞk rðÄkLkku Mkk[wt / Mkk[kt Au ?
1. {kiÞo Mkk{úkßÞLku [kh rð¼køkku{kt ðnU[ðk{kt ykðu÷ níkwt, su{kt Ërûký ¼khíkLke hksÄkLke Mkwðýorøkrh níke.
2. {kiÞo Mkk{úkßÞ{kt f]r»k rð¼køkLku Mkeíkk fnuðk{kt ykðíkwt níkwt.
(A) 1 yLku 2 (B) {kºk 1
(C) {kºk 2 (D) çktLku{ktÚke yuf Ãký Lknª
035. E.Mk.Lke fE MkËe{kt çkkiØÄ{o neLkÞkLk yLku {nkÞkLk yuðk çku ¼køkku{kt rð¼krsík ÚkE økÞku níkku ?
(A) çkeS (B) Ãknu÷e
(C) ºkeS (D) [kuÚke
036. frð fkr÷ËkMk fÞk hksðeLkk hksËhçkkhLkk yý{ku÷ híLk níkk ?
(A) Mk{wÿøkwÃík (B) fw{khøkwÃík «Úk{
(C) [tÿøkwÃík rîíkeÞ (rð¢{krËíÞ) (D) MftËøkwÃík
037. ykÍkËe Ãknu÷kt ð[økk¤kLke Mkhfkh{kt fkuLkk yæÞûkÃkýk nuX¤ h[kÞu÷ Mkr{ríkyu fkÞ{e Äkuhýu yuf ‘ykÞkusLk Ãkt[’Lke
h[Lkk {kxu ¼÷k{ý fhe níke ?
(A) ©e yu{. rðïMkhiÞk (B) «ku. fu. xe. þkn
(C) ©e fu. Mke. rLkÞkuøke (D) WÃkhkuõík Ãkife yuf Ãký Lknª
038. ¼khíkLke yufÚke yrøkÞkh Ãkt[ð»keoÞ ÞkusLkkyku{kt rðfkMkËh ÷ûÞktfLke Mkk{u «kÃík rðfkMkËh fux÷e Ãkt[ð»keoÞ ÞkusLkkyku{kt
ykuAku {¤u÷ níkku ?
(A) [kh (B) Ãkkt[
(C) Mkkík (D) A
BEA - MASTER ] 4 [Contd.

039. Lke[uLkk{ktÚke fE òuz Mkk[e LkÚke ?
1. ËqÄ WíÃkkËLk ðÄkhðk {kxu – ïuík¢ktrík
2. íku÷erçkÞkLkwt WíÃkkËLk ðÄkhðk {kxu – Ãke¤e ¢ktrík
3. çkxkxkLkwt WíÃkkËLk ðÄkhðk {kxu – økku¤ ¢ktrík
4. hkMkkÞrýf ¾kíkhLkwt WíÃkkËLk ðÄkhðk {kxu – ÷k÷ ¢ktrík
(A) 4 (B) 3
(C) 2 (D) 1
1. ðMíkwLke ®f{ík ½xíkkt økúknfLke ¾heËþÂõík{kt (ykðf{kt) ðÄkhku ÚkkÞ Au suÚke íku ðMíkwLke {ktøk ðÄkhu Au suLku ykðf-
yMkh fnu Au.
2. ðMíkwLke ®f{ík yLku {ktøk ðå[u ÔÞMík MktçktÄ nkuÞ Au.
(C) çktLku rðÄkLkku ¾kuxkt Au. (D) çktLku rðÄkLkku Mkk[kt Au.
041. [esðMíkwyku yLku MkuðkykuLkwt WíÃkkËLk fhðk {kxu LkkýkLkk MðYÃk{kt su ¾[o fhðk{kt ykðu Au íkuLku þwt fnu Au ?
(A) ðkMíkrðf ¾[o (B) LkkýkfeÞ ¾[o
(C) WíÃkkËLk ¾[o (D) ÂMÚkh ¾[o
042. ¼khík{kt hkusøkkhe {kxuLkk «kÚkr{f ûkuºk{kt Lke[uLkk{ktÚke þkLkku Mk{kðuþ ÚkkÞ Au ?
(A) f]r»k yLku íkuLku Mkt÷øLk «ð]r¥kyku (B) ðnký Wãkuøk
(C) çku®Lføk (D) ðknLkÔÞðnkh
043. Mkhfkh ònuh ûkuºkLkk WãkuøkkuLkk fux÷k xfkÚke ykuAk þuh ¾kLkøke ûkuºkLku ðu[u íkku íkuLku LkkLkk ÃkkÞkLkwt rð{qzefhý fnuðkÞ ?
(A) 29% (B) 35%
(C) 40% (D) 51%
044. ¼khík{kt «íÞûk rðËuþe {qzehkufkýLkwt MðYÃk Lke[uLkk{ktÚke fÞwt nkuÞ Au ?
1. íku MktMÚkkøkík hkufkýLkk MðYÃk{kt nkuÞ Au.
2. íku Þtºkku, fk[ku {k÷, MktÃkr¥kLkk MðYÃk{kt nkuÞ Au.
3. íku Ëuþ{kt Lkðe xufLkku÷kuSLkk MðYÃku ykðu Au.
4. íku fkÞo MktMf]rík Q¼e fhu Au.
(A) {kºk 1 yLku 2 (B) {kºk 2 yLku 3
(C) 1, 2, 3 yLku 4 (D) {kºk 1, 2 yLku 3
045. hk»xÙeÞ ykðfLke økýíkhe {kxu Lke[uLkk{ktÚke fE ÃkØrík «[r÷ík Au ?
(A) WíÃkkËLkLke ÃkØrík (B) ykðfLke ÃkØrík
(C) ¾[oLke ÃkØrík (D) WÃkhkuõík ºkýuÞ ÃkØrík
046. ¼khík{kt íkk. 1-7-2017 Úke hkßÞ yLku fuLÿ Mkhfkh îkhk W½hkðkíkk .......... sux÷k Ãkhkuûk ðuhkLkk MÚkkLku ðMíkw yLku Mkuðk
fh (GST) W½hkððkLkwt þY ÚkÞwt Au.
(A) 15 (B) 17
(C) 20 (D) 21

047. ytËksÃkºk{kt {nuMkq÷e ykðf yLku {nuMkq÷e ¾[oLkk ytËkòu Ëþkoðíkk ¾kíkkLku þwt fnuðkÞ Au ?
(A) {nuMkq÷ ¾kíkw (B) {qze ¾kíkw
(C) {nuMkq÷e ykðf ¾kíkw (D) {qze-ykðf ¾kíkw
1. {tËeLkk Mk{Þ{kt rhÍðo çkuLf ykuV RÂLzÞk huÃkku hux Lke[ku fhu Au.
2. heðMko huÃkku hux Lke[ku nkuÞ íÞkhu LkkýktLkku ÃkqhðXku ðÄu Au.
(C) çktLku rðÄkLkku Mkk[kt Au. (D) çktLku rðÄkLkku ¾kuxkt Au.
049. ¼khíkLkk MktrðÄkLkLkk yk{w¾{kt Mkki«Úk{ MkwÄkhku fÞk ð»ko{kt fhðk{kt ykðu÷ níkku ?
(A) 1974 (B) 1975
(C) 1977 (D) 1976
050. {q¤ nfq{ík ytíkøkoík Wå[ík{ LÞkÞk÷Þ fux÷k «fkhLkk {k{÷kLke MkwLkkðýe fhu Au ?
(A) 3 (B) 4
(C) 2 (D) 5
051. fÞk MktrðÄkLkef MkwÄkhkÚke Ãkt[kÞíke hksLku MktrðÄkLkef Ëhßòu ykÃkðk{kt ykÔÞku níkku ?
(A) 72{k (B) 73{k
(C) 75{k (D) 76{k
052. ¼khíkLkk MktrðÄkLkLkk fÞk yLkwåAuË ytíkøkoík Ëhuf hkßÞ {kxu yuf hkßÞÃkk÷Lke òuøkðkE ÚkÞu÷e Au ?
(A) 153 (B) 154
(C) 155 (D) 156
053. hkßÞÃkk÷Lke rLkÞwÂõík yLku {nkyr¼Þkuøk MktçktÄ{kt Lke[uLke ¼÷k{ýku fÞk ykÞkuøk / Mkr{rík îkhk fhðk{kt ykðe Au ?
1. hkßÞ rðÄkLk{tz¤ îkhk hkßÞÃkk÷ Ãkh {nkyr¼Þkuøk [÷kððkLke òuøkðkE ¼khíkLkk MktrðÄkLk{kt Mkk{u÷ fhðe
òuEyu.
2. hkßÞÃkk÷Lke rLkÞwõíke{kt hkßÞLkk {wÏÞ{tºkeLke Mk÷kn ÷uðe òuEyu.
(A) ðneðxe MkwÄkhýk ykÞkuøk (B) LÞkÞ{qríko ðe. [u÷iÞk ykÞkuøk
(C) ÃkwtAe ykÞkuøk (D) hks{LLkkh Mkr{rík
054. hkßÞ MkuLkk yÚkðk rðãk MktçktÄe MkB{kLk «ËkLk fhe þfu Au íkuðe òuøkðkE MktrðÄkLkLkk fÞk yLkwåAuË{kt ykÃku÷e Au ?
(A) yLkwåAuË-15 (B) yLkwåAuË-16
(C) yLkwåAuË-19 (D) yLkwåAuË-18
055. økkÞku yLku ðkAhzktLke fík÷ WÃkh «ríkçktÄ {qfðk hkßÞ Ãkøk÷kt ¼hþu íkuðe òuøkðkE MktrðÄkLkLkk fÞk yLkwåAuË{kt
fhðk{kt ykðu÷e Au ?

1. ¼khíkLkk MktrðÄkLk{kt 10 {q¤¼qík Vhòu 42{k MktrðÄkrLkf MktþkuÄLk yrÄrLkÞ{, 1976 Úke W{uhðk{kt ykðu÷ Au.
2. 11{e {q¤¼qík Vhs ð»ko 2002{kt W{uhðk{kt ykðu÷ Au.
057. MktMkË îkhk Ãkkrhík rðÄuÞf hk»xÙÃkrík Mk{ûk hsq fhðk{kt ykðu íÞkhu MktrðÄkLkLkk yLkwåAuË-111 {wsçk hk»xÙÃkrík ÃkkMku
fux÷k rðfÕÃk WÃk÷çÄ nkuÞ Au ?
(A) yuf (B) ºký
(C) çku (D) Ãkkt[
058. ¼khíkLkk yuxLkeo sLkh÷ MktMkËLkk fkuEÃký øk]n{kt, øk]nkuLke fkuE MktÞwõík çkuXf{kt yLku su{kt íku{Lkwt Lkk{ MkÇÞ íkhefu nkuÞ
íkuðe MktMkËLke fkuE Mkr{rík{kt çkku÷ðkLkku yLku íkuLke fkÞoðkne{kt ¼køk ÷uðkLkku nf hnuþu, Ãkhtíkw {ík ykÃkðkLkku nf hnuþu
Lknª íkuðe òuøkðkE MktrðÄkLkLkk fÞk yLkwåAuË{kt fhðk{kt ykðe Au ?
059. 84{k MktrðÄkLk MktþkuÄLk yrÄrLkÞ{, 2000 {wsçk MkLk .......... Lke ðMíke økýíkheLkk ykÄkhu hkßÞkuLku Vk¤u ykðíke
÷kufMk¼kLke çkuXfkuLke VuhøkkuXðýe fhðkLke sYh hnuþu Lknª.
(A) 1981 (B) 1991
(C) 2001 (D) 1971
1. Lkkýk ykÞkuøkLkk MkÇÞku íkhefu Lke{kðk {kxuLke ykð~Þf ÷kÞfkíkku hk»xÙÃkrík Xhkðu íku hnuþu.
2. ykÞkuøk Ãkkuíku ÃkkuíkkLke fkÞoherík Lk¬e fhþu yLku ÃkkuíkkLkk fkÞkuo çkòððk {kxu fkÞËkÚke MktMkË ykÃku yuðe yuLku Mk¥kk
hnuþu.
061. Lke[uLke þ]t¾÷k{kt «&LkkÚko r[LnLke søÞk Ãkh fE MktÏÞk ykðþu ?
3, 15, 35, _?_ , 99
(A) 63 (B) 66
(C) 69 (D) 81
062. òu Z = 52 yLku ACT = 48 nkuÞ íkku BAT = _____ ÚkkÞ.
(A) 38 (B) 46
(C) 42 (D) 44
063. yuf rðãkÚkeoyu 180 økwý {u¤ðu÷ Au yLku 20 økwýÚke LkkÃkkMk ÚkkÞ Au. ÃkkMk Úkðk {kxu 40% økwý {u¤ððkLkk níkk. {n¥k{
økwý fux÷k níkk ?
(A) 400 (B) 600
(C) 800 (D) 500

064. Lke[uLkk{ktÚke fÞwt y÷øk Ãkzu Au ?
(A) 87 – 29 (B) 103 – 31
(C) 138 – 46 (D) 213 – 71
065. (305)2 – (304)2 Lke ®f{ík fux÷e ÚkkÞ ?
(A) 1 (B) 92720
(C) 609 (D) 409
066. LkVkLke xfkðkheLkk MktË¼o{kt Lke[uLkk{ktÚke fÞwt ©uc Au ?
{q.rf. (YrÃkÞk{kt) LkVku (YrÃkÞk{kt)
1. 56 17
2. 70 29
3. 55 26
4. 40 19
(A) 4 (B) 3
(C) 2 (D) 1
067. yuf {kýMk ‘y’ MÚk¤u Úke ‘çk’ MÚk¤ MkwÄe 6 rf÷ku{exh «rík f÷kfLke ÍzÃku [k÷u Au yLku ‘çk’ MÚk¤Úke ‘y’ MÚk¤u
4 rf÷ku{exh «rík f÷kfLke ÍzÃku ÃkkAku Vhu Au. yk¾e {wMkkVheLke Mkhuhkþ ÍzÃk «rík f÷kf fux÷k rf÷ku{exhLke ÚkkÞ
Au ?
(A) 4.5 rf.{e. / f÷kf (B) 4.8 rf.{e. / f÷kf
(C) 3.75 rf.{e. /f÷kf (D) 5.25 rf.{e. / f÷kf
068. 240 {exh yLku 210 {exh ÷ktçke çku xÙuLkku yLkw¢{u 36 rf.{e. «rík f÷kf yLku 45 rf.{e. «rík f÷kfLke ÍzÃku yufçkeòLke
Mkk{u [k÷e hne Au. íkuyku fux÷k Mk{Þ{kt yufçkeòLku Ãkkh fhþu ?
(A) 10 MkufLz (B) 16 MkufLz
(C) 18 MkufLz (D) 20 MkufLz
069. y{wf hf{ P, Q yLku R {kt yu heíku ðnU[ðk{kt ykðe Au, su{kt P Lkk ¼køk{kt Q Lkk ¼køk fhíkk çku økýk yLku Q Lkk
¼køk{kt R Lkk ¼køk fhíkkt [kh økýk ykðu Au. íkku íku{Lke ðå[uLkku ðnU[ýeLkku økwýku¥kh þwt Úkþu ?
(A) 1 : 2 : 1 (B) 2 : 4 : 1
(C) 8 : 4 : 1 (D) 1 : 2 : 4
070. A yuf fk{ 12 rËðMkku{kt ÃkwYt fhe þfu Au yLku íku s fk{ B 18 rËðMkku{kt ÃkwYt fhe þfu Au. çktLku MkkÚku {¤eLku íku fk{ fux÷k
rËðMkku{kt ÃkwYt fhþu ?
(A) 7.5 rËðMk (B) 7.2 rËðMk
(C) 7 rËðMk (D) 6.5 rËðMk
071. yuf ðMíkw Ãkh Ëþkoðu÷ ®f{ík 600 YrÃkÞk Au. Ãkhtíkw yuf hexu÷ ðuÃkkhe yk ðMíkwLku 25% ðxkð Ãkh ¾heËeLku YrÃkÞk 600{kt
ðU[e Ëu Au. íkku yu hexu÷ ðuÃkkheLku fux÷k xfk LkVku Úkþu ?
1
(A) 33 % (B) 25%
3
(C) 40% (D) 30%

072. fkuE hf{ [¢ð]ÂæÄ ÔÞksÚke 10 ðhMk{kt çku økýe ÚkE òÞ Au. yk hf{ fux÷k ð»ko{kt ykX økýe Úkþu ?
(A) 20 (B) 30
(C) 40 (D) 50
073. ¼khíkLkk Lke[uLkk WÃkøkúnku Ãkife fÞk WÃkøkún MkkurðÞuík Mkt½Lkk çkifkLkqh MÚk¤uÚke ytíkheûk{kt Akuzðk{kt ykðu÷ níkk ?
1. ykÞo¼è 2. ¼kMfh-1 3. ¼kMfh-2 4. hkurnýe
(A) {kºk 1 (B) {kºk 1 yLku 2
(C) {kºk 1, 2 yLku 3 (D) 1, 2, 3 yLku 4
074. fÃkkMk «kiãkurøkfe MktþkuÄLk MktMÚkk îkhk LkuLkkuMkuÕÞw÷kuÍ ÃkkÞ÷x Ã÷kLx fÞk MÚk¤u MÚkkrÃkík fhðk{kt ykðu÷ Au ?
(A) y{ËkðkË (B) LkkøkÃkwh
(C) {wtçkE (D) çkUøk÷wY
075. r[ºkkLkwze Ãkûke yÇÞkhÛÞLkku Lkðk hk{Mkh MÚk¤{kt Mk{kðuþ ÚkÞu÷ Au, íku õÞkt ykðu÷ Au ?
(A) íkr{÷Lkkzw (B) {æÞ«Ëuþ
(C) ykurhMMkk (D) {nkhk»xÙ
076. fÞk hkßÞLke Ãkku÷eMku AuzAkz {wõík økwLkkrník íkÃkkMk MkwrLkrùík fhðk {kxu çkkhfkuzªøk Mkku^xðuh xÙu rfÞk (Trakea)
yÃkLkkÔÞwt Au ?
(A) {nkhk»xÙ (B) nrhÞkýk
(C) W¥kh«Ëuþ (D) økwshkík
077. Lke[uLkk{ktÚke fE Äkíkw Lkh{ íkÚkk [ÃÃkkÚke fkÃke þfkÞ íkuðe nkuÞ Au ?
(A) MkkurzÞ{ (B) ÃkkuxurþÞ{
(C) MkkurzÞ{ yLku ÃkkuxurþÞ{ (D) WÃkhkuõík Ãkife yuf Ãký Lknª
078. Lke[uLkk rðÄkLkku rð[khýk{kt ÷ku.
1. Mkk{kLÞ heíku yÄkíkwyku yurMkz MkkÚku «r¢Þk ykÃku Au.
2. çkÄe s yÄkíkwykuLku ¾U[e þfkÞ Au.
3. fux÷ef yÄkíkwykuLku ¾U[e þfkÞ Au.
4. Mkk{kLÞ heíku ÄkíkwykuLku ¾U[e þfkÞ Au.
WÃkhkuõík Ãkife fÞwt rðÄkLk Mkk[wt Au ?
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
1. økwYíð çk¤Lku fkhýu s LkËeyku{kt Ãkkýe Lke[u íkhV ðnu Au.
2. fw÷eykuLku ßÞkhu ¼khu çkkus WÃkkzðkLkku nkuÞ Au, íÞkhu íkuyku ÃkkuíkkLkk {kÚkk Ãkh yuf fÃkzkLku økku ¤ ðªxk¤eLku hk¾u Au
fkhý fu yk{ fhðkÚke íkuyku ÃkkuíkkLkk {kÚkk MkkÚku çkkusLkk MktÃkfo ûkuºkV¤Lku ðÄkhe Ëu Au, Ãkrhýk{u {kÚkk Ãkh ÷køkíkwt
Ëçkký ½xe òÞ Au yLku íkuyku íku çkkusLku Mkh¤íkkÚke WÃkkze þfu Au.
(A) çktLku rðÄkLkku ¾kuxkt Au. (B) çktLku rðÄkLkku Mkk[kt Au.

080. Lke[uLkk{ktÚke fÞwt rðÄkLk / fÞk rðÄkLkku Mkk[wt / Mkk[kt Au ?
1. æðrLk þqLÞkðfkþ{kt «Mkhe þfíkku LkÚke.
2. ftÃkLkLke ykð]r¥k ðÄkhu nkuÞ íkku yðks íkeýku nkuÞ Au.
3. 20 ftÃkLk «rík MkufLz (20 Hz) fhíkkt ykuAe ykð]r¥kðk¤k æðrLk {Lkw»ÞLkk fkLk ðzu Ãkkh¾e þfkíkk LkÚke.
(A) {kºk 1 (B) {kºk 1 yLku 2
(C) {kºk 2 yLku 3 (D) 1, 2 yLku 3
081. õ÷kuhku^÷kuhku fkçkoLMk Lke[uLkk{ktÚke þk{kt ðÃkhkÞ Au ?
1. hur£shuxh 2. yuhfÂLzþLkh 3. yuhkuMkku÷ M«u
(A) {kºk 1 (B) {kºk 2
(C) 1, 2 yLku 3 (D) {kºk 1 yLku 2
082. MkqÞo{tz¤Lkk çkÄk s økúnku{kt fÞku økún MkkiÚke ykuAe ½Lkíkk Ähkðu Au ?
(A) þrLk (B) çkwÄ
(C) þw¢ (D) {tøk¤
083. “øktøkk yuõþLk Ã÷kLk” fÞk ð»ko{kt þY fhðk{kt ykÔÞku níkku ?
(A) 1990 (B) 1991
(C) 1985 (D) 2000
084. Lke[uLkk{ktÚke fÞk Ãkûkeyku Wze þfíkk LkÚke ?
1. þkn{]øk 2. yu{q 3. ÃkUÂøðLk
(A) {kºk 1 yLku 2 (B) {kºk 1 yLku 3
(C) {kºk 2 yLku 3 (D) 1, 2 yLku 3
085. ð»ko 2021{kt ‘MkVuË zwtøk¤e’Lku ¼kiøkkur÷f Mktfuíkf (GI) xuøk {¤u÷ Au, íku fÞk hkßÞLke ÃkuËkþ Au ?
(A) hksMÚkkLk (B) {nkhk»xÙ
(C) {æÞ«Ëuþ (D) økwshkík
086. FASTER R÷uõxÙkurLkf «ýk÷e fkuLkk îkhk þY fhðk{kt ykðu÷ Au ?
(A) økwshkík ðze yËk÷ík (B) øk]n rð¼køk, økwshkík Mkhfkh
(C) ðkrýßÞ {tºkk÷Þ, ¼khík Mkhfkh (D) Mkðkuoå[ LÞkÞk÷Þ
087. “hkýe økirzLkr÷Þw ykrËðkMke Mðíktºkíkk MkuLkkLke Mktøkúnk÷Þ”Lkku rþ÷kLÞkMk fÞk hkßÞ{kt fhðk{kt ykðu÷ Au ?
(A) rMkr¬{ (B) rºkÃkwhk
(C) {rýÃkwh (D) r{Íkuh{
088. çkkðLk{k ¼khíkeÞ yktíkhhk»xÙeÞ rVÕ{ {nkuíMkð{kt ð»ko 2021 {kxu ‘RÂLzÞLk ÃkMkoLkkr÷xe ykuV Äe RÞh’ ÃkwhMfkhÚke
fkuLku MkL{krLkík fhðk{kt ykðu÷ Au ?
(A) rsíkuLÿ ¼efw÷k÷ òuþe (B) nu{k {kr÷Lke
(C) «MkqLk òuþe (D) (B) íkÚkk (C) çktLkuLku
089. Lke[uLkk{ktÚke fÞk çku Mktøkeíkfkhkuu økúu{e yuðkuzo, 2022 Síku÷ Au ?
(A) yLkw~fk þtfh yLku hefe fus (B) VkÕøkwLke þkn yLku hefe fus
(C) yLkw~fk þtfh yLku r«ÞËþeoLke (D) yLkw~fk þtfh yLku Lke÷k ðkMkðkýe

090. ¼khíkLkwt Ãknu÷wt fuLÿef]ík ðkíkkLkwfqr÷ík hu÷ðu x{eoLk÷ õÞkt çkLkkððk{kt ykðu÷ Au ?
(A) LkkøkÃkwh (B) çkiÞÃÃkLknÕ÷e (çkUøk÷wY)
(C) ÃkqLkk (D) ¼kuÃkk÷
091. Mxux yuLkSo yuVe~ÞLMke ELzuûk, 2020 {kt «Úk{ ¢{ktfu fÞk hkßÞLkku Mk{kðuþ ÚkÞu÷ Au ?
(A) hksMÚkkLk (B) fuh¤
(C) fýkoxf (D) nrhÞkýk
092. ËwrLkÞkLke Ãknu÷e zÙkEðhhrník MðÞtMkt[kr÷ík xÙuLkLke þYykík fÞk Ëuþ{kt ÚkE Au ?
(A) òÃkkLk (B) s{oLke
(C) [eLk (D) £kLMk
093. ¼úük[kh Äkhýk Mkq[fktf, 2020 Lkk ynuðk÷{kt fw÷ 180 Ëuþ{ktÚke ¼khíkLkku fÞk MÚkkLk Ãkh Mk{kðuþ ÚkÞu÷ Au ?
(A) 80 (B) 75
(C) 79 (D) 86
094. ¼khíkeÞ [qtxýe Ãkt[ îkhk Lke[uLkk{ktÚke fE yuÃk þY fhðk{kt ykðu÷ Au ?
(A) «wV (B) ÂÔnMk÷ ç÷kuyh
(C) økYz (D) «økrík
095. hk»xÙeÞ Ãkrhðkh MðkMÚÞ Mkðuoûký-5 yLkwMkkh fÞk hkßÞ{kt yrðfrMkík çkk¤fkuLke xfkðkhe MkkiÚke ðÄw Au ?
(A) {u½k÷Þ (B) rçknkh
(C) ykurhMMkk (D) r{Íkuh{
096. MktÞwõík hk»xÙ ¾kã yLku f]r»k MktøkX™ íkÚkk ykçkoh zu VkWLzuþLk îkhk ð»ko 2021 {kt ¼khíkLkk fÞk þnuhLku “2021 xÙe rMkxe
ykuV Ä ðÕzo” íkhefu {kLÞíkk ykÃkðk{kt ykðu÷ Au ?
(A) {wtçkE (B) niËhkçkkË
(C) {wtçkE yLku niËhkçkkË (D) økktÄeLkøkh
097. ð»ko 2021{kt ¼khíkeÞ MkuLkkLku “nuhkuLk” zÙkuLk fÞk Ëuþ ÃkkMkuÚke WÃk÷çÄ ÚkÞu÷ níktwt ?
(A) £kLMk (B) RÍhkÞ÷
(C) y{urhfk (D) s{oLk
098. ykuM÷ku (Lkkuðuo){kt ykuõxkuçkh, 2022 {kt ÞkuòÞu÷ rðï [uÂBÃkÞLkrþÃk, 2021 {kt ¼khíkLku fw÷ fux÷k [Lÿfku {¤u÷ Au ?
(A) yuf Ãký Lknª (B) 3
(C) 1 (D) 2
099. MkwLke÷ AuºkeLku {ush æÞkLk[tË ¾u÷ híLk ÃkwhMfkh, 2021 Úke MkL{krLkík fhðk{kt ykðu÷ Au, íkuyku fE h{ík MkkÚku Mkt÷øLk
Au ?
(A) Vwxçkku÷ (B) yuÚ÷urxõMk
(C) fw~íke (D) nkufe
100. xkxk r÷xhu[h ÷kEð/÷kEVxkE{ yu[eð{uLx yuðkuzo, 2022 Úke fkuLku MkB{krLkík fhðk{kt ykðu÷ Au ?
(A) yrLkíkk ËuMkkE (B) {nuþ yu÷fwt[ðh
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101. Which of the following is the source of the Indian Constitution from whom the Constitution
derives its ultimate sanction?
(A) The Citizens of India (B) The People of India
(C) The Parliament of India (D) The Supreme Court of India
102. Which of the following words mentioned in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution was referred
as union of trinity by Dr. Ambedkar?
(A) Sovereign, Democratic, and Republic (B) Sovereign, Socialist, and Republic
(C) Justice, Liberty, and Equality (D) Liberty, Equality and Fraternity
103. The word ‘Secular’ was added in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution by the
(A) 42nd Constitutional Amendment (B) 43rd Constitutional Amendment
(C) 72nd Constitutional Amendment (D) 73rd Constitutional Amendment
104. In which of the following case it was held that the Preamble did not form part of the Indian
Constitution?
(A) Kesavananda Bharti Case (B) Re Berubari Union Case
(C) Shankari Prasad Case (D) Minerva Mills Case
105. Which of the following part of the Indian Constitution describes India as a Secular State?
(A) Preamble (B) Fundamental Rights
(C) Directive Principles of State Policy (D) 9th Schedule
106. Which of the following is the correct order of the words as mentioned in the Preamble of the
Constitution of India?
(A) Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic
(B) Sovereign Secular Socialist Democratic Republic
(C) Secular Sovereign Socialist Democratic Republic
(D) Secular Socialist Sovereign Democratic Republic
107. How many times the Preamble of the Constitution has been amended?
(A) One (B) Two
(C) Three (D) Four
108. How many types of liberty are mentioned in the Preamble of the Constitution of India?
(A) 2 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 5
109. Which of the following is not an ‘authority’ within the meaning of Article 12 of the Constitution
of India?
(A) The Indian Council of Agricultural Research
(B) The Institute of Constitutional and Parliamentary Studies
(C) The Council for the Indian School Certificate Examination
(D) None of the above
110. Which of the following provision of the Constitution of India relates to Doctrine of Eclipse?
(A) Article 12 (B) Article 13
(C) Article 246 (D) Article 368
111. The ‘audi alteram partem’ was held as part of which of the following provision of the Indian
Constitution?

112. In which of the following provision of the Constitution, the expression ‘a place of public resort’
comes?
(A) Article 15 (1) (B) Article 15 (2)
(C) Article 15 (3) (D) Article 15 (4)
113. Which of the following case is popularly known as ‘the Mandal Commission case’?
(A) ABSK Sangh (Rly.) v Union of India (B) T Devadasan v Union of India
(C) Indra Sawhney v Union of India (D) M Nagaraj v Union of India
114. Which of the following provision of the Constitution deals with the National Commission for
Backward Classes for investigating the conditions and difficulties of the socially and educationally
backward classes?
(C) Article 338A (D) Article 338B
115. How many freedoms is guaranteed to the citizens in Article 19 of the Indian Constitution?
(A) 5 (B) 6
(C) 7 (D) 8
116. Which of the following provision of the Constitution of India may be connected with the maxim
‘nemo debet bis vexari’?
117. In which of the following case it was held that right to life protected under Article 21 did not
include right to die?
(A) Mr. X v Hospital Z (B) P Rathinam v Union of India
(C) Gian Kaur v State of Punjab (D) MX of Bombay v M/S ZY
118. Which provision of the Constitution obligates the State to secure a legal system which promotes
justice on the basis of equal opportunity?
(A) Article 39 (B) Article 39A
119. Which of the following provision of the Indian Constitution requires the State to make provision
for maternity relief?
120. Which of the following provision of the Indian Constitution obligates the State to endeavor to
protect and improve the environment and to safeguard the forests and wildlife of the country?
(C) Article 48A (D) Article 51A(g)
121. In which of the following case the Supreme Court of India propounded the ‘public trust doctrine’?
(A) MC Mehta v Union of India
(B) MC Mehta v Kamal Nath
(C) Vellore Citizens Forum v Union of India
(D) Indian Handicrafts Emporium v Union of India

122. Which of the following is not a fundamental duty as per the Indian Constitution?
(A) To defend the country
(B) To develop the scientific temper
(C) To promote the religious practices
(D) To renounce practices derogatory of to the dignity of women
123. In which of the following year Article 51A (k) was introduced as a fundamental duty?
(A) 2000 (B) 2001
(C) 2002 (D) 2003
124. What is the minimum number of members in a State Legislative Council?
(A) 20 (B) 30
(C) 40 (D) 50
125. Which of the following is incorrect in relation to a Bill pending in the State legislature when the
Assembly is dissolved.
(A) A Bill pending in the Legislative Council, which has not been passed by the Legislative
Assembly, will lapse.
(B) A Bill passed by the Legislative Council and pending in the Assembly will lapse.
(C) A Bill passed by the Legislative Assembly, when there is only one house and pending assent
of the Governor will not lapse.
(D) None of the above.
126. In which of the following Schedule of the Indian Constitution Union, State and Concurrent list
is mentioned?
(A) 6th Schedule (B) 7th Schedule
(C) 8th Schedule (D) 9th Schedule
127. Which of the following is not a subject matter of the State List as per the Indian Constitution?
(A) Law and order (B) Extension of jurisdiction of the High Court
(C) Public health and sanitation (D) Prevention of cattle trespass
128. Residuary powers of Legislation are vested in the
(A) Parliament
(B) State Legislature
(C) President
(D) Council of Ministers headed by Prime Minister
129. Which of the following provision of the Indian Constitution makes it possible for two or more
States to delegate their legislative power to Parliament with respect to matter mentioned in the
State list.
130. For applying the principle of ‘pith and substance’ regard has not to be given to –
i. The Enactment as a whole
ii. The main objects of the enactment
iii. Scope and effects of the provision of the enactment
(A) i, ii, & iii (B) i & ii
(C) ii & iii (D) None of the above

131. How many times Article 352 of the Indian Constitution has been invoked so far?
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
132. What is the maximum period for which a proclamation under Article 356 can remain in force in
a State?
(A) Six months (B) 1 Year
(C) 2 Years (D) 3 Years
133. Which of the following writ may be issued against a private person?
(A) Quo Warranto (B) Mandamus
(C) Habeas Corpus (D) None of the above
134. Which of the following writ may be issued to quash the appointment of government pleader
made without following the prescribed procedure?
(A) Quo Warranto (B) Mandamus
(C) Certiorari (D) Prohibition
135. Which of the following is incorrect with respect to the writ of mandamus?
(A) It cannot be issued if the right is purely of private character.
(B) It can be issued when government denies to itself a legally existing jurisdiction.
(C) Mandamus is a discretionary remedy.
(D) None of the above.
136. Identify the correct option.
The writ of certiorari or prohibition may be issued on the following grounds:
i. When the body concerned proceeds to act without jurisdiction;
ii. It proceeds to act in violation of principle of natural justice;
iii. The finding of fact reached by the inferior tribunal is based on no evidence.
(A) i, ii & iii (B) i & ii
(C) ii & iii (D) None of the above
137. Which of the following case is considered as the precursor of public interest litigation in India?
(A) D S Nakara v Union of India (B) S P Gupta v Union of India
(C) Lallubhai Jogibhai v Union of India (D) Sukhdev v Bhagat Ram
138. Which of the following is correct with respect to the High Court in relation to writ petition?
(A) It can issue writs (B) It can issue directions
(C) It can pass orders (D) All of the above
139. Which of the following provision of the Indian Constitution provides for the advisory jurisdiction
of the Supreme Court?
140. Which of the following is correct with respect to a ‘court of record’?
i. Power to determine its own jurisdiction
ii. Power to punish for its contempt
(A) i (B) ii
(C) i & ii (D) Neither i nor ii

141. Which of the following jurisdiction is used by the Supreme Court to decide a dispute between
two or more States?
(A) Advisory Jurisdiction (B) Supervisory Jurisdiction
(C) Original Jurisdiction (D) Appellate Jurisdiction
142. As per Article 217 of the Indian Constitution, the President appoints the judge after consulting
the:
i. The Chief Justice of India
ii. The State Governor
iii. The Chief Justice of the High Court
(A) i, ii & iii (B) i & ii
(C) ii & iii (D) i & iii
143. In which of the following forum, a person who has held office as a permanent Judge of a High
Court is allowed to plead after his retirement?
(A) The Supreme Court (B) The Supreme Court & The High Court
(C) The High Court (D) None of the above
144. Under which of the following provision, the Supreme Court can take suo motu cognizance of the
contempt of a High Court?
145. By which of the following amendment the words ‘unity of the nation’ is replaced by ‘unity and
integrity of the nation’ in the Preamble of the Constitution?
(A) 40th Amendment (B) 41st Amendment
(C) 42nd Amendment (D) 44th Amendment
146. Part IXA was added to the Constitution of India by which of the following amendment?
(A) 71st Amendment (B) 72nd Amendment
(C) 73rd Amendment (D) 74th Amendment
147. In which year Article 21A was added in the Indian Constitution?
(A) 2000 (B) 2001
(C) 2002 (D) 2004
148. Part IXB of the Indian Constitution deals with
(A) The Union Territories (B) The Panchayats
(C) The Municipalities (D) The Co-operative Societies
149. Which of the following is not a qualification for Presidential Candidate as per the Constitution
of India?
(A) Must be a citizen of India
(B) Must be at least of 35 years of age
(C) Must be qualified to be elected as a member of the Lok Sabha
150. Which of the following provision of the Indian Constitution says that Vice-President is the ex-
officio chairman of the Rajya Sabha?

151. Article 72 empowers the President to grant pardon in the following cases?
(A) Where the sentence is by a Court Martial
(B) Where the sentence is for an offence against a law relating to a matter to which Union’s
executive power extends
(C) Where sentence is death penalty
(D) All of the above
152. Which of the following is not an executive function of the President?
(A) Function performed under Article 76 (B) Function performed under Article 123
(C) Function performed under Article 148 (D) Function performed under Article 155
153. Which provision of the Indian Constitution prescribes the procedure to amend the Constitution?
154. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with Tribunals?
(A) Part XIV-A (B) Part XV
(C) Part XVI (D) Part XVII
155. Which of the following Article deals with ‘Abolition of Untouchability’?
156. Which provision of the Indian Constitution provides that the superintendence, direction and
control of elections to Parliament and to the Legislature of every State and of elections to the
offices of President and Vice-President shall be vested in the Election Commission?
157. Who defined law in the following words:
“Law is the aggregate of rules set by men as politically superior, or sovereign, to men as politically
subject”?
(A) Austin (B) Kelsen
(C) Hart (D) Savigny
158. Who said, ‘law may be defined as the body of principles recognized and applied by the State in
the administration of justice’?
(A) Salmond (B) Paton
(C) Pound (D) Bentham
159. Who is considered as the founder of positivism in the modern sense of the term?
(A) Austin (B) Bentham
(C) Salmond (D) Maine
160. Which of the following law does not find its place in Austin’s theory of law?
i. Customs
ii. Judge-made laws
iii. International Law
(A) i & ii (B) ii & iii
(C) i & iii (D) i, ii & iii

161. Who laid the basis of natural law?
(A) Heraclitus (B) Socrates
(C) Plato (D) Aristotle
162. ‘Pacta Sunt Servanda’ relates to which of the following?
(A) Analytical Legal Positivism (B) Pure Theory of Law
(C) Historical School of Law (D) Principles of Natural Law
163. Who among the following was the first to recognize and take account of the influence of social
conditions on legal process?
(A) Durkhein (B) Ehrlich
(C) Montesquieu (D) Duguit
164. Who among the following is not related to ‘Sociological School of Law’?
(A) Gierke (B) Hauriou
(C) Max Weber (D) Savigny
165. ‘Penalty keeps people under control, penalty protects them, penalty remains awake when people
are asleep, and so the wise have regarded punishment as a source of righteousness.’
The punishment mentioned in the statement relates to which of the following theory of
punishment?
(A) Retributive theory of punishment (B) Deterrent theory of punishment
(C) Reformative theory of punishment (D) Preventive theory of punishment
166. Cancellation of driving licence is an example of which type of theory of punishment?
(A) Retributive theory of punishment (B) Deterrent theory of punishment
(C) Reformative theory of punishment (D) Preventive theory of punishment
167. Which of the following is co-relative?
i. Rights and Duties
ii. Immunity and Disability
(A) i (B) ii
(C) Neither i nor ii (D) Both i & ii
168. Which of the following type of right a beneficiary have in trust property?
(A) Proprietary right (B) Legal right
(C) Equitable right (D) None of the above
169. Administrative law deals with the following aspects:
(A) Composition and power of administrative authorities
(B) Fixing the limit of power of administrative authorities
(C) Controlling administrative authorities through judicial means
170. The first principle of natural justice consists of rule against bias. Which of the following is not a
type of bias?
(A) Pecuniary bias (B) Personal bias
(C) Judicial obstinacy (D) None of the above.
171. Which of the following is not considered as part and parcel of the doctrine of the doctrine of
natural justice?
(A) Notice (B) Hearing
(C) Cross-examination (D) None of the above

172. Which of the following is not the ground of substantive ultra vires?
(A) Where delegated legislation excludes judicial review
(B) Where delegated legislation operates retrospectively
(C) Where parent act does not delegate essential legislative functions
(D) Where delegated legislation is arbitrary
173. Which of the following provision of the Indian Constitution empowers the High Court for judicial
review of administrative action?
174. Which of the following is not a ground for the issue of writ of certiorari?
(A) Absence or excess of jurisdiction (B) Error apparent on the face of record
(C) Violation of natural justice (D) None of the above
175. What is the maximum number of members prescribed for Lokpal as per the Lokpal and
Lokayuktas Act, 2013?
(A) 5 (B) 6
(C) 7 (D) 8
176. Who is the Chairperson of the selection committee mentioned under Section 4 of the Lokpal and
Lokayuktas Act, 2013?
(A) President of India (B) Prime Minister
(C) Chief Justice of India (D) None of the above
177. Who among the following is currently acting as the Chairperson of the Lokpal?
(A) Justice Abhilasha Kumari (B) Shri Dinesh Kumar Jain
(C) Smt Archana Ramasundaram (D) Justice Pradip Kumar Mohanty
178. Within how many days from the date of filing the complaint electronically, hard copy of the
same need to be submitted to Lokpal?
(A) 7 days (B) 10 days
(C) 15 days (D) 30 days
179. Which of the following term means ‘seller beware’?
(A) Caveat (B) Caveat emptor
(C) Caveat actor (D) Caveat venditor
180. What is the meaning of ‘facta probanda’?
i. Facts required to be proved
ii. Facts by means of which the material facts required to be proved
iii. Material facts
181. What is the meaning of the legal maxim, ‘Actus Curiae Neminem Gravabit’?
(A) A personal action dies with the person
(B) The burden of proof lies on the plaintiff
(C) An Act of the Court shall prejudice no man
(D) Law holds no man responsible for the Act of God.

182. What is meant by Pari delicto?
(A) In equal fault (B) In equal loss
(C) In equal gain (D) In equal claim
183. What is the meaning of the maxim ‘Nemo Debet Esse Judex in Propria Sua Causa’?
(A) No one ought to judge in his own case
(B) A man shall not be vexed twice for same offence
(C) No one can be punished twice for the same crime
(D) No one should be punished for the crime of another
184. Which of the following provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 prescribes the fundamental
rule of pleadings?
(A) Order 6 Rule 1 (B) Order 6 Rule 2(1)
(C) Order 6 Rule 2(2) (D) Order 6 Rule 2(2)
185. Who among the following had introduced the Public Interest Litigation in India?
(A) Justice M Hidayatullah (B) Justice P N Bhagwati
(C) Justice V Ramaswami (D) Justice G T Nanavati
186. Under which of the following provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 appeal against an
ex-parte decree may be filed?
(A) Section 96 (1) (B) Section 96 (2)
(C) Section 96 (3) (D) Section 96 (4)
187. Which of the following provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 prescribes for revision?
(A) Section 112 (B) Section 113
(C) Section 114 (D) Section 115
188. Who is the present Lokayukta of the State of Gujarat?
(A) Justice RH Shukla (B) Justice DP Buch
(C) Justice IC bhatt (D) Justice DH Shukla
189. Who appoints the presiding officers of the Courts of Judicial Magistrate as per Section 11 of the
Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
(A) Governor of the State (B) Chief Justice of the High Court
(C) Chief Minister of the State (D) High Court
190. Which of the following sentence can be passed by the Court of a Magistrate of the first class?
(A) A sentence of imprisonment not exceeding one year
(B) A sentence of imprisonment not exceeding three years
(C) A sentence of imprisonment not exceeding five years
(D) A sentence of imprisonment not exceeding seven years
191. Under which of the following provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 ‘non-cognizable
offence’ is defined?
(A) Section 2(c) (B) Section 2(h)
(C) Section 2(l) (D) Section 2(n)

192. Which of the following is incorrect in relation to preparation of memorandum of arrest of a
person as per the Code of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973?
(A) Shall be attested by at least one member from the family
(B) Shall be attested by at least one respectable member of the locality
(C) Shall be countersigned by the person arrested
193. Which of the following provision provides for the examination of an arrested person by the
medical officer as per the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
194. Which of the following provision makes it mandatory to produce the arrested person before the
Magistrate within twenty-four hours of his arrest?
195. Under which of the following circumstance a warrant can be issued in lieu of or in addition to a
summons as per the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
(A) If the offence is non-bailable offence
(B) The person summoned has failed to appear
(C) The Court believes that the person summoned has absconded
(D) The time fixed for the appearing of person summoned has passed
196. What is the maximum period for which an order passed under Section 144 of the Code of Criminal
Procedure, 1973 may remain in force without having government notification for its extension?
(A) 1 Month (B) 2 Months
(C) 3 Months (D) 6 Months
197. Which of the following is incorrect with respect to recording of confession in front of the
Magistrate as per the Code of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973?
(A) Any Judicial Magistrate can record the confession whether or not he has jurisdiction in the
case
(B) Confession may also be recorded by audio-video electronic means
(C) At any time before the confession is recorded, if he is not willing to make the confession, the
Magistrate may authorise his detention in police custody
198. Which of the following provision of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 provides for the
medical examination of the victim of rape?
(A) Section 164 (B) Section 164A
(C) Section 166 (D) Section 166A
199. A is accused of the murder of B. Which of the following fact may be in issue at his trial?
(A) That A caused B’s death.
(B) That A intended to cause B’s death.
(C) That A has received grave and sudden provocation from B.

200. Which of the following provision of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 states that no confession
made to a police-officer, shall be proved as against a person accused of any offence.
201. Which of the following provision of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 says that dying declaration is
admissible as evidence?
202. In which of the following circumstances facts admitted need not required to be proved as per the
Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
(A) Facts admitted at hearing by the parties
(B) Facts admitted at hearing by the agent of the parties
(C) Facts admitted by parties in writing before the hearing
203. Which of the following is not secondary evidence as per the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
(A) Copies made from the original by mechanical process
(B) Certified copies given under the provision of the Act
(C) A copy transcribed from a copy but not compared with original
(D) Counterparts of documents as against the parties who did not execute them
204. An entry in any public or other official books is admissible provided it satisfies the following
conditions:
(A) An entry must be contained in public or official records
(B) It must be made by a public servant in discharging of his official duties
(C) It must be an entry stating a fact in issue or a relevant fact
205. Which of the following provision of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with estoppel?
206. Which of the following is correct with respect to leading question as per the Indian Evidence
Act, 1872:
i. Leading question must not be asked in an examination-in-chief
ii. Leading question must not be asked in a re-examination
iii. Leading question may be asked in cross-examination

207. Which of the following is the right way for impeaching the credit of the witness as per the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872?
i. By the evidence of persons who testify that they, from their knowledge of the witness, believe
him to be unworthy of credit
ii. By proof that the witness has been bribed, or has accepted the offer of a bribe, or has
received any other corrupt inducement to give his evidence;
iii. By proof of former statements inconsistent with any part of his evidence which is liable to be
contradicted;
208. Which of the following provision provides for intra-territorial jurisdiction under the Indian
Penal Code, 1860?
209. How many types of punishment are currently available under the Indian Penal Code, 1860?
(A) Three (B) Four
(C) Five (D) Six
210. In executing a sentence of solitary confinement, what is the maximum duration for which such
confinement shall be given at a time as per the Indian Penal Code, 1860?
(A) Seven days (B) Fourteen Days
(C) Twenty-one days (D) Thirty days
211. Nothing is an offence which is done by the child of following age group as per the Indian Penal
Code, 1860?
(A) Under seven years (B) Under five years
(C) Under three years (D) All of the above
212. Which of the following provision impose restriction on the right of private defence as per the
Indian Penal Code, 1860?
213. Which of the following provision of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 makes perjury an offence?
214. What punishment is prescribed under the Indian Penal Code, 1860 for criminal conspiracy to
commit an offence punishable with imprisonment for a term less than two years?
(A) Imprisonment for a period not exceeding three months
(B) Imprisonment for a period not exceeding six months
(C) Imprisonment for a period not exceeding twelve months
215. Punishment for unlawful assembly is prescribed under which of the following provisions of the
Indian Penal Code, 1860?

216. ‘A knows Z to be behind a bush. B does not know it. A, intending to cause, or knowing it to be
likely to cause Z’s death, induces B to fire at the bush. B fires and kills Z.’
Which of the following statement is correct as per the Indian Penal Code, 1860:
i. A has committed the offence of culpable homicide
ii. A has committed the offence of murder
iii. B has not committed any offence
(C) i & iii (D) i, ii, & iii
217. Within how many years of the marriage, the death of a women, otherwise than in normal
circumstances, may be prima facie constitute an offence under section 304B of the Indian Penal
Code, 1860?
(A) 5 years (B) 7 years
(C) 9 years (D) 10 years
218. Which of the following is not a decree as per the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
(A) Rejection of plaint for non-payment of court fees
(B) Return of plaint for presentation to proper court
(C) Dismissal of appeal as time barred
(D) Order of abatement of suit
219. Which of the following provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 mandates the applicability
of res judicata in representative suits?
(A) Section 11, Explanation IV (B) Section 11, Explanation V
(C) Section 11, Explanation VI (D) Section 11, Explanation VIII
220. What period is prescribed under Order 7 Rule 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 to pay the
requisite fees for service of summons on defendants?
221. Section 89 of the Code of Civil Procedure is inserted through which of the following amendment
act?
(A) The Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) Act, 1976
(B) The Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) Act, 1999
(C) The Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2002
222. Which of the following interest rate may possibly be granted in a suitable suit by the court as per
section 34 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
i. 2 %
ii. 4 %
iii. 6 %
223. Under which of the following provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 court can issue
precept?
(A) Section 36 (B) Section 44-A
(C) Section 46 (D) Section 99-A

224. Which of the following provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 empowers the Court to
grant a temporary injunction?
(A) Section 94 (a) (B) Section 94 (b)
(C) Section 94 (c) (D) Section 94 (d)
225. Which of the following is not within the competence of the appellate court as per the Code of
Civil Procedure, 1908?
(A) An appellate court shall have power to remand a case
(B) An appellate court shall have power to frame issue
(C) An appellate court shall have power to conduct a fresh trial
(D) An appellate court shall have power to take additional evidence
226. Within how many days, after summons returned unserved, plaintiff have to apply for fresh
summons to avoid dismissal of suit as per the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908?
(A) Seven days (B) Ten days
(C) Fourteen days (D) Fifteen days
227. Which of the following order of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 provides the rule for summary
procedure?
(A) Order 32 (B) Order 34
(C) Order 36 (D) Order 37
228. Who among the following is not a law officer as per the Law Officers Rules, 2009?
i. Advocate General
ii. Public Prosecutor
iii. Special Counsel
(C) iii (D) None of the above
229. As per the Law Officers Rule, 2009, a Law Officer shall hold office for a term of
(A) 1 year (B) 2 years
(C) 3 years (D) 5 years
230. ‘Government Pleader’ is defined under which of the following rule of the Law Officers Rule,
2009?
(A) Rule 2(d) (B) Rule 2(f)
(C) Rule 2(h) (D) Rule 2(j)
231. Which of the following is not a required qualification for a person to be appointed as Additional
Public Prosecutor in District Courts as per the Law Officers Rule, 2009?
(A) Seven years standing as an advocate in District Courts of Gujarat
(B) Not more than 60 years of age
(C) Income tax assessee for a period of at least three years prior to his appointment
232. Which of the following High Courts had not been established by the Letters Patent?
(A) High Court at Bombay (B) High Court at Calcutta
(C) High Court at Madras (D) High Court at Allahabad

233. Which of the following clause states that the Letters Patent Appeal is not applicable against the
order of single judge passed under revisional or supervisory powers?
(A) Clause 10 (B) Clause 12
(C) Clause 13 (D) Clause 15
234. What is the limitation period for filing letters patent appeal in the High Court of Gujarat?
235. Which of the following clause states that no letters patents appeal will lie against the order
passed by the single judge in the exercise of criminal jurisdiction.
(A) Clause 5 (B) Clause 10
(C) Clause 12 (D) Clause 15
236. Who among the following is not protected under the term ‘legal disability’ as per the Limitation
Act, 1963?
(A) Minor (B) Insane
(C) Indigent (D) Idiot
237. In relation to computation of period of limitation which of the following exclusion is not valid as
per the Limitation Act, 1963?
(A) The day from which limitation period reckoned should be excluded
(B) Time requisite for obtaining a copy of the decree should be excluded
(C) Time requisite for obtaining a copy of the award should be excluded
238. In which of the following case benefit of Section 5 of the Limitation Act, 1963 is not available?
(A) Application made under Order 9 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
(B) Application made under Order 21 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
(C) Application made under Order 23 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
(D) Application made under Order 25 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
239. What is the period of limitation prescribed in the Limitation Act, 1963 for recovery of arrears of
rent?
(A) One year from the date of arrears becoming due
(B) Two years from the date of arrears becoming due
(C) Three years from the date of arrears becoming due
(D) Five years from the date of arrears becoming due
240. What is the period of limitation prescribed in the Limitation Act, 1963 to institute a suit by a
mortgager to recover possession of immovable property mortgage?
(A) Three years (B) Ten years
(C) Twenty years (D) Thirty years
241. Which Article of the Limitation Act, 1963 provides for the limitation period for making an
appeal to High Courts against a decree passed by civil court?
242. Which of the following provision of the Apprentices Act, 1961 defines the term ‘apprentice’?
(A) Section 2 (a) (B) Section 2 (aa)
(C) Section 2 (aaa) (D) Section 2 (b)

243. Which of the following qualification is required for being engaged as apprentice as per the
Apprentices Act, 1961?
i. For non-hazardous industries, person must be of at least 16 years of age
ii. For hazardous industries, person must be of at least 18 years of age
(A) i is correct (B) ii is correct
(C) Neither i nor ii is correct (D) Both i & ii are correct
244. Which of the following is not an obligation of the employer in relation to an apprentice as per
the Apprentices Act, 1961?
(A) To provide the apprentice with the training in his trade in accordance with the provisions of
this Act, and the rules made thereunder.
(B) Even if the employer himself is qualified in the trade, still to ensure that a person who
possesses the prescribed qualifications is placed in charge of the training of the apprentice.
(C) To provide adequate instructional staff, possessing such qualifications as may be prescribed,
for imparting practical and theoretical training and facilities for trade test of apprentices
245. Which of the following authority is competent to grant of certificate on conclusion of training
graduate apprentice as per the Apprentices Act, 1961?
(A) Regional Board (B) Zonal Board
(C) State Board (D) Central Board
246. Who among the following cannot be a member of the Central Apprenticeship Council as per the
Apprentices Act, 1961?
(A) Representative of employers (B) Representative of Central Government
(C) Representative of All India Council (D) Representative of the Zonal Boards
247. A person of which of the following age-group can be considered as adolescent as per the Factories
Act, 1948?
(A) Who has completed 14 years but not completed 16 years
(B) Who has completed 16 years but not completed 18 years
(C) Who has completed 15 years but not completed 18 years
248. What is the number of workers required to be ordinarily employed in a factory for having the
facility of shelters, rest rooms and lunch rooms as per the Factories Act, 1948?
(A) 50 (B) 100
(C) 150 (D) 200
249. What is the age group of children prescribed in the Factories Act, 1948 for whom the Crèche
facility required to be given?
(A) Under the age of six years (B) Under the age of eight years
(C) Under the age of ten years (D) Under the age of twelve years
250. Which of the following is the maximum weekly hours available for an adult worker as per the
Factories Act, 1948?
(A) 24 hours (B) 36 hours
(C) 48 hours (D) 72 hours

251. Who is empowered to recognize any person as ‘competent person’ as per the Gujarat Factories
Rules, 1963?
(A) State Government (B) Occupier
(C) Manager (D) Chief Inspector
252. Who among the following is competent to amend the licence granted under rule 5 of the Gujarat
Factories Rules, 1963?
(A) Chief Inspector, Industrial Safety and Health
(B) Director, Industrial Safety and Health
(C) Local Inspector, Industrial Safety and Health
253. Which of the following provision of the Environment Protection Act, 1986 defines “environmental
pollution”?
(A) Section 2 (a) (B) Section 2 (b)
(C) Section 2 (c) (D) Section 2 (d)
254. The power to give directions under Section 5 of the Environment Protection Act, 1986 includes
the followings:
i. Power to direct closure of any industry
ii. Power to direct stoppage of the supply of electricity to the industry
iii. Power to direct stoppage of the water supply to the industry
255. What is the penalty prescribed for the contravention of the provision of the Environment
Protection Act, 1986?
(A) Imprisonment up to one year, fine up to one lakh rupees, or, both
(B) Imprisonment up to three years, fine up to one lakh rupees, or, both
(C) Imprisonment up to five years, fine up to one lakh rupees, or, both
(D) Imprisonment up to seven years, fine up to one lakh rupees, or, both
256. Which section of the Environment Protection Act, 1986 deals with rules to regulate environmental
pollution?
257. Which section of The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 deals with the persons handling
hazardous substances to comply with procedural safeguards?
258. Which of the following is dealt under section 4 of the Environment Protection Act, 1986?
(A) Effect of other laws
(B) Appointment of officers and their powers and functions.
(C) Information, reports or returns.
(D) Offences by companies

259. Which of the following provision of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936 deals with the fixation of
wage-periods?
260. Which of the following is correct with respect to payment of wages of person employed in any
establishment having less than one thousand employees as per the Payment of Wages Act, 1936?
(A) Before the expiry of sixth days from the last day of wage-periods
(B) Before the expiry of seventh days from the last day of wage-periods
(C) Before the expiry of tenth days from the last day of wage-periods
(D) Before the expiry of fifteenth days from the last day of wage-periods
261. What total amount of fine may be imposed in any one wage-period on any employed person as
per the Payment of Wages Act, 1936?
(A) Shall not exceed an amount equal to 1% of wages payable for that wage-periods
(B) Shall not exceed an amount equal to 2% of wages payable for that wage-periods
(C) Shall not exceed an amount equal to 3% of the wages payable for that wage-periods
(D) Shall not exceed an amount equal to 5% of wages payable for that wage-periods
262. Which of the following provisions of the Payment of Wages Act, 1936 deals with appeal?
263. Whoever wilfully obstructs an inspector in the discharge of his duties under the Payment of
Wages Act, 1936 shall be punishable with the following punishment?
(A) Fine not less than 1000 rupees but not more than 5000 rupees
(B) Fine not less than 1000 rupees but not more than 7500 rupees
(C) Fine not less than 1500 rupees but not more than 7500/- rupees
(D) Fine not less than 1500 rupees but not more than 10000 rupees
264. What is the period during which no employer shall knowingly appoint a woman in any
establishment as per the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961?
(A) During the six weeks immediately following the day of delivery
(B) During the four weeks immediately following the day of miscarriage
(C) During the three weeks immediately following the day of medical termination of pregnancy
(D) All the above
265. What is the maximum period entitled to maternity benefit by a woman having two or more than
two surviving children under the Maternity Benefits Act, 1961?
(A) Six weeks (B) Twelve weeks
(C) Twenty-four weeks (D) Twenty-six weeks
266. What is the maximum period for which a woman is entitled to leave with wages in case of
tubectomy operation as per the Maternity Benefits Act, 1961?
(A) Two weeks (B) Four weeks
(C) Six weeks (D) Eight weeks
267. Until what age of the child, women can avail nursing breaks as per the Maternity Benefits Act,
1961?
(A) 9 months (B) 12 months
(C) 15 months (D) 18 months

268. How many times an entitled woman is allowed to visit to crèche in a day as per the Maternity
Benefits Act, 1961?
(A) 2 times (B) 4 times
(C) 6 times (D) 8 times
269. What penalty is prescribed for obstructing inspector under the Maternity Benefits Act, 1961?
(A) Imprisonment up to 2 years, or fine up to 10 thousand, or both
(B) Imprisonment up to 1 year, or fine up to 10 thousand, or both
(C) Imprisonment up to 2 years, or fine up to 5 thousand, or both
(D) Imprisonment up to 1 year, or fine up to 5 thousand, or both
270. Which of the following provision of the Companies Act, 2013 defines Company?
(A) Section 2 (20) (B) Section 2 (21)
(C) Section 2 (22) (D) Section 2 (23)
271. How many persons are required to form a public company as per the Companies Act, 2013?
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 5 (D) 7
272. Which of the following is correct with respect to one person company as per the Companies Act,
2013?
(A) It may be a public company (B) It will be a private company
(C) Neither A nor B (D) Both A & B
273. Formation of companies with charitable objects is dealt under which of the following provision
of the Companies Act, 2013?
274. What is the quorum for a meeting of the Board of Directors of a company as per the Companies
Act, 2013?
(A) Half of the total strength of the Board
(B) One third of the total strength of the Board
(C) One fourth of the total strength of the Board
(D) Two third of the total strength of the Board
275. Which of the following average of the wages payable to a worker does not mean ‘average pay’ as
per the Industrial Relations Code, 2020?
(A) in the case of monthly paid worker, in three complete calendar months
(B) in the case of weekly paid worker, in four complete weeks
(C) in the case of daily paid worker, in ten full working days,
276. Which of the following is not included in the definition of the term wages as per the Industrial
Relations Code, 2020?
(A) Basic pay (B) Dearness allowance
(C) Housing rent allowance (D) Retaining allowance

277. What does lay-off mean as per the Industrial Relations Code, 2020?
(A) Refusal of an employer on account of shortage of coal to give employment to a worker
(B) Refusal of an employer on account of the break-down of machinery to give employment to a
worker
(C) Refusal of an employer on account of natural calamity to give employment to a worker
278. Which of the following provision of the Industrial Relations Code, 2020 defines strike?
(A) Section 2 (t) (B) Section 2 (zg)
(C) Section 2 (zi) (D) Section 2 (zk)
279. Which of the following appeal cannot be disposed of by a single judge of the High Court of
Gujarat as per the Gujarat High Court Rules, 1993?
(A) Appeals under Section 144, Civil Procedure Code, 1908
(B) Appeals from Original Decrees in Suits where the value of the subject matter of the suit
exceeds Rs 1,00,00,000/-
(C) Appeals in proceedings under the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956
280. Which of the following is correct as per the Gujarat High Court Rules, 1993 in relation to the
power of single judge?
i. May grant rule nisi in an application of Habeas Corpus
ii. May pass final order in an application of Habeas Corpus
(A) i (B) ii
(C) Neither i nor ii (D) Both i & ii
281. Which of the following provision of the Gujarat High Court Rules, 1993 states that every affidavit
to be used in the High Court shall be entitled “In the High Court of Gujarat”?
(A) Rule 14 (B) Rule 18
(C) Rule 22 (D) Rule 26
282. Which of the following Chapter of the Gujarat High Court Rules, 1993 deals with Affidavits?
(A) Chapter III (B) Chapter IV
(C) Chapter V (D) Chapter VI
283. Matters requiring urgent circulation for the next day should ordinarily be filed in the office
before the following time as per the Gujarat High Court Rules, 1993?
(A) 12:30 PM (B) 2:00 PM
(C) 4:00 PM (D) No time is prescribed
284. Which of the following rule under the Gujarat High Court Rules, 1993 prescribe for the
production of Vakalatnama by Advocate?
(A) Rule 31 (B) Rule 32
(C) Rule 33 (D) Rule 34
285. Appeals under Clause 15 of the Letters Patent is dealt under which of the following Chapters of
the Gujarat High Court Rules, 1993
(A) Chapter V (B) Chapter VI
(C) Chapter VII (D) Chapter VIII

286. Within how many days the applicant should pay the process fees from the date of order directing
notice or rule in ordinary cases as per the Gujarat High Court Rules, 1993?
(C) 15 days (D) Immediately after passing of such orders
287. A decree shall ordinarily bear the following date as per the Gujarat High Court Rules, 1993:
i. Date on which the judgment was pronounced
ii. Date on which it is signed by Deputy Registrar
iii. Date on which it is signed by the Registrar
288. At what rate the prescribed rates for certified copies will increase every year as per the Gujarat
High Court Rules, 1993?
(A) 2 % (B) 3 %
(C) 4 % (D) 5 %
289. What fees will be charged in respect of processes by the High Court of Gujarat while exercising
appellate jurisdiction where the subject matter in dispute exceeds Rs. 500?
(A) Rs. 5 (B) Rs. 7.50
(C) Rs. 10 (D) Rs. 15
290. Within how many days before the date of hearing of the matter of reference to the High Court
under the Civil Procedure Code, notice is issued to the parties as per the Gujarat High Court
Rules, 1993?
(A) 2 weeks (B) 3 weeks
(C) 4 weeks (D) Not fixed
291. Recording of evidence in an application filed for issue of writs of habeas corpus on behalf of the
person detained may be done:
i. By the High Court of Gujarat
ii. By the Court of Sessions on direction of the High Court
iii. By a magistrate on direction of the High Court
292. What fees is prescribed under Rule 401 of the Gujarat High Court Rules, 1993 for estimating
the translation charges?
(A) Rs. 14 (B) Rs. 16
(C) Rs. 18 (D) Rs. 20
293. In which of the following year rules number 419 to 425 of the Gujarat High Court Rules, 1993
was repealed?
(A) In the year 2010 (B) In the year 2011
(C) In the year 2012 (D) In the year 2014
294. On which date the Gujarat High Court (Live Streaming of Court Proceedings) Rules, 2021
came in effect?
(A) July 12, 2021 (B) July 14, 2021
(C) July 16, 2021 (D) July 18, 2021

295. Which provision of the Indian Constitution empower the High Court of Gujarat in the Live
Streaming of Court Proceedings Rules, 2021?
296. By which Amendment the duration of paid maternity leave available for women employees was
increased from 12 weeks to 26 weeks?
(A) The Maternity Benefits (Amendment) Act, 2017
(B) The Maternity Benefits (Amendment) Act, 2019
(C) The Maternity Benefits (Amendment) Act, 2020
(D) The Maternity Benefits (Amendment) Act, 2021
297. Which of the following amendments in the field of Criminal Procedure allows police to collect
biological samples from convicts?
(A) The Criminal Procedure (Identification) Act, 2020
(B) The Criminal Procedure (Identification) Act, 2021
(C) The Criminal Procedure (Identification) Act, 2022
298. Which of the following provision of the Constitution is amended by 105 th Constitutional
Amendment Act, 2021?
(A) Article 342A (B) Article 365
(C) Article 338A (D) None of the above
299. Which of the following Constitutional Amendments provides for the 10% reservation to
‘Economically Weaker Section’ of the society.
(A) 102nd (B) 103rd
(C) 104th (D) 105th
300. In which of the following case, the Supreme Court of India upheld the validity of EWS
reservation?
(A) Janhit Abhiyan v. Union of India (B) Noel Harper v. Union of India
(C) Union of India v. Ashish Agarwal (D) None of the above

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