Professional Documents
Culture Documents
1
2. Ratios ....................................................................................................................................................... 57
2.1. Accounting ratios ........................................................................................................................ 57
2.2. Financial ratios ............................................................................................................................ 57
3. Returns .................................................................................................................................................... 58
3.1. Investment decisions ................................................................................................................ 58
3.2. Definitions ..................................................................................................................................... 59
3.3. Examples ........................................................................................................................................ 60
3.4. Portfolios ........................................................................................................................................ 61
3.5. Conclusion on risk and return ............................................................................................... 67
4. Exercises : risk and return on stocks ........................................................................................... 68
4.1. Session 5......................................................................................................................................... 68
4.2. Session 6......................................................................................................................................... 70
5. Capital Asset Pricing Model............................................................................................................. 70
5.1. Assumptions of CAPM ............................................................................................................... 70
5.2. Risk composition ......................................................................................................................... 70
5.3. Practical uses of the CAPM ...................................................................................................... 72
5.4. CML and SML ................................................................................................................................ 72
6. Market efficiency ................................................................................................................................. 74
6.1. Introduction .................................................................................................................................. 74
6.2. Misconceptions ............................................................................................................................ 75
6.3. Forms of efficiency (important!) .......................................................................................... 75
Part IV : The capital structure of companies ( corporate finance) ............................................ 76
1. Equity vs debt financing ................................................................................................................... 76
1.1. Definition ....................................................................................................................................... 76
1.2. Exercises ........................................................................................................................................ 76
1.3. The effect of leverage on risk and return .......................................................................... 78
2 Modigliani-Miller I: Leverage, Arbitrage, and Firm Value .................................................... 80
2.1. Introduction (!) ............................................................................................................................ 80
2.2. Conditions...................................................................................................................................... 80
2.3. MM Proposition(exam!) ........................................................................................................... 80
2.4. The market value balance sheet ........................................................................................... 80
2.5. Application: A Leveraged Recapitalization ....................................................................... 81
3. Modigliani-Miller II: Leverage, Risk, and the Cost of Capital ............................................. 82
3.1. Leverage and the Equity Cost of Capital(exam!) ............................................................ 82
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3.2. Capital Budgeting and the Weighted Average Cost of Capital ................................... 84
3.3. Levered and Unlevered Betas ................................................................................................ 85
4. Debt and taxes ...................................................................................................................................... 87
4.1. The interest tax deduction ...................................................................................................... 87
4.2. Valuing the Interest Tax Shield (!!) ...................................................................................... 89
4.3. Required return on equity ...................................................................................................... 90
4.4. Optimal Capital Structure with Taxes ................................................................................. 91
5. Session 7 exercises: Leverage, debt, capital structure .......................................................... 92
6. Default and Bankruptcy in a Perfect Market ............................................................................ 94
7. The Costs of Bankruptcy and Financial Distress.................................................................... 94
7.1. Introduction .................................................................................................................................. 94
7.2. The Bankruptcy code ................................................................................................................ 94
7.3. Direct Costs of Bankruptcy ..................................................................................................... 95
7.4. Indirect Costs of Financial Distress ..................................................................................... 95
7.5. Financial Distress Costs and Firm Value............................................................................ 96
8. Optimal Capital Structure ............................................................................................................... 96
8.1. Tradeoff Theory .......................................................................................................................... 96
8.2. Determinants of the PV of Financial Distress Costs ...................................................... 96
8.3. Optimal Leverage ........................................................................................................................ 96
9. Distributions to Shareholders ....................................................................................................... 98
9.1. Payout policy ................................................................................................................................ 98
10. Comparison of Dividends and Share Repurchases ............................................................. 98
10.1.Dividends...................................................................................................................................... 98
10.2. Share repurchases(!) .............................................................................................................. 99
10.3.Modigliani–Miller and Dividend Policy Irrelevance ..................................................100
11. The Tax Disadvantage of Dividends .......................................................................................100
11.1. ........................................................................................................................................................100
11.2. Optimal dividend policy with taxes ................................................................................101
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Questions d’exam
4
Part I : Introduction to the Financial
Markets
1. Introduction to the financial market
The financial market is a market in which individuals and institutions can sell or
purchase financial instruments from other individuals or institutions.
Institution is a general word, it means any organization: bank, government, fund, public
sector, and retailer (individual people acting for their own service).
FX = Foreign Exchange
Why is there a grow in FX?
1. People : nowadays people go to the bank and put some money on their account
and it is managed by the bank.
2. Program trading: computers that buy and sell automatically. It increases the
volume of financial movements.
Market participants
1° Lenders or investors
- Banks(including the Central Bank) and insurers: they receive the money of their clients
and they invest it.
- Mutual funds: collected from many investors, diversified holding, pro managed. The
funds grow in companies and when people retire, they receive an extra pension (= Unit
Trust in GB = SICAV)
- Pension funds: All employees contribute to the fund each month and when they retire,
they receive money from the company.
- Hedge funds: money received from client, pooled together (like mutual funds). But, the
differences is that companies try to increase the profit because they use a leverage effect
(it can be 2,3,4). They are speculative.
Eg : They receive 1 million and invest more than 1 million.
- Private individuals (and their brokers) : workers having a lot of money can go to the
bank but can also invest it through their bank or by themself.
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2° Borrowers: institution or people who need money.
- Sovereign institutions: Banks created by many countries. They borrow to the market
and make loans. Countries use this money for big European project for instance.
Eg: European Investment Bank, World Bank, European Bank for Reconstruction and
Development,… public sector.
- The corporations, banks : private sector. They create job, invest, sell product so they
need money to do such things. They are the most important.
- Government, countries, states, municipalities.
Nb : A market is just an intermediary between those who have money and those who need
it.
Moreover, the Central Bank helps countries in debt. Usually, CB doesn’t contribute in the
market (to sell and buy). Now, it’s buying Long-Term bonds (US) and short-term bonds
(Europa) because of the crisis The monetary policy is not just about interest rates
(sometimes they buy FX too!).
Financial instruments
4. Other investments
1° Real Estate: house, apartments,…If you don’t have the money to invest in real estate,
you can have a “Real Estate investment trust”= shares from companies who own
apartments.
2° Other real assets: gold, silver, oil, antiques, art, … (commodity funds)
Most financial instruments are traded “over-the-counter” (OTC) [de gré à gré],
in an unregulated interbank marketMany investments are not listed as a stock
exchange: many financial instruments are exchanged by banks to banks.
Commodities, Stocks, Futures and some options are listed on exchanges [bourses],
on a regulated market:
- At least 1 exchange per country
- Tightly regulated by law
Eg: NYSE = New York Stock Exchange (50% of world-wide capitalization and 36 of listed
companies). NY has a lot of influences. Stock exchanges aren’t replaced by computers for
2 reasons: a computer can’t make a proposition for you and moreover, you can
speculate for yourself. If he goes down, everybody will go down (a bit exaggerated).
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Nb : - Stock exchanges are usually segmented: Eurolist (A,B,C), Alternext, OTC
- Stock exchanges were created originally as mutual companies but many are getting listed
- Mergers are justified by economies of scale
NASDAQ buys LSE? (this one failed… so far)
NYSE buys Euronext? (this one succeeded)
There is a difference between the companies on the stock exchange. In fact we separate
them in 3 segments:
- Euronext is a continuous market: If you are a BIG COMPANY, your shares are moving
up and down every second because there is a lot of money and commodities.
- Alternext is a fixing market: If you are a small and mid-company: the movement will
be only once or twice per day.
- If you are coming from the free markets: maybe only once per week..
5.1.Money Market (Short-Term < 1 year) : Always about loans or extending a borrow.
“The Money Market is mostly OTC(Over the counter : trading is done directly between
two parties), and composed of short term instruments, with interest credited annually”
= loans for less than 1 year. Most of them are term deposits (it can be interbanks or
bank-clients). It’s custom–made, tailor-made. When someone deposits money, he
receives interest to have loaned his money. It is the easiest financial instruments you can
have. Usually we don’t do that because we have the savings account (= livrets
d’épargne) : for private people, not companies.
The companies have many term deposits = interbank deposits (= cash management).
One bank has too much money, the other needs money = Interbank market. If the
difference is positive, the bank can invest. If it’s negative, the bank has to borrow.
This interbank market is essential. A bank needs all the time to manage his money.
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With the crisis, banks do it less than before because they need trust to exchange “ Not
sure they are a good bank, not sure that I’m going to have my money back…” So, they
hesitate to do it and that’s the major problem for some banks.
But, the Central Bank is the lender of the last resort (that’s what Fortis did).
Fortis reputation has been damaged. Why ?
1° They needed billions and they couldn’t find them
2° Fortis had bought toxic assets from the US.
Reputation damaged All Banks stop lending money to Fortis. So, they asked for
emergency assistance to the National Bank (It opened an Emergency Assistance line).
But, after a few months, this line was worth 100 billion + Fortis borrowed money from
the CB in Amsterdam: 100 billion. So the government bought Fortis (bailed out).
Exercise term-deposit
Since you have requested with us a 3-month deposit, we debit your account for 100,000€
today. “Interest rate is 4%; calculation rule is Actual/365. In 3 months, we will credit your
account with…
They will use the actual number days divided by the interest rate.
Today = 24 sept + 3months = 24 dec 91days!!
Nb : They are different calculation rules! Here it’s Actual/365 but it could be :
- Actual over actual (or 365/365) : barely used
- Actual over 360 : gives you more interest than you’ll pay
- 30/360: Each month has 30 days! (even February).
EURIBOR( = EURopean InterBank Offered Rate) = daily average of each interest rate
applied by banks in the Eurozone (! Interbank )
LIBOR = London InterBank Offered Rate (same as Euribor but in England)
Spread = Interest Rate < difference between EURIBOR and LIBOR.
Libor/Euribor(interest rates or interbank deposits) change every day and have a term
structure: the interest rate is a function of the duration of the deposit: 1, 3, 6, 12 months
or any duration can be custom-made.
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EONIA = European OverNight Interest Average.
The negative interest rates are only for governments (usually). In the market rates, they
are 2 interest rates. The highest = offered rate (you want to borrow). The lowest =bid
rate (you want to deposit)
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5.2. Capital Market (Long-term > 1 year)
A) Bonds
B) Stocks (and hybrids, derivatives, etc…)
Stocks & bonds are securities = financial instruments secured by physical assets.
Equity securities(titres participatifs) are represented by stocks or shares(or bonds).
The company or other entity issuing the security is called the issuer .
Securities may be represented by a certificate or, more typically, an electronic or "book
entry" form. Such Certificates may be :
- bearer, meaning they entitle the holder to rights under the security merely by holding the
security
- registered, meaning they entitle the holder to rights only if he appears on a security
register maintained by the issuer or an intermediary.
If they are traded on a market, one can buy or sell them easily. Prices may fluctuate in
function of a.o. supply & demand.
A) Bonds
Government issues 30-year bonds. Nobody would buy it if there wasn’t the possibility to
sell it at any time.
It’s a debt security : The issuer owes the bondholder a debt and is obliged to pay an
interest(coupon) and to repay the principal at a later , termed the maturity(when you
get the principal back).
How does it work? If you have a 5%-interest coupon, it is expressed per year. 99% of the
bonds are paid annually or semi-annually (sometimes monthly): payable at fixed
intervals. Now we have invented a coupon with a floating-rate note (Eg : Euribor +
0,5%). Very often the bond is negotiable, ie the ownership of the instrument can be
transferred in the secondary market.
What’s the long bond? = the name we gave to the American bond.
- The green bonds have good rates because it’s more risky.
- Discount securities = zero coupons.
- Commercial paper program = short-term bond (borrow for 3,6…months). People are
allowed to go up to a limit of borrowing. People receive 100% at maturity but people
initially bought at 99%(profit of +-1%). Those short-term bonds don’t have any interest
but you buy them at a discount.
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B) Stocks or shares
=” The original equity paid into or invested in the business by its founders or by later
investors” (much more difficult to value).
Stocks pay dividends. If there is an inflation / deflation, you don’t receive the 100% back
because there is no term (and you are not sure to receive the dividend!). So, it depends
of the profits (if the company does investments (with the profit) for its own activities)
and on the value of the stock.
Example:
- If the company is a starter (first 3 years), it doesn’t pay dividend because it buys its
own share = buy back! Moreover, there are no taxes on their own shares. So they save
money.
Many US companies distribute shares by back instead of dividends because there are
less taxes on the shares than on dividends governments are not happy! Most of US
companies pay dividend quarterly – every 3 months >< Europe: every year.
If you don’t pay any dividends on the short-term, you can be more performing but not on
the long-term.
Stock typically takes the form of shares of either common stock or preferred
stock(standard ones).
As a unit of ownership, common stock typically carries voting rights that can be
exercised in corporate decisions.
Common stock = right to vote + receive a constant dividend (99% of stocks are
common stock). It does continue forever and that gives people stability.
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1. Stock Indice
2. Euronext
Euronext is the European electronic stock exchange based in Amsterdam and with
subsidiaries in Belgium, France, Netherlands, Portugal and the United Kingdom.
In addition to equities and derivatives markets, the Euronext group provides clearing
and information services. As of December 2010, markets run by Euronext had a market
capitalization of US$2.93 trillion, making it the 5th largest exchange in the world.
Euronext merged with NYSE Group, Inc. on April 4, 2007 to form NYSE Euronext
(Euronext: NYX), the "first global stock exchange“.
BEL20(exam!)
Q, F, f = fixed at the beginning of the year (won’t change during the year) = WEIGHT of
each company, stable overtime.
C = price of shares (change during the year)
If no company has a weight > 12 then fi = 1 Else large companies: fi < 1 and other
companies : fi > 1. Consequence: weight = 12.
If we want to buy Swiss franc: can we do it directly? In theory, we first buy US dollars
In theory, all trades use the dollar. But, in practice, when you want to sell euros against
Swiss Franc, you call the bank and they will calculate an exchange rate = cross
exchange rate (cross because we shortcut de dollar). So we don’t have to do the
exchange twice.
Currency trading used to be a big business. But, 10 years ago, people have been laid off
because of euro (no more franc belge, français…).
Exchange control:
- You can buy shares in Thailand, Malaysia…because the economy there is booming =
emerging markets.
- 1998: big crisis after the defeat of Russia. Some currencies lost 50% from their value
within a few months. So, the countries controlled temporarily their currency: it’s
forbidden to sell the BAHT unless you have a good reason (eg : trying to stop the
depreciation). After a few months, countries will lift the control and then, they will be
allowed to do it again. What is the risk? The risk is that you are blocked.
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To decrease the risk of a loss, you can call your bank and do a forward transaction =
sell the dollars. But, we don’t have any dollar: we sell them now in settlement in
treatment. It’s not speculation, it’s to protect us from a risk, the depreciation of the
dollar (= hedging). But, the exchange rate is fixed at that moment and will not change.
Warrant is a security that entitles the holder to buy the stock of the issuing company at
a fixed exercise price until the expiry date. It’s similar to options(derivative) : special
rights to buy securities but, warrants are frequently attached to bonds or preferred
stock, allowing the issuer to pay lower interest rates or dividends.
A convertible bond is a type of bond that the holder can convert into a specified
number of shares of common stock in the issuing company or cash of equal value.
It’s the world’s largest market with a few main currencies: $, £, €, Yen. London, NY,
Frankfurt, Zurich are the main centres. It’s a very liquid and competitive market.
The settlement is made in T + 2( intitial times + 2 working days) through corresponding
banks.
The market participants are importers, exporters, central banks (normally they don’t),
portfolio managers, FX brokers, banks…
Over the counter= no one physical location; traders are in the offices of major banks.
The deals are made over the phone or through an IT network (Bloomberg, etc…). It only
takes a few seconds.
Market makers (teneurs de marché) quote both ways, with a bid price and an ask price
He typically works for a bank. He receives two prices: it depends if he’s buying or selling.
If he’s buying, he will have the higher price and if he’s selling, he will have the lowest
price. The difference = the profit for the market maker = PIPS (around 5 pips). It’s a
small profit because there is a lot of competition (very competitive market).
A broker (courtier): in London or NY, he’s electronically in contact with the bank, he
selects for you the best price (or you’ll need 50 phone calls if you don’t have a broker).
He’s just an intermediary between market makers, he’s not the counterpoint! (Bank =
counterpoint).
Less than 5% is commercial business. When you think about tourism, it’s a bit like
import/export. What represents the 95% left? Investors,speculation on foreign
exchanges and hedge funds (from banks). What are the consequences? If 95% are
investor and speculation there are other factors.
Factors such as purchasing power parity (relative prices) or trade balances are
irrelevant in the short run. They are relevant for import/export.
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Actions and expectations of traders and market-makers are decisive. What does
“expectation” mean? If everybody buy YEN, then we expect the YEN to appreciate
will try to make some profit. What do expectations depend on?
The expectations are usually based on macroeconomics fundamentals (such as
inflation)and create the trend.
If I make a profit because an expectation, that means that my counterpart necessarily
makes a loss (bank or Japanese person behind).
Essentially a zero-sum game (but Central Banks intervene!). It’s a situation in which a
participant's gain (or loss) of utility is exactly balanced by the losses (or gains) of the
utility of the other participant.
Nb : The spot rate is against $ >< the crossed spot rate (not against $).
Risk measured by the volatility of the FX rate or the Value-at-Risk. We can manage FX
risks through hedging (=how to protect you against a risk):
- Forward transaction: a commitment to sell or buy currencies at a future date but
predetermined price. It’s useful in commercial deals (when the partner is supposed to
pay you in 3 months). Most companies use the forward transaction.
- Futures contracts: commitment to sell or buy currencies at a future date but
predetermined price. It’s similar to forward transaction but more complex.
- FX options (=a right see derivatives).
5.4. Commodities
“= a class of goods for which there is demand, but which is supplied without qualitative
differentiation across a market “
Commodities are not financial assets but real assets (we can touch them). Gold has
always been a possibly investment. But, there is something new = commodities fund
(fund is buying bonds for you or other things and we invest in the fund). So, it’s much
easier than buying gold by ourselves (it takes time). You can do that for silver, oil, gold
and agricultural commodities. They are not speculative.
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There are different categories: oil, gold, gas, precious metals, agricultural commodities
(huge market). Most exchanges are London, NY and Chicago.
Commodity price index: calculate the average of selected commodity prices, which
may be based on spot or futures prices. It is designed to be representative of the broad
commodity asset class or a specific subset of commodities, such as energy or metals. It is
an index that tracks a basket of commodities to measure their performance.
Eg : Exchanges : London International Financial Futures Exchange (LIFFE).
5.5. Derivatives
A derivative is a contract between two parties that specifies conditions (especially the
dates, resulting values of the underlying variables, and notional amounts) under which
payments are to be made between the parties: options, swaps, futures, forwards, credit
derivatives. It’s a contract about the future.
Derivatives have been criticized during the crisis. All derivatives are about the future.
A) Options : you can decide whether you’ll use it or not and when.
You buy a call option on Google. The derivatives are about the future. So, a call option
will give you the right to buy Google shares. (Eg : current price : 500$/share but with a
call option, you’ll have the right to buy at 525$/share). There is a life of the option and
then the maturity of the option (option expires at maturity date). Maybe now, the option
is not very interesting. But, the interesting element is that you keep this right for one
year.
If the share price goes down, you won’t make any profit. But if the share price goes up
and down during one year, you can use your option and sell it where the price goes up.
So, we can use the option whenever we want it. In fact, we don’t have a profit but it’s the
revenue during one year (minus the investment) per share (in the real life : an option =
+- over 100 shares) option per share.
The price of the option is called a premium based on the volatility of shares + price
(statistic model).
Call options: right to buy (at a predetermined price)
Put options: right to sell.
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B) Futures and forwards : about currencies. It’s different than an option with which
you have a possibility. “Futures & forwards are a commitment to buy or sell (at a
predetermined price) at a future date. It concerns indices(most of the time), shares or
commodities.
Credit derivatives: linked to a bond. It’s a protection against the default of the issuer.
6. Alternative investments
With the crisis, some investors are looking for another kind of investments.
Real estate: buildings, apartments (very good: the rent pays the loans after 20 years,
we have the apartment): through SICAV or individually.
Real estate investment trust (SICAV): fund which buys real estate
Private equity and venture capital: Funds buying shares in unlisted companies.
That makes liquid (good for illiquid start-up) something originally illiquid. You can’t
resell a share from an unlisted company because there is no market but through a
private equity funds, you can at a certain level.
Hedge funds: they use leverage and derivatives (Ex: investment: 1M they invest 4M).
All hedge funds speculate on banks, shares.
Closely Held Companies and Inactively Traded Securities
Distressed Securities/Bankruptcies: Buy shares of companies in difficulty because the
shares are very cheap. Sometime, they are even too cheap but it’s risky.
Commodities: gold,…
Tangible Assets with Low Liquidity.
- Market participants
- Functions performed by financial markets
- Financial instruments
- Financial markets types
- The money market
- The FX market
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Part II : Investment decisions
1. Discounting cash flows
1.1. Reminder
Advantages of the mutual fund: In most cases, the mutual fund gets the dividend (tax
free), the coupon (tax free). Most of them keep what they have and that just grows and
when you need money, you sell it = capitalization The investors don’t receive money
on which they have to pay taxes but just wait before selling no taxes and that’s legal
Exercises:
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2° Present value (PV) problems (discounting) : Calculating the value today of future
cash flows: Interest rates are 7%. If I need to have £150,000 saved in 10 years, how
much should I put aside today (or every year)?
Today : PV = 150 000 / (1 + 0,07)^10 = 76252€
Every year : 150 000 = x(1 + 0,07)^10 + x(1 + 0,07)^9 + … + x(1 + 0,07)^1
x = 150 000 / factor = 10, 146 £ (and factor = x(1, 07)^10 +…)
3° Solving for r
r=(FV/PV)1/n -1
Ex: if you double your initial investment in 10 years, what interest rate did you get?
4° Solving for n
n=ln(FV/PV)
ln(1+r)
Ex: if you get a 5% interest rate, how long will it take to triple your initial investment?
The value of cash flow received at different times can never be compared -> discount
them to a common date.
Eg : assume interest rates are 10% and you have just won the lottery. You must choose
between 2 options: receive $500,000 today; or receive $1,000,000 in 5 years from now.
Which one is better?
So far, we have looked at problems involving only a single cash flow. But most business
investments will involve multiple cash flows over time. We need a method for coping
with such streams of cash flows! To calculate the PV of a multiple cash flow stream, you
need to calculate the PV of each cash flow and then add up these PVs.
An initial cash flow is usually negative. Then the project multiplies cash flows (because
you make profit).
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In real life, interest rate is calculated with the number of years but we don’t do that in
this class. Here we simplify, we assume a flat interest rate (taux unique).
Exercises
1° Assume interest rates are 8% and you make 3 deposits to your bank account: €1,200
today; €1,400 one year later and €1,000 three years later. How much money will you
have on your account three years from now?
2° You wish to buy a car through making 3 instalments: £8,000 today; £4,000 one year
later and £4,000two years later. How much money would you have to place in an
account today to generate this stream of cash flows? (With 8% = interest rate).
Annuity : Any sequence of equally spaced, level cash flows (suite de versements égaux
et équidistants : versements trimestriels, annuels,…).
Perpetuity : If the payment stream lasts forever (suite infinite de flux).
Ex : Cmb doit-on placer pour une perpétuité de 100euros à 8% : 100 / 8% = 1250
PV of a perpetuity
PV= =
Eg: what would you pay to own a guaranteed income of $1,000 per year forever if r=4%
and payments are at the end of each year? 1000 / 4% = 25 000
!!!! Do not confuse the perpetuity formula (1/r) with the PV of a single payment (1/1+r).
PV of an annuity
Annuity due: A level stream of payments starting immediately. Each payment is made
one period sooner we need one period back.
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Growing perpetuities: If the cash flows are not equal, but instead growing at a constant
rate “g”. Hint: think about a stock with growing dividend!
PV of a growing perpetuity:
Exercise
1° PV of an Annuity: Assume interest rate is 0.5% per month. You wish to buy a house
making monthly payments of $600 during 20 years. What’s the price of the house today?
2° FV of an Annuity: Assume interest rates are 10%. You decide to save $4,000 per year
for 20 years for your retirement. How much will you have saved by the time of the last
payment?
3°Annuity due. What is the PV of a stream of 5 equal annual payments starting TODAY,
each of $400, if the interest rate is 3%?
4° Growing perpetuity: An apartment which generates yearly cash flows which grow at
3% per year forever, starting at $12,000 at the end of the first year, assuming an 8%
interest rate, has a fair price of…?
12 000 / 8% - 3% = 12 000 / 5% = 240 000
To make a well-informed decision, we need to know the cash flows (A) + to have a
decision rule (B) (+ tool : discount rate).
To remember :
PV =
1° Accounting
Revenue – cost (including depreciation) = earnings net income.
2° Finance
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Cash flows: + depreciation - investments (-ΔNWC : comes from the balance sheet =
adjust time difference)
NPV(in euro) and IRR (in %)= 2 equivalent decision rules.
If IRR > 1 : we invest. If IRR > WACC = cost of capital.
A capital budget lists the projects and investments that a company plans to undertake
during the coming year. To determine this list, firms analyse projects and decide which
ones to accept through a process called capital budgeting. This process begins with
forecasts of the project’s consequences on the firm. Some of these consequences will
affect the firm’s revenues; other will affect its costs. Our ultimate goal is to determine the
effect of the decision on the firm’s cash flows, and evaluate the NPV of the cash flows to
assess the consequences of the decision for the firm’s value.
To derive the forecasted cash flows of a project, financial managers often begin by
forecasting earnings. Thus, we begin by determining the incremental (croissant)
earnings of a project – that is, the amount by which the firm’s earnings are expected to
change as a result of the investment decision. Then they use the incremental earnings to
forecast the cash flows of the project.
3 steps :
1. Forecasting Earnings
2. Determining Free Cash Flow and NPV
3. Analyzing the project.
- In bracket : negative
- 4 : No overheads (frais généraux).
- 5 : Future R&D : starts now.
- 6 : Depreciation is different from cash flow, it’s a non-cash expense. We see 5 x 1500 $
= 7500$ = CapEx.
- 8 : It’s a big company, not a start up. If it was, the line would have 0 and 0 for the first
two columns.
Why do we have two positive amounts at the beginning and the end?
Beginning :existing profit of the company
End : The company pays less taxes because of the new project: the incremental negative
profit of the beginning will reduce the existing profit and so, the taxes.
24
Equations :
1°
EBIT = Earned Before Income Taxe and Tc = Tax rate of the company
2°
Table : HomeNet’s incremental earnings forecast including cannibalization and lost rent.
1 : 25% of customers buy another product from the same company : 25% x 100 000
units x 100$ = 2,5M 26,000(initially) – 2,500 = 23,500
2 : Cost of goods sold = 60$/unit 25% x 100 000 unit x 60$ = 1,5M (that costs 1,5M for
HomeNet to stop the procedure).
4 : Increases from -2800 till -3000 due to opportunity costs of 200(,000$)/year
Exam! When you have a new project, you pay less tax because you have company profit +
profit in the new project. We have to take taxes into account! We have to know at the exam
that the tax rate is 35% in Belgium!
25
We cancel the depreciation because we add it back.
We must follow the order : first : accounting table then net income…
2. Determining Free Cash Flow (= cash flow) and NPV = Net Present Value
Steps :
Receivables = créances
Payables = dettes
Δ = Variation
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Cash flow(CF) = incremental effect of the project on the firm’s available cash.
It’s different from earnings (= Unlevered Net income).
Table: Calculation of HomeNet’s Free cash flow (including cannibalization and lost rent).
8 : 40 % EBIT
9 : Unlevered net income = EBIT – income tax (40% in that case)
11 : 7500 = 5 x 1500 (line 10).
12 : 2100 at the end : it has to be 0 except in year + 1
In this example, assume the following balance sheet items: No cash is necessary, no
inventory is necessary, Receivables = 15% of sales, Payables = 15% of COGS (Costs of
Goods Sold)
27
Example 1: net working capital with changing sales(growing = increasing revenue):
B. Calculating Free Cash Flow Directly (but first calculate earnings = net income)
Equations:
C. Calculate the NPV (when we have calculated the cash flows) : book p.193
In finance, the net present value (NPV) of a time series of cash flows, both incoming and
outgoing, is defined as the sum of the present values (PVs) of the individual cash
flows of the same entity. Used for budgeting, and widely throughout economics, finance,
and accounting, it measures the excess or shortfall of cash flows, in present value terms,
once financing charges are met.
Equation:
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The discount factor (impact of discount) starts at 0
-Evaluating Manufacturing Alternatives: separately + choose the one with the highest
NPV
-Comparing Free Cash Flows for Cisco‟s Alternatives
Salvage value : suppose you have a project and at the end of the project, you sell your
assets (material, immaterial: pattern) salvage value = estimated value that an asset
will realize upon its sale at the end of its useful life.
Terminal value or “contribution value” : you continue the project! = is the present
value at as future point in time of all future cash flows when we expect stable growth
rate forever.
So we can have stability (growth rate is zero) and it’s a perpetuity. Or a decrease (growth
rate is negative) or an increase (growth rate is positive) : it’s then a growing perpetuity.
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We calculate the NPV = Net Present Value. If it’s positive, we invest. It’s not because
it’s negative that we don’t invest. It’s difficult to know the future!
A) Break-even analysis
Zero MPV is still ok = I’m earning every year my discount rate we are making a profit.
We don’t want to have a negative MPV.
B) Sensitivity analysis
This analysis shows how the NPV varies as the underlying assumptions change (only on
parameter)?
Example: If I change my price by one euro, what’s the impact on the MPV? The price is
influencing everything. The taxes will change, the cash flow also everything will
change.
How sensitive is MPV when I decrease or increase the price by one euro?
If I decrease/increase volume/costs by 1 euro, how sensitive is MPV?
C) Scenario analysis
30
Exercise : HomeNet
Decision Criterion: If the IRR is greater than the cost of capital accept the project.
If the IRR is less than the cost of capital reject the project.
NPV decision rule implies that we should accept the projects with positive NPV or =0,
because accepting them is equivalent to receiving their NPV in cash today, and reject
the projects with a negative NPV; accepting them would reduce the wealth of
investors, whereas not doing them has no cost (NPV = 0).
We have to measure the sensitivity with IRR.
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Example
PV = I + perpetuity = -250 +
If r = 10% (Ok) NPV = -250 + 350 = 100 > 0
If r = 5% (Not realistic) NPV = -250 + 700 = 450
If r = 20% (pessimistic) NPV = -250 + 175 = - 75 < 0 !!!
When do we invest? If
- The IRR is higher than the cost of the capital.
- NPV is positive
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The graph shows the NPV as a function of the discount rate. The NPV is positive only for
discount rates that are less than 14%, the internal rate of return (IRR). Given the cost of
capital of 10%, the project has a positive NPV of $100 million : - 250 + 35/0,1 = 100
The difference between the cost of capital and the IRR is the maximum estimation error in
the cost of capital that can exist without altering the original decision : 14% - 10% = 4%
Decision Criterion: If the IRR is greater than the cost of capitalaccept the project. If the
IRR is less than the cost of capital reject the project.
2. Alternative decision-rule
We have seen the NPV, but there are other “decision rules”:
A) The Payback Rule: Payback period < 5 years (for example)(book p.165)
The payback rule is not a good rule (because tomorrow is less worth than today) but is
easy to understand : In how many years do I have my money/investment back? We just
look at cash flows operations.
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Within 5 years, 175M will not cover the initial investment (not before 8 years).
The Payback Rule is the amount of time it takes for you to recover the initial cost of an
investment that you are undertaking. Therefore, an investment is acceptable if the
Payback that results from it falls under a pre-determined # of years. Another example
would illustrate this well.
|0 |1 |2 _ |3 |4 |
This is a financial timeline with cash flows of $50,000 (initial investment), 30 thousand
in Year 1, 20 thousand in Year 2, 10 thousand in Year 3 and 5000 in Year 4.
What is the payback period in this case? Well the company initially invests $50,000 and
recovers $30,000 of it in the 1st year. This means it has $20,000 more left to recover
(50,000 - 30,000). In the 2nd year, the company has a cash flow of $20,000 and this is the
BREAK EVENS POINT. Thus, the Payback Period is exactly 2 years.
One of the limitations of the payback period rule says that the rule does not take into
account time value of money. Thus, future cash flows are not discounted and adjusted
with interest earnings, inflation, etc. However, the Discounted Payback Period Rule takes
into account time value of money and the discounting of future cash flows.
Discounted Payback < 5 years (for example) : in how many years do I have my money
back? This period has to be lower than 4 or 5 years.
Rule -> An investment is good or acceptable if its discounted payback period is less than
a few predetermined years.
For example, we are given an investment that has an initial investment of $10,000
(Year0) and cash flows from Years 1-6. We take these cash flows, and calculate their
PRESENT VALUES. We use the time value of money template in the 2nd table to perform
this calculation.
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PV of cash-flows. Eg : Year 1 = 1500 / ( 1 + 0,8) = 1389
The Payback Period occurs in Year 4, when the cash flow turns from a Negative (-1088)
to a Positive (+954). This is always true for any cash flow analysis you do. As soon as the
cumulative cash flows turns from a negative to positive, that's your payback period.
Thus, Discounted Payback Period = 4 Years + (1088 / 2042) = 4.53 Years
C) The Internal Rate of Return Rule: IRR > 12% (for example) (book p.160)
But they are problems with IRR :
Delayed Investments
Example : Reçevoir 1M (upfront
payment) pour écrire un livre dans 3 ans.
L’auteur demande un revenu de 500 000
/ an pour écrire le livre.
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Multiple IRRs(p.162)
Why Do Rules Other Than the NPV Rule Persist? Possible answers:
-Because managers may use the payback rule for budgeting purposes or as a shortcut to
get a quick sense of the project before calculating NPV.
-Managers may use the IRR rule because the IRR sums up the attractiveness of
investment opportunity without requiring an assumption about the cost of capital
(calculating IRR). But again, you MUST know the cost of capital when you apply the IRR
rule.
people are using payback. But it’s not a good one! Normally people use NPV or IRR.
Sometimes a firm must choose just one project from among several possible projects,
that is, the choices are mutually exclusive. When projects are mutually exclusive, we
need to determine which projects have a positive NPV and then rank the projects to
identify the best one:
NPV-rule: provides a straight-forward answer: pick the project with the highest NPV.
Because the expresses the value of the project in terms of cash today, picking the project
with the highest NPV leads to the greatest increase in wealth.
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IRR rule: It has to exceed the opportunity cost of capital. Because the IRR rule is a
measure of the expected return of investing in the project, you might be tempted to
extend the IRR investment rule to the case of mutually exclusive projects by picking the
project with the highest IRR. UNFORTUNATELY, picking one project over another simply
because it has a larger IRR can lead to mistakes: in particular when projects differ in
their scale of investment (a) and/or the timing of their cash flows (b).
Timing of the CF : Even when projects have the same scale, the IRR may lead you to rank
them incorrectly due to differences in the timing of the cash flows. The IRR is expressed
as a return, but the dollar value of earning a given return depends on how long the
return is earned.
Example of two projects (cost of project = 10%) with identical IRR of 50% but different
horizons:
- Short-term project: NPV = -100 + 150/(1+0,1) = $36,36
- Long-term project (5years) :
!!Notice that even when projects have the same horizon, the pattern of cash flows over
time will often differ, due to their different growth rates!
Example: same scale and horizon, but different growth rate (Theory p.168, exercise
p.166)
- Music store: -400 000 + = 0 => IRR = 26% => NPV = $900 000
- Coffee shop: -400 000 + = 0 => IRR = 23%=> NPV = $1,2 million => due to higher
growth rate!
In general, if A > B NPV A can be< B because B has a better growth rate.
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The incremental IRR tells us the discount rate at which it becomes profitable to switch
from one project to another. Then, rather than compare the projects directly, we can
evaluate the decision to switch from one to the other using the IRR rule, as in the
following
Example :
Assuming the cost of capital is 10%: The IRR is 36% for project A, and 21% for project B.
Which project is the best?
Because the projects have different scales, we cannot compare their IRRs directly. To
compute the incremental IRR of switching from project A to project B, we first compute
the incremental cash flows.=> these cash flows have an IRR of
20%.
Because the incremental IRR exceeds the 10% cost of capital, switching to project B
looks attractive (its larger scale is sufficient to make up for its lower IRR). Comparing the
NPV profiles of project A and B, we can see that despite its lower IRR, project B has a
higher NPV at the cost of capital of 10%. Note also that the incremental IRR of 20%
determines the crossover point or discount rate at which the optimal decision changes.
Shortcomings of the Incremental IRR Rule: When using the incremental IRR to choose
between, projects, we encounter all of the same problems with the IRR rule:
1) Even if the negative cash flows precede the positive ones for the individual projects, it
need not be true for the incremental cash flows. If not, the incremental IRR is difficult to
interpret, and may not exist or may not be unique.
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2) The incremental IRR can indicate whether it is profitable to switch from one project to
another, but it does not indicate whether either project has a positive NPV on its own.
3) When the individual projects have different costs of capital, it is not obvious what cost
of capital the incremental IRR should be compared to. In this case only the NPV rule,
which allows each project to be discounted at its own cost of capital, will give a reliable
answer.
When projects are mutually exclusive, the firm can only take one of the projects even if
many of them are attractive. Often this limitation is due to resource constraints (eg :
number of engineers, capacity of buildings,…). Thus far, we have assumed that the
different projects have the same resource requirements. In this section, we develop an
approach for situations where the choices have differing resource needs.
If there is a fixed supply of the resource so that you cannot undertake all possible
opportunities, then the firm must choose the best set of investments it can make given
the resources it has available: the manager’s goal is to choose the projects that maximize
the total NPV while staying within her budget.
Example
Table : possible projects requiring warehouse space
While project A has the highest NPV, it uses up the entire budget. Projects B and C can
both be undertaken.
NPV exceeds the NPV of project A. Thus, with a budget of $100 million, the best choice is
to take projects B and C for a combined NPV of $150 million, compared to just $110
million for project 1 alone.
Nb : Don’t only take into account NPV when you have resource constraints! Use the
profitability index (which should be the highest possible).
39
B) Profitability index
In the table, we included the profitability index, which measures the “bang for your
buck”-that is, the value created in terms of NPV per unit of resource consumed. This ratio
tells us that for every dollar invested in Project 1, we will generate $1 in value. Both
projects 2 and 3 generate higher NPVs per dollar invested than project 1, which indicates
that they will use the available project more efficiently.
After computing the profitability index, we can rank projects based on it. Starting with
the project with the highest index, we move down the ranking, taking all projects until
the resource is consumed.
Example
The real solution is to hire more engineers but let’s supposed that it’s not possible.
Best project : A F E router C D B (worst)
Although the profitability index is simple to compute and use, for it to be completely
reliable, two conditions must be satisfied:
1) The set of projects taken following the profitability index ranking completely exhausts
the available resource.
2) There is only a single relevant resource constraint.
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5 EVA or Economic Value Added : decision rule
= When your capital/investment lasts forever (profit from the difference between
cashflows and +- investment).
EVA is the profit earned by the firm less the cost of financing the firm's capital. The idea
is that value is created when the return on the firm's economic capital employed is
greater than the cost of that capital.
In other words, Economic Value Added is a performance ratio that determines the true
economic profitability of a corporation because it factors in net operating income after
taxes & interest minus the opportunity cost of capital deployed to earn that net
operating income. In other words, Economic Value Added shows whether the financial
performance of a company exceeds or is below the minimum required rate of return for
shareholders or business lenders. Economic Value Added tells investors whether the
amount of capital they have invested in to the business is generating them higher return
than their minimum, or if it is better to invest the capital elsewhere.
Example
4. Finally we calculate de capital costs and the economic value added. Here: capital
cost: $35 million
($250 million x à,14) , EVA: profit – capital cost : $35million - $35 million (14% 250
000).
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FFF should make the investment if the cost of capital is below 14%!
Example
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6. Choosing between long- and short-lived equipment : decision rule
The Equivalent Annual Cost (EAC) of an asset is the annual cost of owning and
operating an asset over its lifetime. It is a series of equal annual payments that has the
same Present Equivalent Value (PEV) as the PEV of the actual costs of owning and
operating the asset. The EAC is often used to compare the costs associated with assets or
projects having different cost distributions or different lifetimes, and to determine the
optimum replacement time of an asset.
The EAC is calculated by finding the Present Equivalent Value of the lifetime of owning
the asset and then determining the equal, annual series of payments, basically an
annuity, having the same Present Equivalent Value (PEV):
Example
Suppose you have to choose among two machines which do exactly the same job.
- Machine A costs 15,000$ and lasts for 3 years. It costs 4000$/year to run it.
- Machine B is an “economy” model costing 10,000$ and lasting 2 years. Maintenance
costs are 6000$/year
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A : NPV = 15 000 – 4000 x = 25 692
Annuity PV = x(1- ) = 10 692
B : NPV = 10 000 – 6000 x = 21 000
Annuity PV = x(1- ) = 10 998
B is cheaper (NPV higher) but in 3 years, the machine B will have to be replaced so it’s
not a good methodology to make a decision (because of the different durations).
When we have different durations, the solution is to use the Equivalent Annual Cost
which is the yearly cash flow of the annuity with the same PV.
Should we choose Machine B which has the lowest PV cost? Not necessarily, because this
cost is spread over 3 years (year 0, 1 and 2) while A is spread over 4 years
Machine A has the lowest equivalent annual cost We choose machine A!
We must divide the NPV by the annuity factor, which takes the nr of years and the
discount rate into account.
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3. Exercises : NPV
3.1. Session 1 : New motor
You have just been hired as the new financial manager of a company. This company has
a great 10-year project, given the high oil price: a new, fuel-efficient motor.
Project data
1. Capital expenditure: $8 million for new machinery and $1 200 000 for a
warehouse extension. We assume a salvage value for the warehouse (1 million) and
machinery (0.5 million)
2. R&D: last year, the company spent 10 million researching this new motor
2.bis. The company has a building: you don't need to buy one. (note: if rented out to
someone else: rented for 200 000$)
3. Changes in working capital: inventories in year t are assumed to be 7% of
revenues in year t+1. “Receivables less payables” amount to 3.5% of revenues in
year t.
4. Machine Depreciation is normally based on 7-year MACRS, but keep it simple and
make it linear.
5. Inflation is 2%
6. Revenues: sales are as follow- 2000 motors in year 1, 4000 motors in year 2 and
10000 motors thereafter. The sales price will decline from $4000 to $3000 per
motor as the competition enters in year 3. We add up inflation.
7. Operating costs: we assume unit costs to be $2000 in real terms ; we add up
inflation to get nominal cost.
8. No interest charge - unlevered project
8. Overhead: we assume incremental costs to be 5% of revenue (only marketing
costs) - ADMIN COSTS are a fixed overhead of 1 million/year
9. Cost of capital is 15%
Comments :
1: Capital expenditure = 8M + 1,2M = 9,2M
2 : Sunk costs from last year.
2. bis : opportunity cost = selling, gen & admin.
3: the increase in inventory is a cash flow
4: Depreciation = capital expenditure / n = 9,2M / 10
7: Cost of goods sold
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8: It’s not incremental! It’s essential to make a clear difference between incremental
(=costs from the project) and fixed overheads.
9: Discount rate (capital = equity + long-term debts).
Discount factor :
Y0 Y1 Y2 Y3
1
= 0,87 =0,76 =0,66
Revenue(sales) :
Year 0 1 2 3
Unit price - 4,000 4,080 3,000x
Unit cost - 2,000 2,040 2,000 x
3,1212+2,0308= 5,202
Quantity 2,000 4,000 10,000
Revenue = sales 8,000(000) 16,320(000) 31,212
16,320(000) = 4000 motors x (4000 x 1,02) 4000 per motor and 1,02 = inflation
Marketing costs = - 5% x 8000 = - 400 + opportunity costs (-200) = -600
EBIT : 4000 – 400 – 200 – 920 = 2,480
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Y O 1 2 3
Incremental earning
forecast
1. Sales 8,000 16,320 31,212
2. Cost of goods sold -4,000 -8,160 -20,808
3. Gross profit - - -
4. Selling, gen & admin -600 -1,016 -1,760.6
5. R&D - - -
6. Depreciation -920 -920 -920
7. EBIT 0 2,480 6,224 7,723
8. Income tax at 35% 0 -868 -2,178 -2,703
9. Unlevered net 1,612 4,045 5,020
income
Free cash flow
10. Plus : Depreciation - 920 920 920 etc.
11. Less : Cap 9,200(920x10years)
Expenditure
12. Less : -Δ NWC -560 -862 -1,334 -565
Cash flows from -9,760 1,670 3,631 5,376
operations(CFF0) (1,612 + 920 –
(syn : free cash flow) 862)
= Net income + depreciation
+ cap expenditure +(-Δ
NWC)
Discount Factor 1
( )
14.Discounted cash -9,760 1,452 2759,56 3548,16
flows (1670 x 0,87) (2,746 : (3,534 :
arrondis !!) arrondis!!)
NPV - 2,027
(-9,760 + 1452,9 +
2759,56 + 3548,16)
Inventory (We think = 560 (7% of 8000) 1142(7% of 2,185 2,229
about the future) 7% revenue of next 16330)
year 3.5%
revenue of
this year
+ Receivables 0 571 1,092
- Payables 280 (3,5% of
(3,5% of 8,000) 16,320)
=NWC 560 1,422 2,756 3,320
(560+0) (1142+280)
Δ NWC 560 862 1,334 564
We have the evolution (1,422-560) (3,320-2,756)
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Nb : NWC= Net Working capital = Current Assets – Current liabilities = Cash + inventory +
receivables – payables.
Why 7% revenue of next year? Why isn’t it for this year? We are thinking in advance!
They manage their inventory proactively in this case.
We should invest in the project because the NWC increases every year.
Why is the sign of “Δ NWC “ negative? We are increasing the inventory so we have to pay
for that, it’s not free Negative cash flows! (Exam! Don’t forget the negative sign).
= The estimated value that an asset will realize upon its sale at the end of its useful life.
Nb : In this class, we assume that assets are fully depreciated over their useful life. In other
words they reach a book value of zero on the Balance Sheet at the end of their useful life.
We sell the project data for 1.5 M. First, we are looking at the accounting and the taxes.
After, we are looking at the cash flows.
Accounting :
If we sell a machine, it will be in “Extraordinary revenue”: 1,500.
Then, we have to pay taxes: -3,5 x 1,500(profit) = -525
Extraordinary income = 975(1,500 – 525). We have to put it normally in year 11 but
here, exceptionally in 10.
Extraordinary profit = extraordinary revenue – book value (= accounting value, what
rests in the balance sheet after depreciation = purchase price – cumulative
depreciation).
The profit is fully depreciated.
Exercise
Suppose it’s a 4-year project and the cost of capital is 10%. The asset (machinery or
computers) is purchased or 1 million euros, in year 0 (now).
1. The useful life of the asset and the cost of capital is 10%. It’s sold in year 4 for 100,000
euros. Calculate the PV of this salvage value, taking taxes into account.
2. Same question if it’s sold in year 5
3. Same question it’s it’s sold in year 5 and if the useful life is 6 years.
Suppose it’s a LT project and the cost of capital is 10%. You have made detailed forecasts
for years 0 until 4. For year 5, after-tax cash flow is estimated 200,000 euros.
4. Assume stable CF beyond year 5. Calculate this terminal value. Calculate the PV (in
year 0) of this terminal value.
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5. Assume growing(2% per year) CF beyond year 5. Calculate the PV.
6. Assume decreasing (at -2% per year) CF beyond year 5. Calculate the PV.
Answers :
* The loss decreases the profit of the company decreases the taxes of the company.
PV : 5 years: = 76,580
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Exercise 4.
Exercise 5.
Exercise 6.
For calculating the discount rate, you need to know the WACC and CAPM. If it's the case
use the data below, otherwise use r=11.2% (cost of capital) : it will allow you to
calculate an unlevered net income
Question: Calculate NPV + IRR + Payback period. Do you invest? (make sure you reply
to this last question!)
Let's refer back to our session 3 on NPV of Project A. There was an investment of
1,200,000 euros in year 0. It's thus a negative cash flow (CF0=-1,200,000). It is followed
by positive cash flows: CF1, CF2, CF3, CF4.
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Starting from our negative cash position of -1.2 million, the cash position improves
every year. The cash position remains negative in year 1,2 and 3:CF0+CF1+ CF2+ CF3< 0.
The cash position becomes positive in year 4: CF0+CF1+ CF2+ CF3+ CF4 >0.
It can be concluded that: 3 <Payback Period < 4.(in this case!)
Now the only remaining question is the last fraction of year, ok?
Payback Period = 3 - (CF0+CF1+ CF2+ CF3) /CF4
The above formula is only valid in this exercise!
In the general case, replace "3" by "year of 1st positive cash position – 1".
For example, if, in another exercise, the cash position turns positive in year 3, then:
CF0+CF1+ CF2 < 0
CF0+CF1+ CF2+ CF3 > 0
It can be concluded that: 2 <Payback Period < 3
Payback Period = 2 - (CF0+CF1+ CF2)/CF3
Nb : Making a graph of the cash position in function of time will help you.
Answer: cf Ichec.campus.
The Borstal Company has to choose between two machines which do the same job but
have different lives. The two machines have the following costs:
Year Machine A Machine B
0 $ 40,000 $ 50,000
1 10,000 8000
2 10,000 8000
4 8000 + replace
A) Suppose you are Borstal’s financial manager. If you had to buy one or the other
machine, and rent it to the production manager for that machine economic life, what
annual rental payment would you have to charge? Assume a 6 percent real discount rate
and ignore taxes.
B) Which machine should Borstal buy ? Answer: cf Ichec.campus.
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4. Capital budgeting and valuation with leverage
Debts = bank loans, bonds,… BUT don’t take the payables into account!! (debts with I =
0%)
rd = cost of debt
re = cost of equity
4.1. Overview
For now, it is assumed that the firm maintains a constant debt-equity ratio and that the
WACC remains constant over time.
Because the WACC incorporates the tax savings from debt, we can compute the levered
value of an investment, by discounting its unlevered free cash flow using the WACC.
Nb : Unlevered = without the effect of debt financing.
Avco’s current market value balance sheet($ million) and cost of capital without the RFX
project.
- Avco intends to maintain a similar (net) debt-equity ratio for the foreseeable future,
including any financing related to the RFX project. Thus, Avco’s WACC is
Note that net debt = D=320-20=$300 million (but we don’t have to do it).
- The value of the project, including the tax shield from debt, is calculated as the present
value of its future free cash flows.
Condition : The WACC can be used throughout the firm as the companywide cost of
capital for new investments that are of comparable risk to the rest of the firm and that
will not alter the firm’s debt-equity ratio.
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Part III : Risk & return on the stock
market
Nb : Difficult part because of the statistics.
1. Introduction
Stocks are shares of the capital or equity of the company, which means that
stockholders are the owners of the company. A shareholder wants a return on his
investment. For the company, it’s the cost of equity (return on capital)same thing
but 2 different words.
Stocks return on average 10 to 15% per year over the long term, a part in income or
dividends, typically between 0 and 5% (dividends are usually in cash, sometimes in
stocks) and a part in capital gains [plus-values].
Stocks are sold to the public through a flotation called Initial Price Offering (IPO)=
primary market. An initial public offering (IPO) or stock market launch, is the first sale of
stock by a private company to the public (prix de 1ère emission sur le marché primaire =
de banque à actionnaire! Ce n’est pas la bourse).
IPO can be used by either small or large companies to raise expansion capital and
become publicly traded enterprises (transforms the private company to the public
company). When a company makes an IPO, it has to inform the possible shareholders
about all the risks. It’s a bit liability of the company lies!
Many companies that undertake an IPO also request the assistance of an Investment
Banking firm acting in the capacity of an underwriter to help them correctly assess the
value of their shares, that is, the share price. Companies can later increase their capital
through a secondary offering or reduce their capital through share buy-backs.
Stocks are a long-term asset (of infinite duration), freely traded in a liquid secondary
market: the stock exchange. Brokerage costs (frais de courtage) vary often between
0.3% and 1.5%. (the market price of a share has no relation to the accounting value of
the share!). If we go to a normal bank, we’ll have to pay more brokerage costs (if you
open an online bank account, it costs less because there’s no physical office,…). The
future profits of the company are included in the market price.
Nb : The book value is in accounting(B&S). Often, the market price is higher than the book
value (except in periods of recession).
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2. Ratios
2.1. Accounting ratios
Earnings per share (EPS) = the amount of earnings per each outstanding share of a
company's stock.
net accounting earnings(profit after taxes)/number of shares.
Book value of 1 share = the value of an asset according to its balance sheet account balance
(not really interesting) accounting(book) value of equity/nb of shares.
The LT capital gains comes from earnings which have been invested! It’s the difference with
financial ratios.
Market Value/Book Value (for equity) = the price at which an asset would trade in a
competitive auction setting/the value of an asset according to its balance sheet account
balance.
Stock price (on the stock exchange) / book value of 1 share.
Dividend yield = he company's total annual dividend payments divided by its market
capitalization, or the dividend per share, divided by the price per share
yearly dividend/share price
Price-to-earning ratio (P/E) = a measure of the price paid for a share relative to the
annual net income or profit earned by the firm per share. The P/E ratio can therefore
alternatively be calculated by dividing the company's market capitalization by its total
annual earnings. It’s the one we use!
Stock price (on the stock exchange) / earnings per share(EPS). Usually 10,12.
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3. Returns
Advice : If we invest in bonds/shares, we should diversify and not take any currency risks in
bonds (If we live in Europe, we should invest in euros).
Profit is income + capital gain (or income - capital loss). It’s in $ or euros!
Return is the ratio of money gained or lost on an investment relative to the amount of
money invested. It’s profit/initial investment. It’s in % ! (daily, monthly or annual
return).
Eg : The stock price for Stock A was $10 per share 1 year ago. The stock is currently
trading at $9.50 per share, and shareholders just received a $1 dividend. What return was
earned over the past year?
= 5%
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Under uncertainty : r is not known in advance.
If you have to choose among 2 risky assets (such as stocks stock exchanges), it is more
complicated! Investors want to maximise returns, but minimise risks (but it’s
contradictory!).
Under uncertainty, there are 2 dimensions: return r and risk s or (standard deviation).
3.2. Definitions
Standard Deviation = σ, is a
statistical measure of the
variability of a distribution
around its mean. It’s the
square root of the variance.
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1 + Rtotal = (1+R1) x (1+R2) Geometric (used in finance)
Risk = standard deviation of return = volatility (which measure the total risk of a stock
or portfolio of stocks).
We use the geometric average in Finance! We suppose that a first period is followed by a
second one, se we have to compound (and not simply add). The difference between
arithmetic and geometric is small but it’s ok of we use the arithmetic average (still a
good approximation).
3.3. Examples
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Huge volatility for S&P 500 and small
stocks (on a year basis).
3.4. Portfolios
What happens to Risk and Return when we combine different shares to form a
PORTFOLIO of equities?
Portfolio Weights (xi) = The fraction of the total investment in each individual
investment in the portfolio. The portfolio weights must add up to 1.00 or 100%. It’s
usually included between 0 and 1.
0 ≤ xi ≤ 1.
Example: Suppose you invest $10 000 in Ford stock, and $30 000 in Tyco International
Stock. You expect a return of 10% for Ford and 16% for Tyco. What is your portfolio
expected return?
You invested $40 000 in total, so your portfolio weights 10 000/40 000 = 0,25 in Ford
and 30 000/40 000 = 0,75 in Tyco. Therefore, your portfolio’s expected return is: E[Rp] =
xFE[RF] + xT
E[RT] = 0,25 x 10% + 0,75 x 16% = 14,5%.
From the past: realised return of a portfolio (Rp ) is the weighted average of the
returns on the investments in the portfolio, where the weights correspond to portfolio
weights.
The Future: the expected return of a portfolio is the weighted average of the expected
returns of the investments within it.
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It’s the same formula for the past or the future. The difference is that we know the
numbers for the past so the return is completely different for the future.
Example : Portfolio with 200 shares of Walt Disney Company worth $30 per share and
100 shares of Coca-Cola worth $40 per share. Total value of the portfolio = 200 x $30 +
100 x $40 = $10 000, and the portfolio weights xD(60%) and XC( 4 0 % )
Summary
- By combining stocks into a portfolio, we reduce risk through diversification.
- The amount of risk that is eliminated in a portfolio depends on the degree to which the
stocks face common risks and their prices move together.
That’s why we insist so much on diversification ( not only different companies but also
different sectors, because a company from a same sector face the same risks).
To find the risk of a portfolio, we need to know more than the return of the component
stocks: we need to know the degree to which the stocks face common risks and their
returns move together.
Covariance: is the expected product of the deviations of two returns from their means.
The covariance between two different returns Ri and Rj
- If two stocks move together, their returns will tend to be above or below average at
the same time, and the covariance will be positive.
- If the stocks move in opposite directions, one will tend to be above average when
the other is below average, and the covariance will be negative.
If one goes up, the other goes down in exactly the same proportion. But with the
correlation, if 1 goes up, you don’t know what the other will do (because they are
independent).
Correlation = a measure of the common risk shared by stocks that doesn’t depend on
their volatility. While the sign of the covariance is easy to interpret, its magnitude is not.
It will be larger if the stocks are more volatile (and so have larger deviations from their
expected returns).
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Correlation measures how returns move in relation to each other. It is between-1
(returns always move oppositely) and +1 (returns always move together). Independent
risks have no tendency to move together and have zero correlation.
Note: the volatility (SD, standard deviation) is the square foot of the variance.
There is a strong correlation because Dell & Microsoft are in the same sector. Dell &
Alaska have the same volatility but lower correlation (because different sectors). In this
case, there is no advantage from diversification.
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Nb : Risk lover : really want to maximize his profitability/profit.
Exercice :
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Correlation has no effect on the expected return of a portfolio. However, the volatility of
the portfolio will differ depending on the correlation. The lower the correlation, the
lower the volatility we obtain (risk).
We have only considered portfolio’s in which we invest a positive amount in each stock
(=long position). But it is also possible to invest a negative amount in a stock (= short
position), by engaging in a short sale (=a transaction in which you sell a stock that you do
not own, with the obligation to buy it in the future) We can include a short position as
part of a portfolio by assigning that stock a negative portfolio weight.
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Efficient frontier with 10 stocks vs 3
stocks
Example
Summary on the relationship between Risk and Return among PORTFOLIOS and among
individual SHARES (stocks):
• What did we learn from PORTFOLIO theory?
-We learned that for their portfolio, investors prefer high return and low risk : they
prefer efficient portfolios : portfolios situated on the efficient frontier.
-Which portfolio exactly? It depends on the risk aversion of each investor.
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• What did we learn from CAPITAL MARKETS theory?
-When introducing risk-free assets (= government bonds or T-bills), the efficient frontier
becomes a straight line: the Capital Market Line (CML)
-all portfolios on the CML are a combination of x% in the risk-free asset and (1-x)% in M,
the Market portfolio of all risky securities (= the whole market of listed stocks).
Question 1
Consider that Stock A with E[r]=12%, and =25% and Stock B with E[r]=18%, and
=40% are correlated with a correlation coefficient of 0.8. Calculate the expected return,
the variance and the standard deviation for an equally weighted portfolio.
Make a graph of the evolution of risk and return in function of the weight in stock A.
Taking risk and return into consideration where would you invest? In A, in B or in the
equally weighted portfolio?
Question 2
2.1. Where do we have the best benefit from diversification?
=1
<1
=0
<0
=-1
2.2. Prove what you just said:
Calculate the weights to reach a zero-risk portfolio(sigma =0) with: Stock A having an
expected return E[r]=12%, and =25%; and Stock B having an expected return
E[r]=18%, and =40%; if they have a correlation coefficient of –1.
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Question 3
If two securities have the following risks 1= 40% (which is a typical stock eg “Suez”)
and 2= 0% (which is the risk-free asset) and the following returns: r1=15% and
r2=5%.
3.1. What is the correlation coefficient: =?
3.2. Construct a portfolio with a risk of 20%: which are its weights?
3.3. What is the expected return of this portfolio?
Question 4
A mutual fund claims to have outperformed the market, with a return of 14%, while the
Dow Jones Stoxx index (Rm) made +12%.
If the current risk-free interest rate (Rf) is 5% and you discover that the Beta of this
mutual fund is 1.4, is their claim correct?
Tip: calculate the expected return of this mutual fund. Formula of CAPM.
Stock A B C
Beta 1.2 0.9 1.8
Weights in the portfolio 40% 30% 30%
What is the expected return of each stock and of the portfolio, according to the CAPM,
using the market data (Rf and Rm) given above in question 4?
Question 6
Using the market data (Rf(0,05) and Rm(0,12)) given above in question 4, suppose you
want to reach an expected return of 10% for your portfolio, what would be its
composition [percentage in Treasury bills and percentage in stocks] and its beta?
Question 7
Keep the same Rf as above.
7.1. What is the expected return on the stock “Carrefour” if the Expected return of the
stock market is 12.5% and Carrefour’s Beta is 0.9?
7.2. Analysts are very optimistic today: they believe that the stock market will return
20% more than its long term average of 12.5% (they mean 20% of 12.5%, or 2.5%/year
above its long term average). What is the expected return on the stock “Carrefour” if you
share their optimism?
7.3. Use the above expected return on the stock “Carrefour" as the DISCOUNT RATE to
calculate the theoretical value of the share. The dividend is 1 euro/year. Assume a
perpetuity.
Answer : ichec.campus.
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4.2. Session 6
-investors use the (past) mean to measure the expected rate of (future) return
-and (past) variance to measure the risk of (future) return
-investors are risk averse
-investors can borrow or lend money at the risk-free rate rf
-all investors have the same expectations and investment horizon
-there are no taxes, no transaction costs, no inflation and interest rates do not change !!
-the capital markets are in equilibrium
The total risk as measured by variance or standard deviation can be split in two parts:
Total risk=systematic (non-diversifiable) risk+ unsystematic (diversifiable) risk.
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The unsystematic risk or firm-specific risk (DIVERSIFIABLE) is the risk that affects
only one stock: it is specific to the company or to its industry or sector.
-This risk disappears thanks to the diversification, as the number of stocks in the
portfolio increases
The systematic risk is measured by the Beta or ß: the Beta measures how the return on
the stock varies in reaction to changes in the market:
It’s as statistical definition of Beta : it’s a covariance between the stock (Ri) and the
market (Rm) divided by the variance of the market.
The Beta of a portfolio measures how the return on the portfolio varies in reaction to
changes in the market:
The Beta of the MARKET PORTFOLIO M is 1. The Beta of the risk-free asset is 0. Stocks
that are riskier than average have a Beta >1. Stocks less risky than average have a
Beta <1.
The CAPM equation states that the risk premium of any security is
equal to the market risk premium multiplied by the beta of the security. This
relationship is called the security market line, and it determines the required return for
an investment.
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Only the systematic risk(measured by Beta) should be rewarded by an extra return!
(Unsystematic risk is not rewarded since it disappears in the portfolio construction
process: it is thus NOT related to return!)
The CAPM predicts that the Expected Return on a stock is linearly related to its Beta,
where E(Rm)-Rf is the market risk premium (or the extra return expected to
compensate for taking the risk of investing in stocks). It is the Securities Market Line, the
line along which all individual securities should lie when plotted according to their
expected return and beta. (Do not confuse it with the CML => did you notice that we use
Beta here for the X-axis?)
-We use the CAPM(Capital Asset Pricing Model) to determine the expected rate of
return for a risky asset (stocks,commodities, gold…)
if beta>1, the Expected return> E(Rm) > market
if beta<1, the Expected return< E(Rm) < market
We use the CAPM to calculate the VALUE of an asset: the equation gives you the
required return “r”, and you use it to discount future cash flows:
a) CML = Capital Market Line : use to show the rates of return (depending on risks)
b) SML = Security Market Line : representation of the market ‘risk and return at a given
time.
There is a linear relationship between a stock’s beta and its expected return. The
security market line (SML) is graphed as the line through the risk-free investment and
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the market. According to the CAPM, if the expected return and beta for individual
securities are plotted, they should all fall along the SML.
Exercise :
We start with the cost of equity and finish with WACC. Note : this is a simple case in
which the company has no debt.
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IF THERE IS A DEBT, we have to use the WACC (weighted average cost of capital) is
the rate that a company is expected to pay on average to all its security holders to
finance its assets.
The WACC is the minimum return that a company must earn on existing asset base to
satisfy its creditors, owners, and other providers of capital, or they will invest elsewhere.
6. Market efficiency
6.1. Introduction
Normal distribution
Market efficiency :
- Do prices accurately reflect available information? Do they react quickly?
- If prices are efficient, then an investor cannot earn an “abnormal” or “excess” return
- This is not the same thing as not being able to earn a positive return
Theoretical example
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The reaction also depends on the volume : is the share traded everyday?
6.2. Misconceptions
- Efficient markets do not mean you can’t earn money: what you earn should be
appropriate for the level of risk
- While all securities should be priced correctly in an efficient market, this does not
reduce the need for diversification
Strong form: all information, including private and public, are built into prices
Insider trading profits suggest that markets are NOT “strong form efficient”
Semistrong form: all publicly available information is built into prices
Weak form: all historic information (but not current public information) is built into
prices
Empirical studies suggest that US markets are generally at least weak form and possibly
semi strong
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Part IV : The capital structure of
companies ( corporate finance)
Part A : Capital structure in a perfect market : no taxes
Question of a financial manager : Should increase debt or equity because of a new project?
Capital structure = The relative proportions of debt, equity, and other securities that a
firm has outstanding.
1.2. Exercises
The project cash flows depend on the overall economy and thus contain market risk. As
a result, you demand a 10% risk premium over the current risk-free interest rate of 5%
to invest in this project.
- If you finance this project using only equity, how much would you be willing to pay for
the project?
If you can raise $1000 by selling equity in the firm, after paying the investment cost of
$800, you can keep the remaining $200, the NPV of the project NPV, as a profit.
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2) Financing a firm with unlevered equity
= Equity in a firm with no debt
Because there is no debt, the cash flows of the unlevered equity are equal to those of the
project.
Cash flows for unlevered equity :
When a listed company announces a new project, the value immediately goes up. Listed
companies are fully equity-financed.
Levered Equity(for a levered project) = Equity in a firm that also has debt outstanding
Given the firm’s $525 debt obligation, your shareholders will receive only $875 ($1400 –
$525 = $875) if the economy is strong and $375 ($900 – $525 = $375) if the economy is
weak.
First we need to calculate the debt CF.
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With perfect capital markets, the total value of a firm should not depend on its capital
structure. The firm’s total cash flows still equal the cash flows of the project, and
therefore have the same present value.
There is no tax advantage from the debts. The value of the firm comes with the
project/assets. So, the total value is not function of the quantity of equity-debt, it doesn’t
change.
Because the cash flows of the debt and equity sum to the cash flows of the project, by the
Law of One Price the combined values of debt and equity must be $1000.
Therefore, if the value of the debt is $500, the value of the levered equity must be $500.
E = $1000 – $500 = $500.
Because the cash flows of levered equity are smaller than those of unlevered equity,
levered equity will sell for a lower price ($500 versus $1000).
However, you are not worse off. You will still raise a total of $1000 by issuing both debt
and levered equity. Consequently, you would be indifferent between these two choices
for the firm’s capital structure.
1.3. The effect of leverage on risk and return
The returns to equity holders are very different with and without leverage.
Unlevered equity has a return of either 40% or –10%, for an expected return of 15%.
Levered equity has higher risk, with a return of either 75% or –25%.
To compensate for this risk, levered equity holders receive a higher expected return of
25%.
The relationship between risk and return can be evaluated more formally by computing
the sensitivity of each security’s return to the systematic risk of the economy.
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Systematic Risk and Risk Premiums for Debt, Unlevered Equity, and Levered Equity
Because the debt’s return bears no systematic risk, its risk premium is zero!.
In this particular case, the levered equity has twice the systematic risk of the unlevered
equity and, as a result, has twice the risk premium.
In summary:
- In the case of perfect capital markets, if the firm is 100% equity financed, the equity(=
unlevered equity)holders will require a 15% expected return.
- If the firm is financed 50% with debt and 50% with equity, the debt holders will
receive a return of 5%, while the levered equity holders will require an expected return
of 25% (because of their increased risk).
- Leverage increases the risk of equity even when there is no risk that the firm will default.
Thus, while debt may be cheaper, its use raises the cost of capital for equity. Considering
both sources of capital together, the firm’s average cost of capital with leverage is the
same as for the unlevered firm.
Exercises :
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2 Modigliani-Miller I: Leverage, Arbitrage, and Firm Value
2.1. Introduction (!)
The Law of One Price implies that leverage will not affect the total value(=cost of
funding) of the firm. Instead, it merely changes the allocation of cash flows between debt
and equity, without altering the total cash flows of the firm.
2.2. Conditions
Modigliani and Miller (MM) showed that this result holds more generally under a set of
conditions referred to as perfect capital markets:
- Investors and firms can trade the same set of securities at competitive market prices
equal to the present value of their future cash flows.
- There are no taxes, transaction costs, or issuance costs associated with security
trading.
- A firm’s financing decisions do not change the cash flows generated by its investments,
nor do they reveal new information about them.
2.3. MM Proposition(exam!)
In a perfect capital market, the total value of a firm is equal to the market value of the
total cash flows generated by its assets and is not affected by its choice of capital structure.
Argument:
In the absence of taxes or other transaction costs, the total cash flow paid out to all of a
firm’s security holders is equal to the total cash flow generated by the firm’s assets.
Therefore, by the Law of One Price, the firm’s securities and its assets must have the
same total market value.
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The market value balance sheet of the firm :
Using the market value balance sheet, the value of equity is computed as:
Exercise :
When a firm uses borrowed funds to pay a large special dividend or repurchase a
significant amount of outstanding shares
Example:
- Harrison Industries is currently an all-equity firm operating in a perfect capital market,
with 50 million shares outstanding that are trading for $4 per share.
- Harrison plans to increase its leverage by borrowing $80 million and using the funds to
repurchase 20 million of its outstanding shares.
Initially, Harrison is an all-equity firm and the market value of Harrison’s equity is $200
million (50 million shares × $4 per share = $200 million) equals the market value of its
existing assets. After borrowing, Harrison’s liabilities grow by $80 million, which is also
equal to the amount of cash the firm has raised. Because both assets and liabilities
increase by the same amount, the market value of the equity remains unchanged.
To conduct the share repurchase, Harrison spends the $80 million in borrowed cash to
repurchase 20 million shares ($80 million ÷ $4 per share = 20 million shares.) Because
the firm’s assets decrease by $80 million and its debt remains unchanged, the market
value of the equity must also fall by $80 million, from $200 million to $120 million, for
assets and liabilities to remain balanced.
MM’s first proposition can be used to derive an explicit relationship between leverage
and the equity cost of capital.
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The return on unlevered equity (RU) is related to the returns of levered equity (RE) and
debt (RD):
The levered equity return equals the unlevered return, plus a premium due to leverage.
The amount of the premium depends on the amount of leverage, measured by the firm’s
market value debt-equity ratio, D/E.
MM Proposition II(exam) : The cost of capital of levered equity is equal to the cost of
capital of unlevered equity plus a premium that is proportional to the market value debt-
equity ratio.
Therefore, according to MM Proposition II, the expected return on equity for the levered
firm is:
Exercise :
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3.2. Capital Budgeting and the Weighted Average Cost of Capital
1) If a firm is unlevered, all of the free cash flows generated by its assets are paid out to
its equity holders. The market value, risk, and cost of capital for the firm’s assets and its
equity coincide and, therefore:
2) If a firm is levered, project rA is equal to the firm’s weighted average cost of capital.
Unlevered Cost of Capital (pretax WACC)
With perfect capital markets, a firm’s WACC is independent of its capital structure and is
equal to its equity cost of capital if it is unlevered, which matches the cost of capital of its
assets.
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With no debt, the WACC is equal to the unlevered equity cost of capital.
As the firm borrows at the low cost of capital for debt, its equity cost of capital rises. The
net effect is that the firm’s WACC is unchanged.
Exercise :
The effect of leverage on the risk of a firm’s securities can also be expressed in terms of
beta:
Unlevered Beta : A measure of the risk of a firm as if it did not have leverage, which is
equivalent to the beta of the firm’s assets.
If you are trying to estimate the unlevered beta for an investment project, you should
base your estimate on the unlevered betas of firms with comparable investments.
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Leverage amplifies the market risk of a firm’s assets, βU, raising the market risk of its
equity.
Exercises :
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Chapter Quiz :
1. How does the risk and cost of capital of levered equity compare to that of
unlevered equity? Which is the superior capital structure choice in a perfect
capital market?
2. What is a market value balance sheet?
3. In a perfect capital market, how will a firm’s market capitalization change if it
borrows in order to repurchase shares? How will its share price change?
4. With perfect capital markets, as a firm increases its leverage, how does its debt
cost of capital change? Its equity cost of capital? Its weighted average cost of
capital?
5. If a change in leverage raises a firm’s earnings per share, should this cause its
share price to rise in a perfect market?
6. Consider the questions facing Dan Harris, CFO of EBS, at the beginning of this
chapter. What answers would you give based on the Modigliani-Miller
Propositions? What considerations should the capital structure decision be
based on?
Corporations pay taxes on their profits after interest payments are deducted. Thus,
interest expense reduces the amount of corporate taxes. This creates an incentive to use
debt.
Consider Safeway, Inc. which had earnings before interest and taxes of approximately
$1.85 billion in 2008, and interest expenses of about $350 million. Safeway’s marginal
corporate tax rate was 35%.
As shown on the next slide, Safeway’s net income in 2008 was lower with leverage than
it would have been without leverage.
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Safeway’s debt obligations reduced the value of its equity. But the total amount available
to all investors was higher with leverage.
- Without leverage, Safeway was able to pay out $1,202 million in total to its investors.
- With leverage, Safeway was able to pay out $1,325 million in total to its investors.
Where does the additional $123 million come from?
Interest Tax Shield = The reduction in taxes paid due to the tax deductibility of interest.
≠net income with taxes (levered) and without taxes (unlevered)
In Safeway’s case, the gain is equal to the reduction in taxes with leverage: $648 million
− $525 million = $123 million. The interest payments provided a tax savings of 35% ×
$350 million = $123 million.
Exercise :
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4.2. Valuing the Interest Tax Shield (!!)
When a firm uses debt, the interest tax shield provides a corporate tax benefit each year.
This benefit is the computed as the present value of the stream of future interest tax
shields the firm will receive.
The cash flows a levered firm pays to investors will be higher than they would be
without leverage by the amount of the interest tax shield.
Exercise :
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B) The interest tax shield with permanent debt :
Typically, the level of future interest payments is uncertain due to changes in the
marginal tax rate, the amount of debt outstanding, the interest rate on that debt, and the
risk of the firm.
For simplicity, we will consider the special case in which the above variables are kept
constant.
Cost of equity:
Proposition II:
Where
rE is the required rate of return on levered equity
r0 is the required rate of return on unlevered equity (noted rU in previous slides)
rD is the cost of debt or interest rate.
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Again, the cost of equity rises with leverage, because the risk to equity rises
Debt-to-value Ratio : D / (E + D) of
US firms, 1975-2008
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The low leverage puzzle
Firms worldwide have similar low proportions of debt financing. Although the corporate
tax codes are similar across all countries in terms of the tax advantage of debt, personal
tax rates vary more significantly, leading to greater variation in *.
A key item missing from the analysis thus far is that increasing the level of debt
increases the probability of bankruptcy.
If bankruptcy is costly, these costs might offset the tax advantages of debt financing.
Answers:
1) We use the market value balance sheet. What’s the return on levered equity? (Re).
The risk comes from the volatility of the profit/earnings : here, the risk is higher, the
shareholder will expect more than 15%!
Re = Ru + D / E (Ru- Rd) = 0.15 + 200/800 x 0.10 = 0.175 = 17,5% (that’s what the
shareholder requires).
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2) βu = 1.0 & βd = 0 βL? What’s the levered Beta of stocks?
βe = βu + D/E x (βu – βd) 1.0 + 200/800 x (1-0) = 1.25 >< βu = 1.0 !!
It means (in terms of sensitivity) that the levered Beta is more sensitive! The stock price
of the levered company doesn’t really follow the market index, it’s more volatile so it
goes more “up and down”.
βu = 1.0 (less sensitive/volatile)
βu = 1.25 (more sensitive/volatile)
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Part C : Financial distress, managerial incentives and
information
Financial Distress : When a firm has difficulty meeting its debt obligations
Default : When a firm fails to make the required interest or principal payments on its
debt, or violates a debt covenant After the firm defaults, debt holders are given certain
rights to the assets of the firm and may even take legal ownership of the firm’s assets
through bankruptcy.
With perfect capital markets, the risk of bankruptcy is not a disadvantage of debt, rather
bankruptcy shifts the ownership of the firm from equity holders to debt holders without
changing the total value available to all investors. In reality, bankruptcy is rarely simple
and straightforward. It is often a long and complicated process that imposes both direct
and indirect costs on the firm and its investors.
The U.S. bankruptcy code was created so that creditors are treated fairly and the value of
the assets is not needlessly destroyed.
U.S. firms can file for two forms of bankruptcy protection: Chapter 7 or Chapter 11.
Chapter 11 Reorganization: It’s the more common form of bankruptcy for large
corporations (we have the same in Belgium).
- With Chapter 11, all pending collection attempts are automatically suspended, and the
firm’s existing management is given the opportunity to propose a reorganization plan.
While developing the plan, management continues to operate the business.
- The reorganization plan specifies the treatment of each creditor of the firm.
- Creditors may receive cash payments and/or new debt or equity securities of the firm.
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The value of the cash and securities is typically less than the amount each creditor is
owed, but more than the creditors would receive if the firm were shut down
immediately and liquidated.
- The creditors must vote to accept the plan, and it must be approved by the bankruptcy
court.
- If an acceptable plan is not put forth, the court may ultimately force a Chapter 7
liquidation.
The reorganization works sometimes but when it doesn’t liquidation.
(!)The direct costs of bankruptcy reduce the value of the assets that the firm’s investors
will ultimately receive. The average direct costs of bankruptcy are approximately 3% to
4% of the pre-bankruptcy market value of total assets.
(!) Given the direct costs of bankruptcy, firms may avoid filing for bankruptcy by first
negotiating directly with creditors (so you don’t have to go to the Court).
Workout = A method for avoiding bankruptcy in which a firm in financial distress
negotiates directly with its creditors to reorganize. The direct costs of bankruptcy
should not substantially exceed the cost of a workout.
While the indirect costs are difficult to measure accurately, they are often much larger
than the direct costs of bankruptcy : loss of customers, loss of suppliers, loss of
employees, loss of receivables, fire sale of assets(at a low price), management time, costs
to creditors,…
The firm picks its capital structure by trading off the benefits of the tax shield from debt
against the costs of financial distress and agency costs.
According to the tradeoff theory, the total value of a levered firm equals the value of the
firm without leverage plus the present value of the tax savings from debt, less the present
value of financial distress costs.
Three key factors determine the present value of financial distress costs:
For low levels of debt, the risk of default remains low and the main effect of an increase
in leverage is an increase in the interest tax shield.
As the level of debt increases, the probability of default increases. As the level of debt
increases, the costs of financial distress increase, reducing the value
of the levered firm.
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The tradeoff theory states that firms should increase their leverage until it reaches the
level for which the firm value is maximized (remember!)
At this point, the tax savings that result from increasing leverage are perfectly offset
by the increased probability of incurring the costs of financial distress.
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Part D : Payout policy
9. Distributions to Shareholders
9.1. Payout policy
= The way a firm chooses between the alternative ways to distribute free cash flow to
equity holders
- Dividend payout ratio = div/profit
- Total Payout ratio = (dividends + stock repurchases)/profit
Special Dividend : A one-time dividend payment a firm makes, which is usually much
larger than a regular dividend
Stock Split (Stock Dividend) : When a company issues a dividend in shares of stock
rather than cash to its shareholders
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Dividend History for GM Stock,
1983–2008
Return of Capital: When a firm, instead of paying dividends out of current earnings (or
accumulated retained earnings), pays dividends from other sources, such as paid-in-
capital or the liquidation of assets
Open Market Repurchase: When a firm repurchases shares by buying shares in the
open market Open market share repurchases represent about 95% of all repurchase
transactions.
Tender Offer : A public announcement of an offer to all existing security holders to buy
back a specified amount of outstanding securities at a prespecified price (typically set at
a 10%-20% premium to the current market price) over a prespecified period of time
(usually about 20 days). If shareholders do not tender enough shares, the firm may
cancel the offer and no buyback occurs.
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10.3.Modigliani–Miller and Dividend Policy Irrelevance
MM Dividend Irrelevance:
In perfect capital markets, holding fixed the investment policy of a firm, the firm’s
choice of dividend policy is irrelevant and does not affect the initial share price.
- Shareholders must pay taxes on the dividends they receive and they must also pay
capital gains taxes when they sell their shares.
- Dividends are typically taxed at a higher rate than capital gains. In fact, long-term
investors can defer the capital gains tax forever by not selling.
Long-Term Capital Gains Versus Dividend Tax Rates in the United States, 1971–2009
- The higher tax rate on dividends makes it undesirable for a firm to raise funds to pay a
dividend. When dividends are taxed at a higher rate than capital gains, if a firm raises
money by issuing shares and then gives that money back to shareholders as a dividend,
shareholders are hurt because they will receive less than their initial investment.
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11.2. Optimal dividend policy with taxes
When the tax rate on dividends is greater than the tax rate on capital gains, shareholders
will pay lower taxes if a firm uses share repurchases rather than dividends. This tax
savings will increase the value of a firm that uses share repurchases rather than
dividends.
The optimal dividend policy when the dividend tax rate exceeds the capital gain tax rate
is to pay no dividends at all. The payment of dividends has declined on average over
the last 30 years while the use of repurchases has increased.
The Decline in Payouts and the Use of The Changing Composition of Shareholder
Dividends Payouts
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