JAIN

DEEMED-TO-BE UNIVERSIT Y

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 MODEL QUESTION PAPER

DATABASE MANAGEMENT SYSTEMS

1. "σsales > 50000 (Customers) - identify the output for the given query."
a) Selects tuples from Customers where sales is greater than or equals to 50000
b) Selects tuples from Customers where sales is less than 50000
c) Selects tuples from Customers
d) Selects tuples from Customers where sales is greater than 50000

2. Which of the following is not a type of inner join?

a) Full Outer Join
b) EQUI join
c) Natural join
d) Theta join

3. Which of the following is not a type of outer join?

a) Left Outer Join
b) Right Outer Join
c) Full Outer Join
d) Middle Outer Join

4. Which operator performs pattern matching in SQL?

a) NOT IN only
b) IN and NOT Operator
c) LIKE Operator
d) IN Operator

5. Which of the following operator tests column for the absence of data?
a) IS NULL operator
b) IN Operator
c) EXISTS operator
d) NOT operator

6. In SQL, which command(s) is(are) used to change a table’s storage characteristics?

a) CHANGE TABLE
b) ALTERNATE TABLE
c) ALTER TABLE
d) VARIATION TABLE

7. A line of PL/SQL text contains groups of characters known as what?

a) Literals
b) Identifiers
c) Textual Units
d) Lexical units
8. Identify the term that is used to refer the PL/SQL program objects and units.
a) Identifiers
b) Delimiters
c) Textual Units
d) Literals

9. If no header is specified, in PL/SQL then that block is said to be as what?

a) Empty
b) Strong
c) Anonymous
d) Weak

10. Where do you declare an explicit cursor in the PL/SQL Language?

a) In PL/SQL working storage section
b) In PL/SQL declaration section
c) In PL/SQL body section
d) In PL/SQL head section

11. Which type of cursor is automatically declared by Oracle every time an SQL statement
is executed?
a) An Explicit
b) An Implicit
c) An Explicit and Default
d) An Explicit and An Implicit

12. Which statements execute a sequence of statements multiple times?

a) If
b) Switch
c) Exit
d) Loop

13. Which of the given statement is true about 2NF?

a) Eliminate the possibility of a insertion anomalies
b) Have a composite key
c) Have all non key fields depend on the whole primary key
d) Eliminate all hidden dependencies

14. Which of the following normal form does not supports transitivity dependency?
a) 1NF
b) BCNF
c) 2NF
d) 3NF
15. Which of the given statement is false about normal form?
a) BCNF is stricter than 5NF
b) Dependency preserving decomposition into 3NF is always possible-Lossless
c) Preserving decomposition into BCNF is always possible-Loss less
d) Any relation with two attributes is BCNF

16. Identify the ACID properties of transactions.

a) Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, Database
b) Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, Durability
c) Atomicity, Consistency, Inconsistent, Durability
d) Automatically, Concurrency, Isolation, Durability

17. When a transaction completes its execution then it is called as:

a) Saved
b) Loaded
c) Rolled
d) Committed

18. Which of the following is not a part of transaction state?

a) Active
b) Partially Committed
c) Committed
d) Halted and not executed

19. Which of the following occurs when one transaction reads a changed record that has
not been committed to the database?
a) Non Repeatable read
b) Consistent read
c) Phantom read
d) Dirty read

20. Identify the definition for specialisation.

a) Process of defining entity type subclasses
b) Process of gathering requirements
c) Process of creating Database
d) Process of creating Data Model

21. What is the size of a lock known as?

a) Shared lock
b) Implicit lock
c) Exclusive lock
d) Lock granularity
22. In which state, the transaction will wait for the final statement that has been executed?
a) Aborted
b) Failed
c) Active
d) Partially committed

23. Which of the following that allow the transaction to edit the data item?
a) Shared Mode
b) Inclusive Mode
c) Unshared Mode
d) Exclusive Mode

24. A sophisticated locking mechanism known as two-phase locking includes which of the
given phases?
a) Commit phase
b) Release phase
c) Acquire Phase
d) Growing phase and Shrinking Phase

25. Identify the class name for the following code: ABC123 course ();
a) ABC123
b) Course
c) Course()
d) CourseABC

26. Using object definition language (ODL), you can define which of the following?
a) Keys
b) Attribute, structure and Operation
c) Entity
d) Table

27. The keyword “inverse” is used in which of the following?

a) Class
b) Attribute
c) Object
d) Relationship

28. Who is responsible for database security?

a) Native users
b) System admin
c) Sophisticated user
d) The DBA
29. What is database security testing?
a) Database security testing is done not to find the loopholes in security mechanisms
b) Process of managing and testing is done not to find the loopholes in security
mechanisms
c) Database security testing is done not to find the errors in the database and it does not
provide security mechanisms
d) Database security testing is done to find the loopholes in security mechanisms

30. IBM, EMC and Boeing Co. were among the companies signing what document whose
title is reminiscent of a famous political statement?
a) Declaration of Cloud Computing
b) The Rights of Cloud
c) Mein Cloud
d) Open Cloud Manifesto
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2.3 Database Management Systems (DMS)

Continuous Assessment 3

End of quiz
You are at the end; press Finished to complete and grade the quiz.
You can review your answers below and click Edit if you want to change any.

Finished

Question 1
Identify the appropriate definition for transaction.

Response: A transaction is said to be unit of execution

Question 2
Which of the following is equivalent to multiple IF-ELSIF statements?

Response: WHILE statement

Question 3
Which of the following is used to denote the selection operation in relational algebra?

Response: Sigma

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Question 4
Which of the following statements can be used to terminate a PL/SQL loop?

Response: EXIT WHEN

Question 5
When the primary key is null for the new tuple then which of the following constraint is violated?

Response: Entity integrity constraint

Question 6
Identify the appropriate definition for Data processing.

Response: It is the method of collecting raw data and translating it into usable information

Question 7
When three or more AND and OR conditions are combined, it is easier to use which of the following SQL
keyword(s)?

Response: NOT IN only

Question 8
Which among the following constraint is used to check the uniqueness and null value of an attribute?

Response: Null Constraint

Question 9
Which normal forms simplifies and is used to eliminate the duplicate information?

Response: 1NF

Question 10
Which of the following represents single entity instance of one type related to multiple entity instance of
another type?

Response: One to many relationship

Question 11
A traditional data administrator performs which of the following roles?

Response: Protect the security of the database

Question 12

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Which of the following operations allows us to find tuples that are in one relation but are not in another?

Response: Set-difference

Question 13
Which of the following is a join condition containing an equality operator?

Response: Equijoins

Question 14
When a transaction completes its execution then it is called as:

Response: Committed

Question 15
Which of the following is NOT a fundamental operation in relational algebra?

Response: Set intersection

Question 16
"CREATE TABLE EMPLOYEE (name VARCHAR, id INTEGER)
Identify the above statement."

Response: DDL

Question 17
Which of the following normal form does not support transitive dependency?

Response: 3NF

Question 18
Identify the appropriate definition for Domain.

Response: A set of divisible values

Question 19
Which of the following is an intermediate layer between database and client servers?

Response: Application server

Question 20
In the process of specialization, which of the following is used to attach the subclasses?

Response: Lines

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Question 21
Identify the number of relations involved in binary relationship type.

Response: 2

Question 22
A single transaction failure may result into a set of transaction rollbacks, This is known as:

Response: Cascading Rollback

Question 23
Which of the following is NOT a part of transaction state?

Response: Halted and not executed

Question 24
Identify the appropriate abbreviation for ACID properties of transactions.

Response: Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, Durability

Question 25
Consider EMPLOYEE(ename,eid,salary). Which of the following should be used to find the maximum value in
the salary column?

Response: Max(salary)

Question 26
Which one of the following provides the ability to query information from the database and to insert tuples into,
delete tuples from, and modify tuples in the database?

Response: DML(Data Manipulation Language)

Question 27
Which among the following normal form, a composite attribute is converted to individual attribute?

Response: First Normal Form

Question 28
Which of the following clause is used to collect the similar values in the relation?

Response: Group By

Question 29

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If distributed transactions are well-formed and 2-phase locked, then which is the correct locking mechanism in
distributed transaction as well as in centralized database ?

Response: Two-Phase Locking

Question 30
Which normal forms has a relation that possesses data about an individual entity?

Response: 4NF

Question 31
Which keyword is used instead of the assignment operator to initialize variables?

Response: DEFAULT

Question 32
Which one of the following is used to define the structure of the relation, deleting relations and creating
schemas?

Response: DDL(Data Definition Language)

Question 33
Which of the following constraint is specified between two relations in order to maintain consistency between
them?

Response: Referential integrity constraint

Question 34
Which of the following constraint, the functional dependency is based on?

Response: Key

Question 35
Which of the following level does NOT include in three-level schema architecture?

Response: Virtual schema

Question 36
Identify the functionality of 2NF.

Response: Have all non key fields depend on the whole primary key

Question 37
Identify the role of DML precompiler.

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Response: Converts DML statements to procedure calls in host language

Question 38
Which new locks are acquired in each transaction of a first phase?

Response: Growing Phase

Question 39
Which of the following database seems to be a single database to the user, but it is actually a collection of
databases spread across several machines?

Response: Distributed Database

Question 40
Which of the following makes the transaction permanent in the database?

Response: Dirty read

Question 41
Name the term that define the state when a transaction may not always complete its execution successfully.

Response: Aborted

Question 42
Which of the following is used to declare a record?

Response: %ROWTYPE

Question 43
Which one of the following statements is NOT correct about normal forms?

Response: Loss less, dependency – preserving decomposition into BCNF is always possible

Question 44
Which of the following is backward recovery?

Response: Where the before-images are applied to the database

Question 45
A subquery in an SQL SELECT statement is enclosed using which of the following?

Response: Parenthesis -- (...)

Question 46
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The transaction log includes which of the following?

Response: The essential data of the record

Question 47
What do you call a transaction for which all committed changes are permanent?

Response: Commit

Question 48
Which of the following is a bottom-up approach for the database design that designs by examining the
relationship between attributes?

Response: Normalization

Question 49
Identify the appropriate definition for specialisation.

Response: Process of defining entity type subclasses

Question 50
Which of the following gives the detailed description of entity constraints, entity relationships and entity types?

Response: Conceptual Design

Question 51
Which of the following operator performs pattern matching?

Response: LIKE

Question 52
Which among the following command is used to remove a relation from an SQL database?

Response: Drop table

Question 53
Which of the following technique that breaks database into sub tables or sub relations so that data may be kept
in several systems?

Response: Fragmentation

Question 54
Which of the following is NOT a PL/SQL unit?

Response: Table
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Question 55
Which structure executes a sequence of statements repeatedly as long as a condition holds true?

Response: Iteration structure

Question 56
Which among the following is an example for a key attribute in employee table?

Response: Employee id

Question 57
Which of the following occurs when a transaction rereads data and finds new rows that were inserted by a
command transaction since the prior read?

Response: Phantom Read

Question 58
Which of the following eliminates duplicate tuples in a relation?

Response: Distinct

Question 59
Which of the following aggregate functions ignore null values in their input collection?

Response: Count(*)

Question 60
Which of the following is NOT true about PL/SQL constants and literals?

Response: A constant holds a value that once declared, does not change in the program.

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2.3 Database Management Systems (DMS)

Introduction to Databases

01 Unit : Practice Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

Submissions
Here are your latest answers:

Question 1
Which of the following is/are characteristics of databases?

Response: All of these

Correct answer: All of these

Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 2
______ package does not belong DBMS.

Response: All are DBMS packages

Correct answer: All are DBMS packages

Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 3
Which of the following is an advantage of the database management approach?

Response: None of these

Correct answer: Data is integrated and can be accessed by multiple programs

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 4
Time period of Hierarchical Network database was ______.

Response: From the 1960s through the 1980s

Correct answer: 1970s – 1990s

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 5
DDL stands for

Response: Data Definition Language

Correct answer: Data Definition Language

Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 6
Before the use of DBMS, information was stored in:

Response: File Management System

Correct answer: File Management System

Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 7
Which of the following two files used during operation of the DBMS?

Response: Data dictionary and transaction log

Correct answer: Data dictionary and transaction log

Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 8
Which of the following is called a collection of objects that use common structure and a common behavior?

Response: Object

Correct answer: Class

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 9
The DBMS is the software that interacts with the ______ and the database.

Response: User’s application programs

Correct answer: User’s application programs

Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 10
Which of the following type of information is used by top level managers?

Response: Operational information

Correct answer: Strategic information

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 11
What does data dictionary tell the DBMS?

Response: All of these

Correct answer: All of these

Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 12
Schema is ______.

Response: All of these

Correct answer: All of these

Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 13
DBMS stands for:

Response: Database Management System

Correct answer: Database Management System

Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 14
Which of the following is independent design Software and hardware?
Response: [none]

Correct answer: Conceptual

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 15
Examples of application database are ______.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: All of these

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 16
The database schema is written in:

Response: [none]

Correct answer: DML

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 17
DBMS helps achieve:

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Both a. and b.

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 18
The Object based data models are used to define the abstraction ______ level.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Conceptual and view

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 19
Time period of Relational databases was ______.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: 1980s to the present

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 20
Database is an organised collection of:

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Data

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 21
Which of the followings keys involved in relationship between tables?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: A. and B.

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 22
______ is known as an abstraction concept for building a composite object from their component object.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Aggregation

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 23
Time period of Hierarchical database was ______.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: 1970s – 1990s

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 24
______ is not an object-based logical model.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: The infological model

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 25
Data processing is also known as:

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Information processing

Score: 0 out of 1 No
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2.3 Database Management Systems (DMS)

Database Models & Architecture

02 Unit : Practice Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

Submissions
Here are your latest answers:

Question 1
The form of the data model which focuses the concepts in the same way as the data stored in computer system is

Response: Dynamic Data Models

Correct answer: Low Level Data Models

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 2
Which of the following is used in the application programs to request data from the database management system?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Data Manipulation language

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 3
Which of the following objects in DBMS belongs to the same structure and behaves in the same way?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Same Class Objects

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 4
Which form of data model provides useful concepts for end-users and are also close to the way it is stored in a computer system?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Both a and b

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 5
In a relational database management system, the server is classified as

Response: [none]

Correct answer: SQL server

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 6
Which of the following tasks come under DML?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: All of these

Score: 0 out of 1 No
Question 7
Which of the following refers to the number of attributes in a relation?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Degree

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 8
Which of the following refers collection of the information stored in a database at a specific time?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Instance of the database

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 9
The data communication system and the database management system is also considered as

Response: [none]

Correct answer: All of the above

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 10
The architecture of database in which the characteristics such as program insulations, multiple user support and the use of catalogs are achieved is classified as

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Three-Schema Architecture

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 11
Which one of the following commands is used to restore the database to the last committed state?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Rollback

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 12
Which of the followings are DBMS Languages?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: All of these

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 13
OODM stands for ______.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Object-Oriented Data Model

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 14
The term “DFD” stands for?
Response: [none]

Correct answer: Data flow diagram

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 15
The database management system can be considered as the collection of ______ that enables us to create and maintain the database.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Programs

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 16
Which of the following tasks come under DDL?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: All of these

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 17
Which of the following commands is used to save any transaction permanently into the database?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Commit

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 18
Which one of the following commands is used for removing (or deleting) a relation forms the SQL database?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Drop

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 19
In the relational table, which of the following can also be represented by the term “attribute”?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Column

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 20
In the three-tier architecture, the intermediate layer between database and client servers is classified as

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Application Server

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 21
Which of the following commands is used to delete the existing row in a table?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Delete

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 22
Which of the following software provides access to the database from a remote location with the help of workstations, local PCs and computer terminals?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Communications Software

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 23
The database system which supports the majority of concurrent users is classified as

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Multiuser System

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 24
Which of the following is component of an ER diagram?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: All of these

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 25
The state in a database management system that satisfies the constraints and specified schema structure is classified as

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Valid State

Score: 0 out of 1 No
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2.3 Database Management Systems (DMS)

Entity-Relationship (ER) Model

03 Unit : Practice Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

Submissions
Here are your latest answers:

Question 1
Not applicable condition can be represented in relation entry as ______.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: NULL

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 2
An oval represents which of the following in an EER?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Attribute

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 3
In ER model the details of the entities are hidden from the user. This process is called ______.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Abstraction

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 4
Entity is a ______.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Thing in real world

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 5
The function that an entity plays in a relationship is called that entity’s ______.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Role

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 6
Weak entity set is represented as ______.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Double diamond

Score: 0 out of 1 No
Question 7
The attribute name could be structured as an attribute consisting of first name, middle initial and last name. This type of attribute is called ______.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Composite attribute

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 8
Which of the following can be a multivalued attribute?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Phone number

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 9
In relation between the entities the type and condition of the relation should be specified. That is called as ______ attribute.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Descriptive

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 10
The entity relationship set is represented in E-R diagram as ______.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Diamond

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 11
The attribute AGE is calculated from DATE_OF_BIRTH. The attribute AGE is

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Derived

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 12
E-R modeling technique is a ______.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Top-down approach

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 13
A supertype/subtype hierarchy is which of the following?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Each subtype has only one supertype.

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 14
Which one of the following symbols is not used in an ERD?
Response: [none]

Correct answer: Circle

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 15
Which of the following is a single-valued attribute?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Register number

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 16
A many to many relationships between two entities usually results in how many tables?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Three

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 17
In E-R diagram generalisation is represented by ______.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Triangle

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 18
An ______ is a set of entities of the same type that share the same properties, or attributes.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Entity set

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 19
Every weak entity set can be converted into a strong entity set by ______

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Adding Appropriate Attributes

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 20
The total participation by entities is represented in E-R diagram as ______.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Double line

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 21
The descriptive property possessed by each entity set is ______.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Attribute

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 22
An action assertion must include which of the following?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: All of these

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 23
A rectangle represents which of the following in an EER?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Entity

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 24
We indicate roles in E-R diagrams by labelling the lines that connect ______ to ______.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Diamond, rectangle

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 25
Ellipses represent ______.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Attributes

Score: 0 out of 1 No
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Semesters
Relational Data Model

04 Unit : Practice Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

Submissions
Here are your latest answers:

Question 1
In relational model terminology, the table is considered as __________________.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Relation

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 2
In the data model, the inherent constraints are classified as .

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Implicit constraints

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 3
The constraint violated when the given value of attribute is not included in the corresponding domain is .

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Domain constraint

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 4
The type of constraint in which the value of each attribute (X) must be an indivisible value from the domain (X) is classified as ____________________ .

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Domain constraint

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 5
The format or data type must be specified for _________________________ .

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Domain

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 6
In a relation schema, each key of schema having more than one key is classified as .

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Candidate key

Score: 0 out of 1 No
Question 7
The model in which the multi-valued and composite attributes is considered as ________________ .

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Flat relational model

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 8
The cardinality in relational data model is considered as .

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Total number of values

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 9
When the primary key is null of the new tuple then the constraint violated is __________________

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Entity integrity constraint

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 10
Choose the correct statement regarding super keys.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: A super key is an attribute or a group of multiple attributes that can uniquely identify a tuple

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 11
What is the method of specifying a primary key in a schema description?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: By underlining it using a bold line

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 12
An attribute is a _____________in a relation.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Column

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 13
If two or more constraints are violated by using insert operation then by default the ______________________ .

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Insert is rejected

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 14
What is an Instance of a Database?
Response: [none]

Correct answer: The state of the database system at any given point in time

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 15
The constraints which deal with the changes in the database are classified as .

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Transition constraints

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 16
In formal relational model, the set of indivisible values is called _____________ .

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Domain

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 17
What is a foreign key?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: A foreign key is an attribute of a relation that is a primary key of another relation

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 18
The multi-valued dependencies and functional dependencies are classified as a category of ________________ .

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Data dependencies

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 19
In the data model schemas, the constraints that are cannot be expressed directly are classified as
.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: All of the above

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 20
The key which specifies that two different tuples cannot have the same value is classified as _____________________

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Super key

Score: 0 out of 1 No
Home

2.3 Database Management Systems (DMS)

Relational Algebra

05 Unit : Practice Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

Submissions
Here are your latest answers:

Question 1
The _____________________ operation, denoted by allows us to find tuples that are in one relation but are not in another.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Set-difference

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 2
Relational Algebra is a _______________ query language that takes two relation as input and produces another relation as an output of the query.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Procedural

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 3
The assignment operator is denoted by

Response: [none]

Correct answer: <-

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 4
Which is a join that condition contains an equality operator?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Equijoins

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 5
Which of the following is a unary operation?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Generalized selection

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 6
Which of the following is not outer join?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: All of the mentioned

Score: 0 out of 1 No
Question 7
Which of the following is a fundamental operation in relational algebra?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: None of the mentioned

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 8
Which of the following is a fundamental operation in relational algebra ?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: None of the mentioned

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 9
Relational Algebra is a ________________query language that takes two relations as input and produces another relation as an output of the query.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Procedural

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 10
In precedence of set operators, the expression is evaluated from

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Left to right

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 11
For select operation the ____________appear in the subscript and the argument appears in the parenthesis after the sigma.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Predicates, Relation

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 12
Which of the following is used to denote the selection operation in relational algebra?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Sigma (Greek)

Score: 0 out of 1 No
Home

2.3 Database Management Systems (DMS)

Structured Query Language

06 Unit : Practice Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

Submissions
Here are your latest answers:

Question 1
1. Employee has 10 records. It has a non-NULL SALARY column which is also UNIQUE. The SQL statement
Table

SELECT COUNT(*) FROM Employee WHERE SALARY > ANY (SELECT SALARY FROM EMPLOYEE);

prints

Response: [none]

Correct answer:

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 2
Which is the subset of SQL commands used to manipulate Oracle Database structures, including tables?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Data Definition Language(DDL)

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 3
6. The SQL statement
SELECT SUBSTR(‘123456789’, INSTR(‘abcabcabc’, ‘b’), 4) FROM DUAL;
Result:

Response: [none]

Correct answer: 2345

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 4
Which of the SQL statements is correct?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: SELECT Username, Password FROM Users

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 5
Let the statement: SELECT column1 FROM myTable; return 10 rows.
The statement: SELECT ALL column1 FROM myTable; will return

Response: [none]

Correct answer: exactly 10 rows

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 6
In embedded SQL, the per-compiler translates the SQL statements inside the code blocks into the appropriate.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: 3GL statement

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 7
Which operator performs pattern matching?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: LIKE operator

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 8
A command that lets you change one or more fields in a record is

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Modify

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 9
In SQL, which command is used to SELECT only one copy of each set of duplicable rows

Response: [none]

Correct answer: SELECT DISTINCT

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 10
What is the full form of SQL?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Structured Query Language

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 11
In SQL, which command(s) is(are) used to change a table’s storage characteristics?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: ALTER TABLE

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 12
Which of the following is illegal?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: None of the Mentioned

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 13
Find the temperature in increasing order of all cities

Response: [none]

Correct answer: SELECT city, temperature FROM weather ORDER BY temperature;

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 14
Which is the subset of SQL commands used to manipulate Oracle Database structures, including tables?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Data Definition Language (DDL)

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 15
_________ is a query that has another query embedded within it.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: nested query

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 16
Which of the following is not an aggregate operator?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: TOTAL

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 17
The is useful in the case of online application.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: dynamic SQL

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 18
_____________ keyword is used to eliminate the duplicates.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: distinct

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 19
What operator tests column for the absence of data?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: IS NULL operator

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 20
Any SQL statement inside an embedded SQL program must be inside the boundaries of:

Response: [none]
Correct answer: EXEC SQL and END-EXEC

Score: 0 out of 1 No
Home

2.3 Database Management Systems (DMS)

Advanced Queries

07 Unit : Practice Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

Submissions
Here are your latest answers:

Question 1
Which of the following is not considered as a logical structure of the database?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Chain

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 2
_________________is a sequence of zero or more characters enclosed by single quotes.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: String literal

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 3
Logical data structure having 1:M relationship is considered as a:

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Tree

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 4
An application program comprises two components, one being the GUI. Name the other component.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Business logic

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 5
In_________________the management of the password for the account can be handled outside of oracle such as operating system.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Operating System Authentication

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 6
What is a repository of data, intended to assist proficient storage of data, retrieval and preservation called?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Database

Score: 0 out of 1 No
Question 7
If no header is specified, the block is said to be an_________________PL/SQL block.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Anonymous

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 8
In_______________of Oracle, the database administrator creates a user account in the database for each user who needs access.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Database Authentication

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 9
_______________has made PL/SQL code run faster without requiring any additional work on the part of the programmer.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Oracle

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 10
_________________integrates the data manipulating power of SQL with the data processing power of Procedural languages.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: PL/SQL

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 11
What type of join is needed when you wish to include rows that do not have matching values?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Outer join

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 12
A______________is an explicit numeric, character, string or Boolean value not represented by an identifier.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Literals

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 13
___________________permits to create and submit SQL queries dynamically or run time

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Dynamic SQL

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 14
A line of PL/SQL text contains groups of characters known as
Response: [none]

Correct answer: Lexical Units

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 15
What type of join is needed when you wish to return rows that do have matching values?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: All of the above

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 16
Which of the following is preferred when there is a disagreement between data items in a database?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Inconsistency

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 17
Which of the following is true concerning a procedure?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: They include procedural and SQL statements.

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 18
How does Normalisation help?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: All of the above

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 19
____________________is a procedural extension of Oracle – SQL that offers language constructs similar to those in imperative programming languages.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: PL/SQL

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 20
We use________________name PL/SQL program objects and units.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Identifiers

Score: 0 out of 1 No
Home

2.3 Database Management Systems (DMS)

Introduction to PL/SQL

08 Unit : Practice Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

Submissions
Here are your latest answers:

Question 1
What is returned by INSTR (‘JAVAT POINT’, ‘P’)?

Response: 6

Correct answer: 7

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 2
Which of the following is not true about PL/SQL records?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: None of the above.

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 3
All objects placed in a package specification are called

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Public objects.

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 4
Which of the following is not true about the PL/SQL language?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: It is not a block-structured language.

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 5
Which data type can store unstructured data in a column?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: RAW

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 6
Which of the following is true about character data types and subtypes in PL/SQL?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: LONG is a variable-length character string with maximum size of 32,760 bytes.

Score: 0 out of 1 No
Question 7
_________clause creates temporary relation for the query on which it is defined.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: WITH

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 8
A command that lets you change one or more fields in a table is:

Response: [none]

Correct answer: MODIFY

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 9
Which of the following is not a valid aggregate function?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: COMPUTE

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 10
Which operator is used to compare a value to a specified list of values?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: IN

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 11
What operator tests column for absence of data?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: IS NULL Operator

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 12
The collection method COUNT

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Returns the number of elements that a collection currently contains.

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 13
If we have not specified ASC or DESC after a SQL ORDER BY clause, the following is used by default

Response: [none]

Correct answer: ASC

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 14
Which of the following is not true about the PL/SQL functions?
Response: [none]

Correct answer: The RETURN clause does not specify the data type of the return value.

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 15
Which of the following is true about the parameter modes in PL/SQL Subprograms?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: All of the above.

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 16
Which of the following cases is a DML statement is not executed?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: When a table is deleted.

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 17
Observe the syntax given below −

The INSTEAD OF clause is used for creating trigger on a −

Response: [none]

Correct answer:

View

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 18
Which of the following is not Constraint in SQL?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Union

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 19
What is the output of the following code?
Response: [none]

Correct answer:

Very good

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 20
The following code tries to create a base object named rectangle, which will be inherited. What is wrong with the code?

Response: [none]

Correct answer:

The base object rectangle should be declared as NOT

Score: 0 out of 1 No
Home

2.3 Database Management Systems (DMS)

Normalisation

09 Unit : Practice Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

Submissions
Here are your latest answers:

Question 1
Choose the correct processing technique for the given statements.
Identify correlation between salary structure and policies sold made by Insurance agents in an organisation.

Response: OLAP

Correct answer: OLTP

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 2
A BCNF is:

Response: [none]

Correct answer: loss less join but not dependency preserving

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 3
4NF is designed to cope with :

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Multi valued dependency

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 4
A relation is in 2NF if:

Response: [none]

Correct answer: All of the above.

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 5
If one attribute is determinant of second, which in turn is determinant of third, then the relation cannot be:

Response: [none]

Correct answer: 3NF

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 6
Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about OLAP?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Both a and c

Score: 0 out of 1 No
Question 7
Consider a relation R(A, B, C, D) with the following functional dependencies:
A→(B, C, D), (A, D)→(B, C) and (C, D)→(A, B). Identify the candidate key(s).

Response: [none]

Correct answer: {A}, {C, D}

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 8
Third normal form is inadequate in situations where the relation :

Response: [none]

Correct answer: none of the above

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 9
12. Which functional dependency types is/are not present in the following dependencies?
StaffNo, BranchNo→StaffName, BranchName, Position, DOB
StaffNo→StaffName, Position, DOB
BranchNo→BranchName

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Transitive functional dependency

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 10
5NF is designed to cope with:

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Join dependency

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 11
Third normal form is based on the concept of_____________

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Transitive Dependency

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 12
Choose the correct processing technique for the given statements.
Update project details of an employee

Response: [none]

Correct answer: OLAP

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 13
Consider the schema R(S, T, U, V) and the dependencies S→T, T→U, U→V, V→S. Let R= {R1,R2} such that R1⋂R2 =φ . Then the decomposition is :

Response: [none]

Correct answer: in 2NF but not in 3NF

Score: 0 out of 1 No
Question 14
R(A,B,C,D) is a relation, Which of the following does not have a lossless join dependency preserving BCNF decomposition

Response: [none]

Correct answer: A B, B CD

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 15
Which of the following statement(s) is/are FALSE about OLAP?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: OLAP involves frequent insert, update and delete operations

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 16
The database design prevents some data from being stored due to__________.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Insertion anomalies

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 17
A functional dependency is a relationship between or among

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Rows

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 18
Which functional dependency types is/are not present in the following dependencies?
Empno → EName, Salary, Deptno, DName
DeptNo → DName
EmpNo → DName

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Partial functional dependency

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 19
Consider the relation Sale(Date, Customer, Product, Vendor, VendorCity, SalesRep)
{Date, Customer, Product} is the composite candidate key and the following functional dependencies are also given:
Vendor→VendorCity, Product→Vendor
What is the highest normal form of the sale relation?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: 1NF

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 20
Choose the correct processing technique for the given statements.
Identify profit trends for different units of organisation over years

Response: [none]

Correct answer: OLTP

Score: 0 out of 1 No
Home

2.3 Database Management Systems (DMS)

Transaction Processing

10 Unit : Practice Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

Submissions
Here are your latest answers:

Question 1
A______________is a set of information which processes the data transaction in database system that monitors transaction programs.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Transaction Processing System

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 2
A Transaction Processing System is also known as real-time processing system.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: True

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 3
A transaction that completes its execution is said to be

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Commit

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 4
A TPS generally,

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Uses relatively simple procedures to control processing and to ensure accuracy.

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 5
In__________, all transactions are automatically processed.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Real-Time Processing

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 6
A TPS is a set of information which processes the_____________in database system.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Data transaction

Score: 0 out of 1 No
Question 7
Information is a

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Processed Data

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 8
Transaction Processing System components are__________.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: All of the above

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 9
Which of the following is not associated with Transaction Processing System?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Triggering a response

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 10
Volume of strategic information is

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Condensed

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 11
____________deal with one transaction at a time.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Real-time Processing System

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 12
Strategic information is needed for___________in the organizations.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Long-term planning

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 13
Which of the following is a system used to present information to drill down to details for executives of the company?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Executive Support System

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 14
_____________is a way of computing that divides work into individual, indivisible operations.
Response: [none]

Correct answer: Transaction Processing System

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 15
The information system that allows people to work together as a group is called:

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Group Support System

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 16
In__________the results of each transaction are not immediately available.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: batch processing

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 17
A___________consists of a sequence of query and / or update statements.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Transaction

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 18
A__________utilises both software and hardware to manage thousands of business and user data.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Transaction Processing System

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 19
A transaction processing system helps users to process data transactions within a_____________that tracks transaction programs.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Database system

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 20
____________processes multiple transactions at the same time.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Batch Processing

Score: 0 out of 1 No
Home

2.3 Database Management Systems (DMS)

Database Administration

11 Unit : Practice Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

Submissions
Here are your latest answers:

Question 1
Which of the following is true concerning open-source DBMS?

Response: Is competitive against PC-oriented packages and is not fully SQL compliant.

Correct answer: Is free or nearly free database software whose source code is publicly available.

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 2
Which of the following is part of an administrative policy to secure a database?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: All of these.

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 3
Which of the following is the preferred way to recover a database after a transaction in progress terminates abnormally?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Rollback

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 4
Locking may cause which of the following problems?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Deadlock

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 5
Performance analysis and tuning is which of the following?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Undertaken as an on-going part of managing a database

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 6
Which of the following is the preferred way to recover a database after a system failure?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Switch to duplicate database

Score: 0 out of 1 No
Question 7
A data warehouse administrator is concerned with which of the following?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: The time to decide and the typical roles of a database administrator.

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 8
Backward recovery is which of the following?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Where the before-images are applied to the database

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 9
Concurrency control is important for which of the following reasons?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: To ensure data integrity when updates occur to the database in a multiuser environment.

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 10
Poor data administration can lead to which of the following?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Missing data elements

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 11
A shared lock allows which of the following types of transactions to occur?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Read

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 12
A traditional data administrator performs which of the following roles?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Resolve data ownership issues

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 13
The transaction log includes which of the following?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: The before and after-image of a record

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 14
If both data and database administration exist in an organization, the database administrator is responsible for which of the following?
Response: [none]

Correct answer: Database design

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 15
Which of the following could cause data to be unavailable?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Data becoming lost or inaccurate

Score: 0 out of 1 No
Home

2.3 Database Management Systems (DMS)

Distributed Database

12 Unit : Practice Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

Submissions
Here are your latest answers:

Question 1
In___________each transaction is a first phase during which new locks are acquired.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Growing Phase

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 2
The transaction wants to edit the data item is called as

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Exclusive Mode

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 3
In which state, the transaction will wait for the final statement has been executed?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Partially committed

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 4
The distributed transaction can be completely read-only, and the transaction is started with a____________ READ ONLY statement.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: SET TRANSACTION

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 5
The transactions are always____________if it always locks a data item in shared mode before reading it.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: well-formed

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 6
A database administrator can manually force the COMMIT or ROLLBACK of a local_____________distributed transaction.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: in-doubt

Score: 0 out of 1 No
Question 7
For committing a transaction, the DBMS might discard all the records:

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Before image

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 8
A Transaction ends

Response: [none]

Correct answer: when it is Committed or Rolled-back

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 9
Commit and rollback are related to

Response: [none]

Correct answer: data consistency

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 10
The ORDER concurrency control technique is based on the property.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Total ordering

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 11
______________property will check whether all the operation of a transaction completed or none.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Atomicity

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 12
If a distributed transactions are well-formed and 2-phasedlocked, then_____________is the correct locking mechanism in distributed transaction as well as in
centralized databases?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: two-phase locking

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 13
The ________________is responsible for ensuring correct execution in the presence of failures.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Database Manager

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 14
A distributed transaction can be if queries are issued at one or more nodes.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: partially read-only

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 15
The total ordering of operations across groups ensures____________of transactions.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: serializability

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 16
_____________are widely used in relational database systems.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Transaction servers

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 17
A transaction processing system is also called as

Response: [none]

Correct answer: TP monitor

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 18
A sophisticated locking mechanism known as 2-phase locking which includes Growing phase and

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Shrinking Phase

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 19
The initialization parameter______________controls the number of possible distributed transactions in which a given instance can concurrently participate, both
as a client and a server.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: DISTRIBUTED_TRANSACTIONS

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 20
Transactions per rollback segment is derived from

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Processes

Score: 0 out of 1 No
Home

2.3 Database Management Systems (DMS)

Object Relational Database

13 Unit : Practice Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

Submissions
Here are your latest answers:

Question 1
Identify the class name for the following code: ABC123 course ();

Response: All of these

Correct answer: ABC123

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 2
An atomic literal is which of the following?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: All of these

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 3
Which of the following is an unordered collection of elements that may contain duplicates?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Bag

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 4
Which of the following is true concerning an ODBMS?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: They have the ability to store complex data types on the Web.

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 5
An extent is which of the following?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: The set of all instances of a class within a database

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 6
Using ODL, you can define which of the following?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: All of these

Score: 0 out of 1 No
Question 7
The object definition language (ODL) is which of the following?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: All of these

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 8
The reserved word enemy is used for which of the following?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: To define a range for an attribute.

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 9
The keyword “inverse” is used in which of the following?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Relationship

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 10
ODL supports which of the following types of association relationships?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Unary and Binary

Score: 0 out of 1 No
Home

2.3 Database Management Systems (DMS)

Database Security

14 Unit : Practice Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

Submissions
Here are your latest answers:

Question 1
A Web site that allows users to enter text, such as a comment or a name, and then stores it and later display it to other users, is potentially vulnerable to a kind of
attack called __________________attack.

Response: Cross-site scripting

Correct answer: Cross-site scripting

Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 2
_______________________allows a system administrator to associate a function with a relation; the function returns a predicate that must be added to any query
that uses the relation.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Virtual Private Database (VPD)

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 3
The grants privilege on SQL authorization mechanism doesn’t have

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Entire relation

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 4
When we update any tuple in the relation which Authorization on a relation allows a user to?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: update authorization

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 5
True dependencies generated in reflexive rule (IR1), are classified as

Response: [none]

Correct answer: trivial

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 6
_______________is an attack which forces an end user to execute unwanted actions on a web application in which he/she is currently authenticated.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Cross-site request forgery

Score: 0 out of 1 No
Question 7
Implicitly to all current and future Privileges that are granted users, are called as

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Public

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 8
Grants privileges on SQL authorization mechanism ________________

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Specified attributes

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 9
The ____________________standard is an alternative for single sign-on across organizations, and has seen increasing acceptance in recent years.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: OpenID

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 10
To represent both data and relationships among a collection of tables data is known as

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Relational Model

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 11
Which statement is used to revoke an authorization,

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Revoke

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 12
VPD provides authorization at the level of specific tuples, or rows, of a relation, and is therefore said to be a__________________________mechanism.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Row-level authorization

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 13
A single_________________further allows the user to be authenticated once, and multiple
applications can then verify the user’s identity through an authentication service without requiring reauthentication.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Sign-on system

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 14
In______________attacks, the attacker manages to get an application to execute an SQL query created by the attacker.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: SQL injection

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 15
Even with two-factor authentication, users may still be vulnerable to_________________attacks.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Man-in-the-middle

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 16
The________________is a standard for exchanging authentication and authorization
information between different security domains, to provide cross-organization single sign-on.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML)

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 17
Database is structured record-based models are so named because in _________________________.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Fixed format records

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 18
Many applications use__________________where two independent factors are used to identify a user.

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Two-factor authentication

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 19
Attributes determine any of its subset Rule which states that set of is classified as

Response: [none]

Correct answer: reflexive rule

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 20
In Database design Data model that is widely used is

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Entity-relationship model

Score: 0 out of 1 No
Home

2.3 Database Management Systems (DMS)

Emerging Trends in Data Management

15 Unit : Practice Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

Submissions
Here are your latest answers:

Question 1
Which of these techniques is vital for creating cloud-computing centers?

Response: Virtualization

Correct answer: Virtualization

Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 2
Which is not a major cloud computing platform?

Response: Microsoft Azure

Correct answer: IBM Deep blue

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 3
What is private cloud?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: A cloud architecture maintained within an enterprise data center.

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 4
Which one of these is not a cloud computing pricing model?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Ladder

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 5
IBM, EMC and Boeing Co. were among the companies signing what document whose title is reminiscent of a famous political statement?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Open Cloud Manifesto

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 6
What exactly is cloud computing?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Computing resources that can be accessed on demand, like electricity from a utility

Score: 0 out of 1 No
Question 7
What is Cloud Computing replacing?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: All of these

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 8
Amazon Web Services is which type of cloud computing distribution model?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Infrastructure as a Service (IAAS)

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 9
What is the number one concern about cloud computing?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Security concerns

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 10
Cloud computing embraces many concepts that were previously touted as the next big thing in information technology. Which of these is not an antecedent of the
cloud?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Desktop computing

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 11
An internal cloud is…

Response: [none]

Correct answer: A cloud that sits behind a corporate firewall

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 12
“Cloud” in cloud computing represents what?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Internet

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 13
What August event was widely seen as an example of the risky nature of cloud computing?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Gmail outage for more than an hour

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 14
What widely used service is built on cloud-computing technology?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: All of these

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 15
Which of these is not a major type of cloud computing usage?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Hardware as a Service

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 16
Which of these should a company consider before implementing cloud computing technology?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: All of these

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 17
Which of these companies is not a leader in cloud computing?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Blackboard

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 18
The term “cloud computing” is a metaphor that originated in what?

Response: [none]

Correct answer: Graphical depiction of computer architectures

Score: 0 out of 1 No
Home

2.3 Database Management Systems (DMS)

Standalone assignment

Continuous Assessment 3
Submissions
Here are your latest answers:

Question 1
Identify the appropriate definition for transaction.

Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 2
Which of the following is equivalent to multiple IF-ELSIF statements?

Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 3
Which of the following is used to denote the selection operation in relational algebra?

Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 4
Which of the following statements can be used to terminate a PL/SQL loop?

Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 5
When the primary key is null for the new tuple then which of the following constraint is violated?

Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 6
Identify the appropriate definition for Data processing.

Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 7
When three or more AND and OR conditions are combined, it is easier to use which of the following SQL keyword(s)?

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 8
Which among the following constraint is used to check the uniqueness and null value of an attribute?

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 9
Which normal forms simplifies and is used to eliminate the duplicate information?

Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 10
Which of the following represents single entity instance of one type related to multiple entity instance of another type?

Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 11
A traditional data administrator performs which of the following roles?

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 12
Which of the following operations allows us to find tuples that are in one relation but are not in another?

Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 13
Which of the following is a join condition containing an equality operator?

Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 14
When a transaction completes its execution then it is called as:

Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 15
Which of the following is NOT a fundamental operation in relational algebra?

Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 16
"CREATE TABLE EMPLOYEE (name VARCHAR, id INTEGER)
Identify the above statement."

Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 17
Which of the following normal form does not support transitive dependency?

Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 18
Identify the appropriate definition for Domain.

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 19
Which of the following is an intermediate layer between database and client servers?

Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 20
In the process of specialization, which of the following is used to attach the subclasses?

Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 21
Identify the number of relations involved in binary relationship type.

Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 22
A single transaction failure may result into a set of transaction rollbacks, This is known as:
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 23
Which of the following is NOT a part of transaction state?

Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 24
Identify the appropriate abbreviation for ACID properties of transactions.

Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 25
Consider EMPLOYEE(ename,eid,salary). Which of the following should be used to find the maximum value in the salary column?

Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 26
Which one of the following provides the ability to query information from the database and to insert tuples into, delete tuples from, and modify tuples in the database?

Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 27
Which among the following normal form, a composite attribute is converted to individual attribute?

Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 28
Which of the following clause is used to collect the similar values in the relation?

Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 29
If distributed transactions are well-formed and 2-phase locked, then which is the correct locking mechanism in distributed transaction as well as in centralized database ?

Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 30
Which normal forms has a relation that possesses data about an individual entity?

Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 31
Which keyword is used instead of the assignment operator to initialize variables?

Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 32
Which one of the following is used to define the structure of the relation, deleting relations and creating schemas?

Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 33
Which of the following constraint is specified between two relations in order to maintain consistency between them?

Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 34
Which of the following constraint, the functional dependency is based on?

Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 35
Which of the following level does NOT include in three-level schema architecture?

Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 36
Identify the functionality of 2NF.

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 37
Identify the role of DML precompiler.

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 38
Which new locks are acquired in each transaction of a first phase?

Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 39
Which of the following database seems to be a single database to the user, but it is actually a collection of databases spread across several machines?

Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 40
Which of the following makes the transaction permanent in the database?

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 41
Name the term that define the state when a transaction may not always complete its execution successfully.

Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 42
Which of the following is used to declare a record?

Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 43
Which one of the following statements is NOT correct about normal forms?

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 44
Which of the following is backward recovery?

Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 45
A subquery in an SQL SELECT statement is enclosed using which of the following?

Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 46
The transaction log includes which of the following?

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 47
What do you call a transaction for which all committed changes are permanent?

Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 48
Which of the following is a bottom-up approach for the database design that designs by examining the relationship between attributes?

Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 49
Identify the appropriate definition for specialisation.

Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 50
Which of the following gives the detailed description of entity constraints, entity relationships and entity types?

Score: 0 out of 1 No

Question 51
Which of the following operator performs pattern matching?

Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 52
Which among the following command is used to remove a relation from an SQL database?

Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 53
Which of the following technique that breaks database into sub tables or sub relations so that data may be kept in several systems?

Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 54
Which of the following is NOT a PL/SQL unit?

Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 55
Which structure executes a sequence of statements repeatedly as long as a condition holds true?

Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 56
Which among the following is an example for a key attribute in employee table?

Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 57
Which of the following occurs when a transaction rereads data and finds new rows that were inserted by a command transaction since the prior read?

Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 58
Which of the following eliminates duplicate tuples in a relation?

Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 59
Which of the following aggregate functions ignore null values in their input collection?
Score: 1 out of 1 Yes

Question 60
Which of the following is NOT true about PL/SQL constants and literals?

Score: 0 out of 1 No