Republic of the Philippines

Department of Education
Region 1
School Division of Ilocos Norte
CATAGTAGUEN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL
Banna

DIAGNOSTIC TEST IN SCIENCE 10

GENERAL DIRECTION: READ EACH QUESTION CAREFULLY. SHADE THE LETTER OF THE
BEST ANSWER IN THE ZIP GRADE ANSWER SHEET.

VOLCANOES EARTHQUAKES, AND MOUNTAIN RANGES

1. Which theory states that the entire crust is broken and is continuously moving?
A. Continental Drift C. Seafloor Spreading
B. Plate Tectonics D. Titanic Theory
2. What do we call the continuously moving part of the earth’s crust?
A. fault B. fissure C. fracture D. plate
3. Which of these phrases is FALSE about lithospheric plates?
A. have the same thickness everywhere B. include the crust and upper mantle
C. thickest in the mountain regions D. vary in thickness
4. A landmass that projects well above its surroundings is a mountain. What do you call a
chain of mountains?
A. mountain arc B. mountain chain C. mountain range D. mountainous

PLATE BOUNDARIES
5. At the convergent plate boundary, _______________.
A. new crust is created B. the older crust is melted by subduction
C. the crust separates D. plates side past one another
6. The East African Rift is an example of a _____________.
A. mid-ocean ridge B. convergent boundary
C. divergent boundary D. transform boundary
7. The Himalayan mountain range of India was formed at the __________.
A. divergent boundary B. convergent boundary
C. hot spot D. transform boundary
8. Philippine plate moves toward ___________.
A. Australian plate B. Mountain ranges C. Trenches D. Eurasian plate
9. The __________ is an example of a transform fault boundary.
A. East Pacific Rise B. San Andreas Fault
C. Mid-Atlantic Ridge D. Himalayas

EARTH’S MECHANISM
10. Which of the following DOES NOT describe a convection process?
A. the handle of a metal pot is hot while cooking
B. boiling of macaroni pasta
C. a sea breeze
D. ocean water in the surface is warmer
11. Which of the following has a faster movement of molecules?
A. hot materials B. warm materials
C. cold materials D. room temperature materials
12. Which of the following has a lesser density in a convection cell?
 A. warm fluid materials B. cold fluid materials
C. room temperature fluid materials D. hot fluid materials
13. In a convection current, hot materials move ______________.
A. any direction B. sideward C. upward D. downward

DIFFERENT FORMS OF EM WAVES

14. In the visible spectrum, which color has the shortest wavelength?
A. blue B. green C. red D. violet
15. Which of the following statements is correct?
A. As the frequency of a wave increases, the wavelength also increases.
B. As the frequency of a wave decreases, the energy increases.
C. As the wavelength of a wave increases, the energy also increases.
D. As the wavelength of a wave decreases, the frequency increases.
16. Among the given EM waves below, which carries the most energy?
A. microwave B. radio wave C. ultraviolet ray D. visible light
17. Which of the following is correctly arranged from lowest to highest energy?
A. microwave, visible light, radio wave B. ultraviolet, radio wave, infrared
C. visible light, ultraviolet, gamma ray D. x-ray, gamma ray, ultraviolet

PRACTICAL APPLICATIONS AND EFFECTS OF ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVE

18. Which of the EM waves below is used to remove most forms of microbiological
contamination from water?
A. infrared rays B. microwaves C. radio waves D. ultraviolet rays
19. All of the following are dangerous waves when taken by the body in large amounts except
one. Which is it?
A. radio waves B. gamma rays C. ultraviolet D. x-rays
20. How does the energy level changes from gamma ray to radio wave?
A. increases C. cannot be determined
B. decreases D. energy level does not change

SIMPLE ELECTRIC MOTOR AND GENERATOR

21. Which is the correct sequence in the operation of simple motor?
I. Magnets placed near one another either attract or repel.
II. The attraction and repulsion causes the wire to jump.
III. Electric current starts to creep along wire; it creates a magnetic field all around
it.
IV. Electrical energy converted to mechanical energy.
V. Temporary magnetic field interacts with the permanent magnet

A. V, IV, II, II, I C. V, III, I, IV, III

B. III, V, I, II, IV D. III, II, IV, I, V
22. Which two forces are required to operate with generators and electric motors?
A. electric and magnetic C. magnetic and radiant
B. electric and thermal D. magnetic and therma

THE ENDOCRINE SYSTEM: GLANDS AND THEIR HORMONES

23. What is the purpose of the thyroid gland?
A. It releases insulin and glucagon to regulate sugar level.
B. It releases thyroxin and insulin to stimulate growth.
C. It releases thyroxin and calcitonin.
D. It releases adrenaline to prepare the body for action.
 24. What is osteoporosis?
A. It is a condition characterized by imbalanced blood sugar.
B. A disorder characterized by apparent lack of aging.
C. A disorder characterized by impaired growth.
D. A disorder in which bones become fragile and breakable.
25. What do you call a rare condition that causes abnormal growth in children due to the
decrease in the production and secretion of growth hormones?
A. diabetes B. dwarfism C. gigantism D. goiter
26. Which of the following shows a correct pairing of a dysfunction and the involved endocrine
gland?
A. diabetes: ovaries B. dwarfism: adrenal
C. goiter: thyroid D. osteoporosis: pancreas

NERVOUS SYSTEM: THE CONTROL SYSTEM OF THE BODY

27. Which part of the brain helps keep your balance so you don’t just fall or stumble while
walking?
A. cerebellum B. medulla oblongata C. pituitary gland D. spinal cord
28. Which of the following is TRUE about central nervous system?
A. It can be classified as somatic and autonomic nervous system.
B. It is composed of the brain and spinal cord.
C. It is composed of the brain, spinal cord, and hormones.
D. It is composed of cranial and spinal nerves.
29. You felt hungry because you haven’t eaten your food for lunch trying to finish home works.
Which of the following is the best response to the given stimulus?
A. Continue work. B. Eat. C. Ignore the situation. D. Shout out loud.

MUTATION
30. A frame shift mutation is a genetic mutation that is caused by the insertion or deletion of a
specific number of nucleotides that shifts the reading frame of the sequence. The insertion
or deletion of how many nucleotides would cause a frame shift mutation?
A. 2 B. 3 C.6 D.9
31. How do mutations lead to genetic variation?
A. by changing the organism's appearance
B. by changing the way that the organism reproduces
C. by changing the organism's behavior
D. by producing random changes in an organism's genetic code
32. A piece of each chromosome has broken off and been reattached to the other
chromosome, resulting in an exchange. The process that occurs when a section of a
chromosome breaks off and reattaches to another chromosome is known as_______.
A. deletion B. inversion C. nondisjunction D. translocation

OCCURRENCE OF EVOLUTION
33. Who is the proponent of the Theory of Natural Selection?
A. Charles Darwin C. Jean Baptiste de Lamarck
B. Gregor Mendel D. Alfred Russel Wallace
34. Jean Baptiste de Lamarck believed that giraffes before have short necks, but because of
their need to survive and in order to reach tall trees for food, they kept stretching their
necks until these became longer and able to reach taller trees.
A. Theory of Needs C. Theory of Evolution
B. Theory of Use and Disuse D. Theory of Acquired Characteristics
 35. The theory of Lamarck which explained that if an organism acquired a body structure with
long limbs, leg, or neck during its lifetime, it could be passed on to its offspring. What
theory is this?
A. Theory of Need C. Theory of Use and Disuse
B. Theory of Evolution D. Theory of Acquired Characteristics
36. Genetic drift is a change in the allele frequency of population due to ______.
A. random chance C. artificial selection
B. natural selection D. non-random mating

KINETIC MOLECULAR THEORY

37. How does the temperature affect the average kinetic energy of gas molecules?
A. As the temperature decreases, the average kinetic energy of gas molecules
decreases.
B. As the temperature decreases, the average kinetic energy of gas molecules increases.
C. As the temperature decreases, the average kinetic energy of gas molecules remains
the same.
D. As the temperature decreases, the average kinetic energy of gas molecules fluctuates.
38. Which of the following samples is highly compressible at high pressure and expandable at
high temperature?
A. aluminum sheet B. ice C. oxygen gas D. water
39. Which has the greatest kinetic energy?
A. ethyl alcohol (CH3CH2OH) vapor at 25 ⁰C B. Neon gas (Ne) at 20 ⁰C
C. Nitrogen gas (N2) at -50 ⁰C D. water (H2O) at 100 ⁰C

BIOMOLECULES
40. Which of the following elements cannot be found in biomolecules?
A. hydrogen B. mercury C. oxygen D. phosphorus
41. Which of the following macromolecule contains carbon, nitrogen, oxygen, phosphorus and
hydrogen in its structure?
A. carbohydrate B. lipid C. nucleic acid D. protein
42. What class of biomolecules do DNA and RNA belong?
A. carbohydrates B. lipids C. nucleic acids D. proteins

CHEMICAL REACTION
43. A given chemical equation provides the necessary information on what is happening
during chemical reaction. What does an arrow symbol pointing downward ( ) mean if this is
seen in the equation?
A. A gas was produced. B. A precipitate was formed.
C. The container became hot. D. The substance was dissolved in water.
44. How will the reaction be written when solid phosphorus is combined with oxygen gas to
form diphosphorus pentoxide?
A. P(s) + O2 (g) →PO2(g) C. P(s) + O2 (g) → P2O5(g)
B. P(s) + O(g) → P2O5(g) D. P2O5 → P2 (s) + O2(g)
45. A chemical reaction is possible when two or more substances interact under favorable
conditions. Which of the following is observed when baking soda is added to vinegar?
A. change in temperature. B. formation of a gas.
C. change in color. D. Both A and B
46. According to the Law of Conservation of Mass, what is the total mass of the reacting
substances?
A. always equal to the total mass of the products.
B. always less than the total mass of the products.
 C. always more than the total mass of the products.
D. sometimes more and sometimes less than the total mass of the products.

FACTORS AFFECTING THE RATES OF CHEMICAL REACTIONS

47. Particle size is a factor which affects reaction rates. Which statement(s) is/are not true
about particle size?
I. As the temperature rises, the molecules move faster and therefore collide more
and have greater chances to react with each other.
II. II. The smaller pieces have a greater surface area, thus, providing much greater
contact among the reactants and effecting more collisions. When solid reactants
are present in small pieces, reaction rates increase.
III. III. As the temperature rises, the molecules move faster and therefore collide
IV. more and have greater chances to react with each other.

A. I only B. II only D. I and III only D. I, II and III

48. Perishable goods that are not properly stored show signs of spoilage in less than a day.
Which of the following is not a possible cause of this spoilage?
A. amount of goods C. oxygen in air
B. change in temperature D. presence of microorganisms
49. Filipino farmers use different natural ripening agents such as the use of kalburo, leaves of
kakawate and acacia leaves. This practice intends to address the need for the availability
of fruits all the time. What factor affecting the rate of reactions influences this situation?
A. catalyst B. concentration of reactants C. particle size D. temperature
50. The following statements describe concentration of solution as a factor that affects the rate
of reaction. Which among the given statement is NOT correct?
A. Increased concentration of solution leads to an increased rate of reaction.
B. The greater the number of particles, the greater the collision.
C. When there is a great number of particles, there is a high concentration leading to
greater chances of collision.
D. When solid reactants are present in small pieces, reaction rates can decrease.

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Prepared by: Checked by:

MARIFE D. GUADALUPE CLARITA P. DAYACOS

Subject Teacher Head Teacher III

Noted by:

JOSEPH ROMEL D. ANDRES

School Principal IV