Combination of Medical terminology with Prefix and Suffixes

• Eg: Suffixes,
• -centesis (Puncture a cavity to remove fluid)
• Thoracocentesis (Puncture a thoracic cavity to remove fluid)
• Arthrocentesis (Puncture a joint cavity to remove fluid)
• -ectomy (Surgical removal or excision)
• Oophorectomy (Surgical removal or excision of Ovary)
• Hysterectomy (Surgical removal or excision of Uterus)
• -ostomy (A new opening)
• Gastrostomy (Surgical opening into the stomach)
• Cystostomy (Surgical opening into the bladder)
• -otomy (Incision or cutting into)
• Nephrotomy (Incision or cutting in the Kidney)
• Myringotomy (Incision or cutting in the Tympanic membrane)
• -oplasty (Surgical repair)
• Arthroplasty (Surgical replacement or reconstruction of a joint)
• Angioplasty (Open blocked arteries and restore normal blood flow)
• -opexy (Surgical fixation)
• Nephropexy (Surgical fixation of a floating kidney)
• Gastropexy (Surgical fixation of the stomach with the abdominal wall)
• -orrhaphy (Surgical repair or suture)
• Neurorrhaphy (Surgical suture of a divided nerve)
• Renorrhaphy (Surgical suture of the kidney)

• Eg: Prefixes,
• Brady- (Decrease)
• Bradycardia (Decreased heart rate)
• Bradypnea (Decreased breath rate)
• Tachy- (Increase)
• Tachycardia (increase heart rate)
• Tachypnea (Increase breath rate)

• The acronym MMRV stands for Measles, Mumps, Rubella, and Varicella
• .MRI Stands for Magnetic Resonance Imaging
• The term “Salpingo-Oophorectomy” refers to the removal of fallopian
tubes and ovaries
• PERRLA stands for Pupils Equal, Round, Reactive to Light and Accommodation
• .Cryopreservation is a means of preserving something through freezing
• Which of the following describes the removal of fluid from a body cavity-
paracentesis
• If a surgeon cuts into a patient’s stomach he has performed a gastrotomy
• .In the medical term myopathy the term pathy means disease. What is
diseased? Muscle
• The Radius is the outer bone located in the forearm
• The spleen belongs to what organ system? Hemic and Lymphatic
• The portion of the femur bone that helps makes up the knee cap is
considered what? THE DISTAL PORTION
• . How many regions are in the abdominopelvic cavity? NINE
• The Midsagittal plane refers to what portion of the body? MIDDLE
• Which of the following is not part of the small intestine? CECUM
• The round window is located in the INNER EAR
• The point of an organ or body part nearest the point of attachments is
PROXIMAL
• One of the six major scapulohumeral muscles- TERES
• The cardia fundus is WHERE THE ESOPHEGUS JOINS THE STOMACH
• CPT codes 22840-22848 are modifier 62 exempt? TRUE
• An ABN must be signed when? Before the service or procedure is provided
to the patient
• Wound exploration codes include the following service (s) : Exploration,
including enlargement, debridement, removal of foreign body(ies), minor
vessel
• Medical necessity means what? The condition of the patient justifies the service
provided
• Which of the statement is false- External cause codes are only used in the
initial encounter
• Which of the following codes allows the use of modifier 51? 45392
• Category III codes are temporary codes for emerging technology, services,
and procedures. If a category III code exists it should be used instead of an
“unlisted procedure” code in category I (example of an unlisted category I
code: 60699. Answer- TRUE
• .Which of the following statements is not true regarding Medicare Part A:
IT HELPS COVER OUTPATIENT CHARGES
• Which of the following is not one of the three components of HIPAA that is
enforced by the office for civil rights? Setting national standards regarding the
transmission and use of protected health information
• Signs and symptoms that are associated routinely with a disease process
should not be assigned as additional codes, unless otherwise instructed by
classification- TRUE
 • Which of the following procedures can be coded separately when
performed by the anesthesiologist? Monitoring of a central venous line
• Adding together the lesion diameter and the narrowest margins necessary
to adequately excise the lesion
• A skin graft where the donor skin comes from another human (often a
cadaver) is known as a/an ALLOGRAFT
• A Scapulopexy is found under what heading REPAIR REVISION OR
RECONSTRUCTION
• An indirect laryngoscopy, as described in code 31505, utilizes a mirror in
which the physician can view the reflection of the larynx. A direct
laryngoscopy, as described by code 31515, utilizes a scope in which the
physician peers through and views the larynx. FALSE
• If a surgeon is performing a surgical sinus endoscopy to control a nasal
hemorrhage and chooses to perform a necessary sinusotomy while he’s
there, he can bill for each individual service. TRUE
• The vestibule is part of the oral cavity outside the dentoalveolar structures
and includes the mucosal and submucosal tissue of the lips and cheeks.
TRUE
• Blood: The human body contains about 4 to 5 litres of blood. Blood is
made up of RBC, WBC, platelets and plasma
• RBC (RED BLOOD CELLS) / ERYTHROCYTES
• WBC (WHITE BLOOD CELLS) / LEUKOCYTES
• PLATELETS / Thrombocytes Responsible for the clotting of blood
• PLASMA The liquid portion of the blood that makes up about 55% of the
blood’s volume. Around 90% of plasma is made of water.
• There are four valves present in the human heart,
o Aortic valve - Between left ventricle and Aorta.
o Pulmonary valve - Between the right ventricle and pulmonary artery.
o Bicuspid valve / mitral valve - Between left atrium and left ventricle.
o Tricuspid valve - Between right atrium and right ventricle.
• 206 bones form the skeletal system
MEDICAL TERMS:

1. Heart - Cardio
2. Vessels - Angio / Vasculo / Vaso
3. Artery - Arterio
4. Veins - Phlebo
5. Blood - Hemato
6. RBC - Erythrocytes
7. WBC - Leukocytes
8. Platelet - Thrombocytes

MEDICAL ABBREVIATIONS:
1. ABI - Ankle-brachial index
2. ABG - Arterial blood gas
3. ASHD - Arteriosclerotic heart disease
4. BP - Blood pressure
5. CABG - Coronary artery bypass graft
6. CAD - Coronary artery disease
7. CHF - Congestive heart failure
8. CPR - Cardiopulmonary resuscitation
9. CVP - Central venous pressure
10. DVT - Deep vein thrombosis
11. ECG – Electrocardiogram
12. ESR - Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
13. FHT - Fetal heart tones
14. HB – Hemoglobin
15. HDL - High-density lipoprotein
18. LAD - left anterior descending
19. LCA - Left coronary artery
20. LDL - Low-density lipoprotein
21. LVH - Left ventricular hypertrophy
22. MI - Mitral insufficiency; myocardial infarction
23. PICC - Peripherally inserted central catheter
24. PTCA - Percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty
25. RVH - Right ventricular hypertrophy
26. SVT - Supraventricular tachycardia
27. WBC - White blood cell
16. HTN – Hypertension
17. ICA - Internal carotid artery
 ANATOMY QUESTION

Questions
1) Which of the following terms describes the body's ability to maintain its normal state?

(D) Homeostasis

2) Which of the following best describes the human body's defense mechanism against
environmental bacteria?

(B) Mucous membranes

3) Which cells in the blood do not have a nucleus?

(C) Erythrocyte

4) Which of the following is flexible connective tissue that is attached to bones at the joints?

(B) Cartilage

5) Which of the following allows air to pass into the lungs?

(A) Aorta
(B) Esophagus
(C) Heart
(D) Pancreas
(E) Trachea

6) Which of the following is the body cavity that contains the pituitary gland?

(A) Abdominal
(B) Cranial
(C) Pleural
(D) Spinal
(E) Thoracic

7) Which of the following closes and seals off the lower airway during swallowing?
(A) Alveoli
(B) Epiglottis
(C) Larynx
(D) Uvula
(E) Vocal cords

8) Which of the following is located beneath the diaphragm in the left upper quadrant of the
abdominal cavity?

(A) Appendix
(B) Duodenum
(C) Gallbladder
(D) Pancreas
(E) Spleen

9) Which of the following anatomical regions of abdomen lies just distal to the sternum?

(A) Epigastric
(B) Hypochondriac
(C) Hypogastric
(D) Lumbar
(E) Umbilical

10) Which of the following cavities are separated by the diaphragm?

(A) Abdominal and pelvic

(B) Cranial and spinal
(C) Dorsal and ventral
(D) Pericardial and pleural
(E) Thoracic and abdominal

11) Which of the following terms describes the motion of bending the forearm toward the
body?

(A) Abduction
(B) Eversion
(C) Flexion
(D) Pronation
(E) Supination

12) In which of the following positions does a patient lie face down?

(A) Dorsal
(B) Erect
(C) Lateral
(D) Prone
(E) Supine

13) If the foot is abducted, it is moved in which direction?

(A) Inward
(B) Outward
(C) Upward
(D) Downward

14) The anatomic location of the spinal canal is

(A) caudal
(B) dorsal
(C) frontal
(D) transverse
(E) ventral

15) Which of the following is a structural, fibrous protein found in the dermis?

(A) Collagen

16) A patient has a fracture in which the radius is bent but not displaced, and the skin is
intact. This type of fracture is known as which of the following?

(A) Closed, greenstick

17) Which of the following is the large bone found superior to the patella and inferior to the
ischium?

(A) Calcaneus
(B) Femur LONGEST AND STRONGEST BONE
(C) Symphysis pubis
(D) Tibia
(E) Ulna

18) The physician directs the medical assistant to complete a request form for an X-ray
study of the fibula. The procedure will be performed on which of the following structures?

(A) Heel
(B) Lower leg

19) Which of the following is a disorder characterized by uncontrollable episodes of falling

asleep during the day?
(D) Narcolepsy

20) Which of the following is the point at which an impulse is transmitted from one neuron to
another neuron?

(D) Synapse

21) Which of the following controls body temperature, sleep, and appetite?

(B) Hypothalamus

22) Which of the following cranial nerves is related to the sense of smell?

(C) Olfactory

23) Which of the following is a substance that aids the transmission of nerve impulses to the
muscles?

(A) Acetylcholine

24) Which of the following best describes the location where the carotid pulse can be
found?

(D) On the anterior side of the neck

25) A patient sustains severe blunt trauma to the left upper abdomen and requires surgery.
Which one of the following organs is most likely to be involved?

(E) Spleen

26) Where is the sinoatrial node located?

(E) In the upper wall of the right atrium

27) Blood flows from the right ventricle of the heart into which of the following structures?

(C) Pulmonary arteries

28) Oxygenated blood is carried to the heart by which of the following structures?
(D) Pulmonary veins

29) The thoracic cage is a structural unit important for which of the following functions?

(D) Respiration

30) Which of the following substances is found in greater quantity in exhaled air?

(C) Nitrogen

31) Which of the following allows gas exchange in the lungs?

(A) Alveoli

32) At which of the following locations does bile enter the digestive tract?

(B) Duodenum

33) Which of the following structures is part of the small intestine?

(C) Ileum

34) Which of the following conditions is characterized by incompetence of the esophageal

sphincter?

(C) Gastroesophageal reflux disease

35) Which of the following organs removes bilirubin from the blood, manufactures plasma
proteins, and is involved with the production of prothrombin and fibrinogen?

(C) Liver

36) Which of the following is an accessory organ of the gastrointestinal system that is
responsible for secreting insulin?

(D) Pancreas

37) Which of the following is the lymphoid organ that is a reservoir for red blood cells and
filters organisms from the blood?
(D) Spleen

38) Which of the following best describes the process whereby the stomach muscles
contract to propel food through the digestive tract?

(C) Peristalsis

39) Saliva contains an enzyme that acts upon which of the following nutrients?

(A) Starches

40) In men, specimens for gonococcal cultures are most commonly obtained from which of
the following structures?

(E) Urethra

41) Which of the following describes the cluster of blood capillaries found in each nephron
in the kidney?

(B) Glomerulus

42) Which of the following conditions is characterized by the presence of kidney stones
(renal calculi)?

(C) Nephrolithiasis

43) Which of the following best describes the structure that collects urine in the body?

(A) Bladder

44) In men, which of the following structures is located at the neck of the bladder and
surrounds the urethra?

(B) Prostate

45) Male hormones are produced by which of the following?

(D) Testes

46) Which of the following are mucus-producing glands located on each side of the vaginal
opening?
(B) Bartholin's

47) Fertilization of an ovum by a spermatozoon occurs in which of the following structures?

(B) Fallopian tube

48) Calcium, potassium, and sodium are classified as which of the following?

(C) Electrolytes

49) Which of the following is the master gland of the endocrine system?

(D) Pituitary

50) Patients with which of the following diseases are treated with injections of vitamin B-12?

(E) Pernicious anemia

1. What term could describe an inflammation of the plantar, causing foot or heel pain when walking or
running?
A. Plantar fasciitis B. Tenodesis C. Tenolysis D. Tendon fascitis

2. Blephroplasty describes what type of a procedure?

A. Surgical reduction of the upper/lower eyelids to remove excess fat, skin, and muscle
B. Treatment for spider veins with injections of sclerosing solution
C. Replacement of damaged skin with healthy tissue taken from a donor
D. Destruction of tissue by burning or freezing

3. Which autoimmune disorder will eventually destroy the thyroid gland?

A. Hayem-Farber disease B. Alzheimer’s thyroiditis
C. Lou Gehrig’s disease D. Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

4. Which of the following statements best describes a rheumatologist?

A. A specialist who provides medical care and drug treatments focused on mental and cognitive
disorders.
B. A specialist who provides treatment to women during pregnancy, childbirth, and their aftercare
C. A specialist who provides the diagnosis and treatment of disease characterized by inflammation of the
connective tissues.
D. A specialist who provides the diagnosis and surgical treatment of bone disorders

5. A patient suffered a burn that involved the epidermis, dermis, and subcutaneous layers with some
muscle involvement. What degree of burn would describe this injury?
A. First-degree, superficial with blisters B. Second-degree, partial thickness with muscle
C. Third-degree, full thickness D. None of the above

6. In which part of the body would you find the choroid?

A. Brain B. Eyeball C. Muscles of the hand D. Spinal column

7. Which combining form refers to the small intestine?

A. enter/o ` B. gastr/o C. celi/o D. col/o

8. An ERG is what type of a procedure?

A. Electroretinography B. Electrorenalography
C. Electroretinograph D. Electrorhidogram

9. Which term refers to the anus, rectum, and the cecum?

A. rectal B. anorectal C. esophageal D. ilium

10. Which term does not refer to a level of consciousness?

A. Syncope B. Stupor C. Coma D. Sciatica

11. What type of condition describes a patient diagnosed with oligospermia?

A. Knots is the varicose veins B. An inflammation of the prostate gland
C. An abnormally low number of sperm in the semen
D. Failure to ovulate

12. What does the term cystopexy mean?

A. Inflammation of the spinal cord and brain
B. Surgical fixation of the urinary bladder
C. Surgical suture of the knee joints
D. Crushing procedure to remove cysts

13. What is an episiotomy and why would a patient need to have this procedure?
A. Surgical suturing of the rectum caused by extensive tissue damage following a bowel repair
B. Surgical incision of the vulva to facilitate delivery of a baby
C. Surgical puncture of the cervix to remove fluid
D. Surgical creation of an opening into the small intestine to provide relief of excessive gastritis

14. What direction describes raising the foot, pulling the toes toward the shin?
A. Protraction B. Dorsiflection C. Plantar flexion D. Pronation

15. Which artery opens to allow oxygen-rich blood to pass from the left ventricle into the aorta where
the blood is delivered to the rest of the body?
A. Renal B. Aortic C. Superior vena cava D. Inferior vena cava

16. What syndrome is a condition caused by abnormal production of the hormone gastrin?
A. Vogt-Koyanagi B. Silvestroni-Bianco C. Sudeck-Leriche D. Zollinger-Ellison

17. How can air pass through the upper respiratory tract?
A. Via the nose, nasal cavity, nasopharynx, oropharynx, laryngopharynx, and larynx into the lower
respiratory system.
B. Via the nose, larynx, and bronchus
C. Via nose, larynx, bronchus, and trachea
D. Via nose, larynx, bronchus, trachea, and pleura

18. What is the uvula?

A. A receptacle for urine before it is voided.
B. A female organ used to contain and nourish the embryo and fetus from the time the fertilized egg is
implanted to the time of birth of the fetus.
C. A small soft structure hanging from the free edge of the soft palate in midline above the root of the
tongue. It is composed of muscle, connective tissue, and mucous membrane.
D. A canal, used for the discharge of urine, that extends from the bladder to the outside of the body.

19. What bones make up the axial skeleton?

A. Skull, rib cage, and spine B. Spine, collar bones, and arms
C. Shoulder bones, pelvic bones, arms, and legs D. Coccyx, ulna, femur, and tibia

20. What term refers to white blood cells?

A. Erythrocytes B. Monocytes C. Lymphocytes D. Leukocytes

21. Which statement(s) describe a passive natural acquired immunity process?

A. Use of immunoglobulin harvested from a donor who developed resistance against specific antigens
B. The passage of antibodies through the placenta or breast milk
C. Immunization that uses a greatly weakened form of the antigen, thus enabling the body to develop
antibodies in response to this intentional exposure
D. Both A and C

22. What does the olecranon process refer to?

A. The elbow
B. Excision of a tumor in the large intestine
C. Plasma membranes
D. Use of a surgical endoscope in the knee

23. What is the difference between entropion and ectropion?

A. Entropion is the inward turning of the eyelid and ectropion is the outward turning of the eyelid.
B. Entropion is the incomplete closure of the eyes and ectropion is the drooping of the eyelids.
C. Entropion is the outward turning of the eyelid and ectropion is the inward turning of the eyelid.
D. Entropion is the drooping of the eyelid due to nerve disorder and ectropion is the drooping of the
eyelid due to muscle disorder.

24. What type of graft is used when pigskin is applied to a burn wound?
A. Xenograft B. Allograft C. Autograft D. Pinch graft

25. Ventral, umbilical, spigelian and incisional are types of:

A. Surgical approaches B. Hernias
C. Organs found in the digestive system D. Cardiac catheterizations
26. Fracturing the acetabulum involves what area?
A. Skull B. Shoulder C. Pelvis D. Leg

27. When a patient is having a tenotomy performed on the abductor hallucis muscle, where is this
muscle located?
A. Foot B. Upper Arm C. Upper Leg D. Hand

28. What is the term used for inflammation of the bone and bone marrow?
A. Chondromatosis B. Osteochondritis C. Costochondritis D. Osteomyelitis

29. The root word trich/o means:

A. Hair B. Sebum C. Eyelid D. Trachea

30. Complete this series: Frontal lobe, Parietal lobe, Temporal lobe, ____________.
A. Medulla lobe B. Occipital lobe C. Middle lobe D. Inferior lobe

31. A patient is having pyeloplasty performed to treat a uretero-pelvic junction obstruction. What is
being performed?
A. Surgical repair of the bladder B. Removal of the kidney
C. Cutting into the ureter D. Surgical reconstruction of the renal pelvis

32. Which of the following is an example of electronic data?

A. A digital X-ray B. An explanation of benefits
C. An advance beneficiary notice D. A written prescription

33. Which of the following health plans does not fall under HIPAA?
A. Medicaid B. Medicare C. Workers’ compensation D. Private plans

34. Guidelines from which of the following code sets are included as part of the code set requirements
under HIPAA?
A. CPT® B. ICD-10-CM C. HCPCS Level II D. ADA Dental Codes

35. Which of the following is an example of a case in which a diabetes-related problem exists and the
code for diabetes is never sequenced first?
A. If the patient has an underdose of insulin due to an insulin pump malfunction
B. If the patient is being treated for secondary diabetes
C. If the patient is being treated for Type II diabetes
D. If the patient has hyperglycemia that is not responding to medication

36. Glomerulonephritis is an inflammation affecting which system?

A. Digestive B. Nervous C. Urinary D. Cardiovascular

37. When a patient has fractured the proximal end of his humerus, where is the fracture located?
A. Upper end of the arm B. Lower end of the leg
C. Upper end of the leg D. Lower end of the arm

38. What is another term for when a physician performs a reduction on a displaced fracture?
A. Casting B. Manipulation C. Skeletal traction D. External fixation
39. What does oligiospermia mean?
A. Presence of blood in the semen B. Deficiency of sperm in semen
C. Having sperm in urine D. Formation of spermatozoa

40. Thoracentesis is removing fluid or air from the:

A. Lung B. Chest cavity C. Thoracic vertebrae D. Heart

41. An angiogram is a study to look inside:

A. Female Reproductive System B. Urinary System
C. Blood Vessels D. Breasts

42. When a person has labyrinthitis what has the inflammation?

A. Inner ear B. Brain C. Conjunctiva D. Spine

43. Which place of service code should be reported on the physician’s claim for a surgical procedure
performed in an ASC?
A. 21 B. 22 C. 24 D. 12

44. What is orchitis?

A. Inner ear imbalance B. Lacrimal infection
C. Inflammation of testis D. Inflammation of an ilioinguinal hernia

45. The wound was debrided. What was done to the wound?
A. It was closed with layered sutures and dressed
B. It was medicated and left open to heal
C. It was cleansed of foreign materials or dead tissue
D. It was examined radiographically for defects

46. Which of the following patients might be documented as having meconium staining?
A. Woman with renal failure B. Teenage boy with sickle cell anemia
C. Newborn with pneumonia D. Man with alcoholic cirrhosis of liver

47. Which of the following anatomical sites have septums?

A. Nose, heart B. Kidney, lung C. Sternum, coccyx D. Orbit, ovary

48. Lordosis is a disorder of which anatomical site?

A. Spine B. Integument C. Male genitalia D. Nasal sinus

49. Which of the following place of service codes is reported for fracture care performed by an
orthopedic physician in the emergency department?
A. 11 B. 20 C. 22 D. 23

50. Which of the following is an example of fraud?

A. Reporting the code for ultrasound guidance when used to perform a liver biopsy.
B. Reporting a biopsy and excision performed on the same skin lesion during the same encounter.
C. Failing to append modifier 26 on an X-ray that is performed in the physician’s office.
D. Failure to append modifier 57 on the EM service performed the day prior to a minor procedure.

51. What occurs in angiography?

A. The veins or arteries are viewed by X-ray B. The patient is checked for angina
C. The heart is viewed using ultrasonography D. The electrical current of the heart is mapped

52. Meatus describes:

A. Septum B. Muscle C. Passageway D. Nutrient

53. Which of the following is not like the other three?

A. Radius B. Femur C. Tibia D. Calcaneus

54. What is the function of the esophagus?

A. To carry air from the pharynx into the lungs
B. To carry nutrients from the pharynx into the larynx
C. To carry air from the nose into the larynx
D. To carry nutrients from the pharynx into the stomach

55. For a patient who has had a primary malignancy of the thyroid cartilage that was completely excised
a year ago, which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. When no further treatment is provided and there is no evidence of any existing primary malignancy,
code HISTORY CODE
B. When further treatment is provided and there is evidence of an existing metastasis, code first
HISTORY CODE and then PRIMARY MALIGNANACY.
C. Any mention of extension, invasion, or metastasis to another site is coded as a SECONDARY
MALIGNANCY.
D. When further treatment is provided and there is evidence of an existing metastasis, code first
PRIMARY MALIGNANACY

56. In order to use the critical care codes, which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. Critical care services can be provided in an internist’s office
B. Critical care services provided for more than 15 minutes but less than 30 minutes should be billed
with 99291 and modifier 52.
C. Time spent reviewing laboratory test results or discussing the critically ill patient’s care with other
medical staff in the unit or at the nursing station on the floor cannot be included in the determination of
critical care time.
D. Critical care services can only be billed if the patient is in a licensed emergency room or intensive care
type unit (i.e., cardiac, surgical, respiratory).

57. Which of the following statements regarding advanced beneficiary notices (ABN) is TRUE?
A. ABN must specify only the CPT® code that Medicare is expected to deny.
B. Generic ABN which states that a Medicare denial of payment is possible or the internist is unaware
whether Medicare will deny payment or not is acceptable.
C. An ABN must be completed before delivery of items or services are provided.
D. An ABN must be obtained from a patient even in a medical emergency when the services to be
provided are not covered.

58. Which of the following services are covered by Medicare Part B?

A. Inpatient chemotherapy
B. Minor surgery performed in a physician’s office
C. Routine dental care
D. Assisted living facility

59. What is the approach in PTCA?

A. The pancreatic and common bile ducts are accessed via the stomach and duodenum.
B. A catheter is threaded through an extremity vein and into the heart.
C. A bronchoscope is threaded down the throat and into the alveoli of the lung.
D. Through a wide, open incision, the ankle fracture is reduced and internal fixation placed.

60. A patient with a contralateral fracture has what?

A. A second fracture on the same side B. Multiple and complete bone fractures
C. A fracture of only the surface of the bone D. A fracture on the opposite side

61. What is ascites?

A. Fluid in the abdomen B. Enlarged liver and spleen
C. Abdominal malignancy D. Abdominal tenderness

62. Which of the following is a disorder of the facial nerve?

A. Exotropia B. Tarsal tunnel syndrome
C. Brachial plexis lesions D. Bell’s palsy

63. Which of the following describes functions of the lymphatic system?

A. Remove excess fluid from tissue and transports and protect the body against disease
B. Maintain blood pressure and circulate hormones throughout the body
C. Return carbon dioxide to the lungs and protect the body against disease
D. Circulate hormones throughout body and return carbon dioxide to the lungs

64. Islets of Langerhans are found in which organ?

A. Kidney B. Parathyroid gland C. Pancreas D. Liver

65. Which of the following conditions would most likely be attributed to hyperlipidemia?
A. Atherosclerosis B. Multiple myeloma
C. Kwashiorkor D. Pernicious anemia

66. Which of the following statements regarding the ICD-10-CM coding conventions is TRUE?
A. If the same condition is described as both acute and chronic and separate subentries exist in the
Alphabetic Index at the same indentation level, code only the acute condition.
B. Only assign a combination code when the Alphabetic Index explanation directs the coder to use it.
C. An ICD-9-CM code is still valid even if it has not been coded to the full number of digits required for
that code.
D. Signs and symptoms that are integral to the disease process should not be assigned as additional
codes, unless otherwise instructed.

67. Which modifier should be append to a CPT®, for which the provider had a patient sign an ABN form
because there is a possibility the service may be denied because the patient’s diagnosis might not meet
medical necessity for the covered service?
A. GJ B. GA C. GB D. GY

68. What is the patient’s right when it involves making changes in the personal medical record?
A. Patient must work through an attorney to revise any portion of the personal medical information.
B. They should be able to obtain copies of the medical record and request corrections of errors and
mistakes.
C. It is a violation of federal health care law to revise a patient medical record.
D. Revision of the patient medical record depends solely on the facility’s compliance program policy.

1. Blowout fracture- anatomical location is Orbit

2. Thoracic Curvature in a kid is called Kyphosis

3. Root metr/o means Uterus

4. Nephritis causes inflammation of the kidney

5. Ascites is fluid in the abdomen

6. Bell’s Plasy causes paralysis of facial nerves

7. Pulmonary, Aortic, Mitral and Tricuspid are valves of the heart

8. Hypernatremia is overload of sodium in body

9. Icd 10 cm guidelines for neoplasm states that if histology s documented then the histological term in
the alphabetical index should be referenced first to locate the correct code

10. CMS 1500 is used for billing physician services performed at an outpatient facility

11. Office of Inspector General offers compliance programs guidance for physician practice

12. Knee join consists of medial lateral and patellofemoral

13. Digestive system includes, mouth, salivary glands, esophagus, pancreas, stomach, liver, gall bladder,
Anus and intestines

14. Wound that is proximal to her right knee is between her right knee and right thigh
15. Corpus Luteum secrets progesterone that thickens the endometrium for implantation and is
necessary to sustain pregnancy

16. Epilepsy is caused by sudden abnormal discharge of cerebral neurons in the brain

17. Endotracheal tube is placed inside the trachea to open the airways

18. ESRD impacts the genitourinary system

19. Bilateral oopherctomy means removal of both ovaries

20. Digestive system includes salivary glands, pancreas and liver

21. Function of spleen is to dstroy red blood cells that are no longer efficient

22. Interhecal injection is administered into the spinal canal

23. CKS is a disease of genitourinary system

24. Arthodesis is surgical fixation of joints

25. Lukemia is malignant disease of bone marrow

26. Liver an duodenum are found in right upper quardrant ot RUQ

27. The terms elibible professional EP is associated with PQRS

28. Followying whichever set of guidelines 965 and 97 that leads to higher paid code is most common
fraud scenario

29. Hippa was created to provide an incentive for providers who maintain patient privacy

30. Glomerulonephritis is an inflamamation affecting the urinary system

31. Proximal end of humerus fracture means upper end of the arm

32. Olihospermia means deficiency of sperms in semen

33. Thoracentesis means removing liquid or air from the lungs

34. Angio gram is a study to look inside the blood vessels

35. Labyrinthitis is the inflammation of inner ear

36. Orchitis is inflammation of testis

37. Paratubal or paraovarian cysts are formed near the area of fallopian tubes

38. Newborn with pneumonia is documented as having meconium staining

39. Nose and heart have septums

40. Lordosis is disorder of the spine

41.