ATP Radio Telephony

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ATP radio Telephony
ATP radio Telephony (East African School of Aviation )
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JAA ATPL QUESTIONS UNICATIONS
Book 14: COMMUNICATIONS
IFR Definitions
17 Questions
1. The expected approach time (EAT) means the time at which:

a. ATC expects that an arriving aircraft, following a delay, will arrive at the holding
point to complete its approach for landing
b. The pilot expects to be over a specified point
c. Lunch is served
d. ATC expects the aircraft to land
2. Am altitude of 13,500 feet would be spoken as:
a. ONE THREE THOUSEAND FIVE HUNDRED FEET
b. ANGELS THIRTEEN POINT FIVE
c. THIRTEEN THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED FEET
d. ONE THREE THOUSAND FIVE ZERO ZERO FEET
3. An aircraft is on an IFR approach to an aerodrome in VMC. This approach cab be defined as:
a. A VFR approach
b. An IFR approach
c. An IFR approach in IMC
d. A VFR approach with visual reference to the ground
4. A broadcast is a transmission of:
a. Navigational information for which no reply is expected
b. Information that is not addressed to specific aircraft
c. Information addressed to more than one aircraft
d. Any information from the ground
5. The abbreviation RVR stands for:
a. Runway Vertical Range
b. Restricted Visual Rules
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c. Radio Vertical Range

d. Runway Visual Range
6. The response to general call from ATC is for the aircraft to:
a. Give no response
b. Respond in alphabetical order
c. Request a repeat of the message
d. Respond in numerical order
7. A waypoint is:
a. A geographical location relating to area navigation (RNAV)
b. A designated reporting point
c. A visual sign pointing the way
d. A geographical point at which a change of level takes place
8. Air-ground communication is a:
a. Two-way communication between an aircraft and a station on the surface
b. Pigeon post
c. One-way communication from an aircraft to a ground station
d. A broadcast from an aircraft
9. What does RNAV stand for?
a. Royal Navy Attach Vessel
b. Radial Navigation And Vectoring
c. Area Navigation
d. Radio Navigation
10. The term ‘BROADCAST’ means that the information:
a. Is from the BBC
b. Is sent in circumstances where communication cannot be established but where it is
believed that the called station is able to receive the transmission
c. Is not addressed to a specific station
d. Requires a readback
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11. The abbreviation AIS stands for:

a. Aeronautical Information Service
b. Attitude Inversion Selector
c. Airborne Identification System
d. Aerodrome Instrument Service
12. The meaning of QNH is the:
a. Altimeter sub-scale setting that gives the elevation when on the ground
b. Altimeter sub-scale setting that gives the height above ground
c. Quite nifty handling
d. Magnetic bearing to a station
13. How does ATC report RVR?
a. In nautical miles along with runway
b. In feet and inches
c. In kilometers along the final approach
d. In metres at touchdown, mid-point and stop-end of runway
14. PAPI stands for:
a. Propeller and power indicator
b. Pay a penny immediately
c. Pitch attitude prime instrument
d. Precision approach path indicators
15. The abbreviation SSR stands for:
a. Secondary surveillance radar
b. Sector safely range
c. Single system receiver
d. Some strange radio
16. The priority of message “REQUEST QDM” is:
a. Equal to “ REQUEST DESCENT”
b. Greater than for “TURN LEFT”
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c. Less than for “QNH IS”

d. Same as for “I’M LOST”
17. The abbreviation IMX means:
a. In my cockpit
b. Instrument met conditions
c. Indicated magnetic course
d. Immediate mode communications
IFR General Operating Procedures
43 Questions
1. If the rate of speech from the ground station is high, then you should say:
a. WORDS TWICE
b. EASY BOY
c. SPEAK SLOWER
d. SAY AGAIN SLOWLY
2. The meaning of “CORRECT” is:
a. You got the last question right
b. That is correct
c. There is a change to your last clearance
d. That an error has been made in the transmission and the correct version is..
3. The phrase “ BREAK BREAK” used to indicate:
a. Separation between portions of a message
b. The end of a message
c. Separation between messages to different aircraft in a very busy environment
d. Split your formation flying
4. A waypoint is defined as:
a. A compulsory reporting point
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b. A visual reporting point

c. An optional reporting point
d. A geographical location used in relation to RNAV systems
5. If you make a mistake in transmission you should use the phrase:
a. SORRY
b. I SAY AGAIN
c. CORRECT
d. CORRECTION
6. You would use the phrase “ WORDS TWICE” when you
a. Want each word repeated twice
b. Make a blind transmission
c. Have a stutter
d. Want the whole message to be repeated
7. What is the last thing you say in the readback of a flight clearance?
a. The callsign of the other station
b. Your name
c. The designator of the standard instrument departure
d. Your callsign
8. ‘APPROVED’ means:
a. I have received all your last transmission
b. Permission for proposed action granted
c. Authorized to proceed under the conditions specified
d. Do as you please
9. Your action on receipt of the message “STANDBY ON 118.9 FOR TOWER” is to:
a. Change to freq 118.9 and contact TOWER
b. Taxi to the tower and wait
c. Change the freq 118.9 and wait for TOWER to initiate communications
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d. Wait for TOWER to contact you on present frequency to let you know when they
are ready
10. The call-sign of the station that you would be communicating with when receiving a
radar service on departure would be:
a. DEPARTURE
b. CONTROL
c. DIRECTOR
d. RADAR
11. The term “CANCEL” means:
a. Annul the previously transmitted clearance
b. Consider the message as not sent
c. Your flight has been cancelled by your operator
d. There is a correction to your last clearance
12. The meaning of “WILCO” is:
a. Standing by
b. That is correct
c. I understand your message and will comply with it
d. Yes sir
13. The term “DISREGARD” means:
a. Pay no attention to what I say
b. Consider the last message as not sent
c. Cancel the last clearance
d. You have not been cleared
14. The readback from an aircraft that is cleared to change level from FL100 to FL180 is:
a. LEAVING FL 100 DESCENDING TO FL80
b. WILCO
c. DOWN TO 8K
d. DESCENDING TO FL80
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15. READABILITY 1means:

a. Unreadable
b. Readable now and then
c. Incomprehensible
d. Readable
16. The term “CORRECTION” is used when:
a. The readback of a message is incorrect
b. The message to be deleted
c. The readback of a message is correct
d. An error has been made in the transmission and the correct version is
17. The definition of the instruction “MONITOR” is:
a. Your are being watched
b. Establish communications on frequency..
c. Watch out for visual signals on frequency..
d. Listen out on frequency..
18. The instruction from ATC to an aircraft to abandon its take off includes the phrase:
a. CANCEL TAKE-OFF
b. STOP IMMEDIATELY
c. YOU WON’T LIKE THIS
d. ABORT ABORT
19. The initial call from an aircraft, callsign FASTAIR 285 weighing more than 136 tonnes
would be:
a. FASTAIR 285 HEAVY
b. FASTAIR 285
c. HEAVY FASTAIR 285
d. FASTAIR 285 WIDEBODY
20. If you are repeating a word or a message for clarity then you should use the phrase:
a. I SAY AGAIN
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b. DITTO
c. I REPEAT
d. WORDS TWICE
21. In order to request for a readability check in flight you should use the phrase:
a. HOW DO YOU READ
b. REQUEST READABILITY CHECK
c. RADIO CHECK
d. HOW ME
22. Readability 2 means that your transmission is:
a. Two way communications have been established
b. Readable
c. Readable now and then
d. Readable but with difficulty
23. The word for the expression “ Have I correctly received the following.” Is:
a. ACKNOWLEDGE
b. CONFIRM
c. VERIFY
d. ARE YOU SURE
24. The initial call by the aircraft FASTAIR 345 with MTOE of 136 tonnes should be:
a. FASTAIR 345 FAT
b. FASTAIR 345 CAUTION WAKE TURBULENCE
c. HEAVY FASTAIR 345
d. FASTAIR 345 HEAVY
25. The information in a message from ATC that has to be readback includes:
a. Weather, wind
b. Everything except hesitation sounds
c. QNH, runway in use
d. Runway state
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26. If you hear the message “FASTER 345 STANDBY ON 118.9 FOR TOWER” you should:
a. Change to 118.9 for airfield data
b. Call TOWER on 118.9
c. Change frequency to 118.9 and wait for TWOER to call you
d. Report: STANDING BY on 118.9
27. The callsign for a radar station (general) would be:
a. CONTROL
b. CENTRE
c. SPARKS
d. RADAR
28. What cannot be left out from a position report?\
a. Callsign, Position and Time
b. Position, Time, Flight level, Next position and ETA
c. Your signature
d. Callsign Flight Level and Time
29. Word for the expression “Permission not granted” is:
a. NEGATIVE
b. NOT APPROVED
c. NEVER
d. CORRECTION
30. If a transponder is unserviceable before an IFR departure, then the pilot:
a. Has to fly low level only
b. Many proceed with the flight with ATC permission
c. Should fly for another company
d. Has to cancel the flight
31. An example of a general call is:
a. BRAKING ACTION UNRELIABLE
b. STOP IMMEDIATELY I SAY AGAIN STOP IMMEDIATELY
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c. ALL STATIONS
d. GOOD DAY
32. The phrase used by ATC to instruct you to listen out on a frequency is:
a. CONTACT
b. MONITOR
c. TRY
d. REPORT
33. When can you not readback a route clearance?
a. When it is exactly in accordance with your flight plan
b. Never
c. When you are in VMC
d. When you have better things to do
34. The callsign suffix for an airfield without radar would be:
a. RADIO
b. APPROACH
c. CENTRE
d. INFORMATION
35. The phrase used to separate portions of a message is:
a. BREAK BREAK
b. BREAK
c. I SAY AGAIN
d. UMM
36. The term “Verify” means:
a. Check and confirm with originator
b. Confirm your last transmission
c. Identify yourself
d. Cancel clearance
37. The message “CHECK” to an aircraft means that you should:
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a. Confirm that you received and understood the last message

b. Examine a system or procedure
c. Pass the required information to ATC
d. Stay where you are
38. Clearance limit if defined as:
a. The height below which you will hit the first obstacle
b. The flight level to which an aircraft is granted AYC clearance
c. The time at which the ATC clearance expires
d. The point to which aircraft is granted ATC clearance
39. The term “RECLEARED” means that:
a. A change has been made to your clearance and this new clearance supersedes
your previous clearance
b. Your last chance is confirmed
c. You may proceed as you please
d. Your last chance has been cancelled
40. The callsign suffix of an area control centre without radar is:
a. APPROACH
b. CENTRE
c. CONTROL
d. TOPLESS
41. When the readback of instructions is correct, the phrase used is:
a. AFFIRM
b. ROGER
c. NO PROBLEM
d. CORRECT
42. The callsign FASTAIR 1234 can be abbreviated to:
a. FOXTROT 34
b. FASTAIR 34
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c. 1234
d. No abbreviation
43. The callsign suffix of a station providing clearance delivery would be:
a. PRESTO
b. CLEARANCE
c. DELIVERY
d. GROUND
IFR Comms Failure
10 Questions
1. The procedure for an aircraft suffering RT failure during an IFR departure in IMC within
Europe is to:
a. Give up and return to base
b. Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome
c. Maintain the last cleared level and speed for 20 minutes and then continue with
the flight plan
d. Hold cleared level for 3 minutes and then continue in accordance with the
current flight plan
2. An aircraft under IFR in IMC has radio failure. If not EAT has been received the pilot
should aim to start descent over the Navaid serving the approach to the airfield:
a. Within 10 minutes of the last acknowledged ETA
b. Within 30 minutes of the last acknowledged ETA
c. At or as close as possible to the flight plan ETA
d. Within 5 minutes of the last acknowledged ETA
3. The procedure to be followed in the event of communications failure after departure for
an aircraft that is receiving radar vectors is to:
a. Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome
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b. Maintain the cleared level for 3 minutes and then to continue in accordance
with the current flight plan
c. Maintain the last cleared level and speed for 20 minutes and then to continue
with the flight plan
d. Make a three sixty degree turn and get out of controlled airspace
4. The Call “TRANSMITTING BLIND DUE TO RECEIVER FAILURE” is made by:
a. An aircraft
b. A pilot who cannot find the volume control
c. ATC
d. The Area Control Centre
5. The procedure for an aircraft suffering communications failure when in IMC en route is
to:
a. Maintain the last cleared level and speed for 20 minutes after the last expected
position report and then continue with the filed flight plan
b. Get out of controlled airspace
c. Hold cleared level for 3 minutes and then continue in accordance with the
current flight plan
d. Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome
6. The transponder code for radio failure is:
a. 5050
b. 7700
c. 7600
d. 7500
7. The procedure for an aircraft that suffers communications failure during an IFR flight in
visual met conditions, should:
a. Proceed direct to its destination
b. Land at the nearest suitable airfield
c. Carry out instrument approach at the nearest airfield
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d. Maintain at last cleared level and speed for 20minutes and then continue in
accordance when the flight plan
8. The procedure for a radio failure during an IFR departure is to:
a. Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome
b. Maintain the last cleared level for 3 minutes and then to continue in
accordance with the current flight plan
c. Make blind transmissions along the planned route to your destination
d. Switch to visual signalling
9. The initial frequency for a blind transmission is:
a. The frequency currently in use
b. The frequency dialed up without looking
c. The emergency frequency
d. The area control centre frequency
10. Part of the procedure for an aircraft suffering radio failure IMC en route is to:
a. Commence descent from the navigation aid at the holding point as close as
possible to the EAT last received or the ETA resulting from the current flight
plan to land within 30 minutes of this time
b. Maintain the last cleared level for 3 minutes and tehn continue according to
current flight plan to the destination
c. Make a couple of orbits and return home
d. Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome
IFR Distress & Urgency
17 Questions
1. The condition that described the state of an aircraft I serious and/or imminent danger
and requiring immediate assistance is:
a. Flight Safety
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b. Urgency
c. Hopeless
d. Distress
2. The phrase used by ATC to impose radio silence during an emergency situation is:
a. MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY OUT
b. STOP TRANSMITTING MAYDAY OUT
c. HUSH
d. DISTRESS TRAFFIC IN PROGRESS
3. The content of an urgency message should include:
a. Station called, aircraft callsign, position, cleared route, service required after
landing
b. Aircraft callsign, nature of emergency, intentions, position, level, heading
c. Your company’s name and telephone number
d. Aircraft callsign, departure aerodrome, destination, position, level intentions
4. On hearing the message “ALL STATIONS STEPHENVILLE RADAR STOP TRANSMITTING
MAYDAY” you should:
a. Assist with the emergency
b. Not interfere with the distress traffic
c. Leave the frequency
d. Re-transmit the message
5. The transponder code for unlawful interference is:
a. 7500
b. 0007
c. 7600
d. 7700
6. The call from an aircraft in imminent danger is:
a. MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY
b. OH NO!
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c. PAN PAN MEDICAL

d. PAN PAN PAN PAN PAN PAN
7. The urgency message should include the following information:
a. Name of station, aircraft callsign, nature of emergency condition, intention of
commander, position, level, heading
b. Name of station, callsign, present position, level, ETA destination
c. Callsign. position, route, destination, endurance
d. Captains number, rank and name
8. The priority for an urgency call is:
a. Lower than for a Pan Pan medical
b. Higher than for everything else but less than for distress
c. Same as for flight safety
d. Dependant upon the length of the queue
9. The ATC message “DISTRESS TRAFFIC ENDED” signifies that:
a. ATC is shutting shop
b. Normal ATC is resumed after an emergency
c. All aircraft are to end their transmissions
d. All aircraft on the frequency are to change to another frequency
10. An aircraft that wishes to end a MAYDAY situation would transmit the message
a. CANCEL DISTRESS
b. MAYDAY ENDED
c. CANCEL MAYDAY
d. DISTRESS CONDITION TERMINATED
11. On hearing an Urgency message a pilot should:
a. Change frequency because a radio silence will be imposed
b. Maintain a listening watch to see if you can assist in any way
c. Acknowledge the message straight away
d. Impose a radio silence on the frequency
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12. The call “PAN PAN MEDICAL” indicates that:

a. One of the flight crew has taken ill
b. The flight is concerning a protected medical transport pursuant to 1949 Geneva
Convention
c. There is concern about the safety of the aircraft or other vehicle or a person on
board but does not require immediate assistance
d. The crew require medical aid on the pan
13. The state of urgency is defined as a condition:
a. Where an aircraft requires an immediate take-off
b. Concerning the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle or of some person on
board but does not require immediate assistance
c. Of being threatened by serious and/or imminent danger and of requiring
immediate assistance
d. Where the aircraft needs to land immediately because the crew are running out
of duty time
14. SAR stands for:
a. Search and rescue
b. Sing along Romeo
c. Single aircraft radio
d. Secondary Airborne Radar
15. A setting of 7700 on the transponder indicates:
a. AIRCRAFT IS LOST
b. DISTRESS
c. HI-JACKING
d. RADIO FAILURE
16. The frequency 121.5 KHz is the:
a. International emergency frequency
b. International flight safety frequency
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c. Air to air chat frequency

d. One way air to ground emergency frequency
17. A protected medical transport is identified by the prefix:
a. PAN PAN PAN PAN PAN PAN
b. AIR AMBULANCE
c. PAN AM
d. PAN PAN MEDICAL
IFR Weather Information
3 Questions
1. The phrase “BRAKING CO-EFFICIENT 20” from ATC means that the braking action is:
a. Medium
b. Slippery
c. Medium to poor
d. Poor
2. Runway surface condition for which braking action would be unreliable is:
a. Wet snow and slush
b. Ice
c. Dry snow
d. Grass
3. Your reply to the message “REPORT FLIGHT CONDITIONS” should be:
a. SMOOTH/TURBULENT
b. VMC/IMC
c. NOT BAD/SO SO
d. VFR/IFR
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VFR Definitions
25 Questions
1. The theoretical VHF range that you can obtain at FL50 is:
a. 85 nm
b. 120nm
c. 71nm
d. 9nm
2. The abbreviation HJ in the operating hours column for an aerodrome means that the
aerodrome:
a. Is open from sunset to sunrise
b. Has unspecified opening hours
c. Is open from sunrise to sunset
d. Requires prior permission from inbound aircraft
3. A FIR is defined as:
a. A portion of airspace where flight information and alerting service is provided
b. A region containing only uncontrolled airspace
c. Airspace outside airways
d. A region containing only controlled airspace
4. When flying on a SW heading at 3500 heading at 3500 feet you would report your
heading and level as:
a. HEADING 045 AT THREE THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED
b. HEADING 225 AT THREE THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED
c. HEADING 225 AT THIRTY FIVE HUNDRED
d. SOUTHWEST AT THREE FIVE ZERO ZERO
5. The abbreviation AFIS stands for:
a. Automatic flight instrument system
b. Automatic flight information service
c. Aircraft fire indication system
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d. Aerodrome flight information service

6. When referring to a frequency the word “DECIMAL” can be dropped:
a. Only during a readback of a frequency
b. Never
c. Only after satisfactory communications have been established
d. Only after it has been initiated by the ground station
7. The priority of message, “REQUEST QDM” is:
a. Same as for “ CLEAR TO LAND”
b. Same as for “PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN”
c. Lower than for “CAUTION WINDSHEAR ON FINAL APPROACH”
d. Higher than for “TURN LEFT 180 DEGREES”
8. The priority of the message “LINE UP” is:
a. Less than “CLEAR TO LAND”
b. Same as “TAXI TO HOLDING POINT RUNWAY 20”
c. Same as “WORK IN PROGRESS IN TAXIWAY”
d. Greater than “REQUEST QDM”
9. The abbreviation H J means that the aerodrome is:
a. Open between sunrise and sunset
b. Open during unspecified hours
c. Open between sunset and sunrise
d. Open 24 hours
10. When reporting a frequency the use of the word “DECIMAL” can be omitted:
a. After the initial call
b. Never
c. When there is no likelihood of confusion
d. By the ground station only
11. The message “REQUIRE SPARE PARTS URGENTLY” is a:
a. Routine message
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b. Urgency message
c. Flight regularity message
d. Flight safety message
12. The priority of the message “TAXI TO HOLDING POINT ALPHA AND WAIT” is:
a. Less than “LINE UP AND WAIT”
b. Higher than “REQUEST QDM”
c. The same as “CLEARED TO LAND”
d. Same as “FLIGHT DELAYED 30 MINUTES”
13. The maximum VHF range when flying FL100 would be:
a. 100nm
b. 85nm
c. 12nm
d. 120nm
14. How do you report a level of 3500 feet
a. THREE FIVE ZERO FEET
b. THREE THOUSAND FIVE ZERO ZERO FEET
c. THIRTY FIVE HUNDRED FEET
d. THREE THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED FEET
15. The best signals for VHF communications are obtained when the position of the aircraft
is at:
a. High altitude at long range
b. Low altitude and short range
c. Low level and long range
d. High altitude and in the vicinity of the aerodrome
16. An aircraft would be in a position for best reception of radio signals from the Tower if it
is:
a. High and in vicinity of the aerodrome
b. High at a great range from the aerodrome
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c. Low and in the vicinity of the aerodrome

d. Low and behind high ground
17. The highest to lowest priority of message categories are:
a. Emergency/Flight Regularity/Flight Safety/Met/DF
b. DF/Met/Flight Safety/Emergency/Flight Regularity
c. Emergency/DF/Flight Safety/Met/Flight Regularity
d. Emergency/Flight Safety/DF/Met
18. If flying on a north-easterly heading at 2500 feet and you are asked to report your
heading and level, then you should reply with the message:
a. 045 AT 2 POINT 5
b. NORTH-EAST AT 25 HUNDRED
c. HEADING 045 AT TWO THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED FEET
d. HEADING 215 AT 2500 FEET
19. The abbreviation HX in operating hours of an aerodrome means that the airfield:
a. Open on request
b. Is open between sunrise and sunset
c. Is open between sunset and sunrise
d. Opening hours are not specified
20. The priority of the message “REQUEST QDM” is:
a. Equal to “REQUEST QNH”
b. Greatest than for “TURN RIGHT”
c. Same as for “CLEAR FOR TAKE-OFF”
d. Less than for “DESCEND TO FL80”
21. The abbreviation HX in the column for aerodrome operating hours, means that the
aerodrome:
a. Has unspecified opening hours
b. Is open 24 hours
c. Is open between sunrise and sunset
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d. Excludes non radio aircraft

22. A Flight Safety message is one that:
a. Concerns direction finding and aircraft navigation
b. Concerns the operation and maintenance of the facilities at an aerodrome
c. Is of immediate concern to an aircraft in flight or preparing to depart
d. Concerns the safety of an aircraft but does not require immediate assistance
23. A “BLIND TRANSMISSION” is a transmission:
a. From an aircraft that is directly overhead the ground station
b. Where the transmitter is unable to see the receiver
c. The transmitter of the called station is not functioning
d. From one station to another when there is no communication but where it is
believed that the caller station is able to receive the transmission
24. The VHF range for an aircraft at FL50 is:
a. 8.5nm
b. 70nm
c. 85nm
d. 50nm
25. The abbreviation for a control zone is:
a. CTA
b. CTZ
c. ATZ
d. CTR
VFR General Operating Procedures
62 Questions
1. The Q code for altitude is:

a. QDR
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b. QNH
c. QDM
d. QFE
2. If you are flying an aircraft without a transponder then the reply to an instruction to
SQUAWK should be:
a. NEGATIVE
b. NO SQUAWK
c. NEGATIVE TRANSPONDER
d. SQUAWK NOT POSSIBLE
3. Readability 3 means that your transmission is:
a. Readable but with difficulty
b. Readable now and then
c. Readable
d. Unreadable
4. The callsign for a station providing flight information service is:
a. CLEARANCE
b. CONTROL
c. TOWER
d. INFORMATION
5. The callsign suffix of an aeronautical station providing control of surface traffic on the
movement area would be:
a. TOWER
b. CLEARANCE
c. APRON
d. GROUND
6. An aircraft at FL100 over flat terrain on a clear day will have a maximum VHF
communications range of about:
a. 120nm
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b. 75nm
c. 100nm
d. 150nm
7. The Q code for height is:
a. QDM
b. QFE
c. QUJ
d. QNH
8. The callsign suffix for an aeronautical station supplying only flight information service:
a. RADAR
b. BROADCASTING
c. INFORMATION
d. CONTROL
9. If you wish to backtrack then your transmission should be:
a. REPORTING BACKTRACK
b. REQUEST BACKTRACK
c. BACKTRACKING
d. REQUEST VACATE RUNWAY
10. The correct abbreviation of callsign XY-BCD is:
a. CD
b. BCD
c. XY-CD
d. X-CD
11. The correct phrase to use when you want some information or approval for an action is:
a. ROGER
b. REQUEST
c. REPORT
d. PASS
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12. The true bearing from a station is:

a. QDM
b. QUJ
c. QTE
d. QDR
13. When told “RE-CYCLE SQUAWK 1015” you should:
a. Switch on mode C
b. Press the IDENT button
c. Reselect the digits on the transponder mode A
d. Set 1015 on your altimeter
14. The phrase to use when you want to say “yes “is:
a. AFFIRMATIVE
b. AFFIRM
c. ROGER
d. WILCO
15. The callsign of a station controlling surface vehicles in the manoeuvring area would be:
a. APRON
b. CLEARANCE
c. TOWER
d. GROUND
16. The minimum content of a readback of the message from ATC “X-CD CHANGE
FREQUENCY TO STEPHENVILLE TOWER 118.7” is:
a. TO STEPHENVILLE X-CD
b. 118.7 X-CD
c. 118.7
d. CHANGING FREQUENCY X-CD
17. How do you inform ATC of the fact that you are in an aircraft with no transponder?
a. Negative squawk
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b. Negative transponder
c. Unable squawk
d. No parrot
18. The information that must be included in the readback of a message include:
a. Time, SSR settings, level, frequency
b. Heading, altimeter setting, runway in use, type of radar service
c. Wind direction and speed, clearance to back-track on active runway, speed
d. Weather, VDF bearings, cross active runway, type of radar service
19. Report of altitude based on:
a. QDM
b. QFF
c. QNH
d. QFE
20. The suffix in the callsign of an aerodrome control service would be:
a. CONTROL
b. APRON
c. GROUND
d. TOWER
21. QDM stands for:
a. Magnetic bearing to station
b. Magnetic radial form station
c. True bearing to station
d. True bearing from station
22. The Q code for the magnetic bearing from a station is:
a. QDR
b. QDM
c. QNH
d. QTE
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23. The Q code for TRUE BEARING from a station is:

a. QFE
b. QDR
c. QTE
d. QUJ
24. The abbreviation of an aircraft callsign XY-ABC is:
a. XY-BC
b. BC
c. ABC
d. X-BC
25. The instruction “ORBIT” from ATC means that the aircraft should:
a. Continue with 360 degree turns
b. Reverse the direction of the turn
c. Carry out one 360 degree turn only
d. Carry out a go around
26. The definition of the phrase “STANDBY” is:
a. Consider the transmission as not sent
b. Hold your present position
c. Proceed with your message
d. Wait and I will call you
27. The call from an aircraft for a missed approach is:
a. GOING AROUND
b. ABORTING
c. TOUCH AND GO
d. OVERSHOOTING
28. The term “STANDBY” means:
a. Repeat your message
b. Stay where you are
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c. Wait and I will call you

d. Call me later
29. If a controller would like to say to you “Pass me the following information”, he would use
the expression:
a. READBACK
b. REPORT
c. SAY AGAIN
d. REQUEST
30. An example of a Conditional clearance is:
a. MAKE HEADING 240 DECREES AND CLIMB TO FL60
b. TAXI TO HOLDING POINT DELTA AND AWAIT FURTHER INSTRUCTIONS
c. AFTER THE LANDIGN LEARJET LINE UP
d. CONTINUE PAST INTERSECTION OF RUNWAYS THEN VACATE FIRST LEFT
31. How is the time 9.20 am reported on RT if there is no possibility of confusion about the
hour?
a. ZEO NNE TWO ZERO
b. TWO ZERO
c. NINE TWO ZERO
d. DECIMAL TWO ZERO
32. Your action in response to the instruction from ATC to “RECYCLE SQUAWK” is to:
a. Reselect the numbers on the control unit
b. Set the numbers to 7000
c. Press the IDENT button
d. Switch to standy and back to ON
33. What is the correct readback of the ATC clearance “X/BC climb straight ahead. At 2500
feet turn right. Wing 270E 10kts. Cleared for take-off”.
a. X-BC Cleared for take off
b. Wilco Cleared for take off. X BC
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c. X-BC climb straight ahead. At 2500 feet turn right. Wind 270E 10 kts. Cleared for
take off
d. Climb straight ahead. At 2500 feet turn right. Cleared for take off X-BC
34. The correct reply to the instruction “HOLD SHORT AT RUNWAY” is:
a. UNDERSTOOD
b. WILCO
c. HOLDING SHORT
d. ROGER
35. The callsign suffix of a station giving flight information is:
a. AFIS
b. CONTROL
c. INFORMATION
d. GROUND
36. When reading back a route clearance what do you say last?
a. Your level
b. The met conditions
c. Your callsign
d. The frequency
37. If a radar station says “B-LOGG IDENTIFIED” it means that aircraft callsign B-LOGG:
a. Is receiving radar service
b. Has been visually identified
c. Has been identified on radar
d. Is under radar control
38. If your are told to “SQUAWK 1250” you should
a. Set code 1250 on SSR transponder (mode A)
b. Level out at 1250 feet
c. Say “TESTING 1250”
d. Change to frequency 125.0MHz
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39. READABILITY 5 means:

a. Readable now and then
b. Perfectly readable
c. Unreadable
d. Readable
40. Who do you talk to on the manoeuvring area?
a. GROUND
b. CLEARANCE
c. APPROACH
d. TOWER
41. The time given in aeronautical communications is:
a. In minutes only
b. Local mean time
c. UTC
d. Daylight saving time
42. The instruction “AFTER THE LANDING CESSNA LINE UP” is an example of a:
a. Take-off clearance
b. Conditional clearance
c. Optional clearance
d. Provisional clearance
43. QDM means
a. Magnetic bearing to the station
b. Mean sea level pressure setting
c. Magnetic bearing from the station
d. True bearing to the station
44. The abbreviation for the callsign CHEROKEE XY-ABC would be:
a. CHEROKEE XY-BC
b. CHEROKEE BC
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c. ABC
d. XY-BC
45. When asking for a repeat of a message, you should say:
a. SPEAK SLOWER
b. REPEAT MESSAGE
c. SAY AGAIN
d. WORDS TWICE
46. The phrase STANDBY means:
a. Continue on present heading and listen
b. Call me when you are ready
c. Select Stand on the transponder
d. Wait and I will call you
47. An example of a Flight Safety message is:
a. An ATC instruction
b. A radar vectoring instruction
c. A strong wind warning
d. A message concerning the safety of a vessel or a person on board
48. The Q code on which height is based on:
a. QFF
b. QNH
c. QFE
d. QUJ
49. The action that you carry out in response to the instruction “SQUAWK IDENT” is to:
a. Reset the numbers on the control unit
b. Press the special identification (Ident) button on the control unit
c. Set 7000 on mode A
d. Move the switch on the control unit to the ALT position
50. If you wish to say “Wait and I will call you” the correct phrase to use is:
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a. HOLD
b. I SAY AGAIN
c. STANDBY
d. GO AHEAD
51. READABILITY 5 means:
b. Readable
c. Unreadable
d. Perfectly readable
52. The name or suffix on the callsign of an aeronautical station may be omitted:
a. Never
b. Provided that the aircraft is in visual contact with the aerodrome
c. Only when first used by the ground station
d. Once satisfactory comms have been established and providing there will be no
confusion
53. The Q code for a magnetic bearing from a station is:
a. QTE
b. QUJ
c. QDR
d. QDM
54. The callsign location or suffix of an aeronautical station can be dropped:
a. Only outside controlled airspace
b. Never
c. Where there is no possibility of confusion after communications have been
established
d. Only if the ground station has initiated the abbreviation
55. The callsign suffix for the ATC unit controlling aircraft and vehicles on the manoeuvring
area is:
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a. CLEARANCE
b. TOWER
c. GROUND
d. APRON
56. An aircraft can abbreviate its callsign:
a. Only after the aeronautical station has first used the abbreviation
b. Only during readbacks of instructions
c. After satisfactory communications have been established with the ground station
d. To reduce the time for radio communications
57. The correct call to make asking for radio check on the ground is:
a. G-ABCD RADIO CHECK
b. STEPHENVILLE TOWER G-ABCD HOW DO YOU READ 118.7
c. STEPHENVILLE TOWER G-ABCD READABILITY CHECK 118.7
d. STEPHENVILLE TOWER G-ABCD RADIO CHECK 118.7
58. A controller would say “BREAK BREAK” when he:
a. Wishes to create a pause in a long message to an aircraft
b. Is instructing an aircraft to abandon take-off
c. Wishes to cancel a message already transmitted to an aircraft
d. Is in a busy environment and has communications with more than one aircraft
59. If your readback of a clearance is correct ATC will say:
a. CORRECT
b. CONFIRMED
c. ROGER
d. GOOD
60. The message “READABILITY 3” means:
b. Readable but with difficulty
c. Readable
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d. Unreadable
61. “WILCO” means
a. I have received all your last transmission
b. I understand your message and will comply with it
c. Permission for proposed action granted
d. That is correct
62. In order to make message effective you should:
a. Speak slower
b. Speak at a constant volume
c. Use words twice
d. Repeat the message
VFR Weather Information Terms
9 Questions
1. What information does VOLMET broadcast (on VHF)?

a. SIGMETs
b. TAF for specific aerodromes
c. METARs for various aerodromes
d. Flight schedules
2. In METARs “SCATTERED” means cloud cover of:
a. 5-7 oktas
b. 3-4 oktas
c. 1-2 oktas
d. No significant cloud
3. CAVOK means that the values of visibility and cloud are:
a. >10km and no cloud below 10000 feet
b. >8km and cloud less than 3 oktas below 5000 feet
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c. >10km and no cloud below 5000 feet

d. >5km and no cloud below 10000 feet
4. The frequency on which ATIS can be found is
a. Discrete VHF only
b. VOR frequency only
c. Discrete VHF or VOR frequency
d. Any ATC frequency
5. When told by ATC to listen for ATIS on 123.45, you should reply with:
a. WILCO
b. ROGER
c. CHANGING TO ATIS
d. MONITORING 123.45
6. The message from ATC saying “VISIBILITY 1200” means that the visibility is:
a. 1.2nm
b. 1200 feet
c. 1200 metres
d. 12km
7. AYIS can be obtained on:
a. On the Tower frequency
b. Only on a discrete frequency
c. On the Ground frequency
d. A discrete VHF/VOR frequency
8. On a METAR “BROKEN” means a cloud cover of:
a. 5-7 oktas
b. 1-2 oktas
c. overcast
d. 3-4 oktas
9. The VOLMET broadcasts include information about:
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a. QNHs for all airfields

b. TAFs for selected airfields
c. METARs for selected airfields
d. Arrival and departure details for selected airfields
VFR Comms Failure
17 Questions
1. When do you look for visual signs if you have communications failure?
a. En route
b. In controlled airspace
c. After landing
d. In the circuit at a controlled airfied
2. In the event of a suspected receiver failure blind transmissions should be made:
a. Once on the designated frequency
b. On the emergency frequency only
c. On the frequency of the nearest radar service unit
d. Twice on the designated frequency
3. When making a blind transmission you should:
a. Transmit the message twice
b. Transmit each word twice
c. Wait for visual signals
d. Repeat the message on 121.5MHz
4. If you are unable to contact a station on a designated frequency you should:
a. Start transmitting blind
b. Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome
c. Try another appropriate frequency
d. Transmit the words twice
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5. Following a radio failure you are required to look for visual signals when you are:
a. Along the entire route
b. In controlled aerospace
c. Only in an emergency
d. Operating in a visual circuit at a controlled aerodrome
6. A blind transmission is defined as a transmission where:
a. The aircraft is in IMC
b. Two-way communications cannot be established but where it is believed that
the called station is able to receive the transmission
c. The aircraft is not is visual contact with the receiver
d. The receiver is out of radio range
7. If unable to make contact on a designated frequency you should first:
a. Make a BLIND TRANSMISSION
b. Try another frequency appropriate to the route
c. Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome
d. Look out for visual signals
8. The selection of the code 7600 on a transponder indicates:
a. Distress
b. Hi-jacking
c. Urgency
d. Loss of comms
9. In the event of communications failure you would look for visual signals:
a. In the circuit at a controlled aerodrome
b. As soon as you are visual with the aerodrome
c. After landing
d. En route
10. The procedure for blind transmissions requires that you:
a. Use words twice
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b. Transmit once on the frequency in use

c. Transmit every 5 minutes
d. Transmit twice on the designated frequency
11. A transponder setting of 7600 indicates:
a. Distress
b. Hi-jacking
c. Aircraft not on track
d. Radio failure
12. In the case of communications failure the transponder should be set to:
a. 0000
b. 770
c. 7500
d. 7600
13. The frequency to be used for a blind transmission is:
a. Frequency of the nearest radar station
b. The approach frequency
c. 121,5KHz
d. The frequency in use
14. When unable to establish 2-way communications you should prefix your message with:
a. RADIO CHECK
b. TRANSMITTING BLIND
c. PAN PAN PAN PAN PAN PAN
d. DO YOU READ?
15. In the event receiver failure the frequency to use for a blind transmission is:
a. The frequency of the destination aerodrome
b. The frequency of any radar service unit
c. Frequency on which you are at the time
d. 121.5MHz
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16. If you have communications failure in VMC on the way to your destination airfield, the
correct action to take initially is to:
a. Call another station
b. Land as soon as possible at a non-ATC aerodrome
c. Return to the departure aerodrome
d. Try raising your voice
17. When do you look for visual signals after a communications failure?
a. After landing
b. Overhead an aerodrome
c. Joining the circuit at a controlled airfield
d. EN route in VMC
VFR Distress & Urgency
17 Questions
1. The condition that defines the state of an aircraft in imminent danger is:
a. Distress
b. Mayday
c. Urgency
d. Pan Pan
2. The prefix for distress call by an aircraft is:
b. DISTRESS DISTRESS DISTRESS
c. PAN PAN PAN PAN PAN PAN
d. WE HAVE A PROBLEM
3. The condition that defines the state of Urgency is that:
a. There is concern about the safety of the aircraft or a person on board but it
does not require immediate assistance
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b. There are warnings of severe weather that is likely to affect the aircraft
c. There is an emergency on the ground
d. The aircraft is threatened by serious or imminent danger and requires immediate
assistance
4. In an urgency condition the frequency to use first is:
a. The international distress frequency
b. The frequency of the area control centre
c. The air-ground frequency currently in use
d. The frequency of the nearest radar station
5. Setting a Squawk of 7700 indicates that you:
a. Are not receiving a radar service
b. Have a radio failure
c. Are in controlled airspace
d. Have an emergency
6. The frequency to transmit on first for an urgency call is the:
a. Frequency of the nearest radar station
b. Frequency in use
c. International distress frequency
d. Frequency of the area control centre
7. The definition of the distress condition is that:
a. The aircraft is a protected medical transport pursuant to the 1948 Geneva
Convention
b. The aircraft has already crashed
c. There is concern about the safety of the aircraft or a person on board but there is
no need for immediate assistance
d. The aircraft is in imminent danger and requires immediate assistance
8. What do you say in a distress situation?
a. PAN PAN PAN PAN PAN PAN
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b. DISTRESS DISTRESS DISTRESS

c. MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY
d. PAN PAN PAN
9. The definition of a distress condition is that:
a. The aircraft is making an emergency landing away from an aerodrome
b. The aircraft is on fire
c. The aircraft is being threatened by serious or imminent danger and requiring
immediate assistance
d. There is concern the safety of an aircraft or other vehicle or person on board but
does not require immediate assistance
10. The words proceeding an URGENCY message should be:
a. URGENCY URGENCY URGENCY
b. PAN PAN PAN
c. MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY
d. PAN PAN PAN PAN PAN PAN
11. On what frequency do you transmit your first MAYDAY call?
a. 121.5MHz
b. The frequency of the nearest radar station
c. The frequency in use
d. The frequency of the nearest FS
12. The radiotelephony call for a Distress condition is:
b. PAN PAN PAN PAN PAN PAN PAN PAN
c. SOS SOS SOS
d. Emergency Emergency Emergency
13. The frequency to use in the event of a Distress condition is the:
a. 121.5KHz
b. The frequency of the nearest radar station
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c. The frequency of the nearest Area Control Centre

d. Air-ground frequency currently in use
14. You would set 7700 on the transponder when you:
a. Suffer communications failure
b. Enter the UK FIR
c. Are being hi-jacked
d. Are in an emergency condition
15. The Squawk code for radio failure:
a. 7000
b. 7700
c. 7600
d. 7500
16. The international emergency frequency is:
a. 121.050 MHz
b. 121.500 MHz
c. 123.500 MHz
d. 121.005 MHz
17. The abbreviation SAR stands for:
a. Special Aviation Regulations
b. Special Altitude Rules
c. Search and Rescue
d. Slope Along Runway
VHF Propagation & Frequencies
5 Questions
1. The minimum frequency separation between VHF channels is:
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a. 8.33 kHz
b. 25 MHz
c. 8.33 MHz
d. 25 kHz
2. The full range of VHF frequencies used for communications is:
a. 88 to 108 MHz
b. 108.0 to 139.5 MHz
c. 118 to 136.975 MHz
d. 3 to 30 MHz
3. The correct readback of the frequency 123.725 on 25kHz spacing is:
a. 12372
b. 123.725
c. 123.72
d. 123.7
4. The VHF frequency band for aeronautical communications covers the range of
frequencies:
a. 3 to 30 MHz
b. 118.0 to 136.975 MHz
c. 118.0 to 136.975 MHz
d. 108.0 to 118.0 MHz
5. The band for frequencies between 118.0 to 136.975 MHz is known as the:
a. SHF band
b. UHF band
c. VHF band
d. HF band
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ATP radio Telephony

ATP radio Telephony (East African School of Aviation )

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Book 14: COMMUNICATIONS

1. The expected approach time (EAT) means the time at which:

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c. Radio Vertical Range

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11. The abbreviation AIS stands for:

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c. Less than for “QNH IS”

IFR General Operating Procedures

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b. A visual reporting point

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15. READABILITY 1means:

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a. Confirm that you received and understood the last message

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IFR Comms Failure

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IFR Distress & Urgency

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c. PAN PAN MEDICAL

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12. The call “PAN PAN MEDICAL” indicates that:

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c. Air to air chat frequency

IFR Weather Information

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d. Aerodrome flight information service

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c. Low and in the vicinity of the aerodrome

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d. Excludes non radio aircraft

VFR General Operating Procedures

1. The Q code for altitude is:

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12. The true bearing from a station is:

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23. The Q code for TRUE BEARING from a station is:

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c. Wait and I will call you

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39. READABILITY 5 means:

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VFR Weather Information Terms