MEDICAL CODING

MINI MOCK CPT

NAME: _____________________ SCORE: ______________

SECTION: _____________________ DATE: _______________

CPT CODING GUIDELINES

1. A patient presents with ventricular tachycardia and undergoes a comprehensive EP study. The provider induces arrythmia
and performs 3D mapping to find the VT originating from the right ventricular outflow tract. The provider then ablates this
area and then performs another attempt at induction to confirm the ablation. This time, a different area of AVNRT is
induced at a slow pathway. The provider then ablates this area and attempts induction again. The induction produced no
further arrythmias. The correct CPT® code(s) to report for this encounter are:
A. 93654, 93613
B. 93654, 93655, 93613
C. 93654, 93655
D. 93654

2. A patient presents after having an episode of SVT approximately three weeks ago. A 5F quadripolar catheter is placed in
the right femoral vein and advanced to the right atrium where pacing and recording are performed. The catheter is then
advanced to the right ventricle for additional pacing and recording. The Bundle of His is also recorded during this
procedure. Induction of arrhythmia was attempted, but after three unsuccessful attempts, the catheter was removed and
the procedure was completed. The correct CPT® code(s) are:
A. 93620
B. 93619
C. 93610, 93602, 93612 93603, 93600
D. 93653

3. A patient presents with SVT. A comprehensive study is performed along with left ventricular pacing, recording, and left
ventricular 3D mapping. Programmed electrical simulation was done during isoproterenol infusion and the SVT was
induced. This was ablated using radiofrequency. Induction post ablation provoked another area causing SVT. This area
was then ablated also using radiofrequency. Further attempts at induction did not produce any additional arrythmias. The
catheter was withdrawn and the procedure concluded. What is the procedural coding?
A. 93653
B. 93653, 93655, 93622, 93613, 93623
C. 93653, 93655
D. 93653, 93655, 93622, 93613

4. Which CPT® code is assigned when the inflow and outflow vessels of a single abdominal organ are studied?
A. 93976
B. 93975
C. 93979
D. 93978

5. The correct CPT® code for total abdominal hysterectomy is:

A. 58150
B. 58180
C. 58210
D. 58260

6. Based on the following OP note excerpt, which CPT® code should you report?
Due to the extreme nature of the turbinate hypertrophy, it was very difficult to visualize the middle meatus and the
nasopharynx. Attention was turned to the inferior turbinates at the beginning of the procedure. They were injected in a
tumescent manner, and then both were debulked using a submucosal debrider. The most posterior aspect of both inferior
turbinates was noted to be bulbous and prolapsed in to the nasopharynx. The inferior turbinates were outfractured, then
adequate space was available to instrument the middle meatus and nasopharynx.
A. 30140-50
B. 30140-50, 30930-50, 51
C. 30130-50
D. 30930-50
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MINI MOCK CPT

7. Which CPT® code reports procedures performed on the middle turbinates?

A. 30930
B. 30999
C. 30802
D. 30130

8. Which is the proper modifier for a repeat diagnostic laboratory test on the same day?
A. Modifier 76
B. Modifier 77
C. Modifier 91
D. Modifier GC

9. A patient is seen in the emergency department (ED) for abdominal pain. A decision is made to obtain a CT of the
abdomen and pelvis with oral contrast. Which CPT® code and modifier should the reading radiologist bill?
A. 74160-TC
B. 74176-26
C. 74176-TC
D. 74177-26

10. Which modifier is not applicable when coding a diagnostic radiology exam?
A. Modifier 50
B. Modifier 77
C. Modifier 26
D. Modifier 25

11. Which is not an element of the HPI?

A. Severity
B. Timing
C. Quantity
D. Associated signs and symptoms.

12. A patient presents to the urgent care after accidently cutting two fingers with a bagel knife. The laceration on the index
finger is 1 cm, and 2 cm on the middle finger. Simple repairs are performed on each laceration with 5-0 nylon. Which is
proper coding?
A. 12001 x 2
B. 12001
C. 12002
D. 12042

13. A progress note with one to three elements of HPI for a new patient office visit will result in an E/M level no higher than:
A. 99203
B. 99214
C. 99202
D. 99213

14. A patient has a panniculectomy, as well as a coring out and relocation of the umbilicus. Which is correct coding
assignment for this surgery?
A. 15830
B. 15830, 14301, 14302
C. 15830, 15847
D. 15830, 15877

15. The patient is a 49-year-old woman who presents to the ER with an acute onset of pain in her right wrist after falling while
being chased by a dog. She fell onto an outstretched hand and struck it sharply against her front doorstep. X-rays of her
right hand and wrist confirm she sustained a Colles distal radius fracture. The orthopedist on call places her in a short-arm
cast and the visit is documented to Level 3.
A. 25600-RT, 99283-57
B. 25600-RT, 29075-59-RT, 99283-57
C. 25605-RT, 29075-51-RT, 99283-25
D. 25605-RT, 99283
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MINI MOCK CPT
16. A 28-year-old female patient was draped and prepped under local anaesthetic with 1 percent lidocaine and
bicarbonate. Informed consent was obtained and bone marrow was aspirated from the left posterior iliac crest and
specimen was sent for analysis. The patient presented to the ER five hours later, on the same day, and the same provider
obtained a bone marrow biopsy from the posterior iliac crest and sent the specimen for analysis. Proper coding is:
A. 38222
B. 38221-59, 38220
C. 38220, 38221
D. 38221, 38220-59

17. A patient presents for her first appointment with a cardiologist. She has not been to a cardiologist before. The cardiologist
performs a comprehensive history and exam, with low complexity medical decision-making. What is the correct CPT®
code for this visit?
A. 99214
B. 99213
C. 99203
D. 99204

18. What is the correct procedure coding for a laparoscopic sleeve gastrectomy, with hiatal hernia repair and endoscopy?
A. 43664
B. 43775
C. 43775, 49562
D. 43664, 49562, 47550

19. Which is the correct code for reporting transcatheter mitral valve repair (TMVR)?
A. 33418
B. 33361
C. 0483T
D. 33417

20. The psychiatric collaborative care management (CoCM) codes for reporting 116 minutes of subsequent care management
are:
A. 99493
B. 99492 x 2 and +99494 x 1
C. 99493 x 1 and +99494 x 1
D. 99492 x 3

21. True or False: You may report bone marrow aspiration separately when performed with bone marrow transplantation at
the same session and site.
A. True B. False

22. When determining whether a patient is new or established, a “professional service” means:
A. Any service a provider performs
B. Any non-face-to-face service a provider performs
C. Any face-to-face service a provider performs
D. Any service provided to a patient by a facility

23. A pleasant 65-year-old male with no history of skin cancer, presents to his dermatologist requesting skin evaluation. He
has two spots on his abdomen that have been there for 30 years unchanged, except occasionally itchy. The dermatologist
performed a full skin examination. The areas examined included scalp, face, eyelids, lips, neck, ears, chest, back,
abdomen, buttocks, upper and lower extremities bilaterally, hands, feet, hair, and nails. The doctor noted no significant
findings other than two suspicious lesions on his abdomen. The physician performed a shave biopsy after an informed
consent was obtained. A tangential shave biopsy of each lesion was obtained using a derma blade. Hemostasis was
achieved with 20 percent aluminum chloride solution and pressure. Bandages were applied and wound care instructions
were provided. CPT® coding in this scenario is:
A. 11100 x 2
B. +11101 x 2
C. 11100
D. 11100, +11101

24. An established patient presents to her dermatologist with a recurrent seborrheic keratosis of the left leg. The area was
marked for a shave removal. The area was infiltrated with local anesthetic, prepped, and draped in a sterile fashion. The
lesion measuring 1.6 cm was shaved using a 13-blade. Hemostasis was achieved using light pressure. The specimen
was sent to pathology. How do you code this?
A. 11312
B. 11302
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MINI MOCK CPT
C. 11310
D. 11311

25. The patient presents to the therapy department with lymphedema of the right upper arm. The therapist performs manual
lymphatic drainage for a total of 15 minutes. Which code do you assign?
A. 97110
B. 97150
C. 97140
D. 97530

26. Patient receives 24 minutes of 97112 and 23 minutes of 97110 during a 47-minute treatment encounter. Which code(s)
should you assign?
A. Two units of 97112, two units of 97110
B. Two units of 97112, one unit of 97110
C. Three units of 97112, one unit of 97110
D. Three units of 97110, one unit of 97112

27. 62-year-old patient with left tibial and left peroneal artery stenosis undergoes revascularization in both arteries using
transluminal angioplasty and stent placement, including atherectomy. The procedures are performed percutaneously.
Proper coding is:
A. 37228, 37231
B. 37231, 37235
C. 37228
D. 37231.

28. PTA is performed in the left superficial femoral artery. Atherectomy and stent placement are also performed in the same
artery. What is the correct code for reporting these procedures?
A. 37226
B. 37228
C. 37227
D. 37225

29. A physician begins post-operative care on Dec. 7 for a patient who underwent an intracranial aneurysm repair on Dec. 5.
The physician performs all post-operative services within the global period. How should the claims for post-op care be
coded?
A. 99024-55
B. 61700-55
C. 61700-54
D. 61700

30. A three-year-old established patient receives a well-child preventive service. A nurse counsels the parents about influenza
immunization and a 0.5 mL quadrivalent, split virus, influenza virus vaccine is administered by IM injection. A pure tone,
air only, hearing screening is also performed with negative findings. What procedure codes are reported for these services
per CPT® instruction?
A. 99392-25, 90460, 92551
B. 99392-25, 90460, 90686, 92551
C. 99392-25, 90471, 90688, 92551
D. 99392, 90460-25, 90688, 92551

31. 12-year-old established patient presents for a well-child examination. History and physical examination are normal. A
structured instrument is used to screen for depression, with normal findings documented. The second in a series of
nonvalent HPV immunization is administered after the physician answers questions the parents had regarding the
effectiveness of the two-dose series. What procedure codes are reported for these services per CPT® instruction?
A. 99394-25, 90460, 90651
B. 99394-25, 90471, 90651
C. 99394-25, 90471, 90651, 96127
D. 99394-25, 90460, 90651, 96127

32. A 68-year-old female presents to her physician’s office for an annual preventive exam. It has been 4 months since her last
visit. The physician documents an age and gender appropriate history, examination, counseling, anticipatory guidance,
and risk factor reduction interventions. She also orders appropriate screening services. A detailed HPI is gathered around
the patient’s hypertension and diabetes. Both conditions are stable and the physician advises the patient to continue
current medications and provides refills. What CPT® code(s) should be reported for the service(s) provided?
A. 99387, 99214
B. 99397, 99214, 99406
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MINI MOCK CPT
C. 99387
D. 99397

33. The pulmonologist documents 120 minutes in coordinating CCM of a current patient with COPD, Afib, and HTN. Which
CPT® code(s) are billed?
A. 99487, 99489
B. 99487, 99489, 99489
C. 99490, 99489, 99489, 99489
D. The provider cannot bill because he is a specialist.

34. True or False: You must report After Hours service codes 99050-99053 in addition to other E/M service codes:
A. True
B. False

35. An office has regularly posted office hours of Monday through Friday from 8:30 a.m. to 5 p.m., and the physician sees a
patient at 7 p.m. Which After Hours code best describes this service?
A. 99050
B. 99051
C. 99053
D. 99499

36. Physician administers an MMR vaccine and a varicella vaccine at the same encounter. Counseling is provided for all
components. Which is proper coding for administration of these vaccines?
A. 90460 x 2
B. 90460, 90461
C. 90460, 90461 x 3
D. 90460 x 2, 90461 x 2

37. Which is proper coding for bilateral diagnostic mammography with computer-aided detection?
A. 77065
B. 77065 x 2
C. 77066
D. 77067

38. Which is the CPT® code for implantation of tissue markers into the prostate?
A. 55700
B. 55876
C. 55875
D. 19281

39. A 26-year-old male presented for his established patient visit with his primary care physician, Dr. Z. The patient was found
to have significantly elevated blood pressure with profuse sweating and complaints of a headache. Dr. Z, in his
documentation, states that labs were drawn and an EKG was performed, all of which had abnormal results. Dr. Z decided
the patient should be admitted for CT testing and further observation. After arrangements were made, the patient was
transported to the medicine floor of the hospital with a plan of care in hand. Later, after Dr Z completed his roster of office
visits, he went to the hospital to reassess the patient. The patient’s symptoms had somewhat improved; however, Dr. Z
decided the patient should remain overnight for reassessment the next morning. How should you report Dr. Z’s charges
for this day?
A. Initial Observation Care 99218-99220
B. Office Visit 99211-99215 and Initial Observation Care 99218-99220
C. Subsequent Observation Care 99224-99226
D. Initial Hospital Care 99221-99223

40. A 17-year-old female with a history of a drifting left eye presents with poor vision and a total retinal detachment in the left
eye. In the operating room, she undergoes drainage of subretinal fluid, and both cryotherapy and laser to a vascular
tumor. Photocoagulation and cryotherapy are used in the same session, with photocoagulation as the primary method.
Proper coding is:
A. 67101
B. 67105
C. 67101, 61705
D. 67105, 67101-59

41. Which is the proper modifier to report a return to the operating room during the postoperative period to treat a
complication of the prior procedure?
A. Modifier 24
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MINI MOCK CPT
B. Modifier 59
C. Modifier 78
D. Modifier 79

42. Proper coding for bilateral rib X-ray, five views, including back to front view of the chest is:
A. 71101
B. 71110
C. 71111
D. 71120

43. Your surgeon admits his patients overnight for hip replacements. What code should you use for the first procedure-
related, post-operative visit he performs in the hospital when the patient is in the ICU?
A. 99235
B. 99024
C. 99232-55
D. 99291

44. An 11-year-old girl is administered tetanus and diphtheria toxoids (DT) adsorbed, with counseling provided to her and her
parents by a nurse practitioner qualified under scope-of-practice to report counseling. Which is the appropriate coding for
the immunization administration (in addition to the toxoids)?
A. 90460 x 2
B. 90460, 90461
C. 90471, 90472
D. 90471, 90473

45. A 6-year-old boy is administered diphtheria, tetanus toxoids, acellular pertussis, hepatitis B, and inactivated poliovirus
vaccines, with counseling of his parents provided by a physician assistant qualified under scope-of-practice. Which is the
appropriate coding for the immunization administration (in addition to the vaccines)?
A. 90460 x 5
B. 90461 x 5
C. 90460, 90461 x 4
D. 90471, 90472 x 4

46. A 5-year-old boy is administered a total of four separate vaccines (no combination vaccines given). Which is the
appropriate coding for the immunization administration, only?
A. 90460 x 4
B. 90460, 90461 x 3
C. 90471
D. 90471, 90472 x 3

47. A 33-year-old presents for a flu vaccine (not preservative-free), but has concerns because some of her friends said that
they got sick after having the injection. The physician meets with her to address these concerns and reassure her that the
benefits far outweigh the risks, which are minimal. The patient goes through with the intramuscular injection. Which is the
appropriate coding for the immunization administration, only (do not report the toxoids/vaccines)?
A. 90470
B. 90460
C. 90461
D. 90471

48. True or False: If an appropriate Category III code is available to report a service, you may choose to report either the
Category III code or a Category I “unlisted procedure” code.
A. True B. False
49. The patient is 3 years old. The same physician performing the primary procedure also provides moderate sedation for 40
minutes (intraservice time). Proper coding is:
A. 99151
B. 99152, 99153 × 2
C. 99151, 99153
D. 99151, 99153 × 2
50. The patient is 33 years old. A different physician performing the primary procedure also provides moderate sedation for 28
minutes (intraservice time). Proper coding is:
A. 99155
B. 99156
C. 99156, 99157
D. 99155, 99157