E-Commerce Act b.
Voidable, for failure to comply with the
1. It refers to a person who is intended by the
originator to receive the electronic data
message or electronic document.
a. Addressee
b. Recipient
c. Intermediary
d. Provider
2. It refers to a person by whom, or on whose
behalf, the electronic document purports to
have been created, generated and/or sent
a. Addressor
b. Sender
c. Originator
d. Provider
3. It refers to any distinctive mark,
characteristic and/or sound in electronic
from, representing the identity of a person
and attached to or logically associated with
the electronic data message or electronic
document or any methodology or
procedures employed or adopted by a
person and executed or adopted by such
person with the intention of authenticating
or approving an electronic data message or
electronic document.
a. Electronic key
b. Electronic ID
c. Electronic mark
d. Electronic signature
4. Statement 1: An audio can be a form of
electronic signature.
Statement 2: Without a right established or
an obligation extinguished, an information
cannot be considered as an electronic
document.
a. Only Statement 1 is true.
b. Only Statement 2 is true.
c. Both statements are true.
d. Both statements are not true.
5. A service provider has the authority to:
I. Modify or alter the content of the
electronic document received
II. Make any entry therein on behalf
of the originator
a. I only.
b. b. Il only.
c. c. Both I and II.
d. Neither I nor II.
6. Under the Civil Code, a contract of sale of
goods priced not less than P500 is covered
by the Statute of Frauds. If the contract of
sale of goods was entered into in electronic
form, what is the status of the contract?
a. Perfectly valid.
requirement of the Statute of Frauds.
c. Unenforceable, for failure to comply
with the requirement of the Statute of
Frauds.
d. Void
7. Where the law requires that a document be
presented or retained in its original form,
that requirement is met by an electronic
document if:
a. The integrity of the document can be
definitely traced from the time when
it was first generated in its final form
b. There exists a reliable assurance as
to the integrity of the document
from the time when it was first
generated in its final form
c. There exists an electronic signature
which ensures the integrity of the
document from the time when it was
first generated in its final form
d. The originator employed security
features such as the use of electronic
keys at the onset of the document
which still exists in the final form of
the document
8. Statement 1: For evidentiary purposes, an
electronic document does not satisfy the
requirement of an original document.
Statement 2: An electronic signature cannot
be considered as equivalent to the signature
of a person in a written document.
a. Only Statement 1 is true.
b. Only Statement 2 is true.
c. Both statements are true.
d. Both statements are not true.
9. In proving that an electronic is equivalent to
the signature of a person in a written
document, there must be proof that a
procedure was followed, under all of the
following, except:
a. A method is used to identify the party to
be bound and to indicate said party's
access to the electronic document
necessary for his consent or approval
through the electronic signature;
b. Said method is reliable and appropriate
for the purpose for which the electronic
document was generated or
communicated, in the light of all
circumstances, including any relevant
agreement;
c. It is necessary for the party sought to be
bound, in order to proceed further with
the transaction to have executed or
provided electronic signature; and
d. The other party can rely on the
electronic signature as authentic for all
intents and purposes.

10. Which of the following electronic data
message can be attributed to the originator?
I. Electronic data messages sent by
a person who had the authority
to act on behalf of the originator
II. Electronic data messages by an
information system programmed
by the originator
III. Electronic data messages by an
information system programmed
on behalf of the originator
a. I only.
b. l and Il only.
c. I and III only.
d. I, II, and III.
11. Samantha obtained two electronic
documents. The first electronic document
was protected with a password. Samantha
called Rose to ask for the password of the
document, and Rose informed Samantha to
download an application that provides a six-
digit key which changes every 30 seconds.
Upon use of the application, Samantha was
able to gain access to the document. Upon
browsing the document, Samantha saw that
it was a promissory note payable to her
electronically signed by Marie. On the due
date, Samantha went to Marie to collect on
the proceeds of the promissory note. Marie
contends that the promissory note was not
hers and that she should not be liable. Which
of the following statements is true?
a. Samantha can regard the electronic
document as that of Rose since it was
the procedure given by Rose which gave
access to the document.
b. Samantha can regard the electronic
document as that of Marie since an
electronic signature is the functional
equivalent of a signature on a written
instrument.
c. Samantha can regard the electronic
document as that of both Rose and
Marie since they were both instrumental
on Samantha's access to the document.
d. Samantha cannot regard the electronic
document as that of both Rose and
Marie considering that the electronic
document is password-protected.
12. Robin received two electronic non-
negotiable promissory notes by email on
January 15, 2021. The emails were received
two seconds apart. The two electronic
promissory notes were identical. The
amount involved were P2,000,000 each, and
were electronically signed by Matt as the
maker on the same date. Both promissory
notes were due on March 15, 2021. On the
said date, Robin sought to collect P4,000,000
from Matt. However, Matt contended that
he only undertook to pay P2,000,000 and
that the second email he received was just
an error of double sending. How much
should Matt pay Robin?
a. P2,000,000. Duplicates of electronic
documents cannot be regarded as
separate electronic documents.
b. P4,000,000. Robin is entitled to regard
each electronic document
c. received as separate electronic
documents. P3,000,000. Duplicates of
electronic documents are only given one
half of its intended effectivity.
d. No liability. The apparent duplication of
the electronic documents invalidates all
that has been received.
13. If the addressee and the originator are both
participants in the designated information
system, the time of receipt of electronic data
messages is:
a. Upon entry in the designated
information system
b. Upon sending by the originator
c. Upon acknowledgment of receipt by
the addressee
d. Upon retrieval by the addressee
14. An electronic contract of sale of services was
entered into between Patrick and Boo.
Patrick is a resident of Marikina with
principal place of business in Quezon City
while Bob is a resident of Pasig with principal
place; business in Mandaluyong. While
Patrick was on vacation at Cebu cry, Bob sent
a contract of sale to Patrick. Patrick, through
his mobile phone opened the document at
Cebu City. Where is the electronic contact of
sale received?
a. Marikina
b. Quezon City
c. Pasig
d. Cebu City
15. Statement 1: Where the law requires that
any action referred to contract of carriage of
goods be carried out in writing or by using a
paper document, that requirement is met if
the action is carried out by using one or more
electronic data messages or electronic
documents.
Statement 2: Parties to any electronic
transaction shall be free to determine the
type of level of electronic data message or
electronic document security needed.
a. Only Statement 1 is true.
b. Only Statement 2 is true.
c. Both statements are true.
d. Both statements are not true.
 FRIA
1) Which of the following statements is true
regarding proceedings under the
Financial Rehabilitation and Insolvency
Act?
a. It is a proceeding in rem, which
means it binds the whole world
b. The proceedings are adversarial in
nature, which means it requires an
opposing party and is heavily litigated.
c. It is a proceeding in personam, which
means that is attaches to the person
d. Jurisdiction over all persons affected is
acquired by service of summons
2) An insolvent person is one who is
generally:
I. Unable to pay its or his liabilities as
they fall due
II. Has liabilities greater than its or her
assets
a. I only
b. II only
c. Both
d. Neither
3) Statement 1: In order to be considered as
a creditor under the FRIA, the credit must
have security.
Statement 2: In order to be considered as
a creditor under the FRIA, the claim of the
creditor must have arisen on or before
commencement date
a. Only S1 is true
b. Only S2 is true
c. Both are true
d. Both are not true
4) Which of the following proceedings is
covered by the FRIA
I. Voluntary rehabilitation
II. Voluntary liquidation
III. Involuntary liquidation
a. I & II only
b. I & III only
c. II & III only
d. I, II, III
5) This involves calling the creditors to a
meeting to propose and agree on a
schedule of payments outside the
necessary or legitimate expenses of the
business, and the issuance of a
suspension order to prevent pending
executions against the debtor
a. Amicable settlement
b. Suspension of payments
c. Pre-negotiated rehabilitation
d. Voluntary rehabilitation
6) Suspension of payments cover:
a. Individual debtors
b. Partnership only
c. Partnership and corporations
d. Individual debtors, partnerships,
and corporations
7) In suspension of payments:
a. The amount of indebtedness is
reduced
b. The amount is indebtedness is not
affected
c. The number of creditors is reduced
d. The number of creditors shall not
exceed five (5)
8) How much is the minimum requirement
for the amount of claims in suspension of
payments?
a. P500,000
b. P1,000,000
c. P5,000,000
d. None
9) Statement 1: under suspension of
payments, the debtor is required to be
insolvent
Statement 2: suspension of payments is
initiated by the debtor
a. Only S1 is true
b. Only S2 is true
c. Both are true
d. Both are not true
10) As a rule, no creditor shall sue or
institute to collect his claim from the
debtor from the time of the filing of the
petition for suspension of payments and
for as long as the proceedings remain
pending. Which of the following creditors
are expected from this prohibition?
a. Creditors having claims for
personal labor
 b. Creditors with accounts that are
overdue for at least 365 days
c. Creditors with loan contracts
embodied in a public instrument
d. Unsecured creditors
11) As a rule, no creditor shall sue or
institute to collect his claim from the
debtor from the time of the filling of the
petition for suspension of payments and
for as long as the proceedings remain
pending. Which of the following creditors
are not excepted from this prohibition?
a. Creditors having claims for
maintenance
b. Creditors having claims pertaining
to last illness of the wife of the
debtor
c. Creditors having claims pertaining
to the funeral expenses of the
children of the debtor
d. Creditors having claims pertaining
to the construction of the last
legal residence of the debtor
12) In relation to the suspension of
payments, in order to constitute a
quorum, how many creditors should
attend the creditor’s meeting?
a. Creditors holding at least ½ of the
liabilities of the debtor
b. creditors holding at least 2/3 of the
liabilities of the debtor
c. creditors holding at least 3/5 of
the liabilities of the debtor
d. creditors holding at least ¾ of the
liabilities of the debtor
13) in order to approve a proposed
agreement with creditors, a double
majority is required. A double majority
constitutes:
i. ½ of the creditors wrong
ii. 2/3 of the creditors voting
iii. Claims of the majority vote amount
to at least 3/5 of the total liabilities
iv. Claims of the majority vote amount
to at least 2/3 of the total liabilities
a. I and III
b. II and III
c. I and IV
d. II and IV
14) It is the restoration of the debtor to a
condition of successful operation and
solvency
a. Solvency
b. Recovery
c. Restoration
d. Rehabilitation
15) If a corporation is the debtor, who
initiates an involuntary rehabilitation?
a. The corporation’s creditor
b. Majority of the directors or
trustees
c. Stockholder representing 2/3
outstanding capital/members of
non-stock corporation
d. Stockholder representing ½ of
outstanding capital/members of
non-stock corporation
16) If a corporation is the debtor, who
initiates a voluntary rehabilitation?
I. The corporation’s creditor
II. Majority of the directors or
trustees
III. Stockholder representing 2/3
outstanding capital/members of
non-stock corporation
IV. Stockholder representing ½ of
outstanding capital/members of
non-stock corporation
a. I only
b. II and III only
c. II and IV only
d. I, II, & III only
17) Involuntary rehabilitation may be
initiated by creditors with claims or
aggregate of whose claim is:
a. At least P1,000,000 or 25% of the
subscribed capital stock or
partners’ contributions,
whichever is higher
b. At least P1,000,000 or 25% of the
subscribed capital stock or
partners’ contributions, whichever
is lower
c. At least P1,000,000 and 25% of the
subscribed capital stock or
partners’ contributions
d. At least P1,000,000
18) In rehabilitation proceedings under
FRIA, the commencement order includes:
 a. A cease and desist order 22) Which of the following is not a
b. A hold order responsibility of the rehabilitation
c. A stay order receiver?
d. An injunction order a. Preserving the value of the assets
of the debtor
19) The Commencement Order has the b. Preparation of a rehabilitation plan
effect of: c. Approval of the rehabilitation
i. Suspension of all actions or plan
proceedings, in court or otherwise d. Implementation of the
for the enforcement of claims rehabilitation plan
against the debtor
ii. Suspend all actions to enforce any 23) When appointed by the court, it shall
judgement, attachment or other take the place of the management and
provisional remedies against the the governing body of the debtor and
debtor assume their rights and responsibilities
a. I only a. Substitute Board
b. II only b. Court-Appointed Administrator
c. Both c. Management Committee
d. Neither d. Creditor’s Committee

20) The Commencement Order is issued 24) The rehabilitation plan may include:
when: i. Debt forgiveness
a. Five days from the filing of the ii. Dacion en pago
petition iii. Debt-Equity conversion
b. Ten days from the filing of the a. I and II
petition b. I and III
c. Fifteen days from the filing of the c. II and III
petition d. All
d. Thirty days from the filing of the
petition 25) Statement 1: the debtor needs to
agree with the out-of-court rehabilitation
21) A case for estafa has been filed plan
against Mr. X by Ms. Y. Ms. Y alleged that
Mr. X misappropriated P1,000,000 which Statement 2: creditors representing at
she handed in trust to Mr. X. least 75% of the secured obligation must
Subsequently, the order creditors of Mr. agree with the out-of-court rehabilitation
X filed a petition for involuntary plan
rehabilitation of Mr. X. A commencement a. Only S1 is true
order was issued by the court. What b. Only S2 is true
happens to the case for estafa filed c. Both true
against Mr. X? d. Both not true
a. The criminal case for estafa is
dismissed 26) The standstill period shall not exceed
b. The criminal case for estafa is a. Sixty (60) days from the date of
suspended or held in abeyance effectivity
until the commencement order b. Ninety (90) days from the date of
has been lifted effectivity
c. The criminal case for estafa is c. One hundred twenty (120) days
deemed submitted for decision of from the date of effectivity
the court d. One hundred fifty (150) days from
d. The criminal case for estafa shall effectivity
not be affected by the issuance of
the commencement order.
27) In both voluntary and involuntary b. Yes, when a petition for
liquidation, the amount of debt must be rehabilitation is filed and it is
at least: established that the debtor is not
a. P500,000 insolvent and has substantial
b. P1,000,000 assets which may be liquidated
c. P5,000,000 c. Yes, when a petition for
d. P10,000,000 rehabilitation is filed and it is
established that the debtor is
28) In involuntary liquidation, what must indeed insolvent and there is
the creditors prove? substantial likelihood that the sale
a. That the debtor is insolvent of the assets is the more expedient
b. That the debtor committed acts of way of satisfying creditor’s claims
insolvency d. No, in no case may a court-
c. That the debtor has no more assets supervised or pre-negotiated
d. That the debtor has outstanding rehabilitation proceeding be
balances amounting to P5,000,000 converted to a liquidation
proceeding
29) Which of the following is not an act on
insolvency by the debtor?
a. That being absent from the
Republic of the Philippines, with
intent to defraud his creditors, he
remains absent
b. That he conceals himself to avoid
the service of legal process for the
purpose of hindering or delaying
the liquidation or of defrauding his
creditors
c. That being a merchant or
tradesman, he has generally
defaulted in the payment of his
current obligations for a period of
fifteen (15) days
d. That an execution having been
issued against him on final
judgment for money, he shall have
been found to be without sufficient
property subject to execution to
satisfy the judgment

30) During the pendency of court-

supervised or pre-negotiated
rehabilitation proceedings, may the court
may order the conversion of
rehabilitation proceedings to liquidation
proceedings?
a. Yes, when a petition for
rehabilitation is filed and it is
established that the debtor is
indeed insolvent but there is no
substantial likelihood for the
debtor to be successfully
rehabilitated
 Intellectual Property Law
‘1. It means any visible sign designated as such in the
application for registration and capable of
distinguishing the origin or any other common
characteristic.
a. Collective mark
b. Trade name
c. Collective name
d. Collective trade
‘2. Generally, how are rights over a mark acquired?
a. Through registration
b. Trough continuous use
c. Through prior use
d. Through prescription
‘3. Which of the following marks can be registered?
a. Marks consisting of a name of a living
individual
b. Marks consisting of a name of a living
President
c. Marks consisting of a name of a deceased
President during the life of his widow
d. Marks consisting of a name of a deceased
individual during the life of his widow
‘4. Statement 1: The coat of arms of the Philippines
cannot be registered as a trademark
Statement 2: The coat of arms of Malaysia cannot be
registered as a trademark in the Philippines
a. Only S1 is true
b. Only S2 is true
c. Both are true
d. Both are not true
‘5. Which of the following is true regarding
internationally well-known marks?
a. A mark that is well-known internationally
needs to be registered in the Philippines in
order to be protected against infringement
by identical or similar goods
b. A mark that is well-known internationally
needs not to be registered in the Philippines
in order to be protected against
infringement by identical or similar goods
c. A mark that is well-known internationally
needs not to be registered in the Philippines
in order to be protected against
infringement by goods regardless of the fact
that identity or similarity may not exist
d. A mark that is well-known internationally
needs to be registered in the Philippines in
order to be protected against infringement
by goods regardless of the fact that identity
or similarity may not exist
‘6. Which of the following is legally protectable?
i. Generic terms
ii. Descriptive terms
iii. Arbitrary terms
a. I only
b. II only
c. III only
d. I, II, & III
‘7. Under this doctrine, a word or phrase originally
incapable of exclusive appropriation with reference
to an article in the market, because geographical or
otherwise descriptive might nevertheless have been
used so long and so exclusively by one producer with
reference to this article that, in that trade and to
that group of the purchasing public, the word or
phrase has come to mean that the article was his
produce.
a. Doctrine of Prior and Consistent Use
b. Doctrine of Secondary Meaning
c. Doctrine of Public Reference
d. Doctrine of Trademark Prescription
‘8. How long does rights to a trademark last?
a. 5 years from registration
b. 10 years from registration
c. 15 years from registration
d. 20 years from registration
‘9. Lady Gaga filed a trademark application for her
driving apparel which she calls “Lady Goggles”. Four
years after, Lady Gaga discovered that a certain Lady
Garcia is selling diving apparel under the same
name, i.e, “Lady Goggles”. Lady Gaga filed with the
IPO an administrative case for trademark
infringement. Lady Garcia contended that Lady Gaga
failed to file a Declaration of Actual Use, and
therefore, she cannot be sued for trademark
infringement. Decide,
a. I will rule in favor of Lady Gaga since the
deadline for the filling of the Declaration of
Actual Use is five (5) years from the date of
registration
b. I will rule in favor of Lady Gaga since the non-
filling of the Declaration of Actual Use does
not affect the status of trademark
registration but merely gives rise to penalties
c. I will rule in favor of Lady Garcia since the
non-filing of the Declaration of Actual Use
within three (3) years from application date
gives rise to the cancellation of registration
 d. I will rule in favor of Lady Garcia since the
non-filing of the Declaration of Actual Use
bars Lady Gaga from pursuing any remedies
with the IPO.
’10. Which of the following most accurately
describes the dominancy test?
a. Confusing similarity is determined on the
prevalent features of the marks
b. Confusing similarity is determined on the
entirely of the marks in question
c. Confusing similarity is determined only
through visual comparisons
d. Confusing similarity is determined only
through aural and connotative comparisons.
’11. Statement 1: Fraudulent intent is necessary in
order for one to be held liable of trademark
infringement.
Statement 2: Fraudulent intent is necessary in order
for one to be held liable of unfair competition
a. Only S1 is true
b. Only S2 is true
c. Both is true
d. Both is not true
’12. Which of the following is true regarding unfair
competition?
a. If a trademark is not registered, then there is
no unfair competition
b. To determine whether there is unfair
competition, it must be determined if there
is likelihood of confusion
c. The essence of unfair competition is the act
of passing off goods as that of another
d. Unfair competition may exist even without
the sale of the goods whose marks are in
issue
’13. What is the effect of the presence of an intent
to mislead the public in a case of trademark
infringement?
a. No effect. In order for conviction of
trademark infringement to lie, there is no
need to prove intent to mislead the public
b. Damages that may be recovered by the
trademark owner may be doubled
c. Aside from injunction, the trademark owner
may seek the destruction of infringing
materials
d. There arises a prima facie presumption that
the infringer is likewise guilty of unfair
competition
’14. Copyright cover:
a. Inventions
b. Literary or artistic works
c. Brands
d. Utility models
’15. Which of the following is covered by the
protection granted to copyrights?
i. Computer programs
ii. Photographic works
iii. Musical compositions
a. III only
b. I & III only
c. II & III only
d. I, II & III
’16. For copyrightable works, when does protection
commence?
a. From the moment of creation
b. From the moment of application
c. From the moment of registration with the
IPO
d. From the moment of first commercial sale
’17. Johann wrote a poem for his girlfriend Yna.
Johhanna bought a scented parchment paper and
wrote the 12-stanza poem by hand. Johann then
sent the poem to Yna. Unfortunately, things went
sour between Johann and Yna and they eventually
broke up. Johann is now seeking to recover the
handwritten poem contending that the copyright is
his. can Johann recover the handwritten poem?
a. No. Yna is the owner of the physical
manifestation of the poem
b. No. Yna is the owner of the copyright
c. Yes. Johann is the owner of the physical
manifestation of the poem
d. Yes. Johann is the owner of the copyright
’18. Johann wrote a poem for his girlfriend Yna.
Johhanna bought a scented parchment paper and
wrote the 12-stanza poem by hand. Johann then
sent the poem to Yna. Unfortunately, things went
sour between Johann and Yna and they eventually
broke up. Yna, appreciating the talent Johann
poured in writing the poem, sold Johann’s poem for
profit. Johann got mad, considering that the words
were personal. Johann sued Yna for copyright
infringement. Is Yna liable for copyright
infringement?
a. No. Yna is the owner of the physical
manifestation of the poem
b. No. Yna is the owner of the copyright
c. Yes. Johann is the owner of the physical
manifestation of the poem
 d. Yes. Johann is the owner of the copyright
’19. Kristy received a tip from an anonymous person
that the President along with an unidentified
woman checked in at a five-star hotel in a
prestigious resort own. Kristy called her friend who
is living nearby to confirm with the receptionists if
there was indeed such booking from the President.
The friend confirmed the news. Jobert was able to
eavesdrop the phone call between Kristy and her
friend, and Jobert also made investigations of his
own. Kristy, thinking that it was exclusive, quickly
drafted an article and published it in her news site.
Jobert followed in a minute with his own article, but
complete with photographic evidence which Kristy
does not have. Kristy contended that it was her
scoop, and Jobert committed copyright
infringement. Did Jobert commit copyright
infringement?
a. No. Jobert’s article have picture while
Kristy’s article does not have pictures
b. No. News of the day is a no-copyrightable
work
c. Yes. Jobert obtained the information by
eavesdropping on Kristy’s call
d. Yes. Jobert’s article came a minute after
Kristy’s article was published
’20. Which of the following is copyrightable?
a. The Phytagorean theorem, which is a
formula for the computation of the
hypotenuse of a triangle
b. The Kaizen method, a method of business
operations
c. The discovery of the COVID-19 vaccine which
elicits chemical reactions form cells. The
discovery was made by Pfizer
d. A Sunday afternoon on the Island of La
Grande Jatte by Georges Seurat, which
famously used pointillism in paintings
’21. Atty. X made a book on Obligations and
Contracts. However, readers noticed that 80% of the
content is just lifted verbatim from the Civil Code
and Supreme Court decisions. Atty. Y, who is
working with the government, sued Atty. X for
copyright infringement. Is Atty. X guilty of copyright
infringement.
a. No. Eighty percent is not considered as
substantial reproduction
b. Yes. The commercial sale of the books for
profit makes Atty. X guilty for copyright
infringement
c. No. There can be no copyright infringement
from lifting laws and jurisprudence
d. Yes. The mere reproduction of the books,
even without the sale, makes Atty. X liable
for copyright infringement
’22. Minda is receptionist at a hotel. Due to an
ongoing pandemic, visitors in the hotel plunged to
an all-time low. Thus, Minda had a lot of spare time.
While sitting in the front desk, facing the computer
installed, she was narrating her experiences as a
receptionist whose life is severly affected by the
pandemic. She uploaded her stories in her social
media accounts, and went it viral. She was able to
seal a book deal for her story. The hotel
management is now complaining that it should have
a part of the proceeds of the book, considering that
it should be the owner of the copyright over the
book. Is the hotel management correct?
a. Yes. The book was done during Minda’s
official working hours
b. No. Writing a book is not part of Minda’s
regular function
c. Yes. The book was done using the hotel’s
computer
d. No. The hotel is merely a co-owner of the
copyright together with Minda.
’23. Annie commissioned Louie to paint a portrait of
her for a fee. Which of the following statements is
correct?
a. Annie owns the painting and the copyright
over the painting
b. Louie owns the painting and the copyright
over the painting
c. Annie owns the painting and Louie owns
the copyright over the painting
d. Louie owns the painting and Annie owns the
copyright over the painting
’24. Which of the following does not constitute
copyright infringement?
i. The reproduction or distribution of
published articles or materials in a
specialized format exclusively for the use
of the blind, visually and reading-
impaired persons on a for-profit basis
ii. Use made of a work for the purpose of
any judicial proceedings or for the giving
of professional advice by a legal
practitioner
a. I only
b. II only
c. Both
d. Neither
’25. All of the following are factors to be considered
in determining whether use of a copyrighted
material falls under fair use, except:
a. The prestige of the author or the specific
copyrighted work
b. The amount and substantiality of the portion
used in relation to the copyrighted work as a
whole
c. The effect of the use upon the potential
market for or value of the copyrighted work
d. The purpose and character of the use
’26. Statement 1: The term of protection over moral
rights is fifty (50) years
Statement 2: The heirs of a copyright owner may
fully deprive themselves of the right to participate in
the gross proceeds of the sale or lease of a
copyrighted work.
a. Only S1 is true
b. Only S2 is true
c. Both are true
d. Both are not true
’27. Works of applied art has a term of protection of:
a. Ten (10) years
b. Twenty-five (25) years
c. Thirty (30) years
d. Fifty (50) years
’28. Which of the following is not a requisite for an
invention to be patented?
a. Novelty
b. Inventive Step
c. Ornamentality
d. Industrial Applicability
’29. Archimedes, through his study, had come up
with the formula for the area of circles, which he
writes as A=r2. On the other hand, James Naismith
invented the game basketball. Assuming that
Archimedes and Naismith are both applying for a
patent over what they have come up, who is entitled
to a patent?
a. Archimedes only
b. Naismith only
c. Both
d. Neither
’30. M. Lex, in his laboratory, invented a microchip
with transistors that are just 3 nanometers in size,
resulting in the fastest microchip ever invented. He
tried placing the microchip in a laptop, and it ran
faster than expected. He had a tech expert see the
laptop, and the tech expert was likewise amazed at
the unprecedented performance of the microchip.
The tech expert asked for the details of the
transistors, which Lex willingly provided. The tech
expert then told Mosley of Lex's invention. Seven
months later, Lex filed his patent application over
the microchip with the Intellectual Property Office.
Mosley opposed the application considering that he
is already in the making of the patent and that the
disclosure to him removed the element of novelty
from Lex's microchip. Is Lex entitled to a patent?
a. Yes. The disclosure was made by Lex
himself and Mosley who obtained the
information directly from Lex
b. No. The disclosure was made by Mosley,
who is not an inventor
c. No. There is a lapse of more than six months
from the time Lex made the disclosure to
Mosley up to the time of patent application
d. Yes. Novelty is not an element of a patent
over an invention.
’31. An invention involves an inventive step if,
having regard to prior art:
a. It is not replicable by a person skilled in the
art
b. It is not replicable by any person
c. It is not obvious to a person skilled in the art
d. It is not obvious to any person
’32. Statement 1: If two or more persons separately
made the same invention, priority is given to one
who filed first, notwithstanding the fact that the late
filer may have actually invented first
Statement 2: A patent application need not
specifically lay down its claims, i.e., matters for
which protection is sought. Otherwise, disclosure of
the claims may lead to unnecessary leak of the
patented invention.
a. Only S1 is true
b. Only S2 is true
c. Both ate true
d. Both are not true
’33. How long is the term of protection for patents?
a. 10 years
b. 20 years
c. 25 years
d. 50 years
’34. Under this doctrine, there is patent
infringement if the principle or mode of operation is
the same or substantially the same
a. Literal infringement
b. Substantial infringement
 c. Doctrine of operational comparability
d. Doctrine of equivalents

’35. Which of the following is not a ground for

compulsory licensing?
a. National emergency/circumstances of
extreme urgency
b. Invention is not being worked in the
Philippines on a commercial scale without
satisfactory
c. Competitive use
d. Demand for patented drugs and medicine is
not being met to an adequate extent.
 Philippine Competition Act a. Agreements restricting competition as to
price
‘1. Statement 1: The Philippine Competition Act b. Agreements controlling and limiting
applies to the combinations or activities of workers technical development
or employees designed solely to facilitate collective c. Agreements to enter into a joint venture for
bargaining the development of an envisioned product
d. Agreements dividing the market per
Statement 2: Acts done outside the Philippines may territory between two competitors
likewise be covered by the Philippine Commission
Act ‘7. A corporation owns 70% of B corporation and
a. Only S1 is true 80% of C corporation. C corporation purchases 90%
b. Only S2 is true of its raw materials from D corporation. a contract
c. Both are true which seeks to limit production was entered into
d. Both are not true between two entities. Which entities should it be in
order to be considered anti-competitive?
‘2. It refers to a position of economic strength that a. Between A corporation & B corporation
an entity or entities hold which makes it capable of b. Between A corporation & C corporation
controlling the relevant market independently from c. Between B corporation & C corporation
any or a combination of the following: competitors, d. Between C corporation & D corporation
customers, suppliers, or consumers
a. Controlling position ‘8. Which of the following acts may be considered as
b. Market leading position abuse of dominant position?
c. Dominant position i. Selling one’s goods or services at above
d. Monopoly cost
ii. Committing anti-competitive acts that
‘3. It refers to the joining of two (2) or more entities prevent competitors from growing
into an existing entity or to form a new entity. within market
a. Merger iii. Development of a superior product or
b. Consolidation process to edge out competition
c. Market fusion a. I & II only
d. Business combination b. II only
c. III only
‘4. By definition, relevant market is the combination d. I, II, & III only
of:
a. Relevant product market and relevant ‘9. Statement 1: Permissible price differentials are
geographic market inherently anti-competitive
b. Relevant product market and relevant
territorial market Statement 2: Socialized pricing for the less fortunate
c. Relevant consumer market and relevant sector of the economy is an example of permissible
geographic market price differential
d. Relevant consumer market and relevant a. Only S1 is true
territorial market b. Only S2 is true
c. Both are true
‘5. Which of the following are considered prohibited d. Both are not true
acts under the Philippine Competition Act?
i. Competitive Agreements ’10. Does the Philippine Competition Act allow the
ii. Abuse of Dominant Position existence of a dominant position of an entity?
iii. Prohibited Mergers a. Yes. What is prohibited are acts that
a. I & II only exploits this dominant position
b. I & III only b. Yes. What is prohibited are acts that acquire
c. II & III only this dominant position from already existing
d. I, II & III ones
c. No. Dominant positions are anti-competitive
‘6. Which of the following is not an example of an in nature
anti-competitive agreement?
 d. No. Dominant positions necessarily
discourage new players from entering the
relevant market
’11. Statement 1: Apple, Inc., released iPhone 17,
thereby reducing the market share of other
competitors with the new flagship phone’s
advanced camera system. This is an abuse of
dominant position
Statement 2: Microsoft, Inc., released Microsoft
Office 2022, which contains new patented software
features such as 3D & 4D editing and advanced
graphics. Other software developers are prohibited
from duplicating these features due to the patent.
This is an abuse of dominant position.
a. Only S1 is true
b. Only S2 is true
c. Both are true
d. Both are not true
d. valid, but the parties are subject to civil and
criminal penalties
’15. Merger or acquisition covered by compulsory
notification are prohibited from consummating
their agreement until:
a. thirty (30) days after providing notification
to the PCC
b. sixty (60) days after providing notification to
the PCC
c. ninety (90) days after providing notification
to the PCC
d. one hundred twenty (120) days after
providing notification to the PCC

’12. Dubu’s Fruit Juice is the Philippines’ leading

producer of pineapple juice. It operates its factory in
Negros Oriental where it purchases 9% of the
pineapple output of the pineapple farmers. The
market rate for pineapple is P150 per kilo. Dubu’s
Fruit Juice is bargaining with the farmers and their
cooperatives to sell the pineapples to them at P70
or else, it will buy pineapples from other sources. Is
this proposal legal?
a. Yes, this is allowed
b. No, this is an example of an anti-competitive
agreement
c. No, this is an example of prohibited merger
d. No, this is an example of an abuse of
dominant position

’13. Merger or acquisition agreements that

substantially prevent, restrict or lessen competition
in the relevant market or in the market for goods or
services are:
a. Prohibited
b. Discouraged
c. Subject to greater license fees
d. Encouraged

’14. If an agreement covered by the compulsory

notification was threshold was implemented
without the requisite notification to the PCC, the
agreement should be considered:
a. Void
b. Rescinded
c. Valid, but the parties are subject to civil
penalties
 Data Privacy Act
1. It refers to communication by whatever
means of any advertising or marketing
material which is directed to particular
individuals.
a. Direct marketing
b. Direct communication
c. Direct advertising
d. Direct infringement
2. It refers to a person or organization who
controls the collection, holding process or
use of personal information, including a
person or organization who instructs
another person or organization to collect,
hold, process, use, transfer or disclose
personal information on his or her behalf
a. Personal information collector
b. Personal information controller
c. Personal information manager
d. Personal information repository
3. It refers to an individual whose personal
information is processed
a. Personal information provider
b. Personal information holder
c. Data subject
d. Data person
4. Anita obtains the addresses of her customers
for her food business, so that she may be
able to deliver her goods efficiently. Bonnie
obtains the names and age of her students
as part of her recordkeeping as advise of the
class. Cassie obtains emails and phone
numbers of her friends to save on her phone.
Who among them is a personal information
controller?
a. Anita only
b. Anita and Bonnie only
c. Anita and Cassie only
d. Bonnie and Cassie only
5. Winnie, a personal information processor, is
charged with violation of the Data Privacy
Act. The violation consists of two acts. First,
Winnie revealed the salary ranger of Sally, an
administrative Officer III at the Department
of Finance. Second, Winnie, in publishing her
research, disclosed the ages and sexes of the
respondents to her survey. Is Winnie liable
for violation of the Data Privacy Act?
a. No
b. Yes, but only as to the first act
c. Yes, but only as to the second act
d. Yes, on both acts
6. Which of the following statements is true
regarding news sources of journalists?
a. Journalists are compelled to reveal
the source of any news report
b. Journalists, any order of competent
court, are compelled to reveal the
source of any news report
c. Journalists are compelled to reveal
details regarding sources of any news
report except those classified as
sensitive personal information
d. Journalists are not compelled to
reveal the source of any news report
7. Which of the following is not included in the
application of the Data Privacy Act?
I. Information about an individual
who is or was performing service
under contract for a banking
institution that relates to the
services performed
II. Information necessary for banks
and other financial institutions to
comply with the Anti-Money
Laundering Act
a. I only
b. II only
c. I & II only
d. Neither I nor II
8. Which of the following statements is true
regarding a personal information controller
outside of the Philippines?
a. A personal information controller
outside of the Philippines is not
covered by the Data Privacy Act even
if the personal information pertains
to Philippines citizens
b. A personal information controller
outside of the Philippines is not
covered by the Data Privacy Act even
if the personal information pertains
to Philippines residents
c. A personal information controller
outside of the Philippines is not
covered by the Data Privacy Act if the
personal information pertains to
non-residents
d. A personal information controller
outside of the Philippines is not
covered by the Data Privacy Act
even if the personal information
pertains to Philippine residents or
citizens
9. The National Privacy Commission is an
agency attached to:
a. Department of National Defense
b. Commission on Human Rights
c. Department of Information and
Communications Technology
d. Department of Privacy
10. All of the following are qualifications of the
Privacy Commissioner, except:
a. At least thirty-five (35) years of age
 b. A resident of the Philippines for at
least two (2) years
c. Of good moral character,
unquestionable integrity and known
probity
d. A recognized expert in the field of
information technology and data
privacy
11. Which of the following acts performed upon
personal information constitute processing?
I. Collection
II. Storage
III. Retrieval
IV. Erasure
a. I & III only
b. II & IV only
c. I, II & III only
d. I, II, III, & IV
12. This principle provides that the Processing of
Personal data shall be adequate, relevant,
suitable, necessary, and not excessive in
relation to declared and specified purpose.
a. Principle of Proportionally
b. Principle of Legitimate Purpose
c. Principle of Relevance
d. Principle of Reasonable Extent
13. This principle provides that the Data Subject
must be aware of the nature, purpose, and
extent of the Processing of his or her
Personal Data by the Company, including the
risks and safeguards involved, the identity of
persons and entities involved in processing
his or her Personal Data, his or her rights as
a Data subject, and how these can be
exercised
a. Principle of Proportionality
b. Principle of Informed Consent
c. Principle of Awareness
d. Principle of Transparency
14. This principle provides that the Processing of
Personal Data by the Company shall be
compatible with a declared and specified
purpose which must not be contrary to law,
morals, or public policy.
a. Principle of Transparency
b. Principle of Compatibility
c. Principle of Legitimate Purpose
d. Principle of Adherence
15. Kris joined the raffle draw of Barry’s
Supermarket in the hopes of winning a 42”
Smart TV. Kris indicated her mobile phone
number and email address in the form given
for the raffle entry. The form looked simple
for Kris. It just contained empty fields to be
filled out, the logo of Barry’s Supermarket,
and the grand prizes to be won. However, to
her surprise, Kris soon received multiple
promotions from different brands asking her
to buy products at a discount. Her email
inbox soon became spammed as well with
unwanted promotion. Is there a data privacy
principle violated?
a. None
b. Yes. The Principle of Proportionality
was violated
c. Yes. The Principle of Legitimate
Purpose was violated
d. Yes. The Principle of Transparency
was violated
16. Which of the following best defines the term
“personal information”?
a. Those which the data subject would
normally and reasonably regard as
private in nature
b. Those form which the identity of an
individual can be subject to identity
theft
c. those which the personal information
controller would regard as having
economic value
17. Statement 1: there can be no lawful
processing of personal information without
the consent of the data subject
Statement 2: if the processing information
controller is subject, then such is considered
as lawful processing by the Data Privacy Act.
a. Only statement 1 is true
b. Only statement 2 is true
c. Both statements are true
d. Both statements are not true
18. All of the following are privileged
information, except:
a. Attorney-client privileged information
b. Doctor-patient privileged information
c. Priest-confessor privileged information
d. Bank-client privileged information
19. Which of the following is classified as
sensitive personal information?
a. List of Facebook friends
b. Tax return
c. Credit card information
d. Passwords
20. Which of the following is not classified as
sensitive personal information?
a. Bank account number
b. Political affiliation
c. High school grades
d. Social security numbers
21. Mr. X was admitted in a hospital. He is
suffering from difficulty in breathing, high
fever, and fatigue. His symptoms are quickly
worsening. The doctor asked his wife as to
previous admissions, but the wife had no
idea. Instead, the wife informed the doctor
 that he was previously admitted at BCD
Hospital, and they have the health records of
Mr. X. The doctor called at BCD Hospital, and
BCD Hospital disclosed the health records to
the doctor. Is there any breach of the Data
Privacy Act with the disclosure?
a. Yes, because Mr. X did not give her
consent
b. No, because Mr. X’s wife, as his duly
authorized representative, gave her
consent for the disclosure
c. Yes, because health records are
considered as sensitive personal
information
d. No, because the processing of the
personal information is necessary for
purposes of medical treatment
22. Which of the following information can a
business organization obtain without
violating the Data Privacy Act?
I. Tax Identification Number of its
employees
II. Medical records for employees who
gave signified that they wish to avail
of the health insurance benefit of the
company
III. Names of customers for purposes of
issuing invoices and official receipts
a. I only
b. I and III only
c. I and II only
d. I, II, & III
23. Statement 1: A data subject shall have the
right to be informed of the purpose for
which his personal information is being
taken
Statement 2: A data subject shall have the
right to be informed of the duration for
which his personal information will be stored
by the personal information controller
a. Only S1 is true
b. Only S2 is true
c. Both are true
d. Both are not true
24. Which of the following is false regarding the
rights of a data subject?
a. A data subject shall have the right to
object to the processing of his or her
personal data, including processing. For
direct marketing, automated processing
or profiling
b. A data subject can no longer object to
the processing of his data once he has
given it to a personal information
processor
c. A data subject can choose which
personal information will be subject to
processing, withholding from processing
those which he chooses otherwise
d. If a personal information controller
changes the purpose for which the
personal information of the data is to be
processed, the data subject may
withhold consent
25. A data subject has the right to access:
I. The address of the personal
information controller
II. Sources from which his personal
information were obtained
a. I only
b. II only
c. Both I & II
d. Neither I & II
26. A data subject has the right to data
portability. This means that:
a. A data subject can transfer his data from
one personal information controller to
another
b. A data subject can obtain a copy of his
personal information
c. A data subject can change the purpose
for which his personal information will
be processed
d. A data subject can dictate the format in
which his personal information will be
stored
27. Which of the following is true regarding the
data subject’s right to correction?
a. The personal information controller
shall ensure the accessibility of both the
new and the retracted information
b. The data subject can exercise this right
only once
c. The personal information controller has
no obligation to inform third persons
who may have obtained the data prior to
correction of the correction made by the
data subject
d. The personal information controller is
obligated to delete the retracted
information.
28. In the event that the personal information
controller reasonably believes that sensitive
personal information has been acquired by
an unauthorized person, the personal
information controller has the obligation to:
a. Notify the affected data subjects
b. Notify the National Privacy
Commission
c. Notify all data subjects which the
personal information controller
handles
d. Notify both the affected data
subjects and the National Privacy
Commission
29. The data processor must report data
breaches to the NPC within a period of:
 a. 24 hours
b. 48 hours
c. 72 hours
d. Five days

30. A data privacy violation is considered to be

large scale if:
a. The personal information of at least
ten (10) persons is harmed
b. The personal information of at least
twenty (20) persons is harmed
c. The personal information of at least
one hundred (100) persons is
harmed
d. The personal information of at least
one thousand (1,000) persons is
harmed
 Truth in Lending Act
‘1. The disclosures under the Truth in
Lending Act are required by law to be
made:
a. Prior to the consummation of
the transaction
b. Simultaneous to the
consummation of the transaction
c. Consequent to the
consummation of the transaction
d. At any time, depending on the
stipulation of the parties
‘2. According to the Truth in Lending
Act, prior to the consummation of the
transaction, the creditor shall furnish
all the following information, except:
a. Service charges incident to the
extension of credit
b. Down payment to be credited
c. Percentage that the finance
charges bear to the amount to be
financed
d. Place and manner where and
how payment should be made
by the borrower
knowledge of the credit
institution
‘4. All registered CGEs shall charge
interest based on:
a. The amount of loan extended at
the signing of the loan
b. The outstanding balance of a
loan at the beginning of an
interest period
c. The amount of loan extended at
the signing of the loan, net of any
down payment or discounts
d. The outstanding balance of a loan
at the end of an interest period
‘5. CGEs shall be issued an
Acknowledge of Registration by the
BSP, which shall be valid for:
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. 4 years

‘3. Aside from the required information

to be furnished to persons to whom
credit is extended, what additional
information is required by BSP Circular
No. 775 s.2012?
a. Date of repayment
b. SEC & BSP Registration number of
the creditor, if a juridical entity
c. Effective annual interest rate
d. Statement that the information
contained in the contract are
truthful to the best of the