Professional Documents
Culture Documents
Study Guide
BASIC
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A SN T
L E V E L III
ST UDY GUIDE
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ASNT
LEVELIII
STUDYGUIDE
BASIC
The American Society for Nondestructive Testing, Inc. (ASNT) is not responsible for the authenticity or accuracy of information
herein. Published opinions and statements do not necessarily reflect the opinion of ASNT. Products or services that are advertised
or mentioned do not carry the endorsement or recommendation of ASNT.
No part of this publication may be reproduced or transmitted in any form, by means electronic or mechanical including photo-
copying, recording or otherwise, without the expressed prior written permission of The American Society for Nondestructive
Testing, Inc.
IRRSP, NDT Handbook, The NDT Technician and www.asnt.org are trademarks of The American Society for Nondestructive Testing,
Inc. ACCP, ASNT, Level III Study Guide, Materials Evaluation, Nondestructive Testing Handbook, Research in Nondestructive
Evaluation and RNDE are registered trademarks of The American Society for Nondestructive Testing, Inc.
Errata, if available for this printing, may be obtained from ASNT’s web site, www.asnt.org.
Published by:
The American Society for Nondestructive Testing, Inc.
1711 Arlingate Lane
Columbus, OH 43228-0518
www.asnt.org
ii
ACKNOWLEDGMENTS
The American Society for Nondestructive Testing, Inc. is grateful for the volunteer contributions, technical expertise, knowl-
edge, and dedication of the following individuals who have helped make this work possible.
iii
FOREWORD
iv
Success in answering the questions will help the user to CP-189. Likewise, the topical outlines of the NDT methods
determine if more concentrated study in particular areas is presented in Section II have been drawn from the 2016 edi-
needed. If the user can answer the questions confidently tion of CP-105. To facilitate the study of these documents,
and correctly, additional study may be optional. Technical in Sections I and II, word-for-word excerpts are highlighted
references are listed in Section II for individual methods if in blue.
users require further study. Questions in all three sections have been modified, as
v
CONTENTS
Acknowledgments . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .iii
Foreword . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .iv
Purpose . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .iv
Introduction . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .3
References . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .3
vii
General Comments on Section 11 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .25
Section 12: Recertification . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .26
Inquiries for Section 12 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .26
General Comments on Section 12 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .26
Section 13: Termination . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .26
Inquiries for Section 13 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .27
Section 14: Reinstatement . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .27
Inquiries for Section 14 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .27
General Comments on Section 14 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .27
Review Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .28
Answers . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .35
viii
Topical Outline . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .50
References . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .50
Acoustic Emission Testing Review Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .50
Electromagnetic Testing (ET) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .51
Topical Outline . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .51
References . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .51
Electromagnetic Testing Review Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .51
Leak Testing (LT) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .53
Topical Outline . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .53
References . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .54
Leak Testing Review Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .54
Liquid Penetrant Testing (PT) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .55
Topical Outline . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .55
References . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .55
Liquid Penetrant Testing Review Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .55
Magnetic Particle Testing (MT) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .58
Topical Outline . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .58
References . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .58
Magnetic Particle Testing Review Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .58
Neutron Radiographic Testing (NR) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .60
Topical Outline . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .60
References . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .60
Neutron Radiographic Testing Review Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .60
Radiographic Testing . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .63
Topical Outline . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .63
References . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .63
Radiographic Testing Review Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .63
Thermal/Infrared Testing (IR) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .66
Topical Outline . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .66
References . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .67
Thermal/Infrared Testing Review Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .67
Ultrasonic Testing (UT) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .69
Topical Outline . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .69
References . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .69
Ultrasonic Testing Review Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .69
Visual Testing (VT) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .72
Topical Outline . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .72
References . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .73
Visual Testing Review Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .73
Magnetic Flux Leakage Testing (MFL) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .75
Topical Outline . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .75
References . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .75
Magnetic Flux Leakage Testing Review Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .75
Answers to Review Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .77
ix
Section III: Materials, Fabrication, and Product Technology . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .79
Appendixes . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .107
Appendix A: Code of Ethics for Level III NDT Personnel Certified by ASNT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .109
x
section i
ADMINISTRATION OF A
PERSONNEL QUALIFICATION
AND CERTIFICATION PROGRAM
INTRODUCTION
Qualification and certification of NDT personnel, based on some standardized approach that is recognized and
agreed to by buyers and sellers of NDT-related inspections, is widely practiced throughout industry. Recommended
Practice No. SNT-TC-1A: Personnel Qualification and Certification in Nondestructive Testing was the first document
widely used for this purpose. Another document initially issued by ASNT in 1991, reissued in 1995, 2001, 2006, 2011, and
2016, is ANSI/ASNT CP-189: Standard for Qualification and Certification of Nondestructive Testing Personnel. This docu-
ment differs from SNT-TC-1A in that it is an ANSI Standard and contains clearly defined minimum requirements that
must be satisfied in their entirety. The Basic Examination of the ASNT NDT Level III certification program addresses the
most recent editions of both of these documents.
SNT-TC-1A (2016) and CP–189 (2016) will be analyzed paragraph by paragraph in the following chapters. Selected
inquiries and responses taken from published interpretations offered by the SNT-TC-1A Interpretation Panel are includ-
ed to assist individuals in understanding some of SNT-TC-1A’s philosophical intentions. The responses should be consid-
ered as clarifications of the intent of the recommended practice. The inquiries and responses are verbatim based on the
way they were written in the year indicated in the inquiry number. They do not address subsequent changes made to later
editions of SNT-TC-1A. CP-189 interpretations are available on the ASNT website at www.asnt.org.
The general structure and some of the details of the ASNT NDT Level III certification program and how it supports
the manner in which SNT-TC-1A and CP-189 are implemented throughout industry are also covered in Chapter 3.
References
ANSI/ASNT CP-189: ASNT Standard for Qualification and Certification of Nondestructive Testing Personnel. Columbus, OH: The American
Society for Nondestructive Testing, Inc. 2016.*
CP-ASNT-1B: ASNT NDT Level III Program (Program Information Document). Columbus, OH: The American Society for Nondestructive
Testing, Inc. Revision date: 17 July 2010. Available at: https://asnt.org/MajorSiteSections/Certification/ASNT_NDT_Level_III.aspx
Recommended Practice No. SNT-TC-1A: Personnel Qualification and Certification in Nondestructive Testing. Columbus, OH: The American
Society for Nondestructive Testing, Inc. 2016.*
*Available from ASNT.
3
CHAPTER 1
Recommended Practice No. SNT-TC-1A (2016)
History of SNT-TC-1A average of requirements for formal education, time for on-the-
Recommended Practice No. SNT-TC-1A: Personnel job training, and documentation.
Qualification and Certification in Nondestructive Testing The resulting SNT-TC-1A is a recommended practice for the
was first published in 1966 as a main document comprising qualification and certification of nondestructive test personnel.
just four pages along with a series of supplements for each It provides a format which industry can follow in writing an
recognized method at the time: radiographic, magnetic par- individualized procedure for the qualification and certification of
ticle, ultrasonic, liquid penetrant, and eddy current (now personnel which meets the needs and requirements unique to
electromagnetic). Each supplemental document included each segment of industry.
SNT-TC-1A
ments, as well as a recommended course outline, references,
and general examination questions. The reasons for which
SNT-TC-1A was created and the manner in which it The following information has been excerpted from the
evolved were described in an article published in Materials same article cited above. The text of this article has been
Evaluation, October 1968, Vol. 26, No. 10, pp. 12A-14A, by modified to include changes made in subsequent editions of
Harold Hovland and Carl B. Shaw, titled, “How to Qualify SNT-TC-1A.
and Certify NDT Personnel.” The following excerpts outline
how this important recommended practice came into exis- It is intended that SNT-TC-1A serve as a guide for each
tence: employer user in preparing their specific personnel qualification
and certification document (procedure or written practice).
With the increasing complexity and number of SNT-TC-1A sets forth a scope and definitions, it lists the test
nondestructive test methods in use and with greater reliance methods, and it explains the various levels of qualifications. The
upon nondestructive testing, industry has not been able to primary document also details the manner in which personnel
recruit and train personnel in large enough numbers and in a are examined and certified. The question arises, “how do I
timely fashion to fill the need. Many customers found that they document certification in my particular procedure?” The point
were not receiving the nondestructive test examinations they to remember here is that the procedure as written by any user
felt they had paid to receive. of this document must satisfy the requirements of their
Large segments of the economy, such as the government company and must be acceptable to the company’s customers.
and prime contractors, found it expedient to put the Within this context, certification may take any one of several
responsibility for the training and qualification, and verification forms. It may consist merely of the records of the training
of the qualifications of nondestructive test personnel upon the programs, the examinations, and the grades of the
manufacturer. This resulted in the generation of a number of examinations. It may require a certificate that states explicitly
documents dealing with the question of the training, that a particular person is qualified to a given level for a specific
qualification, and certification of nondestructive test personnel. method. It may take the form of a card upon which an employer
Although these documents all pertain to the same subject and certifies the level of training and qualification of its personnel.
have the same objective, in their details they were often The employer has the same responsibility for the
conflicting, thereby causing undue cost to American industry. qualification and certification of its NDT personnel as it has for
Beginning about 1959, a few corporations, government the product. For example, even though an employer may
agencies, and other technical societies inquired of ASNT as to purchase a complete product and sell this product under the
whether the training and qualification of nondestructive test company’s own name, the employer still bears full responsibility
personnel was properly the domain of the Society. to the customer for the quality of that product and for the
In 1961, the Society, through its Technical Council, assigned product being what the company purports it to be. The
a Task Group to study the feasibility of preparing a document employer may elect to purchase components and assemble
that would deal with the training requirements and the them and sell the result as a complete product; then again, the
documentation thereof for the qualification of nondestructive employer may manufacture all components of the product. In
test personnel ... the Task Group endeavored to prepare a any of these cases, the employer bears a certain responsibility.
recommended practice which could contain the consensus of The employer is responsible [for ensuring] that what is being
5
expert opinion regarding the training of personnel and an sold is indeed what it is claimed to be, that it will meet certain
Basic l section 1
Foreword
to exercise judgment as to the qualification of these personnel.
The employer may elect to utilize the Level III services of an
outside agency to provide the training, develop, administer, and The Foreword (p. iii) of SNT-TC-1A (2016) states in
grade the examinations for certification. Regardless of the part:
method used for training and examination of their personnel, This Recommended Practice establishes the general
the responsibility for ensuring that the program utilized framework for a qualification and certification program. In
complies with their written practice lies with the employer. addition, the document provides recommended educational,
Sample questions for general examinations are available experience, and training requirements for the different test
from the ASNT International Service Center. Each question cites methods. Supplementary documents include question and
the reference used to identify the correct answer. It is intended answer lists, which may be used in composing examinations for
that the Level III consider these questions as examples only and nondestructive testing personnel. …
should not use them verbatim for qualification examinations. In The verb “should” has been used throughout this document
addition to the general examination, a specific written to emphasize the recommendation presented herein. It is the
examination is required. It is intended that the specific employer’s responsibility to address specific needs and to
examination reflect the equipment that is used by the employee modify these guidelines as appropriate in a written practice. In
being examined, that it reflect the requirements of the the employer’s written practice, the verb “shall” is to be used in
procedures normally used by the employer, and that it satisfy place of “should” to emphasize the employer’s needs.
6
CHAPTER 1 Recommended Practice No. SNT-TC-1A (2016)
1.4 It is recognized that these guidelines may not be of materials, components, and assemblies for
appropriate for certain employers’ circumstances materials’ discontinuities, properties, and
and/or applications. In developing a written practice machine problems without further impairing
as required in Section 5, the employer should review or destroying the part’s serviceability.
the detailed recommendations presented herein and Throughout this document the term NDT
modify them, as necessary, to meet particular needs. applies equally to the NDT methods used for
Such modification may alter but shall not eliminate material inspection, flaw detection, or
basic provisions of the program such as training, predictive maintenance (PdM) applications.
experience, testing, and recertification. Supporting 2.1.12 Outside Agency: a company or individual
technical rationale for modification of detailed who provides NDT Level III services and whose
recommendations should be provided in an Annex to qualifications to provide these services have
the written practice. been reviewed and approved by the employer
engaging the company or individual.
2.0 Definitions 2.1.13 Qualification: demonstrated skill,
2.1 Terms included in this document are defined as demonstrated knowledge, documented
follows: training, and documented experience required
2.1.1 Certification: written testimony of for personnel to properly perform the duties
qualification. of a specific job.
2.1.2 Certifying Authority: the person or persons 2.1.14 Recommended Practice: a set of guidelines
properly designated in the written practice to to assist the employer in developing uniform
sign certifications on behalf of the employer. procedures for the qualification and
2.1.3 Certifying Agency: the employer of the certification of NDT personnel to satisfy the
personnel being certified. employer’s specific requirements.
2.1.4 Closed Book Examination: an examination 2.1.15 Technique: a category within an NDT method;
administered without access to reference for example, ultrasonic thickness testing.
material except for materials supplied with or 2.1.16 Training: an organized program developed to
in the examination. (See 8.1.3.) impart the knowledge and skills necessary for
2.1.5 Comparable: being at an equivalent or similar qualification.
level of NDT responsibility and difficulty as 2.1.17 Written Practice: a written procedure
determined by the employer’s NDT Level III. developed by the employer that details the
2.1.6 Documented: the condition of being in requirements for qualification and certification
written form. of their employees.
2.1.7 Employer: the corporate, private, or public
entity, which employs personnel for wages, 3.0 Nondestructive Testing Methods
salary, fees, or other considerations. 3.1 Qualification and certification of NDT personnel in
2.1.8 Experience: work activities accomplished in a accordance with this Recommended Practice is
specific NDT method under the direction of applicable to each of the following methods:
qualified supervision including the
performance of the NDT method and related Acoustic Emission Testing
activities but not including time spent in Electromagnetic Testing
organized training programs. Ground Penetrating Radar
2.1.9 Grading Unit: a Qualification Specimen can Guided Wave Testing
be divided into sections called grading units, Laser Testing Methods
which do not have to be equal length or be Leak Testing
equally spaced. Grading units are unflawed or Liquid Penetrant Testing
flawed and the percentage of flawed/unflawed Magnetic Flux Leakage
grading units required should be approved by Magnetic Particle Testing
the NDT Level III. Microwave Technology
2.1.10 Limited Certification: nondestructive test Neutron Radiography Testing
methods may be further subdivided into Radiographic Testing
limited disciplines or techniques to meet Thermal/Infrared Testing
specific employer’s needs; these are NDT Level Ultrasonic Testing
II certifications, but to a limited scope. Vibration Analysis
2.1.11 Nondestructive Testing: a process that Visual Testing
involves the inspection, testing, or evaluation
7
Basic l section 1
Inquiry 80-8
Paragraph 1.4 very clearly states the intent that the
detailed recommendations of SNT-TC-1A should be
reviewed and modified by the user to satisfy unique needs.
This allowance was originally incorporated in recognition of
the fact that each manufacturer or each service organization
has a different clientele. Customer or clientele requirements
ultimately determine what is acceptable between buyer and
seller, even to the details of qualifying NDT personnel.
8
CHAPTER 1 Recommended Practice No. SNT-TC-1A (2016)
Inquiry 80-4
processes by which individuals became qualified, the direct
employer of the personnel being certified must bear the end
Two other inquiries pertain to this concept. Both responsibility for conferring a certification and, thereby, can
inquiries have the same response. be the only “certifying agency.” Such absolute responsibility
does not preclude the use of outside services by employers
Inquiry: to assist in imparting and/or assessing qualifications of indi-
NDT examiners in our employ who perform examina- viduals being certified. The use of outside services does not
tions using liquid penetrant use only the visible dye, solvent relieve the employer from responsibility, nor can the
removable, penetrant technique. Since our examiners do employer abrogate or delegate this responsibility to an out-
not have need to be qualified in the other liquid penetrant side agency.
techniques, is it permissible to modify the number of gener- SNT-TC-1A has been referenced by certain codes and
al and specific questions as well as the hours of training and specifications to be used, in effect, as a model for employers
work experience to satisfy requirements of SNT-TC-1A for to develop a written practice concerning some method of
Level I and Level II examiners? NDT not currently covered in SNT-TC-1A.
9
Basic l section 1
Review Questions for Sections 1, 2, and 3 techniques, and procedures to be used. The
Based on the foregoing discussion, answer the questions NDT Level III should be responsible for the NDT
on pp. 28-29 relating to SNT-TC-1A and the administration operations for which qualified and assigned
of a qualification and certification program in NDT. and should be capable of interpreting and
evaluating results in terms of existing codes,
10
CHAPTER 1 Recommended Practice No. SNT-TC-1A (2016)
11
Basic l section 1
5.4 The employer’s written practice should identify the the employer for specific limited applications
test techniques within each test method applicable to as defined in the employer’s written practice.
its scope of operations. Limited certifications should apply to
5.5 The employer’s written practice shall be reviewed and individuals who do not meet the full training
approved by the employer’s NDT Level III. and experience of Table 6.3.1 A. Limited
5.6 The employer’s written practice shall be maintained certifications issued in any method should be
on file. approved by the NDT Level III and
Qualification
experience beyond the NDT Level II
requirements in NDT in an
Section 6 (p. 3) of SNT-TC-1A (2016) is reprinted below assignment at least comparable to
in full: that of NDT Level II in the applicable
NDT method(s), or:
6.0 Education, Training, and Experience Requirements for 6.3.2.3 Have four years of experience
Initial Qualification beyond the NDT Level II
6.1 Candidates for certification in NDT should have requirements in NDT in an
sufficient education, training, and experience to assignment at least comparable to
ensure qualification in those NDT methods in which that of an NDT Level II in the
they are being considered for certification. applicable NDT method(s).
Documentation of prior certification may be used by The above NDT Level III requirements may be
an employer as evidence of qualification for partially replaced by experience as a certified
comparable levels of certification. NDT Level II or by assignments at least
6.2 Documented training and/or experience gained in comparable to NDT Level II as defined in the
positions and activities comparable to those of employer’s written practice.
12
CHAPTER 1 Recommended Practice No. SNT-TC-1A (2016)
13
Basic l section 1
Notes:
1.0 A person may be qualified directly to NDT Level II with no time as a certified NDT Level I, providing the recommended training
and experience consists of the sum of the hours recommended for NDT Level I and Level II.
2.0 For NDT Level III certification, the experience should consist of the sum of the hours for NDT Level I and Level II, plus the
additional time in 6.3.2 as applicable. The formal training should consist of the NDT Level I and Level II training, plus any
additional formal training as defined in the employer’s written practice.
3.0 Listed training hours may be adjusted as described in the employer’s written practice depending on the candidate’s actual
education level, e.g. grammar school, college graduate in engineering, etc.
4.0 Training should be outlined in the employer’s written practice. Magnetic Particle training hours may be counted toward
Magnetic Flux Leakage training hours as defined in employer’s written practice.
5.0 If an individual is currently certified in an ET technique and a full course format was used to meet the initial qualifications in
that technique, the minimum training hours to qualify in another ET technique at the same NDT Level may be reduced up to
40 percent if so defined in the employer’s written practice. If an individual is certified in an ET technique, the minimum
experience to qualify for another ET technique at the same level or to the next level may be reduced by up to 50 percent if so
defined in the employer’s written practice.
6.0 While fulfilling total NDT experience requirement, experience may be gained in more than one (1) method; however, the
minimum hours must be met for each method.
7.0 If an individual is currently certified in a Radiographic Testing technique and a full course format was used to meet the initial
qualifications in that technique, the minimum additional training hours to qualify in another technique at the same level
should be 24 hours (of which at least 16 hours should be equipment familiarization). The training outline should be as defined
in the employer’s written practice. If an individual is certified in a technique, the minimum additional experience required to
qualify for another technique at the same level may be reduced by up to 50 percent, as defined in the employer’s written
practice.
8.0 Independent of the training recommended for Level I and Level II certification, a trainee is required to receive radiation safety
training as required by the regulatory jurisdiction.
9.0 If an individual is currently certified in one Thermal/Infrared technique and a full course format was used to meet the initial
qualifications in that technique, the minimum additional training hours to qualify in another technique at the same level
should be 20 hours (of which at least 16 hours should be specific technique familiarization). The training outline should be as
defined in the employer’s written practice. If an individual is certified in a technique, the minimum additional experience
required to qualify for another technique at the same level may be reduced by up to 50 percent, as defined in the employer’s
written practice.
10.0 Time of Flight Diffraction and Phased Array require Ultrasonic Testing Level II certification as a prerequisite.
Table 6.3.1 B: Recommended Initial Training and Experience Levels for NDT Level II Limited Certifications
Technician’s Starting Formal Minimum Work Experience
Examination Method Limited Certification Point Training in Method (Hours)
Film Interpretation Non-Radiographer 40 2201
Radiographic
Film Interpretation RT Level I 24 2201
Digital Thickness Measurement
Trainee 8 40
(numeric output only)
Ultrasonic
A-scan Thickness Measurement Trainee 24 175
14
CHAPTER 1 Recommended Practice No. SNT-TC-1A (2016)
Inquiry 79-1
2. What types of other experiences could be counted for
the Level II requirements?
Inquiry: Response:
In maintaining records, if an individual is working 1. An individual may be given credit for work assignments
simultaneously in more than one method, should the comparable to that of an NDT Level II in the applicable
records reflect the total time spent for each method or test method.
should the time be divided proportionately for each of the 2. The types of work assignments comparable to the Level
methods? For example, if an individual spent 50 percent of II assignments should be defined by the employer in his
his or her time on ultrasonic testing and 50 percent of his or
or her written practice.
her time on radiographic testing for a period of nine
Inquiry 94-1
months, would the record show experience in UT of four
and one-half months or nine months?
Response: Inquiry:
It is intended that the employer’s written practice Please clarify ASNT’s intent regarding the phrase,
should include details of maintaining records. It is intended “assignment comparable to that of an NDT Level II” as it
that records should reflect the facts of each individual’s [is] related to SNT-TC-1A, 1984 edition, Paragraph 6.3.2.1. I
work time with regard to the amount of time spent on each interpret this statement to mean: even though an individual
method and the periods of time during which the work was has a four-year degree in science or engineering, he or she
performed. should also have the “documented” NDT training and expe-
Inquiries 79-14 and 79-15
rience commensurate with that of a Level II. This docu-
mented training should follow the guidelines established in
Inquiry:
Table 6.3.1 of SNT-TC-1A (1984 edition). It also requires
(in my opinion) this individual practice as a Level II for at
Is it intended per SNT-TC-1A (1975 edition) that the time least one year before being eligible for Level III certification.
spent in a laboratory exercise during a long-term NDT course
be considered the only qualifying work time experience? Response:
May the laboratory time be given any credit at all as Please reference Inquiry 83-8.
“work time experience” to satisfy all the requirements in
General Comments on Section 6
Table 6.2.1A?
Response: Paragraph 6.3.1, like the rest of SNT-TC-1A, is only a
It is not intended that laboratory experience in an edu- guide. The employer’s written practice should detail all such
cational program be directly applied to the work time expe- requirements, which may differ from the recommendations
rience. Laboratory experience is not necessarily applicable of Paragraph 6.3.1.
to the employer’s product or to the specific codes, stan- Table note 5.0 provides for reductions in training
dards, or specifications in use. However, in recognition of hours and experience based on additional ET certifications.
the benefits accruing from laboratory experience, the Similarly, in Table 6.3.1 A of the 2011 edition of SNT-TC-1A,
employer may include such consideration for adjustment to this same approach was used to divide Radiographic Testing
the work experience in his or her written practice. Should into four techniques. Table note 7.0 provides for reductions
the employer decide to do so, he or she should thoroughly in training hours and experience based on additional RT cer-
evaluate the curriculum to determine its applicability. tifications. Additional reductions are allowed for the
Thermal/Infrared method based on its three techniques in
table note 9.0.
15
Basic l section 1
Inquiry 77-4 points to consideration given in products to be tested. All training programs should
SNT-TC-1A to the initial establishment of a formal qualifi- be approved by the NDT Level III responsible for the
cation and certification program. Paragraph 6.2 recognizes applicable method.
that prior to establishing a program and a written practice,
7.2 The training program should include sufficient
the employer may have provided training as well as other
essentials of qualifying NDT personnel without formal pro- examinations to ensure understanding of the
cedures. Hence, documentation of such activities could pro- necessary information.
vide evidence of the equivalence of prior activities with 7.3 Recommended training course outlines and
those recommended in SNT-TC-1A. Paragraphs 6.3.2.1, references for NDT Levels I, II, and III personnel, which
6.3.2.2, and 6.3.2.3 use the phrase “in an assignment at least may be used as technical source material, are
comparable to that of an NDT Level II.” In other words, the contained in ANSI/ASNT CP-105: ASNT Standard
experience can be “comparable to that of an NDT Level II” Topical Outlines for Qualification of
if documentation can be produced that substantiates the Nondestructive Testing Personnel.
comparability. 7.4 The employer who purchases outside training services
In the 2011 edition of SNT-TC-1A, Table 6.3.1 B from is responsible for ensuring that such services meet the
the 2006 edition was removed, thus eliminating the so-
requirements of the employer’s written practice.
called “25% rule.” This rule stated, “Initial experience may
Inquiries for Section 7
be gained simultaneously in two or more methods if the
candidate spends a minimum of 25 percent of his [or her]
Inquiry 07-1
work time on each method for which certification is
sought.” Table 6.3.1 A requires that experience be accumu-
lated by hours rather than months and both minimum and
total experience hours must be satisfied. See note 6.0. Inquiry:
NOTE: Table 6.3.1 B in the 2006 edition was titled Per the 2001 edition of SNT-TC-1A, Paragraphs 7.1, 7.2,
“Alternate Initial Training and Experience Levels” and was and 9.4.4, and Tables 6.3.1A and 6.3.1B:
deleted in the 2011 edition. Table 6.3.1 C, “Initial Training
and Experience Levels for Level II Limited Certifications,” 1. Can computer or Web-based NDT training with associat-
in the 2006 edition replaced Table 6.3.1 B in the 2011 edi- ed electronic quizzes be used to satisfy the training
tion. This change was retained in the 2016 edition; however, requirements described in Paragraphs 7.1 and 7.2?
the title of Table 6.3.1 B was amended to “Recommended 2. If so, how should an employer document that training
Initial Training and Experience Levels for Level II Limited
hours meet the recommended hours listed in Tables
Certifications.”
6.3.1A and 6.3.1B so they can comply with the “satisfactory
Review Questions for Section 6 completion” requirements required by Paragraph 9.4.4?
Based on the foregoing discussion, answer the questions
on pp. 31-32. Response:
1. See Inquiry 84-4, response 1 [in Interpreting
16
CHAPTER 1 Recommended Practice No. SNT-TC-1A (2016)
In the 2011 edition of SNT-TC-1A, paragraph 7.1 was understanding of the information rather than
modified to clarify the use of alternative means for training merely locating the appropriate answer.
such as computer and/or Web-based training. Guidance
8.1.4 For NDT Level I and II personnel, a composite
was also included to ensure that such training provides the
grade should be determined by simple
user with contact hours, correlation to the applicable train-
ing outline, and appropriate examinations. This change has averaging of the results of the general, specific,
been maintained in the 2016 edition. and practical examinations described below.
Section 8: Examinations
for qualification should result in a passing
composite grade of at least 80 percent, with
Section 8 (pp. 6-10) of SNT-TC-1A (2016) is reprinted no individual examination having a passing
below in full: grade less than 70 percent.
8.1.6 When an examination is administered and
8.0 Examinations graded for the employer by an outside agency
8.1 Administration and Grading and the outside agency issues grades of pass
8.1.1 All qualification examination questions should or fail only, on a certified report, then the
be approved by the NDT Level III responsible employer may accept the pass grade as 80
for the applicable method. percent for that particular examination.
8.1.2 An NDT Level III should be responsible for the 8.1.7 The employer who purchases outside services
administration and grading of examinations is responsible for ensuring that the examination
specified in Section 8.3 through 8.8 for NDT services meet the requirements of the
Level I, II, or other Level III personnel. The employer’s written practice.
administration and grading of examinations 8.1.8 In no case shall an examination be
may be delegated to a qualified representative administered by one’s self or by a subordinate.
of the NDT Level III and so recorded. A 8.2 Vision Examinations
qualified representative of the employer may 8.2.1 Near-Vision Acuity: The examination should
perform the actual administration and grading ensure natural or corrected near-distance
of NDT Level III examinations specified in 8.7. acuity in at least one eye such that the
8.1.2.1 To be designated as a qualified applicant is capable of reading a minimum of
representative of the NDT Level III Jaeger Number 2 or equivalent type and size
for the administration and grading letter at the distance designated on the chart
of NDT Level I and Level II personnel but not less than 12 in. (30.5 cm) on a standard
qualification examinations, the Jaeger test chart. The ability to perceive an
designee should have documented, Ortho-Rater minimum of 8 or similar test
appropriate instruction by the pattern is also acceptable. This should be
responsible NDT Level III in the administered annually.
proper administration and grading of 8.2.2 Color Contrast Differentiation: The examination
qualification examinations prior to should demonstrate the capability of
conducting and grading independent distinguishing and differentiating contrast
qualification examinations for NDT among colors or shades of gray used in the
personnel. Additionally, the practical method as determined by the employer. This
exam should be administered by a should be conducted upon initial certification
person certified in the applicable NDT and at five-year intervals thereafter.
method as NDT Level II or III. 8.2.3 Vision examinations expire on the last day of
8.1.3 All NDT Level I, II, and III written examinations the month of expiration.
should be closed-book except that necessary 8.3 General (Written – for NDT Levels I and II)
data, such as graphs, tables, specifications, 8.3.1 The general examinations should address the
procedures, codes, etc., may be provided with basic principles of the applicable method.
or in the examination. Questions utilizing such 8.3.2 In preparing the examinations, the NDT
reference materials should require an Level III should select or devise appropriate
questions covering the applicable method to
17
Basic l section 1
the degree required by the employer’s written 8.5.3 The description of the specimen, the NDT
practice. procedure, including checkpoints, and the
8.3.3 See Appendix A [not included in this book] for results of the examination should be
example questions. documented.
8.3.4 The minimum number of questions that 8.5.4 NDT Level I Practical Examination. Proficiency
should be given is shown in Table 8.3.4. should be demonstrated in performing the
8.3.5 A valid ACCP Level II or ASNT NDT Level II applicable NDT technique on one or more
certificate may be accepted as fulfilling the specimens or machine problems approved by
general examination criteria for each the NDT Level III and in evaluating the results
applicable method if the NDT Level III has to the degree of responsibility as described in
determined that the ASNT examinations meet the employer’s written practice. At least ten
the requirements of the employer’s written (10) different checkpoints requiring an
practice. understanding of test variables and the
8.4 Specific (Written – for NDT Levels I and II) employer’s procedural requirements should
8.4.1 The specific examination should address the be included in this practical examination. The
equipment, operating procedures, and NDT candidate should detect all discontinuities and
techniques that the individual may encounter conditions specified by the NDT Level III.
during specific assignments to the degree
required by the employer’s written practice. Note: While it is normal to score the practical
8.4.2 The specific examination should also cover the on a percentile basis, practical examinations
specifications or codes and acceptance criteria should contain checkpoints that failure to
used in the employer’s NDT procedures. successfully complete will result in failure of
8.4.3 The minimum number of questions that the examination.
should be given is shown in Table 8.3.4.
8.4.4 A valid ACCP Level II or ASNT NDT Level II 8.5.5 NDT Level II Practical Examination. Proficiency
certificate may be accepted as fulfilling the should be demonstrated in selecting and
specific examination criteria for each performing the applicable NDT technique
applicable method if the NDT Level III has within the method and interpreting and
determined that the ASNT examinations meet evaluating the results on one or more
the requirements of the employer’s written specimens or machine problems approved by
practice. the NDT Level III. At least ten (10) different
8.5 Practical (for NDT Level I and II) checkpoints requiring an understanding of
8.5.1 The candidate should demonstrate familiarity NDT variables and the employer’s procedural
with and ability to operate the necessary NDT requirements should be included in this
equipment, record, and analyze the resultant practical examination. The candidate should
information to the degree required. detect all discontinuities and conditions
8.5.2 At least one flawed specimen or component specified by the NDT Level III. An example of a
should be tested and the results of the NDT practical examination checklist is attached as
test analyzed by the candidate. Appendix B [not included in this book] to this
8.5.2.1 Phased Array and Time of Flight Recommended Practice. The example checklist
Diffraction Practical Examination. has been provided as guidance on
Flawed samples used for practical development of practical examinations for any
examinations should be method or level.
representative of the components
and/or configurations that the Note: While it is normal to score the practical
candidates would be testing under on a percentile basis, practical examinations
this endorsement and approved by should contain checkpoints that failure to
the NDT Level III. successfully complete will result in failure of
8.5.2.2 For Film Interpretation Limited the examination.
Certification, the practical
examination should consist of 8.5.6 A valid ACCP Level II certificate may be
review and grading of at least 20 accepted as fulfilling the practical examination
images. criteria for each applicable method if the NDT
18
CHAPTER 1 Recommended Practice No. SNT-TC-1A (2016)
Level III has determined that the ASNT of questions that should be given is
examinations meet the requirements of the as follows:
employer’s written practice. 8.7.1.1.1 Fifteen (15) questions
8.6 Sample questions for general examinations are relating to understanding
presented in the separate question booklets that can the SNT-TC-1A
be obtained from ASNT International Service Center. document.
These questions are intended as examples only and 8.7.1.1.2 Twenty (20) questions
should not be used verbatim for qualification relating to applicable
examinations. The following ASNT Questions & materials, fabrication, and
Answers Books are available from ASNT International product technology.
Service Center: 8.7.1.1.3 Twenty (20) questions that
are similar to published
Question
Test Method
Level II questions for other
Booklet appropriate NDT methods.
Electromagnetic Testing E
retaken to add another test method
1. Alternating Current Field Measurement EA
as long as the candidate holds a
2. Eddy Current EE current Level III certificate or
3. Remote Field Testing ER certification). The minimum number
Ground Penetrating Radar GP* of questions that should be given is
Guided Wave Testing GW* as follows:
Laser Testing 8.7.1.2.1 Fifteen (15) questions
1. Profilometry LP*
2. Holography/Shearography LH*
relating to understanding
Leak Testing
the SNT-TC-1A
1. Bubble Test HB
document.
Thermal/Infrared Testing J*
III questions for each method, and
Ultrasonic Testing C
8.7.2.2 Fifteen (15) questions relating to
Vibration Analysis K* application and establishment of
Visual Testing I techniques and procedures that are
*In course of preparation. similar to the published ASNT NDT
Level III questions for each method,
and
8.7.2.3 Twenty (20) questions relating to
capability for interpreting codes,
8.7 NDT/PdM Level III Examinations standards, and specifications
8.7.1 Basic Examinations relating to the method.
8.7.1.1 NDT Basic Examination (need not be 8.7.3 Specific Examination (for each method).
retaken to add another test method 8.7.3.1 Twenty (20) questions relating to
as long as the candidate holds a specifications, equipment,
current Level III certificate or techniques, and procedures
certification). The minimum number applicable to the employer’s
product(s) and methods employed
19
Basic l section 1
20
CHAPTER 1 Recommended Practice No. SNT-TC-1A (2016)
21
Basic l section 1
Response: Response:
Please refer to Paragraphs 8.5.1(c) and 9.6.1(f). Either of No. See Inquiry 08-2.
the proposed grading methods is permissible depending on
the needs of the employer. Other approaches may also be Inquiry 10-4
taken. The approach which meets the needs of the employer
Inquiry:
should be described in the written practice and followed for
the practical examination. The last technique proposing a May an employer appoint directly an “EN 473 Level III”
questionnaire for which written answers would be prepared as employer’s NDT Level III after defined in employer’s
would fall more appropriately under the Specific examina- written practice to sign the certificates according to
tion category. SNT-TC-1A in order to verify qualification of candidate
Inquiry 05-1
for certification?
Response:
Inquiry: The employer may use the examination results that he
Paragraph 8.1.3 states, “Examinations administered for or she has determined meet the requirement of the written
qualification should result in a passing grade of at least practice. As stated in SNT-TC-1A, Paragraph 8.1.5, the
80 percent,” but if the employer’s written practice states that employer is responsible for ensuring the examination serv-
each examination must achieve 70 percent or more, and ices meet the requirements of the employer’s written prac-
does not require an 80 percent composite, is this acceptable? tice. Certification can only be issued when it has been deter-
Response:
mined that all the requirements of the employer’s written
practice have been met.
Response:
Yes. See Inquiry 01-11. Paragraph 8.2.2 allows the Section 9: Certification
employer to determine the method of testing for color dif- Section 9 (p. 10) of SNT-TC-1A (2016) is reprinted
ferentiation or gray shade differentiation. Whether to test below in full:
for color differentiation or gray shade differentiation is
determined by which is appropriate for the method the 9.0 Certification
individual is being certified in.
9.1 Certification of NDT personnel to all levels of
Inquiry 08-3 qualification is the responsibility of the employer.
9.2 Certification of NDT personnel should be based on
Inquiry: demonstration of satisfactory qualification in
Per the 2001 edition of SNT-TC-1A, an MT examiner accordance with Sections 6, 7, and 8, as described in
has been approved in the capability of distinguishing and the employer’s written practice.
differentiating contrast among colors according to Ishihara 9.3 At the option of the employer, an outside agency may
standard plates. Does this person need to be tested in be engaged to provide NDT Level III services. In such
shades of gray acuity, if the MT procedure uses gray mag- instances, the responsibility of certification of the
netic particles, to meet the requirements of Paragraph 8.2.2?
employees shall be retained by the employer.
22
CHAPTER 1 Recommended Practice No. SNT-TC-1A (2016)
Inquiry 77-3
outside organization and the outside organization is the
direct employer of the individual performing NDT, the out-
side organization is the “employer” in terms of SNT-TC-1A.
Inquiry: Whether the outside organization is properly qualifying and
With respect to Paragraphs 9.4 and 9.5 of SNT-TC-1A, certifying its NDT personnel can only be determined by the
purchaser of such outside services and how such determina-
1. Is it the intent to restrict an employer to engage only tion is made is a contractual matter between the purchaser
Level III services from an outside agency or may Level I and the outside organization.
and Level II services also be utilized?
2. Is it intended in Paragraph 9.5 that an employer may Inquiry 77-10
subcontract training, examination, and certification for
all levels, provided the employer’s audit results are found Inquiry:
to be satisfactory? What is the intent regarding employers’ attempts to ver-
3. Paragraph 9.1 states that the certification of all levels is ify an individual’s experience and performance with past
the responsibility of the employer. Paragraph 9.5 recog- employers in order to maintain the documentation recom-
nizes the use of outside certification services. May an mended in Paragraph 9.6.1?
employer subcontract nondestructive testing to an out-
side organization utilizing that organization’s certifica- Response:
tions for Levels I, II, and III, provided the results of the The specific documentation to be furnished by new
employer’s audit of that organization are satisfactory? employees and past employers and the means for obtaining
Must the employer certify NDT personnel or may he documentation is referenced in Paragraphs 9.6 and 10.2 of
accept the outside organization’s certification? SNT-TC-1A. Details should be included in the employer’s
written practice.
23
Basic l section 1
Response: Inquiry:
1. There is no intent to restrict the number of outside Is it acceptable for a candidate for Level III certification
agencies from which an employer could use Level III under SNT-TC-1A (1988 edition) to be qualified on the
services. basis of demonstrated ability, achievement, experience, and
2. Yes, both the above and this situation may be used education in lieu of qualification by examination as stated
in Paragraph 9.6(g)?
under circumstances as described in the employer’s writ-
ten practice. Response:
3. It is not intended that unsupervised examinations be No. Paragraph 8.8 specifically requires that a Level III
administered. candidate be qualified by examination. Paragraph 9.6(g)
addresses the content of the qualification records file to be
Inquiry 89-4 maintained by the employer of certified personnel.
Inquiry:
*This Response was reconsidered. See Inquiry 92-2
[in Interpreting SNT-TC-1A]. Also see Inquiry 89-4 and
In the 1968, 1975, 1980, and 1984 editions of SNT-TC-1A, Inquiry 90-2.
an employer may waive examinations for the Level III and
thereby “certify” the individual by appointment. Inquiry 96-3
There is no such provision in the 1988 edition. However,
Inquiry:
it is implied by the statement in Paragraph 6.3.2: “When the
individual (Level III) is qualified by examination ...” When applying SNT-TC-1A 1992 edition in strict accor-
May the employer waive examination for the Level III dance with the document, is it ASNT’s interpretation that a
and be in compliance with the intent of SNT-TC-1A (1988 Level III must be examined?
edition)?
Response: Response:
It is intended by the 1988 edition of SNT-TC-1A that all No. Certification of all levels of NDT personnel is the
Level IIIs initially certified after issuance of the 1988 edition responsibility of the employer. It is the intent of ASNT to
of SNT-TC-1A be qualified by examination. certify Level IIIs by examination. However, the employer
Also see Inquiry 90-2 and Inquiry 92-2. can specify the requirements for a certification route with-
out examination in the employer’s written practice. Please
Inquiry 90-2
see Inquiry 80-9, Inquiry 89-4, Inquiry 90-2, Inquiry 90-4,
and Inquiry 92-2.
Inquiry: NOTE: This is a reconsideration of Inquiry 90-4.
1. Is it the intent of ASNT that all Level III personnel certi-
fied to the 1988 edition be examined?
24
CHAPTER 1 Recommended Practice No. SNT-TC-1A (2016)
25
Basic l section 1
26
CHAPTER 1 Recommended Practice No. SNT-TC-1A (2016)
13.2.2 The employee was working in the capacity to 14.1.1 The employer has maintained the personnel
which certified within six (6) months of certification records required in Section 9.4.
termination. 14.1.2 The employee’s certification did not expire
13.2.3 The employee is being recertified within six (6) during termination.
months of termination. 14.1.3 The employee is being reinstated within six (6)
13.2.4 Prior to being examined for certification, months of termination.
14.0 Reinstatement
14.1 An NDT Level I, Level II, or Level III whose certification
has been terminated may be reinstated to the former
NDT level, without a new examination, provided all of
the following conditions are met:
27
Basic l section 1
Review Questions
28
CHAPTER
CHAPTER 1 Recommended
1 Recommended Practice
Practice No. SNT-TC-1A
No. SNT-TC-1A (2016)
a. Certification is written testimony of qualification. a. the skill, training, and experience required for
b. Qualification is the skill, training, and experience personnel to properly perform the duties of a
required for personnel to properly perform the specific job.
duties of a specific job. b. written testimony of qualification.
c. The employer is the corporate or private entity c. intended to be conferred by an organization
that employs personnel for wages or salary. independent from the employer.
d. A certifying agency is any organization used by d. intended to be conferred by an organization
an employer in training NDT personnel. hired by the employer.
8. Who should be responsible to assess whether or not 13. Use of SNT-TC-1A is mandatory when:
an individual should be qualified and certified who
does not perform NDT, but monitors and evaluates a. the material being tested is for a U.S. Air Force
NDT? contract.
b. the material being tested is for a U.S. Navy
a. ASNT. contract.
b. The individual’s employer. c. it has been specified by the customer.
c. A government regulatory agency. d. the material being tested is for a U.S. Army
d. The customer’s auditor. contract that requires certification of NDT
personnel.
9. To which of the following NDT methods is
Section 4
SNT-TC-1A currently not applicable?
a. Visual testing.
b. Thermal/infrared testing. 14. The basic levels of qualification recommended by
c. Acoustic emission testing. SNT-TC-1A are:
d. Holographic testing.
a. Trainee, Level I, Level II, and Level III.
10. ASNT intended that the recommendations of b. Trainee, Apprentice, Level I, Level II, and Level
SNT-TC-1A be applied: III.
c. Level I, Level II, and Level III.
a. with flexibility and reason. d. Level I, Level II, Level III, and Instructor.
b. precisely as written.
c. as minimum requirements. 15. Should personnel that operate ultrasonic digital
d. as maximum requirements. thickness measurement equipment be qualified and
certified?
11. Of the following, which is most appropriate to
determine the needs to qualify and certify personnel a. Yes, because SNT-TC-1A requires that all
whose only NDT function is to operate digital personnel performing NDT be qualified and
thickness equipment? certified.
b. No, because SNT-TC-1A does not cover that
a. ASNT. specific operation.
b. ASME. c. Only if required by industry codes, standards,
c. The employer. and specifications.
d. The customer. d. Whether any NDT personnel should be qualified
and certified depends solely upon the needs of
the employer and the requirements of the
employer’s customers or clientele.
29
Basic l section 1
16. According to the recommendations of SNT-TC-1A, 19. May a Level I independently perform, evaluate, and
which of the following is true concerning a Trainee’s sign for results of nondestructive tests with
activities? supervision and guidance from a Level II or III?
a. The Trainee may not conduct nondestructive a. Yes, the intent in SNT-TC-1A is that the Level I
tests independently and may not report test may perform the above functions provided that
results. they are in accordance with written instruction of
b. The Trainee may not conduct nondestructive a Level II or III.
tests independently, but may interpret test results b. No, the Level I may perform the above functions
if acting under written instructions. in accordance with written procedures, but must
c. The Trainee should work along with a certified be under constant supervision and guidance of a
individual and may be considered a Level I, Level II or Level III.
provided that the certified individual co-signs any c. No, the Level I may not sign for test results.
test reports. d. No, the Level I is not allowed to take any
d. Once the Trainee has worked along with a independent action.
certified individual, the Trainee may then
independently perform any activities as directed 20. Which of the following statements is true concerning
by the certified individual. the definitions of Trainee, Level I, II and III in
SNT-TC-1A?
17. According to SNT-TC-1A, which of the following is
not true for a Level III? a. The qualifications for Level III equal and exceed
those of Level II.
a. Should be capable of assisting in establishment of b. SNT-TC-1A was intended for use by employers to
acceptance criteria. determine the proficiency of individuals at each
b. Must train and examine the Level I and II level.
personnel in his or her organization. c. Except for a provision for a Trainee, Levels I, II,
c. Should be familiar with other commonly used and III may not be further subdivided. Level IIIs
NDT methods. may not perform Level II functions unless they
d. Should be capable of establishing techniques and pass Level II examinations.
selecting of test methods. d. A Trainee may perform all of the functions of a
Level I if following written instructions.
18. According to written instructions, an NDT Level I
may be qualified to perform: 21. Which of the following is not within the scope of
activities of a Level II individual, as recommended in
a. specific calibrations. SNT-TC-1A?
b. specific nondestructive tests.
c. specific evaluations. a. Calibrate equipment.
d. all of the above, and record test results. b. Prepare written reports.
c. Establish techniques.
d. Provide training.
30
CHAPTER 1 Recommended Practice No. SNT-TC-1A (2016)
Section 5
27. As recommended in SNT-TC-1A, which of the
following is true?
24. In accordance with SNT-TC-1A, who is responsible a. Overtime cannot be considered in meeting the
for establishing a written practice for the control and minimum experience.
administration of NDT personnel training, b. Overtime can only be considered if the candidate
examination, and certification? is being qualified in more than one method
simultaneously.
a. The NDT Level III. c. Overtime can be credited based on total hours.
b. The employer. d. SNT-TC-1A does not currently provide a
c. ASNT. recommendation regarding overtime.
d. An appropriate regulatory authority.
28. High school education is recommended as a
25. The responsibility of each level of certification for minimum requirement for:
determining the acceptability of materials or
components: a. Level III only.
b. Level II and Level III only.
a. need not be described in the employer’s written c. none of the levels.
practice since those responsibilities are defined d. all three levels.
specifically in SNT-TC-1A.
b. should be described in the employer’s written 29. In Leak Testing, recommended work time experience
practice only if they are different from and training:
SNT-TC-1A recommendations.
c. should be described in the employer’s written a. differs for each of four major techniques.
practice under all circumstances. b. does not consider different techniques.
d. should be described in the employer’s written c. is listed for Levels II and III only.
practice if dictated by customer requirements. d. is significantly greater than for ultrasonic testing.
31
Basic l section 1
32. For a person being qualified directly to Level II with 37. Recommended training reference material:
no time at Level I, the recommended experience
consists of: a. is available only through ASNT.
b. is available from a variety of sources.
a. the time recommended for Level II. c. can only include those references listed in
b. the time recommended for Level III. CP-105.
c. the sum of the times recommended for Level I d. must be made available to each Trainee.
and Level II.
d. not less than 6 months for any method. 38. The recommended training course outline includes:
33. In some cases, the training times recommended for a. technical principles of the method.
Level I are greater than for Level II. Why? b. review of API 1104 requirements.
c. review of ASTM guidelines.
a. In preparing for qualification at Level I, the d. review of interpretation requirements in
candidate should always receive more training ASME B31.3.
than for Level II, regardless of the NDT method.
Section 8
b. Some numbers in the table are erroneous.
c. Candidates for Level II generally have more
formal education than those for Level I.
d. Some methods require more initial training at 39. In accordance with SNT-TC-1A, the NDT Level III
Level I because of differences in complexity and should be responsible for:
manipulative skills.
a. ensuring Level II personnel examine Level I
34. The recommended number of training hours in a personnel.
particular method are: b. interpretation of all test results obtained by Level
II personnel.
a. listed as a function of the candidate’s education. c. all questions to be used on examinations for Level
b. the same regardless of the candidate’s education. I and Level II.
c. listed as a function of the candidate’s experience. d. writing all company standard operating
d. reduced if the candidate is being qualified in procedures.
more than one method simultaneously.
32
CHAPTER 1 Recommended Practice No. SNT-TC-1A (2016)
40. Which of the following may conduct and grade 46. The Practical Examination is recommended to
examinations for Level I and Level II personnel? include operational familiarity with test equipment
and analysis of test results for:
a. An NDT Level II.
b. A qualified representative of the NDT Level III. a. Levels I, II, and III.
c. ASNT personnel because they offer examinations b. Levels I and II.
on a regular basis. c. Levels II and III.
d. The company president. d. Trainees, Level I, and Level II.
41. How often should the near-vision acuity examination 47. Which of the following statements is true with regard
be administered? to the administration of written examinations?
33
Basic l section 1
50. In certification of Level III personnel according to 54. What purpose is best served by maintaining
the recommendations of SNT-TC-1A, the employer: certification records and the written practice?
51. For Level I and II examinations, the recommended 55. The employer is responsible for certification of:
minimum composite score is:
a. Level I and Level II NDT personnel.
a. 60 percent. b. Level III personnel only.
b. 90 percent. c. outside services.
c. 70 percent. d. all levels of NDT personnel.
d. 80 percent.
56. The employer can consider an individual to be
52. For Level III Basic Examinations, it is recommended qualified to Level III, but only if he or she:
that Level II questions also be included. These
questions should be: a. takes a comprehensive written examination.
b. has in excess of 5 years’ experience comparable to
a. Level II type questions based on other applicable a Level II.
NDT methods. c. meets the requirements of the employer’s written
b. based on Level II tasks for the particular Method practice.
Examination. d. has taken the ASNT NDT Level III Basic and at
c. selected at random from questions previously least one of the Method examinations.
used on Level II examinations.
Section 12
d. given only if the candidate is being examined in
more than one method.
Section 9
57. Which of the following statements is true concerning
recertification?
53. If an outside agency is engaged to provide Level III a. Recertification can be accomplished only by
services, the: reexamination at least once every three years.
b. Recertification can be based upon evidence of
a. written practice of the outside agency pertains, continuing satisfactory performance.
and it is not necessary for the employer that uses c. Once certified to a particular level, certification
the outside services to have a written practice. can only be terminated if the certified individual
b. responsibility of certification must be retained by terminates employment with the certifying
the employer utilizing outside services. employer.
c. employer utilizing outside services must d. Reexamination of a certified individual can be
nonetheless have a Level III in direct accomplished only after three years at a particular
employment. level.
d. outside agency may certify the personnel of the
employer utilizing outside services.
34
CHAPTER 1 Recommended Practice No. SNT-TC-1A (2016)
Answers
1d 2a 3b 4d 5b 6c 7d 8b 9d 10a 11c 12b 13c
14c 15d 16a 17b 18d 19a 20a 21c 22d 23d 24b 25c 26a
27d 28c 29a 30a 31b 32c 33d 34b 35c 36d 37b 38a 39c
40b 41c 42c 43a 44d 45a 46b 47d 48c 49b 50c 51d 52a
35
CHAPTER 2
ANSI/ASNT CP-189 (2016)
Section 2: Definitions
nel are fully qualified for the tasks being undertaken.”
These statements define who is under the jurisdiction of
the standard and state that the ultimate responsibility of the In Section 2 (pp. 1-2), Definitions, of CP-189 (2016), 21
qualification and certification process remains with the definitions are listed to remove any ambiguity about terms
employer. The fact that CP-189 is an American National used throughout the body of the standard. The term
Standard signifies that the requirements for due process, “Practical Examination” is clarified in its use on behalf of
consensus, and other criteria as defined by the American the employer and the fact that observations and results
National Standards Institute (ANSI) have been met by the must be documented. “Grading Unit” is a term used in both
standard developer, in this case, the American Society for SNT-TC-1A and CP-189 to explain that a qualification spec-
Nondestructive Testing. imen can be divided into sections that do not have to be
equal length or equal spacing, unflawed or flawed. “Test
Section 1: Scope
Technique” (a category within an NDT method, for exam-
ple, immersion ultrasonic testing) is distinguished from
Section 1 (p. 1) of CP-189 (2016) reads as follows: “Method” (one of the disciplines of NDT, for example, ultra-
sonic testing, within which various test techniques may exist).
1.0 Scope In Paragraph 2.2.1, an “NDT Level III” is identified as
1.1 This standard establishes the minimum requirements “an individual possessing a currently valid ASNT NDT or
for the qualification and certification of PdM Level III certificate or ACCP Professional Level III
nondestructive testing (NDT) and predictive
certificate and certified in accordance with this standard.”
Thus, in order to become an employer’s NDT Level III, CP-
maintenance (PdM) personnel.
189 mandates that the individual hold a current, valid
1.2 This standard details the minimum training, ASNT Level III certificate. Other requirements must be cus-
education, and experience requirements for NDT tomized to the needs of the employer in accordance with
personnel and provides criteria for documenting the employer’s written NDT personnel qualification and
qualifications and certification. certification procedure.
37
Basic l section 1
38
CHAPTER 2 ANSI/ASNT CP-189 (2016)
Section 6: Examinations
considered a Predictive Maintenance [PdM] method in CP-
105 and thus falls outside the scope of this study guide. The
Section 6 (pp. 5-8), Examinations, addresses vision following four methods are not represented: ground pene-
requirements and the administration of written and practi- trating radar, guided wave, laser methods, and microwave
cal examinations for the qualification of NDT Level I, II, technology.)
and III personnel. The near-distance vision examination In addition, the candidate may have to show the ability
calls for an individual to be capable of reading a Jaeger to prepare an NDT procedure appropriate to the employer’s
Number 1 test chart at a distance of not less than 30.5 cm needs, if he or she does not have documented experience
(12 in.), rather than the Jaeger Number 2 of SNT-TC-1A, demonstrating that they had previously prepared similar
and to be administered in accordance with a procedure, and procedures in the method using the specifications, codes,
by personnel, approved by the designated NDT Level III. In and standards that are applicable to that employer.
addition to color differentiation, NDT personnel must be If the NDT Level III will be required to perform tests or
able to distinguish shades of gray used in a given method. evaluate test results, the Practical Examination must include
Level I and Level II personnel are to receive a closed- the same demonstrations of ability to perform the required
book General Examination approved by the designated activities as that of the Level II.
NDT Level III over a cross section of the body of knowledge The 2016 edition of CP-189 has added two sections, 6.4
applicable to each method and NDT level. Level I and and 6.5, addressing employer acceptance of ASNT NDT
Level II personnel are to receive a closed-book Specific Level II certificates and ACCP Level II certificates as meet-
Examination, supported by NDT Level III approved refer- ing the examination requirements outlined in Paragraphs
ence materials, addressing various examples of equipment, 6.3.1 and 6.3.2 for ASNT NDT Level II and Paragraphs
procedures, and test techniques that the candidate may use 6.3.1-6.3.3 for ACCPT Level II as determined by the NDT
in the performance of assigned duties. Level III.
The Level I Practical Examination requires that the can- The employer’s NDT Level III is responsible for the
didate demonstrate proficiency in using the applicable NDT administration and grading of the examinations, but the
method to examine at least one representative test sample grading and administration of multiple-choice objective
for each technique to be used in the candidate’s job. This questions can be delegated when properly documented. The
includes the documentation of the results of the test(s). Practical Examination is to be administered by an NDT
The Level II Practical Examination requires that the Level III in the respective test method. The employer is
candidate demonstrate proficiency using the applicable responsible for having an ASNT Level III develop, adminis-
NDT method to examine two or more representative test ter, and grade the Level III Specific and Practical examina-
samples for each method and at least one sample for each tions. Employer examinations require a minimum 70 per-
technique to be used in the candidate’s job. This includes cent on individual tests and a minimum 80 percent on the
the interpretation, evaluation, and documentation of the overall average grade.
examination’s results. For a Level I or Level II candidate to pass the Practical
The Level I Practical Examination and the Level II Examination, discontinuities or conditions previously speci-
Practical Examination are similar to those recommended by fied by the Level III are to be located and evaluated. A writ-
SNT-TC-1A, with the exception that the test samples used ten checklist is to be used addressing equipment and tech-
are to be representative of the products that will be encoun- nique proficiency, proper adherence to the procedure, test
tered when performing their job functions. This difference sequence, calibrations, materials, documentation, and
ensures the CP-189 examinations must be representative of extent of examination. If the candidate is required to per-
the product typical to that which candidates will likely form interpretation or evaluation of results, these are to also
encounter in performing their job function. be part of the checklist. In addition, the Level II checklist
More explicit examination requirements have been includes proper extent of examination, accuracy, and com-
placed on the NDT Level III due to the many variations in pleteness of interpretations, evaluations, and documenta-
background and work activities found in the field. As a pre- tion of the activities and test results.
requisite, a candidate for the position of an employer’s Level If an examination is failed, the requirements for reexam-
III must hold an ASNT Level III certificate with a currently ination are similar to SNT-TC-1A (receive additional train-
valid endorsement for each method for which employer ing or wait 30 days), except that a candidate is not to be
certification is sought, and he or she must also satisfactorily reexamined using the examination and/or specimen previ-
complete a Specific Examination comprising thirty (30) ously failed.
questions on the employer’s specifications and standards for The employer’s representative who administers the
each method. A valid endorsement on an ASNT Level III Level III examinations must possess a current ASNT Level III
certificate fulfills the examination criteria for only the Basic certificate in the method and be familiar with the standards
Examination and the Method Examination for each appli- used and the products made by the employer. Self-examina-
cable NDT method. (NOTE: Table 1, Minimum Number of tion and examination by subordinates are prohibited.
Examination Questions, in CP-189 is comparable to Table
8.3.4 in SNT-TC-1A with the exception that only the 11
methods for which ASNT administers NDT Level III exam-
inations are listed. Vibration analysis, although also listed, is
39
Basic l section 1
40
CHAPTER 2 ANSI/ASNT CP-189 (2016)
Review Questions
1. In accordance with CP-189 (2016), an NDT Level III: 4. As required in CP-189, Level I Practical examinations
are intended to be:
a. shall be responsible for grading all Level I and
Level II certification examinations. a. given by the employer’s Level III.
b. must prepare all training materials for NDT Level b. passed only if all predefined discontinuities are
I and Level II personnel. detected and evaluated.
c. must approve all questions to be used on c. given using one or more test samples for each
examinations for Level I and Level II. technique.
d. must administer all Level I and II written d. given using one or more test samples for each
examinations. method.
2. Which of the following is true regarding NDT Level 5. The Practical Examination shall address the technical
III Practical Examinations? and practical competency of the examinee when
following prepared NDT procedures for:
a. This examination requirement may be waived if
the candidate holds a currently valid ASNT a. Level I, Level II, and NDT Instructor.
Level III certificate. b. corporate Level IIIs.
b. The exam administrator must hold a valid ASNT c. all levels of qualification including the trainer or
Level III certification in the applicable test instructor.
method. d. Levels I and II.
c. The use of a written checklist may be used at the
discretion of the administrator.
d. Exam administration may be delegated to any
authorized representative by the employer.
Answers
1c 2b 3a 4c 5d
41
CHAPTER 3
The ASNT NDT Level III Certification Program
In their Fall 1974 meeting, the ASNT Board of Directors 4. Liquid Penetrant Testing (PT)*
authorized implementation of a voluntary program for cer- 5. Magnetic Flux Leakage (MFL)*
tification of NDT Level III personnel. The Board decided 6. Magnetic Particle Testing (MT)*
that use of the term “certification” as applied in the ASNT 7. Neutron Radiography Testing (NR)
NDT Level III program was appropriate, indicating that
8. Radiographic Testing (RT)
personnel holding ASNT NDT Level III certificates had met
certain education, training, experience, and examination 9. Thermal/Infrared Testing (IR)
requirements. It is important to note that the word “certifi- 10.Ultrasonic Testing (UT)
cation” as used in the Level III program indicates a record 11.Visual Testing (VT)*
of achievement and/or qualification. As used in
Recommended Practice No. SNT-TC-1A: Personnel
Qualification and Certification in Nondestructive Testing, *These examinations comprise 90 questions; the others have
“certification” indicates that employers have authorized 135 questions. For examination purposes, MFL is designat-
NDT Level III personnel to perform work on their behalf. ed ML.
The first ASNT NDT Level III examinations were given in
43
Basic l section 1
ASNT PdM certification was developed as a result of Upon successful completion of the necessary qualifica-
industry requests for a third-party certification that focused tion examinations, ASNT will issue the candidate an ASNT
on PdM knowledge and test methods instead of the tradi- NDT Level III certificate and wallet card that is valid for
tional NDT methods used for NDT Level III certification. five years.
In response to this request, ASNT developed a 90-question
The above Level III requirements 1. incorporate acceptance of ASNT NDT Level III certifica-
may be partially replaced by tion into the employer’s written practice; or
experience as a certified NDT Level II 2. incorporate acceptance of Level III qualification exami-
or by assignments at least nations administered by an outside agency that meet the
comparable to NDT Level II as requirements of the employer’s written practice; or
defined in the employer’s written 3. incorporate the employer’s examinations as defined in
practice. the employer’s written practice.
44
CHAPTER 3 The ASNT NDT Level III Certification Program
Use of the ASNT NDT Level III Certification ACCP Professional Level III
With the introduction of the ASNT Central
ASNT NDT Level III certification provides an interna-
Certification Program (ACCP) in the late 1990s, ASNT
tionally recognized way for individuals, companies, and
began offering a “central” certification for Level IIs and IIIs
industry sectors to take advantage of standardized examina-
that aligned with multiple international NDT certification
tions developed by qualified subject matter experts and
standards. In 2005, the program was revised to address ISO
administered by an ISO 17024 accredited third-party certifi-
9712 requirements and now meets or exceeds the require-
cation body. Under SNT-TC-1A, employers may accept
ments of the U.S. adoption of ISO 9712, ANSI/ASNT
valid ASNT NDT Level III certification as proof that the
CP-106: Nondestructive Testing—Qualification and
certificate holder has met the Basic and Method examina-
Certification of Personnel.
tion requirements for the test methods listed on the ASNT
The ACCP Level III certification requires that candi-
certificate. The employer must still determine if the Specific
dates pass the same Basic and Method examinations used in
examination requirements have been met and has the sole
the ASNT NDT Level III program, the full ACCP Level II
responsibility for authorizing (certifying) their Level III
hands-on Practical Examination (unless passed as an ACCP
NDT personnel to perform NDT tasks on behalf of their
Level II), and a Procedure Preparation Examination. The
company.
Practical Examination requires that candidates demonstrate
NOTE: In the case of CP-189, an individual must hold
their ability to apply the applicable test methods, and the
an ASNT NDT Level III certificate prior to becoming an
Procedure Preparation Examination requires that they write
organization’s Level III. In the case of SNT-TC-1A, an indi-
an NDT procedure for a specific part based on the require-
vidual can use the ASNT NDT Level III certificate as one of
ments of an NDT specification. For personnel who hold
the many optional approaches for becoming an organiza-
currently valid ASNT NDT Level III certification, the Basic
tion’s Level III. But in both cases, the ASNT NDT Level III
and applicable Method exams need not be retaken.
certificate must be augmented with a written practice that
identifies, in detail, the manner by which the organization’s
Level III is qualified and certified for the specific purposes
of the organization.
45
Basic l section 1
Review Questions
1. ASNT NDT Level III certification is a requirement 5. To recertify by application, an ASNT NDT Level III
of: must:
a. an ASNT NDT Level III is authorized to 6. To be eligible to sit for the ASNT NDT Level III
supervise but not perform NDT tasks on behalf of exams, a candidate with two years of passing grades
the employer. in engineering or science study at a university or
b. the employer can accept a currently valid ASNT technical school must have:
NDT Level III certificate as proof of qualification.
c. an individual is certified in both NDT and PdM. a. one additional year of experience beyond the
d. that the certificate holder has satisfied the Basic Level II requirements in NDT in an assignment
and Method exam requirements as set forth in comparable to that of an NDT Level II in the
SNT-TC-1A. applicable NDT method(s).
b. two additional years of experience beyond the
3. ASNT NDT Level III certification: Level II requirements in NDT in an assignment
at least comparable to that of NDT Level II in the
a. immediately qualifies a certificate holder to act as applicable NDT method(s).
the employer’s Level III. c. four years of experience beyond the Level II
b. permits the individual to function as an requirements in NDT in an assignment at least
independent Level III without further comparable to that of an NDT Level II in the
documentation. applicable NDT method(s).
c. makes an individual potentially eligible to d. one additional year of experience beyond the
become an employer’s Level III. Level II requirements in NDT in an assignment
d. only applies when recognized by a requirements comparable to that of an NDT Level II and an
document. additional 20 hours of classroom training in the
applicable test method(s).
4. The ASNT NDT Level III Basic Examination covers
all of the following except:
Answers
1b 2d 3c 4d 5a 6b
46
section ii
OVERVIEW OF NDT METHODS
CHAPTER 4
General Applications of Various NDT Methods
49
Basic l section 11
3. The total energy loss of a propagating wave is called: 10. Background noise can be reduced by:
50
CHAPTER 4 General Applications of Various NDT Methods
51
Basic l section 11
8. In electromagnetic testing, the specimen is coupled 13. Which of the following discontinuities is easiest to
to the test coil by: detect with an electromagnetic test? (Assume that the
area of the discontinuity is equal in all four choices
a. core coupling. listed.)
b. magnetic saturation.
c. the coil’s electromagnetic fields. a. A subsurface crack which lies parallel to the
d. magnetic domains. direction of the eddy current.
b. A discontinuity located in the center of a 51 mm
9. The penetration of eddy currents in a conductive (2 in.) diameter bar.
material is decreased when the: c. A radial crack that extends to the outer surface of
a 51 mm (2 in.) diameter bar.
a. test frequency or conductivity of the specimen is d. A subsurface radial crack located at a depth of
decreased. 13 mm (0.5 in.) in a 51 mm (2 in.) diameter bar.
b. test frequency is decreased or conductivity of the
specimen is increased. 14. A term used to define the timing relationships
c. test frequency, conductivity of the specimen, or involved in alternating current signals is:
permeability of the specimen is increased.
d. permeability of the specimen is decreased. a. magnitude.
b. phase.
10. At a fixed test frequency, in which of the following c. impedance.
materials will the eddy current penetration be d. time-gain correction.
greatest?
15. The impedance of a test coil can be represented by
a. Aluminum (35% IACS conductivity). the vector sum of:
b. Brass (15% IACS conductivity).
c. Copper (95% IACS conductivity). a. inductive reactance and resistance.
d. Lead (7% IACS conductivity). b. capacitive reactance and resistance.
c. inductive reactance and capacitive reactance.
11. A term used to describe the effect observed due to a d. inductive reactance, capacitive reactance, and
change in the coupling between a test specimen and a resistance.
flat probe coil when the distance of separation
between them is varied is: 16. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of using
a surface probe coil for the electromagnetic
a. fill factor. inspection of small-diameter tubing?
b. edge effect.
c. end effect. a. Liftoff variations effect.
d. liftoff. b. Inability to detect small discontinuities.
c. Inherent mechanical problems.
12. When testing with eddy currents, discontinuities will d. Slow inherent speed.
be most easily detected when the eddy currents are:
17. The term “fill factor” applies to:
a. coplanar with the major dimension of the
discontinuity. a. a surface coil.
b. perpendicular to the major plane of the b. coaxial cable.
discontinuity. c. an encircling coil.
c. parallel to the major dimension of the d. the ability to null an eddy current instrument.
discontinuity.
d. 90 degrees out of phase with the current in the 18. Which of the following materials would be more
coil. likely used as a mounting material for a probe coil?
a. Aluminum.
b. Plastic.
c. Copper.
d. Nonferromagnetic steel.
52
CHAPTER 4 General Applications of Various NDT Methods
19. Which of the following is not a commonly used eddy 24. Some of the products commonly tested using
current testing read-out mechanism? encircling coils are:
20. Reference standards used for electromagnetic testing: 25. It is often possible to sort various alloys of a
nonmagnetic metal by means of an electromagnetic
a. must contain artificial discontinuities such as test when:
notches and drilled holes.
b. must contain natural discontinuities such as a. there is a unique range of permeability values for
cracks and inclusions. each alloy.
c. must be free of measurable discontinuities, but b. there is a unique range of conductivity values for
may contain artificial or natural discontinuities, each alloy.
or may be free of discontinuities, depending on c. the direction of induced eddy currents varies for
the test system and the type of test being each alloy.
conducted. d. the magnetic domains for each alloy are different.
d. must be constructed from the same material of
the object being inspected. 26. When conducting electromagnetic testing on tubing
with a system that includes a frequency
21. Which of the following conditions is not important discriminating circuit, which of the following
when selecting specimens to be used as reference variables would be classified as a high-frequency
standards? variable?
Topical Outline
c. A 5% change in diameter.
d. A 10% change in conductivity.
53
Basic l section 11
a. Leak testing.
b. X-ray spectroscopy.
c. Optical holography.
d. Acoustic holography.
54
CHAPTER 4 General Applications of Various NDT Methods
a. the release of gas from materials in a vacuum. 2. Liquid penetrant testing is a nondestructive method
b. being directly proportional to the temperature of that can be used for:
the gas.
c. the viscosity of the pressurizing gas. a. locating and evaluating all types of discontinuities
d. the drop in test pressure due to leakage from the in a test specimen.
vacuum manifold. b. locating and determining the length, width, and
depth of discontinuities in a test specimen.
Topical Outline
d. locating discontinuities open to the surface.
55
2.4.2.4.6 Field inspections
Basic l section 11
4. The property of a dye used in penetrant materials to 9. When performing a liquid penetrant test using
emit light in the range of wavelengths different from solvent-removable visible dye penetrant, there are
the wavelength of light that excites the emission is several ways to remove excess penetrant from the
called: surface of the part. Which of the methods listed
below is generally regarded as most suitable for
a. emissivity. giving accurate test results?
b. irradiation.
c. spectrum blocking. a. Squirting solvent over the surface with no more
d. fluorescence. than 69 kPa (10 psi) pressure.
b. Wiping with a solvent-soaked cloth, then wiping
5. When using a fluorescent, post-emulsifier penetrant, with a dry cloth.
the length of time the emulsifier is allowed to remain c. Wiping with a solvent-dampened cloth, then
on the part is critical for detecting shallow wiping with dry cloths.
discontinuities. The optimum length of time should d. Wiping with dry wipes, then wiping with a
be: solvent-dampened cloth, and finally wiping with
a dry cloth.
a. 10 seconds.
b. 5 seconds. 10. A problem with retesting a specimen that has been
c. 2-3 minutes. previously tested using liquid penetrant is that the:
d. determined by experimentation.
a. penetrant residue left in discontinuities may not
6. A red penetrant indication against white background readily dissolve, and the retest may be misleading.
is most likely to be seen when: b. penetrant may form beads on the surface.
c. penetrant will lose a great deal of its color
a. dry developers are used. brilliance.
b. visible dye penetrants are used. d. added penetrant will intensify the penetrant
c. fluorescent post-emulsified penetrants are used. residue, making indications larger than normal.
d. ultraviolet light is used with visible dye
penetrants. 11. A commonly used method of checking the overall
performance of a penetrant material system is to:
7. The most widely accepted method for removing
excessive water-washable penetrant from the surface a. determine the viscosity of the penetrant.
of a test specimen is by: b. measure the wetability of the penetrant.
c. compare two sections of artificially cracked
a. using a wet rag. specimens.
b. using a water spray rinse. d. check the penetrant contaminant levels.
c. washing the part directly under water running
from a tap. 12. The function of emulsifier in the post-emulsified
d. immersing the part in water. penetrant process is to:
8. Which of the following penetrant systems is a. more rapidly drive the penetrant into deep, tight
generally considered the least sensitive? cracks.
b. react with the surface penetrant to make the
a. Water-washable; visible dye. penetrant water-washable.
b. Solvent-removable; visible dye. c. add fluorescent dye or pigment to the penetrant.
c. Water-washable; fluorescent dye. d. emulsify surface oils and greases to facilitate their
d. Post-emulsified; visible dye. removal.
56
CHAPTER 4 General Applications of Various NDT Methods
13. Which of the following statements does not apply to 19. The penetrant indication of a forging lap will
developers used during penetrant testing? normally be a:
14. The penetrant indication for a cold shut on the a. acid in the penetrant may cause severe corrosion.
surface of a casting will normally be: b. the oily residue from the test will severely inhibit
the application of paint on aluminum alloys.
a. a dotted line. c. a chemical reaction between the penetrant and
b. a large bulbous indication. aluminum could cause a fire.
c. a smooth continuous line. d. the alkalines in wet developers and most
d. undetectable since cold shuts are closed over on emulsifiers could cause surface pitting,
the surface. particularly in moist atmospheres.
15. A crack-type discontinuity will generally appear as: 21. Which of the following statements is true when using
penetrants for leak detection?
a. a rounded indication.
b. a continuous line, either straight or jagged. a. Surfaces do not have to be clean.
c. a broad, fuzzy indication. b. Only one side has to be accessible.
d. random round or elongated holes. c. Penetrant can be diluted in water for hydro
testing.
16. In a penetrant test, scattered round indications on d. Only visible penetrants can be used.
the surface of a part could be indicative of:
22. Which of the following is a discontinuity that might
a. fatigue cracks. be found in rolled bar stock?
b. porosity.
c. weld laps. a. Blow holes.
d. hot tears. b. Shrinkage laps.
c. Cracks or seams.
17. Which of the following are typical nonrelevant d. Insufficient penetration.
indications found in penetrant testing?
23. Anodized surfaces are usually considered poor
a. Indications due to part geometry or part design candidates for high-sensitivity liquid penetrant
configurations. examination because the anodizing process produces
b. Nonmagnetic indications. a conversion layer that:
c. Nonlinear indications.
d. Indications on low-stressed areas of the part. a. is extremely smooth and slick.
b. has a multitude of extremely small pores.
18. Which of the statements below best states the results c. may have alkaline residue that “quenches” the
of sandblasting for cleaning surfaces to be penetrant penetrant.
tested? d. cannot be cleaned by ordinary processes.
57
discontinuities into the part.
Basic l section 11
58
CHAPTER 4 General Applications of Various NDT Methods
5. Subjecting a part to a magnetic field that is 11. The amount of amperage used for magnetic particle
constantly reversing in polarity and gradually inspection using prods is based on the distance
diminishing in strength accomplishes which of the between the prods and the:
following?
a. thickness of the part.
a. Demagnetizes the part. b. length of the prods.
b. Magnetizes the part. c. diameter of the prods.
c. Increases the residual magnetism. d. total length of the part.
d. Locates deep-lying discontinuities.
12. Demagnetization of a part is usually not necessary if
6. Circular magnetization is useful in the detection of: the part is:
59
Basic l section 11
17. When using direct current, an indication is detected. Neutron Radiographic Testing (NR)
Topical Outline
What is the next logical step to determine if the
indication results from a surface or subsurface
condition?
2.6 Neutron Radiographic Testing
a. Reinspect using the surge method. 2.6.1 Fundamentals
b. Demagnetize and apply powder. 2.6.1.1 Sources
c. Reinspect at higher amperage. 2.6.1.1.1 Isotopic
d. Reinspect using alternating current. 2.6.1.1.2 Neutron
2.6.1.2 Detectors
18. A requirement to use magnetic particle testing on a 2.6.1.2.1 Imaging
part should also include: 2.6.1.2.2 Nonimaging
2.6.1.3 Nature of penetrating radiation and
a. a fabrication and service manual. interactions with matter
b. a statement on the drawing that requires a 2.6.1.4 Essentials of safety
magnetic particle test. 2.6.2 Neutron radiographic testing
c. the procedure to be used and acceptance criteria. 2.6.2.1 Basic imaging considerations
d. the method of test and service conditions. 2.6.2.2 Test result interpretation; discontinuity
indications
19. The statement that amperages testing can be applied 2.6.2.3 Systems factors (source/test object/detector
to plated and painted parts: interactions)
2.6.2.4 Applications
a. may be true if amperages are increased to 2.6.2.4.1 Explosives and pyrotechnic devices
compensate for the coating thickness. 2.6.2.4.2 Assembled components
b. is true regardless of the thickness of the coating. 2.6.2.4.3 Bonded components
c. is true only for circular magnetism. 2.6.2.4.4 Corrosion detection
d. is not true under any circumstances. 2.6.2.4.5 Nonmetallic materials
a. the weld should be wire brushed to remove slag 2. Neutrons for fast-neutron radiography are not
and scale. obtainable from:
b. standard test weldments should be used for
comparison. a. accelerators.
c. the weld bead should be coated with lacquer. b. radioactive sources.
d. the weld bead should be ground to remove c. reactors.
surface irregularities. d. X-ray machines.
60
CHAPTER 4 General Applications of Various NDT Methods
3. A radioactive source used for neutron radiography is: 10. The most suitable films for producing neutron
radiographs are:
a. Cf-252.
b. Pu-239. a. industrial X-ray films.
c. Co-60. b. red-sensitive films.
d. Cs-137. c. instant-type films.
d. emulsions that contain no silver halides.
4. The energy of the neutron is expressed in which of
the following units of measurement? 11. Materials that are exposed to thermal neutron beams:
a. be placed behind the film. 15. The main reason for using neutron radiography in
b. be placed in front of the film. place of X-radiography is:
c. be very thin.
d. become radioactive. a. a lower cost.
b. higher resolution.
9. Which of the following neutron radiography c. the ability to image objects and materials not
converter foils cannot be used for transfer or indirect possible with X-rays.
radiography? d. it is a simpler radiographic procedure when
required than X-radiography.
a. Dysprosium.
b. Indium.
c. Gadolinium.
d. Gold.
61
Basic l section 11
16. A photographic record produced by the passage of 21. The primary advantage of using a Cf-252 source for
neutrons through a specimen onto a film is called: neutron radiography is its:
18. The penetrating ability of a thermal neutron beam is 23. The radiographic image of discontinuities in the
governed by: imaging screens can be separated from actual
discontinuities in a part being radiographed by:
a. attenuating characteristics of the material being
penetrated. a. comparing a neutron radiograph of the parts to a
b. exposure time. blank neutron radiograph of the same imaging
c. source-to-film distance. screen with no parts in place.
d. thickness of the converter screen. b. producing a photographic copy of the original
neutron radiograph using X-ray duplicating film.
19. The transfer exposure method is used because: c. increasing the exposure time of the radiograph.
d. decreasing the temperature of the developer
a. it is not influenced by gamma radiation in the solution.
primary beam.
b. it produces greater radiographic sensitivity than 24. For inspection of radioactive objects or those that
direct exposure using gadolinium. emit gamma radiation when bombarded with
c. it is faster than the direct exposure method. neutrons, a preferable detection technique is the:
d. the screens used in this method emit only
internal conversion electrons of about 70 keV. a. direct exposure technique.
b. transfer technique.
20. Higher resolution can be achieved in direct neutron c. isotopic reproduction technique.
radiography by: d. electrostatic-belt generator technique.
a. placing a lead intensifying screen between a 25. Neutron radiography is an excellent tool for
gadolinium screen and the film. determining:
b. increasing the L/D ratio of the collimation
system. a. the coating thickness of aluminum oxide on
c. increasing the exposure time. anodized aluminum.
d. increasing the distance between the object and b. the size of voids in thick steel castings.
the film cassette. c. the integrity of thin plastic material within a steel
housing.
d. tungsten inclusions in GTAW welds.
62
CHAPTER 4 General Applications of Various NDT Methods
Radiographic Testing
The American Society for Nondestructive Testing, Inc. 2012.*
Ramakrishnan, R. Programmed Instruction Series: Radiographic
Testing (PTP Series), Volume V: Radiographic Interpretation.
Topical Outline Columbus, OH: The American Society for Nondestructive Testing,
Inc. 2012.*
*Available only as part of five-volume set.
2.7 Radiographic Testing
63
2.7.2.4.5 Field inspections
Basic l section 11
2. Two X-ray machines operating at the same nominal 8. The fact that gases, when bombarded by radiation,
kilovoltage and milliamperage settings: ionize and become electrical conductors makes them
useful in:
a. will produce the same intensities and energies of
radiation. a. X-ray transformers.
b. will produce the same intensities but may b. fluoroscopes.
produce different energies of radiation. c. masks.
c. will produce the same energies but may produce d. radiation detection equipment.
different intensities of radiation.
d. may give not only different intensities but also 9. The reason exposure time must be increased by a
different energies of radiation. factor of four when the source-to-film distance is
doubled is that the:
3. Short wavelength electromagnetic radiation
produced during the disintegration of nuclei of a. intensity of radiation decreases at an exponential
radioactive substances is called: rate when the source-to-film distance is
increased.
a. X-radiation. b. energy of radiation is inversely proportional to
b. gamma radiation. the square root of the distance from the source to
c. scatter radiation. the film.
d. beta radiation. c. intensity of radiation is inversely proportional to
the square of the distance from the source to the
4. Almost all gamma radiography is performed with: film.
d. scattered radiation effect is greater as the
a. natural isotopes. source-to-film distance increases.
b. artificially produced isotopes.
c. Radium. 10. The most important factor in X-ray absorption of a
d. Co-60. specimen is:
5. The energy of gamma rays is expressed by which of a. the thickness of the specimen.
the following units of measurement? b. the density of the specimen.
c. Young’s modulus of the material.
a. Curie (gigabecquerel). d. the atomic number of the material.
b. Roentgen (coulomb per kilogram).
c. Half-life. 11. The maximum permissible dose per calendar year is
d. Kiloelectronvolts (keV) or megaelectronvolts 5 rem (0.05 Sv) for:
(MeV).
a. extremities.
6. Of the following, the source providing the most b. skin.
penetrating radiation is: c. whole body (total effective dose equivalent).
d. a fetus from occupational exposure of a declared
a. Co-60. pregnant woman.
b. 220 kVp X-ray tube.
c. 15 MeV betatron. 12. Exposure to small doses of X-rays or gamma rays:
d. electrons from Ir-192.
a. has a cumulative effect that must be considered
7. The difference between the densities of two areas of a when monitoring for maximum permissible dose.
radiograph is called: b. is beneficial because it serves to build an
immunity in humans to radiation poisoning.
a. radiographic contrast. c. will have no effect on human beings.
b. subject contrast. d. will have only a short-term effect on human
c. film contrast. tissues.
d. definition.
64
CHAPTER 4 General Applications of Various NDT Methods
13. Which of the following technique variables is most 19. At voltages above 400 kV, the use of lead to provide
commonly used to adjust subject contrast? protection may present serious structural problems.
If this should be the case, which of the following
a. Source-to-film distance. materials would most likely be used as a substitute?
b. Milliamperage.
c. Kilovoltage. a. Concrete.
d. Focal spot size. b. Aluminum.
c. Steel.
14. A basic difference between a radiograph and a d. Boron.
fluoroscopic image is that:
20. A distinctive characteristic of megavolt radiography
a. the fluoroscopic image is more sensitive. is that it:
b. the fluoroscopic image is positive whereas the
radiographic image is negative. a. results in comparatively high subject contrast.
c. the fluoroscopic image is brighter. b. results in comparatively high radiographic
d. there is no basic difference between the two. contrast.
c. is applicable to comparatively thick or highly
15. Thin sheets of lead foil in intimate contact with absorbing specimens.
X-ray film during exposure increase film density d. is utilized for stainless steels only.
because they:
21. Given the radiographic equivalency factors of 1.4 for
a. fluoresce and emit visible light, which helps Inconel™ and 1.0 for 304 stainless steel, what is the
expose the film. approximate equivalent thickness of Inconel™ to
b. absorb the scattered radiation. produce the same exposure as a 3.8 mm (0.15 in.)
c. prevent backscattered radiation from fogging the thickness of 304 stainless steel?
film.
d. emit electrons when exposed to X- and gamma a. 3 mm (0.11 in.).
radiation, which helps to darken the film. b. 9 mm (0.35 in.).
c. 18 mm (0.7 in.).
16. When viewing a radiograph, an image of the back of d. 36 mm (1.4 in.).
the cassette superimposed on the image of the
specimen is noted. This is most likely due to: 22. The fact that each solid crystalline substance
produces its own characteristic X-ray pattern is the
a. undercut. basis for:
b. overexposure.
c. X-ray intensity being too high. a. xeroradiography.
d. backscatter radiation. b. X-ray diffraction testing.
c. fluoroscopic testing.
17. An image quality indicator (IQI) is used to measure d. polymorphic testing.
the:
23. When inspecting a light metal casting by
a. size of discontinuities in a part. fluoroscopy, which of the following discontinuities
b. density of the film. would most likely be detected?
c. quality of the radiographic technique.
d. amount of radiation that penetrates the test a. Copper shrinkage.
object. b. Microshrinkage.
c. Shrinkage.
18. In film radiography, IQIs are usually placed: d. Fine cracks.
65
Basic l section 11
24. For testing a 25 mm (1 in.) steel plate 305 mm 27. Miniature electronic components are to be
(12 in.) square for laminar discontinuities, which of radiographically inspected to reveal broken copper
the following would be most effective? wire leads of 0.2 mm (0.008 in.) diameter. Which of
the following image quality indicators (IQIs) would
a. 3.7 TBq (100 Ci) of Ir-192. be most effective to use in establishing a reliable
b. 925 GBq (25 Ci) of Co-60. technique?
c. 250 kVp X-ray machine.
d. An ultrasonic device. a. A series of steel plaque-type IQIs ranging in
thickness from 0.1 mm (0.005 in.) to 0.4 mm
25. A critical weld was made with a double vee-groove. (0.015 in.), containing 1T, 2T, and 4T holes.
Among those listed, which radiographic technique b. A plastic block with the radiographic thickness
would provide coverage with the greatest probability equivalent of the test objects, containing
for detecting the most serious discontinuities? precision-drilled holes ranging from 0.1 mm
(0.005 in.) to 0.4 mm (0.015 in.) diameter.
a. A single exposure centered on the weld and c. A plastic block with the radiographic thickness
perpendicular to the principal surface of the equivalent of the test objects, containing copper
plate. wires ranging from 0.1 mm (0.005 in.) to 0.4 mm
b. Two exposures aligned with the vee-groove, focus (0.015 in.) diameter.
±30° off perpendicular. d. A series of copper shims ranging in thickness
c. Two exposures, perpendicular to the plate, offset from 0.1 mm (0.005 in.) to 0.4 mm (0.015 in.),
by the width of the weld bead. containing 1/2T and 1T holes.
d. A single exposure as in (a), above, but with two
Topical Outline
26. A fuse assembly is radiographed so that
measurements can be made on the film to determine
a minimum internal clearance dimension. What
should be factored into the dimension taken from the 2.8 Thermal/Infrared Testing
film? 2.8.1 Fundamentals
2.8.1.1 Principles and theory of thermal/infrared
a. Projection magnification. testing
b. Film latitude. 2.8.1.2 Temperature measurement principles
c. Slope of the characteristic curve. 2.8.1.3 Proper selection of thermal/infrared technique
d. Image quality indicator (IQI) alignment. 2.8.2 Equipment/materials
2.8.2.1 Temperature measurement equipment
2.8.2.2 Heat flux indicators
2.8.2.3 Noncontact devices
2.8.2.4 Contact temperature indicators
2.8.2.5 Noncontact pyrometers
2.8.2.6 Line scanners
2.8.2.7 Thermal imaging
2.8.2.8 Heat flux indicators
2.8.3 Applications
2.8.3.1 Exothermic or endothermic investigations
2.8.3.2 Friction investigations
2.8.3.3 Fluid flow investigations
2.8.3.4 Thermal resistance investigations
2.8.3.5 Thermal capacitance investigations
2.8.4 Interpretation and evaluation
66
CHAPTER 4 General Applications of Various NDT Methods
67
Basic l section 11
12. The minimum resolvable temperature difference is a 17. A line scanner is best used for applications:
subjective measurement that depends on:
a. requiring online real-time process monitoring
a. the infrared imaging system’s spatial resolution and control of a linear thermal process.
only. b. where the material is stationary.
b. the infrared imaging system’s measurement c. where the process speed is no greater than 3 m/s.
resolution only. d. where the maximum temperature of the material
c. the infrared imaging system’s thermal sensitivity is 300 °C (572 °F).
and spatial resolution.
d. the infrared imaging system’s minimum spot size. 18. Most infrared focal plane array imagers:
13. The spatial resolution of an instrument is related to a. use more costly optics than scanning radiometers.
the: b. offer better spatial resolution than scanning
radiometers.
a. thermal resolution. c. offer better thermal resolution than scanning
b. spectral bandwidth. radiometers.
c. system responsivity. d. offer less diagnostics features than scanning
d. instantaneous field of view and the working radiometers.
distance.
19. When measuring the temperature of a nongray
14. The noise equivalent temperature difference (NETD) target:
of a thermal infrared imager tends to:
a. the viewing angle is not critical.
a. improve as the target temperature increases. b. always assume a uniform emissivity.
b. degrade as the target temperature increases. c. varying surface temperature differences can be
c. remain constant regardless of the target ignored.
temperature. d. errors may occur when using a variety of
d. improve with increasing working distance. instruments.
15. The 3-5 µm spectral region is well suited for the 20. Thermal diffusivity is:
inspection of materials that exhibit:
a. high for metals and low for porous materials.
a. distinct spectral characteristics limiting b. the same for all metals.
inspection to 3-5 µm. c. low for metals and high for porous materials.
b. measuring targets at extremely long working d. the same for all porous materials.
distances.
c. measuring targets warmer than 200 °C (392 °F). 21. The term used to describe a material’s surface
d. operating at elevated ambient temperatures. temperature response to a given energy input is
called:
16. When measuring the temperature of glass while
using a mid-wave (3-5 µm) infrared imaging system, a. diffuse reflectivity.
which of the following steps is necessary? b. thermal conductance.
c. thermal effusivity.
a. Use a 3.2 µm low-pass filter. d. spectral transmittance.
b. Use a 5 µm high-pass filter.
c. No filter is necessary if using the same emissivity
setting used with long-wave imaging systems.
d. Use a 3.9 µm bandpass filter.
68
CHAPTER 4 General Applications of Various NDT Methods
69
Basic l section 11
6. When inspecting coarse-grained materials, which of 11. In a basic pulse-echo ultrasonic instrument, the
the following frequencies will generate a sound wave component that produces the voltage that activates
that will be most easily scattered by the grain the search unit is called:
structure?
a. an amplifier.
a. 1.0 MHz. b. a receiver.
b. 2.25 MHz. c. a pulser.
c. 5 MHz. d. a synchronizer.
d. 10 MHz.
12. The primary purpose of reference blocks is to:
7. In general, shear waves are more sensitive to small
discontinuities than longitudinal waves for a given a. aid the operator in obtaining maximum back
frequency and in a given material because: reflections.
b. obtain the greatest sensitivity possible from an
a. the wavelength of shear waves is shorter than the instrument.
wavelength of longitudinal waves. c. obtain a common reproducible reference
b. shear waves are not as easily dispersed in the standard.
material. d. establish the size and orientation of a
c. the direction of particle vibration for shear waves discontinuity.
is more sensitive to discontinuities.
d. the wavelength of shear waves is longer than the 13. The general use of distance-amplitude correction is
wavelength of longitudinal waves. to compensate for:
8. The ability of transducers to detect echoes from small a. attenuation, distance, and beam spread.
discontinuities is a definition of: b. amplitude of noise signals.
c. velocity changes.
a. resolution. d. vertical nonlinearity in the ultrasonic instrument.
b. sensitivity.
c. definition. 14. In area-amplitude ultrasonic standard test blocks, the
d. gain. flat-bottom holes in the blocks are:
9. Which of the following will create a resonance a. all the same diameter.
condition in a specimen? b. different in diameter, increasing in 0.4 mm
(0.02 in.) increments from the No. 1 block to
a. Continuous longitudinal waves. the No. 8 block.
b. Pulsed longitudinal waves. c. largest in the No. 1 block and smallest in the No.
c. Pulsed shear waves. 8 block.
d. Continuous shear waves. d. drilled to different depths from the front surface
of the test block.
10. The display on most basic pulse-echo ultrasonic
instruments consists of: 15. Which of the following factors has the least influence
on the amount of energy reflected from a
a. automatic read-out equipment. discontinuity?
b. an A-scan presentation.
c. a B-scan presentation. a. Size of the discontinuity.
d. a C-scan presentation. b. Orientation of discontinuity.
c. Discontinuity type.
d. Test frequency.
70
CHAPTER 4 General Applications of Various NDT Methods
16. The presence of a discontinuity will not produce a 20. The most commonly used method of producing
specific discontinuity indication on the display shear waves in a test part when inspecting by the
screen when which of the following techniques is immersion method is by:
used?
a. transmitting longitudinal waves into a part in a
a. Straight-beam testing. direction perpendicular to its front surface.
b. Surface-wave testing. b. using two crystals vibrating at different
c. Through-transmission testing. frequencies.
d. Angle-beam testing. c. using a low-frequency transducer.
d. angulating the search tube to the proper angle
17. Lack of parallelism between the entry surface and the with respect to the entry surface of the test part.
back surface:
21. In immersion testing, proof that the search unit is
a. may result in a screen pattern that does not normal (perpendicular) to a flat entry surface is
contain back reflection indications. indicated by:
b. makes it difficult to locate discontinuities that lie
parallel to the entry surface. a. maximum reflection amplitude from the entry
c. usually indicates a porous condition existing in surface.
the metal. b. elimination of water multiples.
d. will decrease the penetrating power of the test. c. maximum reflection amplitude from the back
surface.
18. Significant errors in ultrasonic thickness d. maximum amplitude of the initial pulse.
measurement can occur if:
22. In immersion testing, the water distance between the
a. test velocity is varied. search unit and the test piece:
b. the velocity of propagation deviates substantially
from an assumed constant value for a given a. should be as small as possible.
material. b. will have no effect on the test.
c. water is used as a couplant between the c. should be the same as the water distance used
transducer and the part being measured. during calibration.
d. longitudinal waves are used. d. should be as great as possible.
19. In contact testing, shear waves can be induced in the 23. Generally, the best ultrasonic testing technique for
test material by: detecting discontinuities oriented along the fusion
zone in a welded plate is:
a. placing an X-cut quartz crystal directly on the
surface of the material and coupling through a a. an angle-beam contact method employing surface
film of oil. waves.
b. using two transducers on opposite sides of the b. an immersion test using surface waves.
test specimen. c. a resonance technique.
c. using an angle-beam transducer with the d. an angle-beam method using shear waves.
transducer mounted on a plastic wedge so that
sound enters the part at an angle. 24. Thin sheet may be inspected for laminar
d placing a spherical acoustic lens on the face of the discontinuities with the ultrasonic wave directed
transducer. normal (perpendicular) to the surface by observing:
71
Basic l section 11
25. Ultrasonic inspection of castings is occasionally 30. Ultrasonic testing techniques are useful in testing
impractical because of: laminate and sandwich construction test objects for:
Topical Outline
c. radial discontinuities with major dimensions
along the length but radially oriented to the
rolled surface.
d. rounded discontinuities at the edges of the rolled 2.10 Visual Testing
plate. 2.10.1 Fundamentals
2.10.1.1 Principles and theory of visual testing
29. The resonance technique of thickness measurement 2.10.1.2 Selection of correct visual technique
has been mostly replaced by: 2.10.1.3 Equipment and materials
2.10.2 Specific applications
a. through-transmission longitudinal wave 2.10.2.1 Metal joining processes
techniques. 2.10.2.2 Pressure vessels
b. acoustic emission monitoring. 2.10.2.3 Pumps
c. pitch-and-catch shear-wave techniques. 2.10.2.4 Valves
d. linear time-base pulse-echo techniques. 2.10.2.5 Bolting
72
CHAPTER 4 General Applications of Various NDT Methods
73
Basic l section 11
9. How many bundles are there in a fiber optic 15. What is pillowing on aircraft lap joints, typically on
borescope and what are they called? aircraft skins, usually attributed to?
a. Forging bursts at the center of the billet. 17. Which of the following is an example of an
b. Laminations at end preparations of plate for organization that publishes standards for test
welding. techniques?
c. Edge breaks in temper-rolled sheets of steel.
d. Segregation between pours. a. ASNT.
b. API.
12. What type of cracking occurs at the last termination c. OSHA.
point of a weld by shielded metal arc welding? d. ASTM.
a. Crater crack. 18. How can the heat-affected zone (HAZ) of carbon
b. Hot tearing. steel welds be made visible?
c. Cold cracking.
d. Hot cracking. a. Etchants to enhance the visibility of the
microstructure.
13. Which type of nuclear reactor vessel may have all its b. High-frequency ultrasonic microscopic means.
internal components removed from the vessel to c. Color-contrast penetrating liquids.
allow visual inspection? d. Arrays of temperature-sensitive markings.
a. Boiling water reactor (BWR). 19. Pixels used in digital photographs or images is a term
b. Pressurized water reactor (PWR). that comes from what combination of words?
c. Light water reactor (LWR).
d. Heavy water reactor (HWR). a. Photography, inserts, and electric laser.
b. Pie, excel, and light.
14. What might be required after visual inspection of c. Positional “x” elements.
steel fasteners in wrought aluminum plate in a lap d. Picture elements.
joint of an aircraft with evidence of exfoliation?
74
CHAPTER 4 General Applications of Various NDT Methods
Topical Outline
techniques?
a. Laps.
2.11 Magnetic Flux Leakage Testing b. Pitting with cracking.
2.11.1 Fundamentals c. Surface contamination.
2.11.1.1 Magnetic field principles d. Longitudinal seams.
2.11.1.2 Magnetization by means of electric current
2.11.1.3 Flux leakage 4. The strength of the magnetic field in the interior of a
2.11.2 Flux leakage inspection coil is determined by the:
2.11.2.1 Basic types of equipment and inspection
materials a. number of turns in the coil only.
2.11.2.2 Types of discontinuities found by magnetic b. strength of applied current only.
flux leakage inspection c. number of turns in the coil and the strength of
2.11.2.3 Sensors used in magnetic flux leakage the applied current.
inspection d. direction of applied current in the coil.
2.11.3 Applications
2.11.3.1 Wire rope inspection 5. The current used for magnetization when performing
2.11.3.2 Pipe body inspection magnetic flux leakage inspection must be a:
2.11.3.3 Tank floor/steel plate inspection
a. steady nonfluctuating current.
References b. current that reverses direction at a consistent
Moore, D.G., technical ed.; P.O. Moore, ed. Nondestructive Testing rate.
Handbook, third edition: Volume 8, Magnetic Testing. Columbus, OH: c. current that fluctuates on and off at a consistent
The American Society for Nondestructive Testing. 2008. rate.
Udpa, S.S., technical ed.; P.O. Moore, ed. Nondestructive Testing d. current that varies based on the thickness of the
Handbook, third edition: Volume 5, Electromagnetic Testing. material.
Columbus, OH: The American Society for Nondestructive Testing.
2004.
6. As a general rule, hard (high-strength) ferromagnetic
75
Basic l section 11
8. In the examination of above-ground storage tanks 10. A break in the magnetic uniformity of a part that is
where the flux sensor is on the top surface: called a magnetic discontinuity is related to a sudden
change in:
a. only top surface discontinuities are detected.
b. only bottom surface discontinuities are detected. a. resistivity.
c. both top and bottom surface discontinuities can b. inductance.
be detected and can generally be distinguished c. permeability.
from each other. d. capacitance.
d. both top and bottom surface discontinuities can
be detected but generally cannot be distinguished 11. A hysteresis curve describes the relation between:
from each other.
a. magnetizing force and flux density.
9. Materials that are weakly repelled magnetically are b. magnetizing force and applied current.
called: c. strength of magnetism and alignment of domains
within material.
a. diamagnetic. d. magnetic flux density and the current generated.
b. nonmagnetic.
c. paramagnetic. 12. When inspecting wire rope, a magnetic flux loop is
d. ferromagnetic. used to monitor:
76
CHAPTER 4 General Applications of Various NDT Methods
Electromagnetic Testing
1c 2a 3b 4c 5a 6c 7d 8c 9c 10d 11d 12b 13c 14b
15a 16b 17c 18b 19a 20d 21d 22b 23a 24a 25b 26d 27a
Leak Testing
1d 2a 3d 4c 5b 6c 7a 8c 9b 10a
Radiographic Testing
1a 2d 3b 4b 5d 6c 7a 8d 9c 10d 11c 12a 13c 14b
15d 16d 17c 18b 19a 20c 21a 22b 23c 24d 25b 26a 27c
Thermal/Infrared Testing
1b 2a 3c 4b 5d 6a 7c 8d 9b 10a 11b 12c 13d 14a
15c 16d 17a 18b 19d 20a 21c
Ultrasonic Testing
1d 2a 3d 4c 5b 6d 7a 8b 9a 10b 11c 12c 13a 14b
15d 16c 17a 18b 19c 20d 21a 22c 23d 24b 25b 26c 27d 28a
29d 30b 31c 32a
Visual Testing
1b 2d 3a 4c 5c 6b 7c 8b 9b 10d 11c 12a 13b 14d
15c 16a 17d 18a 19d
77
section iii
MATERIALS, FABRICATION,
AND PRODUCT TECHNOLOGY
CHAPTER 5
Materials and Processes for NDT Technology
81
Basic l section 1I1
82
CHAPTER 5 Materials and Processes for NDT Technology
Review Questions
Chapter 1: “Manufacturing and Materials” 5. Design engineers are responsible for establishing the
function, appearance, quality, and cost of a product.
1. Most solid metals and plastics that have reasonable Regarding the role of NDT in product design, which
strength at room temperature are called: of the following is true?
83
Basic l section 1I1
3. Which of the following materials cannot typically be 9. Attacks on metals by direct chemical action and/or
used in the as-cast state? electrolysis are called:
a. Aluminum. a. corrosion.
b. Pure iron. b. rust.
c. Zinc. c. austenitic transformations.
d. Magnesium. d. galvanization.
[2.5.4] [2.7.3]
4. Processes called austenitizing, annealing, and 10. Which of the following does not help prevent
normalizing are: corrosion?
6. The term precipitation hardening is often used 12. When used as an in-process treatment,
interchangeably with the term: recrystallization can:
a. Processing properties.
b. Mechanical properties.
c. Physical properties.
d. Electrochemical properties.
[2.7.2]
84
CHAPTER 5 Materials and Processes for NDT Technology
2. Which of the following statements is true regarding 5. Tensile tests are conducted on specimens from a
the electrical conductivity of aluminum alloys? newly developed alloy in order to determine the
ultimate tensile strength of the material. Such tests
a. Most aluminum alloys are in the range of 70% to are referred to as:
96% IACS.
b. Clad aluminum takes on the conductivity of the a. indirect tests.
base metal. b. physical properties tests.
c. Each basic wrought aluminum alloy has a c. destructive tests.
conductivity distinct from any other. d. acoustic emission tests.
d. The conductivity of an aluminum alloy is lower [3.3.2]
than that of pure aluminum.
[3.2.3] 6. In Figure 2, which of the following ranges indicates
the effect of work hardening (to its maximum)
3. Which of the following may lead to permanent caused by plastic flow of the material during a tensile
deformation? load?
Figure 2
4. In Figure 1, point B is called the:
Figure 1
Rise
Run
900
C
800
A
700 Strain
D
Stress (MPa)
600
500 7. In Figure 2, the points represented by E and F would
B E
400 be closer together if the material being tested were:
300
A
200 a. less ductile.
100 b. loaded in tension.
0 c. loaded in lapshear.
0 0.02 0.04 0.06 0.08 0.1 0.12
d. more ductile.
Strain (mm)
[3.3.3]
Figure 2 [USE M&P FIG. 3.3(a) AS MODI
AS MODIFIED – SEE ATTACHED]
8. The modulus of elasticity, or Young’s modulus, is the
quotient of strength divided by strain up to the:
a. yield strength.
b. tensile strength.
c. compressive strength.
d. resistance to stress.
[3.3.3]
85
Basic l section 1I1
50 [4.1.3]
40
30
20
10 4 10 5 10 6 10 7 10 8 10 9 10 10
Cycles
86
CHAPTER 5 Materials and Processes for NDT Technology
5. Typically, the highest quality of steel is produced in: 10. Which of the following is true relative to the
comparison of the properties of aluminum-based
a. an electric furnace. alloys and iron-based alloys?
b. an open-hearth furnace.
c. a bessemer furnace. a. Iron has a lower melting point than aluminum.
d. a basic oxygen furnace. b. Iron can exist in several different crystalline
[4.1.3] structures, and its properties can be controlled by
heat treatment.
6. By which of the following processes is most of the c. Iron can be alloyed to increase its strength,
world’s steel produced? whereas aluminum is strongest in its pure state.
d. Iron is preferred in load-carrying designs, but it
a. Bessemer converter. should not be used for any deformation type of
b. Electric furnace. manufacturing process.
c. Open hearth. [4.1.8]
d. Basic oxygen furnace.
[4.1.3] 11. Corrosion-resistant steels having relatively high
percentages of nickel and chromium are called:
7. What percentage of carbon is found in steel?
a. wrought iron.
a. Between 3% and 4%. b. low-alloy steels.
b. Between 2% and 3%. c. stainless steels.
c. Less than 0.2%. d. nonferrous steels.
d. Less than 2%. [4.1.8]
[4.1.6]
12. Austenitic stainless steels are paramagnetic; this
8. A steel with 40 points of carbon contains: means that:
87
Basic l section 1I1
14. Which of the following nonferrous metals is the most 19. Which of the following metal alloys has a density
important structural material? approximately two-thirds that of aluminum?
15. Many metals exhibit an increase in strength caused 20. A high-strength, low-density, corrosion-resistant
by plastic flow beyond the elastic limit. This effect is metal alloy of significance in the aircraft, marine, and
called: chemical processing industries is:
a. twinning. a. tungsten.
b. plastic deformation. b. zinc.
c. work hardening. c. titanium.
d. age hardening. d. magnesium.
[4.2.2] [4.8]
a. is not possible with aluminum alloys because they 1. Which of the following statements is true concerning
contain no carbon and cannot undergo allotropic plastics following their initial polymerization?
changes.
b. can produce tensile strengths equivalent to some a. Thermoplastics harden when reheated.
carbon steels. b. Thermosetting plastics do not soften, but char
c. requires the use of special furnaces and is rarely and deteriorate when reheated.
done as a practical application. c. All plastics are synthetic and contain no natural
d. requires that iron and carbon be alloyed for the materials.
best results. d. Plastics have a complex molecular structure,
[4.2.4] making it expensive to bind with other materials.
[5.1.1.2]
17. Brass and bronze are alloys of zinc, tin, and a large
percentage of: 2. Based on the strength-to-weight ratio:
88
CHAPTER 5 Materials and Processes for NDT Technology
3. Which of the following statements is true regarding 6. Which of the following statements is true concerning
plastics processing? composite materials?
a. Unlike metals, plastics must be processed without a. Composite materials are engineered from one or
the addition of heat. more reinforcing agents and a matrix to increase
b. All plastic molding processes use liquid-state strength and reduce weight.
materials introduced into the mold cavity. b. When composite materials are cured, the
c. Injection molding can be done only with constituents lose their original identity and form
thermosetting materials. chemical compounds with one another.
d. Both thermoplastics and thermosetting plastics c. A unique feature of composite materials is that
may be processed by molding, casting, and their tensile strength frequently exceeds the
extrusion. strength of the strongest constituent.
[5.1.3] d. Composites are usually formed into complex
three-dimensional shapes with each dimension
4. Reinforced plastic molding involves use of: approximately equal to the other two.
[5.3]
a. thermosetting plastics and fibrous reinforcement
materials. 7. Which of the following materials is typically
b. thermosetting plastics and metallic powder considered when the application requires high
reinforcement. compressive strength?
c. thermoplastics and wood fiber reinforcement
materials. a. Glass fibers.
d. thermoplastics and metallic powder b. Aramid fibers.
reinforcement. c. Carbon fibers.
[5.1.3.5] d. Ceramic fibers.
[5.3.3.2]
5. The major difference between materials classified as
composites and those classified as mixtures is that: 8. Which of the following statements is true concerning
honeycomb?
a. composites contain metallic constituents and
mixtures are nonmetallic. a. The function of a honeycomb core is to lighten,
b. mixtures start as liquids blended together and stiffen, and strengthen by utilizing the sandwich
composites start as solids. principle.
c. mixtures are elastomeric, whereas composites are b. In honeycomb, the walls of the cellular core
characterized as having at least one plastic material are aligned parallel with the plane of the
component. face sheets.
d. mixtures are a type of composite with random c. Honeycomb containing nonmetallic elements can
orientation and shape of the constituents. be bonded by adhesives, brazing, or diffusion
[5.2.1] welding.
d. Honeycomb combining metallic and nonmetallic
elements cannot be used in cryogenic service due
to the permeability of the nonmetallic elements.
[5.3.5]
89
Basic l section 1I1
10. Which of the following tests uses a pendulum to 4. Which of the following may cause a discontinuity
break a specimen that is notched and supported on even though its intended purpose is to prevent
both ends, with the result of measuring energy shrinkage cavities by absorbing heat from the molten
absorption? metal in the center of the casting?
1. The design of the casting is important because the a. only after the transformation from liquid to solid.
quality of the finished product can be adversely b. only during the transformation from liquid to
affected by all of the following except: solid.
c. before, during, and after the transformation from
a. lack of molten metal to compensate for liquid to solid.
contraction. d. only when the metal is in the liquid state.
b. location of the gate with reference to either [6.1.2.2]
progressive solidification or directional
solidification. 6. Large voids or porosity in a casting result from:
c. the location of hot spots in areas of the casting
that are isolated by thin sections. a. turbulent flow of the molten metal during
d. temperature of the mold immediately prior to pouring.
casting. b. alloy element segregation.
[6.1.1.1] c. molten metal boiling because of superheat.
d. gas evolution before and during solidification.
2. The part of the casting where the gate or riser [6.1.2.2]
attaches:
7. During the solidification of a casting, the shrinkage
a. is the area used to establish reference standards that occurs:
for cast materials.
b. provides the best quality material because of a. may cause cavities that are enlarged by the
rapid cooling in this area. evolution of gases.
c. may provide a concentration point for b. may cause porosity and shrinkage cavities
discontinuities. primarily in the outer surfaces where the metal
d. is designed to create nonuniform section cools first.
thicknesses. c. requires that the pattern used be slightly smaller
[6.1.1.3] than the desired dimension of the finished
casting.
3. Risers, feeders, or feed heads in castings serve to d. may be eliminated by investment casting.
provide sources of molten metal to compensate for: [6.1.2.2]
90
CHAPTER 5 Materials and Processes for NDT Technology
9. Green sand casting molds include: 14. Another term for precision casting and the lost-wax
process is:
a. sand, clay, and water.
b. sand, wax, and solvent. a. investment casting.
c. sand, refractory metals, and water. b. die casting.
d. sand, carbon, and green clay. c. metal mold casting.
[6.2.2.2] d. shell mold casting.
[6.2.4]
10. Which of the following NDT methods can be
commonly used to inspect castings for core shift and 15. Permanent molds are most frequently made of:
unfused chaplets and to determine that all core
materials have been removed? a. ceramics.
b. fused sand and plastic.
a. Ultrasonic testing. c. metal.
b. Magnetic particle testing. d. plaster.
c. Radiographic testing. [6.2.6]
d. Electromagnetic testing.
[6.2.2.6] 16. A casting process used to produce hollow products
like large pipes and hollow shafts is:
11. Mold material in the form of inserts that exclude
metal flow and thus form internal surfaces or a. investment casting.
passages in a casting are called: b. blow casting.
c. core casting.
a. chills. d. centrifugal casting.
b. chaplets. [6.2.7]
c. cores.
d. patterns. 17. Which of the following metals has low strength and
[6.2.2.6] high corrosion resistance, and is used largely in
die-casting operations?
12. Small metal supports used to support and position
cores become part of a casting by fusing with the a. Zinc.
molten metal. Such devices are called: b. Aluminum.
c. Magnesium.
a. core hangers. d. Manganese.
b. chills. [6.2.8]
c. risers.
d. chaplets. 18. Which of the following is true regarding
[6.2.2.6] solidification of molten metal in a casting mold?
13. Casting molds made by covering a heated metal a. The metal cools at a constant rate, thus providing
pattern with sand that is mixed with particles of fine equiaxed grains throughout.
thermosetting plastic are called: b. Cooling takes place in phases having different
rates that produce different types of grain
a. green sand molds. structure in different sections of the casting.
b. shell molds. c. Solidification occurs at a constant rate, beginning
c. die casting molds. at the interior of the casting and progressing
d. permanent molds. outward.
[6.2.2.10] d. Thick sections tend to cool more rapidly than
thin sections because thin sections consist mostly
of fine equiaxed grains.
[6.3.2]
91
Basic l section 1I1
19. The term used to describe a discontinuity in a casting 5. Which of the following product forms is generally
that occurs when molten metal interfaces with selected for high strength and controlled property
already solidified metal with failure to fuse at the directionality?
interface is:
a. Castings.
a. hot tear. b. Forgings.
b. cold shut. c. Extrusions.
c. lack of fusion. d. Hot-rolled flat stock.
d. segregation. [7.2.1]
[6.4.3]
1. Deformation of metals provides a number of a. ensure that further operations are not performed
advantages. Which of the following is not an on material that contains discontinuities that
advantage? could cause rejection of the manufactured part.
b. determine that discontinuities do not exist in the
a. Deformation processes increase the probability of material that could damage the rolling mills and
discontinuity formation. other equipment.
b. High duplication accuracy results from most c. determine the ductility of the material after the
deformation processes. rolling operation is complete.
c. In general, the properties of wrought metals are d. accurately determine the compressive strength of
improved over their cast counterparts. the material after it passes through the rolling
d. Thin sections can be more economically and mill.
more successfully produced than by casting. [7.2.1.1]
[7.2]
7. An NDT method best suited to locating
2. Which of the following would have the least discontinuities caused by inclusions rolled into steel
ductility? plate is:
a. high susceptibility to corrosion. a. the shapes that the ingot is rolled into prior to a
b. lower strength than their cast counterparts. variety of secondary operations.
c. directional properties. b. the three consecutive stages that the metal goes
d. poor weldability. through during the production of products such
[7.2.1] as angle iron and channel iron.
c. types of discontinuities that occur during the hot
4. The millworking process used most to form metals rolling of steel.
into three-dimensional shapes is: d. the three different shapes produced during
typical cold-rolling operations.
a. casting. [7.2.2.1]
b. cold rolling.
c. welding.
d. forging.
[7.2.1]
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CHAPTER 5 Materials and Processes for NDT Technology
9. Before cold-finishing operations can be done on 13. Which of the following statements is true concerning
hot-rolled materials, cleaning is often done by deformation processes?
immersing the hot-rolled material in acid baths in a
process called: a. Hot working usually follows cold working.
b. Hot working must be followed by heat treatment.
a. degreasing. c. Cold working usually follows hot working.
b. descaling. d. Cold working renders brittle material more ductile.
c. pickling. [7.2.2.2]
d. anodizing.
[7.2.2.1] 14. Machinability and fatigue resistance are improved in
most metals that have been:
10. During the steelmaking process, a large number of
discontinuities such as slag, porosity, and shrinkage a. hot worked.
cavities exist in the top of the ingot. These b. cold worked.
discontinuities are: c. heat treated.
d. cast.
a. mostly eliminated in subsequent hot working due [7.2.2.2]
to the pressure that “welds” the void shut.
b. located with NDT at later stages of production. 15. The millworking process performed principally on
c. almost nonexistent with modern steelmaking flat products and bars that improves hardness,
processes. strength, surface finish, and dimensional accuracy is:
d. removed by cropping up to one-third off the top
of the ingot. a. cold rolling.
[7.2.2.1] b. hot rolling.
c. forging.
11. Discontinuities with their origin in the original ingot d. sintering.
can be reduced in severity by the closing and welding [7.2.2.2]
of voids and the breaking up and elongation of
inclusions by which of the following processes? 16. Most seamless tubing made without welds is
processed by:
a. Cold working.
b. Hot rolling. a. casting.
c. Heat treatment. b. piercing.
d. Welding. c. cold rolling.
[7.2.2.1] d. brazing.
[7.2.2.2]
12. Cold rolling sheet steel usually begins with a material
that: 17. With flat products such as cold-rolled strip and
sheet, ultrasonic and radiation gages may be used to
a. has been completely inspected with an automated provide an accurate measurement of:
radiographic system.
b. has been previously hot rolled to dimensions a. strain rate.
close to the size of the finished product. b. surface roughness.
c. has less ductility and greater hardness than c. thermal properties.
typical hot-rolled steel. d. thickness.
d. will have a lower yield and tensile strength after [7.2.2.2]
cold working.
[7.2.2.2] 18. Most steel pipe is produced by forming and:
a. drawing.
b. welding.
c. extrusion.
d. pressing.
[7.2.2.3]
93
Basic l section 1I1
19. A process that requires the use of large, powerful 24. Most new developments in sheet-metal forming
equipment that forms ductile material into a wide typically use nonconventional energy sources. What
variety of long-length, uniform, cross-sectional is a common feature of these processes?
shapes best describes:
a. The use of lasers for controlled heat input.
a. forging. b. The use of cryogenics to super-cool the metal
b. powder metallurgy. prior to forming.
c. extrusion. c. The use of energy sources that release large
d. die casting. amounts of energy in a very short time.
[7.2.3] d. The use of large autoclaves that contain both the
tooling and the metal being formed.
20. Among other factors, the advantageous effects of [7.3.4]
recrystallization depend upon the:
25. Which of the following is not an application for
a. rate of heating. powdered metal products?
b. temperature at which deformation takes place.
c. presence of carbon in excess of 25% for steels. a. Chemical catalysts.
d. presence of silicon in excess of 0.1% for steels. b. Filtering elements.
[7.2.4] c. Bearings.
d. Electric motor housings.
21. In drawing and deep drawing, the final shape often [7.4]
can be completed in a series of draws, each
successively deeper. What process performed 26. Powder metallurgy provides two unique advantages
between draws might effectively reduce the number in metals processing. One is the capability to produce
of draws required? shapes and objects of refractory metals that are
extremely difficult or impractical to melt; the other is
a. Recrystallization. to:
b. Pickling.
c. Etching. a. economically produce metals with extremely low
d. Hardening heat treatment. melting temperatures.
[7.2.4] b. produce metal shapes with controlled porosity.
c. produce metals that can be easily machined by
22. Spinning can be used to form: electrochemical processes.
d. produce metals that are corrosion resistant.
a. spherical deep-drawn shapes. [7.4.1]
b. cemented carbide cutting tools.
c. rectangular sheet metal tanks. 27. A major purpose of pressing the metal powders
d. solid spheres. during powder metallurgy processing is to:
[7.2.4]
a. squeeze out excess moisture.
23. Which of the following terms does not describe b. further refine the grains.
operations that bend, stretch, and shape sheet metal c. compact the powders into mechanical and atomic
into three-dimensional shapes with significant plastic closeness.
flow and deformation? d. decrease the contact area.
[7.4.2]
a. Bending.
b. Forming. 28. Powdered metallurgy products cannot:
c. Drawing.
d. Shearing. a. be hot worked after sintering.
[7.3.2] b. be heat treated after sintering.
c. be machined after sintering.
d. attain 100% of theoretical density.
[7.4.2]
94
CHAPTER 5 Materials and Processes for NDT Technology
29. In the powder metallurgy process, sintering is: 5. Pressure welding can be accomplished with pressure
alone, but what else is usually added?
a. in most cases a fully solid-state process.
b. never a fully solid-state process. a. Heat.
c. principally done at room temperature. b. Filler material.
d. always done at elevated temperature and high c. Oxides.
pressure. d. Adhesives.
[7.4.3] [8.1.2.2]
Chapter 8: “Joining and Fastening” 6. In pressure bonding, heat has the effect of:
95
Basic l section 1I1
Figure 5
c. clamping the weldment in a rigid fixture.
d. overdesigning the size of the weldment to prevent
Arrow side
shrinkage.
of joint [8.2.2]
Figure 7
Vee groove
a. A.
b. B. A B
c. C.
d. D.
[8.2.1.1]
Figure 7 [USE FIG. 6 FROM CURRENT
C D
96
CHAPTER 5 Materials and Processes for NDT Technology
16. In welding, the most obvious discontinuities are 20. The burn-off rate and amount of spattering during
those associated with structural anomalies in the the arc welding process can often be controlled by:
weld itself. Conditions not considered welding
process discontinuities are: a. proper post-heating of the entire weldment.
b. frequent changing of the tungsten electrode.
a. improper weld dimensions and profiles. c. maintaining the longest arc length possible to
b. base metal irregularities that have been enlarged reduce the heat in the weld zone.
by welding stresses and distortion. d. selecting the proper electrode polarity.
c. corrosion of the structural members. [8.2.5.1]
d. structurally sound welds, but those with
inadequate properties caused by errors in filler 21. Due to high temperatures and rapid rate of cooling,
metal selection. the filler material used in fusion welds:
[8.2.2]
a. is coated with an oxide to help reduce weld
17. Thermal conductivity of a metal is an important discontinuities.
factor to consider in making quality weldments b. contains alloys that will help compensate for
because: properties lost during the welding process.
c. is alloyed with nickel, copper, and carbon to
a. some metals, such as aluminum, have a low eliminate cracking.
conductivity, which results in weld d. should be as close as possible to the same alloy
discontinuities due to localized heat buildup. content as the base material.
b. some metals, such as stainless steel, have a high [8.2.6]
conductivity, which results in lack of fusion
discontinuities as the heat is quickly removed 22. When molten metal is transferred from the electrode
from the weld zone. to the weld zone, it can be shielded from the
c. in some metals, such as aluminum, very high atmosphere by all of the following except:
temperature gradients are produced, causing
stresses during cooling. a. the burning of coatings on the welding electrode.
d. some metals, such as stainless steel, have low b. maintaining the arc beneath flux powders.
conductivity, which results in weld c. the flow of a shielding gas around the arc.
discontinuities caused by localized overheating. d. switching to a 2% ceriated tungsten electrode
[8.2.2] when performing the GTAW process.
[8.2.6]
18. In arc welding, the electric arc is usually sustained
between an electrode and the: 23. Which of the following welding processes uses a
nonconsumable electrode with the arc maintained in
a. welding machine. an atmosphere of inert gas?
b. workpiece.
c. coating on the electrode. a. Gas tungsten arc welding.
d. shielding gas. b. Submerged arc welding.
[8.2.5] c. Gas metal arc welding.
d. Electroslag welding.
19. Which of the following gases are most frequently [8.2.6]
used as shielding to provide an inert atmosphere in
the vicinity of the weld? 24. Shielding in the submerged arc welding process is
provided by:
a. Argon, helium, and carbon dioxide.
b. Neon, tritium, and helium. a. gases.
c. Sulphur dioxide, argon, and oxygen. b. a flux-coated welding rod.
d. Argon, nitrogen, and hydrogen. c. granular flux that completely surrounds the arc.
[8.2.5; 8.2.5.4] d. chopped glass fibers.
[8.2.6]
97
Basic l section 1I1
25. A welding process that is most frequently carried out 29. If the vee-groove weld shown in Figure 9 was made
in a vacuum chamber is: in multiple passes and not clamped or restrained,
typical warping would take place in which direction?
a. plasma arc welding.
b. electron-beam welding. a. Edges A and B would be raised due to the
c. electroslag welding. contraction of the weld metal.
d. friction welding. b. Edges A and B would be lowered due to the
[8.2.7] expansion of the weld metal in the weld zone.
c. In a multipass weld, there would be little if any
26. The welding process capable of very high intensity warpage.
and rate of heat transfer is: d. Expansion and contraction would be equal in a
vee-groove weld as shown.
a. braze welding. [8.3.2]
b. diffusion welding.
Figure 9 [USE FIG. 8 FROM CURRENT
c. soldering.
Figure 9
d. plasma arc welding.
[8.2.9]
28. Which welding process is depicted in Figure 8? 30. Cracks in the weld metal are primarily of which three
types?
a. Electron-beam welding.
b. Plasma arc welding. a. Shallow, deep, and intermittent.
c. Resistance spot welding. b. Longitudinal, transverse, and crater.
d. Friction welding. c. Laminar, through, and oblique.
[8.2.15] d. Longitudinal, laminar, and intermittent.
Figure 8 [USE M&P FIG. 8.30 – SEE [8.3.3]
Figure 8
31. A slag inclusion can result from which of the
following?
Water
a. Small pieces of tungsten being dislodged from the
Electrode
electrode in the gas tungsten arc process.
b. Excessive overlap on intermediate passes in a
multipass weldment.
Weld nugget c. Insufficient cleaning of successive passes in a
multipass weldment.
Transformer d. Contaminants in the welding flux.
[8.3.3]
ATTACHED]
98
CHAPTER 5 Materials and Processes for NDT Technology
32. Undercut on a weld pass is usually caused by: 36. When steel has been quench hardened and then
reheated to some point below the lower
a. poor operator technique. transformation temperature for the purpose of
b. a rate of travel that is too slow, which causes the reducing brittleness, this is called:
base metal to become too hot.
c. the use of an electrode that is too large for the a. austenitization.
current capacity of the welding machine. b. thermal slip deformation.
d. welding in the vertical position. c. allotropic change.
[8.3.3] d. tempering.
[8.3.4.2]
a. oxyacetylene cutting.
b. friction cutting.
c. ultrasonic cutting.
d. plasma arc cutting.
[9.2.2.1]
99
Basic l section 1I1
4. The process used for shaping metals by chemical 7. The process illustrated in Figure 11 is called:
dissolution only, with selective removal
accomplished by masking areas where metal is not to a. ultrasonic machining.
be removed, is called: b. electrical discharge machining.
c. electrochemical machining.
a. electrical discharge machining. d. abrasive drilling.
b. chemical milling. [9.4.5]
c. electrochemical machining.
Figure 11 [USE M&P FIG. 9.24 – SEE
ATTACHED]
d. electroforming.
[9.4.2]
Figure 11
5. The acronym EDM refers to:
100
CHAPTER 5 Materials and Processes for NDT Technology
Chapter 10: “Surface Treatments and Coatings” 6. A process that is the reverse of electrochemical
machining and that involves the deposition of metals
1. Which of the following statements is not true on other metals or nonmetals is called:
concerning surface finishing?
a. chemical milling.
a. Cleaning operations are considered to be b. electrical discharge machining.
surface-finishing processes. c. electroplating.
b. Surface finishing is often performed for corrosion d. magnetoforming.
protection. [10.4.2]
c. Surface finishing is always followed by further
processes. 7. Metals commonly applied to other metals by
d. Surface finishing is sometimes performed to electroplating are:
improve surface and near-surface mechanical
properties. a. nickel, chromium, and cadmium.
[10.1] b. tin, zinc, and tungsten.
c. silver, gold, and carbon.
2. Carburizing and flame hardening are examples of: d. copper, aluminum, and magnesium.
[10.4.2]
a. annealing processes.
b. case-hardening processes. 8. All of the following statements concerning
c. processes that produce ductile surfaces. electrostatic spraying are true except:
d. electrochemical processes.
[10.2] a. the material being sprayed is directly attracted to
all of the surfaces to be covered.
3. Which of the following nondestructive tests would b. there is less waste due to oversprayed material.
provide the best results in measuring the case depth c. there is more uniform coverage of the surfaces.
on a case-hardened part? d. the parts being sprayed require a high current to
attract the spray media.
a. Ultrasonic immersion testing using a very [10.4.4]
low-frequency probe.
b. Radiographic testing. 9. Some materials, such as aluminum, are corrosion
c. Electromagnetic testing. resistant:
d. Magnetic particle testing.
[10.2.1] a. by virtue of the immediate oxidation of newly
exposed surfaces.
4. The best and most economical cleaners used for b. only if anodized.
removal of oils and greases are: c. because the material itself will not readily
combine with oxygen.
a. pickling baths. d. against all types of corrosive atmospheres.
b. deionized water sprays. [10.4.5]
c. wire brushes and cloth buffers.
d. petroleum solvents. 10. A process that converts the base metal surface to an
[10.3.2] oxidized barrier layer of very small porous cells is
called:
5. Coatings are often applied to protect a material; their
thicknesses can frequently be determined a. galvanizing.
nondestructively by: b. anodizing.
c. plating.
a. acoustic emission testing. d. metallizing.
b. electromagnetic testing. [10.4.5]
c. surface-wave ultrasonic techniques.
d. optical holography.
[10.4.2]
101
Basic l section 1I1
11. The anodized surface on aluminum: 3. Which of the following is not a function of NDT?
12. A corrosion protection material commonly applied a. the need to ensure that unexpected
to steel by hot dipping and galvanizing is: discontinuities of some critical size are not
present when the component enters service.
a. porcelain. b. that all discontinuities are detected by NDT or
b. paint. proof testing before the component enters
c. zinc. service.
d. chromic acid. c. in the use of large factors of safety.
[10.4.6.2] d. in the use of a value of strength that the material
used in the design is presumed to possess.
[11.2]
102
CHAPTER 5 Materials and Processes for NDT Technology
7. A fatigue failure can often be prevented by using Chapter 12: “Nondestructive Testing Methods”
NDT to:
1. In visual testing, which of the following
a. verify the cyclic loading on a component. measurement tools uses the principle of light wave
b. detect surface discontinuities that could be stress interference to check surface flatness?
risers.
c. measure the endurance limit of a part undergoing a. Optical comparator.
cyclic stresses. b. Vernier caliper.
d. determine percent elongation of a material before c. Sine bar.
it is placed in service. d. Optical flat.
[11.2] [12.1.2.1]
8. A technique for the inspection of manufactured 2. Devices that show magnified, reflected, or profile
products that utilizes the selection of a certain images of the workpiece on a frosted glass screen are
percentage of parts for inspection is called: called optical:
9. Implied in sampling inspection is: 3. An NDT method that has the ability to measure
changes in electrical conductivity caused by the
a. that the chosen plan will produce precise effects of heat treatment is:
numbers of acceptable parts.
b. the need for a sample size of 100 units or a. magnetic particle testing.
multiples thereof. b. acoustic emission testing.
c. a willingness to sometimes accept defective c. electromagnetic testing.
products. d. immersion ultrasonic testing.
d. the need to collect data in the form of variables [12.8.1]
10. A vernier line measurement in a vision test permits 1. Process control based on the means and ranges of
verification of: measurements taken on periodic samples requires
the measurements to be taken of:
a. letter recognition.
b. trichromatic vision. a. attributes.
c. code interpretation. b. variables or parameters.
d. hyperacuity. c. either attributes or variables.
[11.3.2] d. neither attributes nor variables.
[13.1]
11. Factors of safety are often in the range of 2 to 4.
These factors: 2. Monitoring temperature for industrial process
control is an example of:
a. are provided for engineering mistakes.
b. are added as a corrosion allowance. a. parameter-based measurement.
c. could be reduced with the assurance of NDT b. geometric dimensioning and tolerancing.
techniques that the material was free of c. the direct comparison technique.
discontinuities. d. lateral measurement.
d. provide allowances for poor welding techniques. [13.1]
[11.3.3]
103
Basic l section 1I1
3. Metal corrosion that is accelerated when the metal is 2. On the probability of detection (PoD) curve shown
under load is called: in Figure 12:
POD
c. on the average, 90% of all discontinuities will be
detected.
0.4
d. on the average, 95 out of 100 discontinuities will
be detected 90% of the time.
0.2
[14.2]
0.0
0.002 0.005 0.020 0.050 ANDE 0.200
Length (in.)
LIII SG – p. 104]
104
CHAPTER 5 Materials and Processes for NDT Technology
Chapter 6: “Casting”
1d 2c 3d 4b 5c 6d 7a 8b 9a 10c 11c 12d 13b
14a 15c 16d 17a 18b 19b
14b 15a 16b 17d 18b 19c 20b 21a 22a 23d 24c 25d 26b
14d 15b 16c 17d 18b 19a 20d 21b 22d 23a 24c 25b 26d
27b 28c 29a 30b 31c 32a 33b 34a 35c 36d
105
Basic l section 1I1
106
CHAPTER 5 Materials and Processes for NDT Technology
appendixes
Appendix A
Code of Ethics for Level III NDT Personnel
Certified by ASNT
The “Code of Ethics for Level III NDT Personnel 2.2 The Level III shall make claims regarding certification
Certified by ASNT” is part of the ASNT Level III only with respect to the scope for which certification
Certification Application for the Basic Examination and all has been granted; and
Method examinations, including the PdM Basic and IR 2.3 The Level III shall not use their certification in a
Method examinations. By signing the application, the appli- misleading manner or in such a manner as to bring
cant agrees to abide by the Code of Ethics for as long as he ASNT into disrepute, nor to make any statement
or she is certified. A link to the ASNT Level III Certification regarding the certification which ASNT may consider
Application may be downloaded from the ASNT website at misleading or unauthorized.
asnt.org under the Certification drop-down menu. The text
of the Code of Ethics is reprinted below in full: 3. Responsibility to the Public
The Level III shall:
1. Preamble 3.1 Protect the safety, health, and welfare of the public in
1.1 In order to safeguard the life, health, property, and the performance of professional duties. Should the
welfare of the public, to maintain integrity and high case arise where the Level III faces a situation where
standards of skills and practices in the profession of the safety, health, and welfare of the public are not
nondestructive testing, the following rules of protected, he/she shall:
professional conduct shall be binding upon every 3.1.1 Apprise the proper authority if it is evident
person issued a certificate by ASNT as a Level III. that the safety, health, and welfare of the
1.1.1 The Level III who holds a certificate is charged public are not being protected; and
with having knowledge of the existence of the 3.1.2 Refuse to accept responsibility for the design,
reasonable rules and regulations hereinafter report, or statement involved; and
provided for his/her conduct as ASNT Level III, 3.1.3 If necessary, sever relationship with the
and also shall be familiar with their provisions employer or client; and
and understand them. Such knowledge shall 3.1.4 Undertake to perform assignments only when
encompass the understanding that the qualified by training and experience in the
practice of nondestructive testing under this specific technical fields involved. In the event
certification is a privilege, as opposed to a a question arises as to the competence of a
right, and the Level III shall be forthright and Level III to perform an assignment in a field of
candid in statements or written responses to specific discipline which cannot be otherwise
the Ethics Committee of the Certification resolved to the Ethics Committee’s
Management Board. satisfaction, the Ethics Committee, either upon
1.1.2 The “Level III” as referred to herein is that request of the Level III, or by its own volition,
individual who has been issued a certificate by may require him/her to submit to an
the American Society for Nondestructive appropriate inquiry by or on behalf of the
Testing, Inc., pursuant to its heretofore Ethics Committee; and
published requirements, rules, and procedures 3.1.5 Be completely objective in any professional
for such certification. This Code of Ethics is report, statement, or testimony, avoiding any
binding upon all individuals so certified. omission which would, or reasonably could,
lead to fallacious inference, finding, or
2. Integrity misrepresentation; and
2.1 The Level III is obligated to act with complete 3.1.6 Express an opinion as a technical witness
integrity in professional matters for each client or before any court, commission, or other
employer as a faithful agent or trustee; shall be tribunal, only when such opinion is founded
honest and impartial; and shall serve the public, upon adequate knowledge of the facts in
clients, and employer with devotion; issue, upon a background of technical
109
Basic l appendixes
110
Appendix B
CP-ASNT-1B: ASNT NDT Level III Program
CP-ASNT-1B is a document that outlines and describes PdM personnel qualification and certification, and the
the ASNT NDT Level III Program. It is reprinted in full basic principles of PdM methods.
from the ASNT website below. 2.7 Examination, Method: A Level III written examination
on the principles, theory, techniques, and applications
1. Scope within an NDT/PdM method.
1.1 It is recognized that the effectiveness of 2.8 Examination, Specific: An examination on
nondestructive testing (NDT) and predictive specifications, equipment, techniques, and
maintenance (PdM) applications depends upon the procedures applicable to the employer’s product(s)
capabilities of the personnel who are responsible for, and methods.
and perform, NDT or PdM. The ASNT Level III program 2.9 Experience: Work activities accomplished in the
provides third-party certification for NDT or PdM applicable NDT/PdM method under the direction of
personnel whose specific jobs require appropriate qualified supervision, including the performance of
knowledge of the technical principles underlying the the method and related activities but not including
tests they perform, witness, monitor, or evaluate. time spent in organized training programs.
1.2 This document establishes the system for ASNT Level 2.10 Qualification: Demonstration or possession of
III certification in nondestructive testing and education, skills, training, knowledge, and experience
predictive maintenance in accordance with required for personnel to properly perform NDT to a
Recommended Practice No. SNT-TC-1A. Certification level as specified in this document
under this system results in the issuance of an ASNT 2.11 Recertification: The process of extending one’s
certificate attesting to the fact that the certificate certification after the initial period of validity, and
holder has met the published guidelines for the Basic maintaining certification for a specified period
and Method examinations as detailed in thereafter.
Recommended Practice SNT-TC-1A. 2.12 Recommended Practice No. SNT-TC-1A: The NDT
Personnel Qualification and Certification in
2. Definitions Nondestructive Testing document providing the
2.1 ASNT certification: The process whereby ASNT certifies guidelines for the establishment of qualification and
that an individual has met the basic and method certification programs for NDT.
examination guidelines of Recommended Practice No. 2.13 Training: An organized program developed to impart
SNT-TC-1A. the knowledge and skills necessary for qualification.
2.2 ASNT NDT Level III: An individual who, having passed
ASNT administered Basic and Method(s) 3. Certification Outcome
Examinations, holds a current, valid ASNT Level III 3.1 An ASNT Level III certificate holder shall have the skills
certificate in at least one method. and knowledge to establish techniques, to interpret
2.3 Certification: Written testimony of qualification. codes, standards, and specifications, and to prepare
2.4 Employer: The corporate, private, or public entity that or approve procedures and instructions.
employs personnel for wages or salary, and is responsible 3.2 An ASNT NDT Level III shall also have general
for authorizing personnel to perform NDT or PdM. familiarity with other nondestructive testing methods,
2.5 Examination, NDT Basic: A Level III written shall be capable of conducting or directing the
examination of knowledge of materials science and training and examination of testing personnel in the
processes technology, NDT personnel qualification methods for which the ASNT Level III is qualified, and
and certification, and the basic principles of NDT shall have knowledge of materials, fabrication, and
methods. product technology in order to establish techniques
2.6 Examination, PdM Basic: A Level III written and to assist in establishing acceptance criteria when
examination of knowledge of machinery technology, none are otherwise available.
111
Basic l appendixes
3.3 An ASNT PdM Level III shall also have general 5.2.3 Method Examination: This written
familiarity with other predictive maintenance examination consists of a minimum of 90
methods, shall be capable of conducting or directing questions that assess the candidate’s
the training and examination of testing personnel in knowledge and application of fundamentals,
the methods for which the ASNT Level III is qualified, principles, and techniques for that method in
and shall have knowledge of applicable machinery which certification is sought. The Method
technology in order to establish techniques and to Examination may include a portion that
assist in establishing acceptance criteria when none examines the candidate’s ability to
are otherwise available. comprehend a specification and apply its
requirements.
4. Eligibility for Examination 5.3 NDT/PdM or PdM/NDT Conversion
4.1 ASNT has no restrictions relative to the gender, creed, 5.3.1 Personnel with currently valid NDT certificates
race, or nationality of applicants. in Methods for which PdM certification is
4.2 Candidates shall have a combination of education available may attain PdM Certification in those
and experience in accordance with the guidelines in Methods by successfully completing the PdM
Recommended Practice No. SNT-TC-1A. Basic examination.
4.3 When applying for examination(s), the candidate shall 5.3.2 Personnel with currently valid PdM certificates
document the validity of the personal information may attain NDT Certification in those Methods
requested, including education and experience by successfully completing the NDT Basic
needed to establish eligibility. examination.
4.4 The Candidate shall agree to abide by the code of 5.4 Employer Responsibility
ethics for ASNT Level III personnel. 5.4.1 Additional, specific examinations may be
required by employers, customers, or other
5. Qualification Examinations bodies. Examinations for specialized NDT/PdM
5.1 Eligibility. All ASNT Level III Candidates must techniques or unique product forms are the
successfully complete both: responsibility of the employer and are outside
5.1.1 a Basic Examination, regardless of the the scope of this document.
method(s) for which the candidate seeks 5.5 Examination Grading
certification; and The grading of qualification examinations shall be
5.1.2 a Method Examination, which is given at the done by ASNT Technical Services staff in accordance
candidate’s request, in one or more of 11 with nationally accepted psychometric principles.
different NDT methods, or two PdM methods.
5.2 Examination Descriptions 6. Examination Results
5.2.1 NDT Basic Examination: This written 6.1 Candidates that successfully pass all required
examination consists of 135 questions that examinations for ASNT certification, shall be issued
assess the candidate’s knowledge of: certification documents as described in 7. Certification.
5.2.1.1 other NDT methods as required for 6.2 Candidates that do not pass all required examinations
ASNT Level II personnel; for ASNT certification will be sent written notification
5.2.1.2 materials, fabrication, and product of their results and may reapply to retake the failed
technology; and examinations.
5.2.1.3 qualification and certification 6.3 For employers wishing to use ASNT as a third-party
according to the ASNT, SNT-TC-1A, examination source for the purpose of adding
and ANSI/ASNT CP-189, latest edition. Methods for in-house Level III personnel, examination
5.2.2 PdM Basic Examination: This written results will be sent by letter only. No certificate will be
examination consists of 90 questions that issued.
assess the candidate’s knowledge of: 6.4 Notification of results will be sent to each candidate
5.2.2.1 other PdM methods as required for within thirty (30) business days from the date of the
ASNT Level II personnel; examination.
5.2.2.2 applicable machinery technology;
and
5.2.2.3 qualification and certification
according to the ASNT, SNT-TC-1A,
and ANSI/ASNT CP-189, latest edition.
112
APPENDIX B CP-ASNT-1B: ASNT NDT Level III Program
9. Recertification
9.1 Recertification is required at five (5) year intervals in
order to extend certification beyond the initial or
previous period of validity.
9.2 Certified individuals may recertify in one of the
following two ways:
9.2.1 By examination, prior to expiration of
certification in the applicable method. The
Basic examination does not have to be taken
113
Appendix C
Measurement Units for Nondestructive Testing
In 1960, the General Conference on Weights and In the International System of Units, the distinction
Measures established the International System of Units (SI). between upper and lower case letters is meaningful and
SI units are designed so that a single set of measurement should be observed. For example, the meanings of the prefix
units can be used by all branches of science, engineering, m (milli) and the prefix M (mega) differ by nine orders of
and the general public. magnitude.
SI units are the modern version of the metric system For more information, the reader is referred to the
and end the division between metric units used by scientists information available through national standards organiza-
and metric units used by engineers and the public. For tions and specialized information compiled by technical
example, scientists have given up their units based on cen- organizations.
Relation to
retained the ampere, volt, and ohm but changed all units
Quantity Units Symbol Other SI
related to magnetism.
Unitsb
Table 1 lists the seven base SI units. Table 2 lists derived
units with special names. In SI units, the unit of time is the
second (s); the hour (h) is also recognized for common use. Capacitance farad F C·V –1
Traditional or imperial units should not be used in science Catalytic activity katal kat s –1 ·mol
and engineering. Table 3 gives some conversions to SI units. Conductance siemens S A·V –1
In science and engineering, very large or very small Energy joule J N·m
Frequency (periodic) hertz Hz 1·s –1
numbers with units are expressed by using multipliers,
Force newton N kg·m·s –2
prefixes of 103 or 10–3 intervals (Table 4). The multiplier
Amount of substance mole mol a. Hour and liter are not SI units but are accepted for use
with SI.
b. Number one (1) expresses a dimensionless relationship.
Luminous intensity candela cd c. Electromotive force.
115
Table 3. Examples of conversions to SI units.
116
Table 4. SI prefixes and multipliers.
117
Catalog Number: 2251 The American Society for
ISBN: 978-1-57117-388-1 Nondestructive Testing, Inc.