6/20/22, 11:53 PM Meaning of Grace

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on "Grace"
1. Question: " I've always heard preachers
explain that the word `grace` meant
`unmerited favor` of God. Now I hear that
`grace` does not mean `unmerited` at all?"

Answer:

      Unfortunately, ever since the "Tower of

Babel", communication has been a problem
between people (Genesis 11). I Corinthians
14 admonishes us to make certain that our
understanding is conveyed to the listeners
(e.g., I Corinthians 14:15-20). However, in
our zeal, we speakers may not clearly
separate our interpretations, application,
and/or comments from our facts.

      Sometimes, I believe we as listeners are

just as guilty and do not distinguish but melt
opinions into the facts and assume what has
not been said.

   Look at an English dictionary:

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grace (gr³s) n. 1. Seemingly effortless beauty or charm of

movement, form, or proportion. 2. A characteristic or quality
pleasing for its charm or refinement. 3. A sense of fitness or
propriety. 4.a. A disposition to be generous or helpful;
goodwill. b. Mercy; clemency. 5. A favor rendered by one
who need not do so; indulgence. 6. A temporary immunity or
exemption; a reprieve. 7. Graces. Greek & Roman
Mythology. Three sister goddesses, known in Greek
mythology as Aglaia, Euphrosyne, and Thalia, who dispense
charm and beauty. 8. Theology. a. Divine love and
protection bestowed freely on people. b. The state of being
protected or sanctified by the favor of God. c. An
excellence or a power granted by God. 9. A short prayer of
blessing or thanksgiving said before or after a meal. 10.
Grace. Used with His, Her, or Your as a title and form of
address for a duke, a duchess, or an archbishop. 11. Music.
An embellishment such as an appoggiatura or a trill. --grace
tr.v. graced, grac·ing, grac·es. 1. To honor or favor. 2. To
give beauty, elegance, or charm to. 3. Music. To embellish
with grace notes. --idioms. in the bad graces of. Out of favor
with. in the good graces of. In favor with. with bad grace. In a
grudging manner. with good grace. In a willing manner.
[American Heritage Dictionary]

      Now an modern English dictionary is

supposed to depict how the word "grace" is
being used currently by English speaking
people. One quickly notices, however, the
absence of the word "unmerited". It isn't
there in this dictionary unless the authors
meant it by the word "given freely".
I did find the word "unmerited" added in
sections of English dictionaries under the
heading "Christian theology"; e.g.,
Webster's Dictionary college edition gives
as the meaning of grace, in "theology": to
be "God's unmerited love and favor."
Webster's Dictionary and any English
dictionary does not give the inspired
meaning of Words from God through His

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Word, but from man, and his traditions of

professed, false, Christianity. Both Calvinism
and Armenianism base their teachings on
this definition. Christ warns all believers to
beware of the traditions of men, and their
commandments, Matthew 15:9.       But our
question should be, how is it really used in
the Bible in reference to God and man. Here
again we notice the absence of the word
"unmerited".

LEXICOGRAPHERS' TESTIMONY
    Greek dictionaries:

written in Greek.
Note: the New Testament was

Grace charis- acceptable, benefit, favour, gift, grace (-ious),

joy liberality, pleasure, thank (-s, -worthy).(Strong's Greek)

Grace (a) objective: "that which bestows or occasions

pleasure, delight, or causes favorable regard;"

(b)
subjective: "...Divine favor or grace." (Vine's)

    Joseph H. Thayer (an important Greek

lexicographer) made some significant
observations concerning the meaning of
charis: "that which affords joy, pleasure,
delight, sweetness, charm, loveliness...
good-will, loving-kindness, favor". Thayer's
and Strong's Greek dictionaries never uses
"undeserved" or "unmerited" for charis (the
Greek word translated either as
"grace" or "favor").

ETYMOLOGY TESTIMONY

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    "The English roots of charisma are in this

divine sense, entering English in the mid-
1600s via ecclesiastical (of the church) Latin
from (according to the OED) the Greek
kharisma, from kharis, meaning 'grace' or
'favour' - a favour or grace or gift given by
God."
--
http://www.businessballs.com/charisma.htm

    charis [grace, favour] -- World English

Dictionary charis "grace, beauty, kindness,"
--Word Origin & History ---
http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/charisma
Etymology: From Ancient Greek (charisma)
"grace, favour, gift" (charizomai) "I show
favor" from (charis) "grace" from (chairÃ…)
"I am happy" --http://www.allwords.com/word-
charisma.html

BIBLE TRANSLATORS'
TESTIMONY:

      CHARIS is translated not only as grace

or favor but is rendered as "benefit" once in
2 Corinthians 1:15 (KJV). It is translated as
"acceptable" in 1 Peter 2:19,20, "liberality"
in 1 Corinthians 16:3 (KJV), "pleasure" in
Acts 24:27; 25:9, "bounty" in 1 Corinthians
16:3 (RV), and "thank" in several such as
Luke 6:32,33,34; 17:9; Romans 6:17 (RV);
1 Corinthians 15:57; 1 Timothy 1:12; 2
Timothy 1:3; 1 Peter 2:29. Never is it
translated as "unmerited." It takes someone
inclined to add to the Scriptures to falsely do
such a thing.

  The verb CHARITOO ("to endue with Divine

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favor or grace" - Vine's, p. 171) is translated

as "hath made... accepted" (KJV) and "freely
bestowed" (RV).

  The noun CHARISMA ("a gift of grace" -

Vine's p. 147) is translated "gift" in such
passages as Romans 6:23; 1 Corinthians
7:7; 12:4, 9, 28, 30, 31. Our English word
"gift (n.)" according to etymonline.com
basically means from the 13th century "that
which is given."   I have not found a
translation that uses "unmerited" by any
scholars at all.
I have been told that we
have to understand that there are nuances
for Greek words as well as English words. I
humbly ask for the passage that is
translated by any scholar as a nuance of
"unmerited favor". Note: The Amplified Bible
adds as their commentary note [not as a
translation] in parenthesis "unmerited"
(Ephesians 2:8). Commentaries are
generally men's thoughts on a subject.

  I recently was told the argument "But I've

always have been taught..." That
argument doesn't make anything correct. If
you are a preacher and you are preaching
by that reasoning then you ought to be
ashamed of yourself! Shouldn't you be doing
like the Bereans and see if what you have
been taught is correct? People are being
misled by charismatic jargon and innuendos.
Should we be reinforcing the errors?

    MEANING OF "GRACE"

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      What it does NOT mean. It does NOT

mean "mercy". I've heard preachers and
teachers say it meant "mercy." And hence,
"unmerited." It does not mean "love". It
does not mean "wisdom". It does not mean
"sin" nor "righteousness" (exaggerating for
the point). Neither does grace mean
"unmerited favor"!

     It cannot mean "unmerited" in the case

with Jesus. Luke 2 : 52, "And Jesus
increased in wisdom and stature, and in
favor with God and men." Jesus "increased"
IN FAVOR with God and man. The Greek
word translated "IN FAVOR" is charis
(translated "grace" in other places). Did
Jesus not merit the grace of God? Did Jesus
not merit the grace of man? Obviously, the
answer is that Jesus certainly would be one
to merit any favor. Although one may argue
that God's grace is "unmerited" by sinful
men, it would never apply to Jesus. The
word cannot mean "unmerited" in Jesus'
sake.

      It cannot mean "unmerited" in the

case with Christians who are washed in the
precious blood of Jesus (Revelation 1:5). 2
Peter 3:17, 18, "You therefore, beloved,
since you know this beforehand, beware lest
you also fall from your own steadfastness,
being led away with the error of the wicked;
but grow in the grace and knowledge of our
Lord and Savior Jesus Christ. To Him be the
glory both now and forever" -
(NKJV).
Observe that growing in God's grace is put
in contrast to "the error of the wicked" but is
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synonymous with "steadfastness"! As

Christians, bought and paid for by Jesus, are
commanded to do something as God's
workmanship. They are to grow in the
grace!
  So the question becomes, "When would the
Bible ever apply 'charis' [grace] to the
sinner?"

"UNMERITED" DOES APPLY TO

THE SINNER but does "favor"
refer to the sinnere?

They do not merit God's favor (compare to

the world in which Noah lived). Should it
not, if sinners are saved by "unmerited
favor"?       Romans 3:23, "For all have
sinned, and come short of the glory of God;"
Romans 3:12, "They are all gone out of the

way, they are together become

unprofitable;G889 there is none that doeth
good, no, not one."
    G889 (translated
"unprofitable") is "from G888: 'useless, that
is, (euphemistically [substitution for])
unmeritorious:'"

  :   : IN THE CONTEXT of Romans 3:12 the

word "unprofitable" is used to describe
man's sins (works or deeds).

    All have sinned and all are literally,

"unmerited" while in their sins. Their deeds
are without merit before God. If "grace"
saves and "grace" were "unmerited" then
God would be obligated to save everyone or
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else be biased in saving anyone (the

denominations recognize this and come up
with added error to rectify their initial error).
For God's grace has appeared to all men
(Titus 2:10-13).

            But the apostle says that God favors

the workers of righteousness (not the
unrighteous)! Acts 10:34-35, "Then Peter
opened his mouth, and said, Of a truth I
perceive that God is no respecter of
persons; But in every nation he that feareth
him, and worketh righteousness, is accepted
with him."

   Old Testament examples

        (The Old Testament was written in

Hebrew but the source of the translated
word "grace" has the same meaning as the
Greek).

    Genesis 6:8,9 " But Noah found grace in

the eyes of the LORD.   This is the
genealogy of Noah. Noah was a just man,
perfect in his generations. Noah walked with
God." Out of all mankind, Noah found grace
in the eyes of the Lord. Don't tell me that
Noah's favor was unmerited. He "walked
with God"; he was "perfect" in his
generations. Was he sinless ? It doesn't say
that. We know he offered sacrifices and we
know that
sacrifices were associated with
forgiveness of sins. But whatever he was
doing, he found favor in the eyes of the
Lord.

      Exodus 34:9 ' Then he said, "If now I

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have found grace in Your sight, O Lord, let

my Lord, I pray, go among us, even though
we are a stiff-necked people; and pardon
our iniquity and our sin, and take us as Your
inheritance."'
      What was Moses' request? "If I have
found grace in Your sight". If the word
meant "unmerited" why would He ask God
to pardon the stiff-necked people and
sinners in the congregation because of his
having God's grace. Why even ask for
forgiveness for the people if all it took was a
"unmerited" favor of God. The word does
not mean "unmerited", that's why. Moses
had merited God's favor. And he was
selected to be the mediator for the people.

      Esther 2:17 "The king loved Esther more

than all the other women, and she obtained
grace and favor in his sight more than all
the virgins; so he set the royal crown upon
her head and made her queen instead of
Vashti."
"The king loved Esther more than the other
women", and she obtained grace in his
sight. Does that mean that Esther looked
just like the other women. Or even worse?
Hence, the king would have "unmerited"
favor with her? Obviously, no. She had
qualities that in his eyes the others did not
possess. She had his favor!

AN OXYMORON

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      People use the word "oxymoron" to refer

to contradictions.

      Now here is the oxymoron. To say

"Roman Catholic" is an oxymoron. Rome is
local; but catholic is worldwide.
Contradiction of terms. An oxymoron. The
point is not whether it's Scriptural or not.
Just an illustration for the meaning of the
word.

      Here's another one, is it not?

"Unmerited favor" of God. "Unmerited"
means "unprofitable"; i.e., sinning. "Favor"
for sinning? Also an oxymoron. Unless one
means that God actually is favoring sin. If
God's grace that saves is "unmerited favor"
that is offered to mankind then all men are
saved --period. All qualify for such a
judgment. This goes against the very heart
of the teaching of the gospel. Isn't this
ridiculous. And yet we wink at such
nonsense from the pulpit. We are particular
about "baptism" being used correctly. But
we say that "grace" can be perverted. No
wonder people get confused over the plan of
salvation and what God expects of us.
People leave the "church" (they say)
because we don't preach enough on "grace".
What do they mean? They want to hear
more about "unmerited favor" of God.

      Either you don't deserve it but you get it

anyway or such a teaching of "unmerited
favor" is a lie like the devil used in the
garden of Eden. Please see the
consequences of such a doctrine.

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      Proverbs 3:34 (Old Testament) "Surely

he scorneth the scorners: but he giveth
grace unto the lowly." 1 Peter 5:5 "be
clothed with humility, for 'God resists the
proud, But gives grace to the humble.'"

      Why doesn't God give grace to the

scornful or the proud? Certainly they
"undeserve" it more in this context than the
humble (i.e., if it means "unmerited
[undeserved] favor").
    James 4:6 "But He gives more grace.
Therefore He says: "God resists the proud,
But gives grace to the humble."

Luke 17:10 "So likewise

you, when you have done
all those things which you
are commanded, say, 'We
are unprofitable servants.
We have done what was
our duty to do.'

This is a verse that some

use to justify adding
"unmerited" to the
definition of "grace".
However, God is not saying
"if you do everything you
are supposed to, you are
unprofitable (unmerited)"
but that we should say that
we are. Does this not
confirm the requirement of
humility? This rather
underscores the fact that
we are to "do" something!
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Again, we are not to

certainly consider
obedience as sin (like the
sinners [unprofitable] in
Romans 3); we have been
washed in the blood of the
Lamb and we walk in the
Light do like God says for
us to do (1 John 1:7-10).
But we have done what
God requires.

  Although man is
condemned to die from the
sin in the Garden, God's
MERCY has provided a
plan of salvation for our
salvation in Christ
(Ephesians 1:3). If we
follow God's plan (grace,
pleasure), we have nothing
to be arrogant about; we
have done what we were
supposed to do. Humility in
man is what God has favor
toward. It is God that
deserves the praise and the
glory (Ephesians 1)!

        This is my point:
THE WORD "GRACE"
DID NOT THEN, NEITHER DOES IT NOW
MEAN "'UNMERITED' FAVOR". The one that
is doing what pleases God (such as, the
humble) receives the favor of God (His
grace)rather than the proud and scornful.
God makes promises to the humble. When a
person is humble then he deserves and
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merits God's favor (1 Peter 1:4). To say that

grace means "unmerited" makes it difficult
to teach that we are to be humble. It may
be comforting to some that grace means
that we can not do anything to merit His
favor, but I'm afraid that if there is a
Judgment there will be a lot of us
disappointed on Judgment Day. That's why
we hear the comments, such as, "I'll just
have to wait and trust on God's grace to
save me."

      Someone might say that this is just

semantics. But the Word of God is delivered
in words. And to the best of our ability, we
must follow Scripturally the message and
not violate the language in so doing. Else
how can we all "speak the same thing" (1
Cor. 1:10)?

      Some well meaning teachers say "But I

feel that since we are sinners, we don't
deserve God showing any mercy, any love,
or any favors to us." This is something that
we all can appreciate when we consider the
hideousness of sin. But can we legitimately
redefine terms to match our feelings? If we
can then, any word can be changed
according to the temperament of the
moment. When we arbitrarily change word
meanings in one passage it will color our
interpretation of similar passages. Soon we
either are all confused or we form our
divided groups of "thinking." For example,
the preacher argues that if we have to be
baptized "like the eunuch in Acts 8", the
eunuch in Acts 8 was in a desert, and Philip
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surely had to use a bottle of water to

baptize him. Therefore a "nuance" of
baptism becomes "sprinkling." I understand
this flawed argument has been made.

CAIN, son of man (Adam)

      In closing, let me refer the reader to the

passage in Genesis 4:5-7. We are familiar
with Cain. It is NOT said that Cain was born
into any Adamic inherited sin. God doesn't
send the Spirit to make Cain do right.
Rather, God describes two choices laid
before him (also see Ezekiel 18:19-21). One
has God's favor, "acceptance" (hence, grace!
since grace also means acceptable - see
above); the other does not.

      (Genesis 4:5-7) 'but He did not respect

Cain and his offering. And Cain was very
angry, and his countenance fell. So the
LORD said to Cain, "Why are you angry? And
why has your countenance fallen? "If you do
well, will you not be accepted? And if you
do not do well, sin lies at the door. And its
desire is for you, but you should rule over
it."' (NKJV)

      Cain would be accepted or rejected on

his choice. Since "grace" also means
"acceptable", Cain would have had God's
grace (been acceptable) if he had done what
God wanted.

      What does that have to do with us

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under the New Testament? It confirms that

the argument of men being "unworthy" has
nothing to do with God's grace; he will be
acceptable by doing what God wants (see
also Hebrews 11:4)!

Related questions:

Question:   How can we "grow" in "a"

God's "unmerited favor"?   Sweeter as
the Years Go By  (slide show lesson)

Question:   Can we look for and find

grace in God's sight?   Amazing Grace  

Question:   Didn't Jesus say that

"believing" was a work?   Jesus: Believing
is a Work 
Question:   Can a man "work out his own
salvation"?   Salvation as a gift  

Question:   What difference does a

"correct" definition of a word make?
Consequences of false definitions"

Question:   What do we know about

God's grace?   Facts of Bible 'Grace' 
Question:   Will we be judged by our
works or by grace?  Judgment (pdf)

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