B.

Tech III & V Semester

Subject-1000005 Project Management & Financing

Which of the following is not a project management goal?

A. Avoiding customer complaints

B. Keeping overall costs within budget

C. Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed time

D. Maintaining a happy and well-functioning development team

ANSWER: A

What is the first step in project planning?

A. Determine the budget

B. Determine project constraints

C. Inspect the deliverables

D. Establish the objectives and scope

ANSWER: D

A project is anything which is

A. Not implicitly expressed

B. Not a physical objective

C. Implicitly expressed

D. Social acceptability

ANSWER: C

Process framework activities are populated with

A. Milestones

B. QA Points

C. Work Products

D. All of the above

ANSWER: D
Which of the following is not an effective software project management focus?

A. People

B. Popularity

C. Product

D. Process

ANSWER: B

The reason for software bugs and failures is due to

A. Software developers

B. Software companies

C. Both (A) and (B)

D. None of the above

ANSWER: C

According to the Project Management Institute (PMI), project management is defined as “the
application of knowledge, _____, _____, and techniques to project activities to meet the project
requirements”.

A. Skills, Tools

B. Skills, Analysis

C. Tools, Analysis

D. Analysis, Theories

E. Skills, Theories

ANSWER: A

During project estimation, project manager estimates following

A. Project duration

B. Project effort

C. Project cost

D. All of the above

ANSWER: D
Project managers have to assess the risks that may affect a project

A. True

B. False

ANSWER: B

Different activity of a project management is

A. Project planning

B. Project monitoring

C. Project control

D. All of the above

ANSWER: D

Assembling project team and assigning their responsibilities are done during which phase of a
project management?

A. Initiation

B. Planning

C. Execution

D. Closure

ANSWER: A

Which paradigm structures a team loosely and depends on individual initiatives of the team
members?

A. Synchronous paradigm

B. Random paradigm

C. Open paradigm

D. Closed paradigm

ANSWER: A

Which of these is true ?

A. Generic products are produced by organization and sold to open market

B. Generic products and customized products are types of software products

C. Customized products are commissioned by particular customer

D. All of the above

ANSWER: D

The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as

A. Manager life cycle

B. Project Management

C. Project Management Life Cycle

D. None of the above

ANSWER: C

The model serves as the basis for the creation of ________ for the Software.

A. Specifications

B. Testing

C. Maintenance

D. Design

ANSWER: A

A 66.6% risk is considered as

A. High

B. Low

C. Very Low

D. Moderate

ANSWER: A

Small agile teams have no place in modern software development

A. True

B. False

ANSWER: B

Which one of the following is not a software process quality?

A. Productivity
B. Timeliness

C. Visibility

D. Portability

ANSWER: D

Which of the following is/are main parameters that you should use when computing the costs of a
software development project?

A. Travel and training costs

B. Hardware and software costs

C. Effort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and managers)

D. All of the above

ANSWER: D

When can selected common process framework activities be omitted during process decomposition?

A. When the project is extremely small in size

B. Never the activities are invariant

C. Anytime the software is mission critical

D. Rapid prototyping does not require their use

ANSWER: B

The PERT in project management means program evaluation and _____ technique.

A. resource

B. reconciliation

C. reconsideration

D. review

ANSWER: D

Risk is usually _______ as the project progresses.

A. increased

B. reduced

C. remained same
D. become negligible

ANSWER: B

Assembling project team and assigning their responsibilities are done during which phase of a
project management?

A. Initiation

B. Planning

C. Execution

D. Closure

ANSWER: A

A process that involves continuously improving and detailing a plan as more detail become
available is termed as

A. project analysis

B. project enhancing

C. progressive deliberation

D. progressive elaboration

ANSWER: D

A program is usually a group of

A. plans

B. people and work

C. related projects

D. unrelated projects

ANSWER: C

What is the completion of a CPM network diagram activity commonly known as?

A. Connector

B. Event

C. Node

D. All of the above

ANSWER: D

Activities A, B, and C are the immediate predecessors for Y activity. If the earliest finishing time
for the three activities are 12, 15, and 10, then what will be the earliest starting time for Y?

A. 10

B. 15

C. 12

D. Cannot be determined

ANSWER: B

Activities P, Q, and R instantly follow activity M, and their current starting times are 12, 19, and 10.
So, what is the latest finishing time for activity M?

A. 11

B. 10

C. 18

D. Cannot be determined

ANSWER: A

Activity in a network diagram is represented by?

A. Rectangles

B. Arrows

C. Squares

D. Circles

ANSWER: B

What happens when a project is scheduled by CPM?

A. A project is divided into various activities

B. Required time for each activity is established

C. A sequence of various activities is made according to their importance

D. All of the above

ANSWER: D

Projects management is divided in _____ process groups.

A. 5

B. 7

C. 9

D. 11

ANSWER: A

The process each manager follows during the life of a project is known as

A. Manager life cycle

B. Project Management

C. Project Management Life Cycle

D. None of the above

ANSWER: C

What is the particular task performance in CPM known as?

A. Dummy

B. Event

C. Activity

D. Contract

ANSWER: C

What is the earliest start time rule?

A. It compares the activity’s starting time for an activity successor.

B. It compares the activity’s end time for an activity predecessor.

C. It directs when a project can start.

D. It regulates when a project must begin.

ANSWER: B
What is a critical path?

A. It is a path that operates from the starting node to the end node.

B. It is a mixture of all the paths

C. It is the longest path

D. It is the shortest path

ANSWER: C

1. Which one of the following is captured in the Work Breakdown Structure

(WBS)? A.The life cycle phases
B. The logical order of tasks
C. The scope of the project
D. Project costs

2. Which stage of project management life cycle requires the maximum time of
completion A.Conceptualization
B. Planning
C. Execution
D. Estimation

3. .In Project management when does planning take

place? A.Before the project
B. During the project execution

C. At the start of the project

D. After the project

4 .In the initial stage of the project the probability of completing the project is .
A.Zero

B.High

C.Low
 D.Medium

5. A thermal power project plant can’t be located near sanctuary. Such guidelines
are prescribed by

A. Project financer.
B. Client.
C. Government Policy.
D. Project beneficiaries.

6. The particular task performance in CPM is

known A.Dummy
B.Event
C. Activity
D.Contract.

7. The critical path

A. Is a path that operates from the starting node to the end node
B.Is a mixture of all paths.
C.Is the longest path
D.Is the shortest path

8.Free float for any activity is defined as the difference between

A. its earliest finish time and earliest start time for its successor activity
B. its latest start time and earliest start time
C.its latest finish time and earliest start time for its successor activity
D. its earliest finish time and latest start time for its successor activity

9. The time required by an activity when performed without any crashing

A. crash time
B. normal time
C. optimistic time
D. standard time

10. The time corresponding to minimum total project cost is

A. crash time
B. normal time
C.Optimal time
D. between normal time and crash time

11. Project crashing is the method for -------------

A.Shortening the project duration by reducing the time of one or more critical
activities B.Adding resources at critical points
C.Doing technical analysis of the finished work for review
D.Adding duration to each activity

12. Feasibility study determines -----------------

A.Whether the project is possible with resources

B.Comparing the project with world class manufacturing norms
C.Calculate the cost crashing each unit
D.Add duration to each unit

13. What is a cash flow table in project management?

A. A table portraying inflow of cash in a project

B. A table portraying outgoing expenses of a project
C.It is the tool that is used to study such cash flows by breaking inflows and outflows
down, usually on a monthly basis
D. A table portraying debts taken for a project

14. A project has a Profitability Index of 1.30. What does it

mean? A.The NPV is less than zero
 B. The payback period is more than one year
C. That the project returns Rs 1.30 for every Re 1 invested in the project
D. That IRR is 1.30 times that of the Hurdle Rate

15. Equivalent Annuity method is given by

A. NPV ÷ PV of Annuity Factor
B. NPV X PV of Annuity Factor
C. NPV of Inflows X NPV of Outflows
D.Net Present Value- Capital Invested

16. Interest Coverage ratio is given by :

A. Nominal Rate × Interest rate,

B. Earnings Before Interest and Tax÷ Interest expense,
C. Interest Expense – Interest Income,
D. Earnings before Interest and Tax + Interest expense

17. The criteria for acceptance of a project on the basis of Profitability Index (PI) is

A. PI=0
B. PI > 0
C. PI < 0
D. PI > 1

18. In Project crashing, rent and overheads are treated as

A.Significant Cost
B.Insignificant costs
C.Direct Costs
D.Indirect Costs

19. For an activity in CPM analysis, the early Finish time is 13 and the late Finish time
is13, Duration of activity is 6. Which of the following statements is true?

A.The early start is 6

B.The duration of the activity is 13
 C.The slack of this activity is 13
D.The activity is on the critical path

20. Independent float is the amount of time by which:

A.Start of the activity can be delayed without affecting the EST of subsequent activity

B. reduces the float of subsequent activities

C.completion of an activity can be delayed beyond EFT without affecting EST

D.completion of an activity can be delayed beyond earliest possible finishing

time

21. PERT (Project Evaluation and Review Technique) analysis is based

on A.Optimistic time, Pessimistic time and Most likely time
B.Pessimistic time, Optional time, Maximum time
C.Optimistic time, Efficient time, Most likely time
D.Minimax time, Optimistic time and harmonic time

22. In PERT analysis probability of project completion in estimated duration

of Critical Path is
A. 0%
B.50%
C.0%
D. Uncertain

23. In PERT (Project Evaluation and Review Technique) method Expected time (Te) is
A. (To+Tp+4Tm)/6
B. (To+Tp+2Tm)/6
C. (To+Tp+Tm)/6
D. (Tm+Tp+4To)/6

24. Advantage of a Gantt Chart is

A. It is easy to draw
 B. It shows sequence of activities like no other chart
C. It depicts Project Life Cycle
D. Its ability to visually represent activities and times

25. One of the conventions used in network construction

is A.CPM
B. PERT
C. AON
D.CPI

26. The numbering of the nodes in A-O-A is

done A.From left to right
B.From Right to Left
C.Randomly
D.On the basis of the duration of the activity

27. Which of the following is not an activity on site

A. Critical activity
B. Normal activity
C. Dummy activity
D. Urgent activity

28. Detailed Project Report (DPR) is extremely essential for

A. Future project operations
B. Financial Institution like Bank
C. Project Vendors
D. Government Agencies

29. is external stakeholder of a project.

A. Trade Association
B. Project Team
C. Project Promoter
D. All of them.
30. Who creates the project team?

A. Factory manager
B. Operation manager
C. Project manager
D.Purchase Manager

31. Project Manager must ensure that it develops appropriate trade off/s as
A. Time, cost and performance
B. Time, value and performance
C.Men, Materials and Machines
D.Money, Cost and Return on Investment

32. Mumbai Metro-I project is an example of

A. Private Project
B. Public Project
C. PPP Project
D. None of above

33. A company takes up a project to upgrade all its machines from conventional machines
to high-tech machines. It’s type of project.

A. Balancing
B. Modernization
C. Expansion
D. Backward integration

34 Which of the following represents the estimated value of the work actually accomplished?
A. Earned value (EV)
B. Planned value (PV)
C. Actual cost (AC
D. Cost variance (CV)
35. A schedule performance index (SPI) of 0.76 means:
A. You are over budget
B. You are ahead of schedule
C. You are only progressing at 76 percent of the rate originally planned
D. You are only progressing at 24 percent of the rate originally planned

36. A cost performance index (CPI) of 0.89 means:

A. At this time, we expect the total project to cost 89 percent more than planned
B. When the project is completed we will have spent 89 percent more than planned
C. The project is only progressing at 89 percent of the rate planned
D. The project is only getting 89 cents out of every dollar invested

37. The cash inflows and (outflows) associated with a project are as follows:
At start (120000) , Year1-40000, Year2-50000, Year3-60000, Residual Value(at the end of
3rd year)-20000. The payback period for this project would be:
A 2 years and 3 months.
B 2 years and 6 months.
C 3 years.
D 2 years.

38: A Firm is considering undertaking a project that would yield annual profits (after
depreciation) of Rs 68,000 for 5 years. The initial outlay of the project would be Rs 800,000
and the project's assets would have a residual value of Rs 50,000 at the end of the project.
What would be the accounting rate of return for this project?
A 16%
B 8.5%
C 8.0%
D 9.1%

39. A firm is about to undertake a project and has decided to purchase a equipment costing
Rs 45000.the expected cash inflows from the purchase are Year 1- Rs 15000 , Year 2-
Rs 20,000, Year 3- : Rs 25000, Year4- Rs 10000, Year 5- Rs 5000. What is the Net present
Value of the project if the cost of capital is 10%

A Rs 13881
B Rs 15444
C Rs 15667
 D Rs 12998

40. The Debt service coverage ratio refers to

A. Measurement of Total cash inflows
B. measurement of firm’s available cash flow to pay their Debt obligation
C. Measurement of Firms total Income
D. Measurement of firms total Equity and Debt

41. In a payback period method of project evaluation and appraisal the project with
……………….or equal to cut off period will be accepted.
A. More than
B. Less than
C.Positive
D. Negative

42. When resources required by activities are deterministic the method used in
Project Management is called
A.PERT
B. AOA
C. CPM
D. Event Management

43. . An activity which consumes no resources is called

A. Start Activity
B. Critical Activity
C. Dummy Activity
D. End Activity

44. A company is considering investing surplus funds in a project. Calculate the NPV at 10
% discount rate for the following data
Project Year 0 Year 1 Year 2
A (100) 100 100

A. 73.5
B. 173.5
C. 273.5
D. 100

45. Total float of an activity is difference between

A. Early Finish and Late Finish

B. Free Flaot and Interference Float
C. Duration and Early Start
D. Independent Float and the Activity

46. Network of a project is constructed based on

A. Critical path
B. Normal time and Crash Time
C. Precedence Logic
D. Basic Logic

47. The payback period is the period

A. a project takes to pay back the loan taken to purchase the capital assets
B. equal to the useful life of the machines
C. a project takes to recover its initial cash outflow
D. over which the project will be getting operating cash inflows

48. Net Present Value of a machine is

A. PV of cash inflows less cost of investment
B. PV of cash inflows ÷ cost of investment
C. PV of net profit after tax less cost of investment
D.PV of cash inflows less average cost of
investment

49. If Variance of a critical Path is 25 days, the standard deviation of that Critical Path is
A. 12.5 days
B. 15 days
C. 0 days
D.: 5 days

50. New project idea can be received by a company from

A. Internal sources only
B. External sources only
C. Project Team only
D. A & B

ANSWER KEY

Q1 C Q2 C Q3 C Q4 C Q5 C

Q6 C Q7 C Q8 A Q9 B Q10 C

Q11 A Q12 A Q13 C Q14 C Q15 A

Q16 B Q17 D Q18 D Q19 D Q20 A

Q21 A Q22 B Q23 A Q24 D Q25 C

Q26 A Q27 C Q28 B Q29 A Q30 C

Q.31 A Q.32 C Q.33 B Q.34 A Q.35 C

Q.36 D Q.37 B Q.38 A Q.39 A Q.40 B

Q.41 B Q.42 C Q.43 C Q.44 A Q.45 A

Q.46 C Q.47 C Q. 48 A Q.49 D Q.50 D

QUESTION BANK – PROJECT

MANAGEMENT
1) Which of the following consists of a temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product,
service or result?
a) Project
b) Amalgamation
c) Merger
d) Conflict

2) Which of the following is any undertaking, carried out individually or collaboratively and possibly
involving research or design, that is carefully planned to achieve a particular aim?
a) Amalgamation
b) Project
c) Merger
d) Conflict

3) Which of the following is the process of evaluating individual projects or groups of projects, and
then choosing to implement some set of them so that the objectives of the parent organization will
be achieved?

a) Project implementation
b) Project closure
c) Project tenure
d) Project selection

4) Which of the following is not a Non-numeric project selection model?

a) The Sacred Cow
b) Internal Rate of Return

c) The Operating Necessity

d) Comparative Benefit Model

5) Which of the following is a Numeric project selection model?

a) Q-Sort Model

b) The Product Line Extension

c) Comparative Benefit Model

d) Profitability Index

6) The full form of PMMM is:

a) Project Management Maturity Model

b) Project Material Management Model

c) Project Machine Management Model

d) Project Mistake Management Method

7) The phases that represent the path a project takes from the beginning to its end and are generally
referred to as the:

a) Project Tenure Cycle

b) Project Time Cycle

c) Project Term Cycle

d) Project Life Cycle

8) Which of the following is not one of the five levels used in PMMM as proposed by the Project
Management Institute?

a) Level 1- Disintegration Process

b) Level 2- Structured Process and Standards

c) Level 3- Organizational Standards and Institutional Process

d) Level 4- Managed Process

9) Which of the following is defined as “interpersonal influence, exercised in situations and directed
through the communication process, toward the attainment of a specified goal or goals”?
a) Sensitivity
b) Leadership
c) Technical Credibility
d) Administrative Credibility
10) Job responsibilities of a project manager does not include:

a) Estimating the cost of a project based on previous experiences and necessary resources.

b) Giving more salaries to project team members.

c) Collecting data about production output and quality.

d) Reporting any delays to executive employees and other stakeholders.

11) Which of the following is not a job responsibility of a functional manager?

a) Giving more salaries to employees of his/her department.

b) Collecting budget and cost estimates from project managers.

c) Providing training opportunities for employees to continue their professional development.

d) Determining the department or team's strategy for completing a task.

12) Who among the following is responsible for leading the project?

a) Project manager

b) Shareholders

c) P1roject team members

d) Project client

13) is about assigning roles to the team members and setting deadlines to achieve targets.

a) Monitoring

b) Planning
c) Estimating

d) Organizing

14) The most part of communication usually happens between the project manager and the .

a) Company’s CEO

b) Shareholders

c) Project team members

d) Project client

15) Which of the following means a “Clash of Interest”?

a) A Project
b) A Team
c) A Conflict
d) A Company

16) Which of the following is not a type of conflict?

a) Interpersonal Conflict
b) Interdivision Conflict
c) Intrapersonal Conflict
d) Intragroup Conflict

17) Which of the following refers to a type of conflict that occurs between two individuals?
a) Interpersonal Conflict
b) Intergroup Conflict
c) Intra Group Conflict
d) Intergroup Conflict
18) Which of the following refers to a type of conflict that occurs within an individual?
a) Intragroup Conflict
b) Interpersonal Conflict
c) Intrapersonal Conflict
d) Intrapersonal Conflict

19) Which of the following refers to a type of conflict that happens among individuals within a team?
a) Interpersonal Conflict
b) Intrapersonal Conflict
c) Intragroup Conflict
d) Intergroup Conflict

20) Which of the following refers to a type of conflict that takes place when a misunderstanding arises
among different teams within an organization?
a) Intragroup Conflict
b) Intrapersonal Conflict
c) Interpersonal Conflict
d) Intergroup Conflict

21) Which of the following is a group or department within a business, government agency,
or enterprise that defines and maintains standards for project management within the
organization?
a) A Project Material Office
b) A Project Machine Office
c) A Project Management Office
d) A Project Maturity Office

22) Which of the following type goes beyond control and actually "takes over" the projects by
providing the project management experience and resources to manage the project?
a) Controlling PMO
b) Directive PMO
c) Supportive PMO
d) None of the above
23) Which of the following is a group of individuals teamed together?
a) A project
b) A project team
c) A Project task
d) A project tenure

24) Which of the following is about assigning roles to the team members and setting deadlines to
achieve targets?
a) Planning
b) Leading
c) Organizing
d) Communicating

25) Which of the following is a sophisticated form of communication, a part of the constructive
management of conflict?
a) Planning
b) Demonstration
c) Negotiation
d) Arguing

26) In project management and systems engineering , which of the following is a deliverable -oriented
breakdown of a project into smaller components?
a) Pure Project Organisation
b) Project Management Office
c) Partnering
d) Work Breakdown Structure

27) Which of the following is the process of integrating subsystems according to their functionality by
creating functional entities also referred to as silos?
a) Horizontal Integration
b) Vertical Integration
c) Star Integration
d) Spaghetti Integration
28) Which of the following is a process of systems integration where each system is interconnected to
each of the remaining subsystems?
a) Horizontal Integration
b) Vertical Integration
c) Star Integration
d) None of the above

29) Which of the following is defined in engineering as the process of bringing together the
component sub-systems into one system and ensuring that the subsystems function together as a
system?
a) System separation
b) System integration
c) System dissociation
d) System segregation

30) Which of the following is a discipline for stating how to complete a project within a certain
timeframe, usually with defined stages, and with designated resources?

a) Project Planning

b) Project execution

c) Project implementation

d) Project monitoring

31) Which of the following is not a rule to create a Work Breakdown Structure?
a) The task once completed should be included twice.

b) The focus should be only on outcomes and not on actions.

c) Assign each task to a specific team or individual.

d) A work assigned should be completed with not more than 80 hours and not less than 8 hours of

effort.
32) Which of the following is not a rule to create a Work Breakdown Structure?

a) The task once completed should not be included twice.

b) The focus should be only on outcomes and not on actions.

c) Assign each task to a specific team or individual.

d) A work assigned should be completed with not more than 800 hours and not less than 80 hours of

effort.

33) Full form of PERT is:

a) Process Evaluation and Rating Technique
b) Program Enhancement and Rating Technique
c) Project Enhancement and Rating Technique
d) Program Evaluation and Review Technique

34) Full form of CPM is:

a) Crucial Payment Method
b) Critical Period Method
c) Critical Path Method
d) Crucial Period Method

35) PERT is basically restricted to which variable/s?

a) Time Variable
b) Cost Variable
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above

36) Full form of PMIS:

a) Project Marketing Information System
b) Project Marketing Inquiry System
c) Project Management Inquiry System
d) Project Management Information System

37) Which of the following is one or more software tools used for a project’s information storage
and distribution?

a) Project Management Office

b) Project Management Information System
c) Project Management Office
d) Pure Project Organization
38) Which of the following is typically one or more software applications and a methodical process
for collecting and using project information?
a) PMMM
b) PERT
c) PMBOK
d) PMIS

39) Which of the following is the coherent organization of the information required for an
organization to execute projects successfully?
a) PMMM
b) PERT
c) PMBOK
d) PMIS

40) Which of the following is a formal document that provides account on the current status of
a given project?
a) Stakeholder register
b) Risk register
c) Project report
d) Project charter

41) There are how many basic types of control mechanism?

a) two
b) four
c) three
d) five

42) Which of the following is a continuous process that starts at the execution stage of a project and
goes on till the project’s end?
a) Project audit
b) Project life cycle
c) Project Management
d) Project Monitoring

43) Which of the following is not an objective of Project audit?

a) To diminish project performance
b) To assure quality of products and services
c) To identify business risk
d) To assure quality of project management

44) Which of the following type of controls are applied after the completion of the project or the task?
a) Cybernetic controls
b) Go / No-go controls
c) Creative controls
d) Post-performance controls

45) objectives are finite, they are measurable, they are realistic and they are meaningful:
a) Clear
b) Uncertain
c) Unsure
d) Doubtful

46) Which of the following is a detailed plan outlining actions needed to reach one or more goals.
a) PMIS
b) Action plan
c) CPM
d) PERT

47) Which of the following is a sequence of steps that must be taken, or activities that must
be performed well, for a strategy to succeed :
a) PMIS
b) Action plan
c) CPM
d) PERT

48) Every project has :

a) a beginning period
b) a middle period
c) an ending
d) All of the above

49) During the third phase, , the project plan is put into motion and the work of the project is
performed.
a) implementation phase
b) planning phase
c) closure phase
d) none of the above

50) During the , the emphasis is on releasing the final deliverables to the customer, handing over
project documentation to the business, terminating supplier contracts, releasing project resources, and
communicating the closure of the project to all stakeholders.
a) completion phase
b) planning phase
c) implementation phase
d) execution phase

51) is the process of evaluating individual projects or groups of projects, and then choosing to
implement some set of them so that the objectives of the parent organization will be achieved:
a) Project selection
b) Project implementation
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above

52) Job responsibilities of a project manager include:

a) Estimating the cost of a project based on previous experiences and necessary resources

b) Assigning tasks to each team member

c) Collecting data about production output and quality

d) All of the above

53) Assembling project team and assigning their responsibilities are done during which phase of a
project management?
(A) Initiation
(B) Planning
(C) Execution
(D) Closure

54) The basic nature of a project is a/an one.

(A) permanent
(B) temporary
(C) (A) or (B)
(D) Both (A) and (B)

55) A process that involves continuously improving and detailing a plan as more detail become
available is termed as
(A) project analysis
(B) project enhancing
(C) progressive deliberation
(D) progressive elaboration

56) A program is usually a group of

(A) plans
(B) people and work
(C) related projects
(D) unrelated projects

57) Which from the following statement(s) is/are NOT true?

I. Projects have defined objectives
II. Programs have a larger scope than projects
III. The projects and programs in a portfolio must be directly related
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) II and III only

58) Projects management is divided in process groups.

(A) 5
(B) 7
(C) 9
(D) 11

59) If any one factor of a project changes, other factor(s) is/are likely to be affected.
(A) all
(B) one
(C) at least one
(D) at most one

60) Business Value =

(A) Tangible Elements
(B) Intangible Elements
(C) Tangible Elements – Intangible Elements
(D) Tangible Elements + Intangible Elements

61) Which from the following is NOT a tangible element?

(A) Fixtures
(B) Trademarks
(C) Monetary assets
(D) Stockholder equity

62) Which from the following is NOT an intangible element?

(A) Utility
(B) Public benefit
(C) Brand recognition
(D) Good will

63) Which from the following represents the correct project cycle?
(A) Planning→Initiating→Executing→Closing
(B) Planning→Executing→Initiating→Closing
(C) Initiating→Planning→Executing→Closing
(D) Initiating→Executing→Planning→Closing

64) The strategy used to correct resource over-allocations by balancing demand for resources and the
available supply is known as
(A) resource assignment
(B) resource leveling
(C) resource splitting
(D) resource scheduling

65) A horizontal bar chart that shows project tasks against a calendar is called
(A) milestone
(B) goal
(C) Gantt chart
(D) PERT chart

66) The statistical tool that depicts a project’s tasks and the relationships between those tasks is
known as
(A) milestone
(B) goal
(C) Gantt chart
(D) PERT chart

67) Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about a Project?

I. It brings change
II. It has risk
III. The outcome is certain
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) I, II, and III

68) Which of the following is NOT a part of project management?

(A) initiating
(B) monitoring
(C) closing
(D) All above are parts

69) The scope of the work is defined in which phase of the project management?
(A) Initiating
(B) Planning
(C) Executing
(D) Closing

70) How the project work will be carried out, monitored, and controlled? These questions are
answered in which phase of the project management?
(A) Initiating
(B) Planning
(C) Executing
(D) Closing

71) The review of the successes and the mistakes is normally held during phase.
(A) initiation
(B) planning
(C) execution
(D) closure

72) The business case and the justification for the project is determined during the phase.
(A) initiation
(B) planning
(C) execution
(D) closure

73) According to Olivier Mesly, the 4 P’s critical for the success of a project are:
(A) plan, processes, people, policy
(B) plan, processes, people, power
(C) plan, processes, potential, policy
(D) plan, processes, potential, power

74) A is a set of activities which are networked in an order and aimed towards achieving the
goals of a project.
(A) Project

(B) Process

(C) Project management

(D) Project cycle

75) Resources refers to

(A) Manpower

(B) Machinery

(C) Materials

(D) All of the above

76) Developing a technology is an example of

(A) Process

(B) Project
(C) Scope

(D) All of the above

77)The project life cycle consists of

(A) Understanding the scope of the project

(B) Objectives of the project

(C) Formulation and planning various activities

(D) All of the above

78) Following is(are) the responsibility(ies) of the project manager.

(A) Budgeting and cost control

(B) Allocating resources

(C) Tracking project expenditure

(D) All of the above

79) Following are the phases of Project Management Life Cycle. Arrange them in correct order
1. Design, 2. Marketing, 3. Analysis and evaluation, 4. Inspection, testing and
delivery (A) 3-2-1-4

(B) 1-2-3-4

(C) 2-3-1-4

(D) 4-3-2-1

80) Design phase consist of

(A) Input received

(B) Output received

(C) Both (A) and (B)

(D) None of the above

81) Project performance consists of

(A) Time

(B) Cost
(C) Quality

(D) All of the above

82) Five dimensions that must be managed on a project

(A) Constraint, Quality, Cost, Schedule, Staff

(B) Features, Quality, Cost, Schedule, Staff

(C) Features, priority, Cost, Schedule, Staff

(D) Features, Quality, Cost, Schedule, customer

83) Resorce requirement in project becomes constant while the project is in its progress stage.
(A) 40 to 55%

(B) 55 to 70%

(C) 70 to 80%

(D) 80 to 95%

84) Which of these is not one of the constraints of a project?

a. Scope
b. Resources
c. Team
d. Budget

85) Which of the following is not correct about initial phase of a project?
a. The cost associated at the beginning of the project is highest.
b. Stakeholders have maximum influence during this phase
c. The highest uncertainty is at this stage of the project.
d. All the above statements are correct.
86) The project you are managing has nine stakeholders. How many channel of communications
are there between these stakeholders?
a. 9
b. 8
c. 45
d. 36
87) Which of the following is not an example of formal communication?
a. Contract
b. email
c. Project status report
d. Status meeting

88) A Project with a total funding of $100,000 finished with a BAC value of $95,000. What term can
BEST describe the difference of $5,000?
A. Cost Variance
B. Management Overhead
C. Management Contingency Reserve
D. Schedule Variance

89) If the Earned Value is equal to Actual Cost, it means:

A. Project is on budget and on schedule
B. Schedule Variance Index is 1
C. There is no schedule variance
D. There is no cost variance

90) Which of the following is the most important element of Project Management Plan that is
useful in HR Planning process:
A. Risk Management activities
B. Quality Assurance activities
C. Activity Resource requirements
D. Budget Control activities
91) Which of the following types of Organizational Charts can be BEST used to track project costs :
A. Hierarchical-type Organizational Chart
B. Organizational Breakdown Structure
C. Resource Breakdown Structure
D. Responsibility Assignment Matrix

92) Which of the following is not true for a Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM):
A. Defines what project team is responsible for each WBS component
B. Defines what project member is responsible for each activity
C. Text description of roles, responsibilities, authorities
D. Defines all people associated with each activity

93) Which of the following is not true for a Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM):
A. Defines what project team is responsible for each WBS component
B. Defines what project member is responsible for each activity
C. Text description of roles, responsibilities, authorities
D. Defines all people associated with each activity

94) Root Cause Analysis relates to:

A. Process Analysis
B. Quality Audits
C. Quality Control Measurements
D. Performance Measurements

95) A planning phase for an engineering component generated 80 engineering drawings. The QA
team randomly selected 8 drawings for inspection. This exercise can BEST be described as example
of:
A. Inspection
B. Statistical Sampling
C. Flowcharting
D. Control Charting

96) Andrew has joined as the Project Manager of a project. One of the project documents available to
Andrew lists down all the risks in a hierarchical fashion. What is this document called?
a. Risk Management Plan.
b. List of risks.
c. Monte Carlo diagram.
d. Risk Breakdown Structure.

97) During which stage of Risk planning are risks prioritized based on probability and impact?
a. Identify Risks
b. Plan Risk responses
c. Perform Qualitative risk analysis
d. Perform Quantitative risk analysis

98) Activity Definition is typically performed by which of the following:

A. Project Manager who created the WBS
B. Project Team Members responsible for the work package
C. Project Officer
D. Project Stakeholder

99) Which of the following does NOT generate changes to the Project documents:
A. Define Activities
B. Sequence Activities
C. Estimate Activity Resources
D. Estimate Activity Durations

100) Which of the following may generate a milestone list:

A. Define Activities
B. Sequence Activities
C. Estimate Activity Resources
D. Estimate Activity Durations

101) A schedule activity may begin 10 days before the predecessor activity finishes. This is
an example of:
A. Finish-to-Start
B. Start-to-Finish
C. Start-to-Start
D. Finish-to-Finish

102) Sam Consultancy is planning to buy ten desktops for $1500 each from a leading computer
store. Which type of contract will get signed in this case?
A. Purchase Order
B. Cost plus Fee
C. Fixed cost
D. Time and Material

103) Alice is a Project Manager. She is coordinating a bidder conference to allow vendors to
get clarification on the work that needs to be performed. Which phase of Project Management is
in progress.
A. Conduct Procurements
B. Plan Procurements
C. Control Procurements
D. Close Procurements

104) The process of Control Procurements falls under which process group
A. Planning
B. Closing
C. Monitoring and Control
D. Executing

105) The project life cycle is comprised of which of the following?

A. Phases
B. Milestones
C. Estimates
D. Activities
106) Marcy, the project manager for the ERP Project, is about to complete the project phase review.
The completion of a project phase is also known as which of the following?
A. A lesson learned
B. A kill point
C. Earned value management
D. Conditional advancement

107) Which of the following is not a key stakeholder in a project that creates a service internal to an
organization?
A. The project manager
B. External customers
C. Project vendors
D. Project team members

108) Of the following management skills, which will a project manager use most?
A. Leading
B. Communicating
C. Influencing the organization
D. Negotiating

109) Managing a project is best described as which one of the following?

A. Establishing direction
B. Functional controls over the project team and stakeholders
C. Consistently producing key results expected by stakeholders
D. Motivating and inspiring the project team to produce results that are expected by
project stakeholders

110) When will stakeholders have the most influence over a project's product?
A. At the end of the project
B. During scope verification
C. At the start of a project
D. At the start of each phase
111)Which of the following is an example of negotiation?
A. Arbitration
B. Formal communications
C. Conferring
D. Scope creep

112) You are the project manager for your organization. Influencing your organization requires which
of the following?
A. An understanding of the organizational budget
B. Research and documentation of proven business cases
C. An understanding of formal and informal organizational structures
D. Positional power
113) Your global project is sabotaged by rumors and gossip about the project deliverable. This is
an example of:
A. Cultural achievability
B. Cultural influences within the project team
C. Project team mutiny
D. Ineffective planning

114) What is the difference between a standard and a regulation?

A. Standards are mandatory; regulations are not.
B. Standards are optional; regulations are not.
C. Regulations and standards are essentially the same.
D. Regulations are usually mandatory; standards may be seen as guidelines.

115) All of the following are examples of stakeholders that have a positive influence on a project
except for which one?
A. Business leaders in a community affected by a commercial development project
B. Team members that will receive a bonus if the project is successful
C. Employees that prefer the older version of the software that a project is replacing
D. Functional managers that want your project to complete so their employees can move onto other
projects
116)Which of the following is an example of a deliverable at the end of the requirements-gathering
phase in a software design project?
A. Responsibility matrix creation
B. Detail design document
C. Business needs
D. Project team assembled

117) You are the project manager for the ERP Project. Your organization uses a PMO. The primary
purpose of a project office is to:
A. Support the project managers
B. Support the project sponsor
C. Support the project team
D. Identify the stakeholders
118) Which of the following best describes a project deliverable?
Discuss
A. The resources used by the project to complete the necessary work
B. The resources exported from the project as a result of the project work
C. The end result of a project planning session
D. The tangible good or service created by the project team

119) At what point in a project would a kill point be acceptable?

A. When a project team member is not performing as planned
B. When a project reaches the end of a project phase
C. When a project reaches the end of its budget
D. When a project manager determines the project team cannot continue

120) Of the following, which is not an exit criterion?

A. Customer sign-offs
B. Quality metrics
C. Stakeholder analysis
D. Regulatory inspections

121) The compilation of all the phases within a project equates to

A. The project life cycle
B. The product life cycle
C. Project completion
D. Project processes

122) Management has asked Nancy to determine if a project concept is valid and can be completed
using a reasonable amount of time and finances. Management is asking for which of the following?
A. Kill points
B. Cost and time estimates
C. A project case study
D. A feasibility study
123)Henry, the project manager of the MHB Project, has allowed a subsequent project phase to
begin before the predecessor phase is complete. This is an example of which of the following?
A. Crashing
B. Fast tracking
C. Risk management
D. Tandem scheduling

123) Which of the following describes the early stages of a project?

A. High costs and high demand for resources
B. A high demand for change
C. A high demand for project team time
D. Low costs and low demand for resources

124) At which point is the risk of failure the least but the consequence of failure the highest?
A. During the early stages
B. During the middle stages
C. During the final stages
D. Risk of failure is even across all project phases

125) Tracey is the project manager of the KHG Project. Her organization is a classic functional
environment. Her level of authority as a project manager can be best described as which of the
following?
A. Low
B. Moderate
C. Balanced
D. High

126) Project team members are most likely to work full-time on a project in which of the
following organizational structures?
A. Functional
B. Weak Matrix
C. Strong Matrix
D. Projectized
127) A project with much risk and reward is most likely to be accepted in which of the following?
A. An entrepreneurial company
B. A heavily regulated company
C. A nonprofit organization
D. A community

128) Where can a project manager expect to receive templates?

A. Commercial databases
B. The project office
C. The project sponsor
D. Project Management Information System (PMIS)

129) A communication management plan identifies the relevant information that should
be communicated to:
a. the project team.
b. the project stakeholders.
c. the project board.
d. the project sponsor.

130) Which one of the following statements is true?

a. Independent reviews and quality audits form part of quality assurance to ensure the project manager
delivers on time and to budget.
b. Quality assurance provides confidence to stakeholders that requirements for quality will
be exceeded.
c. Quality control verifies that the project deliverables conform to specification, are fit for purpose and
meet stakeholder expectations.
d. Quality planning enables the project manager to manage the trade-off between customer
expectations and budget.

131) Project risk management is best described as:

a. managing responses to threats.
b. identifying and acknowledging threats and opportunities.
c. planning responses to threats.
d. minimising threats and maximising opportunities.
132) Which one of the following best describes a project issue?
a. A major problem that requires formal escalation.
b. A problem that the project manager has to deal with on a day-to-day basis.
c. An uncertain event that may or may not occur.
d. An opportunity that occurs through change control.

133) Scheduling can best be defined as the process used to determine:

a. overall project duration.
b. project cost estimating.
c. the project management plan.
d. sub-contractor’s responsibilities.

134) Which one of the following statements is true?

a. An increase in project scope is likely to increase project cost.
b. A decrease in the project time is likely to increase project quality.
c. An increase in the project quality requirements is likely to decrease project cost.
d. A decrease in the project cost is likely to decrease project time.

135) Which one of the following statements best defines the purpose of a Product Breakdown
Structure (PBS)?
a. To define the hierarchy of deliverables that are required to be produced on the project.
b. To define how the products are produced by identifying derivations and dependencies.
c. To establish the extent of work required prior to project commissioning and the handover.
d. To identify the health and safety strategies and procedures to be used on the project.

136) Which one of the following is least likely to be a success criteria?

a. A target for the project to receive zero change requests.
b. The date by which the project is to be completed.
c. Delivery of products that meet required specifications.
d. The awarding of bonuses to senior management.

137) Which one of the following is a valid project Key Performance Indicator (KPI)?
a. Staff appraisals.
b. Management buy in.
c. Milestone achievement.
d. Master schedule.

138) Which one of the following statements is true?

a. The business case is owned by the sponsor and is created during the concept phase of the
project life cycle.
b. The business case is owned by the project manager and is created during the concept phase of
the project life cycle.
c. The business case is owned by the sponsor and is created during definition phase of the project life
cycle.
d. The business case is owned by the project manager and is created during the definition phase of the
project life cycle.

139) Who owns the Project Management Plan (PMP)?

a. The project team.
b. The chief executive.
c. The project manager.
d. The project support office.

140) Which one of the following best describes users?

a. Providers of both strategic and tactical direction to the project.
b. Those intended to receive benefits or operate outputs.
c. Facilitators of an appropriate issue resolution procedure.
d. Those providing full-time commitment to the project.

141) Which statement best describes a responsibility of the project manager:

a. to be the sole source of expertise for estimating techniques on cost and time.
b. to deliver the project objectives to enable benefits to be realised.
c. to take ultimate accountability for the delivery of the business benefits.
d. to delegate all accountability for managing time, cost and quality to team leaders.

142) A project is typically defined in terms of scope, time, cost and which other parameter?
a. Benefits.
b. Quality.
c. Tolerance.
d. Controls.

143) Which one of the following statements is true?

a. Business-as-usual activities cannot be improved.
b. Business-as-usual activities are more difficult to manage than projects.
c. Projects are transient endeavours that bring about change to business-as-usual.
d. A project is always the starting point for operation refinement.

144) What is defined as “the ability to influence and align others towards a common purpose”?
a. Teamwork.
b. Motivation.
c. Management.
d. Leadership.

145) Which one is a true statement relating to project communications?

a. A project sponsor is responsible for all communication methods and media.
b. Different stakeholders typically have different communication needs.
c. It is best to have a standard set of project reports used for every project.
d. Email is the only way to communicate with large numbers of people.

146) In project management, the term quality is best defined as:

a. inspection, testing and measurement.
b. reviews and audits.
c. fitness for purpose of deliverables.
d. professionally-bound project reports.

147) The main outcome of risk identification, in a risk management process, is to:
a. identify and determine the relative importance of the project risks.
b. identify and describe all risks that might occur on the project.
c. identify and determine the responses to the project risks.
d. identify and describe risks that have occurred on previous projects.

148) Which one of the following is not considered in resource management?

a. Identifying resources.
b. Influencing resources.
c. Assigning resources to activities.
d. Matching resources to the schedule.

149) Which one of the following does project change control primarily seek to ensure?
a. All variance to the project scope is evaluated.
b. No reduction in the perceived quality of the project outcome.
c. Management costs of the project do not increase.
d. Any decrease in the scoped deliverable of the project is rejected.

150) Which one of the following is captured in the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)?
a. The life cycle phases.
b. The logical order of tasks.
c. The scope of the project.
d. Project costs.

151) Project reporting can best be defined as:

a. informing stakeholders about the project.
b. storing and archiving of project information.
c. gathering stakeholder feedback.
d. collecting project information.

152) Which one of the following statements best defines an estimate?

a. An approximation of project time and cost targets, refined throughout the project life cycle.
b. A prediction of a future condition or event based on information or knowledge available now.
c. The value of useful work done at any given point in a project to give a measure of progress.
d. A situation that affects or influences the outcome of the project expressed in time or cost terms.
153) The justification for the investment to be made in a project is documented in the:
a. Cost Breakdown Structure.
b. procurement strategy.
c. business case.
d. Project Management Plan.

154) Which one of the following is a responsibility of the project steering group/board?
a. To identify potential problems for the project team to solve.
b. To provide strategic direction and guidance to the sponsor.
c. To manage the project team in all daily activities.
d. To receive and consider daily reports from team members.

155) One of the reasons a project life cycle is split into phases is to:
a. facilitate formal go/no-go decision making during the project.
b. balance the costs of work in each phase of project development.
c. mirror the major deployments of resources throughout the project.
d. chunk work into time periods of similar durations.

156) Which of the following best describes a project environment?

a. The type of organisation concerned with implementation.
b. The structured method used to control the project.
c. The context within which a project is undertaken.
d. An understanding of the risks involved in the project.

157) Which one of the following statements best describes a project?

a. A project is a set of tools and techniques often used when delivering organisational change.
b. A project is the sum of activities needed to remove uncertainty from a unique piece of work.
c. A unique transient endeavour undertaken to achieve a desired outcome.
d. A project is a method of planning work.

158) The document that identifies what information needs to be shared, to whom, why, when and how
is called the:
a. communication management plan.
b. stakeholder mapping grid.
c. document distribution schedule.
d. responsibility assignment matrix.

159) An important aim of a post-project review is to:

a. validate overall progress to date against the budget and schedule.
b. capture learning and document it for future usage.
c. ensure acceptance of all permanent documentation, signed by the sponsor.
d. establish that project benefits have been identified.

160) The process that evaluates overall project performance to provide confidence is called:
a. quality assurance.
b. quality planning.
c. quality control.
d. quality audit.

161) Which one of the following statements about the project risk register is false?
a. It facilitates the review and monitoring of risks.
b. It facilitates the risk appetite.
c. It facilitates the recording of risk responses.
d. It facilitates the recording of risks.

162) Which one of the following statements best defines procurement?

a. A technique to establish the best approach for obtaining the resources for the project.
b. A group of interrelated resources and activities that transform inputs into outputs.
c. The description of the purpose, form and components to support delivery of a product.
d. The process by which products and services required for the project are acquired.

163) Once a change has been requested what is the next step in the change control process?
a. Evaluate the change.
b. Advise the sponsor.
c. Update the change log.
d. Update the project plan.

164)A Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM) can be used to:

a. define the terms of reference of the project manager.
b. define the limits of the project sponsor’s responsibilities.
c. allocate risk management response activities to project personnel.
d. allocate work packages to those responsible for project work.

165) An Organisational Breakdown Structure (OBS) is used to identify:

a. the reporting structure and current availability of all individuals in the project.
b. technical ability and line of communication for all individuals in the project.
c. lines of communication and responsibility for all the individual managers in the project.
d. the reporting structure and lines of communication for all individuals in the projects.

166) Which one of the following best describes project success criteria?
a. Actively seeking some senior management support.
b. Measures by which the success of the project is judged.
c. Achievement of milestones.
d. A motivated project team.

167) Comparative estimating uses:

a. current data from similar projects.
b. historic data from all projects.
c. historic data from similar projects.
d. current data from all projects.

168) Which one of the following best describes a project stakeholder?

a. A party who is concerned about the project going ahead.
b. A party with an interest or role in the project or is impacted by the project.
c. A party who has a vested interest in the outcome of the project.
d. A party who has a financial stake in the organisation managing the project.
169) The main purpose of the Project Management Plan is to:
a. provide justification for undertaking the project in terms of evaluating the benefit, cost and risk
of alternative options.
b. ensure the project sponsor has tight control of the project manager’s activity.
c. document the outcomes of the planning process and provide the reference document for managing
the project.
d. document the outcome of the risk, change and configuration management processes.

170) Who has ultimate responsibility for project risk?

a. Steering group.
b. Risk owner.
c. Project sponsor.
d. Project manager.

171) When a project has completed the handover and closure phase:
a. the project deliverables are ready for commissioning.
b. the project deliverables are ready for handing over to the users.
c. the project documentation must be disposed of.
d. the capability is now in place for the benefits to be realised.

172) Which one of the following illustrates why effective project management is beneficial to
an organisation?
a. It utilises resources as and when required under direction of a project manager.
b. It advocates employing a consultancy firm which specialises in managing change.
c. It recommends using only highly skilled people in the project team.
d. It ensures that the chief executive is accountable for the achievement of the defined benefits.

173) A key aspect of managing a project involves:

a. defining which operational systems to put in place.
b. identifying routine tasks.
c. ensuring ongoing operations are maintained.
d. planning to achieve defined objectives.
174) Which one of the following statements best defines teamwork?
a. People working collaboratively towards a common goal.
b. Developing skills that will enhance project performance.
c. Gathering the right people together to work on a project.
d. Establishing vision and direction towards a common purpose.

175) A review undertaken to decide whether a project should proceed into its next phase is known as
a:
a. gate review.
b. feasibility study.
c. milestone review.
d. evaluation review.

176) Which one of the following statements best describes the use of an issue log?
a. A summary of all possible alternative resolutions of an issue.
b. A summary of all the project issues, their analysis and status.
c. A tool to ensure that a process is in place for capturing all issues.
d. A tool to ensure that the issue management process is adhered to.

177) The main aim of a project risk management process should be to:
a. identify project risks and then manage them appropriately.
b. identify all project risks and transfer them immediately.
c. identify all the things that are threats or opportunities on a project.
d. satisfy the organisation’s project management process.

178)What is a visual representation of a project’s planned activities against a calendar called?

a. A Gantt chart.
b. A critical path network.
c. A product flow diagram.
d. A Pareto chart.

179) Configuration management is best described as:

a. control in the implementation of changes to project schedules.
b. an organisation to review proposed changes to the project deliverables.
c. quality control of project deliverables and documentation.
d. creation, maintenance and controlled change of the project deliverables.

180) A Cost Breakdown Structure (CBS) shows costs assigned to:

a. individual work packages using the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).
b. individual resources using the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).
c. individual resources using the Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM).
d. individual deliverables using the Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM)

181) The accuracy of an estimate should:

a. decrease as a project progresses through its life cycle.
b. increase as a project progresses through its life cycle.
c. stay constant throughout the project life cycle.
d. vary independently of where the project is in its life cycle.

182) Which one of the following best defines a benefit?

a. A positive result of stakeholder management.
b. The successful management of a project.
c. An improvement resulting from project deliverables.
d. The successful delivery of project reports and updates.

183) Which one of the following is true for the Project Management Plan (PMP)?
a. The Project Management Plan is developed by the project manager and team and owned by
the sponsor.
b. A draft of the Project Management Plan is developed by the sponsor at the same time as
the business case.
c. The Project Management Plan is developed by the sponsor and owned by the project manager.
d. The Project Management Plan is developed by the project manager and team and owned by the
project manager.

184) Who are project team members primarily accountable to?

a. External stakeholders.
b. The end users.
c. The finance director.
d. The project manager.

185) The phases of a project life cycle are:

a. starting, planning, control and closing.
b. concept, definition, development, handover and closure.
c. initiation, definition, planning, monitoring and operations.
d. concept, definition, implementation and operations.

186) A portfolio can best be defined as:

a. a group of projects and programmes carried out within an organisation.
b. a group of programmes carried out under the sponsorship of an organisation.
c. a group of projects carried out under the sponsorship of an organisation.
d. a range of products and services offered by an organisation.

187) Which one of the following best describes project management?

a. Using APM’s Body of Knowledge 6th edition as a guide to all projects.
b. Employing a project manager who has undertaken similar projects.
c. Utilising team members who can work on a project full time.
d. Application of processes and methods throughout the project life cycle.

188) Which structure shows the reporting relationships and communications channels for a project? a.
Work Breakdown Structure.
b. Organisational Breakdown Structure.
c. Product Breakdown Structure.
d. Responsibility assignment structure.

189) All of the statements about the project life cycle are true except which of the following:
a. The project life cycle consists of five distinct phases
b. The project life cycle is different for every organization
c. The project life cycle works with the project management life cycle to help meet project objectives
d. The project life cycle can be modified depending on the needs of the project

190) Projects can intersect with operations at various points in the lifecycle.
a. Project
b. Product
c. Project management
d. Process development

191) Which of the following is not a phase of project management?

a) Project planning
b) Project scheduling
c) Project controlling
d) Project being

192) The full form of PERT is

a) Program Evaluation and Rate Technology
b) Program Evaluation and Robot Technique
c) Program Evaluation and Robot Technology
d) Program Evaluation and Review Technique

193) The full form of CPM is

a) Critical Path Method
b) Control Path Method
c) Critical Plan Management
d) Control Path Management

194) The shortest possible time in which an activity can be achieved under ideal circumstances is
known as
a) Pessimistic time estimate
b) Optimistic time estimate
c) Expected time estimate
d) The most likely time estimate

195) According to the time estimates made by the PERT planners, the maximum time that would be
needed to complete an activity is called as
a) The most likely time estimate
b) Optimistic time estimate
c) Pessimistic time estimate
d) Expected time estimate

196) Controlling the changes in the project may affect

(A) The progress of the project

(B) Stage cost

(C) Project scope

(D) All of the above

197) Following is (are) the component(s) of risk management
(A) Risk Assessment

(B) Risk Control

(C) Risk Ranking

(D) All of the above

198) Each component of the software product is separately estimated and the results aggregated
to produce an estimate for the overall job.
(A) Algorithmic model

(B) Expert judgment

(C) Bottom-up

(D) Top down

199) The entire process of a project may be considered to be made up on number of sub
process placed in different stage called the
(A) Technical key resources

(B) Work key structure

(C) Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).

(D) None of the above

200) In the initial stage of the project the probability of completing the project is .
(A) Zero

(B) High

(C) Low

(D) Any of the above