THPT QUỐC GIA 42

Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from that of the others in the
group.
Question 1: A. route B. doubt C. trout D. scout
Question 2: A. armchair B. kitchen C. catch D. anchor
Choose the word marked A, B, C, or D which is different from the rest in the position of the main
stress.
Question 3: A. maintain B. retain C. fountain D. entire
Question 4: A. competence B. compliment C. comfortable D. companion
Question 5: A. television B. information C. economic D. engineer
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 6: The speaker will start his speech as soon as everyone has arrived.
A. solve B. commence C. draft D. end
Question 7: He sounded panic-stricken on the phone.
A. terrified B. troubled C. happy D. disappointed
Question 8: Few businesses are flourishing in the present economic climate.
A. taking off B. setting up C. growing well D. closing down
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is
OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions.
Question 9: Although it’s a long day for us, we feel we are contented with what we do.
A. interested B. dissatisfied C. excited D. shocked
Question 10: I can’t stand people who treat animals cruelly.
A. gently B. cleverly C. reasonably D. brutally
Choose the underlined word or phrase marked A, B, C, or D in each sentence that needs
correcting.
Question 11: Every country has their own traditions, some of which have existed for centuries.
A. for B. Every C. their own D. some of which
Question 12: About two-third of my students wish to get a scholarship to study abroad.
A. wish B. to get C. two-thirds D. of my students
Question 13: Miss Mary sang very beautiful at my birthday party last night.
A. beautiful B. sang C. at D. last night
Question 14: People tend to make a lot of shopping at Xmas time.
A. a lot of B. at C. time D. make
Question 15: Several people have apparent tried to change the man’s mind, but he refuses to
listen. A. apparent B. Several C. to listen D. mind
Choose the best answer from A, B, C or D to indicate the right answer to each of the following
sentences.
Question 16: By_______ the household chores, he can help his mother after going home from school.
A. ordering B. making C. having D. doing
Question 17: An endangered species is a species_______ population is so small that it is in danger of
extinction. A. who B. which C. what D. whose
Question 18: When she graduated from the university she got her____________.
A. certificate B. diploma C. bachelor D. degree
Question 19: The telephone rang and interrupted my__________ of thought.
A. train B. line C. chain D. series
Question 20: This book provides students______ useful tips that help them to pass the coming exam.
A. about B. for C. with D. φ
Question 21: - Kelvin: “How do you like your steak done?” - Laura: “___________________.”
A. Very much B. Well-done C. Very little D. I don’t like it much
Question 22: I hope this headache will____________ soon.
A. pass away B. come away C. wear off D. go out
Question 23: All his plans for his own business fell _____________.
A. off B. through C. away D. down
Question 24: Last night Jim had 2 big burgers for dinner and he felt a bit sick_____________.
A. lately B. afterwards C. backward D. before
Question 25: We bought some___________.
A. German old lovely glasses B. lovely old German glasses
C. German lovely old glasses D. old lovely German glasses
Question 26: - Mark: That play is the worst I have ever seen. - Rain: _____________________.
A. I don’t agree all. B. I couldn’t agree more.
C. Not completely true. D. Sorry to interrupt you.
Question 27: He has___________ money in the bank.
A. a lots of B. a large number of C. lot of D. a lot of
Question 28: She was so frightened that she was shaking like___________.
A. a flag B. a leaf C. jelly D. the wind
Question 29: __________ ten minutes earlier, you would have got a better seat.
A. Had you arrived B. If you arrived C. Were you arrived D. If you hadn’t arrived
Question 30: Choose the best arrangement of the sentences marked i, ii, iii, iv to make a short
dialogue. i. What have you got? ii. And what would you like to eat?
iii. I think I’ll have the pizza.
iv. Spaghetti with meat and tomato sauce is very nice, or there is tour-cheese pizza.
A. ii-iv-i-iii B. i-iii-ii-iv C. iv-i-ii-iii D. iii-i-ii-iv
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word for each of the blanks.
Freya Stark (1893- 1993) was an extraordinary woman who ventured into (31)_______ areas
where few Europeans had ever (32)_______ foot. Born in Paris, brought up in Italy, and educated in
London, she was already multilingual before deciding to learn Arabic (33)_______ the end of 30. She
traveled (34)_______ through Greece, Italy and Cyprus. However, her passion was for exploring
ancient lands of the Middle East. She was determined to make contact with the tribes that
populated the area before their traditional (35)_______ of life vanished forever. She led expeditions
into the most dangerous areas and despite the risks (she was even thrown into a military prison on
one occasion), she always returned safe and (36)_______ . During her travels, she completed a
(37)_______ across the Valley of the Assassins, famous not only for its rough terrain but (38)_______
for its murderous inhabitants, and followed in the (39)_______ of Alexander, the Great. In her long
career she produced maps, discovered lost cities, and worked as a spy and propagandist, although
it is as a travel writer that she is best remembered. She died at the age of 100, (40)_______ most
women of her generation in more ways than one.
Question 31: A. remote B. outward C. wide D. far
Question 32: A. placed B. got C. set D. put
Question 33: A. with B. on C. at D. in
Question 34: A. deliberately B. privately C. extensively D. broadly
Question 35: A. nature B. way C. route D. type
Question 36: A. again B. back C. round D. sound
Question 37: A. transfer B. turn C. trek D. track
Question 38: A. neither B. also C. and D. nor
Question 39: A. departure B. footsteps C. time D. trail
Question 40: A. outstaying B. outweighing C. outliving D. outnumbering
Read the passage and choose the best answer marked A, B, C, or D to indicate the right answer
to each of the following questions.
Application for admission to the Graduate School at this university must be made on forms
provided by the Director of Admission. An applicant whose undergraduate work was done at
another institution should request that two copies of undergraduate transcripts and degrees be
sent directly to the Dean of the Graduate School. Both the application and the transcripts must be
on file at least one month prior to the registration date, and must be accompanied by a non-
refundable ten-dollar check or money order to cover the cost of processing the application.
Students who have already been admitted to the Graduate School but were not enrolled
during the previous semester should reapply for admission using a special short form available in
the office of the Graduate School. It is not necessary for students who have previously been denied
admission to resubmit transcripts; however, new application forms must accompany all requests
for reconsideration. Applications should be submitted at least eight weeks in advance of the
session in which the student wishes to enroll. Students whose applications are received after the
deadline may be considered for admission as non-degree students, and may enroll for six credit
hours. Non-degree status must be changed prior to the completion of the first semester of study,
however.
An undergraduate student of this university who has senior status and is within ten credit
hours of completing all requirements for graduation may register for graduate work with the
recommendation of the chairperson of the department and the approval of the Dean of the
Graduate School.
Question 41: What is the author's main point?
A. How to make application for graduation. B. How to obtain senior status.
C. How to apply to the Graduate School. D. How to register for graduate coursework.
Question 42: Where would this passage most probably be found?
A. In a university catalog B. In a travel folder C. In a textbook D. In a newspaper
Question 43: The word “semester” in the passage is closest meaning to_____________.
A. term B. student C. year D. school
Question 44: The word “deadline” in the passage is closest meaning to_____________.
A. closing ceremony B. unexpired C. closing date D. opening ceremony
Question 45: The phrase “in advance of” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to ________.
A. into B. after the end of C. on either side of D. prior to
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46: It is possible that the fire in the ship was started by a bomb.
A. They say that a bomb started the fire in the ship.
B. The fire in the ship might have been started by a bomb.
C. It shall be said the fire in the ship had been started by a bomb.
D. The fire in the ship is known to have been started by a bomb.
Question 47: Had Kathy studied hard, she would have passed the examination.
A. Kathy knew that she would succeed in the examination.
B. But for her hard study, Kathy would have succeed in the examination.
C. Kathy studied very hard but she did not succeed in the examination.
D. Kathy did not study hard, so she failed.
Question 48: There is something about that man’s face that strikes me as very familiar.
A. That man’s face hit me in a familiar way.
B. That man has something that strikes me in the face.
C. I think I have seen that man somewhere before.
D. Something about that man’s face makes me familiar.
Question 49: “When the bell rings take the meat out of the oven,” my sister said.
A. My sister warned me against taking the meat out of the oven when the bell rang.
B. My sister said that when the bell rang I was to take the meat out of the oven.
C. My sister suggested that I should take the meat out of the oven when the bell rang.
D. My sister asked me that when the bell rang to take the meat out of the oven.
Question 50: “Would you mind moving the bicycle?” said the janitor. “It’s in the way.”
A. The janitor advised me to move the bicycle and said that it was in the way.
B. The janitor told me to move the bicycle because it was in the way.
C. The janitor asked if I would mind moving the bicycle and said to me that it was in the way.
D. The janitor suggested moving the bicycle and told that it was in the way.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions .
Human Nutrition is the study of how food affects the health and survival of the human
body. Human beings require food to grow, reproduce, and maintain good health. Without food, our
bodies could not stay warm, build or repair tissue, or maintain the heartbeat. Eating the right foods can
help us avoid certain diseases or recover faster when illness occurs. These and other important functions
are fueled by chemical substances in our food called nutrients. Nutrients are classified as carbohydrates,
proteins, fats, vitamins, minerals, and water.
When we eat a meal, nutrients are released from food through digestion. Digestion begins
in the mouth by the action of chewing and the chemical activity of saliva, a watery fluid that contains
enzymes, certain proteins that help break down food. Further digestion occurs as food travels through the
stomach and the small intestine, where digestive enzymes and acids liquefy food and muscle contractions
push it along the digestive tract. Nutrients are absorbed from the inside of the small intestine into the
bloodstream and carried to the sites in the body where they are needed. At these sites, several chemical
reactions occur, which ensures the growth and function of body tissues. The parts of foods that are not
absorbed continue to move down the intestinal tract and are eliminated from the body as feces.
Once digested, carbohydrates, proteins, and fats provide the body with the energy it needs
to maintain its many functions. Scientists measure this energy in kilocalories, the amount of energy
needed to raise one kilogram of water one degree Celsius. In nutrition discussions, scientists use the term
calorie instead of kilocalorie as the standard unit of measure in nutrition.
Nutrients are classified as essential or nonessential. Nonessential nutrients are
manufactured in the body and do not need to be obtained from food. Examples include cholesterol, a
fatlike substance present in all animal cells. Essential nutrients must be obtained from food sources,
because the body either does not produce them or produces them in amounts too small to maintain growth
and health. Essential nutrients include water, carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, and minerals.
An individual needs varying amounts of each essential nutrient, depending upon such
factors as gender and age. Specific health conditions, such as pregnancy, breast-feeding, illness, or drug
use, make unusual demands on the body and increase its need for nutrients. Dietary guidelines, which
take many of these factors into account, provide general guidance in meeting daily nutritional needs.
From “Human Nutrition” by Worthington-Roberts, Bonnie, Microsoft ® Student 2009.
Question 51: The first paragraph mainly discusses ______.
A. chemical substances in our food
B. a variety of essential nutrients to human beings
C. the importance of food to human beings
D. the study of human nutrition
Question 52: The word “released” in the second paragraph mostly means “ ”
A. refused B. produced C. expressed D. renewed
Question 53: Which of the following is NOT true about the process of digestion
A. The small intestine covers the whole digestive system.
B. The small intestine helps the body absorb nutrients.
C. Nutrients are carried to different sites in the body
D. Saliva plays an important role in the first stage of digestion
Question 54: The word “maintain” in the paragraph is closest meaning to “ ”
A. obtain B. provide C. keep performing D. carry on making
Question 55: According to the passage, nutrients are absorbed ______.
A. over the whole body B. in the mouth
 C. in the stomach D. in the small intestine
Question 56: According to the passage, which of the following provides energy for the body?
A. Proteins, fats, and minerals
B. Carbohydrates, proteins, and fats
C. Carbohydrates, minerals, and water
D. Proteins, vitamins, and carbohydrates
Question 57: In nutrition discussions, the standard unit used to measure nutrients is ________.
A. kilocalorie B. kilogram C. calorie D. gram
Question 58: The word “which” in the last paragraph refers to______.
A. general guidance B. unusual demands C. dietary guidelines D. nutritional needs
Question 59: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Classification of nutrients
B. The body’s need of nutrients
C. The effects of food on the body
D. Food sources from animals
Question 60: Through the passage, the author provides the readers with _______.
A. instructions B. some information C. some proposal D. orders

Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 61: Have a headache (A), an upset stomach, and a bad case of (B) sunburn did not put me
(C) in a good mood (D) for the evening.
Question 62: The (A) Oxford English Dictionary is well known (B) for including many different
meanings (C) of words and to give (D) real examples.
Question 63: Daisy has such (A) many things to do (B) that she has (C) no time to go (D) out.
Question 64: To attract (A) someone's attention we can use (B) either verbal and non- verbal (C) forms
of communication (D).
Question 65: The wooden (A) fence surrounded (B) the factory is beginning to fall down (C) because
of the rain (D).

_______THE END______
 THPT QUỐC GIA 45

SECTION A (8 points):
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part is
pronounced differently from that of the rest in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. chorus B. Christian C. cholesterol D. check
Question 2: A. enough B. rough C. tough D. though
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. ordinary B. emphasis C. decompose D. calendar
Question 4: A. comfortable B. necessary C. community D. memorable
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following
question.
Question 5: The school was closed for a month because of a serious………… of fever.
A. outbreak B. outburst C. outset D. outcome
Question 6: Many plant and animal species are now on the ……………..of extinction.
A. danger B. border C. verge D. margin
Question 7: There you are: the ……………….person I was looking for.
A. utter B. correct C. ever D. very
Question 8: Patient: "Can I make an appointment to see the doctor, please?" Receptionist: “ ……….”
A. Not at the moment. He can't be disturbed. B. OK, you will need to check my diary.
C. OK, let me just check the diary. D. Have a seat and I'll be with you in an hour.
Question 9: My wallet …………..at the station while I …………….for the train.
A. must have been stolen/was waiting B. should have stolen/had been waiting
C. will be stolen/am waiting D. had to steal/would be waiting
Question 10: The new manager………….. very strict rules as soon as he had ………….the position
A. laid down/taken over B. put down/taken over
C. lay down/taken up D. wrote down/come over
Question 11: Newspaper publishers in the States have estimated……… reads a newspaper every day.
A. nearly 80 percent of the adult population who
B. it is nearly 80 percent of the adult population
C. that nearly 80 percent of the adult population who
D. that nearly 80 percent of the adult population
Question 12: “Wow! What a nice coat you are wearing!” – “………….. ”
A. Certainly. Do you like it, too? B. I like you to say that
C. Yes, of course. It‘s expensive D. Thanks. My mother bought it for me.
Question 13: It’s not in my nature to …………over the price of something.
A. haggle B. discuss C. challenge D. transact
Question 14: Although the conditions weren’t ideal for a walk, we decided to ……….a go of it.
A. make B. do C. run D. carry
Question 15: Her outgoing character ………………contrast with that of her sister.
A. sharply B. thoroughly C. fully D. coolly
Question 16: She clearly joined the firm with a (an) ……………to improving herself professionally.
A. view B. aim C. plan D. ambition
Question 17: The curriculum at the public school is ………………as good of any private school.
A. or better than B. as or better than that C. as or better that D. as or better than those
Question 18: Where have you been? You were ………………..to be here half an hour ago.
A. allowed B. had C. supposed D. thought
Read the following passage and blacken the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
Iron production was revolutionized in the early eighteenth century when coke was first used instead of
charcoal for refining iron ore. Previously the poor quality of the iron had restricted its use in architecture
to items such as chains and tie bars for supporting arches, vaults, and walls. With the improvement in
refining ore, it was now possible to make cast-iron beams, columns, and girders. During the nineteenth
century further advances were made, notably Bessemer's process for converting iron into steel, which
made the material more commercially viable.
Iron was rapidly adopted for the construction of bridges, because its strength was far greater than that of
stone or timber, but its use in the architecture of buildings developed more slowly. By 1800 a complete
internal iron skeleton for buildings had been developed in industrial architecture replacing traditional
timber beams, but it generally remained concealed. Apart from its low cost, the appeal of iron as a
building material lay in its strength, its resistance to fire, and its potential to span vast areas. As a result,
iron became increasingly popular as a structural material for more traditional styles of architecture during
the nineteenth century, but it was invariably concealed.
Significantly, the use of exposed iron occurred mainly in the new building types spawned by the
Industrial Revolution: in factories, warehouses, commercial offices, exhibition hall, and railroad stations,
where its practical advantages far outweighed its lack of status. Designers of the railroad stations of the
new age explored the potential of iron, covering huge areas with spans that surpassedthe great vaults of
medieval churches and cathedrals. Paxton's Crystal Palace, designed to house the Great Exhibition of
1851, covered an area of 1.848 feet by 408 feet in prefabricated units of glass set in iron frames. The
Paris Exhibition of 1889 included both the widest span and the greatest height achieved so far with the
Halle Des Machines, spanning 362 feet, and the Eiffel Tower 1,000 feet high. However, these
achievements were mocked by the artistic elite of Paris as expensive and ugly follies. Iron, despite its
structural advantages, had little aesthetic status. The use of an exposed iron structure in the more
traditional styles of architecture was slower to develop.
19. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Advances in iron processing in the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries
B. The effects of the Industrial Revolution on traditional architectural styles
C. Advantages of stone and timber over steel as a building material
D. The evolution of the use of iron in architecture during the 1800's
20.  The word “revolutionized” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. quickly started    B. gradually opened     C. dramatically changed D. carefully examined
21.  According to the passage, iron wasNOTused for beams, columns, and girders prior to the early
eighteenth century because _______.
A. all available iron was needed for other purposes
B. limited mining capability made iron too expensive
C. iron was considered too valuable for use in public buildings
D. the use of charcoal for refining ore produced poor quality iron
22. Iron replaced stone and timber in the building of bridges because iron was considered ______.
A. more beautiful    B. new and modern    C. much stronger      D. easier to transport
23.  The word “it” refers to _________.
A. industrial architecture             B. internal iron skeleton C. stone    D. strength
24.The word “surpassed” is closest in meaning to _______.
A. imitated        B. exceeded         C. approached        D. included
25.  According to paragraph 3, the architectural significance of the Halle Des Machines was its _______.
A. wide span      B. great height       C. unequaled beauty    D. prefabricated unites of glass
26.  How did the artistic elite mentioned in the passage react to the buildings at the Paris Exhibition?
A. They tried to copy them.            B. They ridiculed them.
C. They praised them.               D. They refused to pay to see them.
27.  It can be inferred that the delayed use of exposed iron structures in traditional styles of architecture is
best explained by the _______.
A. impracticality of using iron for small, noncommercial buildings
B. association of iron architecture with the problems of the Industrial Revolution
C. general belief that iron offered less resistance to fire and harsh weather than traditional materials
D. general perception that iron structures were not aesthetically pleasing
28.  The paragraph following the passage most probably discusses _______
A. the gradual inclusion of exposed iron in traditional styles of architecture
B. further improvements in iron processing methods
C. the return to traditional building materials for use in commercial structures
D. the decreased use of stone and timber as a building material

Blacken the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs
correction.
Question 27: Televisions are now an everyday feature of most households in the United States, 
and television viewing is the number one activity leisure .

Question 28: The flamingo constructs a cylindrical mud nest for its egg, which both parents care for it .

Question 29: The rapid growth of the world's population over the past 100 years have led to a 
great increase in the acreage of land under cultivation.

Read the following passage and blacken the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word for each of the blanks
How men first learnt to invent words is unknown; in other words, the origin of language is a (30)…. . All
we really know is that men, unlike animals, somehow invented certain sounds to express thoughts and
feelings, actions and things so that they could communicate with each other; and that later they agreed
(31) …….certain signs, called letters, which could be combined to represent those sounds, and which
could be written down. These sounds, (32)…….. spoken or written in letters, are called words. Great
writers are those who not only have great thoughts but also express these thoughts in words that appeal
powerfully to our minds and emotions. This charming and telling use of words is what we call literacy
type. Above all, the real poet is a master of words. He can (33……..) his meanings in words which sing
like music, and which by their position and association can move men to tears. We should, therefore,
learn to choose our words carefully, (34)……. they will make our speech silly and vulgar.

Question 30: A. story B. secret C. mystery D.legend

Question 31: A. at B. upon C. with D.to
Question 32: A. if B. however C. whether D.though
Question 33: A. carry B. convey C. transfer D.transmit
Question 34: A. or B. so C. although D. because
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 35: If it’s raining tomorrow, we’ll have to postpone the match till Sunday.
A. put off B. cancel C. play D. put away
Question 36: We should find ways to improve our products in terms of quality and packaging.
A. for considering aspects B. in spite of C. with a view to D. in regard to
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 37: The government is encouraging everyone to save water by not washing their cars.
A. conserve B. waste C. avoid D. collect
Question 38: Don’t tease her; she is fragile.
A. strong B. breakable C. angry D. pissed off
Read the following passage and blacken the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the questions.
             Until recently, hunting for treasure from shipwrecks was mostly fantasy; with recent
technological advances, however, the search for sunken treasure has become more popular as a legitimate
endeavor. This has caused a debate between those wanting to salvage the wrecks and those wanting to
preserve them.
          Treasure hunters are spurred on by the thought of finding caches of gold coins or other valuable
objects on a sunken ship. One team of salvagers, for instance, searched the wreck of the RMS Republic,
which sank outside the Boston harbor in 1900. The search party, using side-scan sonar, a device that
projects sound waves across the ocean bottom and produces a profile of the sea floor, located the wreck
in just two and a half days. Before the use of this new technology, such searches could take months or
years. The team of 45 divers searched the wreck for two months, finding silver tea services, crystal
dinnerware, and thousands of bottles of wine, but they did not find the five and a half tons of American
Gold Eagle coins they were searching for.
            Preservationists focus on the historic value of a ship. They say that even if a shipwreck’s treasure
does not have a high monetary value, it can be an invaluable source of historic artifacts that are preserved
in nearly mint condition. But once a salvage team has scoured a site, much of the archaeological value is
lost. Maritime archaeologists who are preservationists worry that the success of salvagers will attract
more treasure-hunting expeditions and thus threaten remaining undiscovered wrecks. Preservationists are
lobbying their state lawmakers to legally restrict underwater searches and unregulated salvages. To
counter their efforts, treasure hunters argue that without the  lure of gold and million-dollar treasures, the
wrecks and their historical artifacts would never be recovered at all
39: What is the main idea of this passage?
A. Searching for wrecks is much easier with new technologies like side-scan sonar.
B. Maritime archaeologists are concerned about the unregulated searching of wrecks.
C. The search of the RMS Republic failed to produce the hoped-for coins.
D. The popularity of treasure seeking has spurred a debate between preservationists and salvagers.

40: The word “sunken” is closest in meaning to which of the following words?
A. broken B. underwater C. ancient D. hollow

41: Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word “legitimate”?

A. justified B. innocent C. prudent D. fundamental

42: From the passage, you can infer that a preservationist would be most likely to
A. do archaeological research B. put treasures in a museum
C. be a diver D. shun treasure-seeking salvagers

43: Which of the following statements is best supported by the author?

A. The value of a shipwreck depends on the quantity of its artifacts.
B. Preservationists are fighting the use of technological advances such as side-scan sonar.
C. Side-scan sonar has helped to legitimize salvaging.
D. The use of sound waves is crucial to locating shipwrecks.

44: The author uses the word “services” to refer to which of the following?
A. cups B. sets C. containers D. decorations

45: The author uses the phrase “mint condition” to describe

A. something perfect B. something significant
C. something tolerant D. something magical

46: All of the following were found on the RMS Republic EXCEPT
A. wine bottles B. silver tea services
C. American Gold Eagle coins D. crystal dinnerware

47: The word “scoured” is most similar to which of the following?

A. scraped away B. scratched over C. scrambled around D. searched through

48: The second and third paragraphs are an example of

A. chronological order B. explanation C. specific to general D. definition

Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to
each of the following questions
Question 49: If it hadn’t been for his carelessness, we would have finished the work.
A. He was careless because he hadn’t finished the work.
B. If her were careful, we would finish the work.
C. If he had been more careful, we would have completed the work.
D. Because he wasn’t careless, we didn’t finish the work.
Question 50: The hostess made every effort to see that her guests got the food and drinks they wanted.
A. The hostess was reluctant to offer her guests food and drinks.
B. The hostess tried hard to please her guests.
C. The guests refused the food and drinks prepared by the hostess.
D. Neither the guests nor the hostess had food or drinks.