Group 4 P3 Project

EDU 259
P3
PROJECT
Submitted by:
Lumacang, Raymund
Llanos, Jenny
Mabunay, Faith
Montecalbo, Cheryl
Montecalbo, Madonna
Submitted to:
Ms. Honey Abella
GEN
001
1. It is a verbal or written communication sent to or left for a recipient who cannot be contacted
directly.
a. community
b. feedback
c. message
d. communication
2. It is the dissemination of information and the implementation of communication practices that
are related to the environment.
a. Barrier
b. context
c. source
d. environment
3. It is the verbal or non-verbal response of the receiver.
a. Message
b. Feedback
c. Communication
d. Channel
4. What are those 8 components of Communication process?
a. Source, Message, Channel, Receiver, Feedback, Environment, Context and
Interference/Barrier
b. Source, Message, Channel, Encoding, Feedback, Environment, Context and
c. Source, Message, Channel, Receiver, Feedback, Environment, Style and
d. Source, Message, Channel, Receiver, Stimulus, Environment, Context and
5. It refers to the quality that makes it possible to judge sounds as “higher” and “lower”.
a. Tempo
b. Juncture
c. Pitch
d. Volume
6. It refers to the power of your voice.
a. Juncture
b. Tempo
c. Pitch
d. Volume
7. Be friendly and _____.
a. Correct
b. Coherent
c. Clearly
d. Courteous
8. Instead of making force behavior we should know _____ strategies.
a. Vital
b. Diplomatic
c. Accurate
d. Corruption
9. “Writing is important for sending our thoughts and feelings. One must have a skill, it is like
talking to someone suing a simple paper and pen.” Is quote by who?
a. Dr. Seuss
b. Dr. Jose Rizal
c. Receiver of the message
d. None of the above
10. How many principles of effective communication are been discussed earlier?
a. 9
b. 10
c. 11
d. 7
11. This is a form of non-verbal communication that is associated with the sense of smell, such as
body odors, use of perfumes, etc.
a. Haptic
b. Kinetic
c. Olfactic
d. Chronemics
12. What principle of effective communication discusses that clarity makes speech
understandable?
a. Considerate
b. Clear
c. Concise
d. Correctness
13. There are _ stages in communication.
a. 12
b. 5
c. 8
d. 13
14. It is a type of communication according to style that employs a formal language that can
inform, entertain, and persuade people.
a. Barrier
b. Formal communication
c. Stages
d. Informal communication
15. . It is the seventh stage in communication stages where it occurs when the receiver has the
interpretation to the intended message of the sender.
a. Understanding
b. Decoding
c. Channel
d. Stimulus
16. A type of communication barriers that occurs during the process of communication.
a. Semantic barriers
b. Noise
c. Process barriers
d. Cultural
17. Communication is derived from the Latin word _________.
a. Communicare
b. Communicate
c. Communicarre
d. Communicase
18. Which is not part of the elements in communication?
a. Sender
b. Noise
c. Medium
d. Recipient
19. It is the most crucial element in communication.
a. Recipient
b. Message
c. Sender
d. Medium
20. Which is not part in the three steps of communication?
a. Message
b. Medium
c. Decoding
d. Encoding
21. Communication is derived from the Latin word__.
a. Communicare
b. Communicate
c. Communicarre
d. Communicase
22. Which is not part of the elements in communication?
a. Sender
b. Noise
c. Medium
d. Recipient
23. It is the most crucial element in communication.
a. Recipient
b. Message
c. Sender
d. Medium
24. Which is not part in the three steps of communication?
a. Message
b. Medium
c. Decoding
d. Encoding
25. How do you write a cohesive paragraph?
a. Identify your topic.
b. Decide on your claim.
c. List the evidences that support your claim.
d. All of the above
26. The speaker relies only on his or her memory to deliver his/her speech.
a. Oration
b. Extemporaneous
c. Impromptu speaking
d. Memorized speech
27. According to Eugene White, what is the most important concept of his model?
a. The message delivered
b. The feedback
c. The sender
d. All of the above
28. The communication on which the communicator wants his/her receivers to pay attention and
understand, but not to change their behavior.
a. Informative Communication
b. Persuasive Communication
c. Argumentative communication
d. Internal
29. Which of the following does not belong in the group?
a. Tactile
b. Microphone
c. Aural
d. Oral
30. The one who delivers the message in the process of communication is the _____________.
a. Noise
b. Channel
c. Receiver
d. Sender
31. What font style should be used in a multimedia presentation?
a. Algerian
b. Kunstler Script
c. Times New Roman
d. Chiller
32. You experience headaches while listening to your teacher. What type of noise is apparent?
a. Semantic
b. Physiological
c. Physical
d. Psychological
33. If the channel is the means of which the communication is delivered, what is the function of the
medium then?
a. It amplifies the communication
b. It replicates the message
c. It refines the message
d. It clarifies the communication
34. These are graphic representations of the proposed elements included in the communication
process which shows the relationship between elements?
a. Communication Models
b. Communication Charts
c. Communication Types
d. Communication Symbols
35. What are the special features of Computer-based presentations_____
a. Custom navigation by linking between slides, to other media and to the Internet
b. All of the above
c. Can be uploaded to the Web
d. Can be made into hard copy printouts or transparencies
36. This type of public speaking requires the two opposite sides to solve a problem through
arguments and arrive at a consensus.
a. Extemporaneous
b. Oration
c. Impromptu speaking
d. Debate
37. The author of Rhetoric who discussed the three primary forms of proof.
a. Tisias
b. Corax
c. Aristotle
d. Protagoras
38. Kris encountered signal interruption while talking to Cassie on the phone. Does this mean that
message passes through?
a. Medium
b. Path
c. Channel
d. Society
39. The real meaning of the message exists within the mind of the speaker. Only then the listener
tries to get the message as accurately as possible. What principle of communication is?
a. Communication is powerful
b. Communication is irreversible
c. Communication is an interpretative act
d. Communication is contextual
40. You are thinking about a lot of problems and you cannot even talk well to your friends. What
type of noise is observed?
a. Physiological
b. Physical
c. Psychological
d. Semantic
41. It is derived from the Latin word “common” which means “belonging to many” and “communico”
means to confer with others.
a. Interaction
b. Communication
c. Socialization
42. The _______ of any communication act is the environment surrounding it. This includes,
among other things, place, time, event, and attitudes of sender and receiver.
a. Context
b. Message
c. Content
43. This is any factor that inhibits the conveyance of a message.
a. Noise
b. Interruption
c. Channel
44. For non-verbal communication, you resort to bodily actions (gestures, eye movements,
posture, etc.) voice quality, space, and time elements to stand for the ideas you want to
express. It is called?
a. Communication is irreversible
b. Communication is symbolic
c. Communication is contextual
45. ___________ is the things you’ve said remain as it is susceptible to different interpretations or
meanings.
46. An exchange of views, ideas, of feelings doesn’t only involve the sender and the ideas you
want to express.
47. It determines whether or not the decoder grasped the intended meaning and whether
communication was successful.
a. Feedback
b. Receiver
c. Noise
d. None of above
48. _______ decides on the message to be sent and the best effective way that it can be sent.
a. Message
b. Sender
c. Receiver
49. It is responsible from extracting meaning from the message.
a. Message
b. Sender
c. Receiver
50. It is responsible for the deliver if the chosen message form. Example: Post office, internet,
television and radio.
a. Feedback
b. Noise
c. Channel
51. People who share the same set of rules in the language system.
a. Speech community
b. None of the above
c. Speech network
52. Language learned while growing up. May also be referred to as first language
a. Second language
b. Mother Tongue
c. First language
53. Other language learned for various reasons Verbal, non-verbal, visual
a. Second language
b. Mother Tongue
c. First language
54. Active listening helps avoid misinterpretation and misunderstanding.
a. The statement is true.
b. The statement is false.
c. The statement is neutral.
55. Type of communication that uses visuals to convey information and/or messages. Some
examples are signs, symbols, imagery, maps, graphs, charts, diagrams etc.
a. Visual communication
b. Audio-visual communication
c. Audio communication
56. The signals of nonverbal communication, such as body language, appearance, and the sound
of the voice.
a. Signal
b. Cues
c. Symbolic
57. It is comprises of codes such as letters, words, and other signs that you need to subject to
language or grammar rules
a. Nonverbal language
b. All of the above
c. Verbal language
58. Communication without the use of language and is symbolic and representational.
a. Nonverbal language
b. All of the above
c. Verbal language
59. It is type of feedback that success response, when the response is what the sender wants.
a. Constructive
b. Composition
c. Destructive
60. Type of feedback that needs clarification and correction.
a. Constructive
b. Composition
c. Destructive
61. A system of pairing sounds with a certain meaning, a code and has a certain rule
a. Phonology
b. Language
c. Communication
d. Linguistic
62. A Feasibility Study is an example of :
a. Verbally formal communication
b. Verbally informal communication
c. Non-verbally formal communication
d. Non-verbally informal communication
63. Complete : Rules: Grammar ; Sounds:_______
a. Phonology
b. Language
c. Onomatopeia
d. Lexicon
64. True or False and why:
Monkeys have their own language system.
a. True, because monkeys understand each other through their own system of
communication.
b. False, because language requires – rules,sounds and grammar.
c. True, because they can produce sounds and gestures.
d. False, because they can’t interpret human language.
65. A group of people sharing a common language or dialect.
a. Speech
b. Language Acquisition
c. Speech Community
d. Communication
66. The process by which humans acquire the capacity to perceive and comprehend language as
well as to produce and use words
a. Language Acquisition
b. Acquired Communication
c. Mother Tongue
d. Language learning
67. Complete: First Language (L1) : Language Acquisition ; Second Language (L2) : ___________
a. Learned Language
b. Acquired Knowledge
c. Language change
d. Language Learning
68. The phenomenon by which speakers of different languages interact with one another, leading
to a transfer of linguistic features.
a. Language contact
b. Language learning
c. Language Acquisition
d. Language context
69. The phenomenon by which permanent alterations are made in the features and the use of a
language over time.
a. Language Acquisition
b. Language Contact
c. Language Change
d. Language Learning
70. Television and video clips are the electronic form of
a. Visual Communication
b. Telecommunication
c. Kinesthetic Communication
d. Virtual communication
71. Circumstance or environment in which communication takes place?
a. Context
b. Contact
c. Concept
d. Setting
72. Blended for an effective communication
a. Verbal
b. Non Verbal
c. Visual
d. Auditory
73. Letters Emails Video Presentations Visual Aids Conversation Public Speaking Etc. are
examples of
a. Channel Mediums
b. Oral communication
c. Written communication
d. Visual Communication
74. Which is not an Important Characteristics of Communication:
a. It is a 2 way process.
b. Communication involves exchange of ideas, feelings, information, thoughts, and
knowledge.
c. Communication does not involve mutuality of understanding between Sender and
Receiver.
d. Communication process happens between or among two or more parties. (Sender and
Receiver)
75. Allows the communicator to adjust his message and be more effective.
a. Effective Communication
b. Message
c. Speech
d. Feedback
76. Is the casual and unofficial form of communication wherein the information is exchanged
spontaneously between two or more persons
a. Informal Communication
b. Formal Communication
c. Verbal Communication
d. Non-Verbal Communication
77. The content of the communication is called:
a. Message
b. Feedback
c. Jargon
d. Noise
78. To convert a message into groups of words, symbols, gestures, or sounds that present ideas
or concepts is called:
a. Encoding
b. Feedback
c. Message
d. Noise
79. Which of the following is an example of non verbal communication media?
a. Time
b. Bulletin board
c. Space
d. Time and space
80. A certain look or glance is an example of:
a. Verbal
b. Oral
c. Written
d. Non verbal
81. Which of the following observes a parallel structure of ideas?
a. Exercise helps people maintaining healthy bodies and handle mental pressures
b. Exercise helps people maintain healthy bodies and handle mental pressures
c. Exercise helps people to maintain healthy bodies and handling mental pressures
d. Exercise helps people maintain healthy bodies and handling mental pressures
82. Provide the correct preposition. Just ____ the three of us, what do you think about the
proposal?
a. Among
b. Between
c. For
d. On
83. Correct the sentence by observing appropriate capitalization.
The keynote speaker, dr. emy poi, will speak on Saturday.
a. The keynote speaker, Dr. Emy Poi, will speak on Saturday
b. The keynote speaker, dr. Emy Poi, will speak on Saturday
c. The Keynote Speaker, Dr. Emy Poi, will speak on Saturday
d. The Keynote Speaker, Dr. Emy Poi, will Speak on Saturday
84. (1) An essay is a focused oral communication, usually from the author’s personal point of view.
(2) It is fictional and informative but can also include narrative. It is usually short – about 500
words.
a. Both statements are true
b. The first statement is true and the second statement is false
c. The first statement is false and the second statement is true
d. Both statements are false.
85. (1) Academic essays are usually longer (2,000 – 5,000 words) and more formal than literary
essays. (2) Academic essays are logical and factual, and the use of first person is
encouraged.
d. Both statements are false
86. (1) Descriptive essay gives details that allow the reader to create a mental picture of a person,
place, object, or event. (2) Persuasive essays use a retelling of events to talk about change or
development of a person.
87. (1) We can say that the author is reliable if he/she is part of a recognized organization. (2) It is
a good source if website and information are updated.
88. Which of the following types of essay has the goal to convince the reader?
a. Persuasive
b. Narrative
c. Descriptive
d. Informative
89. “Nine out of ten dentists agree that fluoride is safe for young teenagers.” What kind of
argument does the statement imply?
a. Pathos
b. Big name
c. Ethos
d. logos
90. “The time is not always on our side. We have to gather what we can save or die with stomachs
unfilled.” The statement shows –
a. Pathos
b. Kairos
c. Ethos
d. Research
91. “The data that we obtained from the police tell us that it is not yet safe to go back to the
streets.” The statement uses –
a. Pathos
b. Kairos
c. Ethos
d. Research
92. “Research by Jones and Xiao (2014) shows that significant analysis has been carried out
relating to these specific human resource management initiatives.” This is an example of –
a. Summarizing
b. Referencing
c. Quoting
d. Paraphrasing
93. Rewriting the writer’s ideas in your own words in a shorter form is what we call _____.
a. Summarizing
b. Referencing
c. Quoting
d. Paraphrasing
94. Which of the following shows the correct APA format (American Psychological Association) for
website?
a. Last name, F.M. (Year, Month, Date published). Article title. Retrieved from URL
b. Last name, F.M. (Month, Date published, Year). Article title. Retrieved from URL
c. Last name, F.M. (Date published, Month, Year). Article title. Retrieved from URL
d. All of the above
95. Which of the following refers to presenting someone else’s work as your own original work?
a. Copy-pasting
b. Copying
c. Plagiarizing
d. Paraphrasing
96. (1) You should make it clear which ideas are yours, and which are the authors in summarizing.
(2) That’s why reference details are important
97. (1) In paraphrasing, it is important to change the meaning of the source. (2) Also, you can
change the words and the word order
98. (1) If something is common knowledge you don’t need to reference it. (2) Common knowledge
usually includes major historical events, famous people, geographic areas.
99. Which of the following processes of communication believes that any process exists to achieve
some outcome thus, it must be open to changes because effective communication is
characterized by the ability to adjust to changing situations?
a. Dynamic
b. Transactional
c. Adaptive
d. Continuous
100. Which of the following processes of communication believes that communication has no
beginning and no end because it is an ongoing process?
a. Dynamic
b. Transactional
c. Adaptive
d. Continuous
ANSWER KEY ***
1. C 61. B
2. D 62. A
3. B 63. A
4. A 64. B
5. C 65. C
6. D 66. A
7. D 67. D
8. B 68. A
9. A 69. C
10. A 70. A
11. C 71. A
12. B 72. A
13. C 73. A
14. A 74. C
15. A 75. D
16. C 76. A
17. A 77. A
18. B 78. A
19. C 79. D
20. B 80. D
21. A 81. B
22. B 82. A
23. C 83. A
24. B 84. A
25. D 85. B
26. D 86. B
27. B 87. A
28. A 88. A
29. A 89. C
30. D 90. B
31. C 91. D
32. C 92. B
33. C 93. A
34. A 94. A
35. B 95. C
36. D 96. A
37. D 97. C
38. C 98. A
39. C 99. C
40. C 100. D
41. B
42. A
43. A
44. B
45. A
46. C
47. A
48. B
49. C
50. C
51. A
52. B
53. A
54. A
55. A
56. B
57. C
58. A
59. A
60. C
GEN
002
1. Genetics and other biological factors that was started by Francis Galton
a. Nurture
b. Genetics
c. Identity
d. Nature
2. The total characteristics and qualities of a person both known and unknown to others and oneself
a. Identity
b. Self
c. Person Volition
d. Personality
3. A result of environmental influences. It started by John Locke
a. Nurture
b. Nature
c. Environmental Based Behavior
d. Ecological Behavior
4. Qualities, beliefs, etc. that make a person or group different from others
a. Self
b. Personality
c. Identity
d. Uniqueness
5. A social factor that affects at the early days of a person's life
a. School
b. Church
c. Friends
d. Family
6. Natural forces become part of our identity/self
a. Environmental Factors
b. Ecological Factors
c. Hereditary Factor
d. Social Factor
7. These are social factors that affect after a person develops independence and withdraws from
strong parental attachment EXCEPT:
a. Family
b. School
c. Church
d. Friends
8. The inclination of a person to form and construct a specific identity that will set him or her apart
from others
a. Personality Development Factor
b. Person-Volition Factor
c. Environmental Factor
d. Social Factor
9. The non-negotiable factor is also known _________.
a. Forced Factor
b. Environmental Factor
c. Social Factor
d. Hereditary Factor
10. His philosophy tells each man his inner self to light. "Know yourself"
a. Plato
b. Aristotle
c. Karl Marx
d. Socrates
11. His philosophy claims to have respect for self. "Respect others as you would respect yourself".
a. Karl Marx
b. Immanuel Kant
c. Rene Descartes
d. Socrates
12. His philosophy introduced Dualism. "I think, therefore I exist"
a. Rene Descartes
b. Aristotle
c. Plato
d. Immanuel Kant
13. His philosophy tells us that self is founded on memory, not the substance of soul or body
a. Karl Marx
b. Rene Descartes
c. John Locke
d. Immanuel Kant
14. His philosophy tells us that self is just a thing to which all perceptions of a man is attributed
a. David Hume
b. David Hum
c. Rene Descartes
d. Rene Descartis
15. A scientific perspective that compares the formation of self to how our immune system works.
a. Immunology
b. Psychoimmunology
c. Psychoneuroimmunology
d. Psychoimmunoneurology
16. A Social Science that is a study of mental processes and human behavior
a. Humanistic
b. Psychology
c. Psychoanalytic
d. Behaviorism
17. A scientific perspective that is concerned about the neurological basis of behavior
a. Psychoneuroimmunlogy
b. Neurophilosophy
c. Sociology
d. Anthropology
18. A type of psychology that behavior should be studied only from observable and measurable, that
behavior is learned and can be unlearned
a. Behaviorism
b. Psychoanalytic Perspective
c. Humanistic
d. Behaviorism Perspective
19. A type of psychology that has a deterministic view and explains the basics of Freud's theory
a. Sigmund Freud Perspective
c. Humanistic
d. Behaviorism
20. A scientific perspective that is concerned with human functioning in the context of society and
institutions.
a. Social Sciences
b. Sociology
c. Political Science
d. Economics
21. The total characteristics and qualities of a person both known and unknown to others and oneself.
a. Identity
b. Self
c. Person Volition
d. Personality
22. It is referred as the performance of ceremonial acts prescribed by a tradition or sacred law.
a. Religion
b. Ritual
c. Spiritual Self
d. Tradition
23. It is considered as one of the most intimate, inner subjective part of the self by William James.
a. Religion
b. Ritual
c. Spiritual Self
d. Tradition
24. It is defined by Rebecca Stein as a set of cultural beliefs and practices that usually includes some
or all of basic characteristics.
a. Religion
b. Ritual
c. Spiritual Self
d. Tradition
25. This group believes that existence is a cycle of birth, death and rebirth governed by Karma.
a. Christianity
b. Islam
c. Judaism
d. Hinduism
26. It means “willing submission to God”

a. Christianity
b. Islam
c. Judaism
d. Hinduism
27. They believe in the God of Abraham and in the coming of Messiah, the Savior.
a. Christianity
b. Islam
c. Judaism
d. Hinduism
28. This religion believes in the three personas: God the Father (Creator), God the Son (Savior) and
God the Holy Spirit (Sustainer).
a. Christianity
b. Islam
c. Judaism
d. Hinduism
29. It is practiced as mindfulness of breathing and development of loving-kindness.

a. Vipassana
b. Salat
c. Samatha
d. Hajj
30. It refers to the prayer that is being practiced five times a day by the Muslims.
a. Vipassana
b. Salat
c. Samatha
d. Hajj
31. This practices aims at developing insight into reality

a. Vipassana
b. Salat
c. Samatha
d. Hajj
from others.
d. Social Factor
33. His philosophy tells each man his inner self to light. “Know yourself”.
a. Plato
b. Aristotle
c. Karl Marx
d. Socrates
34. His philosophy claims to have respect for self. “Respect others as you would respect yourself”.
a. Karl Marx
b. Immanuel Kant
c. Rene Descartes
d. Socrates
35. His philosophy introduced Dualism. “I think, therefore I exist”.

a. Rene Descartes
b. Aristotle
c. Plato
d. Immanuel Kant
36. His philosophy tells us that self is founded on memory, not the substance of soul or body.
a. Karl Marx
b. Rene Descartes
c. John Locke
d. Immanuel Kant
37. His philosophy tells us that self is just a thing to which all perceptions of a man is attributed.
a. David Hume
b. David Hum
c. Rene Descartes
d. Rene Descartis
38. A scientific perspective that compares the formation of self to how our immune system works.
a. Immunology
b. Psychoimmunology
c. Psychoneuroimmunology
d. Psychoimmunoneurology
39. A Social Science that is a study of mental processes and human behavior
a. Humanistic
b. Psychology
c. Psychoanalytic
d. Behaviorism
40. A type of psychology that behavior should be studied only from observable and measurable, that
behavior is learned and can be unlearned
a. Behaviorism
c. Humanistic
d. Behaviorism Perspective
41. Which one refers to a person's spiritual belief and sense of who he is?
a. Physical identity
b. Spiritual identity
c. Religious belief
d. Spiritual aspect
42. Which idea is emphasized? The individual's life belongs not to him but to the group or society of
which he is merely a part, that he has no right, and that he must sacrifice his values and goals for the
group's "greater good".
a. Collectivism
b. Progressivism
c. Individualism
43. Which of these philosophers argues that there are two components of the self, inner self and
outer self?
a. Immanuel Kant
b. John Locke
c. Rene Descrates
44. Which of these philosophers believes that the soul exists before birth and after death?
a. Plato
b. Socrates
c. Aristotle
d. Kant
45. Does community can decrease a person's ability about people and things in the outside world?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Maybe
d. Sometimes
46. Which factor refers to the inclination of a person to form and construct a specific identity that will
set him apart from others?
a. Social
b. Environmental
c. Physical
d. Person volition
47. Rene Descartes said that our mind and thought are true identity and he called it _______.
a. Body
b. Inner self
c. Body
d. Soul
48. Which activity develops by allowing individuals to respond to each other through symbols,
gestures, words, and sounds?
a. Play
b. Activity
c. Language
d. Game
49. Which one is not part of identity toolbox?
a. Age
b. Gender
c. Address
d. Personal appearance
50. Which of the following refers to how you view your physical self?
a. Body image
b. Material self
c. Physical self
d. Self image
51. Which one refers to the total characteristics or qualities of a person both know and unknown to
others?
a. Identity
b. Attribute
c. Self
d. Trait
52. Who is the philosopher who believes in this "the body- dies on earth; soul lives eternally in
spiritual bliss with God?
a. Immanuel Kant
b. John Locke
c. Rene Descrates
d. St. Augustine
53. Who is the proponent of the bundle theory of the self?
a. Immanuel Kant
b. John Locke
c. Rene Descrates
d. St. Augustine
54. Which activities develops the self by allowing individuals to understand and adhere to the rules of
the activity?
a. Games
b. Play
c. Language
55. Which is not an aspect of personality according to Freud?
a. Id
b. Ego
c. Super Ego
d. Alter Ego
56. All are the examples of biological factors EXCEPT?
a. Physical appearance
b. Genetic
c. Heredity
d. Reasoning capacities
57. The following are the four core properties of human agency EXCEPT?
a. Self-direct
b. Self-reflection
c. Forethought
d. Intentionality
58. It has been said that the more difficult a goal is, the harder the people will work to achieve it.
Which goal setting theory is being emphasized?
a. Challenge
b. Complexity
c. Clarity
d. Commitment
59. Which the following statements shows respect in resolving disagreements?
a. Almera's mother considered Alma's misbehavior and takes her slides because Almera is older than
Alma
b. Agatha discussed her I'll feelings with Mario honestly with matching slaps
c. Angel discussed conflicts Ang hurt feelings with Leo with tears of sincerity
60. Which one refers to the representation of your inner self?
a. Personality grooming
b. Self image
c. Personal appearance
d. Personality
61. Which of the following is not included in the most prevailing issues on self?
a. Self vs. Identity
b. Social Factor
c. Nature vs. Nurture
d. Dimensionalities of the Self/Identity
62. According to him, "An unexamined life is not worth living".
a. Plato
b. Rene Descartes
c. Socrates
d. St. Augustine
63. The scientific study of society, social relationships, various cultures, behavior and interaction of
groups or human beings.
a. Philosophy
b. Psychology
c. Anthropology
d. Sociology
64. I am the father" is an example of what fundamental of selves?
a. Relational Self
b. Individual Self
c. Motivational Self
d. Collectivel Self
65. It refers to the identity or feeling of belongingness to a certain culture group. It is an individual’s
perception about himself or herself anchored on race, gender, nationality, religion, ethnicity and
language.
a. Identity
b. Social Self
c. Culture Identity
d. Nationalism
66. It refers to the total characteristics or qualities of a person both known and unknown to others.
a. Trait
b. Self
c. Attribute
d. Identity
67. According to him, "we construct the self".
a. David Hume
b. Aristotle
c. Immanuel Kant
d. Paul Churchland
68. The knowledge comes from logic and reasoning.
a. Idealism
b. Empiricism
c. Rationalism
d. Realism
69. He believed that TIMES present of things PAST, PRESENT and FUTURE are interconnected.
a. Maurice Merleau Ponty
b. Socrates
c. St. Augustine
d. John Locke
70. He posited that postmodern society the self is found in the prestige symbols of goods consumed
by man.
a. Edward Taylor
b. Jean Baudrillard
c. George Herbert Mead
d. Charles Horton Cooley
71. The study of humans, human behavior and societies in the past and present.
a. Psychology
b. Philosophy
c. Political Science
d. Anthropology
72. Which is not part of identity toolbox?
a. Gender
b. Address
c. Age
d. Personal Appearance
73. He is the proponent of three stage process of development of self.
a. Plato
b. Jean Piaget
c. Jean Baudrillard
d. George Herbert Mead
74. It refers to the inclination of a person to form and construct a specific identity that will set him
apart from others.
a. Environment Factor
b. Person Volition Factor
c. Social Factor
d. Physical Factor
75. According to him, "the self is multilayered".
a. Paul Churchland
b. Plato
c. Sigmund Freud
d. Rene Descartes
76. These are social factors that affect after a person develops independence and withdraws from
strong parental attachment EXCEPT:
a. Family
b. School
c. Church
d. Friends
from others
d. Social Factor
78. His philosophy tells each man his inner self to light. "Know yourself"
a. Plato
b. Aristotle
c. Karl Marx
d. Socrates
79. His philosophy claims to have respect for self. "Respect others as you would respect yourself".
a. Karl Marx
b. Immanuel Kant
c. Rene Descartes
d. Socrates
80. His philosophy tells us that self is just a thing to which all perceptions of a man is attributed
a. David Hume
b. David Hum
c. Rene Descartes
d. Rene Descartes
81. Who is the Father of Modern Philosophy?
a. Sigmund Freud
b. Descartes
c. Kant
d. John locke
a. Sigmund Freud
b. Descartes
c. Kant
d. john locke
83.Who is the Father of Modern Philosophy?
a. Sigmund Freud
b. Descartes
c. Kant
d. john locke
a. Sigmund Freud
b. Descartes
c. Kant
d. john locke
a. Sigmund Freud
b. Descartes
c. Kant
d. john locke
a. Sigmund Freud
b. Descartes
c. Kant
d. john locke
a. Sigmund Freud
b. Descartes
c. Kant
d. john locke
a. Sigmund Freud
b. Descartes
c. Kant
d. john locke
a. Sigmund Freud
b. Descartes
c. Kant
d. john locke
a. Sigmund Freud
b. Descartes
c. Kant
d. john locke
a. Sigmund Freud
b. Descartes
c. Kant
d. john locke
a. Sigmund Freud
b. Descartes
c. Kant
d. john locke
a. Sigmund Freud
b. Descartes
c. Kant
d. john locke
a. Sigmund Freud
b. Descartes
c. Kant
d. john locke
95.It refers to the total characteristics or qualities of a person both known and unknown to others.
a. Trait
b. Attribute
c. Self
d. Identity
a. Sigmund Freud
b. Descartes
c. Kant
d. john locke
a. Sigmund Freud
b. Descartes
c. Kant
d. john locke
a. Sigmund Freud
b. Descartes
c. Kant
d. john locke
a. Sigmund Freud
b. Descartes
c. Kant
d. john locke
a. Sigmund Freud
b. Descartes
c. Kant
d. john locke
ANSWER KEY
1. D 35. A 69. C
2. B 36. C 70. A
3. A 37. A 71. D
4. C 38. C 72. B
5. D 39. A 73. D
6. A 40. B 74. B
7. A 41. B 75. C
8. B 42. A 76. A
9. D 43. A 77. B
10. D 44. A 78. D
11. B 45. A 79. B
12. A 46. D 80. A
13. C 47. D 81. B
14. A 48. C 82. C
15. B 49. C 83. A
16. B 50. D 84. A
17. B 51. D 85. B
18. A 52. B 86. C
19. B 53. A 87. D
20. A 54. A 88. D
21. B 55. D 89. C
22. B 56. D 90. C
23. C 57. A 91. B
24. A 58. A 92. B
25. D 59. C 93. B
26. B 60. D 94. B
27. A 61. B 95. C
28. C 62. B 96. B
29. B 63. C 97. A
30. B 64. A 98. D
31. A 65. C 99. B
32. B 66. B 100. B
33. D 67. C
34. B 68. C
GEN
003
1. It is considered to be one of the most important characteristics that human beings possess.
a. the capacity to be creative
b. the capacity to be embarrass
c. the capacity to be neglected
d. the capacity to be maltreated
2. All activities of science are influenced by ____________.
a. cultural-personal factors
b. thought-styles
c. both A & B
3. It refers to a collection of systematic knowledge regarding our surrounding and how best we can
make use of them for ourselves as well as all for all living beings
a. Science
b. Technology
c. Philosophy
d. Ecology
4. What material were the first tools made from?
a. Stones and bones
b. Stones and metal
c. Bones and glass
d. Metal and wood
5. What material did the New Stone age man make their tools out of?
a. Metal
b. Wood
c. Bones
d. Wheat
6. What is the name of the NEW stone age?
a. Paleolithic Era
b. Mesolithic Era
c. Neolithic Era
d. Cave man
7. How did the early caveman get fire?
a. Matches
b. Rubbing rocks together
c. Lightning
d. Volcanos
8. What did the OLD stone age people live in?
a. Caves
b. Houses
c. Tee-pees
d. Villages
9. What is the center of the universe in the geocentric model?
a. Sun
b. Earth
c. Stars
d. Moon
10. What is considered to be the very first technology?
a. Metal spoon
b. Bronze iron
c. Wood knife
d. Stone tool
11. In what era that the use of currency was replaced by barter?
a. Middle Age
b. Stone Age
c. Modern Age
d. Bronze age
12. What theory faces opposition from religious critics?
a. Evolution Theory
b. Theory of Revolution
c. Neolithic Revolution
d. Technology
13. What is Copernicus’ contribution to scientific revolution?
a. Geocentric model
b. Heliocentric model
c. Theory of Revolution
d. Neolithic Revolution
14. What is the challenge of automation to this generation?
a. managing the transition
b. managing the resources
c. organizing funds
d. all of these
15. Which of the following countries are likely to be hardly hit by the coming changes brought about
by automation?
a. developing countries
b. underdeveloped countries
c. developed countries
d. progressive countries
16. The following are approaches to gene therapy that are being tested, Except
a. Replacing a mutated gene that causes disease with a healthy copy of the gene
b. Inserting a gene directly into the organ of interest
c. Inactivating, or “knocking out,” a mutated gene that is functioning improperly
d. Introducing a new gene into the body to help fight a disease
17. According to studies, which of the following is most likely to develop among children who play
violent games?
a. tend to be more aggressive
b. prone to confrontations
c. tend to violent
d. all of these
18. Which of the following is a manifestation of a gadget addict?
a. You are anxious and irritable if you don’t have your favorite electronic gadget with you.
b. You feel very upset when nobody responds to your latest online post.
c. You have experienced chronic pain or have developed spinal and posture problems due to
overusing gadgets.
d. all of these
19. You are a gadget addict if:
a. You find it difficult to separate your online persona (such as a character in a video game), from
your offline (real) self.
b. You have often used your gadget secretly late into the night to shop or visit websites with
inappropriate content.
c. You have experienced chronic pain or have developed spinal and posture problems due to
overusing gadgets.
d. all of these
20. The following are positive effects of gadgets to children; EXCEPT:
a. stimulate senses and imagination
b. promote listening ability
c. prone to violence
d. all of these
21. In what year the Biological Sciences Curriculum Study (BSCS) project was launched by American
Institute of Biological Science, University of Colorado in order yo improve biology education in
secondary schools?
a. 1957
b. 1958
c. 1959
d. 1960
22. On April 2016 the country launched into space its first micro satellite called?
a. Noah
b. Diwata
c. Filipinnovation
d. Caoili
23. He was a brilliant mathematician who had a mystical vision of the mathematical perfection of the
universe that owed a great deal to the ancient Greek Mathematician Pythagoras.
a. Gelileo Galilei
b. Johaness Kepler
c. Isaac Newton
d. Freudian Revolution
24. It was characterized by radical reorientation in science, which emphasized reason over
superstition and Science over blind faith.
a. The Enlightenment Period
b. Industrial Revolution
c. Renaissance
d. Ancient China and the Far East
25. It refers to design manufacture, and use of robots for the personal and commercial use.
a. Virtual Reality
b. 3D
c. Robotic
d. Biotechnology
26. They were the first to explain the world in terms of natural laws than myths about gods and
heroes.
a. Greeks
b. Romans
c. Spanish
d. Americans
27. This is the program that established by DOST that significant to the field of S&T.
a. Science and Technology Agenda for National Development
b. National Science and Technology Authority
c. Science, Technology and Innovations
d. Philippine Atmospheric Geophysical and Astronomical Service Administration
28. Who is the first Asian woman admitted into Harvard, she pursued graduate degrees in America
after receiving her medical degree from the University of the Philippines?
a. Aisa Mijeno
b. Angel Alcala
c. Fe V. del Mundo
d. Maria Y. Orosa
29. It was a Period of Cultural, Economic, and Scientific flourishing in the history of Islam, traditionally
dated from the eighth century to the fourteenth century?
a. Industrial Revolution
b. Islamic Golden Age
c. The Renaissance
d. The Advent of Science
30. In what year that Glenn Seaborg proposed an “actinide hypothesis”?
a. 1965
b. 1999
c. 1944
d. 1947
31. When Pres. Ferdinand Marcos proclaimed the 35 hectare land in Bicuta Taguig as the site of the
Philippines Science Community?
a. April 6, 1968
b. October 20 1979
c. January 4 1967
d. Nov 27 1986
32. In 1946, it was replaced by the Institute of Science and was placed under the Office of the
President of the Philippines.
a. Bureau of Government Laboratories
b. Bureau of Science and Technology
c. National Science Development Board
d. Bureau of Science
33. It offers immerse digital experiences that simulate the real world, while augmented reality merges
the digital and physical worlds.
a. Robotics
b. Artificial Intelligence
c. 3D Printing
d. Virtual Reality
34. He suggested that paradigm includes “the practices that define a scientific discipline at a certain
point in time”.
a. Isaac Newton
b. Copernicus
c. Thomas Kuhn
d. Tycho Brahe
35. The most influential figure in Western science until the 1600’s.
a. Johannes Kepler
b. Aristotle
c. Galileo
d. Isaac Newton
36. Scientific thought in classical antiquity becomes tangible from what century?
a. 20th century
b. 6th century
c. 15th century
d. 4th century
37. It is an evolving body of knowledge that is based on theoretical expositions and experimental and
empirical activities that generate universal truths.
a. Mathematics
b. Science
c. Economics
d. English
38. Which of the following is the Role of Science and Technology?
I. Have the power to better the lives of poor people in developing countries
II. Differentiators between countries that are able to tackle poverty effectively by growing and
developing their economies, and those that are not.
III. Engine of growth
IV. Interventions for cognitive enhancement, proton cancer therapy and genetic engineering
a. I only
b. . I and III only
c. I, II, and III only
d. I, II, III and IV
39. Who is first person who started this slow process of dismantling Aristotle’s cosmology?
a. Johannes Kepler
b. Copernicus
c. Isaac Newton
d. Galileo
40. He is a Filipino scientist, inventor and horticulturist who is known for his successful experiment on
the inducement of flowering of Mango trees.
a. Fe V. del Mundo
b. Ramon C. Barba
c. Maria Y. Orosa
d. Angel Alcala
41. Which of the following is the process of comparing one quantity with the corresponding standard?
a. Formulations
b. Interpolation
c. Extrapolation
d. Measurements
42. Which of the following is the best definition of matter?
a. Anything that has weight and volume
b. Anything that has mass and shape
c. Anything that has weight and mass
d. Anything that has mass and volume
43. The following are the unsolved problems on gene therapy, EXCEPT
a. Immune Response
b. Short-lived Nature
c. Multigene Disorders
44. Which of the following refers on the therapeutic delivery of nucleic acid into a patient's cells as a
drug to treat disease?
a. Germline
b. Stem Cell Therapy
c. Germline Gene Therapy
d. Gene Therapy
45. Which of the following is modifying a germ cell causes all the organism's cells to contain the
modified gene?
a. Germline
b. Stem Cell Therapy
c. Germline Gene Therapy
d. Gene Therapy
a. Sun
b. Stars
c. Earth
d. Moon
47. What is considered to be the very first technology?
a. Stone tool
b. Wood knife
c. bronze iron
d. Metal spoon
48. Science and culture are mutually interactive. What does this imply?
a. Culture affect science
b. Science affects culture
c. Both A & B
49. Which of the following refers to a collection of systematic knowledge regarding our surrounding
and how best we can make use of them for ourselves as well as all for all living things?
a. Technology
b. Ecology
c. Philosophy
d. Science
50. In a flame test, what is the color of the flame if there is a presence of boron in a solution?
a. Brick red
b. Royal blue
c. Yellow gold
d. Bright green
51. What is the time period of first generations computer?
a. 1946-1959
b. 1956-1987
c. 1959-1965
d. 1939-1945
52. Which of the following is not an example of software?
a. Mouse
b. Safari
c. Ms office
d. Chrome
53. What planet in our solar system has the strongest gravity?
a. Neptune
b. Jupiter
c. Earth
d. Mercury
54. Which bone is the longest in the human body?
a. Fermur
b. Sternum
c. Tibia
55. In what age that the use of currency was replaced by barter?
a. Bronze Age
b. Stone Age
c. Modern Age
d. Middle Age
56. Which planet in the solar system has the most moon?
a. Saturn
b. Mars
c. Jupiter
d. Mercury
57. Which of the following was the first planet discovered by the telescope?
a. Pluto
b. Uranus
c. Venus
58. Which of the following is the chemical symbol for Table Salt?
a. NaCl
b. Zn
c. Fl
59. What is the Latin term for"Science"?
a. Sciantia
b. Scientia
c. Scientists
d. All of the above
60. Who was the founder of psychoanalysis?
a. Alfred Wallace
b. Nicolaus Copernicus
c. Charles Darwin
d. Sigmund Freud
61. In what year the Biological Sciences Curriculum Study (BSCS) project was launched by American
Institute of Biological Science, University of Colorado in order to improve biology education in
secondary schools?
a. 1957
b. 1958
c. 1959
d. 1960
62. On April 2016 the country launched into space its first micro satellite called?
a. Noah
b. Diwata
c. Filipinnovation
d. Caoili
63. He was a brilliant mathematician who had a mystical vision of the mathematical perfection of the
universe that owed a great deal to the ancient Greek mathematician Pythagoras
a. Gelileo Galilei
b. Johaness Kepler
c. Isaac Newton
d. Freudian Revolution
64. It was characterized by radical reorientation in science, which emphasized reason over
superstition and science over blind faith
a. The Enlightenment Period
b. Industrial Revolution
c. Renaissance
d. Ancient China and the Far East
a. Virtual Reality
b. 3D
c. Robotic
d. Biotechnology
66. They were the first to explain the world in terms of natural laws than myths about gods and
heroes.
a. Greeks
b. Romans
c. Spanish
d. Americans
67. This is the program that established by DOST that significant to the field of S&T.
a. Science and Technology Agenda for National Development
b. National Science and Technology Authority
c. Science, Technology and Innovations
d. Philippine Atmospheric Geophysical and Astronomical Service Administration
68. Who is the first Asian woman admitted into Harvard, she pursued graduate degrees in America
after receiving her medical degree from the University of the Philippines?
a. Aisa Mijeno
b. Angel Alcala
c. Fe V. del Mundo
d. Maria Y. Orosa
69. It was a Period of Cultural, Economic, and Scientific flourishing in the history of Islam, traditionally
dated from the eighth century to the fourteenth century?
c. The Renaissance
70. In 1946, it was replaced by the Institute of Science and was placed under the Office of the
President of the Philippines.
a. Bureau of Government Laboratories
b. Bureau of Science and Technology
c. National Science Development Board
d. Bureau of Science
71. During this stage, all humans were hunter-gatherers.
a. Iron Age
b. Stone Age
c. Bronze Age
d. Middle Ages
72. Technology deals with
a. Discoveries
b. scientific method
c. creating things
d. solving problems
73. It serves as a tenant for modern genetics research.
a. psychoanalysis theory
b. geocentrism
c. heliocentrism
d. evolutionary theory
74. The period of enlightenment when the developments in the fields of mathematics and science
transformed the views of society about nature.
a. Neolithic revolution
b. Scientific revolution
c. Darwinian revolution
d. Copernican revolution
75. He was the founder of psychoanalysis.
a. Charles Darwin
b. Nicolaus Copernicus
c. Sigmund Freud
d. Alfred Wallace
76. It is considered to be one of the most important characteristics that human beings possess.
a. the capacity to be creative
b. the capacity to be embarrass
c. the capacity to be neglected
d. the capacity to be maltreated
77. What material were the first tools made from?
a. Stones and bones
b. Stones and metal
c. Bones and glass
d. Metal and wood
78. It was a Period of Cultural, Economic, and Scientific flourishing in the history of Islam,
traditionally dated from the eighth century to the fourteenth century?
c. The Renaissance
a. Sun
Earth
b. Stars
c. Moon
a. Virtual Reality
b. 3D
c. Robotic
d. Biotechnology
81. The course seeks to instill reflective knowledge in the students that they are able to live the good
life and display ethical decision making in the face of scientific and technological advancement.
Contemporary World
a. Science, Technology & Society
b. Purposive Communication
c. Marketing Management
82. An interdisciplinary field that studies the conditions under which the production, distribution and
utilization of scientific knowledge and technological systems occur; and the consequences of these
activities upon different groups of people.
a. Purposive Communication
b. IT Application Tools in Business
c. Science, Technology & Society
d. Computer Science
83. It is systematic knowledge based on facts, nature, formulated through careful observation,
experimentation, and research.
a. Society
b. Technology
c. Science
d. Theology
84. Machinery and equipment developed from the application of scientific and theoretical knowledge.
a. Mathematics
b. Science
c. Society
d. Technology
85. A group of individuals involved in persistent social interaction sharing the same geographical or
social territory.
a. Science
b. English
c. Mathematics
d. Society
86. On the history of STS in the Philippines: The early Filipino natives have already activities linked to
STS. Which of the ff are these?
a. Penicillin
b. Antibiotic
c. Herbs and Herbal Medicines
d. Fire, Light & Heat
87. On the History of STS in the Philippines, what was the native Filipinos' system of writing?
a. Alibaba
b. Alibata
c. Alamat
d. Ulam
88. Our native Filipinos used ______ for recording purposes.
a. Paper
b. bark of a tree
c. clay
d. stones
89. The native Filipinos were already engaged in farming. What was the product of engineering
during the pre-Spanish era?
a. Banaue Rice Terraces
b. Clay pots making
c. Mat weaving
d. Animal husbandry
90. Who landed in Homonhon island Philippines on March 16, 1521?
a. Luis de Velasco
b. Miguel Lopez de Legazpi
c. Ferdinand Magellan
d. Father Villarama
91. The colonization of the Philippines contributed to the growth of Science and Technology. Who
introduced formal education and founded scientific institution?
a. Americans
b. Spaniards
c. Portuguese
d. Japanese
92. Who was the Philippine president who recognized that science and technology were the leading
factors in economic development of the country and funded projects for applied sciences and science
education?
a. Manuel L. Quezon
b. Diosdado Macapagal
c. Corazon C. Aquino
d. Ferdinand E. Marcos
93. A volcanologist uses a drone to take photos of an erupting volcano. The drone protects the
volcanologist from any dangers of visiting the volcano in person. This is an example of -------------.
a. An engineer using technology designed by an engineer to take a photo
b. An engineer using technology designed by a scientist to take a photo
c. A scientist who spends too much money on taking photos of dangerous places
94. In 2044, the population of Earth will increase by one billion people. This means we will need more
food and crops. What kind of engineers will we need to solve this problem?
a. Civil engineers
b. Medical engineers
c. Mechanical engineers
d. Agricultural engineers
95. A person who uses his or her creativity and understanding of materials, tools, mathematics, and
science to design things that solve problems.
a. Scientist
b. Engineer
c. Artist
d. Mechanic
96. The ultimate purpose of engineering is to ____________?
a. build things
b. fix things
c. solve problems
d. create problems
97. Thomas Edison's invention of the lightbulb has affected every person's day-to-day life. This is an
example of how technology has affected ______.
a. Society
b. the economy
c. politics
d. the environment
98. The study of technology should look at how the development of new technology affects humans
at both the:
a. local level and global level
b. workplace and at home
c. school and home
d. time of birth and time of death
99. A working model of your design - often smaller than the actual version
a. Input
b. Output
c. Prototype
d. Rough Draft
100. A group of people that share similar values and beliefs is called a ______.
a. culture
b. society
c. scientist
d. country
ANSWER KEY :
1. A 35. B 70. D
2. A 36. B 71. A
3. A 37. B 72. C
4. A 38. D 73. D
5. C 39. B 74. B
6. B 40. B 75. C
7. B 41. D 76. A
8. A 42. D 77. A
9. B 43. D 78. B
10. D 44. D 79. B
11. A 45. C 80. C
12. A 46. C 81.B
13. B 47. A 82. C
14. A 48.C 83. C
15. C 49. D 84. C
16. B 50. D 85. D
17. D 51. A 86. D
18. D 52. A 87. B
19. D 53. B 88. D
20. C 54. A 89. A
21. C 55. D 90. C
22. B 56. A 91. B
23. B 57. B 92. D
24. A 58. A 93. C
25. C 59. B 94. D
26. A 60. D 95. B
27. A 61. C 96. C
28. C 62. B 97. A
29. B 63. B 98. A
30. C 64. A 99. C
31. A 65. C 100. B
32. D 66. A
33. D 67. A
34. C 69. B
GEN
005
1. Westernization refers to the Western world which are the various regions, nations and states,
depending on the context, most often consists of the majority of Europe, the Americas and
_____
a. Eurasia
b. Middle East
c. Australasia
d. Africa
2. The strong family ties between Filipino members are eroding and the respect for elders are
diminishing. This situation is an effect that exemplifies which concept?
a. Globalization
b. Liberalization
c. Internationalization
d. Westernization
3. Being Westernized, the Filipinos learned which aspect from the Spanish colonization?
a. Building codes
b. Sports on ball games
c. Roman Catholic Religion
d. Police system
4. Which among the following is NOT true about Westernization?
a. Same sex marriage started as a Western culture and adopted by almost all countries in the
world.
b. Legalizing marijuana as medicine is a western solution to help chronically ill persons.
c. Westernization is the removal of restrictions on human activities.
d. Westernization greatly affects other countries traditions, customs, family, and our love and
respect for others.
5. Which type of globalization refers to the organization of different countries into trade blocs
such as European Union to help spread ideologies like democracy, protect human rights, etc.?
a. Financial globalization
b. Political globalization
c. Economic globalization
d. Cultural globalization
6. The number of independent financial institutions is declining as mergers and acquisitions result
in larger financial institutions. This situation best describes which development of financial
globalization?
a. Globalization of operations
b. Emergence of new technologies
c. Consolidation of financial institutions
d. Universalization of banking
7. European, American, and Asian financial institutions increasingly linked, and major banks in
the industrial world are acquiring banks in developing countries. This only implies which
development of financial globalization?
a. Globalization of operations
b. Emergence of new technologies
c. Consolidation of financial institutions
d. Universalization of banking
8. Which form of globalization is responsible for the emergence of multinational corporations
producing and exporting goods as they obtain capital, technology, and access to distribution
networks?
a. Financial globalization
b. Political globalization
c. Economic globalization
d. Cultural globalization
9. Which one is about the increased role of globally organized management institutions,
knowledge systems and monitoring, and coordinated strategies aimed at resource, energy,
and conservation issues?
a. Cultural globalization
b. Criminal globalization
c. Environmental globalization
d. Military globalization
10. Which one includes trans-border crimes, such as drug trafficking, money laundering,
prostitution, alien smuggling, arms trafficking, and counterfeiting?
11. The most obvious example of this form of globalization is the nuclear age and the proliferation
of weapons of mass destruction. Which form is this?
12. Which is another term for crimes of globalization?
a. trans-border crimes
b. global crimes
c. National crimes
d. transnational crimes
13. Which among the following statements is FALSE?
a. Poor countries with pollution will suffer the most from climate change.
b. Part of military globalization are the nuclear age and weapons of mass destruction
c. Globalization prohibited international terrorists to achieve their crime/terrorism goals.
d. Terrorists and criminals used the instruments of globalization to achieve their objectives.
14. Which one basically refers to how easily 2 or more markets can trade with each other?
a. Global economy
b. Market integration
c. Foreign Exchange
d. Conglomeration
15. All are reasons for market integration EXCEPT ____
a. To remove transaction costs
b. Foster competition
c. Provide better signals for optimal generation and consumption decisions.
d. Maintain security of supply
16. Which one best describes how foreign trade helps the integration of markets?
a. Foreign trade reduces barriers to trade and increases fluidity between markets.
b. Foreign trade promotes integration of market by making way to its blocks.
c. Foreign trade is not responsible for the integration of markets
d. Foreign trade is breaking the global policies for market integration
17. Which one occurs when a firm or agency gains control of other firms or agencies performing
similar marketing functions at the same level in the marketing sequence?
a. Vertical integration
b. Horizontal integration
c. Conglomeration
d. Market integration
18. When a wholesaler assumes the function of retailing is an example of which type of vertical
integration?
a. Forward integration
b. Backward integration
c. Balanced vertical integration
d. Middle market integration
19. When a processing firm assumes the function of assembling/purchasing the produce from the
villages is an example of which vertical integration?
a. Forward integration
b. Backward integration
c. Balanced vertical integration
d. Middle market integration
20. SM Group of Companies, Lucio Tan Group of Companies, Gokongwei Group of Companies,
PHINMA Group of Companies and the likes are examples of what type of market integration?
a. Vertical integration
b. Horizontal integration
c. Conglomeration
d. Market integration
21. Which is not a component of globalization?
a. Economic globalization
b. Cultural globalization
c. Citizen globalization
d. Political globalization
22. When prices among different location or related goods follow the same pattern over a long
period of time, ________________ exist.
a. Globalization
b. World market
c. Market integration
d. Foreign direct investment
23. It is an international financial institution that provides loans and grants to the governments of
poorer countries for the purpose of pursuing capital projects.
a. World Bank
b. International Monetary Fund
c. United Nations
d. World Trade Organization
24. A ____ exists the government spends more than it collects in revenues
a. Red-line budget
b. Budget deficit
c. Surplus budget
d. Balanced budget
25. What caused the Cold War to intensify in 1979?
a. Gorbachev’s Perestroika
b. U.S. invasion of Iraq
c. Boris Yeltsin’s presidency of Russia
d. Soviet invasion of Afghanistan
26. Why have the United States, Great Britain, Canada and France alternated between liberal and
conservative leaders from 1970 to today?
a. They wanted to stabilize their economies
b. They went the popular charismatic candidates
c. They wanted to give bipartisanship a chance
d. The could not decide which they liked better
27. ______polices require that women must make up either a certain number of the candidates in
an election of a certain number of those elected.
a. Gender party
b. Equality
c. Gender stereotyping
d. Discrimination
28. What resulted from Reagan’s military build up in the 1980s?
a. A bull market
b. Record budget deficits
c. A record budget surplus
d. The invasion of Iraq
29. How do organizations cope with the challenges of globalization?
a. By forming regional organizations
b. By forming political network
c. By forming social relations
d. By forming eco-net
30. Which of the following is not included in the areas encompassed by regionalism
a. Ethics
b. Identities
c. Health
d. Sustainable Development
31. An example of large country which has a lot of resources to dictate how it participates in
processes of global integration
a. China
b. Singapore
c. Japan
d. USA
32. Why countries form regional associations ?
a. Civil War
b. European conflict
c. Military Defense
d. Economic Plan
33. Economic crisis compels countries together. An example of this is,
a. When Thailand’s economy collapsed, ASEAN countries agreed to establish an emergency
fund to anticipate the crisis
b. When foreign currency speculators demanded the Asian government payback its loan.
c. IMF reversed the crisis
d. When Vietnam invaded Cambodia
34. The most serious challenge faced by regionalism
a. Differing visions of regionalism
b. Disagreement among members
c. Resurgence of militant nationalism and populism
d. Financial Crisis
35. Globalization is spatial because it occurs in physical places. Which of the following does not
support the statement?
a. Foreign investments and capital move through cities
b. People start purchasing high rise condominium
c. More poor people are driven out of city centers
d. Cities act on globalization and globalization acts on cities.
36. Ethnic enclaves where poor muslim migrants are forced out of Paris
a. Banlieu
b. Gentrification
c. Cyberbalkanization
d. Splinter
37. The sociologist popularized the term Global City
a. Saskia Sassen
b. Herbert Schiller
c. Peter Berger
d. Max Weber
38. A city most preferred by Filipino nurses
a. London
b. San Francisco
c. Ottawa
d. Australia
39. When economies slow down, this strategy will reinvigorate markets with infusions of capital.
a. Neoliberalism
b. Bretton Woods
c. Keynesianism
d. Washing Consensus
40. Exchange rate system was all based on the value of gold, but it was replaced by a currency
which is determined by their cost to other currencies.
a. Dollar currency
b. Silver
c. Fiat currency
d. Philippine Peso
41. It is the removal or reduction of restrictions or barriers on the free exchange of goods between
nations.
a. Westernization
b. Industrialization
c. Liberalization
d. Trade Liberalization
42. The following are the strategies to enhance protection and empower for personal security
EXCEPT
a. Protection of Human Rights
b. Rule of Law
c. Explicit and enforced protection of Human Rights and civil liberties
43. It refers to mutual activity between countries that benefit both parties.
a. Westernization
c. Liberalization
d. Internalization
44. The following are the factors of globalization of infectious disease EXCEPT
a. Poverty
b. Modern Medical Practices
c. Technology
d. Refugees and Migration
45. What do you call to someone who goes to a foreign country to become a permanent resident?
a. Displaced person
b. Refugees
c. Migrant
d. Immigrant
46. It is the movement of people back to the country from which they originally emigrated.
a. Urban-to-Urban Migration
b. Rural-to-Rural Migration
c. Transit Migration
d. Return Migration
47. Any process that relates the use of money.
a. Financial
b. Military
c. Economic
d. Cultures
48. Circumstances that involving illegal activities relationg to crime.
a. Criminal
b. Homicide
c. Murder
d. All of the above
49. It is the process whereby the societies come under of adopt western.
a. Westernization
c. Liberalization
d. Internalization
50. A tax on goods coming into or leaving a country.
a. Import quotas c. Import licenses
b. export licenses
c. Import licenses
d. Tariffs
51. Relating to a particular group of people and their habits beliefs tradition and etc.
a. Political
b. Cultures
c. Economic
d. Environmental
52. Relating to the process by which good ls and services are produced sold Ang bought.
a. Political
b. Cultures
c. Economic
d. Environmental
53. It is fuelled by increasing economic opportunities in a country or group of neighboring
countries.
a. Rural-to-Rural Migration
b. Urban-to-Urban Migration
c. Regional Migration
d. Rural-to-Urban Migration
54. When people move from one city to another to find employment.
a. Rural-to-Rural Migration
b. Urban-to-Urban Migration
c. Regional Migration
d. Rural-to-Urban Migration
55. Why countries form regional associations?
a. Civil war
b. Military defense
c. European conflict
d. Economic plan
56. Most widely known defense group.
a. OPEC
b. NAM
c. IMF
d. NATO
57. Which of the following is not included in the areas encompassed by regionalism?
a. Identities
b. Health
c. Ethics
d. Sustainable Development
58. How do organizations cope with the challenges of globalization.
a. By forming regional organization
b. By forming political network
c. By forming social relations
d. By forming eco-net
59. The conditions that surround someone that affect the growth, health, progress, and etc.
a. Environmental
b. Political
c. Economic
d. Criminal
60. Grant permissions to conduct a certain type of transaction.
a. tariffs
b. Import licenses
c. Export licenses
d. Import quotas
61. When was the term 'United Nations' created?
a. Before World War II.
b. During World War II.
c. After World War II.
d. None of them
62. Mustafa is a world-systems theorist who studies the world's most powerful countries and
outlines how those nations take the largest shares of the world's wealth. He is studying what
kind of countries?
a. Core
b. Peripheral
c. Semiperipheral
d. futuristic
63. Kashaf was born from a Pakistani family who migrated and lived in Tuscany,Italy. Her parents
work at a wine vineyard earning $98,754 annually. Based on World Bank’s data, which income
classification does Kashaf’s family belong to?
a. lower-middle income
b. upper-middle
c. high income
d. low-income
64. Sarah Culberson is the real life Mia Thermopolis who discovered at age 28 that she is part of
the Sierra Leone royal family. But being a princess was not everything you see in the movies.
In 2004, the country was just coming out of an 11-year civil war that had left more than 50,000
people dead. Based on World Bank’s data, which income classification does Sarah’s country
belong to?
a. lower-middle income
b. upper-middle
c. high-income
d. low income
65. Damage to the Environment Food and Security
a. Leapfrogging
b. Environmental Degradation
c. Environmentalist
66. Global forces interest with local factors
a. Glocal
b. Jihad
c. Free-trade
d. Trade
67. The concern of social, economic, and environmental well-being of marginalized small
producers
a. Interconnectedness
b. Economic Globalization
c. Trade Liberalization
d. Fair Trade
68. Emphasizes the organic ties that hold groups of people together and inspire a sense of loyalty
and belonging
a. Nation
b. Homogeneity
c. Nation-State
d. Economic Globalization
69. Abundance of the resources of the country
a. Income
b. Wealth
c. Fund
d. Gold
70. The result of human innovation, and technological progress. It also refers to the increasing
integration of economies around the world.
a. Globalization
b. Technological Innovation
c. Economic Globalization
d. Culture
71. Which is not an element of state
a. Population
b. Religion
c. Territory
d. Government
72. Regional alliance and worldwide organizations of states
a. Global Interstate
b. Nation-state
c. United Nation
d. Asean
73. Network of connections that transcends distances of different countries of the world.
a. Internationalization
b. Global Interstate System
c. Globalism
d. Globalization
74. A political unit that has authority over its own affairs.
a. Nation
b. Region
c. Government
d. State
75. The countries in European Union are able to export and import in each other country smoothly
because of lesser tariff.
a. Protectionism
b. Fair trade
c. Free Trade
d. Leapfrogging
76. Which is an example for internalization?
a. Filipinos were trained to be globally competitive professionals and can be found working
around the world and bring their culture and skills with them, like Nurses,Engineers,
Teachers, etc.
b. The reduction of the tariffs and government regulations
c. The removal of trade barriers among countries reduce the costs of goods.
d. The increase of relative returns to agriculture can hasten deforestation and soil depletion.
77. Which is a cultural transformation that is normally associated with capitalism, freedom of
thought and expression?
a. Globalization
b. Liberalization
c. Internationalization
d. Westernization
78. Westernization refers to the Western world which are the various regions, nations and states,
depending on the context, most often consists of the majority of Europe, the Americas and
_____
a. Eurasia
b. Middle East
c. Australasia
d. Africa
79. Regional alliance and worldwide organizations of states
a. Global Interstate
b. Nation-state
c. United Nation
d. ASEAN
80. Abundance of the resources of the country
a. Income
b. Wealth
c. Fund
d. Gold
81. A group of people who has the ultimate authority to act on behalf of a state is called ______.
a. Corporation
b. Tribe
c. Government
d. Church
82. This refers to the expansion and intensification of social relations and consciousness across
world-time and world-space.
a. Globalization
b. Globalism
c. Globality
d. Global village
83. These are importers and exporters without investments outside their home countries.
a. Global Companies
b. MNCs
c. TNCs
d. International Companies
84. This is defined as a political community that emanates from civic society to legitimately
execute peace.
a. State
b. Nation-State
c. Nation
d. Country
85. It is the growth of social integration within a region and to the often undirected processes of
societal and economic interaction.
a. Regionality
b. Regionalization
c. Regionalism
86. It is the movement of people, things, places, and information brought by the growing porosity
of global limitations.
a. Flows
b. Liquid
c. Solid
d. Globalization
87. Culture influences other culture, a phrase best described the _____
a. Cultural Imperialism
b. Media Imperialism
c. Homogeneity
d. Heterogeneity
88. It is a process wherein nations, corporations, etc. impose themselves in a geographic areas in
order to gain profits, power, and so on.
a. Globalization
b. Glocalization
c. McDonaldization
d. McWorld
89. According to Arjun Appadurai, globalization happens in multiple areas. This could be an____.
a. idea, material and nonmaterial culture
b. music, food and dance
c. money, economics and trade
d. All of the above
90. It is identified as the variety of accelerating economic, political, cultural, ideological and
environmental processes that are rapidly altering our experience of the world.
a. Intensification
b. Globalization
c. Integration of Markets
91. The world economic system is characterized by a three-level hierarchy with some countries
benefit while others are exploited.
a. Semi-periphery countries
b. Global Capitalism
c. World Systems Theory
92. Which would best describe Economic Globalization?
a. It facilitates global reputation, cheaper labor costs and fresh ideas.
b. The dominant capitalist countries exploit peripheral countries for labor and raw materials.
c. It requires global war on terror.
d. All of the above
93. How would you identity economic globalization?
a. There is a diminishing economic and social significance of boundaries among nation states.
b. The world money is being spread around as goods, products, and technology from one
country to another.
c. There is an acceleration of economic activities leading to the destruction of barriers and
distances.
d. All of the above
94. Economic integration does more good than harm.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Both a and b
95. It is a role of the United Nations that is facilitated through harmonization of laws and its other
methods
a. Expanding economic globalization by creating jobs and lowering the prices of goods
b. Assisting in alleviating poverty, hunger, disease, illiteracy and encouraging human rights
c. Integrating the economies through the process of procuring goods, services, and capital.
d. All of the above
96. It is the organ of United Nations that maintains international peace and security that
recommends the appointment of the Secretary General and the admission of new members to
the United Nations.
a. Security Council
b. Secretariat
c. Student Council
d. General Assembly
97. The process of globalization is uneven where there is an imbalance in the socio- economic and
political categories of the world.
a. True, because the world is divided into north and south, and first, second and third.
b. True, because the Philippines is an example of the Global North.
c. True, because all global south countries in the hemisphere is characterized by low literacy
rate.
d. All of the above
98. Which would best describe the role of the United Nations?
a. Peacekeeping and cultivating friendly relationships
b. Assisting in alleviating poverty, hunger, disease, illiteracy and encouraging human rights
c. Providing a forum where nations work together for common goals.
d. All of the above
99. Economics is a political and economic movement that advocates for greater economic and
political cooperation among nations for the theoretical benefit of all.
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. Both a & b
100. Free trade stands for the freedom of the entrepreneurs to establish any industry or trade
or business venture, within their own countries or abroad
a. TRUE
b. FALSE
c. Both a & b
ANSWER KEY:
1. C 52. C
2. D 53. C
3. C 54. B
4. C 55. B
5. B 56. D
6. C 57. B
7. A 58. A
8. C 59. A
9. C 60. C
10. B 61. A
11. D 62. A
12. D 63. C
13. C 64. B
14. B 65. C
15. D 66. A
16. A 67. D
17. B 68. A
18. A 69. B
19. B 70. A
20. C 71. B
21. C 72. A
22. C 73. C
23. A 74. D
24. B 75. C
25. D 76. A
26. A 77. D
27. A 78. D
28. C 79. A
29. A 80. B
30. D 81. C
31. A 82. A
32. C 83. D
33. A 84. A
34. C 85. B
35. D 86. A
36. A 87. C
37. A 88. B
38. A 89. A
39. C 90. B
40. C 91. C
41. D 92. D
42. A 93. D
43. D 94. A
44. C 95. B
45. D 96. A
46. D 97. A
47. A 98. D
48. A 99. B
49. A 100. B
50. D
51. B
GEN
006
1. According to Kant, an action which has a motive or intention that cannot be successfully universalized:
A. might be moral or immoral, depending on the consequences of the action.
B. might be moral or immoral, depending on whether the act is considered acceptable in the person's
society
C. is immoral
D. might be moral or immoral, depending on whether the action is done freely.
2. Kant claims that I can determine whether all other rational beings are obligated to do what I am
obligated to do by trying to see whether:
A. certain practices are universally accepted throughout different cultures
B. other examples of my action yield good consequences
C. the action would be universally good for all individuals
D. the motive of my action can be universalized without contradiction or without being unacceptable to
some people
3. According to Kant, acting morally means acting on an intention that a reasonable person could will all
persons to adopt as the motive for their actions. Critics claim that this makes Kant a consequentialist,
insofar as universalizability considers the consequences of everyone acting that way. Kant rejects this by
pointing out that:
A. to say that an intention must be universalizable does not mean that everyone's intentions need to be
considered, only the intentions of those who are going to be affected by the action
B. the intended consequences of actions are often not the same as their actual consequences
C. intentions, not consequences, identify moral actions; if an intention cannot be universalized for any
reason (including unacceptable consequences), it cannot be the basis for a moral act
D. if people actually did their moral duty, then the consequences of their doing so would be better than
if they only intended to do their duty
4. Kant suggests that the maxim upon which an action is based, and not the individual action itself, is the
key for determining whether an action is morally good, because:
A. a specific action is, by definition, not universalizable
B. our actions are always based on some maxim or other
C. without maxims we would not know what to do
D. our maxims are subjective rules of behavior upon which actions are based
5. Kant argues that acting in accordance with duty does not make an action morally worthwhile; rather it is
acting for the sake of or because it is one's duty that makes the act morally worthy. He makes this
distinction to indicate how:
A. the consequences of one's actions might be good or bad depending on how much happiness is
produced
B. actions that are done freely are always morally good actions.
C. the moral value of an action is determined by one's motives, not by the consequences of one's
actions
D. acting in a self-interested way differs from acting based on maxims
6. According to existentialist ethics, there is no absolute foundation upon which moral judgments are
based; we are free to adopt any moral system we choose. As Sartre notes, however, we are responsible
for choosing that set of values. Any system of moral values that is established by some means other than
human choice, then:
A. contradicts the principle on which the ability to make moral distinctions is based
B. ought to be grounded in the will of God or in generally accepted social practices
C. in fact never are used by people (even mistakenly) to make moral judgments
D. is immoral if the consequences are bad for us
7. When Sartre says that "there is no human nature," what he means is that:
A. as self-conscious beings, we can and do determine the kinds of beings that we are
B. there can be no basis for deciding between anguish and despair
C. human beings do not have genetic characteristics that identify them biologically as members of a
species
D. existentialism can accept the existence of God only as the a priori foundation of ethical judgments
8. Sartre claims that, for human beings, "existence precedes essence"; in other words:
A. when human beings are rational, they fulfill their essence of being human
B. human beings are essentially determined to exist according to certain God-given directives
C. human beings are free to choose even not to act in any way whatsoever
D. human beings are condemned to be free and to become anything they choose through their actions
9. If, as Sartre's existentialism claims, "man is responsible for his passion," then no matter what we as
human beings do, we do it:
A. against our wills
B. without thought
C. freely
D. out of scorn for God
10. Nietzsche argues that the task of true morality is to indicate how human beings, as part of nature, can
move "beyond good and evil" by means of the attempt to:
A. overcome and gradually do away with our natural inclinations of aggression and struggle
B. show our nobility through self-restraint and compassion for the less fortunate
C. accept tolerantly our own weaknesses as indications of our place within God's plan
D. make moral distinctions the explicit products of the exercise of human will
11. According to Nietzsche, members of the herd endorse the slave values of sympathy, kindness, and
the "common" good because:
A. they feel that they should be treated kindly and compassionately since they are not responsible for
their lack of power
B. they believe that, if they treat the master-morality overmen kindly, those noble individuals will not
harm them
C. they fear that a lack of sympathy or kindness, or failure to consider the common good, will cause the
men of nobility to feel threatened by them
D. they prefer following God's will rather than struggling against it (like the overmen are constantly
having to do)
12. Critics of morality (e.g., Callicles or Nietzsche) argue that recommending that people act morally (that
is, with self-restraint, moderation, or concern for others) is itself an attempt by "common" people to
impose their will on their superiors. They conclude, therefore, that doing something because it is moral
makes no sense, since:
A. even common people admit that no one should act morally unless it produces happiness for him or
her
B. only a personality that harmonizes the competing interests of reason, emotion, and appetite is moral
C. the "all too human" values of ordinary people do not provide any guidance for how people should act
D. that would require us to affirm our power to decide values by restricting that power
13. The "first principle" of Nietzsche's version of humanism is this: "The weak and the failures shall
perish. They ought even to be helped to perish. What is more harmful than vice?--Practical sympathy
and pity for all the failures and all the weak: Christianity." In Nietzsche's trans-valuation of humanism,
Christianity is:
A. Nietzsche's attempt to reintroduce values into his theory of the will to power
B. an afterlife project that Nietzsche endorses as promoting the overman
C. the means by which noble aims filter down from masters to slaves
D. that which frustrates the prospects of human advancement
14. Nietzsche claims that "because life is precisely Will to Power," the attempt to bend all wills to a
common good, avoiding violence and exploitation in order to achieve peace in society, is:
A. "the fundamental principle of society" and the necessary means for the development of all life
B. the goal of the noble class
C. "the Will to the denial of life," which itself invites dissolution and decay
D. the dark night of barbarism in which "all who are born after us belong to a higher history than any
history hitherto."
15. Nietzsche's critique of "slave morality" includes an attack on the belief in the existence of God,
because as long as God exists:
A. human beings will continue to experience guilt for their failing to live up to God's call for them to
improve themselves in accord with His law
B. there will always be the possibility that God could aid the individuals of the slave or herd mentality
against the noble individual (the overman)
C. human beings will always have someone to fall back on and blame for their failings, rather than take
responsibility for their destiny
D. there is always the possibility that God may bring peace to the world and thus destroy the need for
the overman
16. Ethical judgments are usually distinguished from judgments of personal preference, taste, or prejudice
by means of showing that ethical judgments:
A. can be explained in terms of the particular customs or practices of a group or culture.
B. are intended primarily to rationalize already accepted practices in a society.
C. serve only as ideals and cannot be the bases upon which people live daily.
D. need to be supported by reasons that should be universally intelligible or acceptable
17. Because absolutists argue that the quality or value of something is independent of being designated
or recognized as such, they treat ethical judgments:
A. as relative to one's own conscience or set of values
B. as true or false depending on one's society or on how one is raised
C. as inaccessible to the human mind, ultimately unknowable and practically meaningless
D. as facts about the world which are true or false regardless of human judgments
18. Which of the following characterizations is FALSE?
A. It is possible for a subjectivist to be a relativist
B. It is possible for a relativist to be an objectivist
C. It is possible for an absolutist to be a subjectivist
D. It is possible for an objectivist to be an absolutist
19. Critics claim that subjective relativism is practically unacceptable and theoretically contradictory. It is
practically unacceptable in that no society could survive unless its members shared the values needed to
maintain the society. Subjective relativism is theoretically contradictory insofar as it:
A. assumes that individuals choose their own values and are responsible for their choice of values
B. claims that moral judgments express only how someone feels about an action
C. assumes a universal value (viz., freedom to decide one's values) should be respected by others
D. argues that the reasons it gives for acting morally are metaethical, not normative
20. According to the cultural relativist Ruth Benedict, "The very eyes with which we see a problem are
conditioned by the long traditional habits of our own society." Because of this, she concludes:
A. without some perspective upon which to base claims, no observer can justifiably criticize another
culture
B. claims about cultural differences are as judgmental as they are descriptive
C. all cultural differences can be reduced to basic differences in human nature
D. organized behavior within a particular society prevents its own members from seeing when they have
problems
21.These are moral dilemmas that are experienced and resolved on the individual level.
A. Personal Dilemma
B. Organizational Dilemma
C. Structural Dilemma
D. Moral Dilemma
22. It speaks of a code or system of behavior in regards to standards of right or wrong behavior.
A. Morality
B. Ethics
C. Moral Dilemma
D. Rules
23. These types of dilemmas involved situations in which a difficult choice has to be made between two
courses action, either of which entails transgressing a moral principles.
A. Personal Dilemma
D. Moral Dilemma
24. The branch of philosophy that studies morality or the rightness or wrongness of human conduct.
A. Morality
B. Ethics
C. Moral Dilemma
D. Rules
25. These tell us what is or is not allowed in a particular context or situation.
A. Morality
B. Ethics
C. Moral Dilemma
D. Rules
26. These are rules that are unrelated to moral or ethical consideration.
A. Non-moral standards
B. Moral standards
C. Non-moral rules
D. Moral rules
27. Only they can possess or practice values such as love, honor, social relationships, forgiveness,
compassion and altruism.
A. Humans
B. Priests
C. Philanthropists
D. Saints
28. These refer to cases involving network of institutions and operative theoretical paradigms.
A. Personal Dilemma
D. Moral Dilemma
29. These refer to ethical cases encountered and resolved by social organizations.
A. Personal Dilemma
D. Moral Dilemma
30.This cannot be said to be moral for it has no freedom or choice but to work according to what is
commanded based on its built-in program.
A. Humans
B. Robots
C. Animals
D. Objects
31. Foundation of Morality
A. Virtues
B. Morals
C. Freedom
D. Reason
32. It involves the idea that each individual’s interests and point of view are equally important.
A. Impartiality
B. Morals
C. Freedom
D. Reason
33. It is the most dominant form of moral relativism, defines “moral” as what is ‘socially approved’ by
majority in a particular culture.
A. Cultural Relativism
B. Moral Subjectivism
C. Moral Relativism
D. Rules
34.An extension of the principle of consistency, that is, one ought to be consistent about one’s value of
judgement.
A. Norms
B. Impartial considerations
C. Morality
D. Universalizability
35. Different cultures have different moral codes. Therefore, there is no “objective” truth in morality. Right
and wrong are only matters of opinion, and opinions vary from culture to culture.
A. Cultural Differences Argument
B. Cultural Relativism
C. Moral Relativism
D. Moral Subjectivism
36. This fundamentally believes that no act is good or bad objectively, and there is no single objective
universal standard through which we can evaluate the truth of moral judgements.
A. Cultural Differences Argument
B. Cultural Relativism
C. Moral Relativism
D. Moral Subjectivism
37. Behaving ethically means doing
A. What your friends do.
B. Only what’s legal.
C. The right thing.
D. What benefits you the most.
38. Which of the following is an ethical issue:
A. Deciding whether to have French fries or a salad
B. Choosing between buying a new shirt or a new book
C. Deciding whether to lie to a friend or not
D. Choosing which movie to see this weekend
39. You make sure everyone working on your group project has an equal share of the work because you
care about the ethical principle of
A. Rule of law.
B. Fairness.
C. Accountability.
D. Transparency
40. Susan doesn’t agree with her classmate’s opinion, but she listens carefully instead of starting an
argument or insulting her. Which ethical principle is Susana illustrating?
A. Integrity
B. Transparency
C. Respect
D. Trust
41. Which of the following pillars of confucianism is understood as benevolence, love or charity in a social
perspective?
A. Yi
B. Xiao
C. Ren
D. Li
42. Which of the following refers to priority or the rule of conduct that reflects a person's goodwill by doing
things the right way?
A. Yi
B. Xiao
C. Ren
D. Li
43. Which among the following is not included in the three moral determinated of human acts?
A. The end
B. The object
C. The circumstances
D. The subject
44. Which of the following refers to a crime where the perpetrator intended to kill the other person,
sometime plan to kill someone?
A. Murder
B. Homicide
C. Felony
D. Suicide
45. Which of the following refers to a rule that was created and enforced by the government and it's
agencies to maintain order, resolve disputes, and protect a person's liberty and rights?
A. Commandment
B. Law
C. Policy
D. Etiquette
46. According to Aristotle the goal of a person iss "eudaimonia". Which of the following is the meaning of
the word eudaimonia?
A. Happiness
b. Contentment
C. Pleasures
D. Urges
47. Which of the following illustrates the beliefs of Tao?
A. Taking no actions
B. Believing in the concept of fate or destiny
C. Neglecting or denying the western perspective on life which is "making your own decisions"
D. All of the above
48. Which of the following theory prescribed that we should make our own ends, our own interest, as the
single overriding concern?
A. Psychological Egoism
B. Demand Command Theory
C. Subjectivism
D. Ethical Egoism
49. "Be accountable for your words, actions and attitudes". Which of the following pillars of character is
being illustrated?
A. Trustworthy
B. Respect
C. Citizenship
D. Responsibility
50. What lies at the core if Filipino values which emphasizes a shared sense of identity and
consciousness with that other person?
A. Utang na loob
B. Kapwa
C. Same
D. Values
51. It is seen how well a person conducts himself with other people and how well he observes the rules of
etiquette that govern society. Which of the following is being described?
A. Social aspect
B. Mental aspect
C. Physical aspect
D. Moral aspect
52. Which aspect of personality is viewed as primitive and instinctive component of personality that
operates according to the pleasure principle?
A. Id
B. Ego
C. superego
D. None of the above
53. Which moral concept is learned gradually over a long period of time usually learned at home by
teaching and imitation?
A. Fortitude
B. Tact
C. Moral values
D. Moral code
54. Which of the following illustrates the most important function of ethical theories?
A. To help people decide easily
B. To help people to choose easily between what is right and wrong
C. To help us solve moral problems to live together successfully
D. All of the above
55. Which of the following is being referred to the power or capacity to choose among alternatives or to
act in certain situations independently of natural, social, or divine restraints?
A. Free will
B. Free action
C. Freedom
D. Socialism
56. Which of the following is not considered as one of the strengths of ethical egoism?
A. We have a natural inclination to be self-interested
B. It is not a consequentialist theory
C. It shows a respect for the individual
57. Which of the following believed that actions that lead to people's happiness are right and that those
lead to suffering are wrong?
A. John Stuart Mill
B. Plato
C. G.E. Moore
D. Jeremy Bentham
58. Which of the following theory refers to a systematic attempt to establish the validity of maintaining
certain moral principles?
A. Collectivism
B. Subjectivism
C. Moral dillema
D. Moral theory
59. Which of the following argued that man's development passes from three major stages, namely-Pre-
Conventional, Conventional and Post-Conventional.
A. Aristotle
B. Jean Piaget
C. Lawrence Kohlberg
D. Lawrence Newton
60. Which of the following believed that immorality of Human Soul Happiness can be achieve, and can be
found in God alone?
A. St. Thomas
B. Alan Johnson
C. Edward Taylor
D. St. Thomas
61. Which of the following is defined as standards of what a group or individual feels is right or wrong, or
good or evil?
A. Morality
B. Ethics
C. Standards
D. Values
62. Which of the following best describes the criteria by which we judge manners and rules of behavior?
A. Ethical norms
B. Moral norms
C. Nonmoral standards
D. Standard values
63. Which of the following can be described as an example of a moral standard?
A. Do not be late for a meeting.
B. Do not harm others.
C. Do not use a work computer for personal use.
D. Do not discuss pay issues with others
64. Which of the following best describes the basis for moral standards?
A. Moral standards are based on authority.
B. Moral standards deal with serious issues
C. Moral standards are based on personal experiences.
D. Moral standards are based on personal beliefs.
65. oral defense could be used to reduce responsibility?
A. Level of contribution
B. Ignorance
C. Differencing moral standards
D. Mitigating factors
66. A person might find it difficult to avoid a wrong because of coercion or a threat . What type of m61.
Which of the following is defined as standards of what a group or individual feels is right or wrong, or good
or evil?
A. Morality
B. Ethics
C. Standards
D. Values
67. Ethical issues about the economic, political, or legal aspects that a business operates under are
referred to as _____ issues.
A. Corporate
B. Individual
C. Governmental
D. systemic
68. Because companies intentionally engage in actions such as production and sales, some people
believe they should be held morally responsible for their decisions and actions. This view considers
companies as having to act as
A. moral agents
B. machines
C. individuals
D. regulators
69. There have been several arguments against business ethics. Which argument best supports the idea
that when an organization makes money, it improves society, so business ethics are not needed?
A. If it’s legal, it is ethical.
B. Profits benefit all.
C. The Loyal Agent states it.
D. Conflict is not unusual.
70. Which of the following best describes an organization’s obligations toward society?
A. Ethics
B. Morals
C. Values
D. Corporate social responsibility
71. Which of the following is one of the advantages of ethical decision-making as a long-term business
strategy?
A. Ethical behavior will increase short-term profits.
B. Ethical behavior will provide positive press opportunities.
C. Ethical behavior can ensure positive employee relationships.
D. Ethical behavior can provide significant competitive advantage
72. The word “ ethics” is derived from the Greek word:
A. Ethos
B. Ethies
C. Ethees
D. Ethise
73. The term right is derived from the latin
A. Ritus
B. Rectus
C. Ritchus
D. Rights
74. According to Kant’s approach to moral philosophy, ethics is based on:
A. the consequences of one’s action.
B. sympathy.
C a social contract.
D. practical reason.
75. Korsgaard argues that:
A. motivational skepticism is always based on content skepticism.
B. content skepticism is always based on motivational skepticism
C. motivational skepticism and content skepticism are inconsistent with one another.
D. motivational skepticism and content skepticism are in fact identical positions.
76. According to externalist theories of ethics:
A. moral judgment implies the existence of a motive.
B. it is possible to have a moral judgment without being motivated to act on it.
C. moral authority derives from rules imposed by others, rather than from one’s own feelings.
D. our primary moral obligation is to improve the lives of others.
77. Korsgaard’s “internalist requirement” states that:
A. practical reasons necessarily motivate anyone who accepts them.
B. practical reasons must be capable of motivating rational persons.
C. our motivations always supply us with practical reasons for action.
D. practical reasons bear no necessary relation to motivation.
78. According to Korsgaard, being practically rational requires the ability to:
A. perform rational mental operations about the means to your ends.
B. transmit motivations via reasoning.
C. both a and b.
D. neither a nor b.
79. Williams defines internal reasons as:

A. reasons that are grounded in one’s subjective motivational set.
B. reasons that are grounded in self-interest.
C. reasons that are grounded in objective moral requirements.
D. reasons that are grounded in the norms of institutions.
80. Korsgaard claims that the internalism requirement:
A. refutes some ethical theories.
B. refutes content skepticism.
C. makes a psychological demand on ethical theories.
D. all of the above
81. Ethics come from the Greek word "___________" which means character, customs or habit.
A. Pathos
B. Ethos
C. Ethics
D. Path
82. It is the study of the methods and principles used to distinguish good from bad, right from wrong
actions.
A. Actions
B. Objects
C. Ethics
D. Moral
83. What are the two assumptions of ethics?
A. Right and Wrong acts
B. Good and bad acts
C. Physical and Non-physical
D. Man is rational and man is free
84. What are the two objects of ethics?
A. Right and Wrong
B. Good and Bad
C. Physical and Non-physical
D. Involuntary and Voluntary
85. What are the two general forms of act?
A. Physican and Non-physical
B. Free and Rational
C. Involuntary and Voluntary
D. Doer and Action
86. The following are examples of good ethics at the workplace
A. Blow the whistle, stay productive, and set the example
B. Stay productive, being punctual, and lack of communication
C. Lying, being accountable, and gossiping
D. Critical thinking, setting the example, and falsifying information
87. 'Forcing someone to do something by threatening to do something negative if they don't'
A. Blackmail
B. Bribery
C. Withholding
D. Lying
88. James has a belief that the death penalty is wrong in all cases. This would be an example of his
__________?
A. Personality
B. Morals
C. Ethics
D. Culture
89.Which of the following has an impact on a person's prejudices?
A. Parents
B. Friends
C. Media
D. All are correct
90. What is the "Golden Rule"?
A. Rule of Reciprocity
B. Rule of Universality
C. Rule of Respect
D. Rule of Retro-city
91. Which statement best defines the concept of “ethics”?
A. Ethics is the ability to tell the difference in right and wrong behavior.
B. Ethics is trying to judge people by what they believe and do.
C. Ethics is a society’s standards of conduct based on moral values and principles of its members.
D. Characteristics that bring people praise and admiration.
92. What is the difference between ethics and moral values?
A. Ethics means society's concept of right and wrong, Morals are personal beliefs.
B. Ethics are personal beliefs. Morals are society's concept of right and wrong.
C. Ethics are society's concept of personal beliefs. Morals are society's concept of right and wrong.
D. Ethics are personal concepts. Morals are right and wrong through society.
93. What best describes “Fairness”?
A. The ability to make judgments without favoritism or self-interest; engaging in fair competition and
creating equal relationships.
B. Instinct; gut feeling
C. Reliable, deserving the confidence of others
D. the long-term value of your choice
94. What best describes “Respect”?
A. The long-term value of your choices
B. Reliable; deserving the confidence of others
C. Standards, that govern behavior; not dependent on circumstances
D. Regard or esteem; honoring the rights, freedoms, views, and property of others.
95. What best describes “Rule of Law”?
A. Adhering to an established set of personal ethics and sound moral principles; acting with honesty in all
situations.
B. Complying with laws and regulations
C. An issue in which you must decide whether something is right or wrong.
D. The quality of being just as one seems; being open and truthful when communicating.
96. What best describes “Ethics”?
A. Instinct; gut feeling.
B. The result of an action.
C. The basic principles that govern your behavior.
D. The quality of being just as one seems; being open and truthful when communicating.
97. What describes “Ethical Principles”?

A. Standards that govern behavior; not dependent on circumstance.
B. The quality of being just as one seems; being open and truthful when communicating.
C. Instinct; gut feeling
D. Reliable; deserving the confidence of others.
98. What best describes “Ethical situation”?
A. An issue in which you must decide whether something is right or wrong; sometimes referred to as an
ethical situation.
B. The ability to make judgments without favoritism or self-interest; engaging in fair competition and
creating equal relationships.
C. The condition of having to answer for or be liable for your actions; accepting responsibility for your
decisions.
D. An issue in which you must decide whether something is right or wrong
99. What best describes “Integrity”?
A. A difficult situation in which you are required to make a decision.
B. An inflated sense of self-importance.
C. Adhering to an established set of personal ethics and sound moral principles; acting with honesty in all
situations.
D. Instinct; gut feeling
100. What best describes “Viability”?
A. The basic principles that govern your behavior.
B. The long-term value of your choices
C. An issue in which you must decide whether something is right or wrong; sometimes referred to as an
ethical situation.
D. A person whose behavior is imitated by others.
ANSWER KEY :
1. C 35. A 70. D
2. D 36. C 71. D
3. C 37. C 72. A
4. A 38. C 73. B
5. C 39. B 74. D
6. A 40. C 75. A
7. A 41. C 76. B
8. D 42. D 77. B
9. C 43. D 78. C
10. D 44. A 79. A
11. A 45. B 80. C
12. D 46. A 81. B
13. D 47. B 82. C
14. C 48. D 83. D
15. C 49. D 84. C
16. D 50. B 85. C
17. D 51. A 86. A
18. C 52. A 87. A
19. C 53. D 88. B
20. B 54. C 89. D
21. A 55. A 90. A
22. A 56. B 91. A
23. D 57. A 92. A
24. B 58. D 93. A
25. D 59. C 94. D
26. A 60. D 95. A
27. A 61. A 96. C
28.C 62. C 97. A
29. B 63. B 98. A
30. B 64. B 99. C
31. C 65. C 100. B
32. A 66. D
33. A 67. A
34. D 69. B
ART
002
1. _________ is the expression of human creative skill and imagination.
A. Emphasis
B. Contour
C. Art
D. Dominance
2. In what way is art important in daily life?
A. It has personal significance
B. It reflects our society
C. It is a form of self-expression
D. All of the above
3. The way to do an art critique is to __________.
A. describe, analyze, interpret, and evaluate the piece
B. talk to the artist
C. decide if it’s good
D. write an artist statement
4. A person learning a trade or an art from a skilled worker is called __________.
A. an apprentice
B. a mentor
C. a foreman
D. a laborer
5. A rule used by artists when planning a good composition.
A. “Rule of Sketch”
B. “Rule of Placement”
C. “Rule of Perspective”
D. “Rule of Thirds”
6. Andy Warhol, an American painter and filmmaker, is best known for his depiction of what grocery
store item?
A. Apples
B. Bacon
C. Tomato Soup
D. Onions
7. Andy Warhol’s work can best be classified as __________.
A. realism
B. pop art
C. splatter paint
D, cubism
8. A style of artwork created using many geometric shapes, often not resembling any object.
A. Surrealism
B. Favauvism
C. Cubism
D. Baroque
9. An art style where the artist tries to paint a picture exactly how it looks in real life, with as many
details as possible.
A. Impressionism
B. Pointillism
C. Realism
D. Favauvism
10. A style of art where the artist attempts to convey as much of their emotion into the artwork as
possible, often using distortion and emphasis.
A. Expressionism
B. Surrealism
C. Cubism
D. Impressionist
11. The way artwork is arranged is called __________.
A. emphasis
B. contour
C. composition
D. stylus
12. Rembrandt is known as an artist of what style?
A. Impressionists
B. Baroque
C. Modern
D. Prehistoric
13. An art style where artwork is extremely detailed and ornate.
A. Surrealism
B. Baroque
C. Favauvism
D. Expressionism
14. Pablo Picasso is from the country of __________.
A. Germany
B. Italy
C. Spain
D. The United States of America
15. What is the title of the style of painting that Picasso invented?
A. Realism
B. Impressionism
C. Cubism
D. Art Nouveau
16. Where is the “Mona Lisa” hanging in France?

A. Gargoyle square
B. The Louvre
C. The Eiffel Tower
D. Chartres Cathedral
17. Van Gogh’s most famous work of art to this day is __________.
A. “Mona Lisa”
B. “The Scream”
C. “Starry Night”
D. “Poppies”
18. What country was Van Gogh born in?
A. Holland
B. France
C. Spain
D. The United States of America
19. Georgia O’Keeffe was an __________ artist.
A. English
B. Italian
C. American
D. Australian
20. O’Keeffe is best known for her paintings of __________.
A. the sea and marine animals
B. enlarged flowers and New Mexico landscapes
C. native American Indians
D. the Australian Outback
21. Balance, movement, pattern/ repetition, unity, variety and emphasis are classified as the
_______.
A. Elements of Design
B. Principles of Art
C. Design Elements
D. Principle of Elements
22. Which of the following does NOT define art?
A. It is any skill or mastery
B. It is a branch of knowledge that deals with human culture
C. It refers to a process or a product of a creative skill
D. It deals with the various branches of creative activity, such as painting, music, literature, and dance
23. Earth sculpture uses earth as a _______.
A. Canvas
B. Project
C. Medium
D. Painting
24. A line when used by an artist suggests meaning. What meaning is associated with a vertical line?
A. Motion and mobility
Continuity and grace
B. Honor and dignity
C. Depression and chaos
25. When an architect designs and constitute a structure he wants to responds to ________.
A. The needs of humans
B. The satisfaction of humans
C. The demands of humans
D. All of the above
26. Tempera, oil, watercolor and acrylic are types of _______.
A. Paint
B. Architecture
C. Sculpture
D. Theology
27. Art is an expression of the way of life of its creators ________.
A. Because it depicts important events in the life of a people
B. Because it uses materials that were abundant at the time of creation
C. Because it represents significant human experience and personalities
D. All of the above
28. What usually inspires a landscape painting?
A. Myths and legends
B. People and real world events
C. Nature
D. Artists of the past
29. When we refer to a color value that is darker than the hue, we call that its ________.
A. Shade
B. Tint
C. Saturation
D. Intensity
30. Orange are called ________ colors.
A. Monochromatic
B. Analogous
C. Split
D. Triad
31. Textbook images that are drawn by illustrators to help students learn about concepts serve what
function of art?
A. Educational
B. Physical
C. Personal
D. Spiritual
32. An extreme long camera shot of a movie is often used as a _______.
A. Panorama shot
B. establishing shot
C. Dialogue shot
D. Character shot
33. Website designs such as Twitter and Facebook serve what artistic function?
A. Social
B. Personal
C. Physical
D. Educational
34. The Creation of Adam and other works on the ceiling of the Sistine Chapel painted by
Michelangelo were painted using _______.
A. Tempera
B. Fresco
C. Oil
D. Ink
35. The relative lightness and darkness that gives impression of solidity and illusion of depth is
________.
A. Hue
B. Chiaroscuro
C. Intensity
D. Value
36. Line, value, texture, shape, space and color are classified as the ________.
A. Principles of art
B. Elements of art
C. Principles of design
D. Elements of design
37. Which of these is NOT a fundamental compositional element of dance?
A. Time
B. Force
C. Space
D. Texture
38. Which among the following film genres does not belong to the group?
A. Action
B. Adventure
C. Mystery
D. Western
39. It is the simultaneous sounding of a group of tones, the vertical relationship between a melody
and its accompanying chords.
A. Timbre
B. Harmony
C. Syncopation
D. Accent
40. This dance form emerged in the 15th century in Europe and started the trend of dancing in
couples, nowadays. It is also called ballroom dancing.
A. Folk dance
B. Social dance
C. Ballet
D. Communal dance
41. Who said that "Art is that which brings life in harmony, with the beauty of the world."
A. Aristotle
B. Socrates
C. Plato
42. A work of _____ is a visual expression of an idea or experience - formed with skill - through the
use of a medium.
A. Art
B. Appreciation
C. Art Appreciation
43. Who was the Father of Modern Art?
A. Charles Darwin
B. Pablo Picasso
C. Andres Bonifacio
44. A painting or sculpture that does not depict a person, place or object in the natural world.
A. Abstract
B. Content
C. Allegory
45. It is the physical of art work.
A. Figure
B. Shape
C. Form
46. It is a way to motivate ideas and allows individual to illustrate feelings, and develop critical and
innovative skills. It requires the ability to differentiate what is apparent and what is not.
A. Art Appreciation
B. Art
C. Appreciation
47. It can show ideas about the past, the present and what may happen in the future. It includes
literature, music, paintings, photography etc.
A. Art Appreciation
B. Art
C. Appreciation
48. People who create within the context of fine arts. They use imagination and skill to construct
works that may be judged to have aesthetic importance.
A. Author
B. Artist
C. Writer
49. It is a characteristic of an artist that progressed in the extent of his life to express feelings.
A. Fine Arts
B. Authentic
C. Creativity
50. The lightness or darkness of tones or colors.
A. Value
B. Hue
C. Texture
51. That property of color identifying a specific named wavelength of light; often used synonymously
with color.
A. Value
B. Hue
C. Texture
52. It is the substance that imparts color in paints.
A. Pigments
B. Spectrum
C. Highlight
53. Those hues that cannot be produced by mixing other hues. Primary colors are red, yellow, blue.
A. Primary colors
B. Secondary colors
C. Teritiary colors
54. The colors produced by combining two primary colors near the on the color wheel. Secondary
colors are green, violet, and orange.
A. Primary colors
B. Secondary colors
C. Teritiary colors
55. The colors produced by mixing a primary and a secondary color; for example, mixing blue and
green results in blue-green.
A. Primary colors
B. Secondary colors
C. Teritiary colors
56. A two-dimensional object is called a shape, and a three-dimensional object is known as a ______.
A. form
B. Shape
C. Line
57. The continuous mark made on some surface by a moving point.
A. form
B. Shape
C. Line
58. The way art feels, or what it would be felt like if touched by looking at it.
A. Space
B. Texture
C. Shape
59. The distance between, around, above, below, or within things.
A. Space
B. Shape
C. Rhythm
60. The careful placement of elements in a work of art to cause a visual tempo or beat.
A. Space
B. Shape
C. Rhythm
61. These type of art have subjects that refers to objects or events occurring in the real world.
A. Non-representation art
B. Abstract
C. Representation art
D. Representative art
62. It is one of the ways of representing the subject when the artist selects and renders the objects
with their shapes, colors and positions altered. In some other works, enough of a likeness has been
retained to represent real things.
A. Surrealism
B. Abstraction
C. Realism
D. Distortion
63. It is one of the ways of representing the subject wherein the artist is giving expression to what it is
in the subconscious composes dreamlike scenes that show an irrational arrangement of objects.
A. Surrealism
B. Abstraction
C. Realism
D. Distortion
64. It is one of the ways of representing the subject that portrays twisting, stretching or deforming the
natural shape of the object.
A. Surrealism
B. Abstraction
C. Realism
D. Distortion
65. What is a type of a subject that do not present descriptions, stories, or references to identifiable
objects or symbols? Rather they, appeal directly to the senses primarily because of the satisfying
organization of their sensuous and expressive elements?
A. Realism
B. Non-objective
C. Representational
D. Objective
66. What is a kind of subject that are groups of inanimate objects arranged in an indoor setting (flower
and fruit arrangements, dishes food, pots and pans, musical instruments and music sheets)? The
arrangement is like that to show particular human interests and activities.
A. Figures
B. Portraits
C. Landscape
D. Still Lifes
67. What is a kind of subject when artists show a deep concern about life around them? Many of
them have recorded in paintings their observation of people going about their usual ways and
performing their usual tasks.
A. Dreams and Fantasies
B. Genre
C. Landscape
D. Still Lifes
68. What is the most rudimentary level of meaning for it may be extracted from the identifiable or
recognizable forms in the artwork and understanding how these elements relate to one another?
A. Factual Meaning
B. Conventional Meaning
C. Subjective Meaning
D. Content Meaning
69. What is the content analysis that stem from the viewer’s or audience’s circumstances that come
into play when engaging with art (what we know, what we learned, what we experienced; what values
we stand for)?
A. Factual Meaning
D. Content Meaning
70. What is the content analysis that pertains to the acknowledged interpretation of the artwork using
motifs, signs, and symbols and other cyphers as bases of its meaning?
A. Factual Meaning
D. Content Meaning
D. Content Meaning
71. What might have affected Pablo Picasso's severe style of representation seen in Les Demoiselles
d'Avignon?
A. Native American sites he visited
B. African masks he saw at a Paris museum
C. his collection of Asian ceramics
D. the imagery on Korean tapestries
72. The Starry Night by Vincent van Gogh indicates the power of the artist's
A. classical line.
B. analytical line.
C. expressive line.
D. contour line.
73. Some works of art are created precisely to give us the illusion or sensation of movement. This
style of art is called?
A. Dada.
B. Op Art.
C. animal style.
D. decorative art.
74. Michelangelo's Head of a Satyr renders form through the use of
A. linear perspective.
B. cross-hatching.
C. axonometric projection.
D. Achromatism
75. Michelangelo's Head of a Satyr renders form through the use of
A. linear perspective.
B. cross-hatching.
C. axonometric projection.
D. Achromatism
76. Louis-Jacques-Mandé Daguerre was not able to include what in photographs such as Le
Boulevard du Temple?
A. People
B. street scenes
C. buildings
D. motion
77. The imagery in Faith Ringgold's God Bless America was inspired by the
A. Desert Storm conflict.
B. Parade in New York City on Allies Day, May 1917.
C. McCarthy era in the 1950s.
D. Civil Rights Movement in the 1960s
78. In the nineteenth century, Japanese prints began to influence European painters, particularly in
their
A. flattening of space between foreground and background.
B. use of two-point linear perspective.
C. experimental techniques of verisimilitude.
D. exaggerated negative space.
79. With atmospheric perspective, objects further from the viewer appear
A. cooler and less distinct.
B. warmer and more detailed.
C. warmer and less distinct.
D. cooler and more detailed
80. Leonardo da Vinci made a drawing, Madonna and Child with St. Anne and Infant St. John the
Baptist, as a preparatory guide for a fresco or painting of the same title. This type of drawing is called
A. dry media.
B. a wash.
C. a cartoon
D. an edition
81. Aesthetics is a branch of philosophy that studies
A. how artworks communicate social ideas.
B. how artworks communicate political ideas.
C. how and why artworks are beautiful.
D. how artworks communicate ethical ideas.
82. Even if we do not understand the text, what element of visual delight can ancient Chinese
calligraphy demonstrate?
A. emphasis on asymmetricality
B. graceful arrangements of harmonious forms
C. illustrations
D. a wide range of colors
83. In Benin, the use of brass casting is reserved for
A. state buildings.
B. the royal family.
C. jewelry sold to tourists.
D. cattle harnesses.
84. What mystic tradition informed Shirazeh Houshiary’s work Ancient Light?
A. Sufi
B. Judaism
C. Buddhism
D. Christianity
85. In traditional Eskimo societies of Southwest Alaska, masks are often associated with
A. personal expression and entertainment.
B. dance and theatrical performance.
C. disguise and deception.
D. ritual and spiritual transformation.
86. Why did Frank Lloyd Wright use the hollyhock flower to embellish Alice Barnsdall’s house?
A. There were hollyhocks growing in the area.
B. It was an easy form to stylize.
C. It was the architect’s favorite flower.
D. It was the owner’s favorite flower
87. What is one element that reinforces the power and grandeur of the Supreme Court?
A. its proximity to the street
B. its stairs
C. its color
D. its massive size
88. One characteristic of beauty in many seventeenth-century landscape paintings is
A. harmonious balanced proportions.
B. strong, bright colors.
C. accurate representation of real places.
D. contemporary architecture and identifiable figures.
89. What is one factor common to both Eva Zeisel’s work and Yoruba indigo-dyed cloth?
A. Both are highly embellished.
B. Both are intended for mass production.
C. Both are intended for decorative use.
D. Women are responsible for the designs
90. What is one reason that Abraham Cruzvillegas used junk materials gathered from his
neighborhood to make Autoconstruccíon Suites?
A. His family owned junk yards
B. He wanted the materials to represent the way that his family gradually built their house.
C. He wanted to satirize contemporary architectural practices.
D. He could not afford to buy materials.
91. What tends to distinguishes art in our society today?
A. emphasis on religious art
B. emphasis on individual achievement and self-expression
C. emphasis on commissioned art
D. emphasis on aesthetics
92. he arrangement of tubes in Nancy Holt’s Sun Tunnels creates a viewing experience much like a
A. camera lens.
B. telescope
C. kaleidoscope.
D. Microscope
93. How did many people in the Middle Ages learn about bible stories?
A. from grammar schools
B. from books
C. from stained-glass windows in churches
D. from plays
94. What is one reason that Frida Kahlo’s self-portraits are considered so expressive?
A. She painted in strong, clear colors.
B. She idealized her representation.
C. She shared the lifelong pain and emotional distress that she suffered.
D. She painted in a very realistic style.
95. Why was Maya Lin’s Vietnam War Memorial initially controversial?
A. People felt that it should have been more self-expressive on Lin’s part.
B. People did not like that it attracted such large crowds.
C. People felt the site should host a monument to the Revolutionary War instead.
D. People felt it was too different from traditional war monuments.
96. What is one advantage of a well-designed object?
A. It will be handmade.
B. It can enrich our daily lives.
C. It will be mass-produced.
D. It will be less expensive.
97. What was Wassily Kandinsky’s goal for paintings such as Composition VI?
A. to create images based on subtle and harmonious color combinations
B. to shock viewers with unusual imagery
C. to record his light effects at different times of the day
D. to infect viewers with emotions he felt while creating them
98. Sainte-Chapelle originally functioned as a
A. storehouse for precious relics.
B. king’s bedroom.
C. throne room.
D. Cathedral
99. What media has largely replaced paintings for storytelling for today's mass audiences?
A. photographs
B. graphic novels
C. television and film
D. illustrated books
100. What is one factor that influences Eva Zeisel in all her designs?
A. low cost
B. one-of-a-kind objects
C. embellishment
D. a playful search for beauty
ANSWER KEY :
1. C 33. A 69. C
2. D 34. B 70. B
35. D 71. B
3. A
36. B 72. C
4. A
37. D 73. B
5. D
38. D 74. B
6. C
39. B 75. B
7. B 40. B 76. A
8. C 41. C 77. D
9. C 42. A 78. A
10. A 43. B 79. A
11. C 44. A 80. C
12. B 45. C 81. C

46. A 82. B
13. B
47. B 83. B
14. C
48. B 84. A
15. C
49. C 85. D
16. B
50. A 86. D
17. C 51. B 87. D
18. A 52. A 88. A
19. C 53. A 89. D
20. B 54. B 90. B
21. B 55. C 91. B
22. B 56. A 92. B
23. C 57. C 93. C
24. C 59. A 94. C
25. D 60. C 95. D
26. A 61. C 96. B
27. D 62. B 97. D
28. C 63. A 98. A
29. B 64. D 99. C
30. B 65. B 100. D
31. A 66. D
32. B 67. B
68. A
HIS
007
1. Jose Rizal was born on
a. June 19, 1861
b. December 30, 1896
c. April 29, 1869
d. July 19, 1981
2. It is the place where was Rizal born
a. Batangas
b. Manila
c. Calamba
d. Biñan
3. He is the father of Jose Rizal
a. Lucas Padua
b. Francisco Mercado
c. Leon Monroy
d. Celestino
4. She is the mother of Jose Rozal
a. Narcisa
b. Josefa
c. Solidad
d. Teodora
5. Jose Rizal is the _______ among the eleven children of Francisco and Teodora.
a. Seventh
b. Sixth
c. Fifth
d. Eight
6. It means “market,” which was a common surname adopted by many Chinese merchants at that
time (Reyno, 2012).
a. Alonso
b. Mercado
c. Realonda
d. Rizal
7. The day Rizal died was on _______.
a. September 30, 1896
b. December 30, 1896
c. June 19, 1896
d. January 30, 1896
8. The school in which Jose Rizal studied a six year program of Bachiller en Artes
a. Ateneo Municipal de Manila
b. University of Santo Tomas
c. University of Paris
d. Universidad Central de Madrid
9. What is the full name of Jose Rizal?
a. José Protacio Rizal Mercado y Alonso Realonda
b. Jose Protacio Mercado
c. Jose Rizal Mercado Alonso y Realonda
d. Jose Rizal
10. At what age did Jose Rizal died?
a. 35
b. 18
c. 25
d. 28
11. God Blessed the marriage of Francisco Mercado Rizal and Teodora Alonso Realonda with
__children.
a. 10
b. 9
c. 11
d. 7
12. Jose Rizal was born on the moonlit night of Wednesday, ______ , in the lakeshore town of
Calamba, Laguna Province, Philippines.
a. November 8, 1892
b. June 29, 1898
c. June 19, 1861
d. December 30, 1896
13. The eight child, died at the age of three.
a. Martha
b. Concepcion
c. Teodorita
d. Maria
14. Name of Rizal’s big black dog
a. Bantay
b. Hugo
c. Puti
d. Usman
15. “Neneng” is a nickname of Rizal’s sister
a. Lucia
b. Josefa
c. Saturnina
d. Olympia
16. Age when Rizal was baptized?
a. 3 months old
b. 3 days old
c. 3 years old
17. Age of Rizal when he first learned his 3 letters.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
18. Who was the main proponent of the Rizal Bill
a. Claro M. Recto
b. Jose P. Laurel
c. Rufino Santos
d. Gregorio F. Zaide
19. RA 1425 or Rizal Law an act to include in the curricula of all Public and Private schools,
Colleges and ______ courses on the Life, Works and writings of Jose Rizal
a. Universities
b. Private School
c. All of the above
20. The First journey of young Rizal was in __________?
a. Manila
b. Antipolo
c. Binan
d. Paranaque
21. Who is the older brother of Rizal?
a. Poyong
b. Paciano
c. Miguelito
d. Mayong
22. He was the priest who baptized Rizal.
a. Fr. Jose Bech
b. Fr. Rufino Collantes
c. Fr. Pedro Casañas
d. Fr. Pablo Ramon
23. Rizal enrolled at the UST and took up Philosophy and letters as advised by__.
a. Doña Teodora
b. Paciano
c. Don Francisco
d. Fr. Pablo Ramon
24. Jose Rizal became a model in some of Juan Luna’s paintings such as _________ where he
posed as Sikatuna.
a. Spolarium
b. The Death of Cleopatra
c. The Battle of Lepanto
d. The Blood Compact
25. She was Jose Rizal’s first crush, first love and first heartbreak.
a. Leonor Valenzuela
b. Leonor Rivera
c. Josephine Bracken
d. Segunda Katigbak
26. This was the motto of La Liga Filipina.
a. Ubi Libertas Ibi Patria
b. Unus Instar Omnium
c. Uniti Aedificamus
d. Utraque Unum
27. Rizal studied this branch of Zoology which deals with the study of sea shells and the animals
that inhabit them.
a. Carcinology
b. Conchology
c. Coccidology
d. Cynology
28. She was only 18 years old when she fell in love with Jose Rizal.
a. Leonor Rivera
b. Osei-san
c. Gertrude Beckett
d. Leonor Valenzuela
29. This refers to the date when Rizal was exiled in Dapitan.
a. July 7, 1891
b. July 14, 1891
c. July 7, 1892
d. July 14, 1892
30. The secret society of the Filipino students organized by Rizal at UST.
a. Companions of Jehu
b. Compañerismo
c. Mason
d. Lodge Acacia
31. Owner of La Publicidad and statesman whom Rizal made a crayon sketch when Rizal went to
Paris visiting Maximo Viola.
a. Don Miguel Morayta
b. Trinidad Pardo de Tavera
c. Dr. Louis de Weckert
d. Señor Eusebio Corominas
32. The article that Rizal wrote in Madrid on November 29, 1882 which was returned to him because
the Diariong Tagalog ceased publication.
a. Los Viajes
b. Felicitacion
c. Amor Patrio
d. Revista de Madrid
33. On August 22, 1883, Rizal wrote a lovely poem entitled A la Senorita C.O. y R. Who was he
dedicating the poem to?
a. Leonor Rivera
b. Pilar
c. Consuelo
d. Concepcion
34. How much did Rizal owed to Maximo Viola so that the novel Noli Me Tangere could be printed?
a. P100.00
b. P300.00
c. P200.00
d. P250.00
35. Where did Rizal Rizal hear mass at the sunrise of his embarkation date to Madrid, Spain?
a. Sto. Domingo Church
b. San Agustin church
c. Manila Cathedral
d. San Francisco Church
36. In his hometown (Calamba), patients from Manila and provinces flocked to such town, which
Rizal came to be called _________ because he came from Germany, busy attending his
lucrative medical practice.
a. Doctor Laon
b. Doctor Dimasalang
c. Doctor Uliman
d. Doctor Soliman
37. The editor of Diariong Tagalog who congratulated Rizal for the article and requested him for
some articles
a. Marcelo H. del Pilar
b. Juan Luna
c. Francisco Calvo
d. Antonio Luna
38. When was Rizal arrested and deported to Dapitan (without benefit of trial)?
a. June 21, 1892
b. June 26, 1892
c. July 3, 1892
d. July 7, 1892
39. The lieutenant who defended Rizal in the court whom the later chose because the former’s
name was familiar to him, for the former was the brother of Rizal’s bodyguard in 1887
a. Juan Salcedo
b. Blanco
c. Pio Valenzuela
d. Luis Taviel de Andrade
40. The exact time Rizal died when he was shot at Bagumbayan Field by firing squad
a. 6:00 am
b. 6:15 am
c. 6:30 am
d. 7:03 am
41. What case was charged against Rizal by the Spanish authorities?
a. Forgery
b. Filibuster
c. Rebellion
d. Heresy
42. Which novel was described to a romantic novel; it is a “work of the heart” and a “book of
feeling”?
a. Makamasa
b. Noli Me Tangere
c. Sa aking mga kababata
d. El Filibusterismo
43. Which among the following pen-names did Rizal use in writing La Vision del Fray Rodriguez?
a. Makisig
b. Laong Laan
c. Basang sisiw
d. Dimas Alang
44. What was the title of the first poem which Rizal wrote when he was eight years old?
a. Sa Akong mga Kababata
b. I’m Memory of My Town
c. Recuerdo A Mi Pueblo
d. El Filibusterismo
45. Who was the woman which Rizal considered to be his wife?
a. Josephine Bracken
b. Leonor Rivera
c. Maria Clara
d. Gabriela
46. To whom did Rizal dedicate his first novel, Noli Me Tangere?
a. To his mother
b. GOMBURZA
c. To the Spaniards
d. To the Fatherland
47. Who was the second editor of La Solidaridad with the pen-names Dolores Manapat?
a. Jose Rizal
b. Garciano Lopez-Jaena
c. Mariano Ponce
d. Marcelo H. Del Pillar
48. Rizal focused the “La Liga Filipina” to:
a. Unite the whole country
b. Fight violence and injustices
c. Revolt against the Spaniards
d. Both A and C
49. What was the college song for Rizal’s young pupils in Dapitan?
a. My Retreat
b. Hymn to Talisay
c. A La Nacion
d. Sa mga Kababayan
50. During his exile in Dapitan, Rizal discovered rare specimens which were named after him which
among the following isn’t part of his discovered species?
a. Apogonia Rizal
b. Raco Rizali
c. Andres Rizali
d. Rhacophrous Rizal
51. Which one below was one of the reason why Rizal decided to return to Manila to form a society?
a. La Solidaridad
b. KKK
c. La Mano Roja
d. La Liga Filipina
52. The novel El Filibusterismo was dedicated by Rizal to whom?
a. GOMBURZA
b. Filipinos
c. Fellow reformist
d. All of the above
53. What was Rizal only vice?
a. Lottery
b. hard liquor
c. Smoking
54. The novel El Filibusterismo is about
a. Politics and Revolution
b. Love and Emotion
c. Humor and Liberty
d. all of the above
55. The title ‘El Gilibusterismo’ means
a. Touch me not
b. Rebel
c. Subsersive
d. Do not detain me
56. What does the title ‘Noli Me Tangere” mean?
a. Touch me not
b. Rebel
c. Subsersive
d. Do not detain me
57. To whom is Noli Me Tangere is dedicated to?
a. Blumentritt
b. Maria Clara
c. GOMBURZA
d. All of the above
58. At what age did Jose Rizal wrote his first dramatic work which was a Tagalog Comedy?
a. 8
b. 10
c. 9
d. 11
59. What is known as Rizal Law?
a. Republic Act 1425
b. Republic Act 1945
c. Republic Act 1925
d. Republic Act 1625
60. What was an anti-clerical novel of Eugene Sue which prOvided Rizal a model for his Noli Me
Tangere?
a. Costumbres
b. Spolarium
c. The Wandering Jew
d. Uncle Tom’s Cabin
61. While in Madrid, this man was the lawyer of Rizal when he secures justice for the oppressed
Calamba tenants, including his family
a. Antonino Lopez
b. Marcelo del Pilar
c. Valeriano Weyler
d. Mateo Elejorde
62. Land of Cherry Blossom, where Rizal visited for one month and a half.
a. Germany
b. Japan
c. Hongkong
d. France
63. What PLACE did Rizal refer to when he said, “__________ is more extensive than Paris. The
walls are built in a cyclopean manner. The streets are large and wide.”
a. Sayonara
b. Naples
c. Tokyo
d. Paris
64. While in Tokyo, Rizal was visited in Tokyo Hotel by the secretary of the Spanish Legation, who
invited him to live in that legation. What was that secretary of Spanish Legation?
a. Jose Maria Basa
b. Juan Salcedo
c. Juan perez caballero
d. Felix Hidalgo
65. Having realized that Spanish diplomatic authorities were instructed from Manila to watch out his
movements in Japan, Rizal accepted the invitation of the Spanish Legation for the following
reasons:
i) He could economize his living expenses by staying at Spanish Legation
ii) He could further his medical studies
iii) He had nothing to hide the prying eyes of the Spanish authorities
a. I only
b. Ii only
c. Iii only
d. I and iii
66. Which writing of Rizal stipulated the exemplary fighting spirit of women, such that whatever a
mother shows to her children is what the children will become also?
a. The Story of the Moth
b. To the Young Women of Malolos
c. Canto de Maria Clara
d. El Canto del Viajero
67. Rizal was eight years old when he wrote this poem. He realized the ultimate importance of
having a native tongue.
a. Remembrance to my Hometown
b. Our Mother Tongue
c. To Education
d. Intimate Alliance between Religion and Good Education
68. This was a prize winning-poem of Rizal when he was a student in UST. This poem proved that
an indio was not only equal but also more superior than the Spaniards in poetry writing.
a. To the Filipino Youth
b. They Ask Me for Verses
c. Hymn to Talisay
d. Kundiman
69. “The Triumph of Science Over Death” is Rizal’s famous:
a. Poem
b. Novel
c. Essay
d. Sculpture
70. Rizal was known to be the following EXCEPT one:
a. Sculptor
b. Painter
c. Essayist
d. Architect
71. On this year, Rizal was exiled in Dapitan, and ignited the fight of many Filipinos against the
Spaniards:
a. 1892
b. 1894
c. 1896
d. 1898
72. In this university, Rizal obtained his Licentiate in Medicine:
a. University of Sto. Tomas
b. Ateneo de Manila University
c. Universidad Central de Madrid
d. University of Heidelberg
73. It is an Act to include in the curricula of all public and private schools, colleges, and universities
courses on the Life, Works, and Writings of Jose Rizal.
a. RA 8545
b. RA 6655
c. RA 1425
d. RA 7836
74. Which work of Rizal was said to be angry man’s personal debate on whether or not a violent
revolution would solve the Philippine crisis during the Spanish times?
a. El Filibusterismo
b. Noli Me Tangere
c. Junto Al Pasig
d. A La Juventud Filipina
75. The Filipino students are taught to emulate the young Jose Rizal, who was everything listed
below, except _______.
a. Motivated
b. Loner
c. Very observant
d. Reflective
76. What was Rizal’s greatest resentment during his student days that motivated him to work
harder?
a. Unequal treatment of students by the Jesuits
b. Use of Spanish as a medium of instruction
c. Passivity of Filipino students
d. Prevailing discrimination
77. Who was known as the Lakambini of the Katipunan?

a. Trinidad Rizal
b. Melchora Aquino
c. Gregoria de Jesus
d. Delfina Herbosa
78. Which of the following occurred first?
a. Cry of Balintawak
b. Execution of Rizal at Bagumbayan
c. Trial and execution of Bonifacio
d. Proclamation of Philippine Independence at Cavite
79. Where did Rizal and Bonifacio not agree?
a. In the inclusion of women in the Katipunan
b. In how to win independence from Spain
c. In the manner of organizing the Katipunan
d. In their religious convictions
80. Who was the “boy general” that tried to delay American advances by making a last stand at
Pasong Tirad?
a. Antonio Luna
b. Juan Luna
c. Gregorio del Pilar
d. Macario Sakay
81. According to the National heroes Committee, who is given an implied recognition as the
Philippine National Hero aside from dr. Jose Rizal?
a. Apolinario Mabini
b. Benigni “Ninoy” Aquino
c. Emilio Aguinaldo
d. Andres Bonifacio
82. Who is the first private tutor of Jose?
a. Maestro Lucas
b. Maestro Cruz
c. Leon Monroy
d. Maestro Celestino
83. What is the event that disheartened Rizal during his early education?
a. The death of his sister Concha
b. The imprisonment of his mother
c. The death of Leon Monroy
84. Who was the college registrar who refused to admit Rizal in Ateneo?
a. Father Manuel Burgos
b. Father Xeres Burgos
c. Father Jose Bech
d. Father Magin Fernando
85. Who was the first professor of Jose in Ateneo?
a. Father Xeres Burgos
b. Father Jose Bech
c. Father Magin Fernando
86. What was the reason why the college registrar refused to admit Rizal in Ateneo?
a. Jose was already late for registration
b. Jose was so frail and sickly
c. Jose was too small for his age
d. All of the above
87. Why Jose did not used their family name Mercado when he enrolled at Ateneo?
a. Because he didn’t want their surname Rizal.
b. Because the surname Mercado had been under the suspicion of the American.
c. Because the surname Mercado had been under the suspicion of the Spanish.
d. For distinction, because there were many Filipinos used the surname Rizal.
88. Why Rizal was impressed in the book “Travels in the Philippines by Dr. Jagor?
a. Because it contained the careful observation and analysis about the the imperfections of
the Spanish colonization in the Philippines.
b. His prophecy that Spain would yield the Philippines to Japanese colonizers in the near
future.
c. Because the author of the book is German.
d. Both a & b
89. Who was the first romance of Rizal?
a. Leonor Rivera
b. Segunda Katigbak
c. Josephine Bracken
d. Consuelo
90. What was the reason why Rizal takes up medicine in UST?
a. He want to cure his mother’s growing blindness.
b. His father like the course.
c. His mother like the course.
d. He was not yet certain on what career to pursue.
91. Why was Rizal not granted the title for surveyors?
a. Because he was an Indio.
b. Because he was below age.
c. Because he has big head
d. Because he was a writer
92. Why the poem “A La Juventud Filipino” became classic in Philippine Literature?
a. It expressed the nationalistic concept of the Spaniards.
b. It was the great poem in Spanish written by a Spaniards.
c. It expressed for the first time the nationalistic concept that the Filipinos were the “Fair
and Hope of the Fatherland”.
d. Both a & b.
93. What is the reason why Rizal decided to continue his studies in abroad?
a. The biased and hostile Dominican professors were against him.
b. He was disgusted with the antiquated method of instruction in the university.
c. He wants to cure his mother illness.
d. All of the above
94. What was the first poem of Jose Rizal?
a. Un Recuerdo A Mi Pueblo
b. To My Fellow Children
c. In Memory of My Town
95. At what age Jose started to draw objects?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 8
96. Who was the first teacher of Pepe?
a. Maestro Celestino
b. Dona Teodora
c. Maestro Padua
d. Maestro Cruz
97. Who encouraged Rizal to develop his frail body?
a. Jose Alberto
b. Manuel
c. Gregorio
d. Paciano
98. Which proves that Filipinos already venerated Jose Rizal’s national hero before the Americans
recognized him as such?
a. The Dec. 15, 1968 manifesto of Jose Rizal convincing the Filipinos to stop rebellion
b. The testimonies of Pio Valenzuela about his conversation with Jose Rizal in Dapitan
c. The Dec. 20, 1898 proclamation issued by Gen. Emilio Aguinaldo
d. The second verse of the Mi Ultimo Adios which praises the revolutionaries
99. What could be inferred from the letter of Jose Rizal to Ferdinand Blumentritt on January 26,
1887 which states: “A peaceful struggle shall always be a dream, for Spain will never learn the
lesson of her South American colonies”?
a. Jose Rizal’s ambivalence towards revolution
b. Jose Rizal’s ideas about the reforms needed by the Philippines
c. Jose Rizal’s anti-revolutionary stance
d. Jose Rizal’s idea that revolution against Spain is eneviatble
100. Who was the college registrar who refused to admit Rizal in Ateneo?
a. Father Manuel Burgos
b. Father Xeres Burgos
c. Father Jose Bech
d. Father Magin Fernando
ANSWER KEY ***
1. A 52. A
2. C 53. B
3. B 54. A
4. D 55. B
5. A 56. A
6. B 57. B
7. B 58. A
8. A 59. A
9. A 60. C
10. A 61. B
11. C 62. D
12. C 63. D
13. B 64. C
14. D 65. D
15. C 66. B
16. B 67. B
17. B 68. A
18. A 69. D
19. A 70. D
20. B 71. A
21. B 72. C
22. B 73. C
23. C 74. A
24. D 75. B
25. D 76. D
26. B 77. D
27. B 78. A
28. C 79. B
29. D 80. C
30. B 81. D
31. A 82. D
32. D 83. B
33. C 84. D
34. B 85. B
35. A 86. D
36. C 87. C
37. C 88. A
38. D 89. B
39. D 90. A
40. D 91. C
41. C 92. C
42. B 93. C
43. D 94. B
44. A 95. C
45. A 96. B
46. D 97. A
47. D 98. C
48. D 99. D
49. B 100. D
50. B
51. D
MATH
152
1. In the Real World of Business, Finance, and Daily Life there are only "Four Math concepts" used,
since elementary school, what are they?
a. Read, Write, Spell, and Draw
b. Plan, Review, Respond, and Check
c. Add, Subtract, Multiply, and Divide
d. Stop, Look, Listen, and Go!
2. Which term does not mean, to Add?
a. Increase
b. Deposit
c. Profit
d. Loss
3. Which term means, to Multiply?
a. Exponents
b. Decimals
c. Combine like Terms
d. Integers
4. Which term means, to Subtract?
a. Deposit
b. Profit
c. Raise
d. Withdraw
5. Which term means, to Divide?
a. Group
b. Distribute
c. Consolidate
d. Combine
6. Which of these is Not a Banking term?
a. Deposit
b. Debit
c. Interest
d. Collaborate
7. Which term means, "stays the same amount"?
a. Interest
b. Fixed
c. Variable
d. Downpayment
8. Which term means, " to pay later"?
a. Credit
b. Debit
c. Profit
d. Deposit
9. Which term means, Business income?
a. Collateral
b. Revenue
c. Checks
d. Savings
10. Which term does not mean, to Subtract?
a. Withdrawal
b. Deposit
c. Debit
d. Loss
11. What is the rule for this pattern? 32, 36, 40, 44
a. add 4
b. multiply by 2
c. subtract 4
d. divide 2
12. Which of the following is NOT an example of Fibonacci numbers found in nature?
a. Spirals on a sunflower
b. the numbers of petals on a daisy
c. pinecone spirals
d. a mountain range
13. Good exposure to this strategy enhances one's skill in estimation.
a. Make a table
b. Tree Diagram
c. Guess and check
d. Venn diagram
14. A list of numbers has been given. Find the pattern necessary to complete the remainder of the
sequence 55, 89, 144, 233, 377, ____
a. 754
b. 500
c. 688
d. 610
15. The first few Fibonacci numbers are 0, 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, ... These numbers are named after
Fibonacci, whose real name is?
a. Leonardo da Vinci
b. Leonardo Di Carpio
c. Leonardo da Pisa
d. Leonardo da Euler
16. All of James and Patty's sons have brown eyes and all of their daughters have blue eyes. They
know from the ultrasound their new baby will be a boy. James and Patty conclude their new son will
have brown eyes. Which statement below is correct?
a. The conclusion is true, since it is based on inductive reasoning
b. The conclusion may be false, since it is based on inductive reasoning
c. The conclusion is true, since it is based on deductive reasoning
d. The conclusion may be false, since it is based on deductive reasoning
17. This type of logic in which one goes from a general statement to a specific instance:
a. Deductive reasoning
b. Mathematical induction
c. Inductive reasoning
d. Proofing
18. A certain number added twice to itself equals 96. What is the equation?
a. x + 2y = 96
b. x + x = 96
c. x + 2x = 96
d. 2x + 2y = 96
19. When 18 is subtracted from six times a certain number, the result is −42. What is the number?
a. -1
b. -2
c. -3
d. -4
20. Which statement is a valid conclusion based on the argument? If a polygon is a regular pentagon,
then the polygon has exactly five congruent angles. This polygon is a regular pentagon.
a. Therefore, this polygon is a rectangle.
b. Therefore, this polygon has exactly five congruent angles
c. Therefore, this polygon is a regular quadrilateral.
d. Therefore, this polygon has four congruent sides.
21. What do you call the process of gathering specific information usually done through observation
and measurement?
a. Analogy
b. Inductive reasoning
c. Intuition
d. Deductive reasoning
22. The range of R = {(0,2), (2,4),(3,4),(4, 5)} is

a. {0, 2, 4, 5}
b. {2, 4, 5}
c. {0, 2, 3, 4}
d. {3, 4 , 5}
23. If 2 sets A and B are given, then the set consisting of all the elements which are either in A or in B
or in both is called
a. Complement of A
b. Complement of B
c. Union of A and B
d. Intersection of A and B
24. Below are Polya’s Steps in Problem Solving. Which of the following follows the correct order of
the steps? 1 – Devise a Plan 2 – Look back 3 – Understand the Problem
4 – Carry out the Plan
a. 3142
b. 1342
c. 4132
d. 3214
25. In comparing two fractions, with the same numerator, one said he can subtract numerator from
the denominator and the smaller difference is the larger fraction. What kind of reasoning is being
defined?
a. Inductive reasoning
b. Deductive reasoning
c. Analogy
d. Intuition
26. Which of the following sets are equivalent?
a. {1, 2, 3, 4} & {2, 3, 4}
b. All of the above
c. { 9, 8 , 1} & { -1, 0, 1}
d. {a, b, c, d} & {1, 2
27. The number of elements in power set {1, 2, 3} are
a. 6
b. 8
c. 5
d. 7
28. Which of the following is demonstrating the associative property of multiplication?
a. 2 x 1= 2
b. 2 + (3+4) = (2+3) + 4
c. A(b x c) = (a x b)c
d. 2(b+4) = 2b+8
29. It is a sentence that is either true or false.
a. Contrapositive
b. Predicate
c. Proposition
d. Logic
30. Which relation is described as a one-to-one correspondence and many-to-one correspondence?
a. Function
b. Logic
c. Set
d. Binary function
31. It refers to a set that contains all the elements considered in a particular situation.
a. Universal set
b. Subset
c. Equal set
d. Proper subset
32. Which of the following sets is a universal set for the other four sets?
a. The set of odd natural numbers
b. The set of natural numbers
c. The set of integers
d. The set of even natural numbers
33. If 3 = (9/3) and (9/3) = (30/10) , then 3 = (30/10). What property of real numbers is being
illustrated?
a. Reflexive
b. Symmetric
c. Commutative
d. Transitive
34. Which of the following is the contrapositive of the given statement: If a figure is a square, then it is
a quadrilateral?
a. If a figure is not a square, then it is not a quadrilateral.
b. If a figure is not a quadrilateral, then it is not a square.
c. If a figure is a square, then it is not a quadrilateral.
d. If a figure is a quadrilateral, then it is a square.
35. Is a statement equivalent to the negation of a statement.
a. Denial
b. Inverse
c. Tautology
d. Contrapositive
36. What is the next number in the series?
1,3,7,15,31,…
a. 127
b. 47
c. 39
d. 63
37. What is the next number in the sequence?
9,7,5,3,1,…
a. 2
b. -1
c. 0
d. 1
38. Defines as the longer part divided by the smaller part is also equal to the whole length divided by
the longer part.
a. Fibonacci Number
b. Golden Ratio
c. Inductive
d. Deductive
39. What type of sequence deals with common ratio?
a. Arithmetic
b. Fibonacci
c. Geometric
d. Harmonic
40. This kind of pattern is unpredictable and it often contain fractals.
a. Geometric
b. Forms
c. Movement
d. Visual
41. Which of the following is an exponential function?
a. y=2x-8
b. x=y-3
c. x=y=2
d. y=10x²
42. Which of the numbers is divideb by 8?
a. 500
b. 700
c. 900
d. 9000
43. What is the square root of 121?
a. 11
b. 12
c. 13
d. 14
44. If 35% of the graduating class failed in NSAT and 260 passed. How many failed?
a. 91
b. 105
c. 140
d. 130
45. What is the 10% of P 1500?
a. P 140 c. P 160
b. P 150 d. P 170
46. Choose the number that is NOT divisible by 4?
a. 200 c. 548
b. 320 d. 134
47. Two times a certain number added to 40 gives the same result as three times the same number
subtracted from 75. What is the number?
a. 4 c. 6
b. 5 d. 7
48. A man is 4 times old as his son. Five years ago, the sum of their age is 65. How old is the son?
a. 20 c. 17
b. 15 d. 22
a. 44 c. 64
b. 54 d. 74
500. The palay harvested is 2 ¹/² kg. Convert this into grams.
a. 2000 grams c. 3000 grams
b. 2500 grams d. 3500 grams
51. Singapore at a time banned the growth of families beyond economic control. They decreed the
number of children to a limit of:
a. 1 c. 3
b. 2 d. 4
52. A water bed is 180cm wide, 210 cm long and 20 thick. What is its mass in kilograms when it is full
of water?
a. 7.56kg c. 7560kg
b. 756kg d. 7516kg
53. Liza received her grades in PEHM. For the fourth grading period l, the grades were 83, 86, 80,
and 88. What was her average grade?
a. 84 c. 85
b. 84 ½ d. 86
54. Divided 35 in the ratio of 3:4.
a. 10:25 c. 5:30
b 13:22 d. 15:20
55. How many years are there in a century?
a. 10 c. 1000
b. 100 d. 10000
56. Which of the given fraction is equal to 12/84?
a. 6/42 c. 1/7
b. 7/42 d. 1/8
57. An ice cream cone is 6mx63cm√ in depth. How many ice cream cones would you need for 630cm
of ice cream?
a. 60 c. 150
b. 100 d. 200
58. A kitchen is to be covered by linoleum. The area is 2m wide and 3.6m long. A role of linoleum is
90cm wide at P 12.60 per meter. Find the total length of linoleum required.
a 6.30m c. 8m
b. 6:30m d. 8:10m
59. Ms. Cruz is 44 years old. She was 22 years old when she born her oldest daughter who is ten
years older than her younger son. How old is her youngest son?
a. 11 c. 14
b. 12 d 17
a. 13 c. 17
b. 15 d. 14
61. What is the next number in the series? 1, 3, 7, 15, 31,….
A. 127
B. 47
C. 39
D. 63
62. Find the next term in the sequence below .
6,- 1,4_____
A. 9
B. 29
C. 16
D. 11
63. What is the next number in the sequence? 9, 7, 5, 3, 1……
A. 2
B. -1
C. 0
D. 1
64. The essence of the scientific process is
A. carefully controlled observations that eliminate investigator bias.
B. the construction of deductively valid theory es.
C. the continuous interplay between theory and data.
D. the particular methods and techniques that each science uses.
65. As a scientific enterprise, social research involves theory, verifiable data, logical reasoning, and
A. precise predictions about the social world.
B. systematic observation and analysis.
C. collaborative research.
D. well established methods of data collection.
66. In contrast to deductive reasoning, inductive reasoning
A. involves conclusions that are more or less probable.
B. is less descriptive of human thought processes.
C. moves from general principles to particular conclusions.
D. should be avoided in science whenever possible.
67. Suppose you reason as follows: If I spend 15 hours per week studying research methods, I will
earn an A in the course. I will study research methods at least 15 hours per week. Therefore, I will
earn an A in the course. What type(s) of reasoning is this?
A. inductive reasoning
B. deductive reasoning
C. neither inductive nor deductive reasoning
D. both inductive and deductive reasoning
68. Which of the following sequences best describes the deductive logic of inquiry?
A. theory → data → hypothesis
B. data → theory → hypothesis
C. data → empirical pattern → theory
D. theory → hypothesis → data
69. A researcher observes that more acts of vandalism are committed by same-sex gangs than by
mixed-sex gangs. She theorizes that competition for recognition among equal-status peers increases
the tendency to commit publicly deviant acts. What type(s) of reasoning is this?
A. inductive reasoning
B. deductive reasoning
C. neither inductive nor deductive reasoning
D. both inductive and deductive reasoning
70. Contrary to their hypothesis, Dixon and Rosenbaum found that the social setting in which whites
interacted with blacks
A. had no effect on their racial stereotypes.
B. increased anti-black stereotyping when whites had black relatives.
C. increased anti-black stereotyping when whites knew blacks from school.
D. reduced anti-black stereotyping when whites knew blacks in the workplace.
71. In her study of class differences in child rearing, Lareau
A. used the deductive logic of inquiry to test her theory of child rearing.
B. relied on data from a large-scale survey that asked about child rearing practices.
C. focused on families with pre-school age children.
D. inferred patterns from her data, which led to the development of a theory.
72. Which of the following principles follows from text's discussion of science and its limitations?
A. Scientific theory is a product of the times.
B. Scientific theories can be proven beyond a doubt.
C. Scientific data are free from bias and error.
D. Scientific inquiry eliminates the possibility of serendipity.
73. The discovery of the misclassification of network data in the 2004 General Social Survey
A. produced new findings more consistent with existing theories of social isolation.
B. shows how small errors in data generally have little effect on research findings.
C. illustrates how science has the capacity to correct errors and increase accuracy over time.
D. created a consensus among social scientists regarding the social isolation of Americans.
74. What is the rule for this pattern? 22, 26, 30, 34
A. add 4
B. multiply 2
C. subtract 4
D. divide by 2
75. The Fibonacci Sequence is the series of numbers:
0, 1, 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, 25, 34, ...
A. True
B. False
C. Correct
76. What number replaces the circle in this sequence? 4,6,10,16,26,42,68,◯
A. 126
B. 102
C. 94
D. 110
77. What number replaces the circle in the following sequence? 1,−4,9,−16,25,−36,◯...
A. -49
B. 49
C. 72
D. -72
78. Defines as the longer part divided by the smaller part is also equal to the whole length divided by
the longer part.
A. Fibonacci Number
B. Golden Ratio
C. Inductive
D. Deductive
79. Given sequence is, 4,7,10,13,16,19,22…What is the next number in the series?
A. 28
B. 25
C. 27
D. 30
80. It is an ordered list of numbers called terms that may have repeated values .
A. Exponential growth model
B. Sequence
C. Patterns
D. Fibonacci sequence
81 Paula is five times as old as Kim. In 9 years, she will be 16 years older than Kim. What are their
present ages? At present ______.
A. Paula is 17 years while Kim is 1 years old .
B. Paula is 19 years while Kim is 3 years old
C. Paula is 18 years while Kim is 2 years old
D. Paula is 20 years while Kim is 4 years old
82What is a spiral?
A. curve that starts at a center point and moves away from the center
B. repetition of straight-line shapes
C. start from a single point and grow outward in many directions
D. occurs when an organism has no right or left side
83 What is a pattern?
A. movement of energy from one place to another
B. curve that starts at a center point
C. a group of recurring objects or shapes
D. starts from a single point and grow outward in many directions
84. Which of the following arguments is / are example of inductive reasoning?
I. "The coin I pulled from the bag is a ₱10. The second coin is a ₱10. A third coin from
the
bag is a ₱10. Therefore, all the coins in the bag are ₱10’s."
II. “All men are mortal. Harold is a man. Therefore, Harold is mortal."
III. Jennifer always leaves for school at 7:00 a.m. Jennifer is always on time. Jennifer
assumes, then, that if she leaves at 7:00 a.m. for school today, she will be on time.
IV . Every chicken we've seen has been brown. All chickens in this area must be brown
A. I and II

B. II and III
C. I, III, and IV
D. all of the above
85. Which of the following arguments are examples of deductive reasoning ?

I. Every windstorm in this area comes from the north. I can see a big cloud of dust in the distance.
A new windstorm is coming from the north.
II. My country requires all lawyers pass the bar to practice. If I do not pass the bar, then I will not be
able to represent someone legally.
III. All dolphins are mammals. All mammals have kidneys. Then all dolphins have kidneys.
IV. All triangles have three interior angles that sum to 180°. Right triangles have exactly one
A. Only I

B. only II
C. only III
D. I , II, III, and IV
86. Three –sevenths of a pole is mud. When 23 of it is pulled out, an 4 meter long piece of the pole
still remains in mud . What is the full length of the pole? The whole length of the pole is ____.
a. 8m
b. 10m
c. 12m
d. 14m
87. The weight of 16 boxes of mangoes is 1 450 kg. What is the weight of 28 boxes of such
mangoes?
a. The weight of 28 boxes is 2506.5kg
b. The weight of 28 boxes is 2538.5kg
c. The weight of 28 boxes is 2537.5kg
d. The weight of 28 boxes is 2539.5kg
88. Robert can put on 42 pictures on 7 pages of his picture album. How many pages does he need
for 126 pictures?
a. He needs 19 pages for 126 pictures
b. He needs 21 pages for 126 pictures
c. He needs 20 pages for 126 pictures
d. He needs 23 pages for 126 pictures
89. Fifteen men can harvest a field in 40 days. In how many days will 30 men harvest it?
a. 30 men can harvest the field in 19 days
b. 30 men can harvest the field in 21 days
c. 30 men can harvest the field in 20 days
d. 30 men can harvest the field in 22 days
90. Mr. Bacalso borrowed P 60,000 to finance his farm. If the interest rate was 3.5%, how much
would he have to pay back at the end of the year?
a. P 62,50
b. P 62,100
c. P 62,200
d. P 62,300
91. Ms. Julie invested P 70,000 in an account that paid 12% compounded quarterly. How much
interest would Julie have earn by the end of 3 years.
a. P29,803.26
b. P29,803.36
c. P29,803.46
d. P29,803.56
92. An auditorium has 192 seats. The number of seats in each row is 4 less than the number of rows.
Find the number of seats in each row.
a. 8 seats in each row
b. 12 seats in each row
c. 15 seats in each row
d. 17 seats in each row
93. The sum of three consecutive numbers is 162. Find the last number .
A. 53
B. 54
C. 55
D. 56
94. Paula is five times as old as Kim. In 9 years, she will be 16 years older than Kim. What are
their present ages? At present ______.
A. Paula is 17 years while Kim is 1 years old .
B. Paula is 19 years while Kim is 3 years old
C. Paula is 18 years while Kim is 2 years old
D. Paula is 20 years while Kim is 4 years old
95. It takes 21 minutes to cut a log into 8 pieces. How long will it take to cut a log into 5 pieces?
A. 12 minutes
B. 13 minutes
C. 11 minutes
D. 14 minutes
96. Marc sold five pigs and four goats for Php. 21,000. Selling the animals at the same price, Brianna
sold three pigs and two goats for Php. 12,000. What is the selling price of each animal?
A. Php. 4,000-pig; Php. 1,000-goat
B. Php. 3,000-pig; Php. 1,500-goat
C. Php. 2,000-pig; Php. 2,000-goat
D. Php. 1,000-pig; Php. 2,500-goat
97. In Ms. Brown’s class, there are 24 students. There are 6 more girls than boys. How many boys
and girls are there?
A. There are 7 boys and 17 girls
B. There are 8 boys and 16 girls
C. There are 9 boys and 15 girls
D. There are 10 boys and 14 girls
98. Nadia takes a ribbon that is 48 inches long and cuts it in two pieces. One piece is three times as
long the other. How long is each piece?
A. The pieces are 12 inches and 36 inches long.

B. The pieces are 14 inches and 36 inches long.
C. The pieces are 16 inches and 36 inches long.
D. The pieces are 18 inches and 36 inches long.
99. Jack, Terence, Sharon and Alex are neighbors. Jack is half as old as Sharon. Sharon is three
years older than Alex. Alex’s and Sharon’s ages added together equal 17 years. Terence is eight.
Who is the youngest?
A. Jack is the youngest.
B. Terence is the youngest.
C. Sharon is the youngest.
D. Alex is the youngest.
100. Jasmin has four white mice, two males and two females. Each of the two couples has three
female baby mice. Then each of these females has four babies. One night, Jasmin’s little sister Aisha
leaves
the mice cage open and eight escape. How many mice does Jasmin have left?
A. Jasmin is left with 22 mice
B. Jasmin is left with 24mice
C. Jasmin is left with 26 mice
D. Jasmin is left with 28mice
ANSWER KEY
1. C 59. B
2. D 60. A
3. A 61. D
4. D 62. A
5. B 63. B
6. D 64. C
7. B 65. B
8. A 66. A
9. B 67. B
10. B 68. D
11. A 69. A
12. D 70. B
13. C 71. D
14. D 72. A
15. C 73. C
16. D 74. A
17. C 75. B
18. C 76. D
19. D 77. B
20. B 78. B
21. B 79. B
22. B 80. D
23. C 81. D
24. A 82. A
25. D 83. C
26. C 84. C
27. C 85. B
28. C 86. D
29. A 87. C
30. A 88. B
31. A 89. C
32. B 90. B
33. D 91. A
34. B 92. B
35. A 93. C
36. D 94. D
37. B 95. A
38. B 96. B
39. C 97. C
40. D 98. A
41. D 99. A
42. B 100. C
43. A
44. C
45. B
46. D
47. D
48. B
49. B
50. B
51. A
52. B
53. A
54. D
55. B
56. C
57. A
58. C

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EDU 259

26. It means “willing submission to God”

29. It is practiced as mindfulness of breathing and development of loving-kindness.

31. This practices aims at developing insight into reality

35. His philosophy introduced Dualism. “I think, therefore I exist”.

79. Williams defines internal reasons as:

97. What describes “Ethical Principles”?

16. Where is the “Mona Lisa” hanging in France?

11. C 44. A 80. C

12. B 45. C 81. C

21. B 55. C 91. B

22. B 56. A 92. B

23. C 57. C 93. C

24. C 59. A 94. C

25. D 60. C 95. D

26. A 61. C 96. B

27. D 62. B 97. D

28. C 63. A 98. A

29. B 64. D 99. C

30. B 65. B 100. D

77. Who was known as the Lakambini of the Katipunan?

22. The range of R = {(0,2), (2,4),(3,4),(4, 5)} is

A. I and II

85. Which of the following arguments are examples of deductive reasoning ?

A. Only I

A. The pieces are 12 inches and 36 inches long.

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