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DSDSC-200.

dell

Number: DSDSC-200
Passing Score: 800
Time Limit: 120 min

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Exam A

QUESTION 1
A deployment technician has cabled several enclosures on one chain: (1) SC200, (1) SC220, and (1) SC 280. When the deployment technician tries to configure
the Disk folder, some disks are missing.
What is the cause of this problem?

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A. A SC200 must be on a separate chain from the SC220 and SC280.


B. The SC220 must be on a separate chain from the SC200 and SC280.
C. The SC280 must be on a separate chain from the SC200 and SC220.
D. There are too many disks on the same chain.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 2
An engineer needs to install an LSI9206 SAS card in an existing SC8000 system that runs version 6.1.
Which step should the technician take to install this IO module?

A. As a hot-add card, install the card in any slot without powering down the controller.
B. Make sure that slots 1, 2, or 3 are available because the card can NOT be installed in a full-height slot.
C. Download the LSI 9206 firmware from the Compellent portal to apply to the card.
D. Update the SCOS to version 6.3 because this is the minimum version for this card to run.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 3
A deployment technician needs to install a dual-controller Storage Center with two Fibre Channel (FC) fabrics. The site will run in Legacy mode.
What is the correct front-end cabling?

A.

B.

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C.

D.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 4
The administrator notices that some disks show as down intermittently. The disks are all in the same enclosure.
What is the problem?

A. Each disk drive must be replaced.

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B. The enclosure is powered off.
C. The SAS cable is NOT fully seated.
D. The Disk folder is NOT properly configured.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 5
Which two steps should the engineer take prior to racking any equipment? (Choose two.)

A. remove batteries from controllers to prevent risk of electric shock


B. remove any jewelry or metal objects from the engineer’s body
C. remove the disk drives from inside the shipped enclosures
D. apply an ESD wrist or ankle strap to avoid damage to parts

Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 6
The SAS chain starts in port 1 controller 1 and ends at controller 2 at port 3.
What are the correct connections in a 4-port SAS IO card?

A. Side A port 1: port 3 & : Side B port 1: port 3


B. Side A port 3: port 3 & : Side B port 3: port 3
C. Side A port 1: port 1 & : Side B port 1: port 1
D. Side A port 1: port 1 & : Side B port 3: port 3

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 7
A customer has iSCSI servers that occasionally perform poorly. The performance issues on a particular server occur during temporary traffic spikes to that server.
Logs show that the number of dropped packets increases during the traffic spike. In normal traffic conditions, performance is acceptable.
What are iSCSI best practices to fix this problem?

A. make sure that switches used for iSCSI are non-blocking switches
B. disable storm control
C. enable jumbo frames end-to-end
D. enable bi-directional flow control

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 8
An engineer has several servers connected to the Storage Center through two FC fabrics. The Storage Center runs in Legacy mode. The engineer needs to create
zones based on World Wide Names (WWN).
Which WWNs from the Storage Center need to be included in the zone with the server WWN?

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A. only the Primary WWNs


B. only the Virtual WWNs
C. both the Primary and Reserve WWNs
D. both the Virtual and Physical WWNs

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
http://www.dell.com/support/manuals/us/en/19/dell-compellent-sc4020/sc4020om-v8/wwn-zoning-guidelines?guid=guid-66f1cd5c-3db0-44c2-9f2a-
aef2f6896715&lang=en-us

QUESTION 9
A deployment engineer is installing a dual-controller Storage Center with four FC ports in each controller. This system need to use Legacy Port mode because the
AIX version used requires it.
Which two configurations are required to set up the fault domains? (Choose two.)

A. There are only two fault domains used, one for primary ports and one for reserved ports.
B. There is a separate fault domain for each set of primary and reserved ports.
C. There are only two fault domains used, one for the ports in each fabric.
D. The primary and reserved ports in the fault domain need to reside on different controllers.

Correct Answer: BD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 10
An engineer needs to install an SC8000 with four FC ports in each controller and two FC switches set up in a dual fabric. Each controller also has two 10 Gb iSCSI
ports. All iSCSI ports are connected to an ethernet switch. The system uses virtual ports.
How many fault domains are required?

A. 3
B. 5
C. 4
D. 2

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 11
What are two 1 Gb iSCSI best practices to set up and-to-end connectivity (servers, switch, and storage)? (Choose two.)

A. Flow Control
B. Jumbo Frame
C. Spanning Tree
D. Unicast Storm Control

Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
iSCSI network best practices
Use a separate virtual local area network (VLAN) or switch for iSCSI traffic.
For multipathed iSCSI, use two separate VLANs and separate IP subnets.
Ensure the network bandwidth is sufficient to accommodate all virtual machine needs, with a minimum of gigabit full duplex between SC Series arrays and
Oracle VM Servers.
Disable routing between the regular network and iSCSI network.
Enable bi-directional flow control on all server and switch ports that handle iSCSI.
Disable spanning tree on ports connected to the end nodes. Control Port IP 14 Dell EMC SC Series Storage Best Practices for Oracle VM | CML1118
Consider using Jumbo Frames for improved performance. Jumbo Frames have been supported in Oracle VM Servers since v3.1.1.
If using Jumbo Frames, make sure all devices on the transmission path have Jumbo Frames enabled and support 9000 maximum transmission unit (MTU).
Ensure the MTU matches across all end-points including the SC Series array through Dell Enterprise Manager.

Reference: http://i.dell.com/sites/doccontent/shared-content/data-sheets/fr/Documents/ESG-Compellent-Switches-Best-Practices.pdf Page 17

QUESTION 12
A zone must include at least one target and at least one initiator.
How many targets and initiators should each zone include according to recommended best practice?

A. single initiator; multiple target


B. single initiator; single target
C. multiple initiator; multiple target
D. multiple initiator; single target

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
For server zones, it is a best practice to use single-initiator, multiple-target zones. For example, for each Fibre Channel port on the server, create a server zone that
includes the HBA WWN and all the virtual WWNs on the SC Series array controllers.

QUESTION 13
An engineer is configuring fault domains and front-end IO ports on a dual controller storage array. Any volumes that are later created and mapped to a server must
be active/optimized on one controller and standby on the other controller.
Which port mode should the engineer use to meet this requirement?

A. Physical Port Mode


B. Virtual Port Mode
C. Legacy Port Mode
D. ALUA Port Mode

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 14
A customer has a newly installed storage array. The customer needs to proactively monitor and report storage utilization on a regular basis.
Which customizable, proactive tool should be configured to perform this task?

A. Enterprise Manager Threshold Alerting


B. Dell SupportAssist
C. Storage Center Event Monitoring
D. Enterprise Manager Automated Reporting

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 15

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A customer has multiple Storage Centers at their main site and a DR system at a remote site. A particularly important volume requires High Availability protection.
An outage on one system at the main location must NOT cause data to be inaccessible. Disaster Recovery protection is also required to protect data even if the
entire main site goes down.
Which technology best meets these requirements?

A. Asynchronous Replication
B. Live Volume Managed Replication
C. Fluid Data Architecture
D. Synchronous Replication

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 16
An engineer has created a replay profile in which one replay is taken every 10 minutes. The expiration time is set to 1 week. The engineer needs to improve space
utilization without changing the 10-minute interval between the replays.
Which step should the engineer take to meet the requirement?

A. decrease the expiration time


B. select the option Allow Replays to coalesce into active Replay
C. set minimum Allowed Replay Interval to 15 minutes
D. change the interval to 24 hours

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 17
An engineer has recently completed installing a Storage Center. The engineer needs to configure the ability to set which tiers the volume uses for storage.
What should the engineer do to meet the requirements?

A. check “RAID type Used” in the Storage Center settings in EM

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B. check “Allow Storage Profile Selection” in the SC settings in EM
C. check “Allow Storage Profile Selection” in the Volume settings in EM
D. check “RAID Type Used” in the Volume settings in EM

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://en.community.dell.com/techcenter/extras/m/white_papers/20440324/download

QUESTION 18
A site has a single Storage Center. An engineer needs to limit access to specific volumes. These volumes should be accessed by the database administrators only.
The engineer must NOT lose any existing performance or data progression capabilities.
Which method should the engineer use to perform this task?

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A. create a new disk folder and create the volumes in that folder
B. create replica volumes on a different Storage Center at the remote site
C. create a new volume folder and move the desired volumes to the new folder
D. create a new Live Volume and give the database administrators access.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 19
An engineer has installed an SC8000 with 15K drives in Tier 1, and 7K drives in Tier 3. The volume is created using the recommended storage profile. A replay is
taken after the initial data is imported, which results in On Demand Data Progression running.
What is going to happen to the data?

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A. Drozen user data is converted to Raid 5/6 from Raid 10 immediately.
B. The oldest data moves to the lowest storage tier.
C. Data moves from Tier 1 storage to Tier 3.
D. Data moves to the lowest storage tier allowed by the storage profile.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 20

Refer to the exhibit.

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The user expires Replay 2.
Which page(s) are deleted?

A. A1
B. B, D, and E
C. A1 and C1
D. C1

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 21
An engineer needs to perform a data migration.
What should the engineer do to prevent Tier 1 storage from filling and causing poor performance?

A. use the “Copy to Tier” function to move data from Tier 1 to Tier 3
B. use the “Headroom” attribute for the Tier 1 disk folder to make more space
C. use the “Import to Lowest Tier” attribute for the volumes
D. use the “Re-route Migration Data” attribute for the Tier 1 disk folder

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 22
A customer has replication configured between its primary and DR sites.
When does a customer need to update QoS node settings?

A. A security audit has found a substantial portion of unencrypted traffic between sites.
B. The number of volumes being replicated between sites has doubled.
C. Additional storage capacity was added to the production system.
D. The bandwidth between sites has been upgraded.

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Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 23
A customer needs to monitor their database volumes to make sure the IOPS and throughput do NOT exceed the desired limits
What should the engineer do to automate this monitoring for the database volumes?

A. create an automated disk class report


B. create alert monitoring via charting tab
C. create a Threshold Query
D. create a Threshold Definition

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference: https://davidbraasch.files.wordpress.com/2012/12/680-017-017.pdf

QUESTION 24
A customer plans to use an SC8000 unit for long-term storage of CCTV security video recordings. Thus system consists of 84 – 4TB 7k disks. The customer does
not plan to take any replays on the system.
Which setup should be recommended to meet the customer’s requirements?

A. Tier Redundancy: Single Redundant


Data Page size: 2 MB
B. Tier Redundancy: Single Redundant
Data Page size: 4 MB
C. Tier Redundancy: Dual Redundant
Data Page size: 512 KB
D. Tier Redundancy: Dual Redundant
Data Page size: 4 MB

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)

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Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 25
How are replay scheduling rules applied to a particular volume?

A. A replay profile may have multiple schedule rules, but a volume belongs to exactly one replay profile.
B. A replay profile may have multiple schedule rules, and a volume may belong to multiple replay profiles.
C. A replay profile has exactly one schedule rule, but a volume may belong to multiple replay profiles.
D. A replay profile has exactly one schedule rule, and a volume belongs to exactly one replay profile.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 26

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Refer to the exhibit.
A Storage Center installation has recently been completed as shown.
How much space is unusable for volumes?

A. 4.2 TB
B. 771.91 MB
C. 14.08 TB
D. 771.75 MB

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 27
Immediately after creating a volume, which workflow disables the Dynamic Capacity on a specific volume?

A. Within system properties, uncheck the item “Dynamic Capacity”.


B. Within volume properties, uncheck the option “Thin Provision”.
C. Right-click on the desired volume and select “Preallocate Storage”.
D. Right-click on the volume and select “Disable Thin Provision”.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 28
When testing controller failover the customer notices that the IOMeter running on the server paused, then continued running IO without reporting an error. The
customer expresses concern to the deployment engineer.
How should the engineer respond to the customer?

A. This is normal behavior because only one server path gets used when a controller fails.
B. The server multi-pathing software is configured incorrectly.

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C. The Fibre Channel (FC) switch zoning is configured incorrectly.
D. This is normal behavior because the system has to move WWNs to different ports.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 29

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Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer needs to correctly configure the fault domain on the Storage Array for the dual-fabric Fibre Channel environment shown. Full connectivity and failover
from the storage array configured in legacy port mode for the servers in this environment are required.
Which fault domain configuration meets the requirements?

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A. A fault domain that contains P4, P3, P2, and P1; and a fault domain that contains R4, R3, R2, and R1
B. A fault domain that contains P4, R4, P3, and R3; and a fault domain that contains P2, R2, P1, and R1
C. A fault domain that contains P4 and R4, a fault domain that contains P3 and R3, a fault domain that contains P2 and R2, and a fault domain that contains P1
and R1
D. A fault domain that contains P4 and P3, a fault domain that contains R4 and R3, a fault domain that contains P1 and P2, and a fault domain that contains R1
and R2

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 30
Which two of the following actions are required to successfully update Storage Center OS using the Storage Center Update Utility? (Choose two.)

A. Check the box in Edit Storage Center Settings to enable Storage Center Update Utility.
B. Send a SupportAssist so that a SCOS Pre-Upgrade check can be done first.
C. Pause Live Volume replications prior to starting the Storage Center update process while using this utility.
D. Disable SupportAssist to allow the Storage Center Update Utility to communicate with the Storage Center.
E. Apply a license to the Storage Center to use the Storage Center Update Utility.

Correct Answer: AD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
http://topics-cdn.dell.com/pdf/dell-compellent-sc4020_administrator%20guide9_en-us.pdf

QUESTION 31
A Storage Administrator wants to do a Storage Center OS update to SCOS version 6.7.5. The Storage Center is currently at SCOS version 6.5.30. The Storage
Center is at a secure facility and does NOT allow connectivity to any network outside the facility. The Storage Administrator is trying to use the Storage Center
Update Utility to accomplish this task, but has been unsuccessful in doing so.
Why has the Storage Administrator been unsuccessful?

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A. The Storage Center has NOT passed Pre-Upgrade checks and is blocking the update from occurring.
B. The secure facility is NOT allowing the Storage Administrator’s laptop to connect to the Storage Center across the network.
C. The Storage Center is NOT licensed to use the Storage Center Update Utility.
D. The Storage Center is NOT at the minimum required SCOS version to use the utility.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 32

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Refer to the exhibit.
A technician is performing an SC8000 ISO update to the latest SCOS version. The technician logs into the iDRAC, selects the ISO file, and reboots the controller.
The screen appears as shown.
What should be the technician’s next step?

A. Type “Maintenance” and press “Enter” to provide a menu of installation choices.


B. Type “Installer” and press “Enter” to show a Maintenance menu.

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C. Type “Setup” and press “Enter” for a menu of update options.
D. Type “Exit” and press “Enter” to reset the controller and allow access to the Boot Manager menu.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 33
Which three items should be entered to generate a SSL certificate? (Choose three.)

A. Storage Center eth1 IP address(es)


B. DNS Server IP address(es)
C. Storage Center Management IP address
D. Storage Center eth0 IP address(es)
E. DNS Host Name(s)

Correct Answer: CDE


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 34

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Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer has almost finished the setup wizard when the screen appears as shown.
What are two reasons that FC should remain in Legacy mode? (Choose two.)

A. The customer has servers that run an older version of AIX.


B. The customer has an FC switch that does NOT support NPIV.
C. The customer needs to replicate some volumes to an older SC40.
D. The environment only has one fabric/network.

Correct Answer: AB

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Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 35
An engineer updates the SCOS version from 6.5.x to 6.6.x on an SC4020 via ISO. The engineer uses the following credentials: admin / admin. The engineer calls
Dell Support for final health checks and is informed that a newer SCOS 6.6.x version is available. The engineer tries to perform another ISO update to the newest
SCOS 6.6.x version. The engineer is unable to log back in to the BMC interface to start the ISO update.
What should the engineer do to update the newest SCOS version via ISO?

A. use the login credentials root/ calvin in SCOS 6.6.x


B. update Java to version 8 to use the updated BMC interface
C. downgrade Java to version 7 from version 8
D. request Dell Support to reset the expired admin password

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 36
A technician needs to perform a SCOS version update via ISO to an SC8000. The technician needs to connect to the controller with a web browser to the iDRAC IP
address.
What are three ways that the technician should use to obtain the iDRAC IP address? (Choose three.)

A. use serial connection to the controllers (CLI)


B. open the Controller Properties with the Storage Center System Manager
C. open the iDRAC Configuration Properties within the Storage Center System Manager
D. view LCD Panel on the Front of Controller
E. open the configuration Settings Wizard under System Properties within the Storage Center System Manager

Correct Answer: ACE


Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 37
When replacing a defective SC4020 controller with a new controller, the engineer notices that the new controller does NOT fully initialize. The system runs SCOS
version 6.5.30.
Which three actions should the engineer take? (Choose three.)

A. contact Dell Support


B. note the controller LEDs that are lit or blinking
C. send a PhoneHome/SupportAssist
D. remove the battery from the controller
E. remove power cables from the chassis to drain the BMC

Correct Answer: BCD


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 38
In the setup wizard, which three options are available to choose how the Storage Center handles software updates? (Choose three.)

A. Download and apply software updates automatically.


B. Download software updates automatically and notify me.
C. Notify me of a software update but do not download automatically.
D. Search for the ISO file and download automatically.
E. Do not automatically check for software updates.

Correct Answer: BCE


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 39
Which command will successfully set the eth0 IP address on an SC4020 controller to 172.16.14.5 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0?

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A. ifconfig inet eth0 172.16.14.5 255.255.255.0
B. controller ipconfig eth0 172.16.14.5 255.255.255.0
C. ifconfig inet eth0 172.16.14.5/24
D. controller ipconfig eth0 172.16.14.5/24

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://en.community.dell.com/support-forums/storage/f/4427/t/19988178

QUESTION 40
During the setup wizard, which two advanced options are available when creating a disk folder? (Choose two.)

A. Import from External Disk


B. RAID stripe width
C. Tier Redundancy
D. Data Page Size

Correct Answer: CD
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 41
An engineer needs to use a set of commands to initialize a new SC8000 with serial numbers 12345 & 12346 from the CLI.
Which initial set of commands should the engineer choose?

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A.

B.

C.

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D.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 42
A deployment technician needs to install a dual-controller Storage Center with an SC200 enclosure and an SC280 enclosure.
What is the correct back-end cabling?

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A.

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B.

C.

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D.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 43
Refer to the exhibit.

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Which port should the deployment technician connect to when setting the HSN and SSN?

A.

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B.

C.

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D.

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 44
Refer to the exhibit.

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A dual-controller system has two SC200 enclosures connected to it as shown.
Why is the cabling incorrect?

A. The red cables are connected to initiator only ports, and the black cables are connected to initiator/target ports.
B. The black cable is connected in the wrong direction.
C. The interconnecting cables between the two enclosures are connected to the wrong enclosure management module.
D. The cross connect cables between the controllers are connected to the wrong ports.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

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Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 45
The deployment technician needs to install a dual-controller system using SCSI. The site will use two switches/VLANs and run in Virtual Ports mode.
What is the correct iSCSI cabling?

A.

B.

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C.

D.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 46
An engineer needs to physically install a two-port FC IO card.
Which steps should the engineer follow to perform this task?

A. Remove controller cover, remove existing FC IO card, and insert the FC IO card in the proper slot.
B. Remove controller cover, attach ESD strap, and insert the FC IO card in the proper slot.
C. Unplug power, attach ESD strap, remove existing FC IO card, and insert the FC IO card in the proper slot.

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D. Unplug power, remove controller cover, attach ESD strap, and insert the FC IO card in the proper slot.

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 47
Flex ports are enabled to add redundant paths for existing iSCSI hosts. A new VLAN is created with identical settings. The network administrator reports high
retransmits on all newly added paths.
Which best practice configuration is missing?

A. Configure a QoS node to optimize performance


B. Adjust the MTU value on the Flex Port Fault Domain
C. Install Flex port license
D. Change the VLAN ID from the default of 3260

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://en.community.dell.com/cfs-file/__key/telligent-evolution-components-attachments/13-4491-00-00-20-44-16-
72/2096_2D00_BP_2D00_INF_5F00_SC_5F00_Series_5F00_Flex_5F00_Port_5F00_Functionality_5F00_BPandRA.pdf?forcedownload=true

QUESTION 48
An administrator has multiple servers that need to be connected to the Storage Center through two iSCSI networks. The engineer uses a software iSCSI initiator on
the servers. The Storage Center runs in Virtual Port mode.
What item(s) must the administrator know to connect the hosts to the Storage Center?

A. Management IP address
B. Virtual port IP address
C. iSCSI Initiator Name
D. Control port IP addresses

Correct Answer: D
Section: (none)

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Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 49
A storage administrator is setting up replication between two Storage Centers for the first time and needs to determine the proper zoning for the two systems to
communicate. Both Storage Centers are using Virtual Port mode.
Which three zones are the proper zones to set up in each fabric? (Choose three.)

A. A single zone to include all Storage Center physical WWPNs of system B and the virtual WWPNs of system A
B. A single zone to include all Storage Center physical WWPNs from system A and system B
C. A single zone to include all Storage Center virtual WWPNs from system A and system B
D. A single zone to include all Storage Center physical and virtual WWPNs from system A and system B
E. A single zone to include all Storage Center physical WWPNs of system A and the virtual WWPNs of system B

Correct Answer: ABE


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Replication
Storage Center System A (Virtual Port Mode) to Storage Center System B (Virtual Port Mode)
• Include all Storage Center physical WWPNs from system A and system B in a single zone.
• Include all Storage Center physical WWPNs of system A and the virtual WWPNs of system B on the particular fabric.
• Include all Storage Center physical WWPNs of system B and the virtual WWPNs of system A on the particular Fabric.

QUESTION 50
An engineer needs to configure a server HBA port to connect to the storage array via FC. The storage is configured in legacy port mode.
The engineer needs to provide full connectivity from the storage array to the server HBA port.
Which two zone configurations on the FC switch should the engineer use to meet the requirement? (Choose two.)

A. Include all Storage Center physical WWPNs in a single zone


B. Include the single HBA port WWPN and all visible Storage Center primary WWPNs in a single zone
C. Include all Storage Center virtual WWPNs in a single zone.
D. Include the single HBA port WWPN and all visible Storage Center reserve WWPNs in a single zone
E. Include all Storage Center primary and reserve WWPN in a single zone

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Correct Answer: BE
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Legacy Mode:
• Include all Storage Center primary and reserve WWPNs in a single zone.
• For each host server HBA port, create a zone that includes the single HBA port WWPN and multiple Storage Center primary WWPNs on the same switch.

QUESTION 51
An engineer installed the Dell Storage Manager Server Agent on a Windows 2008 R2 server. The engineer configured White Space Recovery for the specific
server, but recovery is NOT completing successfully when it is scheduled to run.
What should the engineer change to allow White Space Recovery to run successfully?

A. Globally enable Automated Space Recovery in the Servers viewer of Dell Storage Manager.
B. Convert the disk in Windows targeted for space recovery from NTFS to FAT32.
C. Convert the disk in Windows targeted for space recovery from basic to dynamic.
D. Create a Live Volume Replication for the volume targeted for space recovery in Dell Storage Manager.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 52
An engineer configures a new SC4020. The same day, the engineer receives an alert that all disks are being seen on only one path.
What are two reasons for this alert? (Choose two.)

A. The other path to the disks was NOT managed.


B. One SAS cable is defective.
C. One SAS cable was NOT connected between the enclosures.
D. The alert definition has been configured incorrectly.
E. Both SAS cables are defective.

Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)

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Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 53
A local Storage Array replicates to a remote Storage Array. A problem occurs on the local Storage Array, which causes the engineer to failover to the remote
Storage Array. Once the problem is fixed, the engineer needs to fail back to the local Storage Array. When the engineer tries to fail back to the local Storage Array,
NO volumes are available to fail back.
What is the cause of the problem?

A. NO Replication QoS definition exists.


B. The Replication Restore Points need to be validated.
C. The remote Storage Array is still running.
D. The local Storage Array is still running.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 54
A storage administrator creates a new volume, applies the Recommended Storage Profile, and writes 9 TB of data to that new volume. This data currently resides
in Tier 1, RAID 10. The storage array has three distinct tiers of drives (SSD, 15K, and 10K). The storage administrator is concerned that Tier 1 space is close to
being fully used and will start to cause performance issues.
When will the storage administrator begin to see volume data move between Tier 1 and Tier 2?

A. One regular Data Progression cycle after the replay is taken


B. Four regular Data Progression cycles after the replay is taken
C. Immediately after a replay is taken with the use of On-Demand Data Progression
D. Twelve regular Data Progression cycles after the replay is taken

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 55
A Storage Center system has 6 connections to a FC switch. The Storage Center is in Virtual Port mode.
How many members are in a server zone?

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A. 8
B. 6
C. 7
D. 4

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Virtual port mode
• Include all Storage Center virtual WWNs in a single zone.
• Include all Storage Center physical WWNs in a single zone.
• For each host server HBA port, create a zone that includes the single HBA
WWN and multiple Storage Center virtual WWNs on the same switch.

QUESTION 56
An engineer needs to install Storage Centers at the customer’s production and DR sites. The customer has a VMware environment with datastores on the Storage
Center attached to the ESX hosts. Enterprise Manager provides the Activate DR Site wizard to bring the datastores online at the DR site if needed.
What is the compatible VMware tool that will fail over the VMware environment?

A. vCenter Site Recovery Manager


B. Storage vMotion
C. vSphere DRS
D. Asymmetrical Logical Unit Access

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Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 57
A new volume has been mapped to a VMware host.
From the Storage Center GUI, which item should be used to help identify the new volume?

A. Storage Center System Name


B. the volume serial number
C. the volume name
D. the WWN of the controller port

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 58
An engineer has multiple servers connected to the Storage Center through two iSCSI networks. The engineer uses a software iSCSI initiator on the servers. The
Storage Center runs in Virtual Ports mode.
Which IP address is required in the iSCSI initiator for proper connectivity?

A. Control Port IP address for each domain


B. Management IP address of each controller
C. Primary IP address for each domain
D. Reserve IP address for each domain

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 59
An engineer maps a volume to the Windows 2012 R2 server and scans for disks within the Windows Disk Management Console. The engineer sees multiple
instances of the mapped volume. The operating system was recently installed on the server that is experiencing the problem. No additional features have been
added.
Which three steps should the engineer take within Windows to fix the problem? (Choose three.)

A. add the ‘Multipath I/O’ server Feature


B. add the Storage Center specific hardware ID within Windows MPIO
C. choose the disk object with the lowest disk number and delete the rest
D. make sure that the iSCSI Initiator service runs on the server
E. reboot the server after making the correct configuration changes

Correct Answer: ABE


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 60
A deployment engineer needs to upgrade an existing dual-controller SC030 system to a dual-controller SC800 system. The deployment engineer needs to
document the existing port configuration to prepare to start the physical upgrade.
Which two steps are required to accurately document the existing port configuration? (Choose two.)

A. Record the Hardware Serial Number (HSN), System Serial Number (SSN), and SCOS version from each controller.
B. Create cable labels to correlate the Starting Inventory Slot and Port to the Ending Inventory Slot and Port.
C. Record the firmware version of the current controller IO Cards/Ports and final controller IO Cards/Ports.
D. Create a current controller IO Card/Port Usage table and a final controller IO Card/Port usage table.

Correct Answer: AC
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 61
The engineer is upgrading an 8 Gb FC card to an 16 Gb FC card.

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Which option should the onsite engineer choose in the IO card change wizard?

A. link to existing
B. new IO card
C. change port config
D. not set

Correct Answer: B
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 62
To configure ports, which three purposes can be set on a port in Virtual Port mode? (Choose three.)

A. Front End
B. Front End Primary
C. Back End
D. Unknown
E. Front End Reserved

Correct Answer: ACD


Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 63
What is the first sequence of commands that should be used to initialize and SC8000 system after connecting the serial cable?

A. shellaccess developer
platform init hsn set ##### (Replace ##### with the proper serial number)
platform init ssn set ##### (Replace ##### with the proper serial number)
cs initialize
-reload
B. shellaccess developer

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platform set hsn init ##### (Replace ##### with the proper serial number)
platform set ssn init ##### (Replace ##### with the proper serial number)
cs purge all
-reset
C. shellaccess developer
platform init hsn set ##### (Replace ##### with the proper serial number)
platform init ssn set ##### (Replace ##### with the proper serial number)
cs purge all
-reset
D. shellaccess developer
platform init hsn set ##### (Replace ##### with the proper serial number)
platform init ssn set ##### (Replace ##### with the proper serial number)
cs purge all
-reload

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://www.ens-az.com/blog/dellcompellent-sc8000-controller

QUESTION 64
A volume containing video files 1-10 GB in size uses the default Daily replay profile. This volume needs to be replicated. The customer needs to use Asynchronous
replication and have changes to this volume sent to the DR site throughout the day. The volume should appear in the same volume folder on the DR system as it
does on the Production system.
Which two replication settings should be enabled in the create replication wizard to meet the customer needs? (Choose two.)

A. Replicate Active Replay


B. Create Source Volume Folder Path
C. High Consistency
D. Deduplication

Correct Answer: AB
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

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QUESTION 65
Refer to the exhibit.

Which action will delete only page C1?

A. Expire replay 2
B. Expire replay 1
C. Expire replay 3
D. Expire replay 4

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Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 66
A site has multiple storage administrators. Some administrators need to be limited to manage only specific volumes. The administrator should be able to create and
present volumes within the administrator’s area. Those administrators should NOT be able to see any other volumes created in the Storage Center.
How should the deployment engineer accomplish this task?

A. Grant the administrator Volume Manager access. Create server folders and move the desired volumes into them, then assign the server folder to the desired
administrator.
B. Grant the administrator Admin user access. Create server folders and move the desired volumes into them, then assign the server folder to the desired
administrator.
C. Grant the administrator Volume Manager access. Create volume folders and move the desired volumes into them, then assign the volume folder to the desired
administrator.
D. Grant the administrator Admin user access. Create volume folders and move the desired volumes into them, then assign the volume folder to the desired
administrator.

Correct Answer: C
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 67
A customer has an 8 TB database. Half of the data is hot with very frequent access. The other half of the data is older, infrequently used cold data. The customer
buys (12) 800 GB SLC Solid State Drives, and puts them in a new disk folder called “Database”. The customer then creates volumes for this database in the
Database disk folder using the recommended storage profile.
After this database has been running for 1 month, the Statistics tab for the database volumes shows 100% of the space is on Tier 1. The customer expected that
half of the data would be on Tier 1 and the rest moved to lower tiers.
What is the problem?

A. The volumes were created in the Database disk folder, so Data Progression can NOT move the cold data to lower tier disks.
B. Data Progression does NOT run on database volumes because database vendors have specific best practices for laying out their data across tiers.
C. The Recommended storage profile will only use SSD tier(s) if any are available, so the cold data can NOT move down.

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D. There is enough space on Tier 1 to hold the entire STB database, so even the cold data will stay on Tier 1 until it gets full.

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 68
Which characteristic of OLTP workloads needs to be considered when optimizing OLTP workloads on the SC array?

A. OLTP workloads typically consist of small, random reads and writes


B. OLTP workloads typically consist of large, sequential reads and writes
C. OLTP workloads are only supported on SSD drives
D. OLTP workloads are only supported on spinning disks

Correct Answer: A
Section: (none)
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Reference: http://en.community.dell.com/techcenter/extras/m/white_papers/20438053/download

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