9th Class EdunoOlympiad

PRACTICE QUESTIONS BOOKLET
EDUNO
NATIONAL
OLYMPIAD
India’s Leading Olympiad
9th class
This booklet contains

practice questions
OLYMPIAD.EDUNOTECH.COM
INDEX
EDUNO NATIONAL OLYMPIAD - SOCIAL STUDIES Page 3-31
EDUNO NATIONAL OLYMPIAD - ENGLISH Page 32-58
EDUNO NATIONAL OLYMPIAD - SCIENCE Page 59-82
EDUNO NATIONAL OLYMPIAD - MATHEMATICS Page 83-103
Page 2
EDUNO
NATIONAL
OLYMPIAD
Social
Studies
EDUNO NATIONAL OLYMPIAD - SOCIAL STUDIES
1. The Tropic of Cancer does not pass through: (MCQ)

A. Rajasthan B. Orissa
C. Chhatisgarh D. Tripura
2. The easternmost longitude of India is: (MCQ)
A. 97° 25' E B. 68° 7' E
C. 77° 6' E D. 82° 32' E
3. Utaranchal, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal and Sikkim have
common frontiers with: (MCQ)
A. China B. Bhutan
C. Nepal D. Myanmar
4. If you intend to visit Kavarati during your summer vacations, which
one of the following Union Territories of India you will be going to: (MCQ)
A. Pondicherry B. Lakshadweep
C. Andaman and Nicobar D. Diu and Daman
5. My friend hails from a country which does not share land boundary
with India. Identify the country: (MCQ)
A. Bhutan B. Tajikistan
C. Bangladesh D. Nepal
6. The group of islands lying in the Arabian sea are: (MCQ)
A. Lakshadweep B. Andaman and Nicobar
C. Daman and Diu D. Havelock
7. The countries which are larger than India are: (MCQ)
A. Russia, Canada and USA
B. China, Brazil and Australia
C. Both option 1 and option 2
D. Saudi Arabia, Canada and Egypt
8. Which island group of India lies to its south-east? (MCQ)
A. Lakshadweep B. Andaman and Nicobar
C. Daman and Diu D. Havelock
9. Which island countries are our southern neighbours? (MCQ)
A. Sri Lanka B. Maldives
C. Both option 1 and option 2 D. Lakshadweep
10. Choose the correct option: Which parallel of latitude divides India
into almost two equal parts? (MCQ)
A. Equator B. Tropic of cancer
C. Tropic of Capricorn D. Arctic circle
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11. Choose the correct option: How much of the total geographical area
of world does India account for? (MCQ)
A. 37.6 % B. 20.4 %
C. 2.4 % D. 240 %
12. Fill in the blanks: From Gujarat to Arunachal Pradesh, there in a
time lag of ________________________. (MCQ)
A. Two B. Three
13. Fill in the blanks:
India is entirely lying in the ________________________hemisphere. (MCQ)
A. Eastern B. Northern
14. Fill in the blanks: In the north-west, India shares its boundaries with
________________________ and ________________________. (MCQ)
A. Pakistan and Sri Lanka
B. Sri Lanka and Maldives
C. Pakistan and Afghanistan
________________________ is the northernmost latitude of India. (MCQ)
A. 22°N B. 37°6'N
16. Mountain ranges in the eastern part of India forming its boundary with
Myanmar are collectively called as: (MCQ)
A. Himachal B. Uttaranchal
C. Purvanchal D. None of the above
17. A landmass bounded by sea on three sides is referred to as: (MCQ)
A. Coast B. Island
C. Peninsula D. None of the above
18. The western coastal strip, south of Goa is referred to as: (MCQ)
A. Coromandel B. Konkan
C. Kannad D. Northern Circar
19. The highest peak in the Eastern Ghats is: (MCQ)
A. Anai Mudi B. Kanchenjunga
C. Mahendragiri D. Khasi
20. Which of the following continents of today were not part of the
Gondwana land? (MCQ)
A. South Africa B. Australia
C. South America D. North America
21. Name the three major divisions of the Himalayas from north to
south (MCQ)
A. Himadri, Himachal and Shivalik
B. Himachal, Shivalik and Himadri
C. Himadri, Mahabharat and Shivalik
D. Himachal, Shivalik and Dhaula Dhar
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22. Which plateau lies between the Aravali and the Vindhyan
ranges? (MCQ)
A. Chotanagpur B. Malwa
C. Deccan D. Meghalaya
23. Name the island group of India having coral origin. (MCQ)
A. Andaman and Nicobar B. Lakshadweep
C. Daman and Diu D. Puducherry
24. What is the bhabar? (MCQ)
A. The rivers, after descending from the mountains deposit pebbles in
a narrow belt of about 8 to 16 km in width lying parallel to the slopes of
the Shiwaliks. It is known as bhabar.
B. The rivers, after descending from the forests deposit silt in a narrow
belt of about 8 to 16 km in width lying parallel to the slopes of the
Shiwaliks. It is known as bhabar.
C. The rivers, after ascending from the mountains deposit sand in a
wide belt of about 8 to 16 km in width lying parallel to the slopes of
the Vindhyas. It is known as bhabar.
D. The rivers, after descending from the plains deposit pebbles in a
narrow belt of about 20 to 22 km in width lying parallel to the slopes
of the Shiwaliks. It is known as bhabar.
25. Choose the correct option: This plateau is triangular in shape: (MCQ)
A. Deccan B. Malwa
C. Chota Nagpur D. Shillong
26. In which of the following states is the Wular lake located? (MCQ)
A. Rajasthan B. Uttar Pradesh
C. Punjab D. Jammu and Kashmir
27. Which one of the following describes the drainage patterns
resembling the branches of a tree? (MCQ)
A. Radial B. Dendritic
C. Centrifugal D. Trellis
28. The river Narmada has its source at: (MCQ)
A. Satpura B. Brahmagiri
C. Amarkantak D. Slopes of the Western Ghats
29. Which one of the following lakes is a salt water lake? (MCQ)
A. Sambhar B. Dal
C. Wular D. Gobind Sagar
30. Which one of the following is the longest river of the Peninsular
India? (MCQ)
A. Narmada B. Krishna
C. Godavari D. Mahanadi
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31. Which one amongst the following rivers fows through a rift valley? (MCQ)
A. Damodar B. Tungabhadra
C. Krishna D. Tapi
32. Where do the rivers Indus and Ganga have their origin? (MCQ)
A. Nanda Devi B. Himalayas
C. Yamunotri D. Milam
33. Which two Peninsular rivers flow through trough? (MCQ)
A. Narmada and Tapi B. Tapi and Satluj
C. Narmada and Ganga D. Krishna and Tapi
34. Name the two headstreams of the Ganga. (MCQ)
A. Alaknanda, Bhagirathi B. Alaknanda, Devprayag
C. Mansarovar, Bhagirathi D. Mansarovar, Devprayag
35. Identify the lake as Man-made or natural: Wular lake (MCQ)
A. Man-made B. Natural
36. The wind blowing in the northern plains in summers is known as: (MCQ)
A. Kaal Baisakhi B. Loo
C. Trade winds D. None of these
37. Which one of the following places receives the highest rainfall in
the world? (MCQ)
A. Silchar B. Mawsynram
C. Cherrapunji D. Guwahati
38. Which one of the following causes rainfall during winters in
north-western part of India? (MCQ)
A. Cyclonic depression B. Retreating monsoon
C. Western disturbances D. Southwest monsoon
39. Monsoon arrives in India approximately in: (MCQ)
A. Early May B. Early July
C. Early June D. Early August
40. Which one of the following characterises the cold weather season
in India? (MCQ)
A. Warm days and warm nights B. Warm days and cold nights
C. Cold days and cold nights D. Cold days and warm nights
41. Which winds account for rainfall along the Malabar coast? (MCQ)
A. South-west monsoon winds B. North-west monsoon winds
C. North-east monsoon winds D. South-east monsoon winds
42. Choose the correct option: The houses with thick walls and fat roofs
are formed in: (MCQ)
A. Rajasthan B. Gujrat
C. Madhya Pradesh D. None of these
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43. Which part of India does experience the highest diurnal range of
temperature?
A. Desert of Kutch B. Thar desert
C. Jaisalmer D. Rajasthan
44. Choose the correct option: The part of India which receives most
of its annual rainfall in winters is (MCQ)
A. South-eastern part of the country B. North-eastern part
C. South-west part D. All the above
45. Choose the correct option:
Name the states which receive winter rainfall. (MCQ)
A. Odisha and Andhra Pradesh
B. Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh
C. West Bengal and Orissa
D. All the above
46. Choose the correct option: Kaal baisakhi means (MCQ)
A. Destruction B. Tomorrow
C. Yesterday D. None of these
Extreme climate is generally associated with (MCQ)
A. Tropical areas B. Temperature areas
C. Interior areas D. None of these
48. Choose the correct option: Which of the following plays a major
role in determining the climate of place? (MCQ)
A. Altitude B. Relief
C. Latitude D. None of these
49. Choose the correct option: What is the cause of snowfall in the
Himalayas during the winter season? (MCQ)
A. Western disturbances B. Advancing monsoon
C. Retreating monsoon D. Bay of Bengal Branch
50. Choose the correct option: Which mountain range acts as a
barrier in the path of the Arabian Sea branch? (MCQ)
A. Aravalis B. Eastern Ghats
C. Western ghats D. None of these
51. To which one of the following types of vegetation does rubber
belong to? (MCQ)
A. Tundra B. Tidal
C. Himalayan D. Tropical Evergreen
52. Cinchona trees are found in the areas of rainfall more than: (MCQ)
A. 100 cm B. 50 cm
C. 70 cm D. Less than 50 cm
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53. In which of the following state is the Simlipal bio-reserve located? (MCQ)
A. Punjab B. Orissa
C. Delhi D. West Bengal
54. The animal having its habitat in tropical and montane type of
vegetation: (MCQ)
A. Elephant, Kashmir Stag B. Elephants, Monkeys
C. Kashmir Stag, Lions D. Spotted deer, Tigers
55. Which one of the following bio-reserves of India is not included in
the world network of bio-reserve? (MCQ)
A. Manas B. Dihang-Dibang
C. Gulf of Mannar D. Nanda devi
56. What is a bio-reserve? (MCQ)
A. A protected area reserved for the conservation of extinct species of
flora (plants) and fauna (animals) in their natural habitat.
B. An unprotected area reserved for the conservation of endangered
species of flora (plants) and fauna (animals) in their natural habitat.
C. A protected area reserved for the conservation of endangered species
of flora (plants) and fauna (animals) in their natural habitat.
D. A protected area reserved for the conservation of endangered species
of monuments.
57. Define an ecosystem. (MCQ)
A. Ecosystem refers to all of the natural and man-made world.
B. An ecosystem is a protected area reserved for the conservation of
endangered species of fora (plants) and fauna (animals) in their
natural habitat.
C. An ecosystem is a community of people that live, feed, reproduce
and interact in the same area or environment.
D. An ecosystem is a community of plants, animals and smaller organisms
that live, feed, reproduce and interact in the same area or environment.
58. Give two examples of bio-reserves. (MCQ)
A. The Sunderlands and lakes.
B. The Sunderbans and Nanda Devi
C. Forests and mountains
D. Oceans and Nanda Devi
The total number of tiger reserves in India is: (MCQ)
A. 20 B. 8
C. 18 D. 50
60. Choose the correct option: Where are the Sundarbans located? (MCQ)
A. West Bengal B. Odisha
C. Andhra Pradesh D. None of these
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Which forest is also known as Monsoon forest? (MCQ)
A. Tropical Deciduous B. Rain forest
C. Mangrove forest D. Thorn forest
The Sunderbans derived their name because: (MCQ)
A. The main tree is Sundari.
B. They are beautiful.
C. They are located in Sundar nagar.
D. All the above
63. Choose the correct option: Tropical rain forests are called evergreen.
These trees shed their leaves: (MCQ)
A. Never B. In a particular season
C. Randomly D. None of these
Tropical deciduous in India is more commonly known as: (MCQ)
A. Monsoon forest B. Mangrove forest
C. Thorn forest D. None of these
India has a wide variety of vegetation due to its varied: (MCQ)
A. Regional variation B. Climatic conditions
C. Physical conditions D. All the above
Coniferous forests have tall trees with leaves as: (MCQ)
A. Conical shape B. Circular
C. Broad D. All the above
67. Choose the correct option: One step taken by the Indian
Government to conserve the forest is the setting of the Forest
Research Institute at: (MCQ)
A. Dehradun B. Patlidun
C. Delhi D. Uttar Pradesh
Coniferous trees are found at the altitude of: (MCQ)
A. 1500 m - 3000 m B. 1000 m - 1500 m
C. 3500 m - 4000 m D. All the above
69. Choose the correct option: Which of the following positions does
India occupy in the world with regard to plant diversity? (MCQ)
A. Fourth B. Sixth
C. Tenth D. Twelfth
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70. Fill in the blanks: India is one of the ____________ mega bio-diversity
countries of the world. (MCQ)
A. Twelve B. Thirteen
71. Migrations change the number, distribution and composition of the
population in: (MCQ)
A. Area of departure
B. Area of arrival
C. Both the area of departure and arrival
D. None of these
72. A large proportion of children in a population is a result of: (MCQ)
A. High birth rates B. High life expectancies
C. High death rates D. More married couples
73. The magnitude of population growth refers to: (MCQ)
A. The total population of an area
B. The number of persons added each year
C. The rate at which the population increases
D. The number of females per thousand males
74. According to the Census 2001, a “literate” person is one who: (MCQ)
A. Can read and write his/her name.
B. Can read and write any language.
C. Is 7 years old and can read and write any language with understanding.
D. Knows the 3 ‘R’s (reading, writing, arithmetic).
75. Discuss the major components of population growth. (MCQ)
A. Marriage and divorce
B. Births, deaths and migration
C. Marriage and death
D. Poverty, deaths and migration
The most important attribute of population composition is: (MCQ)
A. Sex composition B. Age structure
C. Education D. Health
Basically migration can be classified into: (MCQ)
A. 2 B. 6
C. 3 D. 1
78. Choose the correct option: An example of pull factor is : (MCQ)
A. Hunger B. Education
C. Health D. Employment
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79. Choose the correct option: NPP stands for : (MCQ)
A. National Population Policy
B. National Provident Policy
C. National Poverty Protection
D. All the above
The pivotal element of demography is: (MCQ)
A. Literacy B. Population
C. Healthcare D. None of these
81. Choose the correct option: The French Revolution was (MCQ)
A. Against the dictatorial policies of the monarch
B. Against the clergy
C. Against the clergy
D. None of the above
18th-century French society was divided into (MCQ)
A. Castes B. Four estates
C. Three estates D. Two estates
The term 'Old Regime’ is usually used to describe (MCQ)
A. The reign of King Louis XVI.
B. The society of France before the French Revolution.
C. None of the above
84. Choose the correct option: The French society, before 1789,
was divided into three estates, hence, it was called (MCQ)
A. Estates
B. The Old Regime
C. Policy of Monarch
The society of estates was part of the (MCQ)
A. Feudal System B. Ryotwari System
C. Zamindari System D. New Revenue System
86. Choose the correct option: What is a feudalism? (MCQ)
A. To be a crowned king
B. Peasants own the land
C. A social system that existed in Europe
D. A classless system
Which estates enjoyed privileges by birth? (MCQ)
A. Clergy B. Nobility
C. The third estate D. Both 1 and 2
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88. Choose the correct option: French society in the 18th century was
divided into three estates, and only members of the ________ paid taxes.
(MCQ)
A. First estate B. Second estate
C. Nobility and clergy D. Third estate
89. Choose the correct option: The third estate enjoyed (MCQ)
A. Privileges by birth B. Feuded privileges
C. Both 1 and 2 D. No privileges
Which century saw the rise of the middle class? (MCQ)
A. 14th century B. 15th century
C. 18th century D. 19th century
Name the direct tax levied on the third estate. (MCQ)
A. Taille B. Tithe
C. Custom duty D. Livre
Name the tax levied by the Church on the third estate. (MCQ)
A. Taille B. Tithe
C. Indirect Tax D. None of the above
93. Fill in the blanks: The Revolution of 1789 ultimately led to the
____________ of the king. (MCQ)
A. Birth B. Mercy
C. Execution D. Clemency
90% of French population was made up of ____________. (MCQ)
A. Soldiers B. Peasants
C. Writers D. Estates
95. Fill in the blanks: The storming of the Bastille marked the beginning
of the ____________. (MCQ)
A. Italian Revolution B. Russian Revolution
C. Napoleon’s rule D. French Revolution
96. Fill in the blanks: French society in the 18th century was divided
into three ____________. (MCQ)
A. Estates B. Families
C. Dynasties D. Cities
____________ of workers could not keep pace with rise in prices. (MCQ)
A. Beauty B. Wages
C. Penalty D. Crimes
Page 12
98. State whether true or false: The storming of the Bastille marked
the beginning of the French Revolution. (MCQ)
A. True B. False
99. State whether true or false: Most people involved in rioting in
Paris were protesting against the high price of bread.(MCQ)
A. True B. False
100. State whether true or false: The term Old Regime is usually used
to describe the society and institutions of France before 1774. (MCQ)
A. True B. False
Society before the 18th century Europe was divided into (MCQ)
A. Castes and classes
B. Estates and orders
C. Liberals, radicals and conservatives
D. Religious and orders
102. Choose the correct option: Liberals were opposed to (MCQ)
A. Secularism
B. Rights of individuals
C. Representative form of government
D. Universal adult franchise
In 19th century Europe, conservatives: (MCQ)
A. Favoured radical restructure of society
B. Toleration of all religions
C. Opposed uncontrolled dynastic rulers.
D. Accepted the idea of gradual change in society
104. Choose the correct option: Which of the following was not a
feature of 19th century Europe? (MCQ)
A. New cities
B. High wages
C. Industrial Revolution
D. Expansion of Railways
On which of the following issues did liberals and radicals differ? (MCQ)
A. Property and privileges
B. Dynastic rule
C. Individual rights
D. Representative form of government
106. Choose the correct option: Capitalists believed in (MCQ)
A. Control of property by society.
B. Workers rights
C. Sharing of profits with workers.
D. Profit and private property
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107. Choose the correct option: Socialist (MCQ)
A. Favoured private property
B. Were against private property
C. Favoured individual controlled property
D. Regarded private property as a solution of all problems
108. Choose the correct option: Which of the following were important
socialists of 19th century Europe? (MCQ)
A. Rousseau and Voltaire
B. Lenin and Stalin
C. Charles Darwin and Spencer
D. Karl Marx and Engels
109. Choose the correct option: Socialist International body (MCQ)
A. Socialist Democratic party
B. Socialist party
C. Labour party
D. Second International
Which of the following can best define Nazism? (MCQ)
A. Hitler’s determination to make Germany a great nation.
B. Extermination of Jews
C. A system, a structure of ideas about the world.
D. Hitler’s ambition of conquering the world.
111. Choose the correct option: Allied powers in World War II: (MCQ)
A. Germany, Italy, Japan
B. Germany, Italy, Turkey
C. U.K., France, USSR, USA
D. U.K., France, Italy
Which nation were the axis power during World War II? (MCQ)
A. U.K., France, USA, USSR
B. U.K, France, Japan
C. Germany, Italy, Japan
D. Germany, France, U.K
113. Choose the correct option: After the end of the World War II,
why was the tribunal set up at Nuremberg? (MCQ)
A. To try Hitler and his family members.
B. To try the leaders of Allied powers.
C. To persecute the Nazi war criminals
D. All of the above
114. : Choose the correct option:
The German parliament was known as: (MCQ)
A. National Parliament B. German Legislature
C. Reichstag D. Estates General
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115. Choose the correct option: Why was the article 48 of the Weimar
Republic considered harmful for the republic? Because (MCQ)
A. It gave too much power to the trade unions.
B. It gave the president power to impose emergency, suspend
fundamental rights and rule by decree.
C. It provided a complex system of proportional representation.
D. All of the above
116. Choose the correct option: By what name was the National
Socialist German Worker’s Party known later? (MCQ)
A. Nationalist Socialist Party
B. Socialist Worker’s Party
C. German Worker’s Party
D. Nazi Party
117. Choose the correct option: Hjalmar Schacht was _______. (MCQ)
A. An economist B. A philosopher
C. A military Dictator D. A politician
Which incident persuaded the USA to join the war? (MCQ)
A. Hitler’s attack on Eastern Europe.
B. Hitler’s policy genocide on the Jews.
C. Helplessness of England and France.
D. Japan’s attack on the US base at Pearl Harbour.
119. Choose the correct option: According to the Nazis, which people
were to be regarded as desirable? (MCQ)
A. Pure and healthy Nomadic Aryans
B. German soldiers who helped in territorial expansion.
C. German police of different types
D. All of the above
120. Choose the correct option: In which country did Nazi Germany
first try its experience of 'concentration of Germans in ______'? (MCQ)
A. Poland B. France
C. England D. Spain
121. Choose the correct option: Colonial rulers considered forests as
wilderness and unproductive because: (MCQ)
A. The forests are not fit for habitation.
B. Forests only have wild grown trees.
C. Forests did not yield revenue to enhance income of the state.
D. Forests are full of wild animals.
122. Choose the correct option: Dietrich Brandis was the: (MCQ)
A. First Postmaster general.
B. First Governor of Forest Administration.
C. First Inspector General of Forests in India.
D. First Supervisor of Forests.
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The Imperial Forest Institute was set up in 1906 at: (MCQ)
A. Lucknow B. Dehradun
C. Allahabad D. None
124. Choose the correct option: Forests consisting of which type of trees
were preferred by the Forest-Department? (MCQ)
A. Forests having trees which provided fuel, fodder, leaves.
B. Forests having sal, deodar and pine trees.
C. Forests having trees suitable for building ships and railways.
D. None of the above.
125. Choose the correct option: Which of the following is not a local
name of the shifting cultivation? (MCQ)
A. Jhum B. Kharif
C. Tavy D. Milpa
126. Choose the correct option: Which of the following decision was
taken by the Forest Act 1878? (MCQ)
A. All forests were to be brought under the control of forest department.
B. Forests were to be divided into three categories.
C. Forests were to be cleared for cultivation.
D. All the above.
127. Choose the correct option: According to 1878 Amendment of Forest
Act, 'Village Forests' referred to which of the following? (MCQ)
A. A forest where entry was prohibited.
B. A forest which was protected by forest department.
C. A forest from which villages could collect firewood, fodder, leaves etc.
for their use.
Which of the following refers to shifting cultivation? (MCQ)
A. Type of cultivation under which parts of forests are cut and burnt
in rotation.
B. Seasonal cultivation.
C. Cultivation where crops are harvested only in autumn.
D. Farmers cultivate different crops on same land.
Latex can be collected from which of the following trees? (MCQ)
A. Rubber Tree B. Eucalyptus Tree
C. Deodar Tree D. Pine Tree
130. Choose the correct option: A forest in which people were allowed
to stay on condition of free service was known as? (MCQ)
A. Protected forests B. Village forests
C. Reserved forest D. Wild forest
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131. Choose the correct option: For pastoralists, entry into the forests
were limited and specified by: (MCQ)
A. Country laws B. Permits
C. Tax D. Orders
132. Choose the correct option: The Dhangars is a pastoral community
Maharashtra who moved in the monsoons towards the: (MCQ)
A. Konkan region B. Malabar region
C. Coromandel region D. Himalayan region
133. Choose the correct option: F.H. Buchanan, a traveller describes
the life of pastoral community of: (MCQ)
A. The Gollas of Mysore
B. The Gaddi Shepherds of Himachal Pradesh
C. The Banjaras of Andhra Pradesh
D. All the above
The most important activity of Banjara Community is: (MCQ)
A. Exchange of goods or barter system
B. Moving over a long distance
C. Wandering in search of pasture
D. None of these
The Gujjars of Kangra make their livelihood from the sale of: (MCQ)
A. Ghee B. Rice
C. Bamboo D. Baskets
Gujjar Mandapas are built at a height of: (MCQ)
A. Ten to eleven thousand feet
B. Eleven to twelve thousand feet
C. Eight to nine thousand feet
D. All the above
137. Choose the correct option: The animals that are the property of
Maru Raikas of Rajasthan is: (MCQ)
A. Sheep B. Camels
C. Buffaloes D. Bulls
138. Choose the correct option: The pastoral groups in Africa were not
allowed to enter the markets in white areas because: (MCQ)
A. These groups needed permits to enter into markets.
B. They were considered as dangerous by white colonists.
C. They were experts in the trade.
D. All the above
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139. Choose the correct option: The tax that had the most severe effect
on pastoralists in India was: (MCQ)
A. Grazing tax B. Pass or permit tax
C. Tax per cattle head D. Land revenue
Maldharis, a pastoralist community live in the region of: (MCQ)
A. Andhra Pradesh B. Karnataka
C. Gujarat D. Bengal
The Gujjar Catle herders are originally from: (MCQ)
A. Himachal Pradesh B. Jammu
C. Karnataka D. Rajasthan
142. Choose the correct option: Pastoral Communities who lived in
Barmer, Jaisalmer, Jodhpur and Bikaner were mostly: (MCQ)
A. Dhangars B. Gollas
C. Raikas D. Bhotiyas
143. Fill in the blanks: ______________ are people who do not live in one
place but they move from one place to another to earn their living. (MCQ)
A. Migrants
B. Nomads
C. Hunter gatherers
144. Fill in the blanks: ______________ is a way of keeping animals and
moving from one place to another to find pasture. (MCQ)
A. Pastoralism B. Nomadism
145. Fill in the blanks: ______________ of Jammu and Kashmir are great
herders of goat and sheep. (MCQ)
A. Dhangars
B. Gaddi shepherds
C. Gujjar Bakarwals
146. Fill in the blanks: By crossing the ______________ passes, Gujjar
Bakarwals entered the valley of Kashmir. (MCQ)
A. Rohtang B. Pir Panjal
147. Fill in the blanks: Like, Gujjar Bakarwals, the ______________ of Himachal
Pradesh had a similar cycle of seasonal movement. (MCQ)
A. Gaddi shepherds
B. Dhangars
C. Gujjar Bakarwals
148. Fill in the blanks: Dhangars were an important pastoral community
of ______________. (MCQ)
A. Maharashtra B. Gujarat
Page 18
149. Fill in the blanks: Dhangar focks manured the fields and fed on
the ______________ . (MCQ)
A. Soil B. stubble
150. Fill in the blanks: The pastoral communities of Karnataka and
Andhra Pradesh are ______________,______________and ______________. (MCQ)
A. Gollas, Kurumas and Dhangars
B. Gollas, Kurumas and Kurubas
C. Dhangars, Kurumas and Raikas
151. In which field do you think India can build the maximum
employment opportunity? (MCQ)
A. Construction work B. Agriculture-based industries
C. Health Industries D. Tertiary Sector
Why is literacy rate low among the females? (MCQ)
A. Lack of equal education opportunities.
B. Lack of infrastructure.
C. Lack of income
D. None of these
In which state was the literacy rate higher as per 2001 study? (MCQ)
A. Kerala B. Madhya Pradesh
C. Bihar D. All of these
154. Choose the correct option: Which of the following is a significant
step towards providing elementary education to all the children in the
age group of 6-14 years? (MCQ)
A. Sarv Shiksha Abhiyan B. Mid-day meal
C. Navodaya Vidyalaya D. Sainik School
Which of the following is an economic activity? (MCQ)
A. A teacher teaching his son
B. Recitation among friends.
C. Teacher teaching in classroom
D. All of these.
Which of the following is a non-economic activity? (MCQ)
A. Mother doing household work
B. Washerman washes cloth of people.
C. Chef cooking food in hotel.
D. All of these.
Page 19
157. Choose the correct option: Tertiary sector is also called: (MCQ)
A. Primary sector B. Service sector
C. Manufacturing sector D. All of these.
The largest number of people in India are engaged in: (MCQ)
A. Primary sector B. Secondary sector
C. Service sector D. None of these.
159. Choose the correct option: Secondary sector includes: (MCQ)
A. Manufacturing B. Forestry
C. Trade D. Farming
160. Choose the correct option: Self-consumption is: (MCQ)
A. Non-economic activity B. Economic activity
C. Production activity. D. None of these.
161. Identify the social groups which are most vulnerable to poverty
in India. (MCQ)
A. People below poverty line
B. Scheduled Castes
C. Other Backward Classes
D. Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes
162. Identify the economic groups which are most vulnerable to
poverty in India. (MCQ)
A. Rural agricultural labour households
B. Tertiary sector workers
C. Rural agricultural labour households, urban casual labour households.
D. Manufacturers
163. Choose the correct option: Every_______ person in India is poor. (MCQ)
A. 3rd B. 5th
C. 4th D. 6th
164. Who are the poorest of the poor? (MCQ)
A. Poor Children
B. Industry Worker Man
C. Poor Women
D. Women, children, elder people in a poor family
165. Choose the correct option: Vulnerability to poverty is determined
by the options for finding an alternative living in terms of: (MCQ)
A. Assets B. Education
C. Health D. All of these
166. Choose the correct option: Which of the following is a social
indicator of poverty laid by social scientists? (MCQ)
A. Increase in population B. Illiteracy level
C. Caste D. Health Club membership
Page 20
Social exclusion denies certain individuals the: (MCQ)
A. Facilities B. Benefits
C. Opportunities D. All the above
168. Choose the correct option: Which organisation carries out survey
for determining the poverty line? (MCQ)
A. NSSO B. PMRY
C. PMGY D. None of these
Which social group is most vulnerable to poverty in India? (MCQ)
A. Schedule castes B. Schedule tribes
C. Casual labourers D. All of these
Which two states of India continue to be the poorest states? (MCQ)
A. Orissa, Bihar B. Uttar Pradesh, Jharkhand
C. Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra D. None of these
171. Choose the correct option: MSP refers to: (MCQ)
A. Minimum Support Price
B. Maximum Support Price
C. Mostly Support Price
D. None of these
Green Revolution in the 1960s was associated with: (MCQ)
A. Production of wheat and rice
B. Production of maize and rice
C. Production of mustard and bajra
D. None of these
Public Distribution System is associated with: (MCQ)
A. Fair price shop B. Cooperative stores
C. Super bazars D. All of these
White Revolution of the country is associated with: (MCQ)
A. Wheat B. Water
C. Milk D. Rice
In which state 94% ration shops are run by cooperatives? (MCQ)
A. Andhra Pradesh B. Punjab
C. Haryana D. Tamil Nadu
Page 21
176. Choose the correct option: Minimum Support Price is announced
by the government to provide: (MCQ)
A. Incentives to farmers
B. Incentives to middlemen
C. Incentives to government oficials
177. Choose the correct option: Name the NGO which facilitated setting
up of grain banks in different regions. (MCQ)
A. Academy and Development Science, Maharashtra
B. Anand Milk Union Limited
C. Mother Dairy
178. Choose the correct option: Which crop registered largest increase
in the production as a result of Green Revolution? (MCQ)
A. Jowar B. Wheat
C. Maize D. Mustard
179. Choose the correct option: Name the Prime Minister who released
a special stamp entitled "Wheat Revolution" in July 1968. (MCQ)
A. Mrs Indira Gandhi B. Pt. J. L. Nehru
C. Mr. Lal Bahadur Shastri D. None of these
The main purpose of Buffer stock scheme is: (MCQ)
A. To solve the problem of shortage of food
B. To support the farmers
C. To create the stock for profit
181. People who do not accept the country’s official religion do not have a
right to vote. (MCQ)
A. Democratic Country
B. Undemocratic Country
C. Not sure
182. The ruling party has lost in the last three elections. (MCQ)
C. Not sure
183. The same party has been winning elections for the last twenty
years. (MCQ)
C. Not sure
Page 22
184. There is no independent election commission. (MCQ)
C. Not sure
185. The parliament cannot pass a law about the army without the
consent of the Chief of Army. (MCQ)
C. Not sure
186. The country’s leaders cannot sign any treaty with another country
without taking permission from its neighbouring country. (MCQ)
C. Not sure
187. The parliament cannot pass a law reducing the powers of the
judiciary. (MCQ)
C. Not sure
188. All the major economic decisions about the country are taken by
officials of the central bank which the ministers cannot change. (MCQ)
C. Not sure
189. Which of these is not a good argument in favour of democracy?
(MCQ)
A. People feel free and equal in a democracy.
B. Democracies resolve conflict in a better way than others.
C. Democratic government is more accountable to the people.
D. Democracies are more prosperous than others.
190. The king of Nepal imposed a ban on political gatherings,
demonstrations and rallies. (MCQ)
A. Rule of law
B. Respect for rights
C. One person, one vote, one valuee.
D. Free and fair electoral competition
191. Many Tamil workers who migrated from India were not given the
right to vote in Sri Lanka. (MCQ)
A. Rule of law
B. Respect for rights
C. One person, one vote, one valuee.
D. Free and fair electoral competition
Page 23
192. Choose the correct statement. (MCQ)
A. Leaders of the freedom movement had an open mind about whether
the country should be democratic or not after independence.
B. Leaders of the freedom movement had an open mind about the
country being aristocratic after independence.
C. Leaders of the freedom movement had an open mind about the
country being democratic after independence.
193. Motilal Nehru (MCQ)
A. President of the Constituent Assembly
B. Member of the Constituent Assembly
C. Chairman of the Drafting Commitee
D. Prepared a Constitution for India in 1928
194. Which of these was the most salient underlying conflict in the
making of a democratic constitution in South Africa? (MCQ)
A. Between South Africa and its neighbours
B. Between men and women
C. Between the white majority and the black minority
D. Between the coloured minority and the black majority
195. B.R. Ambedkar (MCQ)
C. Chairman of the Drafting Committee
196. Sovereign (MCQ)
A. Government will not favour any religion.
B. People have the supreme right to make decisions.
C. Head of the state is an elected person.
D. People should live like brothers and sisters.
197. Rajendra Prasad (MCQ)
198. Republic (MCQ)
199. Sarojini Naidu (MCQ)
Page 24
200. There is no independent election commission. (MCQ)
201. Choose the correct option: Which of the following statements
about the reasons for conducting elections are false? (MCQ)
A. Elections enable people to judge the performance of the government.
B. People select the representative of their choice in an election.
C. Elections enable people to evaluate the performance of the
judiciary.
D. People can indicate which policies they prefer.
202. Choose the correct option: Which of these is not a good reason
to say that Indian elections are democratic? (MCQ)
A. India has the largest number of voters in the world.
B. India’s Election Commission is very powerful.
C. In India, everyone above the age of 18 has a right to vote.
D. In India, the losing parties accept the electoral verdict.
It is necessary to keep the voters’ list up to date because - (MCQ)
A. There is a fair representation of all sections of our society.
B. Everyone has equal opportunity to elect their representatives.
C. All candidates must have a fair chance of competing in elections.
D. Some people may have moved away from the area where they
voted last.
Some constituencies are reserved for SCs and STs so that- (MCQ)
voted last.
Everyone has one and only one vote so that - (MCQ)
voted last.
Page 25
206. Choose the correct option: Party in power is not allowed to use
government vehicles because - (MCQ)
voted last.
207. Elections are like exams where politicians and parties know if they
have passed or failed, But who are the examiners? (MCQ)
A. Election Commission B. Voters
C. State Government D. National Government
208. Choose the most appropriate option:
Each constituency has roughly the same population (MCQ)
A. Universal adult franchise
B. Representation of weaker sections
C. Open political competition
D. One vote one value
Everyone who is 18 years of age or older has a right to vote (MCQ)
Anyone can form a party or contest elections (MCQ)
Reservation of seats for the SCs and the STs (MCQ)
212. State whether true or false: A minister fagging of a new train in his
constituency a week before polling day is a fair electoral practice. (MCQ)
A. True B. False
213. State whether true or false: A candidate promising that she will get
a new train for her constituency if she is elected is an unfair electoral
practice. (MCQ)
A. True B. False
Page 26
214. State whether true or false: Supporters of a candidate distributing
blankets in slums in return for a promise for a vote is a fair electoral
practice. (MCQ)
A. True B. False
215. State whether true or false: Supporters of a candidate taking the
voters to a temple and making them take an oath that they will vote
for him is an unfair electoral practice. (MCQ)
A. True B. False
216. If you are elected as the President of India which of the following
decision can you take on your own? (MCQ)
A. Select the person you like as Prime Minister.
B. Dismiss a Prime Minister who has a majority in Lok Sabha.
C. Ask for reconsideration of a bill passed by both the Houses.
D. Nominate the leaders of your choice to the Council of Ministers.
217. Who among the following is a part of the political executive? (MCQ)
A. District Collector
B. Secretary of the Ministry of Home Afairs
C. Home Minister
D. Director General of Police
218. Which of the following statements about the judiciary is false? (MCQ)
A. Every law passed by the Parliament needs approval of the
Supreme Court.
B. Judiciary can strike down a law if it goes against the spirit of the
Constitution.
C. Judiciary is independent of the Executive.
D. Any citizen can approach the courts if her rights are violated.
219. Which of the following institutions can make changes to an
existing law of the country? (MCQ)
A. The Supreme Court B. The President
C. The Prime Minister D. The Parliament
220. A new policy is being made to increase the jute exports from
the country. (MCQ)
A. Ministry of Defence
B. Ministry of Agriculture, Food and Public Distribution
C. Ministry of Health
D. Ministry of Commerce and Industry
221. Telephone services will be made more accessible to rural
areas. (MCQ)
B. Ministry of Agriculture, Food and Public Distribution
C. Ministry of Communications and Information Technology
Page 27
222. The price of rice and wheat sold under the Public Distribution System
will go down (MCQ)
B. Ministry of Health
C. Ministry of Commerce and Industry
D. Ministry of Agriculture, Food and Public Distribution
223. A pulse polio campaign will be launched (MCQ)
A. Ministry of Agriculture, Food and Public Distribution
B. Ministry of Commerce and Industry
C. Ministry of Health
D. Ministry of Communications and Information Technology
224. The allowances of the soldiers posted on high altitudes will be
increased. (MCQ)
B. Ministry of Health
C. Ministry of Communications and Information Technology
225. Which institution decides on the allocation of money for developing
infrastructure like roads, irrigation, etc. and different welfare activities for
the citizens? (MCQ)
A. The Executive (political), the government
B. The Parliament
C. The Supreme Court
D. The Executive (permanent), Civil Servants
226. Which institution considers the recommendation of a Committee on
a law to regulate the stock exchange? (MCQ)
B. The Parliament
227. Which institution decides on a legal dispute between two state
governments? (MCQ)
B. The Parliament
228. Which institution implements the decision to provide relief for the
victims of an earthquake? (MCQ)
B. The Parliament
Page 28
229. Why is the Prime Minister in India not directly elected by the
people? (MCQ)
A. In a parliamentary democracy only the leader of the majority party
in the Lok Sabha can become the Prime Minister.
B. Lok Sabha can remove the Prime Minister and the Council of
Minister even before the expiry of their term.
C. Since the Prime Minister in appointed by the president there is
no need for it.
D. Direct election of the Prime Minister will involve a lot of expenditure
on the election.
230. Supreme Court (MCQ)
A. Made formal announcement about reservation to backward classes
B. Implemented the decision of reservation by issuing an order
C. Took the decision to give 27% job reservations
D. Upheld reservations as valid
231. Cabinet (MCQ)
232. President (MCQ)
233. Government officials (MCQ)
What is meant by 'Office Memorandum'? (MCQ)
A. Order issued by the Government of India
B. Order issued by the scheduled caste officer
C. Order issued by the state governments
D. All of these
235. Choose the correct option: When was the Second Backward
Class Commission appointed? (MCQ)
A. 1969 B. 1979
C. 1959 D. 1989
Page 29
236. Which of the following is not an instance of an exercise of a
fundamental right? (MCQ)
A. Workers from Bihar go to Punjab to work on the farms.
B. Christian missions set up a chain of missionary schools.
C. Men and women government employees get the same salary.
D. Parents’ property is inherited by their children.
237. Which of the following freedoms is not available to an
Indian citizen? (MCQ)
A. Freedom to criticize the government
B. Freedom to participate in armed revolution
C. Freedom to start a movement to change the government
D. Freedom to oppose the central values of the Constitution
238. Which of the following rights is available under the
Indian Constitution? (MCQ)
A. Right to work
B. Right to adequate livelihood
C. Right to protect one’s culture
D. Right to privacy
239. Name the Fundamental Right under which the freedom to
propagate one's religion falls. (MCQ)
A. Right to freedom of religion
B. Right to freedom
C. Right to equality
D. Right against exploitation
240. Name the Fundamental Right under which the right to life falls. (MCQ)
B. Right to freedom
241. Name the Fundamental Right under which abolition of
un-touchability falls. (MCQ)
B. Right to freedom
242. Name the Fundamental Right under which the ban on bonded
labour falls. (MCQ)
B. Right to freedom
Page 30
243. Which of these statements about the relationship between
democracy and rights is more valid? (MCQ)
A. Every country that is a democracy gives rights to its citizens.
B. Every country that gives rights to its citizens is a democracy.
C. Giving rights is good, but it is not necessary for a democracy.
244. Choose the correct option: Why was U.S. Government
imprisoning people at Guantanamo Bay? (MCQ)
A. U.S. considered them as enemies and linked them to the attack on
New York on 11th September, 2001.
B. They were caught spying.
C. They were planning to destroy the world.
D. None of these.
245. Choose the correct option: Which body exposed to the world
about the prisoners at Guantanamo Bay being tortured in ways that
violated the US laws? (MCQ)
A. United Nations
B. Apex Court of U.S.A.
C. Human Rights of US
D. Amnesty International
246. Choose the correct option: In which country are women subjected
to many public restrictions? (MCQ)
A. Saudi Arabia B. China
C. Nepal D. Bangladesh
Kosovo was the part of which country? (MCQ)
A. Yugoslavia B. Albania
C. Serbia D. None
248. Choose the correct option: What was the name of the narrow
minded Serb nationalist, who won the election? (MCQ)
A. Milosevic B. Batisha
C. Hoxha D. None
249. Choose the correct option: Why was Milosevic government hostile
to the Kosovo Albanians? (MCQ)
A. Serbs to dominate the country
B. Albanians to dominate
C. Both Serbs and Albanians to dominate the country.
D. None of these
250. Choose the correct option: What situations had forced the
Milosevic government to stop the massacre? (MCQ)
A. The USA ordered to arrest the leader Milosevic
B. The Serbs turned hostile to leader
C. Several countries intervened to stop the massacre
D. None of these
Page 31
EDUNO
NATIONAL
OLYMPIAD
English
EDUNO NATIONAL OLYMPIAD - ENGLISH
1. Make 5 sentences on the following pattern: Subject+Verb. (SUBJECTIVE)

2. Make 5 sentences on the following pattern: Subject+verb+subject
complement (SUBJECTIVE)
3. Make 5 sentences on the following pattern: Subject + verb + direct
object (SUBJECTIVE)
4. Make 5 sentences on the following pattern: Subject + verb + indirect
object + direct object (SUBJECTIVE)
5. Make 5 sentences on the following pattern: Subject + verb + direct
object+ preposition + prepositional object (SUBJECTIVE)
6. Make 5 sentences on the following pattern: Subject + verb + noun\
pronoun + adjective (SUBJECTIVE)
7. Make 5 sentences on the following pattern: Subject + verb + preposition
+ prepositional object (SUBJECTIVE)
8. Make 5 sentences on the following pattern: Subject + verb + to-infinitive
(as object of the verb) (SUBJECTIVE)
pronoun + to-infinitive (SUBJECTIVE)
10. Make 5 sentences on the following pattern: Subject + verb + gerund
(SUBJECTIVE)
pronoun + present participle (SUBJECTIVE)
pronoun + plain infinitive (SUBJECTIVE)
pronoun + past participle (SUBJECTIVE)
pronoun + (to be + ) complement (SUBJECTIVE)
15. Make 5 sentences on the following pattern Subject + verb + that-clause
(object of the verb) (SUBJECTIVE)
pronoun + that-clause (SUBJECTIVE)
17. Make 5 sentences on the following pattern: Subject + verb +
interrogative + clause (SUBJECTIVE)
pronoun + interrogative + clause (SUBJECTIVE)
Page 32
19. Make 5 sentences on the following pattern: Subject + verb +
interrogative + to-infinitive (SUBJECTIVE)
pronoun + interrogative + to-infinitive (SUBJECTIVE)
21. Identify the Figure of Speech: The more haste, the less speed. (MCQ)
A. Epigram B. Oxymoron
22. Identify the Figure of Speech: I must be taught my duty, and
by you ! (MCQ)
A. Antithesis B. Irony
23. Choose the suitable answer. (MCQ)
A. A few public libraries that we have are not well equipped.
B. The few public libraries that we have are not well equipped.
24. Identify the Figure of Speech: Plead, Sleep, my cause, and make
her soft like thee. (MCQ)
A. Apostrophe B. Synecdoche
25. Identify the Figure of Speech: He makes no friend, who never
made a foe. (MCQ)
A. Metonymy B. Epigram
26. Identify the Figure of Speech: He that planted the ear, shall He
not hear ? He that formed the eye, shall He not see ? (MCQ)
A. Interrogation B. Oxymoron
27. Identify the Figure of Speech: Let not ambition mock their useful
toil. (MCQ)
A. Antithesis B. Synecdoche
A. The few days that are left to him he spends in solitude and
meditation.
B. A few days that are left to him he spends in solitude and meditation.
29. Identify the Figure of Speech: Oh ! what a noble mind is here
overthrown! (MCQ)
A. Exclamation B. Antithesis
30. Identify the Figure of Speech: Why all this toil for triumphs of
an hour ? (MCQ)
A. Interrogation B. Antithesis
31. Identify the Figure of Speech: Excess of ceremony shows want
of breeding. (MCQ)
A. Apostrophe B. Epigram
A. Many Hindus study Sanskrit, but only the few Parsees study Avesta.
B. Many Hindus study Sanskrit, but only a few Parsees study Avesta.
Page 33
33. Identify the Figure of Speech: The Puritan had been rescued by no
common deliverer from the grasp of no common foe. (MCQ)
A. Litotes B. Antithesis
34. Identify the Figure of Speech: You are a pretty fellow. (MCQ)
A. Antithesis B. Irony
35. Identify the Figure of Speech: The cup that cheers but not
inebriates. (MCQ)
A. Litotes B. Metonymy
36. Give examples showing the use and meaning of the following prefixes:
super-, trans-, con-, sub-, auto-, mis-, ante-, post-, vice-, extra-, pre-, arch-
(SUBJECTIVE)
37. Give examples of adjectives formed from nouns by the addition of
the suffixes: -en, -ish, -less, and explain the meaning of the suffixes.
SUBJECTIVE)
38. Show by the use of suffixes that we can use a single word to express
the meaning of each of the following groups of words: a little river the
state of being a child to make fat that which cannot be read unfit to be
chosen (SUBJECTIVE)
39. Give the meanings of the prefixes and suffixes in the following words:
incredible, antidote, anarchy, misconduct, monarch, sympathy, manhood,
hillock, archbishop, amiss, bicycle, dismantle, freshen (SUBJECTIVE)
40. Form Adjectives from the following nouns: circumstance, habit, stone,
miser, irony, labour, circuit (SUBJECTIVE)
41. Form Verbs from: friend, bath, fertile, grass, clean, sweet, critic
(SUBJECTIVE)
42. Form Nouns from: sustain, attain, confess, attach, fortify, oblige, give,
cruel, hate, govern, sweet (SUBJECTIVE)
43. Form Adjectives from: muscle, hazard, worth, quarrel, admire, thirst,
god (SUBJECTIVE)
44. Add to each of the following words a prefix which reverses the meaning:
fortune, legible, visible, agreeable, ever, fortunate, practicable, honour,
patience, sense, truth, resolute, legal, capable, organize, credible, creditable
(SUBJECTIVE)
45. What is the force or meaning of the:
(1) Prefixes : in-, bene-, post-, dys-, dis-,
(2) Sufixes :-en, -fy, -ness, -isk, -ing ?
Name the language from which each is derived. (SUBJECTIVE)
Page 34
46. Mention two prefixes which denote:
(1) reversal of an action
(2) something good
(3) something bad
(4) a negative. (SUBJECTIVE)
47. Name the primary derivatives of the following words:
hale, glass, high, sit, dig, strong, deep (SUBJECTIVE)
48. By means of a suffix turn each of the following words into an
abstract noun: grand, discreet, supreme, rival, certain, warm, desolate,
dense (SUBJECTIVE)
49. Punctuate: As Caesar loved me I wept for him as he was fortunate
I rejoice at it as he was valiant I honour him but as he was ambitious
I slew him. (MCQ)
A. As Caesar loved me, I wept for him; as he was fortunate I rejoice at it
as he was valiant, I honour him; but as he was ambitious, I slew him.
B. As Caesar loved me I wept for him as he was fortunate; I rejoice, at it
as he was valiant I honour him but as he was ambitious I slew him.
C. As Caesar; loved me I wept for him as, he was fortunate I rejoice at it
as he was valiant I honour him but as he was ambitious I slew him.
50. Punctuate: The shepherd finding his flock destroyed exclaimed
I have been rightly served why did I trust my sheep to a wolf. (MCQ)
A. The shepherd finding his flock destroyed exclaimed "I have been
rightly served why did I trust my sheep to a wolf!"
B. The shepherd, finding his flock destroyed, exclaimed, "I have been
rightly served! Why did I trust my sheep to a wolf?"
C. The shepherd finding his flock destroyed, exclaimed I have been
rightly served why did I trust my sheep to a wolf!
51. Punctuate: However strange however grotesque may be the
appearance which Dante undertakes to describe he never shrinks
from describing it he gives us the shape the colour the sound the
smell the taste. (MCQ)
A. However strange however grotesque may be the appearance which
Dante undertakes to describe he never shrinks from describing it he
gives us the shape the colour the sound the smell, the taste
B. However strange, however grotesque, may be the appearance which
Dante undertakes to describe, he never shrinks from describing it; he
gives us the shape, the colour, the sound, the smell, the taste.
C. However strange, however grotesque may be the appearance which
Dante undertakes, to describe he never shrinks from describing it he
gives us, the shape the colour, the sound, the smell the taste.
Page 35
52. Punctuate: Perhaps cried he there may be such monsters as you
describe. (MCQ)
A. "Perhaps cried he there may be such monsters as you describe.”
B. Perhaps cried, he there may be such, monsters as you describe
C. "Perhaps," cried he, "there may be such monsters as you describe!”
53. Punctuate: Sancho ran as fast as his ass could go to help his master
whom he found lying and not able to stir such a blow he and Rozinante
had received mercy on me cried Sancho did I not give your worship fair
warning did I not tell you they were windmills and that nobody could
think otherwise unless he had also windmills in his head (MCQ)
A. Sancho ran as fast as his ass could go, to help his master, whom he found
lying and not able to stir. Such a blow he and Rozinante had received.
"Mercy on me!" cried Sancho. "Did I not give your worship fair warning?
Did I not tell you they were windmills and that nobody could think
otherwise unless he had also windmills in his head?”
B. Sancho ran as fast as his ass could go, to help his master, whom he found
"Mercy on me!" cried Sancho. "Did I not give your worship fair warning?
Did I not tell you they were windmills and that nobody could think
otherwise unless he had also windmills in his head
C. Sancho ran as fast as his ass could go to help his master, whom he found
"Mercy on me! cried Sancho. "Did I not give your worship fair warning Did I
not tell you they were windmills and that nobody could think otherwise
unless he had also windmills in his head?”
54. Punctuate: Modern ideas of government date back to the 1960s when
for the first time people began to question a kings right to rule once
thought to be god given. (MCQ)
A. Modern ideas of government date, back to the 1960s when for the first
time people began to question a kings right to rule once thought to be
god given.
B. Modern ideas of government date back to the 1960s, when, for the first
time, people began to question a king's right to rule, once thought to be
God-given.
C. Modern ideas of government; date back to the: 1960s when for the first
time people began to question a kings right to rule once thought to be
god given
55. Punctuate: When I look upon the tombs of the great every emotion
of envy dies in me when I read the epitaphs of the beautiful every
inordinate desire goes out when I meet with the grief of parents upon
a tombstone my heart melts with compassion when I see the tomb of
the parents themselves I consider the vanity of grieving for those whom
we must quickly follow. (MCQ)
Page 36
A. When I look upon the tombs of the great, every emotion of envy dies
in me; when I read the epitaphs of the beautiful, every inordinate desire
goes out; when I meet with the grief of parents upon a tombstone, my
heart melts with compassion; when I see the tomb of the parents
themselves, I consider the vanity of grieving for those whom we must
quickly follow
B. When I look upon the tombs of the great, every emotion of envy dies
in me; when I read the epitaphs of the beautiful, every inordinate desire
goes out when I meet with the grief of parents upon a tombstone, my
heart melts with compassion; when I see the tomb of the parents
themselves I consider the vanity of grieving for those whom we must
quickly follow.
C. When I look upon the tombs of the great, every emotion of envy
dies in me; when I read the epitaphs of the beautiful, every inordinate
desire goes out; when I meet with the grief of parents upon a tombstone,
my heart melts with compassion; when I see the tomb of the parents
themselves, I consider the vanity of grieving for those whom we must
quickly follow.
56. Punctuate: They had played together in infancy they had worked
together in manhood they were now tottering about and gossiping
away in the evening of life and in a short time they will probably be
buried together in the neighbouring churchyard. (MCQ)
A. They had played together in infancy they had worked together in
manhood; they were now tottering about and gossiping away in the
evening of life and in a short time they will probably be buried together
in the neighbouring churchyard.
B. They had played together in infancy they had worked together in
manhood they were now tottering about and gossiping away in the
evening of life; and in a short time they will probably be buried together
C. They had played together in infancy; they had worked together in
manhood; they were now tottering about and gossiping away in the
evening of life; and in a short time they will probably be buried together
57. Punctuate: Take away that bauble said Cromwell pointing to the
mace which lay upon the table and when the House was empty he
went out with the key in his pocket (MCQ
A. "Take away that bauble said Cromwell pointing to the mace which lay
upon the table. And when the House was empty, he went out with the
key in his pocket
C. "Take away that bauble," said Cromwell, pointing to the mace which
lay upon the table. And when the House was empty, he went out with
the key in his pocket.
D. "Take away that bauble," said Cromwell pointing to the mace which
lay upon the table And when the House was empty, he went out with
the key in his pocket
Page 37
58. Punctuate: One day walking together up a hill I said to Friday do you
not wish yourself in your own country again yes he said what would you
do there said I would you turn wild and eat mens fesh again he looked full
of concern and shaking his head said no (MCQ)
A. One day walking together, up a hill I said to Friday do you not wish
yourself in your own country again yes he said what would you do there
said I would you turn wild and eat mens flesh again he looked full of
concern and shaking his head said "no".
B. One day walking together up a hill I said to "Friday do you" not wish
yourself in your own country again yes he said what would you do there
said I would you turn wild and eat mens flesh again he looked full of
concern and shaking his head said no.
C. One day, walking together up a hill, I said to Friday, "Do you not wish
yourself in your own country again!" "Yes," he said. "What would you do
there?" said I. "Would you turn wild and eat men's flesh again?" He looked
full of concern and shaking his head said "No!"
59. Punctuate: When a great office is vacant either by death or disgrace
which often happens five or six of these candidates petition the emperor
to entertain his majesty and the court with a dance on the rope and
whoever jumps the highest without falling succeeds to the office (MCQ)
A. When a great office is vacant either by death or disgrace which often;
happens five or six of these candidates petition the emperor to entertain
his majesty and the court, with a dance on the rope and whoever jumps
the highest without falling succeeds to the office.
B. When a great office is vacant, either by death or disgrace, which often
happens, five or six of these candidates petition the emperor to entertain
his majesty and the court with a dance on the rope, and whoever jumps
the highest without falling, succeeds to the office.
C. When a great office is vacant either by death or disgrace which often
happens five or six of these candidates petition the emperor to entertain
his majesty and the court with a dance on the rope and whoever jumps
the highest without falling succeeds to the office.
60. Punctuate: That familiarity produces neglect has been long observed
the effect of all external objects however great or splendid ceases with
their novelty the courtier stands without emotion in the royal presence
the rustic tramples under his foot the beauties of the spring with little
attention to their colours or their fragrance and the inhabitant of the
coast darts his eye upon the immense diffusion of waters without awe
wonder or terror. (MCQ)
A. That familiarity produces neglect has been long observed. The effect of
all external objects, however great or splendid, ceases with their novelty.
The courtier stands without emotion in the royal presence; the rustic
tramples under his foot the beauties of the spring, with little attention to
their colours or their fragrance; and the inhabitant of the coast darts his
eye upon the immense diffusion of waters without awe, wonder or terror.
Page 38
B. That familiarity produces neglect; has been long observed the effect
of all external objects however great or splendid ceases with their novelty
the courtier stands without emotion in the royal presence the rustic
tramples under his foot the beauties of the spring with little attention to
their colours, or their fragrance and the inhabitant, of the coast darts his
eye upon the immense diffusion of waters without awe wonder or terror.
C. That familiarity produces neglect has been long observed the effect of
all external objects however great or splendid ceases with their novelty.
the courtier stands without emotion, in the royal presence the rustic
tramples under his foot the beauties of the spring with little attention to
their colours or their fragrance and the inhabitant of the coast darts his
eye upon the immense diffusion of waters without awe wonder or terror.
61. Punctuate: If you look about you and consider the lives of others as
well as your own if you think how few are born with honour and how
many die without name or children how little beauty we see and how
few friends we hear of how many diseases and how much poverty there
is in the world you will fall down upon knees and instead of repining at
one affliction will admire so many blessings which you have received
from the hand of God (MCQ)
A. If you look about you and consider the lives of others as well as your
own, if you think how few are born with honour and how many die
without name or children, how little beauty we see and how few friends
we hear of, how many diseases and how much poverty there is in the
world, you will fall down upon knees and, instead of repining at one
affliction, will admire so many blessings which you have received from
the hand of God.
B. If you look about you and consider the lives of others as well as your
without name or children, how little beauty we see and how few friends
we hear of, how many diseases and how much poverty there is in the
the hand of God
C. If you look about you and consider the lives of others as well as your
without name or children how little beauty we see and how few friends
we hear of how many diseases and how much poverty there is in the
the hand of God.
62. Punctuate: We thank Thee for the place in which we dwell for the
love that unites us for the peace accorded us this day for the hope with
which we expect the morrow for the health the work the food and the
bright skies that make our life delightful for our friends in all parts of
the earth (MCQ)
Page 39
A. We thank Thee for the place in which we dwell, for the love that unites
us for the peace accorded us this day, for the hope with which we expect
the morrow, for the health the work, the food and the bright skies that
make our life delightful, for our friends in all parts of the earth.
B. We thank Thee for the place in which we dwell, for the love that unites
us for the peace accorded us this day, for the hope with which we expect
the morrow, for the health the work, the food and the bright skies that
make our life delightful, for our friends in all parts of the earth.
C. We thank Thee for the place in which we dwell for the love that unites
us for the peace accorded us this day for the hope with which we expect
the morrow for the health the work the food and the bright skies that
make our life delightful for our friends in all parts of the earth.
63. Punctuate: Androcles who had no arms of any kind now gave himself
up for lost what shall I do said he I have no spear or sword no not so much
as a stick to defend myself with (MCQ)
A. Androcles, who had no arms of any kind, now gave himself up for lost.
"What shall I do?" said he. "I have no spear or sword; no, not so much as a
stick to defend myself with.”
B. Androcles, who had no arms of any kind, now gave himself up for lost.
"What shall I do?" said he. "I have no spear or sword; no, not so much as a
stick to defend myself with.
C. Androcles, who had no arms of any kind, now gave himself up for lost.
"What shall I do" said he. "I have no spear or sword; no, not so much as a
stick to defend myself with.
64. Rewrite the following sentence, improving the arrangement:
For sale, piano, the property of a musician, with carved legs. (MCQ)
A. For sale, a piano with carved legs, the property of a musician.
B. For sale, piano, the property, with carved legs, of a musician.
C. For sale, the property, with carved legs, of a piano, musician.
65. Rewrite the following sentence, improving the arrangement: He tore
up the tender letter which his mother had written him in a fit of peevish
vexation. (MCQ)
A. He tore up the letter which his tender mother had written him in a fit
of peevish vexation.
B. In a fit of peevish vexation, he tore up the tender letter which his mother
had written him.
C. He tore up the tender letter which his peevish mother had written him
in a fit of vexation.
66. Rewrite the following sentence, improving the arrangement: The captain
took the things which the gods provided with thankful good humour. (MCQ)
A. The captain took the things provided with thankful by the gods
good humour.
B. The captain took things which the gods provided with the thankful
good humour.
Page 40
C. With thankful good humour the captain took the things which the
gods provided.
Sometimes you will see an alligator lying in the sunshine on the bank
eight feet long. (MCQ)
A. Sometimes you will see an alligator lying in the eight feet long
sunshine on the bank .
B. Sometimes you will see an alligator eight feet long lying on the
bank in sunshine.
C. Sometimes you will see an alligator eight feet long lying on the
sunshine in the bank.
68. Rewrite the following sentence, improving the arrangement: All the
courtiers told the Queen how beautiful she was all the day long. (MCQ)
A. All the day long, all the courtiers told the Queen how beautiful
she was.
B. All the courtiers told the Queen how beautiful she was all the long day.
C. All the courtiers told the beautiful Queen how she was all the day long.
Mrs. Jeremy Daud was siting with her husband on the steps of the hotel
when Amy and Dulce came up, with her lap full of newspapers. (MCQ)
A. With her lap full of newspapers, Mrs Jeremy Doud was siting with
her husband on the steps of the hotel, when Amy and Dulce came up.
B. Mrs. Jeremy Daud was siting with her husband on the steps, with her
lap full of newspapers of the hotel when Amy and Dulce came up.
C. Mrs. Jeremy Daud was siting with her husband on the steps of the
hotel when Amy and Dulce, with her lap full of newspapers came up.
70. Rewrite the following sentence, improving the arrangement: The man
ought to be brought before a magistrate who utters such threats. (MCQ)
A. The man ought to be brought a magistrate before who utters such
threats.
B. The man ought who utters such threats to be brought before a
magistrate.
C. The man who utters such threats ought to be brought before a
magistrate
71. Rewrite the following sentence, improving the arrangement: He
visited the battlefield where Napoleon was defeated in his holidays. (MCQ)
A. He defeated the battlefield where Napoleon visited in his holidays.
B. In his holidays he visited the battlefield where Napoleon was
defeated.
C. He visited the battlefield where Napoleon in his holidays was defeated.
Page 41
72. Rewrite the following sentence, improving the arrangement: He
killed the sparrow which was eating some crumbs with a gun. (MCQ)
A. He killed the sparrow which was eating some gun with a crumbs.
B. With a gun he killed the sparrow which was eating some crumbs.
C. He killed the gun with a sparrow which was eating some crumbs.
No magnanimous victor would treat those whom the fortune of war had
put in his power so cruelly. (MCQ)
A. No magnanimous victor would so cruelly treat those whom the fortunes
of war had put in his power.
B. No magnanimous power would treat those whom the fortune of war
had put in his victor so cruelly.
C. No magnanimous victor would treat those whom the fortune of war
had put in his power so cruelty.
The constable said that the prisoner seizing a bolster full of rage and fury
had knocked the prosecutor down. (MCQ)
A. The constable said that the prisoner seizing a bolster, had knocked the
prosecutor full of rage and fury down.
B. The prisoner said that the constable seizing a bolster full of rage and
fury had knocked the prosecutor down.
C. The constable said that the prisoner, full of rage and fury, seizing a
bolster, had knocked the prosecutor down.
A nurse maid is wanted for a baby about twenty years old. (MCQ)
A. A baby is wanted for a nurse maid about twenty years old.
B. A nurse is wanted for a baby maid about twenty years old.
C. A nurse maid, about twenty years old, is wanted for a baby.
76. Rewrite the following sentence, improving the arrangement: I spent
the three last days of my holiday in a chair with a swollen leg. (MCQ)
A. With a swollen leg, I spent the last three days of my holiday in a chair
B. I spent the three last days of my holiday in a swollen chair with a leg.
C. I spent the three last chairs of my holiday in a day with a swollen leg.
77. Rewrite the following sentence, improving the arrangement: This
monument has been erected to the memory of John Brown who was
accidentally shot by his brother as a mark of affection. (MCQ)
A. This monument has been shot to the memory of John Brown who was
accidentally erected by his brother as a mark of affection.
B. This monument has been erected, as a mark of affection, to the memory
of John Brown who was accidentlly shot by his brother.
C. This monument has been erected to the memory of John Brown who
was accidentally shot as a mark of affection by his brother.
Page 42
In thirty-seven wrecks only five lives were fortunately lost. (MCQ)
A. In thirty-seven wrecks, fortunately only five lives were lost.
B. In thirty-seven wrecks only five fortunate lives were lost.
C. In thirty-seven fortunate wrecks only five lives were lost.
The following verses were written by a young man who has long
since been dead for his own amusement. (MCQ)
A. The following verses were written by a young man who has long
for his own amusement since been dead.
B. The following verses were written, for his own amusement, by a
young man who has long since been dead.
C. The following by a young man, verses were written who has long
since been dead for his own amusement.
80. Rewrite the following sentence, improving the arrangement: Many
works must close if the strike lasts over the weekend owing to lack of
fuel. (MCQ)
A. Many works owing to lack of fuel must close if the strike lasts over
the weekend.
B. Many works must close if the strike over the weekend owing to lack
of last fuel.
C. Owing to lack of fuel, many works must close if the strike lasts over
the weekend.
81. Rewrite the following sentence, improving the arrangement: There
will be a meeting of all boys who play cricket and football in the long
room at 4 o'clock. (MCQ)
A. In the long room at 4 o'clock, there will be a meeting for all boys who
play cricket and football.
B. There will be a meeting of all long boys who play cricket and football
in the room at 4 o'clock
C. There will be a long meeting of all boys who play cricket and football
in the room at 4 o'clock.
82. Correct the following sentence and state your reason for doing so:
It was biter cold. (MCQ)
A. It was coldly biter. (Adverb wrongly used in place of adjective)
B. It was bitterly cold. (Adjective wrongly used in place of adverb)
C. It was biter and cold. (Adjective wrongly used in place of verb)
I couldn't help not laughing at the joke. (MCQ)
A. I couldn't help laughing at the joke. (Double negative was used)
B. I couldn't laugh at the helping joke. (Placement of the words)
C. I couldn't help at the laughing joke. (Wrong placement of the adjective)
Page 43
I never remember to have seen a more excited football match. (MCQ)
A. I never have seen a more excited football match I don't remember.
(misplacement of 'never')
B. I remember to have seen never a more excited football match.
C. I remember never to have seen a more excited football match.
This novel is too interesting. (MCQ)
A. This novel is very interesting. ('too' misused)
B. Interesting is this very novel. (Placement of the adjective)
C. Very interesting is the novel. (Placement of the adjective)
I haven't got no money. (MCQ)
A. There is no money that I have got. (Use of no)
B. I have got no money. (Double negatives destroy each other)
C. There is no money I haven't got. (Correct use of no)
My friend said he never remembered having read a more enjoyable
book. (MCQ)
A. My friend said he remembered having never read a more enjoyable
book. ('never' misplaced)
B. My friend remembered having read a more enjoyable book.
(never misused)
C. My friend said he remembered having never read. (no need for
extra words)
This hardly won liberty was not to be lightly abandoned. (MCQ)
A. This hardly won liberty was not to be hardly abandoned. (hardly
confused with lightly)
B. Light abandonment of the hard won liberty. (light confused with lightly)
C. This hard won liberty was not to be lightly abandoned. (hardly confused
with hard)
I am much glad to see you. (MCQ)
A. I am very much glad to see you. (use very with much)
B. I am very glad to see you. (much should not be used with adjectives)
C. I am glad to see you much. (misplacement of much)
No one can write as neatly as he does. (MCQ)
A. No error
B. No one can write as neat as he does. (adverb used wrongly)
C. No one can write so neat as he does. (incorrect use of neatly)
Page 44
I cannot by no means allow you to do so. (MCQ)
A. I cannot by no means not allow you not to do so. (use of 'no'
insufficient)
B. I can't allow you to do so by no means. (placement of words)
C. I cannot by any means allow you to do so. (double negative)
The flowers smell sweetly. (MCQ)
A. The flowers smell sweet. (quality of the subject rather than the action
of the verb is expressed.)
B. The sweet smelly flowers. (adjective used wrongly)
C. The flowers sweet and smelly. (adverb used wrongly)
I don't know nothing whatever of the mater. (MCQ)
A. Whatever the mater, I don't know. (misplacement of whatever)
B. I know nothing of the matter. (double negative was used)
C. I know anything of the matter, whatever it is. (anything missing)
94. Recast the sentences: Being condemned to death, the scaffold
was erected for his execution. (SUBJECTIVE)
95. Recast the sentences: Born in Surat, a part of his education was
received in Mumbai. (SUBJECTIVE)
96. Recast the sentences: Observing the house on fire, the engines
were sent for. (SUBJECTIVE)
97. Recast the sentence: Being a wet day, I wore my makintosh.
(SUBJECTIVE)
98. Recast the sentence: Having gone to bed very late, the sun woke
me at about nine o'clock. (SUBJECTIVE)
99. Recast the sentence: Referring to your esteemed inquiry, the prices
of the articles are as follows (SUBJECTIVE)
100. Recast the sentence: Standing on the top of the hill, the eye
roams over the beautiful landscape. (SUBJECTIVE)
101. Recast the sentence: Having failed in the first attempt, no further
attempts were made. (SUBJECTIVE)
102. Recast the sentence: Bearing this in mind, no particular difficulty
will be found. (SUBJECTIVE)
103. Recast the sentence: Travelling from Karjat to Khandala, the line
is most beautifully laid. (SUBJECTIVE)
104. Recast the sentence: Being his sole companion, he naturally
addressed himself to me. (SUBJECTIVE)
105. Recast the sentence: Crossing the channel, a heavy storm arose.
(SUBJECTIVE)
Page 45
106. Recast the sentence: Hoping to hear from you soon, yours sincerely.
(SUBJECTIVE)
107. Recast the sentence: Calling upon him yesterday, he subscribed a
handsome sum to the Famine Relief Fund. (SUBJECTIVE)
108. Recast the sentence: Going up the hill, an old temple was seen.
(SUBJECTIVE)
109. Recast the sentence: Resting in cool shelter, the hours were
beguiled with desultory talk. (SUBJECTIVE)
110. Recast the sentence: Having obtained information, he was arrested
for complicity in the plot. (SUBJECTIVE)
111. Recast the sentence: Weary with travelling, the destination seemed
a hundred miles away. (SUBJECTIVE)
112. Recast the sentence: Meeting my friend in the park, he told me all
the news. (SUBJECTIVE)
113. Recast the sentence: Entering the room, the light was quite
dazzling. (SUBJECTIVE)
114. Correct the sentence: Where are your luggages? (MCQ)
A. Where is your luggage?
B. Where is luggage?
C. Luggage is where?
D. How is luggage?
115. Correct the sentence: What beautiful sceneries! (MCQ)
A. Such a beautiful scene
B. What beautiful scenery!
C. What is beautiful scenery?
D. Beautiful scene!
116. Correct the sentence: Can you give me an advice? (MCQ)
A. Give me advice
B. Advice, can you give?
C. Can you give me some advice?
D. Advice give me.
117. Correct the sentence: He has eaten two breads. (MCQ)
A. He ate two bread.
B. Eating two bread.
C. He likes to eat bread.
D. He has eaten two loaves of bread.
118. Correct the sentence: I have an important work to do. (MCQ)
A. Important work, I have.
B. Work is important.
C. I have some important work to do.
D. Important work I have to do.
Page 46
119. Correct the sentence: What an awful weather! (MCQ)
A. What awful weather!
B. Awful weather it is.
C. Weather is awful.
D. Awful is the weather.
120. Fill in the blank: All failed except ---. (he, him) (MCQ)
A. he B. him
121. Fill in the blank: That is a matter between you and ---. (I, me) (MCQ)
A. I B. me
122. Fill in the blank: Leave Nell and --- to toil alone. (I, me) (MCQ)
A. I B. me
123. Fill in the blank: It is not --- who are to blame. (we, us) (MCQ)
A. we B. us
124. Fill in the blank: You and --- are invited to tea this morning.
(I, me) (MCQ)
A. I B. me
125. Fill in the blank: Between you and ---, he drinks heavily. (I, me) (MCQ)
A. I B. me
126. In the sentences supply a Verb in agreement with its Subject :
To take pay and then not to do work --- dishonest. (MCQ)
A. Is B. Are
C. Were D. Has
The cost of all these articles --- risen. (MCQ)
A. Is B. Are
C. Were D. Has
The jury --- divided in their opinions. (MCQ)
A. Are B. Is
C. Were\ are D. Was
That night every one of the boat's crew --- down with fever. (MCQ)
A. Were B. Here
C. Has D. Was
One or the other of those fellows --- stolen the watch. (MCQ)
A. Are B. Were
C. Has D. Was
The strain of all the difficulties and vexations and anxieties --- more
than he could bear. (MCQ)
A. Was B. Are
C. Were D. Has
Page 47
The accountant and the cashier --- absconded. (MCQ)
A. Have B. Are
C. Were D. Has
No news --- good news. (MCQ)
A. Are B. Were
C. Is D. Will
The famous juggler and conjurer --- too unwell to perform. (MCQ)
A. Is\ was B. Are
C. Were D. Has
A good man and useful citizen --- passed away. (MCQ)
A. Are B. Were
C. Has D. Was
136. Turn the following into Indirect Speech:
‘You have all done very badly!' remarked the teacher. (SUBJECTIVE)
137. Turn the following into Indirect Speech:
He said to me, ‘I have often told you not to play with fire.' (SUBJECTIVE)
138. Turn the following into Indirect Speech: They wrote, ‘It is time we
thought about settling this mater.' (SUBJECTIVE)
139. Turn the following into Indirect Speech: The teacher promised,
'If you will come before school tomorrow, I will explain it.' (SUBJECTIVE)
140. Turn the following into Indirect Speech: She wrote, ‘I am waiting
and watching and longing for my son's return.' (SUBJECTIVE)
141. : Turn the following into Indirect Speech: The examiner's orders were,
‘No one is to bring books into the room nor ask me questions about what
I have told you to do.' (SUBJECTIVE)
142. : Turn the following into Indirect Speech: The dwarf said to her,
‘Promise me that when you are Queen you will give me your first-born
child.' (SUBJECTIVE)
143. : Turn the following into Indirect Speech: That is my horse,' said he, ‘and
if I do not prove it in a few minutes I will give up my claim.' (SUBJECTIVE)
144. : Turn the following into Indirect Speech: ‘I will avenge your wrongs,
' he cried, ‘I will not enter Athens until I have punished the king who had
so cruelly treated you.' (SUBJECTIVE)
145. : Turn the following into Indirect Speech: He wrote and said, ‘I am
unable to come just now because I am ill, but I will certainly start as
soon as I am well enough to do so.' (SUBJECTIVE)
Page 48
146. Turn the following into Indirect Speech: One day he sent for Cassim
and said to him, ‘You are now old enough to earn your living, so you must
set of, and make your own way in the world.' (SUBJECTIVE)
147. Supply Verbs in correct concord in the complex sentences:
They sold the house because it --- old. (MCQ)
A. Is B. Are
C. Were D. Was
He solemnly assured them that they --- quite mistaken. (MCQ)
A. Was B. Were
C. Are D. Would
I came home when it --- to rain. (MCQ)
A. Began B. Begin
C. Beginning D. Become
The soldiers advanced when the bugle --- . (MCQ)
A. Heard B. Sound
C. Sounded D. Heart
I asked him what his name --- . (MCQ)
A. Was B. Is
C. Are D. Were
He had a cow that --- enormous quantities of milk. (MCQ)
A. Gave B. Was
C. Would D. Come
When the sun set he --- home. (MCQ)
A. Come B. Wet
C. Came\ returned\ got D. Went
He told them that they --- wrong. (MCQ)
A. Was B. Are
C. Is D. Were
I heard that there --- a disturbance in the city. (MCQ)
A. Has B. Had been\ was
C. Have been D. Is
Page 49
Could you doubt that there --- a God ? (MCQ)
A. Was B. Were
C. Are D. Is
157. Write a sentence using Adverb clauses of condition:
'If it rains' (SUBJECTIVE)
'whether you hear from him or not' (SUBJECTIVE)
'Unless you work harder' (SUBJECTIVE)
'on condition that you do not repeat the offence' (SUBJECTIVE)
'If you have tears' (SUBJECTIVE)
162. Write a sentence using Adverb clauses of comparison of manner:
'as you please' (SUBJECTIVE)
'As you have made your bed' (SUBJECTIVE)
'as I expected' (SUBJECTIVE)
'As he has lived so' (SUBJECTIVE)
'As the twig is bent' (SUBJECTIVE)
167. Identify the adjective phrase in the sentence:
A man of industrious habits is sure to succeed. (MCQ)
A. sure to succeed. B. industrious
C. A man D. of industrious habits
He told us the time of his arrival. (MCQ)
A. the time of his arrival. B. He told us
C. of his arrival. D. the time
The time for departing has now arrived. (MCQ)
A. had now arrived. B. The time for departing
C. for departing D. has now
Do you know the road leading to the temple? (MCQ)
A. the road B. leading to the temple
C. Do you know D. the temple
Page 50
I have a box, filled with almonds. (MCQ)
A. filled with almonds. B. I have a box
C. a box D. filled with
We all admire a man of courage. (MCQ)
A. a man of courage. B. We all admire
C. a man D. of courage.
A city on a hill cannot be hid. (MCQ)
A. A city B. cannot be hid.
C. on a hill D. A city on a hill
The people in the gallery could not hear. (MCQ)
A. The people in the gallery B. The people
C. could not hear. D. in the gallery
You can have anything of your liking. (MCQ)
A. You can have B. of your liking.
C. anything of D. have anything of your liking.
The houses of the Burmese are often built of bamboo. (MCQ)
A. built of bamboo. B. The house of
C. on bamboo D. of the Burmese
177. Identify the part of speech: He is not any worse for it. (MCQ)
A. Adverb B. Conjunction
C. Adjective D. Noun
178. Identify the part of speech: I thought as much. (MCQ)
A. Adjective B. Noun
C. Adverb D. Preposition
179. Identify the part of speech: A thing you don't want is dear at any
price. (MCQ)
A. Pronoun B. Adjective
C. Noun D. Preposition
180. Identify the part of speech: He got the same result as before. (MCQ)
A. Conjunction B. Pronoun
C. Adjective D. Noun
181. Identify the part of speech: He is as deaf a post. (MCQ)
C. Noun D. Conjunction
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182. Identify the part of speech: Men fear death as children to go in
the dark. (MCQ)
183. Identify the part of speech: As he was ambitious, I slew him. (MCQ)
184. Identify the part of speech: He did his best. (MCQ)
A. Adjective B. Adverb
C. Preposition D. Noun
185. Identify the part of speech:
There is no such flatterer as a man's self. (MCQ)
A. Pronoun B. Noun
C. Conjunction D. Adjective
186. Identify the part of speech: I like this best. (MCQ)
A. Conjunction B. Adverb
C. Noun D. Adjective
187. Identify the part of speech: He is my best friend. (MCQ)
A. Adjective B. Conjunction
C. Preposition D. Noun
188. Identify the part of speech: He is but a child. (MCQ)
A. Adverb B. Noun
C. Adjective D. Conjunction
189. Identify the part of speech: But for his help, I could not have
done it. (MCQ)
C. Conjunction D. Preposition
190. Identify the part of speech: Fear nothing but sin. (MCQ)
A. Verb B. Preposition
C. Pronoun D. Adjective
191. Distinguish as Adverb, Preposition, or Conjunction in the following
sentence: He came before me. (MCQ)
A. Adverb B. Preposition
sentence: He came two hours before. (MCQ)
A. Conjunction B. Adverb
sentence: He came before I left. (MCQ)
A. Preposition B. Conjunction
A. Have you got the few potatoes left ?
B. Have you got a few potatoes left ?
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sentence: I have not seen him since Monday. (MCQ)
A. Preposition B. Adverb
sentence: I have not seen him since he was a child. (MCQ)
A. Adverb B. Conjunction
A. A few days’ rest is all that is needed.
B. The few days’ rest is all that is needed.
A. It is a question of spending a few rupees.
B. It is a question of spending the few rupees.
sentence: We shall go, but you will remain. (MCQ)
A. Preposition B. Conjunction
200. Choose the correct option for the following sentence:
I will go myself. (MCQ)
A. Reflexive Pronoun B. Emphatic Pronoun
Rama has hurt himself. (MCQ)
We often deceive ourselves. (MCQ)
203. Explain the force of the Preposition in:-
I will do it for all you may say. (MCQ)
A. For- time B. For- contrast
C. For- concession D. For- excess
This work is beyond his capacity. (MCQ)
A. Beyond- excess B. Beyond- time
C. Beyond- Seperation D. Beyond- Contrast
I would do anything before that. (MCQ)
A. Before- contrast B. Before- time
C. Before- Concession D. Before- Excess
After this I wash my hands of you. (MCQ)
A. After- contrast B. After- excess
C. After - time, of- seperation D. After- concession
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207. Explain the force of the Preposition in:- It is cool for May. (MCQ)
A. For- time B. For- contrast
She made grand preparations against his coming. (MCQ)
A. Against- anticipation B. Against- time
C. Against- concession D. Against- seperation
It was all through you that we failed. (MCQ)
A. Through- supposition B. Through- reference
C. Through- time D. Through- cause
He was left for dead on the field. (MCQ)
A. For- time B. For- supposition
All that they did was piety to this. (MCQ)
A. To- reference B. To- concession
C. To- time D. To- seperation
The lifeboat made straight for the sinking ship. (MCQ)
C. For- direction D. For- excess
I shall do my duty by him. (MCQ)
A. By- time B. By- supposition
C. By- direction D. By- excess
He married for money. (MCQ)
C. For- supposition D. For- purpose
A man is a man for all that. (MCQ)
A. For- excess B. For- contrast
C. For- time D. For- supposition
Nothing will come of nothing. (MCQ)
A. Of- separation B. Of- origin
C. Of- seperation D. Of- time
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With all his faults I still like him. (MCQ)
A. with- excess B. with- contrast
C. with- concession D. with- time
218. Distinguish the Prepositions from Adverbs in the following
sentences: Come down. (MCQ)
A. Adverb- behind B. Preposition- without
C. Preposition- by D. Adverb- down
sentences: We sailed down the river. (MCQ)
A. Preposition- by B. Preposition- down
C. Adverb- behind D. Preposition- without
sentences: The man walked round the house. (MCQ)
A. Preposition- without B. Adverb- behind
C. Preposition- round D. Preposition- by
sentences: He sat on a stool. (MCQ)
A. Preposition- on B. Preposition- without
C. Adverb- behind D. Adverb- without
sentences: The carriage moved on. (MCQ)
A. Adverb- behind B. Adverb- on
C. Preposition- without D. Preposition- by
sentences: The soldiers passed by. (MCQ)
A. Preposition- without B. Adverb- behind
C. Adverb- by D. Adverb- without
sentences: The man turned round. (MCQ)
C. Preposition- in D. Adverb- round
sentences: We all went in. (MCQ)
A. Preposition- by B. Adverb- in
C. Adverb- behind D. Preposition- without
sentences: He is in the room. (MCQ)
A. Preposition- in B. Preposition- without
C. Preposition- by D. Adverb- behind
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sentences: He hid behind the door. (MCQ)
A. Preposition- by B. Adverb- behind
C. Preposition- behind D. Adverb- without
sentences: I left him behind. (MCQ)
A. Adverb- behind B. Preposition- behind
C. Preposition- by D. Adverb- down
sentences: She sat by the cottage door. (MCQ)
A. Preposition- behind B. Preposition- by
C. Adverb- behind D. Adverb- without
sentences: The path leads through the woods. (MCQ)
A. Adverb- behind B. Preposition- behind
C. Preposition- through D. Preposition- by
sentences: I have read the book through. (MCQ)
A. Adverb- through B. Preposition- by
C. Preposition- behind D. Adverb- behind
sentences: The storm is raging throughout. (MCQ)
A. Preposition- by B. Adverb- behind
C. Adverb- without D. Preposition- behind
sentences: We cannot live without water. (MCQ)
C. Preposition- behind D. Preposition- by
234. Rewrite the sentence using a modal verb:
Possibly she isn't Anil's sister. (MCQ)
A. She may not be Anil's sister
B. She is not Anil's sister.
C. Anil's sister is not her.
Perhaps we will go to Shimla next month. (MCQ)
A. We are going to Shimla next month.
B. We may go to Shimla next month.
C. We could have gone to Shimla next month.
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236. Rewrite the sentence using a modal verb: My sister was able to
read the alphabet when she was 18 months old. (MCQ)
A. My sister is reading the alphabet at 18 months old.
B. My sister would be able to read the alphabet when she was
18 months old.
C. My sister could read the alphabet when she was 18 months old.
It is necessary that you do not wash the car. (MCQ)
A. You can wash the car.
B. You must not wash the car.
C. You would not wash the car.
It is not necessary for you to wash the car. (MCQ)
A. You must not wash the car.
B. You need not wash the car.
C. You will not wash the car.
I am certain that they have left already. (MCQ)
A. They must have left already.
B. They will leave if they haven't left already.
C. They would leave already.
Do you allow me to use your phone? (MCQ)
A. I can use your phone, can't I?
B. I will use you phone, won't I?
C. May I use your phone?
241. Rewrite the sentence using a modal verb: I was in the habit of
going to the beach every day when I was in Chennai. (MCQ)
A. I shall go to the beach everyday when I was in Chennai.
B. I was able to go to the beach everyday when I was in Chennai.
C. I used to go to the beach everyday when I was in Chennai.
He will probably pass his driving test easily. (MCQ)
A. He may pass his driving test easily
B. He should pass his driving test easily.
C. He will have to pass his driving test easily.
Perhaps he forgot about the meeting. (MCQ)
A. He might have forgotten about the meeting.
B. He will forget about the meeting.
C. Dare he forget about the meeting.
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I suggest visiting Qutub Minar. (MCQ)
A. We will visit Qutub Minar only.
B. Shall we visit Qutub Minar?
C. We could have visited Qutub Minar.
245. Rewrite the sentence using a modal verb: Nobody has answered
the phone; perhaps they have gone out. (MCQ)
A. Nobody has answered their phone as they have gone out.
B. Nobody has answered their phone so they have gone out.
C. Nobody has answered their phone; they must have gone out.
I am sure he is over seventy. (MCQ)
A. He should be over seventy.
B. He will be over seventy.
C. He must be over seventy.
It was not necessary for me to meet him. (MCQ)
A. I should not have met him.
B. I didn't need to meet him.
C. I could not have met him.
It was not necessary for me to meet him but I met him. (MCQ)
A. I could not have met him.
B. I needn't have met him.
C. I did not need to meet him.
249. Fill in the Past Tense or Past Participle: It is years since I ____him.
He has ____his best days. (MCQ)
A. saw, seen B. seen, saw
250. Fill in the Past Tense or Past Participle:
Of late the custom has ____into disuse. The lot ____upon him. (MCQ)
A. fallen, fell B. fell, fallen
Page 58
EDUNO
NATIONAL
OLYMPIAD
Science
EDUNO NATIONAL OLYMPIAD - SCIENCE
1. If the surface area is increased, the rate of evaporation ________. (MCQ)

A. Increases B. Decreases
2. If the amount of water in air is already high, the rate of evaporation
________. (MCQ)
3. Rate of Evaporation increase with increase in (MCQ)
A. Surface Area B. Temperature
C. Wind Speed D. All of these
4. With the increase in wind speed, the particles of water vapour
move away with the wind, __________ the amount of water vapour
in the surrounding. (MCQ)
5. How does the water kept in an earthen pot (matka) become cool
during summer? (MCQ)
A. An earthen pot is porous in nature. These tiny pores do not facilitate
penetration of water and hence their evaporation from the pot surface.
B. An earthen pot is porous in nature. These tiny pores facilitate
penetration of water and hence their evaporation from the pot surface.
C. An earthen pot is porous in nature. These tiny pores facilitate
penetration of air and hence their evaporation from the pot surface.
D. None of these
6. Why does a desert cooler cool better on a hot dry day? (MCQ)
A. It is because the temperature is high and it is less humid on a hot dry
day which enables better evaporation. High levels of this evaporation
provide better cooling effects.
B. It is because the temperature is low and it is high humid on a hot dry
day which enables better evaporation. High levels of this evaporation
C. It is because the temperature is low and it is high humid on a hot dry
day which enables better evaporation. Low levels of this evaporation
D. None of these
7. Evaporation is a surface phenomenon. TRUE or FALSE? (MCQ)
A. True B. False
8. Why are we able to sip hot tea or milk faster from a saucer rather
than a cup? (MCQ)
A. A saucer has a smaller surface area than a cup which promotes slower
evaporation hence the tea or milk in a saucer cools down faster.
B. A saucer has a smaller surface area than a cup which promotes quicker
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C. A saucer has a larger surface area than a cup which promotes quicker
D. None of these
9. Evaporation causes heating. TRUE or FALSE? (MCQ)
A. TRUE B. FALSE
10. Evaporation of a liquid at room temperature leads to a ———
effect. (MCQ)
A. Cooling B. Freezing
C. Sublimation D. None of the above
11. Which condition out of the following will increase the evaporation
of water? (MCQ)
A. Increase in temperature of water.
B. Decrease in temperature of water.
C. Less exposed surface area of water.
D. Adding common salt to water.
12. Conditions that can increase the rate of evaporation of water are (MCQ)
A. An increase of surface area by spreading the shirt.
B. An increase in temperature by puting the shirt under the sun.
C. Increase the wind speed by spreading it under the fan.
D. All of the above
13. Evaporation produces cooling. (MCQ)
A. TRUE B. FALSE
14. Sponge though compressible is a solid. (MCQ)
A. TRUE B. FALSE
15. Rate of evaporation of an aqueous solution decreases with increase
in humidity. (MCQ)
A. TRUE B. FALSE
16. Comment on the below statement: Rate of evaporation of an aqueous
solution decreases with increase in humidity. (MCQ)
A. Evaporation produces cooling as the particles at the surface of the
liquid gain energy from the surroundings and change into vapour there
by producing a cooling effect.
B. Air around us cannot hold more than a definite amount of water vapour
at a given temperature which is known as humidity. So, if the air is already
rich in water vapour, it will not take up more water therefore, rate of
evaporation of water will decrease.
C. A sponge has minute holes in which air is trapped. Also the material is
not rigid. When we press it, the air is expelled out and we are able to
compress it.
D. None of these
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17. Comment on the below statement: Evaporation produces cooling.
(MCQ)
A. Evaporation produces cooling as the particles at the surface of the
liquid gain energy from the surroundings and change into vapour there
by producing a cooling effect.
B. Air around us cannot hold more than a definite amount of water
vapour at a given temperature which is known as humidity. So, if the
air is already rich in water vapour, it will not take up more water therefore,
rate of evaporation of water will decrease.
C. A sponge has minute holes in which air is trapped. Also the material is
not rigid. When we press it, the air is expelled out and we are able to
compress it.
D. None of these
18. During Evaporation, particles of liquid changes to vapours: (MCQ)
A. From the surface B. From the bulk
C. BOTH (A) and (B) D. NONE
19. Evaporation of a liquid can take place even at room temperature.
Is the statement correct? (MCQ)
A. Yes B. No
20. Which of the following liquid has the highest rate of evaporation ?
(MCQ)
A. Petrol B. Nail- polish remover
C. Water D. Alcohol
21. The evaporation of a liquid can best be carried out in a: (MCQ)
A. Flask B. China dish
C. Test tube D. Beaker
22. Which one is a surface phenomenon? (MCQ)
A. Evaporation B. Boiling
C. BOTH (A) and (B) D. NONE
23. Perspiration (or sweating) is our body’s method of : (MCQ)
A. Increasing temperature
B. Decreasing temperature
C. Maintaining a constant temperature
D. NONE
24. Why does our palm feel cold when we put some acetone
(or perfume) on it ? (MCQ)
A. Because acetone absorbs latent heat of vaporization from the hand.
B. Because acetone releases latent heat of vaporization from the hand.
C. Because acetone takes latent heat of fusion from the hand.
D. NONE
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25. Which of these is not the correct way to make the evaporation of a
liquid faster ? (MCQ)
A. Increasing the temperature of the liquid
B. Increasing the surface area of the liquid
C. Lowering the humidity of air
D. Decreasing wind speed
26. What are the different states of mater? (MCQ)
A. Solid B. Liquid
C. Gas D. All of these
27. We can observe that solid have (MCQ)
A. Definite shape B. Distinct boundaries
C. Fixed volumes D. All of these
28. Which state of mater has Maximum Intermolecular Force? (MCQ)
A. Solid B. Liquid
C. Gas D. Plasma
29. Which state of mater has no fixed shape and no fixed volume? (MCQ)
A. Solid B. Liquid
C. Gas D. Plasma
30. Which state of mater has Maximum Intermolecular Space? (MCQ)
A. Solid B. Liquid
C. Gas D. Plasma
31. Which state of mater has Minimum Intermolecular Force? (MCQ)
A. Solid B. Liquid
C. Gas D. Plasma
32. Which state of mater has Minimum Intermolecular Space? (MCQ)
A. Solid B. Liquid
C. Gas D. Plasma
33. Which state of mater has Maximum Compressibility? (MCQ)
A. Solid B. Liquid
C. Gas D. Plasma
34. Which state of mater has Minimum Compressibility? (MCQ)
A. Solid B. Liquid
C. Gas D. Plasma
35. Which state of mater has Maximum Rigidity? (MCQ)
A. Solid B. Liquid
C. Gas D. Plasma
36. Which state of mater has neither Rigidity nor Fluidity? (MCQ)
A. Solid B. Liquid
C. Gas D. Plasma
37. Which state of mater has maximum Fluidity? (MCQ)
A. Solid B. Liquid
C. Gas D. Plasma
Page 62
38. A gas exerts pressure on the walls of the container. Why? (MCQ)
A. Gas molecules possess same kinetic energy, due to which they are
under constant motion inside the container in random directions which
causes them to hit the walls of the container and hence create vibrations.
These collisions with the walls of the container generate pressure.
B. Gas molecules possess low kinetic energy, due to which they are
C. Gas molecules possess high kinetic energy, due to which they are
D. None of these
39. A gas fills completely the vessel in which it is kept. Why? (MCQ)
A. Kinetic energy possessed by gas particles is very high which allows
them to randomly move
B. Kinetic energy possessed by gas particles is very low which allows
them to randomly move
C. Kinetic energy possessed by gas particles is same which allows them
to randomly move
D. None of these
40. A wooden table should be called a solid. Why? (MCQ)
A. Definite size and shape
B. Intermolecular attraction between closely packed particles
C. It is rigid and cannot be compressed
D. All of these
41. Silicon can be classified under: (MCQ)
A. Elements B. Compounds
C. Mixtures D. All of these
42. Coal can be classified under: (MCQ)
43. Air can be classified under: (MCQ)
44. Soap can be classified under: (MCQ)
45. Methane can be classified under: (MCQ)
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46. Carbon dioxide can be classified under: (MCQ)
47. Blood can be classified under: (MCQ)
48. Pure substances can be exemplified by all elements other than nickel.
TRUE or FALSE? (MCQ)
A. TRUE B. FALSE
49. What are the favourable qualities given to gold when it is alloyed with
copper or silver for the purpose of making ornaments? (MCQ)
A. Pure gold is very hard
B. Pure gold is very soft
C. None of these
50. An element is sonorous and highly ductile. Under which category
would you classify this element? (MCQ)
A. Metals B. Metalloids
51. What are the characteristics do you expect the metal to possess? (MCQ)
A. Lustre, malleability B. Heat
C. Electrical conductivity D. All of these
52. Chlorine gas, as found in the nature, is a compound.
TRUE or FALSE? (MCQ)
A. TRUE B. FALSE
53. The smallest particles beyond which further division will not be
possible are called- (MCQ)
A. Atoms B. Molecules
C. Elements D. Particles
54. Law of _________________ states that In a chemical substance the
elements are always present in definite proportions by mass. (MCQ)
A. Constant Proportion B. Conservation of Mass
C. Definite Proportion D. Atomic Mass
55. A change in the physical state can be brought about ___. (MCQ)
A. only when energy is given to the system
B. only when energy is taken out from the system
C. when energy is either given to, or taken out from the system
D. without any energy change
56. Compute the ratio by mass of the combining elements for Ammonia.
(MCQ)
A. 14 : 3 B. 3 : 4
C. 2 : 71 D. 9 : 19
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57. Compute the ratio by mass of the combining elements for
Aluminium Fluoride. (MCQ)
A. 14 : 3 B. 3 : 4
C. 2 : 71 D. 9 : 19
58. Give one major drawback of Dalton’s atomic theory of mater. (MCQ)
A. Atoms are indivisible B. Atoms are divisible
C. Atoms are invisible D. None of these
59. The law of conservation of mass was given by (MCQ)
A. Dalton B. Proust
C. Lavoisier D. Berzelius
60. The ratio of moles of atoms in 12 g of magnesium and 16 g of
sulphur will be (MCQ)
A. 3 : 4 B. 4 : 3
C. 1 : 1 D. 1 : 2
61. State the number of atoms present in PO³₄. (MCQ)
A. 4 B. 5
C. 7 D. 2
62. State the number of atoms present in P₂O₅. (MCQ)
A. 4 B. 5
C. 7 D. 2
63. State the number of atoms present in CO. (MCQ)
A. 4 B. 5
C. 7 D. 2
64. Does the solubility of a substance change with temperature? (MCQ)
A. Yes B. No
65. What is the fraction of the mass of water due to neutrons? (MCQ)
A. ~8/18 B. ~5/18
C. ~9/17 D. ~5/13
66. Classify F₂ on basis of their atomicity. (MCQ)
A. 2 B. 3
C. 8 D. 4
67. Classify No₂ on basis of their atomicity. (MCQ)
A. 2 B. 3
C. 8 D. 4
68. Classify C₂H₆ on basis of their atomicity. (MCQ)
A. 2 B. 3
C. 8 D. 4
69. Classify P₄ on basis of their atomicity. (MCQ)
A. 4 B. 14
C. 3 D. 2
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70. Classify H₂O₂ on basis of their atomicity. (MCQ)
A. 4 B. 14
C. 3 D. 2
71. Which of the following represents the correct electron distribution
in magnesium ion ? (MCQ)
A. 2,8 B. 2,8,1
C. 2,8,2 D. 2,8,3
72. The correct electronic configuration of a chloride ion is (MCQ)
A. 2,8 B. 2,8,4
C. 2,8,8 D. 2,8,7
73. Which element have 2 valence electrons? (MCQ)
A. Hydrogen B. Helium
C. Boron D. Carbon
C. Boron D. Carbon
C. Boron D. Carbon
76. What is the valency of Magnesium? (MCQ)
A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4
77. How many electrons does magnesium atom lose to achieve the inert
gas electron configuration? (MCQ)
A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4
78. What is the valency of Aluminium? (MCQ)
A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4
79. What is the electrovalency of Oxygen? (MCQ)
A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4
80. How many electrons does nitrogen atom gain to achieve the inert
gas electron configuration? (MCQ)
A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4
81. Safranin is a reagent that is used to stain (MCQ)
A. Nucleus B. Cytoplasm
C. Cell wall D. Plasmodesmata
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82. We generally mount the material in the slide (MCQ)
A. In the centre
B. On the left side of slide
C. On the right side of slide
D. Both B and C
83. Definite shape of cell is seen in case of (MCQ)
A. Plant cell
B. Animal cell
C. Both animal and plant cell
D. Neither animal nor plant cell
84. The outer most layer of human cheek cells is (MCQ)
A. Cytoplasm B. Plasma membrane
C. Cell wall D. Nuclear membrane
85. The cells are first focussed in microscope under (MCQ)
A. 40 X B. 10 X
C. 100 X D. Any of these
86. Name the parts of a compound microscope which two different
types of lenses are used. (MCQ)
A. Eye piece B. Objectives
C. Both A and B D. None of these
87. First living cells were observed by (MCQ)
A. A.V. Leeuwenhoek B. Robert Hooke
C. R. Virchow D. Robert Brown
88. Unicellular organisms take in oxygen and pass out carbon dioxide
through (MCQ)
A. Diffusion B. Exosmosis
C. Endosmosis D. Active transport
89. Root hairs of plants absorb water from soil through (MCQ)
A. Diffusion B. Imbibition
C. Osmosis D. All the above
90. Cell theory was given by (MCQ)
A. Schleiden and Schwann B. Virchow
C. Hooke D. Haeckel
91. _____ contains many specialised cell organelles. (MCQ)
A. Nucleoid B. Plasmolysis
C. Cytoplasm D. None of these
92. The _____ cells have nuclear membrane as well as membrane-closed
organelles. (MCQ)
A. prokaryotic B. eukaryotic
C. chlorophyll D. cytoplasm
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93. Functions of ER is _____. (MCQ)
A. To serve as channels for the transport of materials (especially proteins)
between various regions of the cytoplasm or between the cytoplasm and
the nucleus
B. A cytoplasmic framework providing a surface for some of the biochemical
activities of the cell
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None of these
94. Types of ER: (MCQ)
A. RER- Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum
B. SER- Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum
C. Both 1 and 2
D. None of these
95. Which is true for endoplasmic reticulum? (MCQ)
A. A large network of membrane-bound tubes and sheets.
B. It looks like long tubules or round or oblong bags (vesicles).
C. It is similar in structure to the plasma membrane.
D. All of these
96. Functions of Golgi: (MCQ)
A. storage of substances
B. packaging of substances
C. manufacture of substances
D. All of these
97. ________ are a kind of waste disposal system of the cell (MCQ)
A. Golgi B. Lysosomes
C. Mitochondria D. Plastids
98. ______ are present only in plant cells. (MCQ)
A. Golgi B. Lysosomes
99. Plastids can be divided into 2 parts, known as _____. (MCQ)
A. Chromoplasts B. Leucoplasts
C. Both 1 and 2 D. None of these
100. ______ are storage sacs for solid or liquid contents. (MCQ)
A. Vacuoles B. Lysosomes
101. ______ are storage sacs for solid or liquid contents. (MCQ)
A. Yes B. No
102. What is the meaning of the term 'tissue'? (MCQ)
A. Cells are called tissues
B. Cells specialising in one function are often grouped together in a cluster
called tissue.
C. Animal cells are called tissues.
D. Plant cells are called tissues
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103. What is a tissue? (MCQ)
A. Cells are called tissues.
B. Cells specialising in one function are often grouped together in a
cluster called tissue.
C. Animal cells are called tissues.
D. Plant cells are called tissues.
104. Which are examples of unicellular organism? (MCQ)
A. Amoeba B. Protozoa
105. Which are examples of tissues ? (MCQ)
A. Blood B. Muscle
C. Phloem D. All of these
106. Who coined the term 'Tissue' ? (MCQ)
A. Bichat B. Marcelo Malpighi
C. Mayer D. None of these
107. Study of tissues is known as ____________ . (MCQ)
A. Morphology B. Histology
C. Cytology D. Splanchnology
108. Who is known as Father of Histology ? (MCQ)
109. Who is considered as founder of histology ? (MCQ)
110. Who coined the term 'Histolgy' ? (MCQ)
111. A group of cells alike in form, function and origin are called
________ (MCQ)
A. Tissue B. Organ
C. Organelle D. None of these
112. Father of histology is (MCQ)
A. Malpighi B. Bichat
113. The term tissue was given by (MCQ)
A. Robert Hooke B. Mayer
C. Bichat D. Leeuwenhoek
114. State TRUE or FALSE: In multicellular organisms there are millions
of cells. (MCQ)
A. True B. False
115. State TRUE or FALSE: Multicellular organisms show division of
labour. (MCQ)
A. True B. False
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116. State TRUE or FALSE: Cells of a tissue have common origin. (MCQ)
A. True B. False
117. State TRUE or FALSE: A simple tissue is made up of only one type of
cells where as complex tissue is made up of different types of cells. (MCQ)
A. True B. False
118. State TRUE or FALSE: Workload of individual cell has decreased due
to origin of tissues (MCQ)
A. True B. False
119. State true or false: Tissue is a group of similar cells which perform the
same function and have a common origin. (MCQ)
A. True B. False
120. State true or false: Tissue is a group of similar cells which perform
the same function and have a common origin. (MCQ)
A. True B. False
121. Permanent tissues are derived from ___________ once they lose the
ability to divide. (MCQ)
A. Permanent tissue B. Animal tissue
C. Meristematic tissue D. NONE OF THE ABOVE
122. Which tissue is the dividing tissue present in the growing regions of
the plant ? (MCQ)
A. Permanent tissue B. Animal tissue
C. Meristematic tissue D. NONE OF THE ABOVE
123. Parenchyma, collenchyma and sclerenchyma are three types of
______ tissues. (MCQ)
A. Simple B. Fibrous
C. Compound D. Complex
124. _______________ can be epithelial, connective, muscular and nervous
tissue. (MCQ)
A. Blood B. Tissue
C. Cells D. Neurons
125. Which tissue is made of neurons that receive and conduct
impulses. (MCQ)
A. Areolar connective tissue B. Muscular tissue
C. Epithilial tissue D. Nervous tissue
126. Striated, unstriated and __________ are three types of muscle tissues.
(MCQ)
A. Plasma B. Ligament
C. Cartilage D. Cardiac
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127. What is the specific function of the cardiac muscle? (MCQ)
A. Easily gets fatigued
B. Shaped like heart
C. Rectangular, condensed, multinucleate
D. Rhythmic contraction and relaxation of heart to pump blood
128. Scientific names are ruled by set of rules in the (MCQ)
A. National Code of Biological Nomenclature.
B. International Code of Biological Nomenclature.
129. Is the species name (specific name) written after the genus name.
Yes/No (MCQ)
A. Yes B. No
130. State True or False: The genus name (generic name) is always
written first with its first letter capitalised. (MCQ)
A. TRUE B. FALSE
131. According to the binomial nomenclature system, the lion’s full
name is. (MCQ)
A. Panthera B. Leo
C. Panthera leo D. Lion
132. Panthera the genus name also includes several animals such as
(MCQ)
A. Tiger B. Leopard
C. Both A and B D. None of the above
133. What is the tiger’s proper name ? (MCQ)
A. Panthera tigris B. Tiger
C. Tigris D. Leo
134. What is the leopard’s proper name ? (MCQ)
A. Panthera tigris B. Panthera pardus
C. Panthera leo D. Panthera uncia
135. What is the snow leopard’s proper name ? (MCQ)
A. Panthera uncia B. Panthera leo
C. Panthera pardus D. Panthera tigris
136. If the speed of a body is non-uniform, then the graph between
distance travelled and time is a (MCQ)
A. Straight line B. Curved line
C. Hyperbola D. None of these
137. The slope of a distance-time graph indicates acceleration . (MCQ)
A. True B. False
138. The distance-time graph of a body can be used to calculate the
speed of the body . (MCQ)
A. True B. False
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139. If the distance-time graph of a body is a straight line, then its speed
is uniform . (MCQ)
A. True B. False
140. If the distance-time graph of a body is a curved line, then its speed
is non-uniform. (MCQ)
A. True B. False
141. If a displacement-time graph is drawn, then it will specifically
represent (MCQ)
A. Speed B. Acceleration
C. Velocity D. None of these
142. How many type of speed time graph can we have ? (MCQ)
A. 3 B. 4
C. 5 D. 1
143. The distance travelled by a moving body in a given time can also be
calculated from its speed-time graph . (MCQ)
A. True B. False
144. A speed-time graph of a body, a straight line sloping upwards shows
(MCQ)
A. Uniform Speed B. Uniform Acceleration
C. Non-uniform Speed D. Non-uniform Acceleration
145. Name the quantity which is measured by the area occupied under
the velocity-time graph . (MCQ)
A. Retardation B. Displacement
C. Acceleration D. None of these
146. Inertia is the property by virtue of which the body is (MCQ)
A. unable to change by itself the stale of rest only.
B. unable to change by itself the direction of motion only.
C. unable to change by itself the state of linear motion only.
D. unable to change by itself the state of rest and of uniform
linear motion.
147. What did Galileo conclude on the basis of his experiments on the
motion of objects? (MCQ)
A. A body in motion stops after some time if no unbalanced force
acts on it.
B. A body continues to move with the same velocity if an unbalanced
force acts on it.
C. A body continues to move with the same velocity if no unbalanced
force acts on it.
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148. Body A is heavier than body Q. Which has more inertia? (MCQ)
A. Body A B. Body Q
149. There are three solids made up of aluminium, steel and wood,
of the same shape and same volume. Which of them would have
highest inertia? (MCQ)
A. Aluminum B. Steel
150. A force of 2 N when applied on a body increases its velocity from
8 m/s to 10 m/s in 5 s. Find the mass of the body. (MCQ)
A. 10 kg B. 7 kg
C. 8 kg D. 5 kg
151. Which of the following has more inertia, a five rupes coin or
a one rupee coin? (MCQ)
A. Five rupee coin B. One rupee coin
152. The inertia of the object tends to cause an object (MCQ)
A. To increase it’s speed.
B. To decrease it’s speed.
C. To decelerate due to friction.
D. To resist a change in it’s state of motion.
153. If the mass of a body and the force acting on it are tripled, what
happens to the acceleration? (MCQ)
A. It becomes two times.
B. It remains the same.
C. It decreases to half.
D. It decreases to one fourth.
154. ______ is a measure of the inertia of a body. (MCQ)
A. Force B. Momentum
C. Mass D. Velocity
155. On what factor does the inertia of a body depend ? (MCQ)
A. Size B. Speed
C. Mass D. Height
156. State reason for this, all the cars are provided with seat belts. (MCQ)
A. To prevent injuries in case of an accident by decreasing the time
taken by the passenger to fall forward.
B. To prevent injuries in case of an accident by increasing the time
taken by the passenger to fall forward.
157. State reason for this, it is dangerous to move out of a moving bus.
(MCQ)
A. When moving out of a bus one carries the momentum of the bus,
thus the rapid change of momentum can lead to an accident.
B. When moving out of a bus one carries the momentum opposite to
the bus, thus the rapid change of momentum can lead to an accident.
Page 73
158. Inability of the body to change by itself its state of rest or motion is
called ________ (MCQ)
A. Momentum B. Inertia
C. Friction D. None of these
159. Why are the wheels of vehicle provided with mud guards ? (MCQ)
A. Due to inertia of motion, wheels rotate at high speed and mud sticking
to the wheel flies of tangentially.
B. Due to inertia of motion, wheels rotate at high speed and mud sticking
to the wheel flies of circularly.
160. When a fast moving horse stops suddenly a careless rider falls in
the forward direction. Give reason for it. (MCQ)
A. When the horse was in motion, the whole body of the rider was in
motion. But when the horse stops suddenly the lower portion of the
rider which is in contact with the horse comes to rest but the upper
portion of him wants to remain in motion.
B. It is because of inertia of motion.
C. Both A and B
D. Neither A nor B
161. Inability of the body to change by itself its state of rest or motion
is called ________ (MCQ)
A. Momentum B. Inertia
C. Friction D. None of these
162. Give reasons for the following: When a branch of a tree is shaken
vigorously, some of the leaves drop down. (MCQ)
A. On beating with stick, leaves come in motion and fall down.
B. On shaking, branch comes in motion but leaves tend to retain inertia
of rest and fall.
163. When a body moves on flat surface, will its speed change? (MCQ)
A. Yes B. No
164. Do action and reaction act on the same body? (MCQ)
A. Yes B. No
165. A 60 g bullet fired from a 5 kg gun leaves with a speed of 500 m/s.
Find the speed (velocity) with which the gun recoils (jerks backwards).
(MCQ)
A. 4 m/s B. 5 m/s
C. 6 m/s D. 7 m/s
166. According to the third law of motion, action and reaction : (MCQ)
A. Always act on the same body but in opposite directions
B. Always act on different bodies in opposite directions
C. Have same magnitudes and directions
D. Act on either body at normal to each other
Page 74
167. The unit of measuring momentum of a moving body is : (MCQ)
-1
A. m.s
-1
B. kg.ms
-2
C. kg.ms D. Nmkg -2
2
168. Which of the following situations involves the Newton’s second

law of motion ? (MCQ)
A. A force can stop a lighter vehicle as well as a heavier vehicle which
are moving
B. A force can accelerate a lighter vehicle more easily than a heavier
vehicle which are moving
C. A force exerted by a lighter vehicle on collision with a heavier vehicle
results in both the vehicles coming to a standstill
D. A force exerted by the escaping air from a balloon in the downward
direction makes the balloon to go upwards
169. The acceleration produced by a force of 5 N acting on a mass of
20 kg in m/s² is: (MCQ)
A. 4 B. 100
C. 0.25 D. 2.5
170. A fielder pulls his hands backward after catching the cricket ball.
This enables the fielder to: (MCQ)
A. exert larger force on the bal
B. reduce the force exerted by the ball
C. increase the rate of change of momentum
D. keep the ball in hands firmly
171. Upward force acting on a body perpendicular to its surface is
called __________. (MCQ)
A. Density B. Thrust
172. Force acting per unit area of the object is ________. (MCQ)
A. Pressure B. Force
C. Density D. None of the above
173. Define pressure. (MCQ)
A. Force acting perpendicular on a unit area of the object.
B. Force acting at an angle of 45 degree on a unit area on the object.
C. Force acting perpendicularly on 2 units of the area on the object.
D. Force acting at an angle of 45 degree on 2 units of area on the object.
174. Weight of a body is also a force, and it always acts in ____________
direction. (MCQ)
A. Upward B. Downward
C. Rightward D. Leftward
175. Pressure depends upon. (MCQ)
A. Force B. Area over which force acts
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176. SI unit of pressure is. (MCQ)
A. Pascal B. N/m²
177. Thrust per unit area is called _______________. (MCQ)
A. Force B. Pressure
178. What is SI unit of thrust? (MCQ)
A. Pascal B. Newton
C. m/s² D. None of these
179. Define buoyancy. (MCQ)
A. The tendency of a liquid to take the shape of the container in which
it is stored.
B. The tendency of a liquid to exert a downward force on an object
placed in it.
C. The tendency of a liquid to exert an upward force on an object
placed in it.
D. The tendency of a liquid to flow.
180. The upward force exerted by a liquid is also known as ______. it (MCQ)
A. Upthrust B. Downthrust
C. Gravitational force D. None of these
181. Power is defined as the rate of doing work. The SI unit of power is
watt. 1 W = 1 J/s. (MCQ)
A. True B. False
182. The energy used in one hour at the rate of 1kW is called 1 kW h. (MCQ)
A. True B. False
183. Find the energy in kW h consumed in 10 hours by four devices of
power 500 W each. (MCQ)
A. 5 units B. 10 units
C. 20 units D. 25 units
184. An electric heater is rated 1500 W. How much energy does it use in
10 hours? (MCQ)
A. 15 kWh or 15 units. B. 20 kWh or 20 units.
C. 25 kWh or 25 units. D. 30 kWh or 30 units.
185. The rate of doing work is called (MCQ)
A. Power B. Energy
C. Time D. Force
186. The formula for power can be expressed as (MCQ)
A. Power = Work done/Speed taken
B. Power = Force applied/Time taken
C. Power = Work done/Time taken
D. Power = Velocity/Time taken
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187. The power can be expressed as (MCQ)
A. P = E/t B. P = W/t
188. Is power a scalar quantity ? Yes/No (MCQ)
A. Yes B. No
189. The SI unit of power is (MCQ)
A. Joules B. Newtons
C. Wat D. Dyne
190. 1 kilowatt = ______watts (MCQ)
A. 5 B. 1000
C. 10 D. 100
191. Does sound follow the same laws of reflection as light does? (MCQ)
A. Yes B. No
192. What factors does loudness of sound depend on? (MCQ)
A. Medium B. Amplitude
C. Frequency D. Speed
193. Which property of sound leads of the formation of echoes ? (MCQ)
A. Reflection B. Refractions
C. Absorptions D. Transmission
194. What name is given to the persistence of sound in a big hall or
auditorium ? (MCQ)
A. Accumulation B. Reverberation
C. Transmission D. Absorptions
195. Which devices works on the refection of sound. (MCQ)
A. Stethoscope B. Laser
C. Slinky D. Tuning forks
196. What is the other name of a loud-hailer ? (MCQ)
A. Stethoscope B. Slinky
C. Tuning forks D. Megaphone
197. Name the principle on which a soundboard works. (MCQ)
A. Refraction B. Transmission
C. Reflection D. Absorption
198. Name the device which is used to address a small gathering
of people. (MCQ)
A. Megaphone B. Stethoscope
C. Bulb horn D. Microphone
199. Name the device used by doctors to listen to our heartbeats. (MCQ)
A. Megaphone B. Bulb horn
C. Microphone D. Stethoscope
200. Fill in the blank: Echoes are caused by the _______of sound. (MCQ)
A. Refraction B. Transmission
C. Absorption D. Reflection
Page 77
201. Which disease is not transmitted by mosquitoes? (MCQ)
A. Dengue B. Malaria
C. Brain fever or encephalitis D. Pneumonia
202. Which one of the following is not important for individual health?
(MCQ)
A. Living in clean space
B. Good economic condition
C. Social equality and harmony
D. Living in a large and well furnished house
203. Choose the wrong statement (MCQ)
A. High blood pressure is caused by excessive weight and lack of exercise.
B. Cancers can be caused by genetic abnormalities
C. Peptic ulcers are caused by eating acidic food
D. Acne is not caused by staphylococci
204. We should not allow mosquitoes to breed in our surroundings
because (MCQ)
A. They multiply very fast and cause pollution
B. They are vectors for many diseases
C. They bite and cause skin diseases
D. They are not important insects
205. You are aware of Polio Eradication Programme in your city. Why are
children vaccinated? (MCQ)
A. Vaccination kills the polio causing microorganisms
B. It prevents the entry of polio causing organism
C. It creates immunity in the body
D. All the above
206. Viruses, which cause hepatitis, are transmitted through (MCQ)
A. Air B. Water
C. Food D. Personal contact
207. Vectors can be defined as (MCQ)
A. Animals carrying the infecting agents from sick person to another
healthy person
B. They are vectors for many diseases
C. They bite and cause skin diseases
D. They are not important insects
208. Select the acute diseases (MCQ)
A. Flu, Viral fevers
B. Tuberculosis, Elephantiasis
C. Small pox, Chicken pox
D. Diabetes, Cancer
Page 78
209. When we are healthy, which of these function we can perform well?
(MCQ)
A. Physical B. Mental
C. Social D. All of these
210. A person suffering from a disease is in a___________ (MCQ)
A. State of disinfectant B. State of comfort.
C. State of discomfort. D. State of convenience
211. If there were no atmosphere around the earth, the temperature of
the earth will (MCQ)
A. Increase
B. Go on decreasing
C. Increase during day and decrease during night
D. Be unaffected
212. Which of the following is not a Greenhouse gas? (MCQ)
A. Methane B. Carbon dioxide
C. Carbon monoxide D. Ammonia
213. Biotic component of biosphere is not constituted by (MCQ)
A. Producers B. Consumers
C. Decomposer D. Air
214. Oxygen is returned to the atmosphere mainly by (MCQ)
A. Burning of fossil fuel B. Respiration
C. Photosynthesis D. Fungi
215. What does SPM stand for ? (MCQ)
A. Super Particle Mater B. Suspended Particulate Mater
C. Solid Particle Mixture D. None of these
216. Ozone is an allotrope of ________ (MCQ)
A. Carbon dioxide B. Nitrogen
C. Oxygen D. None of these
217. The part of atmosphere which is rich in ozone may be called
_______ (MCQ)
A. Ozone layer B. Ozonosphere
C. Ozone umbrella D. All of the above
218. Fill in the following blank : Atmosphere of Mars is rich in
........................ (MCQ)
A. Carbon dioxide B. Nitrogen
C. Oxygen D. Helium
219. Match the pollutants with the type of pollution : SPM (MCQ)
A. Soil pollution B. Air pollution
220. Parts of Biosphere are: (MCQ)
A. Land or Lithosphere B. Water or Hydrosphere
C. Air or Atmosphere D. All of the above
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221. How is oxygen replenished in nature ? (MCQ)
A. Evaporation B. Transpiration
C. Precipitation D. Photosynthesis
222. Effects of depletion of ozone layer are: (MCQ)
A. Smog formation B. Decreased crop yields
C. Skin cancer D. All of the above
223. When would you think that you are sick and ought to see a doctor ?
(MCQ)
A. When we are having a headache
B. When our symptoms are significant and points to a disease
C. When we are having stomachache
D. When we feel tired
224. Ozone hole means (MCQ)
A. A large sized hole in ozone layer
B. Thinning of the ozone layer
C. Small holes scattered in the ozone hole
D. Thickening of ozone in the ozone layer
225. The two forms of oxygen found in the atmosphere are (MCQ)
A. water and ozone
B. water and oxygen
C. ozone and oxygen
D. water and carbon dioxide
226. Ozone layer is getting depleted because of (MCQ)
A. Excessive use of automobiles
B. excessive formation of industrial units
C. excessive use of man-made compounds containing both fluorine
and chlorine
D. excessive deforestation.
227. What would happen, if all the oxygen present in the environment is
converted to ozone? (MCQ)
A. We will be protected more
B. It will be poisonous and kill living forms
C. Ozone is not stable, hence it will be toxic
D. It will help harmful sun radiations to reach earth and damage many
life forms
228. What is ozone hole? (MCQ)
A. A large sized hole in ozone layer
B. Thinning of the ozone layer at few places
C. Small holes scattered in the ozone hole
D. Thickening of the ozone layer
229. What are the harmful effects of ozone? (MCQ)
A. Dryness of mucous membrane of mouth, nose and throat
B. Changes visual activity
C. Causes headache
D. All of the above
Page 80
230. What are the major uses of oxygen? (MCQ)
A. Combustion of fuels
B. Respiration
C. All of these
231. In which zone of atmosphere is ozone layer present? (MCQ)
A. Stratosphere B. Troposphere
C. Ionosphere D. Lithosphere
232. Name the crop which grows in winter season. (MCQ)
A. Kharif crops B. Rabi crops
233. Name one crop which is grown in India? (MCQ)
A. Potato B. Mango
C. Cotton D. Apple
234. List out some useful traits in improved crop? (MCQ)
A. higher yield and improved nutritional quality
B. resistance to biotic and abiotic stresses and change in maturity
C. wide range of adaptability and desired agronomic characteristics.
D. All of these
235. Why is excess use of fertilizers detrimental for environment? (MCQ)
A. Causes environmental pollution as their residual and unused amounts
will become pollutants for air, water and soil.
B. Makes the crops tasteless
C. No, that don’t harm environment anyway
236. Growing of wheat and groundnut on the same field is called as
___ . (MCQ)
A. Mono cropping B. Inter cropping
C. Mixed cropping D. Crop rotation
237. Planting soyabean and maize in alternate rows in the same field is
called as ___. (MCQ)
238. Growing different crops on a piece of land in pre-planned
succession is known as ___. (MCQ)
239. Xanthium and Parthenium are commonly known as ___. (MCQ)
A. Herbs B. Serbs
C. Weeds D. Trees
241. Which of the following is protein yielding crop? (MCQ)
A. Lentil B. Gram
C. Soyabean D. All of the above
242. Which of the following is oil yielding crop? (MCQ)
A. Soyabean B. Castor
C. Mustard D. All of the above
Page 81
243. Which of the following is fodder crop? (MCQ)
A. Berseem B. Oat
C. Sudan grass D. All of the above
244. Define the term hybridization (MCQ)
A. Crossing between genetically dissimilar organisms
B. Duration of sunlight available to the plant
C. The whole life span of any tree
245. Photoperiod affect the ___. (MCQ)
A. Flowering of plant B. Growing up of plants
246. Define the term photoperiod. (MCQ)
A. Duration of Sunlight which an organism receives.
B. Duration of seasons
C. Both A and B
247. Kharif crops are cultivated from ___ to ___. (MCQ)
A. June to October B. November to April
248. Paddy, maize, green gram and black gram are ____. (MCQ)
249. Wheat, gram, pea, mustard are ___. (MCQ)
250. A total of ___ nutrients are essential to plants. (MCQ)
A. 6 B. 7
C. 16 D. 13
Page 82
EDUNO
NATIONAL
OLYMPIAD
Mathematics
EDUNO NATIONAL OLYMPIAD - MATHEMATICS
1. State true or false: Variable is denoted by a symbol that can take any
real value. (MCQ)
A. True B. False
2. Which of the following can denote constant? (MCQ)
A. a B. b
C. c D. All of the above
3. Which of the following can denote variable? (MCQ)
A. x B. y
C. z D. All of the above
4. Which of the following is(are) algebraic expressions ? (MCQ)
A. ax B. 2x
C. 3x D. All of the above
5. The value of ________ remains same throughout a particular
situation. (MCQ)
A. Constants B. Variables
6. The value of ________ can keep changing throughout a particular
situation. (MCQ)
A. Constants B. Variables
7. Which of the following is(are) example of polynomial in one
variable ? (MCQ)
A. 2x B. x²+2x
C. Both A and B D. x+y
8. Which of the following is(are) the terms of the expression x²+2x ? (MCQ)
A. 2x B. x²
C. Both A and B D. x
9. How many terms are there in the expression 3y²+5y+7 ? (MCQ)
A. 1 B. 3
C. 4 D. 5
10. What is the coefficient of x in the polynomial -x³+4x²+7x-2 ? (MCQ)
A. -1 B. 4
C. 7 D. -2
11. What is the coefficient of x⁰ in the polynomial -x³+4x²+7x-2 ? (MCQ)
A. -1 B. 4
C. 7 D. -2
12. Which of the following is(are) example(s) of constant polynomial?
(MCQ)
A. 2 B. -5
C. Both A and B D. 2x + 3
Page 83
13. The constant polynomial 0 is called the _____________. (MCQ)
A. Monomial B. Zero polynomial
C. Binomial D. Trinomial
14. Which of the following denotes the polynomial having variable 'x' ?
(MCQ)
A. p(x) B. q(x)
C. r(x) D. All of the above
15. State true or false: A polynomial can have any (finite) number of
terms (MCQ)
A. TRUE B. FALSE
16. Polynomials having only one term are called (MCQ)
A. Monomial B. Binomial
C. Trinomial D. None of the above
17. Polynomials having only two terms are called (MCQ)
18. Polynomials having only three terms are called (MCQ)
19. Which of the following is(are) trinomials? (MCQ)
A. x + 1 B. x+x²+1
C. x+x² D. None of the above
20. The _________ power of the variable in a polynomial is the degree
of the polynomial. (MCQ)
A. Highest B. Lowest
21. The degree of a non-zero constant polynomial is ________. (MCQ)
A. Zero B. One
C. Two D. Three
22. Find the degree of 2. (MCQ)
A. 0 B. 3
C. 4 D. 1
23. A polynomial of degree one is called a_____________. (MCQ)
A. Linear Polynomial B. Monomial
C. Quadratic polynomial D. Cubic Polynomial
24. State true or false: A linear polynomial in x can have at most three
terms. (MCQ)
A. TRUE B. FALSE
25. Which of the following is(are) example(s) of a linear polynomial? (MCQ)
A. 4x + 5 B. 2y
C. Both A and B D. x²+2x+1
26. A polynomial of degree two is called a ______________. (MCQ)
A. Linear Polynomial B. Cubic Polynomial
C. Quadratic polynomial D. Trinomial
Page 84
27. State true or false: A quadratic polynomial in x can have at most
three terms. (MCQ)
A. True B. False
28. A polynomial of degree three is called a ______________. (MCQ)
A. Linear Polynomial B. Cubic Polynomial
C. Quadratic polynomial D. Trinomial
29. Which of the following is(are) example(s) of a quadratic
polynomial ? (MCQ)
A. 2x²+5 B. x²
C. Both A and B D. 2y
30. State true or false: A cubic polynomial in x can have at most three
terms. (MCQ)
A. True B. False
31. Which of the following is(are) example(s) of a cubic polynomial ?
(MCQ)
A. 6x³-x B. 5x³-x²
C. Both A and B D. 2y
32. The coefficients of x² in 2-x²+x³ is- (MCQ)
A. 1 B. -1
C. 0 D. 2
33. The coefficients of x² in 2-x²+x is- (MCQ)
A. 1 B. 2
C. 0 D. -1
34. The degree of 3 is- (MCQ)
A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 0
35. Is x-x³ Linear, Quadratic or Cubic? (MCQ)
A. Linear
B. Quadratic
C. Cubic
36. State true or false: Zero of a polynomial p(x) is a number c such that
p( = 1. (MCQ)
A. True B. False
37. A non-zero constant polynomial has how many zero? (MCQ)
A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 0
38. State true or false: Every real number is a zero of the zero
polynomial. (MCQ)
A. True B. False
39. The distance from the vertex of the cone to the base is known
as:- (MCQ)
A. Height B. Slant height
Page 85
40. The volume of a cylinder is :- (MCQ)
A. πr²h B. 2πrh
41. A zero of the polynomial p(x) = 2x + 1 is- (MCQ)
A. -1/2 B. 1/2
C. 1 D. -1
42. State true or false: A zero of a polynomial need not be 0. (MCQ)
A. TRUE B. FALSE
43. State true or false: 0 may be a zero of a polynomial. (MCQ)
A. TRUE B. FALSE
44. How many zeroes does a linear polynomial have? (MCQ)
A. 0 B. 2
C. 1 D. 3
45. State true or false: A polynomial can have more than one zero. (MCQ)
A. TRUE B. FALSE
46. The zero of the polynomial p(x) = x + 5 is- (MCQ)
A. -5 B. 5
C. 0 D. 1
47. The zero of the polynomial p(x) = 3x – 2 is- (MCQ)
A. 2/3 B. -2/3
C. -3/2 D. 3/2
48. According to remainder theorem, If p(x) is divided by the linear
polynomial (x – a), then the remainder is _________. (MCQ)
A. p(a) B. p(x)
C. a D. x
49. Factors of 6x²+17X+5 are (MCQ)
A. (3x + 1) (2x + 5) B. (3x -1) (2x + 5)
C. (3x + 1) (2x - 5) D. (3x -1) (2x - 5)
50. Factors of y²-5y+6 are (MCQ)
A. (y +2)(y – 3) B. (y – 2)(y – 3)
C. (y – 2)(y – 3) D. (y + 2)(y + 3)
51. The system used for describing the position of a point in a plane is
also known as the ______________. (MCQ)
A. coordinate geometry B. cartesian system
C. position system D. point system
52. A pair of numbers a and b listed in a specific order with a at the first
place and b at the second place is called an ordered pair (a, b). (MCQ)
A. TRUE B. FALSE
53. We define the coordinates of a point in a plane with reference to two
mutually perpendicular lines on a same plane. State TRUE or FALSE. (MCQ)
A. TRUE B. FALSE
Page 86
54. The system by which we can describe the position of a point in a
plane is called ? (MCQ)
A. Plotting system. B. Notation system.
C. Cartesian system. D. None of these.
55. On the number line, distances from a fixed point are marked in
equal units positively in one direction and negatively in the other.
The point from which the distances are marked is called the
________. (MCQ)
A. centre B. origin
C. zero D. axes
56. The axes in coordinate geometry are divided into four parts. These
four parts are called _________. (MCQ)
A. halves B. quadrants
57. The x - coordinate in coordinate geometry is also called the
___________. (MCQ)
A. abscissa B. axis
58. The y - coordinate in coordinate geometry is also called the
___________. (MCQ)
A. axis B. ordinate
59. What are the coordinates of the origin O? (MCQ)
A. (4,4) B. (0,0)
C. (0,-4) D. (0,-5)
60. If a point is in the 1st quadrant, then the point will be in the
form- (MCQ)
A. (+,+) B. (+,-)
C. (-,+) D. (-,-)
61. If a point is in the 3rd quadrant, then the point will be in the
form- (MCQ)
A. (+,+) B. (+,-)
C. (-,+) D. (-,-)
62. If a point is in the 2nd quadrant, then the point will be in the
form- (MCQ)
A. (+,+) B. (+,-)
C. (-,+) D. (-,-)
63. If a point is in the 4th quadrant, then the point will be in the
form- (MCQ)
A. (+,+) B. (+,-)
C. (-,+) D. (-,-)
64. What is the name of the horizontal and the vertical lines drawn to
determine the position of any point in the Cartesian plane? (MCQ)
A. x-axis and y-axis B. abscissa and ordinate
C. abscissa and ordinate D. abscissa and ordinate
Page 87
65. What is the name of the point where the axes intersect? (MCQ)
A. Origin B. Points
C. Quadrants D. Ordinates
66. What is the name of each part of the plane formed by the axes? (MCQ)
A. Origin B. Points
C. Quadrants D. Ordinates
67. State true or false: The coordinate axes divide the plane into four
parts called quadrants. (MCQ)
A. TRUE B. FALSE
68. State true or false: In the Cartesian plane, the horizontal line is called
the x-axis and the vertical line is called the y-axis. (MCQ)
A. TRUE B. FALSE
69. State true or false: The point of intersection of the axes is called the
origin. (MCQ)
A. TRUE B. FALSE
70. State true or false: Abscissa or the x-coordinate of a point is its distance
from the y-axis and the ordinate or the y-coordinate is its distance from the
x-axis. (MCQ)
A. TRUE B. FALSE
71. State true or false: (x, y) are called the coordinates of the point whose
abscissa is 'x' and the ordinate is 'y'. (MCQ)
A. TRUE B. FALSE
72. State true or false: Coordinates of a point on the x-axis are of the form
(y, 0) and that of the point on the y-axis is of the form (0, x). (MCQ)
A. TRUE B. FALSE
73. State true or false: The coordinates of the origin are (0, 0). (MCQ)
A. TRUE B. FALSE
74. State true or false: Signs of the coordinates of a point in the first
quadrant are (+,+), in the second quadrant (–, +), in the third quadrant (–, –)
and in the fourth quadrant (+, –). (MCQ)
A. TRUE B. FALSE
75. Signs of the abscissa and ordinate of a point in the second quadrant
are respectively (MCQ)
A. +,+ B. -,-
C. -,+ D. +,-
76. The points (other than origin) for which abscissa is equal to the ordinate
will lie in (MCQ)
A. I quadrant only B. I and II quadrants
C. I and III quadrants D. II and IV quadrants
Page 88
77. Abscissa of all the points on the x-axis is (MCQ)
A. 0 B. 1
C. 2 D. any number
78. Ordinate of all points on the x-axis is (MCQ)
A. 0 B. 1
C. -1 D. any number
79. The point at which the two coordinate axes meet is called the (MCQ)
A. abscissa B. ordinate
C. origin D. quadrant
80. A point both of whose coordinates are negative will lie in (MCQ)
A. first quadrant B. second quadrant
C. third quadrant D. fourth quadrant
81. If y coordinate of a point is zero, then this point always lies (MCQ)
A. in I quadrant B. in II quadrant
C. on x-axis D. on y-axis
82. If the perpendicular distance of a point P from the x-axis is 5 units
and the foot of the perpendicular lies on the negative direction of x-axis,
then the point P has (MCQ)
A. x coordinate = – 5 B. y coordinate = 5 only
C. y coordinate = – 5 only D. y coordinate = 5 or –5
83. Abscissa of a point is positive in (MCQ)
A. I and II quadrants B. I and IV quadrants
C. I quadrant only D. II quadrant only
84. The points whose abscissa and ordinate have different signs
will lie in (MCQ)
A. I and II quadrants B. II and III quadrants
C. I and III quadrants D. II and IV quadrants
85. State true or false: The perpendicular distance of the point (4, 3)
from the x-axis is 4. (MCQ)
A. True B. False
86. State true or false: Point (3, 0) lies in the first quadrant. (MCQ)
A. True B. False
87. State true or false: Points (1, –1) and (–1, 1) lie in the same quadrant.
(MCQ)
A. True B. False
88. In which quadrant or on which axis does the point (– 2, 4) lie? (MCQ)
A. 1st Quadrant B. 2nd Quadrant
C. 3rd Quadrant D. 4th Quadrant
89. In which quadrant or on which axis does the point (3, – 1) lie? (MCQ)
Page 89
90. In which quadrant or on which axis does the point (1, 2) lie? (MCQ)
91. In which quadrant or on which axis does the point (– 1, 0) lie? (MCQ)
A. positive y-axis B. negative x-axis
92. In which quadrant or on which axis does the point (– 3, – 5) lie? (MCQ)
93. Point (–3, 5) lies in the ________. (MCQ)
94. Point (0, –7) lies _____. (MCQ)
A. on the x –axis B. in the second quadrant
C. on the y-axis D. in the fourth quadrant
95. Point (– 10, 0) lies _______. (MCQ)
A. on the negative direction of the x-axis
B. on the negative direction of the y-axis
C. in the third quadrant
D. in the fourth quadrant
96. On plotting the points O (0, 0), A (3, 0), B (3, 4), C (0, 4) and joining OA,
AB, BC and CO which of the following figure is obtained? (MCQ)
A. Square B. Rectangle
C. Trapezium D. Rhombus
97. If P (– 1, 1), Q (3, – 4), R(1, –1), S(–2, –3) and T (– 4, 4) are plotted on the
graph paper, then the point(s) in the fourth quadrant are (MCQ)
A. P and T B. Q and R
C. only S D. P and R
98. If P (5, 1), Q (8, 0), R (0, 4), S (0, 5) and O (0, 0) are plotted on the graph
paper, then the point(s) on the x-axis are (MCQ)
A. P and R B. R and S
C. only Q D. Q and O
99. If the coordinates of the two points are P (–2, 3) and Q(–3, 5), then
(abscissa of P) – (abscissa of Q) is (MCQ)
A. -5 B. 1
C. -1 D. -2
100. The point whose ordinate is 4 and which lies on y-axis is (MCQ)
A. (4, 0) B. (0, 4)
C. (1, 4) D. (4, 2)
101. Which of the points P(0, 3), Q(1, 0), R(0, – 1), S(–5, 0), T(1, 2) do not lie
on the x-axis? (MCQ)
A. P and R only B. Q and S only
C. P, R and T D. Q, S and T
Page 90
102. The point which lies on y-axis at a distance of 5 units in the negative
direction of y-axis is (MCQ)
A. (0, 5) B. (5, 0)
C. (0, – 5) D. (– 5, 0)
103. The perpendicular distance of the point P (3, 4) from the y-axis is
(MCQ)
A. 3 B. 4
C. 5 D. 7
104. Which of the following is a linear equation in two variables x and
y ? (MCQ)
A. 2x+3y-12 = 0 B. 4x-y+5 = 0
C. √2x-√3y-9 = 0 D. All of the above
105. Write x = 4y equation in the form ax + by + c=0. (MCQ)
A. x + 4y = 0 B. 4x - y = 0
C. x - 4y + 0 = 0 D. None
106. Which of the following is not a solution of x+2y = 6 ? (MCQ)
A. 2,2 B. 0,3
C. 6,0 D. 1,4
107. Which of the following is a solution of 4x+3y = 12 ? (MCQ)
A. 0,4 B. 3,0
108. Which of the following is a solution of 2x+5y = 0 ? (MCQ)
A. 0,0 B. 1, -2/5
109. Which of the following is a solution of 3y+4 = 0 ? (MCQ)
A. 0,1 B. 4,3
110. Which one of the following options is true for the solutions of
y = 3x+5? (MCQ)
A. unique solution B. only two solutions
C. infinitely many solutions D. None of these
111. Which of the following is not a solution of 2x+y = 7 ? (MCQ)
A. 0,7 B. 5,1
C. 2,3 D. 4,-1
112. Which of the following is not a solution of π x+y = 9 ? (MCQ)
A. π, -1.9 B. 0,9
C. 9/π, 0 D. 1, 9-π
113. Which of the following is a solution of x = 4y ? (MCQ)
A. 0,0 B. 4,2
C. 1,-4 D. 2,3
Page 91
114. Find the value of k if x = 2, y = 1 is a solution of the equation
2x + 3y = k. (MCQ)
A. 6 B. 7
C. 8 D. 5
115. Which of the following is a solution of x-2y = 4 ? (MCQ)
A. 0,2 B. 2,0
C. 1,1 D. 4,0
116. State whether TRUE or FALSE: The value of x which satisfies a given
linear equation, is called its solution or root. (MCQ)
A. TRUE B. FALSE
117. Is (2,0) a solution of the equation x - 2y = 4 ? (MCQ)
A. Yes B. No
118. Is (0,-2) a solution of the equation x - 2y = 4 ? (MCQ)
A. Yes B. No
119. Is (4√2,√2) a solution of the equation x - 2y = 4? (MCQ)
A. Yes B. No
120. Is (4,0) a solution of the equation x - 2y = 4? (MCQ)
A. Yes B. No
121. How many solutions are there of a linear equation in two variables? (MCQ)
A. One B. Two
C. Zero D. Infinite
122. Is (4,1) a solution of the equation x + 2y = 6? (MCQ)
A. Yes B. No
A. Yes B. No
A. Yes B. No
125. Is (-4,5) a solution of the equation x + 2y = 6? (MCQ)
A. Yes B. No
A. Yes B. No
A. Yes B. No
128. If x = 2, y = 1 is a solution of the equation 2x + 3y = k, find the value of
k. (MCQ)
A. 5 B. 6
C. 7 D. 8
129. If x = 2k - 1 and y = k is a solution of the equation 3x - 5y - 7 = 0, find the
value of k. (MCQ)
A. 9 B. 10
C. 11 D. 12
Page 92
130. The lateral or curved surface area of a cylinder is:- (MCQ)
A. 2πrh B. 3πrh
131. The total surface area of a cylinder is :- (MCQ)
A. 2πrh B. 2πr(r+h)
132. Given the point (1, 2), find the equation of a line on which it
doesn't lie. (MCQ)
A. x+y=3 B. y-x=1
C. 2x+y=2 D. y=2x
133. If the point (3, 4) lies on the graph of the equation 3y = ax + 7, find
the value of a. (MCQ)
A. 5/3 B. 4/3
C. 5/4 D. 5
134. How many lines passing through (2, 14) are there? (MCQ)
A. One B. Two
C. Five D. Infinite
135. Find the value of y when x = 7 for the equation 2x + 3y = 11. (MCQ)
A. 9 B. -2
C. -1 D. -9
136. Find the value of y when x = -8 for the equation 2x + 3y = 11. (MCQ)
A. 1 B. -1
C. 2 D. 9
137. The graph of the equation x = 0 is the______. (MCQ)
A. y axis B. x axis
C. z axis D. None
138. The graph of the equation y = 0 is the______. (MCQ)
A. y axis B. x axis
C. z axis D. None
139. The bases are always congruent and parallel in :- (MCQ)
A. Cone B. Cylinder
140. The graph of the equation x = -3 is a line parallel to the _____. (MCQ)
A. y-axis at a distance of 3 units to its left
B. x-axis at a distance of 3 units to its right
C. y-axis at a distance of 3 units to its right
D. None
141. The graph of the equation y = 2 is a line parallel to the_______. (MCQ)
A. x-axis at a distance of 2 units below the x-axis
B. x-axis at a distance of 2 units above the x-axis.
C. y-axis at a distance of 2 units above the y-axis.
D. y-axis at a distance of 2 units below the y-axis.
Page 93
142. The graph of the equation y = -2 is a line parallel to the_______. (MCQ)
A. x-axis at a distance of 2 units below the x-axis
B. x-axis at a distance of 2 units above the x-axis.
C. y-axis at a distance of 2 units above the y-axis.
D. y-axis at a distance of 2 units below the y-axis.
143. The graph of y = 5 is a line______ (MCQ)
A. Making an intercept 5 on the x-axis
B. Making an intercept 5 on the y-axis
C. Parallel to the x-axis at a distance of 5 units from the origin
D. Parallel to the y-axis at a distance of 5 units from the origin
144. The graph of x = 4 is a line______ (MCQ)
A. Making an intercept 4 on the x-axis
B. Making an intercept 4 on the y-axis
C. Parallel to the x-axis at a distance of 4 units from the origin
D. Parallel to the y-axis at a distance of 4 units from the origin
145. The graph of x + 3 = 0 is a line______ (MCQ)
A. Making an intercept –3 on the x-axis
B. Making an intercept –3 on the y-axis
C. Parallel to the y-axis at a distance of 3 units to the left of y-axis
D. Parallel to the x-axis at a distance of 3 units below the x-axis
146. The graph of y + 2 = 0 is a line_______ (MCQ)
A. Making an intercept of –2 on the x-axis
B. Making an intercept of –2 on the y-axis
C. Parallel to the x-axis at a distance of 2 units below the x-axis
D. Parallel to the y-axis at a distance of 2 units to the left of y-axis
147. The graph of the line x = 3 passes through the point______ (MCQ)
A. (0, 3) B. (2, 3)
C. (3, 2) D. None of these
148. The graph of the line y = 3 passes through the point_____ (MCQ)
A. (3, 0) B. (3, 2)
C. (2, 3) D. None of these
149. The graph of the line y = -3 does NOt pass through the point___ (MCQ)
A. (2, –3) B. (3, –3)
C. (0, –3) D. (–3, 2)
150. The graph of the line x - y = 0 passes through the point_____ (MCQ)
A. (-1/2, 1/2) B. (3/2, –3/2)
C. (0, –1) D. (1,1)
151. Any point on the x-axis is of the form_____ (MCQ)
A. (x, y) B. (0, y)
C. (x, 0) D. (x, x)
Page 94
152. Any point on the y-axis is of the form______ (MCQ)
A. (x, y) B. (0, y)
C. (x, 0) D. (y, y)
153. Which of the following represents a line parallel to y-axis? (MCQ)
A. x+y = 3 B. 3x-y = 2
C. 4x-3 = x+1 D. x=2 = y
154. The graph of x = a is a straight line parallel to the ___. (MCQ)
A. X-axis B. Y-axis
155. The graph of y = a is a straight line parallel to the ___. (MCQ)
A. X-axis B. Y-axis
156. The line parallel to y-axis at a distance "a" units to the left of y-axis is
given by the equation x= ____. (MCQ)
A. -a B. +a
C. 0 D. 1
157. Write the equation of a line parallel to x-axis and passing through
the point (-3,-4). (MCQ)
A. x = -4 B. y = -4
C. x = -3 D. y = -3
158. Write the equation of a line parallel to y-axis and passing through
the point (-4,-5). (MCQ)
A. x = -4 B. y = -4
C. x = -5 D. y = -5
159. The graph of the line x=-2 is perpendicular to ___ axis. (MCQ)
A. X-axis B. Y-axis
160. The graph of the line x=-2 is parallel to ___ axis. (MCQ)
A. X-axis B. Y-axis
161. Which of the following is the equation of line parallel to x-axis. (MCQ)
A. y = -a B. x = -a
C. y = a D. x = a
162. Which of the following is the equation of line parallel to y-axis. (MCQ)
A. y = -a B. x = -a
C. y = a D. x = a
163. Solve the equations 2x+1 = x-3 and find the value of x. (MCQ)
A. x = -4 B. x = 4
C. x = 2 D. x = -2
164. Which of the following is the equation of line parallel to x-axis and
passing through the point (0, 3). (MCQ)
A. y = 3 B. y = -3
C. y = 1 D. y = -1
Page 95
passing through the point (0, -4). (MCQ)
A. y = -2 B. y = 2
C. y = 4 D. y = -4
passing through the point (2, -5). (MCQ)
A. y = 5 B. y = -5
C. y = 2 D. y = -2
A. y = -4 B. y = 2
C. y = 4 D. y = -2
168. Which of the following is the equation of line parallel to y-axis and
A. x = 4 B. x = -2
C. x = -4 D. x = 3
passing through the point (-2, 0). (MCQ)
A. x = 4 B. x = -2
C. x = -4 D. x = 3
A. x = 4 B. x = -2
C. x = -4 D. x = 3
passing through the point (-4, -3). (MCQ)
A. x = 4 B. x = -2
C. x = -4 D. x = 3
172. What is the equation of a line passing through the point (0, 4) and
parallel to x axis ? (MCQ)
A. x = 4 B. y = 8
C. x = 4 D. y = 8
173. What is the equation of a line passing through the point (3, 5) and
parallel to x axis ? (MCQ)
A. x = 5 B. y = 7
C. x = 7 D. y = 5
174. What is the equation of a line parallel to y-axis and passing through
the point (-3, -7)? (MCQ)
A. x = -3 B. y = -3
C. x = -7 D. y = -7
Page 96
175. The equation of a line parallel to y-axis is ....... (MCQ)
A. y=k B. x =k
C. x+y=k D. x=y+k
176. What is the equation of a line passing through the point (-4, 6) and
parallel to x-axis? (MCQ)
A. y = -6 B. y = 6
C. y = 1 D. y = -1
177. The point of the form (a, a) always lies on (MCQ)
A. x-axis. B. y-axis
C. On the line y = x D. On the line x + y =0
178. The graph of x = k is a straight line parallel to (MCQ)
A. x-axis. B. y-axis
C. Neither x-axis nor y-axis D. None of these
179. The point of the form (a,-a) always lies on the line (MCQ)
A. x=a B. y=-a
C. y=x D. x+y=0
180. x=4 is a line parallel to line............. (MCQ)
A. y-axis B. x-axis
C. z-axis D. None of these
181. The graph y = 6 is a line parallel to x-axis and at a distance of
................ units from the origin. (MCQ)
A. 2 B. 3
C. 5 D. 6
182. The graph of the equation x +a = 0 is a line parallel to y-axis and to
the left of the y-axis if ................ (MCQ)
A. a > 0 B. a < 0
C. a = 0 D. None of these
183. The graph of the linear equation 4x -3y = 12 cuts y-axis at .......................
(MCQ)
A. (0,-4) B. (0,-5)
C. (0,-6) D. (0,-7)
184. The graph of y = 6 is a line : (MCQ)
A. parallel to x-axis at a distance 6 units from the origin
B. parallel to y-axis at a distance 6 units from the origin
C. making an intercept 6 on the x-axis
D. making an intercept 6 on both the axes
185. The line parallel to the y-axis at a distance 4 units to the left of y-axis
is given by the equation x = – 4. State true or false. (MCQ)
A. True B. False
186. The rays making an angle are called the ............... of the angle. (MCQ)
A. vertex B. arms
Page 97
187. When two rays originate from the same end point, then (MCQ)
A. an angle is formed B. a vertex is formed
C. a side is formed D. None of the above
188. An angle whose measure is 90° is called______. (MCQ)
A. an acute angle B. an obtuse angle
C. a reflex angle D. right angle
189. An angle whose measure is more than 0° but less than 90° is
called______. (MCQ)
C. a reflex angle D. straight angle
called_______. (MCQ)
C. a reflex angle D. a reflex angle
191. An angle whose measure is 180° is called_________. (MCQ)
A. an acute angle B. straight angle
C. right angle D. an obtuse angle
called________. (MCQ)
C. a reflex angle D. right angle
193. An angle whose measure is 360° is called__________. (MCQ)
C. a reflex angle D. complete angle
194. Two angles are said to be equal, if they are of the same measure.
Is it TRUE or FALSE? (MCQ)
A. TRUE B. FALSE
195. The exterior of ∠BAC is the set of all points in its plane which lie on
the same side of AB as C and also on the same side of AC as B. Is it TRUE
or FALSE? (MCQ)
A. TRUE B. FALSE
196. The interior of ∠BAC is the set of all points in its plane which lie on the
same side of AB as C and also on the same side of AC as B. Is it TRUE or
FALSE? (MCQ)
A. TRUE B. FALSE
197. Two angles are said to be complementary, if the sum of their
measures is ______. (MCQ)
A. 45° B. 90°
C. 180° D. 360°
Page 98
198. Two angles are said to be supplementary if the sum of their
measures is _______. (MCQ)
A. 45° B. 90°
C. 180° D. 360°
199. Find the measure of an angle which is 24° more than its
complement. (MCQ)
A. 57° B. 114°
C. 29° D. 47°
200. Two supplementary angles are in the ratio 3 : 2. Find the angles.
(MCQ)
A. 57°, 123° B. 100°, 80°
C. 120°, 60° D. 108°, 72°
201. Find the measure of an angle which is 32° less than its supplement.
(MCQ)
A. 57° B. 38°
C. 74° D. 47°
202. Find the measure of an angle, if seven times its complement is 10°
less than three times its supplement. (MCQ)
A. 35° B. 25°
C. 45° D. 50°
203. The supplement of an angle is one third of the given angle. Find the
measures of the given angle and its supplement respectively. (MCQ)
A. 135°, 45° respectively
B. 90°, 90° respectively
C. 135°, 45° respectively
D. 120°, 160° respectively
204. When the sum of two angles is 90°, then the angles are
known as? (MCQ)
A. Complementary angles B. Supplementary angles
205. When the sum of two angles is 180°, then the angles are
known as? (MCQ)
A. Complementary angles B. Supplementary angles
206. Find the complement of 16°. (MCQ)
A. 64° B. 55°
C. 74° D. 44°
A. 55° B. 35°
C. 45° D. 15°
A. 90° B. 55°
C. 180° D. 0°
Page 99
209. Find the supplement of 42°. (MCQ)
A. 155° B. 138°
C. 158° D. 118°
A. 90° B. 138°
C. 60° D. 180°
A. 55° B. 46°
C. 56° D. 64°
212. Find the measure of an angle which is equal to its complement. (MCQ)
A. 90° B. 180°
C. 60° D. 45°
213. Find the measure of an angle which is equal to its supplement. (MCQ)
A. 90° B. 180°
C. 60° D. 45°
214. Find the measure of an angle which is 36° more than its complement.
(MCQ)
A. 30° B. 46°
C. 36° D. 63°
215. Find the measure of an angle which is 30° less than its supplement.
(MCQ)
A. 30° B. 55°
C. 75° D. 45°
216. Find the angle which is four times its complement. (MCQ)
A. 46° B. 72°
C. 76° D. 45°
217. Find the angle which is five times its supplement (MCQ)
A. 90° B. 110°
C. 180° D. 150°
218. Find the angle whose supplement is four times its complement. (MCQ)
A. 60° B. 90°
C. 56° D. 64°
219. Find the angle whose complement is one third of its supplement. (MCQ)
A. 90° B. 180°
C. 60° D. 45°
220. Two complementary angles are in the ratio 4:5. Find the angles. (MCQ)
A. 60° and 45° B. 40° and 50°
C. 45° and 50° D. 40° and 55°
221. State whether the statement is TRUE or FALSE : Three or more points
are said to be collinear if there is a line which contains all of them. (MCQ)
A. TRUE B. FALSE
Page 100
222. The union of two non-colinear rays with a common initial point
is called: (MCQ)
A. Arms B. Angle
223. Three or more lines intersecting at the same point are said to
be (MCQ)
A. Concurrent Lines B. Angles
C. Intersecting Lines D. All Of The Above
224. State whether the statement is TRUE or FALSE : Two lines are
intersecting if they have a common point. The common point is called
the point of intersection. (MCQ)
A. True B. False
225. An angle whose measure is 90°. (MCQ)
A. Reflex Angle B. Right Angle
C. Acute Angle D. Straight Angle
226. An angle whose measure is less than 90° . (MCQ)
A. Reflex Angle B. Right Angle
C. Acute Angle D. Obtuse Angle
227. An angle whose measure is more than 90° but less than 180°. (MCQ)
A. Right Angle B. Acute Angle
C. Straight Line D. Obtuse Angle
228. An angle whose measure is 180°. (MCQ)
A. Obtuse Angle B. Right Angle
C. Reflex Angle D. Straight Angle
229. An angle whose measure is more than 180°. (MCQ)
A. Acute Angle B. Right Angle
C. Straight Angle D. Reflex Angle
230. Two angles are said to be _____, if the sum of their measure is
90°. (MCQ)
A. Adjacent Angles B. Linear Pair
C. Complementary Angles D. Supplementary Angles
231. Two angles are said to be _____, if the sum of their measure is
180°. (MCQ)
A. Linear Pair B. Supplementary Angles
C. Complementary Angles D. Vertically Opposite Angles
232. Two angles having common vertex and a common arm are called
_____, if their uncommon arms are on the either side of the common
arm. (MCQ)
A. Vertically Opposite Angles B. Adjacent Angles
C. Linear Pair D. Complementary Angles
Page 101
233. Two angles are said to form a pair of _____ if their arms form two pairs
of opposite rays. (MCQ)
A. Adjacent Angles B. Complementary Angles
C. Supplementary Angles D. Vertically Opposite Angles
234. Two adjacent angles are said to form a _____, if the sum of their
measures is 180°. (MCQ)
A. Linear Pair B. Supplementary Angles
C. Vertically Opposite Angles D. Adjacent Angles
235. A triangle whose two sides are equal is known as _____. (MCQ)
A. scalene triangle B. isosceles triangle
C. equilateral triangle D. right-angled triangle
236. A triangle in which all the sides are of different lengths is known
as_____. (MCQ)
237. A triangle with one angle as a right angle is known as _____. (MCQ)
238. A triangle having all sides equal is known as _____. (MCQ)
239. The rays making the arms are called the vertex. Is it true or false ?
(MCQ)
A. TRUE B. FALSE
240. An angle whose measure is more than 0° but less than 90° is called
an _____. (MCQ)
A. obtuse angle B. right angle
C. acute angle D. straight angle
241. An angle whose measure is 90°, is called a ______. (MCQ)
called an ______. (MCQ)
243. An angle whose measure is 180° is called a ______. (MCQ)
A. obtuse angle B. reflex angle
C. straight angle D. complete angle
Page 102
called a ______. (MCQ)
A. obtuse angle B. reflex angle
C. straight angle D. complete angle
245. Two angles whose sum is 90° are called ______. (MCQ)
A. supplementary angles B. adjacent angles
C. complementary angles D. None of these
246. Two angles whose sum is 180° are called ______. (MCQ)
A. supplementary angles B. adjacent angles
C. complementary angles D. None of these
247. The pair of angles which be on the opposite sides of the point of
intersection are called ______. (MCQ)
A. adjacent angles B. vertically opposite angles
C. straight angles D. None of these
248. Two angles are called adjacent angles, if (MCQ)
A. they have the same vertex
B. they have a common arm
C. uncommon arms on either side of the common arm
D. All of these
249. When the sum of two adjacent angles is 180°, then they are
called ______. (MCQ)
A. supplementary angles B. vertically opposite angles
C. linear pair of angles D. None of these
250. The point where two rays meet is called ______. (MCQ)
A. vertex B. linear pair
C. angle D. None of these
Page 103
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PRACTICE QUESTIONS BOOKLET

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EDUNO NATIONAL OLYMPIAD - ENGLISH Page 32-58

EDUNO NATIONAL OLYMPIAD - SCIENCE Page 59-82

EDUNO NATIONAL OLYMPIAD - MATHEMATICS Page 83-103

1. The Tropic of Cancer does not pass through: (MCQ)

1. Make 5 sentences on the following pattern: Subject+Verb. (SUBJECTIVE)

1. If the surface area is increased, the rate of evaporation ________. (MCQ)

168. Which of the following situations involves the Newton’s second

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