ĐỀ ÔN THI THPT QUỐC GIA TỰ LUYỆN Ở NHÀ

ĐỀ ÔN THI THPT QUỐC GIA – ĐỀ SỐ 01
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs
from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 1. A. attracts B. humans C. follows D. genders
Question 2. A. open B. other C. only D. smoking
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three
in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3. A. finish B. visit C. passion D. invite
Question 4. A. stimulate B. romantic C. permission D. pollutant
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
italic word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 5. I should be grateful if you would let me keep myself to myself.
A. be lonely B. be special C. be quiet D. be private
Question 6. The old people in the neighborhood are constantly visiting each other.
A. quite often B. rarely C. continuously D. occasionally
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to
the italic word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 7. The film is not worth seeing. The plot is too dull.
A. interesting B. simple C. complicated D. boring
Question 8. There is practically no difference between the two options.
A. virtually B. hardly C. usually D. exactly
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 9. Dad has just come back home from a shop.
- Dad: "I have bought you a toy. Happy birthday to you!" - Son: "_________ "
A. Have a nice day B. The same to you!
C. What a lovely toy! Thanks. D. What a pity!
Question 10. Sam is talking to Mai on the first day at school.
- Sam: "How long does it take you to get to school?" - Mai: " _____."
A. About 2 kilometres B. 2 years ago C. About 15 minutes D. 15 pounds
Mark the letter to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following
questions.
Question 11. The pupils haven't done their homework, what is too bad.
A B C D
Question 12. My daughter has learned English at the age of 8.
A B C D
Question 13. I'm looking forward to attend your wedding this spring.
A B C D
Mark the letter to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 14. She told him________ give up hope.
A. not give B. to not give C. not to give D. to give not
Question 15. Her mother asked her to________ the table for the evening meal.
A. place B. lay C. spread D. put
Question 16. To save energy, we should remember to________ the lights before going out.
A. turn down B. turn on C. turn off D. turn up
Question 17. You'll get a cold if you_________ your warm clothes.
A. haven't changed B. won't change C. didn't change D. don't change
Question 18. She sings as_________ as her mother.
A. beauty B. beautifully C. beautiful D. beautify
Question 19. My dad is a_________ smoker. He smokes every day.
A. strong B. hooked C. plentiful D. heavy
Question 20. Britain's Prince William arrived_________ Hanoi on Wednesday for his first visit to
Vietnam.
A. at B. to C. on D. in
Question 21. Health officials said both men and women should avoid_________ to places where Zika
cases have been confirmed if they plan to have children.
A. to travel B. being travelled C. travelling D. to travelling
Question 21. Mrs. Smith, _________ has a lot of teaching experience, is going to join our school in
September. A. whose B. who C. whom D. that
Question 23. Michael_________ water sports when he was younger.
A. is used to play B. is used to playing C. used to play D. used to playing
Question 24. Almost everyone for home by the time we arrived.
A. left B. leaves C. had left D. leave
Question 25. That's a nice coat, and the colour________ you well.
A. suits B. matches C. shows D. fits
Read the following passage and mark the letter to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.
May 7, 1840, was the birthday of one of the most famous Russian composers of the nineteenth
century Peter Illich Tchaikovsky. The son of a mining inspector, Tchaikovsky studied music as a child
and later studied composition at the St. Petersburg Conservatory. His greatest period of productivity
occurred between 1876 and 1890, during which time he enjoyed the patronage of Madame von Meck, a
woman he never met, who gave him a living stipend of about $1,000.00 a year. Madame von Meck
later terminated her friendship with Tchaikovsky, as well as his living allowance, when she, herself, was
facing financial difficulties. It was during the time of Madame von Meck's patronage, however, that
Tchaikovsky created the music for which he is most famous, including the music for the ballets of Swan
Lake and The Sleeping Beauty.
Tchaikovsky's music, well known for its rich melodic and sometimes melancholy passages, was
one of the first that brought serious dramatic music to dance. Before this, little attention had been given to
the music behind the dance. Tchaikovsky died on November 6, 1893, ostensibly of cholera, though there
are now some scholars who argue that he committed suicide.
Question 26. According to the passage, all of the following describe Madame von Meck
EXCEPT______.
A. She had economic troubles. B. She was generous.
C. She enjoyed Tchaikovsky's music. D. She was never introduced to Tchaikovsky.
Question 27. According to the passage, for what is Tchaikovsky's music most well-known?
A. the richness and melodic drama of the music B. its lively, capricious melodies
C. its repetitive and monotonous tones D. the ballet-like quality of the music
Question 28. It is known that before Tchaikovsky, _________.
A. the music behind the dance had been given very little attention.
B. the music behind the dance had been taken seriously
C. serous dramatic music had been already brought to dance
D. music had been famous for its rich melodic passages
Question 29. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the passage?
A. Tchaikovsky's productivity in composing. B. Tchaikovsky's unhappiness leading to
suicide.
C. Tchaikovsky's influence on ballet music. D. the patronage of Madame von Meck.
Question 30. With what topic is the passage primarily concerned?
A. the cause of Tchaikovsky's death B. Tchaikovsky's relationship with Madame Von
Meck
C. development of Tchaikovsky's music for ballets D. the life and music of Tchaikovsky
Question 31. According to the passage, "Swan Lake" and "The Sleeping Beauty" are_________.
A. songs B. operas C. plays D. dances
Question 32. Which of the following could best replace the word "terminated"?
A. hated B. resolved C. discontinued D. exploited
Question 33. Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word "behind"?
A. in back of B. concealing C. going beyond D. supporting
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
The tourist industry is (34)________ to be the largest industry. Before 1950 one million people
travelled abroad each year but by the 1900s the figure (35)________ to 400 million every year.
Such large numbers of tourists, however, are beginning to cause problems. For example, in the
Alps the skiers are destroying the mountains they came to enjoy. Even parts of Mount Everest in the
Himalayas are reported to be covered (36)________ old tins, tents, and food that have been
(37)________. But at a time when we have greater freedom to travel than ever before, more and more
people are asking how they can enjoy their holidays without causing problems by spoiling the
countryside. Now there is a new holiday guide called "Holidays That Don't Cost The Earth". It tells you
how you can help the tourist industry by asking your travel agent the right questions (38)________ you
go on holiday.
Question 34. A. seen B. considered C. figured D. regarded

Question 35. A. were rising B. had risen C. has risen D. rose
Question 36. A. under B. with C. beneath D. by
Question 37. A. thrown away B. launched C. littered D. disposed
Question 38. A. after B. as soon as C. before D. when
correct answer to each of the questions.
Under the Medicare insurance policy, people approaching 65 may enroll during the seven- month
period that includes three months before the sixty-fifth birthday, the month in which the birthday falls,
and three months after the birthday. However, if they wish the insurance coverage to begin when they
reach 65, they must enroll three months before their birthday. People who do not enroll within their first
enrollment period may enroll later, during the first three months of each year. Those people, however,
must pay 10% additional for each twelve- month period that elapsed since they first could have enrolled.
The monthly premium is deducted from social security payments, railroad retirement or civil service
retirement benefits.
Question 39. The period after the sixty-fifth birthday during which people may apply for Medicare is
.
A. one month B. January 1 to March 31 yearly C. a quarter of a year D. seven
months
Question 40. You can infer that people over 65 who enroll two years after they could have enrolled pay
10% more for two years and then could .
A. continue to pay more than people who enrolled before they were 65
B. pay less than people who enrolled before 65
C. pay the same as people who enrolled before 65
D. be excluded from the Medicare plan completely
Question 41. To start coverage by Medicare on their sixty-fifth birthday, people must apply______.
A. three months before their birthday B. seven months before their birthday
C. four months before their birthday D. the month in which their birthday occurs
Question 42. The author's purpose is to________.
A. tell people when they may enroll in Medicare B. stimulate enrollment in
Medicare
C. describe the benefits of Medicare D. advertise Medicare
Question 43. The word "deducted" in the passage can be replaced by________.
A. subtracted B. protected C. escaped D. taken away
Question 44. The word "elapsed" in the passage most closely means________.
A. finished B. passed C. ended D. expired
Question 45. People would pay 10% more for their insurance if they________.
A. were under 65 B. enrolled after their sixty-fifth
birthday
C. applied seven months before their sixty-fifth birthday D. enrolled in a private plan
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each
pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 46. Jim has won a jackpot prize. 10% of it was donated to flooded areas.
A. Jim has won a jackpot prize, 10% which half was donated to flooded areas.
B. Jim has won a jackpot prize, 10% of which was donated to flooded areas.
C. Jim has won a jackpot prize, 10% of that was donated to flooded areas.
D. Jim has won a jackpot prize, which was donated to flooded areas.
Question 47. My sister didn't leave the car key. I couldn't pick her up at the airport.
A. If my sister have left the car key, I could have picked her up at the airport.
B. If my sister had left the car key, I could pick her up at the airport.
C. If my sister had left the car key, I could have picked her up at the airport.
D. If my sister left the car key, I could pick her up at the airport.
Mark the letter to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 48. Chatting with friends is interesting.
A. People chatting with friends are interesting. B. The only interesting thing is chatting with
friends.
C. The friends we chat with are interesting. D. It is interesting to chat with friends.
Question 49. She started working as a teacher of English ten years ago.
A. She had worked with a teacher of English for ten years.
B. She had been working as a teacher of English for ten years.
C. She has worked with a teacher of English for ten years.
D. She has been working as a teacher of English for ten years.
Question 50. They asked me to send my latest photo.
A. My latest photo was sent by them. B. I was sent their latest photo.
C. The latest photo they asked about was sent to me. D. I was asked to send my latest
photo.

Mark the option that best completes each of the following exchanges.
1: ~ A: "............" ~ B: "I'm going to see a band, Planet X. Want to come?"
A. Are you free this weekend? B. Which is your favourite band?
C. Why not coming over for some potluck? D. What are you going to do this
weekend?
2: ~ A: Phu Quang’s staging a liveshow next Sunday. Will you come? ~ B: ".........."
A. Great! Been looking forward to it a whole month.
B. No. He's gone away with another girl.
C. My taste is not for classical music.
D. Really? He is said to have divorced to Ngoc Anh, isn't he?
Mark the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
3: Getting a good job doesn't interest him.
A. He is good at getting a good job. B. He is only interested in getting a
good job.
C. He isn't good at getting a good job. D. He isn't interested in getting a
good job.
4: Dad didn't intend to change his job.
A. Dad had intention to change his job. B. Dad didn't have intention for
change his job.
C. Dad didn't have any intend to change his job. D. Dad didn't have intention of
changing his job.
5: It has been a long time since they met.
A. They haven't met for a long time. B. They didn't meet a long time ago.
C. They didn't meet for a long time. D. They haven't met since a long time.
Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in each
group.
6:A. position B. resource C. preserve D.
conserve
7:A. downpour B. honour C. vapour D. odour
Mark the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
8: Whatever difficult he may encounter, he’ll try his best to overcome.
A. difficult B. encounter C. his best D.
overcome
9: The boy whom I told to on the phone last night is very interested in Physics.
A. whom B. told to C. on the phone D. very
interested
10: Both a term paper and a final exam is often required for a college class.
A. for B. is C. and D.
required
Mark the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the
following questions.
11: She thinks they look down on her because she didn't go to university.
A. look up to B. look on to C. look in on D. look
up for
12: He was imprisoned because he revealed secrets to the enemies.
A. betrayed B. concealed C. disowned D.
declared
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of
the following questions.
13: They are now staying at a flat which is about.......from the safe sandy beach.
A. five-minute walk B. five-minutes walk
C. walk for about five minutes D. five minutes walking
14: The hut was.......into three connecting bedrooms; there was no corridor.
A. divided B. separated C. split D. cut up
15: The factory has a........to choose young, qualified people for the job.
A. privilege B. tendency C. trend D.
preference
16: Peter is sometimes unsuccessful because he's not.......of other people's opinions.
A. tolerate B. tolerable C. tolerance D.
tolerant
17: This poem shows the wonderful.......of the poet.
A. sensation B. sense C. sensitiveness D.
sensibility
18: My father doesn’t like any kind of change. He’s very.......in his ways.
A. fixed B. set C. determined D.
established
19: His name was on the.......of my tongue, but I just couldn't remember it.
A. tip B. edge C. end D. point
20: After Mary......her degree, she intends to work in her father’s company.
A. will finish B. finishes C. is finishing D. will
have finished
21: When I came to his house, I didn't see him. He.........
A. may be out B. might have been away C. must be absent D. can be
away
22: My phone is out of order, which is a..........
A. trouble B. harm C. error D. bother
23: Teenagers often have some physical changes during the ....... from childhood to adult life.
A. obstacle B. way C. transition D.
growth
24: There is always.......traffic in the city centre in the rush hour.
A. strong B. big C. heavy D. full
25: The size and shape of a nail depends primarily on the function ....... intended.
A. which it is B. for which it is C. which it is for D. for
which is
Read the following passage and mark the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the
numbered blanks.
All of us have to work to ...(26)... a living ourselves and to help our family; however, we work
not only for material life but also for many other things. We are working to prove our ability. We
feel self-confident and proud because we are independent. ...(27)... who works is regarded as a
useful member of society. We’re working; that means we’re ...(28)... to our country. Working
helps us train our minds because we always try our best to do the job. The better we work, the
more money we earn, and that ...(29)... us to work harder. Without working, a man’s life will be
empty, purposeless and ...(30)... and it’s easy for a jobless person to do wrongs.
26:A. earn B. find C. seek D. search
27:A. No one B. Anything C. Everyone D.
Anyone
28:A. contributing B. relating C. helping D.
donating
29:A. encourages B. lets C. makes D.
persuades
30:A. regardless B. useless C. senseless D.
meaningless
Read the following passage and mark the the correct answer to each of the following
questions.
FAST FOOD FACTS
There are more than 300,000 fast food restaurants in the US. Why is fast food so popular?
Because it’s convenient, predictable, and fast. Fast food has become a part of the busy American
lifestyle. But, nutrition experts point out, fast food is often high in calories, sodium, fat and
cholesterol. This does not mean fast food is bad. But it does mean you should fit fast food into a
balanced, healthy diet. On the average, to maintain desirable weight, men need about 2,700
calories per day and women need about 2,000 calories per day. It is not well understood why
some people can eat much more than others and still maintain a desirable weight. However, one
thing is certain - to lose weight, you must take in fewer calories than you burn. This means that
you must either choose foods with fewer calories, or you must increase your physical activity,
preferably both. Most Americans get more than 40 percent of their daily calories from fat. The
American Heart Association recommends limiting fat to less than 50-80 grams per day. Fast food
meals can be high in calories, fat, sodium, and cholesterol.
Lately, fast-food chains have noticed that consumers are more health-conscious, and as a result,
many chains are adding healthier choices to their menus.
31: What are fast food meals high in?
A. Water, fat and calories. B. All are correct.
C. Fat and cholesterol D. Salt, fat and cholesterol.
32: If you want to lose weight, what should you do?
A. Take in fewer calories than you spend. B. It is not important what you eat,
providing you eat less.
C. Eat food which contains less fat and consequently fewer calories.
D. Eat food which contains more fat and more calories.
33: Is it possible to eat well in a fast food restaurant?
A. Yes, but only if you choose low in fat and calories meals.
B. Yes, but you shouldn't eat in a fast food restaurant everyday.
C. Yes, if the menus have more choices. D. No, all fast food meals contain too
much fat and cholesterol.
34: Some people eat much more than others, but still don't put on weight, Why?
A. They need more calories than others. B. They do not eat fast food meals.
C. We don't really know it. D. They burn more calories than
others.
35: What does the word “This” refer to?
A. choosing foods with fewer calories B. losing weight
C. taking in fewer calories than you burn D. increasing your physical activity
36: Why is fast food so popular in the US?
A. Because it is good for your health and it is fast. B. Because American do not like
cooking.
C. Because American people are very busy and fast food is ready to take.
D. Because American way of life is on fashion.
37: The word “maintain” is closest in meaning to.......
A. keep safe B. keep form C. keep intact D. keep
fit
38: What is the main theme of this passage?
A. how people should use fast food B. possible hazards of fast food to
health
C. why Americans get more fast food. D. when to use fast food for your
health
Read the following passage and mark the correct answer to each of the following questions.
THE SCIENCE OF AVIATION
Captain John Paul Stapp, already a medical doctor, began his scientific career in the 1940s
studying the negative effects of high-altitude flight, issues absolutely critical to the future of
aviation. How could men survive these conditions? The problem of the bends, the deadly
formation of bubbles in the bloodstream, proved the toughest, but after 65 hours in the air, Stapp
found an answer. If a pilot breathed pure oxygen for 30 minutes prior to take-off, symptoms
could be avoided entirely. This was an enormous breakthrough. The sky now truly was the limit.
The discovery pushed Stapp to the forefront of the Aero Med Lab and he abandoned his plans to
become a pediatrician, instead deciding to dedicate his life to research. The Lab's mandate, to
study medical and safety issues in aviation, was a perfect match for his talents. It was the
premiere facility in the world for the new science of biomechanics.
Stapp was assigned the Lab's most important research project: human deceleration. This was
the study of the human body's ability to withstand G forces, the force of gravity, when bailing
out of an aircraft. In April 1947, Stapp travelled to Los Angeles to view the 'human decelerator',
a rocket sled designed to run along a special track and then come to a halt with the aid of 45 sets
of normal hydraulic brakes, which slowed it from 150 miles per hour to half of that speed in one
fifth of a second. When it did, G forces would be produced equivalent to those experienced in an
airplane crash. The sled was called the 'Gee Whiz'. Built out of welded tubes, it was designed to
withstand 100 Gs of force, way beyond the 18 Gs that accepted theory of the time thought
survivable. Early tests were conducted using a dummy, but Stapp soon insisted that conditions
were right to use himself as a human guinea pig.
Exercising a modicum of caution on the first ride in December 1947, Stapp used only one
rocket. The Gee Whiz barely reached 90 miles an hour, and the deceleration was only about 10
Gs. So Stapp began to increase the number of rockets, and by August 1948, he had completed 16
runs, surviving not just 18 Gs but a bone-jarring 35 Gs.
Battered though he was by the tests, Stapp was reluctant to allow anyone else to ride the Gee
Whiz. He feared that if certain people, especially test pilots, were used, their hotheadedness
might produce a disaster. Volunteers made some runs, but whenever a new approach was
developed, Stapp was his own one and only choice as test subject. There was one obvious
benefit: Stapp could write extremely accurate physiological and psychological reports
concerning the effects of his experiments.
Yet while the Gee Whiz allowed Stapp to answer the existing deceleration questions, new ones
emerged. What could be done to help pilots ejecting from supersonic aircraft to survive? Stapp
set out to find the answer on a new sled called Sonic Wind No. 1, which could travel at 750 miles
per hour, and withstand an astonishing 150 Gs. In January 1954, Stapp embarked on a series of
runs leading to his 29th and final ride, which took him to above the speed of sound, protected
only by a helmet and visor. And when the sled stopped, in a mere 1.4 seconds, Stapp was
subjected to more Gs than anyone had ever willingly endured. He wasn't just proving that people
could survive a high-speed ejection, he was establishing the parameters of human survivability to
G force: new biological boundaries were being set.
That successful run on 10 December 1954 provided Colonel Stapp with an opportunity he had
longed for - to promote the cause of automobile safety. Stapp had long realised that his research
was just as applicable to cars as it was to airplanes. At every opportunity, Stapp urged the car
industry to examine his crash data, and to design their cars with safety in mind. He lobbied hard
for the installation of seat belts and improvements such as collapsing steering wheels.
'I'm leading a crusade for the prevention of needless deaths,' he told Time magazine in 1955.
Stapp's work in aeronautics and automobiles continued right up until his death in 1999 at age 89.
He had received numerous awards and honours. But the best was the knowledge that his work
had helped to save many lives, not just in aviation, but on highways around the world.
39: What does the writer mean when he says 'The sky now truly was the limit' (line 6)?
A. All previous restrictions on flight had been removed.
B. Stapp had set an unbeatable scientific record.
C. A new design was needed for high-altitude planes.
D. Pilots could now be trained to fly at greater altitude.
40: What assessment of Stapp's skills does the writer make in the first paragraph?
A. He was a better scientist than his contemporaries.
B. He was ideally suited to employment at Aero Med Lab.
C. He was able to solve scientific problems at great speed.
D. He was able to prove a theory set out by others.
41: Why did Stapp usually insist on doing test runs on Gee Whiz himself?
A. He thought it was unethical to recruit people for a dangerous task.
B. He felt his powers of observation were superior to those of other people.
C. He had little faith in the overall safety of the equipment.
D. He was aware that some people were psychologically unsuited to the tests.
42: What was the significance of the experiments on Sonic Wind No. 1?
A. They proved that most people would survive high speeds.
B. They gradually improved deceleration times.
C. They broke all previous speed records.
D. They set new limits to human potential.
43: What was surprising about the construction of Gee Whiz?
A. It was not built of conventional materials.
B. It was initially designed to function without a passenger.
C. It could tolerate exceptionally high G forces.
D. It incorporated a revolutionary new kind of brakes.
34: In this text, the writer implies that Stapp's main motivation was......
A. a desire to minimise loss of life. B. a spirit of adventure.
C. a wish to be remembered after his death. D. a quest for expertise.
Mark the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following
questions.
45: Hurricane Katrina will go down in the record books as the costliest storm ever faced by
insurers.
A. decrease B. be less violent C. be remembered D. be
forgotten
46: We're still trying to iron out some problems with the computer system.
A. repair the iron case B. replace the hardware C. find solution to D. update with
new softwares
Choose the word whose syllable is stressed differently from the rest in each group.
47:A. perversity B. supervisor C. impudence D. edible
48:A. sulphuric B. applicant C. interview D.
logical
Mark the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions.
49: Donald heard the bad news. He could not help weeping.
A. Donald could not allow himself to weep at the bad news,
B. Donald could not stop himself from weeping at the bad news.
C. Donald could not help himself and so he wept.
D. Donald could not help himself because he was weeping.
50: He is always busy. He has little time to relax.
A. Busy as he is always, he has to relax little.
B. Because he is always busy, he has little time to relax.
C. Although he is always busy, he has little time to relax.
D. However busy he always is, he has little time to relax.

Question 1: A. category B. vacancy C. scary D. apply
Question 2: A. admit B. provide C. decide D. require
in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. secondary B. requirement C. admission D. certificate
Question 4: A. forget B. offer C. relate D. impress
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is CLOSEST in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 5: Physically inactive people are at risk of developing heart disease.
A. passive B. active C. dynamic D. lively
Question 6: Computers and telecommunication are bound to have a huge influence on various aspects of
our life.
A. equivalent B. diverse C. like D. similar
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that is OPPOSITE in meaning
to each of the following questions.
Question 7: When he heard the news, Simon got on the next train to London.
A. got away B. got of C. got off D. got in
Question 8: No one knew precisely what would happen to human being in space.
A. informally B. flexibly C. wrongly D. casually
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following exchanges.
Question 9: ~ Laura: “What shall we do this evening?” ~ Annie: “________________"
A. I went out for dinner.B. Oh, that’s bad! C. No problem. D. Let’s go out for dinner.
Question 10: ~ Jane: “Thank you very much for the lovely flowers.” ~ Susan: “________________"
A. You’re welcome. B. It was an excellent choice.
C. Yeah, the flowers are nice. D. You like flowers, don’t you?
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in
each of the following questions.
Question 11: He was the last one leaving the burning building in time.
A. burning B. leaving C. one D. in time
Question 12: If you work hard, you would be successful in anything you do.
A. you work B. would be C. in D. anything
Question 13: Poverty in the United States is noticeably different from that in other country.
A. from B. noticeably C. the D. other
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 14: What are the entry________ at this university?
A. required B. requirements C. require D. requirement
Question 15: Damage to the building resulted________ an unusually high wind.
A. at B. down C. on D. in
Question 16: Cameron, ________ directed “The Titanic”, is one of the leading faces in Hollywood.
A. whose B. who C. whom D. that
Question 17: I want this test________ in ink.
A. written B. to write C. write D. writing
Question 18: The local clubs are________ every effort to interest more young people.
A. doing B. taking C. making D. giving
Question 19: It is high time Tom________ more active in class.
A. was B. must be C. has been D. were
Question 20: The wedding day was________ chosen by the parents of the groom.
A. careless B. carefully C. carelessly D. careful
Question 21: He found a watch when he________ in the street.
A. was walkingB. had been walking C. had walked D. walked
Question 22: Neither the boy’s parents nor I________ satisfied with his progress.
A. are B. has C. am D. have
Question 23: I don't really get________ with my sister's husband.
A. away B. on C. through D. in
Question 24: Hung doesn’t take good care________ himself.
A. in B. of C. about D. for
Question 25: I can't think of any possible________ for his absence.
A. exploration B. expedition C. explanation D. expectation
People used to know more or less how their children would live. Now things are changing so
quickly that they don’t even know what their own lives will be like in a few years’ time. What follows is
not science fiction. It is how experts see the future. You are daydreaming behind the steering wheel; is it
too dangerous? No! That’s no problem because you have it on automatic pilot, and with its hi-tech
computers and cameras, your car “knows” how to get home safe and sound. What is for lunch? In the old
days you used to stop off to buy a hamburger or a pizza. Now you use your diagnostic machine to find out
which foods your body needs. If your body needs more vegetables and less fat, your food-preparation
machine makes you a salad.
After lunch, you go down the hall to your home office. Here you have everything you need to do
your work. Thanks to your information screen and your latest generation computer, you needn’t go to the
office any more. The information screen shows an urgent message from a co-worker in Brazil. You can
instantly send back a reply to him and go on to deal with other matters.
Question 26: What does “its” in line 5 refer to?
A. Your car. B. Your home. C. The future. D. The steering wheel.
Question 27: Which of the following statement is true about life in the future?
A. People will go to work as they do today.
B. Hi-tech equipment will be out of the question.
C. It will be dangerous to drive cars because they are too fast.
D. People can have balanced diets for their meal.
Question 28: According to the passage, what do people use a diagnostic machine for?
A. To make food for them. B. To sell food for humans.
C. To provide them with food. D. To find out which foods their body needs.
Question 29: The word “urgent” in the last paragraph probably means________.
A. expected B. pressing C. unnecessary D. hurry
Question 30: Which of the following is NOT true about life in the future?
A. Eating is a problem because food contains too much fat.
B. There’s no need to concentrate much when people are driving.
C. Contacts between people are almost instant.
D. Getting information is a matter of just a few seconds.
Question 31: What is “reply” CLOSEST in meaning to?
A. answer B. request C. replay D. question
Question 32: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. What foods people will eat in the future. B. The role of the computer in future life.
C. What life is like in the future. D. Life in the future will be the same as life at present.
correct word or phrase that best fits each o f the numbered blanks.
Many American customs will surprise you; the same thing happens to us when we (33)_______
another country. People from various cultures handle many small daily things differently. What a dull
world it (34)_______ be if this were not true! Some differences are minor, and people soon become
accustomed to them. At (35)_______ , for example, some foreign women may be startled at the idea of
(36)_______ their hair cut or styled by men. Visitors maybe amazed to see men wearing wigs. People
may find the transitory quality of much American life odd, for example, one (37)_______ rent art by the
week or the entire furnishings of an apartment, from sofa and bed to the last spoon, on less than eight
hours’ notice. “Package” living is part of today’s American scene.
Question 33:A. arrive B. travel C. visit D. come
Question 34:A. would B. can C. may D. will
Question 35:A. least B. first C. all D. last
Question 36:A. having B. giving C. showing D. taking
Question 37:A. shall B. must C. should D. can
Bees, classified into over 10,000 species, are insects found in almost every part of the world
except the northernmost and southernmost regions. One commonly known species is the honeybee, the
only bee that produces honey and wax. Humans use the wax in making candles, lipsticks, and other
products, and they use the honey as a food. While gathering the nectar and pollen with which they make
honey, bees are simultaneously helping to fertilize the flowers on which they land. Many fruits and
vegetables would not survive if bees did not carry the pollen from blossom to blossom. Bees live in a
structured environment and social structure within a hive, which is a nest with storage space for the
honey. The different types of bees each perform a unique function. The worker bee carries nectar to the
hive in a special stomach called a honey stomach, other workers make beeswax and shape it into a
honeycomb, which is a waterproof mass of six-sided compartments, or cells. The queen lays eggs in
completed cells. As the workers build more cells, the queen lays more eggs.
All workers, like the queen, are female, but the workers are smaller than the queen. The male
honeybees are called drones; they do no work and cannot sting. They are developed from unfertilized
eggs, and their only job is to impregnate a queen. The queen must be fertilized in order to lay worker
eggs. During the season, when less honey is available and the drones is of no further use, the workers
block the drones from eating the honey so that they will starve to death.
Question 38: Which of the following is the best title for this reading?
A. The Honey Bee - Its Characteristics and Usefulness B. Making Honey
C. The Many Species of Bees D. The Useless Drone
Question 39: According to the passage, the drone_________.
A. comes from eggs fertilized by other drones B. collects less honey than workers
C. mates with the queen and has no other purpose D. can be male or female
Question 40: The author implies that_________.
A. bees are unnecessary in the food chain B. drones are completely dispensable
C. drones are never females D. the queen can be a worker
Question 41: It can be inferred from the passage that beeswax is_________.
A. absorbent B. complex in structure C. pliable D. sweet
Question 42: The word “species” in the first sentence probably means_________.
A. enemies B. mates C. killers D. varieties
Question 43: It is stated in paragraph 2 that a hive is_________.
A. a storage space B. a nest C. a type of bee D. a type of honey
Question 44: The word “They” in the last paragraph refers to_________.
A. queens B. workers C. honeybees D. drones
Question 45: According to the passage, honey is carried to the hive in a honey stomach by
the_________.
A. workers B. males C. drones D. queens
Question 46: You must read the instructions. You won’t know how to use this machine without reading
them.
A. Reading the instructions, so you will know how to use this machine.
B. You will know how to use this machine unless you read the instructions.
C. Unless you read the instructions, you won’t know how to use this machine.
D. Without reading the instructions, the use of this machine won’t be known.
Question 47: The book is very interesting. My brother bought it yesterday.
A. The book which is very interesting my brother bought yesterday.
B. The book which my brother bought it yesterday is very interesting.
C. The book my brother bought yesterday is not interesting.
D. The book which my brother bought yesterday is very interesting.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in
meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 48: “Are you waiting for your exam result?” she said
A. She asked me if I was waiting for my exam result.
B. She asked me was I waiting for my exam result.
C. She asked me whether was I waiting for the exam result.
D. She asked me whether I was waiting for your exam.
Question 49: They arrived late, so they didn’t have good seats.
A. However late they arrived, they had very good seats.
B. The late arrivers still had good seats.
C. Unless they arrived early, they wouldn’t have good seats.
D. If they had arrived earlier, they might have got good seats.
Question 50: He couldn’t come to the conference because he was seriously ill.
A. Although he was ill, he came to the conference.
B. His illness was very serious that he couldn’t come to the conference.
C. Because of his serious illness, he couldn’t come to the conference.
D. He couldn’t come to the conference, so he became seriously ill.
_________THE END________
Mark the letter A to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation
Question 1: A. resistance B. biologist C. rhinoceros D. digest
Question 2: A. sector B. form C. shortcoming D. Chore
Mark the letter to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary
stress
Question 3: A. domestic B. contractual C. outstanding D. vertical
Question 4: A. terrorist B. vacancy C. maximum D. investment
Mark the letter to indicate the word (s) CLOSEST in meaning to the bold, italic word (s)
Question 5: Today, American English is particularly influential, due to the USA's dominance of
cinema, television, popular music, trade and technology (including the Internet).
A. profound effect B. complete control C. overwhelming superiority D.
complete mastery
Question 6: Students‘motivation for learning a language increase when they see connection
between what they do in classroom and what they hope to do with the language in the future.
A. the reason for which someone does something B. the action that someone takes to deal with
something
C. the excitement with which one is filled when doing something D. the eagerness that someone
has to do something
Mark the letter to indicate the word (s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the bold, italic word (s)
Question 7: Language teaching in the United States is based on the idea that the goal of language
acquisition is communicative complete. A. unable to understand B. Not
good at socializing.
C. incapable of working with words D. Excellent in orating in front
of others
Question 8: This new washing machine is not a patch on our old one. These clothes are still dirty.
A. to be broken B. to be better C. To be expensive D. To be strange
Mark the letter to indicate the underlined part that needs correction on each of the followwing
questions.
Question 9: Cutural diversity is important because most countries, workplaces, and schools
increasingly consist of various culture, racial and ethnic groups.
A. increasingly consist B. ethnic groups C. most countries D. various culture
Question 10: All members shall give the United Nations every assistance in any action it does in
accordance with the present Charter. A. shall B. it does C. every
D. the
Question 11: United Nations is aimed at develop friendly relations among nations based on respect
for the principle of equal rights and self-determination of peoples.
A. based B. principle C. peoples D. develop
Question 12: _______ the more terrible the terrorism will become.
A. The more weapons are powerful B. The weapons more powerful
C. Weapons are the more powerful D. The more powerful weapons are
Question 13: Many young people nowadays are prepared to____ getting married to pursue their
professional careers.
A. prefer B. sacrifice C. satisfy D. confide
Question 14: We are concerned with the problem of energy resources_______ we must also think of
our environment.
A. despite B. however C. though D. but
Question 15: When finding a new house, parents should_______ all the conditions for their children's
education and entertainment. A. take into account B. put into effect C. make all the
conditions D. get a measure of
Question 16: My boss's plane_______ at 10:15 tomorrow morning, but I cannot pick him up.
A. will be arriving B. is arriving C. arrives D. arrived
Question 17: The police have just found the man and his car____ were swept away during the heavy
storm last week.
A. that B. whose C. which D. when
Question 18: Children should be taught that they have to_______ everything after they use it.
A. collect up B. put away C. catch on D. pick off
Question 19: Vietnamese parents normally do not let their children make a decision_______ their
own future career.
A. of B. in C. on D. for
Question 20: The atmosphere at the meeting was very_______ and everyone was on first name
terms.
A. informal B. informality C. formality D. formal
Question 21: Whenever problems_______ we discuss frankly and find solutions quickly.
A. make up B. turn up C. put up D. come up
Question 22: Jack asked Jil_______ interested in any kinds of sports.
A. if was she B. if were she C. if she were D. if she was
Question 23: Mark enjoys having fun by causing trouble. He's a very_______ boy.
A. obedient B. well behaved C. mischievous D. strong
willed
Read the following passage and mark the letter to indicate the correct answer to each of the
questions
One of the highest honours for journalists, writers, and musical composers is the Pulitzer
Prize. First awarded in 1927, the Pulitzer Prize has been won by Ernest Hemingway, Harper Lee,
John F. Kennedy, and Rodgers and Hammerstein, among others. As with many famous awards, this
prize was named after its founder, Joseph Pulitzer.
Joseph Pulitzer's story, like that of many immigrants to the United States, is one of hardship,
hard work and triumph. Born in Hungary, Joseph Pulitzer moved to United States in 1864. He
wanted to be a reporter, but he started his American life by fighting in the American Civil War. After
the war, Pulitzer worked for the German-language newspaper, the Westliche Post. His skills as a
reporter were wonderful, and he soon became a partial owner of the paper.
In 1878, Pulitzer was able to start a newspaper of his own. Right from the first edition, the
newspaper took a controversial approach to news. Pulitzer wanted to appeal to the average reader,
so he produced exciting stories of scandal and intrigue. Such an approach is commonplace today,
but in Pulitzer's time it was new and different. The approach led to the discovery of many instances
of corruption by influential people. Pulitzer paper became very famous and is still produced today.
The success of Joseph Pulitzer's newspaper made him a very wealthy man, so he wanted to
give something back to his profession. Throughout his later years, he worked to establish university
programs for the teaching of journalism, and he funded numerous scholarships to assist journalism
students. Finally, he wanted to leave a legacy that would encourage writers to remember the
importance of quality. On his death, he gave two million dollars to Columbia University so they could
award prizes to great writers.
The Pulitzer Prize recipients are a very select group. For most, winning a Pulitzer Prize is
the highlight of their career. If an author, journalist, or composer you know has won a Pulitzer
Prize, you can be sure they are at the top of their profession.
Question 24: Why does the writer mention "John F. Kennedy" in line 3?
A. He was one of the inventors of the famous awards. B. He was in one of the scandals reported
on by Joseph Pulitzer.
C. He was one of the winners of the Pulitzer Prize. D. He was one of the people who selected the
Pulitzer winners.
Question 25: According the passage, who receives the Pulitzer Prize?
A. most newspaper reporters B. noted writers and composers
C. journalism students D. Columbia University graduates
Question 26: According to the reading passage, why did Joseph Pulitzer invent the Pulitzer Prize?
A. to encourage writers to remember the importance of quality
B. to encourage journalism students to achieve their goals
C. to encourage people to remember his name and success
D. to encourage work of the Pulitzer winners
Question 27: Which sentence about Joseph Pulitzer is TRUE according to the reading passage?
A. He received a scholarship when he was a university student. B. He was rich even when he was
young.
C. He immigrated to the United States from Hungary. D. He was a reporter during the
American Civil War.
Question 28: The word “partial" in the passage is closest in meaning to_________.
A. brand new B. very important C. one and only D. in part only
Question 29: According to the reading passage, how did Joseph Pulitzer appear to the average
reader?
A. He produced his own newspaper. B. He wrote stories about the war.
C. He produced exciting stories of scandal and intrigue. D. He wrote about famous writers of
journalism and literature.
Question 30: Which sentence about Joseph Pulitzer is NOT true according to the reading passage?
A. Joseph Pulitzer was the first writer to the win the prize in 1917.
B. Joseph Pulitzer left money to award to the prizewinners.
C. Receiving the prize is one of the highest honors for writers.
D. The prize is aimed at encouraging a writer’s career.
Read the following passage and mark the letter to indicate the correct word or phrase that
best fist
Tim Samaras is a storm chaser. His job is to find tornadoes and follow them. When he gets
close to a tornado, he puts a special tool (31)________ a turtle probe on the ground. This tool
measures things like a twister’s temperatune, humidity, and wind speed. With this information,
Samaras can lean what causes tornadoes to develop. If meteorologists understand this, they can
warn people (32)________ twisters sooner and save lives.
How does Samaras hunt tornadoes? It’s not easy. First, he has to find one. Tornadoes are too
small to see using weather satellites. So Samaras can‟t rely on these tools to find a twister. (33)_, he
waits for tornadoes to develop.
Once Samaras sees a tornado, the chase begins. But a tornado is hard to follow. Some
tornadoes change (34)____ several time - for example, moving east and then west and then east
again. When Samaras finally gets near a tornado, het puts the turtle probe on the ground. Being this
close to twister is (35)________ He must get away quickly.
Question 31: A. meant B. made C. know D. called
Question 32: A. with B. for C. about D. at
Question 33: A. Instead B. Yet C. Rather D. Still
Question 34: A. progression B. dimension C. movement D. direction
Question 35: A. terrifies B. terrifying C. terrifly D. terrified
questions
Clara Barton became known as “The Angel of the Battlefield” during the American Civil War.
Born in Oxford, Massachusetts in 1821, Clara Bartons interest in helping soldiers on the battlefield
began when she was told army stories from her father. Another event that influenced her decision
to help soldiers was an accident her brother had. His injuries were cared for by Barton for 2 year. At
the time, she was only 11 years old. Barton began teaching school at the age of 15. She taught for 18
years before she moved to Washington, D. C. in 1854.
The civil war broke out 6 years later. Immediately, Barton started war service by helping
the soldiers with their needs. At the battle of Bull run, Clara Barton received permission from the
government to take care of the sick and hurt. Barton did this with great empathy and kindness. She
acknowledged each soldier as a person. Her endurance and courage on the battlefield were
admired by many. When the war ended in 1865, she used 4 years of her life to assist the
government in searching for soldiers who were missing during the war.
The search for missing soldiers and years of hard work made her feeble physically. In 1869,
her doctors recommended a trip to Europe for a rest. While she was on vacation, she became
involved with the International Red Cross, an organization set up by the Geneva Convention in
1864. Clara Barton realized that the Red Cross would be a best help to the United States. After she
returned to the United States, she worked very hard to create an American Red Cross. She talked to
government leaders and let American people know about the Red Cross. In 1881, the National
Society of the Red Cross was finally established with its headquarters in Washington, D. C. Clara
Barton managed its activities for 23 years. Barton never let her age stop her from helping people. At
the age of 79, she helped food victims in Galveston, Texas. Barton finally resigned from the Red
Cross in 1904. She was 92 years old and had truly earned her title "The Angel of the Battle".
Question 36: According to the paragraph 1, which of the following is true of the young Barton Clara?
A. She made a decision to live with her brother for 2 years. B. She helpep her father when
he was a soldier.
C. She helped her brother who hurt in an accident. D. She suffered from an
accident when she was 11.
Question 37: The word acknowledged in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by_________.
A. pleaded B. believed C. recognized D. nursed
Question 38: What can be inferred about the government?
A. It showed Clara Barton great empathy and kindness. B. It did not have the money
to help Clara Barton.
C. It did not always agree with Clara Barton. D. It had respect for Clara Barton.
Question 39: What can be the best title of the reading passage? A. The angel of the
Battlefield
B. The American Civil War C. The International Red Cross D. The American Red
Cross
Question 40: What is the main idea of the passage?
A. Clara Barton worked for disaster victims until she was old.
B. Clara Barton was a kind and strong woman who helped people in need.
C. Clara Barton helped wounded soldiers and she was the founder of the Red Cross.
D. Clara Barton becam a nurse during the American Civil War.
Question 41: The phrase broke out in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to_________.
A. broken down B. extended C. began D. closed
Question 42: What does the author mention about the American Red Cross?
A. It was disapproved again and again by the Geneva Convention. C. It was first established in
the Unites States.
B. The American people were not interested in the Red Cross. D. Barton tried to have it set
up in America
Question 43: The word this in paragraph 2 refers to_________.
A. cooker for soldiers B. received permission
C. recognized each soldier as a person D. took care of the sick and hurt
Mark the letter to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the
following question.
Question 44: The teacher has done his best to help all students. However, none of them made any
effort on their part.
A. The teacher has done his best to help all student, then, none of them made any effort on
their part.
B. If the teacher has done his best to help all students,, none of them made any effort on
their part.
C. Although the teacher has done his best to help all students, none of them made any
effort on their part.
D. Because the teacher has done his best to help all students,, none of them made any effort
on their part.
Question 45: “Finish your work. And then you can go home.”
A. “Because you have finished your work, you can go home.” B. “When you go home, finish your
work then.”
C. “You can‟t go home until you finish your work.” D. “You finish your work to go home as
early as you can.”
Mark the letter to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of following exchanges.
Question 46: Mary is talking to her professor in his office.
~ Mary: "Can you tell me how to find material for my science report, Professor?" ~
Professor: "________"
A. I like it that you understand. B. Try your best, Mary.
C. you can borrow books from the library. D. You mean the podcasts from other
students?
Question 47: Two friends Diana and Anne are talking about their upcoming exams.
~ Diana: "Our mid-term exams will start next Tuesday, are you ready?" ~ Anne:
"_________"
A. I’m half ready. B. Don't mention it! C. Thank you so much D. God save you.
Mark the letter to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following
questions.
Question 48: “Are you going to the cinema with us tonight, Susan?” asks her friends.
A. Susan’s friend asked her if she was going to the cinema with them that night.
B. Susan’s friend would like to invite her to go to the cinema with them that night.
C. Susan’s friend asked her whether she went to the cinema with them that night.
D. Susan’s friend would rather her went to the cinema with them that night.
Question 49: "Why don't we go out for dinner?" said Mary.
A. Mary requested a dinner out. B. Mary ordered a dinner out.
C. Mary demanded a dinner out. D. Mary suggested a dinner out.
Question 50: We've run out of tea. A. We didn’t have any tea. B. There's no
tea left.
C. There's not much more tea left. D. We have to run out to buy some tea.
_________THE END_________

Mark the letter to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in
pronunciation
Question 1. A. plays B. buys C. works D. lives
Question 2. A. picked B. booked C. worked D. naked
stress
Question 3. A. situation B. appropriate C. entertainment D. informality
Question 4. A. experience B. economics C. cosmetics D. fertility
Mark the letter to indicate the word(s) SIMILAR in meaning to the italicized word(s) in each
Question 5. John wants to buy a new car, so he starts setting aside a small part of his monthly
earnings.
A. using up B. putting out C. spending on D. saving up
Question 6. When I mentioned the party, he was all ears.
A. using both ears B. listening attentively C. partially deaf D. listening
neglectfully
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the italicized word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 7. A trial must be fair and impartial. A. apprehensive B. unprejudiced
C. hostile D. biased
Question 8. After her husband's tragic accident, she took up his position at the university.
A. incredible B. comic C. mysterious D. boring
Question 9. They held a party to congratulate their son________ his success to become an engineer.
A. for B. with C. in D. on
Question 10. The preparations________ by the time the guests________ .
A. have been finished / arrived B. had finished / arrived C. have finished / arrived D. had
been finished / arrived
Question 11. As an________, Mr. Pike is very worried about the increasing of teenager crimes.
A. educator B. educational C. education D. educate
Question 12. Someone who is________ is hopeful about the future or the success of something in
particular.
A. optimist B. pessimistic C. pessimist D. optimistic
Question 13. ________ turned out to be true. A. Everything she had told us which
B. That everything she told us C. Everything she had told us D. Everything where
she had told us
Question 14. He was offered the job thanks to his________ performance during his job interview.
A. impressively B. impressive C. impress D. impression
Question 15. They had invited over one hundred guests, ________.
A. I knew none of who B. I did not know any of whom C. not any of whom I knew D. none
of whom I knew
Question 16. You'd better get someone________ your living room.
A. redecorated B. to redecorate C. redecorating. D.
redecorate
Question 17. Not only________ to determine the depth of the ocean floor, but it is also used to locate
oil.
A. seismology is used B. to use seismology C. using seismology D. is seismology used
Question 18. Can you take________ of the shop while Mr. Green is away?
A. charge B. Management C. running D. operation
Question 19. Please________ and see us when you have time. You are always welcome.
A. come round B. come away C. come to D. come in
Question 20. They always kept on good________ with their next-door neighbors for the children's
sake.
A. will B. terms C. relations D. relationship
questions.
It is commonly believed that school is where people go to get an education. Nevertheless, it
has been said that today children interrupt their education to go to school. The difference
between schooling and education implied by this remark is important.
Education is much more open-ended and all-inclusive than schooling. Education knows no
limits. It can take place anywhere, whether in the shower or on the job, whether in the kitchen or on
a tractor. It includes both the formal learning that takes place in school and the whole universe of
informal learning. The agent (doer) of education can vary from respected grandparents to the
people arguing about politics on the radio, from a child to a famous scientist. Whereas schooling has
a certain predictability, education quite often produces surprises. A chance conversation with a
stranger may lead a person to discover how little is known of other religions. People receive
education from infancy on. Education, then, is a very broad, inclusive term; it is a lifelong process, a
process that starts long before the start of school, and one that should be a necessary part of one's
entire life.
Schooling, on the other hand, is a specific, formalized process, whose general pattern varies
little from one setting to the next. Throughout a country, children arrive at school at about the same
time, take the assigned seats, are taught by an adult, use similar textbooks, do homework, take
exams, and so on. The pieces of reality that are to be learned, whether they are the alphabet or an
understanding of the workings of governments, have been limited by the subjects being taught. For
example, high school students know that they are not likely to find out in their classes the truth
about political problems in their society or what the newest filmmakers are experimenting with.
There are clear and undoubted conditions surrounding the formalized process of schooling.
Question 21. Which of the following would the writer support?
A. Without formal education, people won't be able to read and write.
B. Our education system needs to be changed as soon as possible.
C. Going to school is only part of how people become educated.
D. Schooling is of no use because students do similar things every day.
Question 22. In the passage, the expression "children interrupt their education to go to school"
mostly implies that_____. A. schooling prevents people discovering things B. all of life is
an education
C. education is totally ruined by schooling D. schooling takes place everywhere
Question 23. What does the writer mean by saying "education quite often produces surprises"?
A. It's surprising that we know little about other religions. B. Informal learning often brings
about unexpected results.
C. Educators often produce surprises. D. Success of informal learning is predictable.
Question 24. The word "they" in the last paragraph refers to___________.
A. workings of governments B. newest filmmakers C. high school students D.
political problems
Question 25. According to the passage, the doers of education are___________.
A. mostly famous scientists B. mainly politicians C. almost all people D. only respected
grandparents
Question 26. This passage is mainly aimed at_______. A. listing and discussing several educational
problems
B. giving examples of different schools D. telling a story about excellent teachers
C. telling the difference between the meanings of two related words "schooling" and
"education"
Question 27. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage?
A. The more years students go to school, the better their education is. B. The best schools teach a
variety of subjects.
C. Education and schooling are quite different experience.
D. Students benefit from schools, which require long hours and homework.
Question 28. The word "all-inclusive" in the passage mostly means_____. A. involving many school
subjects
B. allowing no exceptions C. including everything or everyone D. going in many
directions
best fits each blanks.
As a small-business owner, you can avoid many problems simply by improving
communication in your office. By clarifying everyone's expectations and roles, you'll help to
(29)_________ greater trust and increased productivity among employees. Here are a few tips for
doing so.
Practice active listening. The art of active listening includes (30)_________ close attention to
what another person is saying, then paraphrasing what you've heard and repeating it back.
Concentrate (31)_________ the conversation at hand and avoid unwanted interruptions (cell
phone calls, others walking into your office, etc.). Take note of how your own experience and
values may color your perception.
Pay attention to non-verbal cues. We don't communicate with words alone. Every
conversation comes with a host of non-verbal cues - facial expressions, body language, etc. -
that may (32)_________ contradict what we're saying. Before addressing a staff member or
(33)_________ a project conference, think carefully about your tone of voice, how you make eye
contact, and what your body is "saying." Be consistent throughout.
Be clear and to the point. Don't cloud instructions or requests with irrelevant details, such as
problems with past projects or issues with long-departed personnel. State what you need and what
you expect. Ask, "Does anyone have any questions?" Demonstrate that you prefer questions up-
front as opposed to misinterpretation later on.
Question 29. A. establish B. build C. create D. set up
Question 30. A. paying B. using C. showing D. spending
Question 31. A. on B. for C. in D. to
Question 32. A. unintentional B. unintentionally C. intentional D. intentionally
Question 33. A. leading B. being led C. to lead D. lead
questions.
During the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries, almost nothing was written about the
contributions of women during the colonial period and the early history of the newly formed United
States. Lacking the right to vote and absent from the seats of power, women were not considered an
important force in history. Anne Bradstreet wrote some significant poetry in the seventeenth
century, Mercy Otis Warren produced the best contemporary history of the American Revolution,
and Abigail Adams penned important letters showing she exercised great political influence over
her husband, John, the second President of the United States. But little or no notice was taken of
these contributions. During these centuries, women remained invisible in history books.
Throughout the nineteenth century, this lack of visibility continued, despite the efforts of
female authors writing about women. These writers, like most of their male counterparts, were
amateur historians. Their writings were celebratory in nature, and they were uncritical in their
selection and use of sources.
During the nineteenth century, however, certain feminists showed a keen sense of history
by keeping records of activities in which women were engaged. National, regional, and local
women's organizations compiled accounts of their doings. Personal correspondence, newspaper
clippings, and souvenirs were saved and stored. These sources from the core of the two greatest
collections of women's history in the United States one at the Elizabeth and Arthur Schlesinger
Library at Radcliffe College, and the other the Sophia Smith Collection at Smith College. Such
sources have provided valuable materials for later Generations of historians.
Despite the gathering of more information about ordinary women during the nineteenth
Century, most of the writing about women conformed to the "great women" theory of History, just
as much of main stream American history concentrated on" great men." To demonstrate that
women were making significant contributions to American life, female authors singled out women
leaders and wrote biographies, or else important women produced their autobiographies. Most of
these leaders were involved in public life as reformers, activists working for women's right to vote,
or authors, and were not representative at all of the great of ordinary woman. The lives of ordinary
people continued, generally, to be untold in the American histories being published.
Question 34. The word "representative" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to___________.
A. distinctive B. supportive C. typical D. satisfied
Question 35. What use was made of the nineteenth-century women's history materials in the
Schlesinger Library and the Sophia Smith Collection? A. They provided valuable information for
twentieth- century historical researchers.
B. They were shared among women's colleges throughout the United States.
C. They were combined and published in a multivolume encyclopedia.
D. They formed the basis of college courses in the nineteenth century.
nd
Question 36. The word "they" in the 2 paragraph refers to____. A. authors B. Efforts C.
counterpartsD. sources
Question 37. In the last paragraph, the author mentions all of the following as possible roles of
nineteenth- century "great women" EXCEPT____. A. politicians B. reformers C.
activists for women's rights D. authors
Question 38. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The role of literature in early American histories B. The place of American women in written
histories
C. The keen sense of history shown by American women D. The "great women" approach to history used by
American historians
Question 39. In the first paragraph, Bradstreet, Warren, and Adams are mentioned to show that ___
.
A. even the contributions of outstanding women were ignored B. a woman's status was
changed by marriage
C. poetry produced by women was more readily accepted than other writing by women
D. only three women were able to get their writing published
nd
Question 40. In the 2 paragraph, what weakness in nineteenth-century histories does the author
point out?
A. They put too much emphasis on daily activities. B. They were printed on poor-quality paper.
C. They left out discussion of the influence of money on politics.
D. The sources of the information they were based on were not necessarily accurate.
questions.
Question 41. The wooden fence surrounded the factory is beginning to fall down because of the
rain.
Question 42. The amounts of oxygen and nitrogen in the air almost always remain stable, but the
amount of water vapor vary considerably. A. almost always B. vary C. stable
D. The amount of
Question 43. Quinine, cinnamon, and other useful substances are all derived of the bark of trees.
questions.
Question 44. "Why can't you do your work more carefully?" said Henry's boss.
A. Henry's boss suggested doing the job more carefully. B. Henry's boss asked him not to do his job
with care.
C. Henry's boss warned him to to the job carefully. D. Henry's boss criticized him for doing his
job carelessly.
Question 45. I would rather you wore something more formal to work.
A. I'd prefer you should wear something more formal to work. B. I'd prefer you wearing something more
formal to work.
C. I'd prefer you wear something more formal to work. D. I'd prefer you to wear something more
formal to work.
Question 46. Had we left any later, we would have missed the train.
A. We left too late to catch the train. B. We didn't miss the train because it left late.
C. We almost missed the train. D. Because the train was late, we missed it.
Mark the letter to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following
exchanges.
Question 47. – Tom: "What a great haircut, Lucy!" - Lucy: " _ ___" A. Thanks. It's very kind of
you to do this B. Oh, yes. That's right. C. Thank you. That's a nice compliment. D. It's my
pleasure.
Question 48. Hans: "A motorbike knocked Ted down" - Mike: " "
A. Poor him! B. How terrific! C. What is it now? D. What a
motorbike!
Question 49. He felt tired. However, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
A. He felt so tired that he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
B. Feeling very tired, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
C. Tired as he might feel, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain
D. As a result of his tiredness, he was determined to continue to climb up the mountain.
Question 50. The agreement ended six-month negotiation. It was signed yesterday.
A. The agreement which was signed yesterday ended six-month negotiation.
B. The negotiation which lasted six months was signed yesterday.
C. The agreement which was signed yesterday lasted six months.
D. The agreement which ends six-month negotiation was signed yesterday.
__________THE END________
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 01: A. uniform B. university C. student D. customer
Question 02: A. device B. came C. computers D. economy
MarktheletterA,B,C,orDonyouranswersheettoindicatethewordthatdiffersfromtheother
threeinthepositionofprimarystressineachofthefollowingquestions.
Question 03: A. explain B. involve C. purpose D. control
Question 04: A. dictation B. communicate C. occasion D. reservation
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correction in each of the following questions.
Question 05 : The world is becoming more industrialized and the number of animal species that
havebecome extincthave increased.
A. industrializedB. species C. extinct D.have
Question 06:They asked me what did happen last night, but I was unable to tell them.
A. asked B. what did happen C. but D. to tell
Question 07: It has been saidthat laser to be the most miraculous to cure the disease.
A. has been said B. that C. to be D. to cure
Question 08: In Vietnam, application forms for the National Entrance Examinations must be_________
before the deadline, often in April.
A. issued B. signed C. filed D. submitted
Question 09: It’s hard to believe that this film_________ completely by computer.
A. was generating B. has generated C. has been generated D. was to
generate
Question 10: There_________ mutual understanding between friends.
A. must be B. must to be C. are D. must have
been
Question 11: Peter is so_________ that he never thinks of anything bad and unsuccessful.
A. optimistic B. disappointed C. pessimistic D. keen
Question 12: An economic_________ is a time when there is very little economic activity, which causes
a lot of unemployment and poverty.
A. improvement B. depression C. development D. mission
Question 13: On Sundays, many people take their cars to service stations_________.
A. to get the oil refilled B. to get the oil refill C. to refill the oil D. to make the oil
refilled
Question 14: She had to hand in her notice_________ advance when she decided to leave the job.
A. in B. from C. with D. to
Question 15: The man_________ is very friendly.
A. ,who lives next door B. who live next door C. lives next door D. that lives next door
Question 16: I_________ eagerly to go to Yellowstone, but my brother got sick three days before the
departure.
A. have been planning B. had been planning C. have planned D. was planned
Question 17: If we_________ earlier in the morning, we_________ at the village now.
A. departed/ would have arrived B. had departed/ would arrive
C. departed/ would arrived D. had departed/ would have arrived
Question 18: His research has not been able to be__________because of a financial difficulty.
A. set up B. put off C. turned on D. carried out
Question 19: We’d better not_________ any more staff until sales increase.
A. take up B. take on C. lay off D. lay up
Question 20: If you turn a________ ear, you know people might be doing something wrong, but you
ignore it.
A. dumb B. blind C. hollow D. solid
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to
complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 21: - Tim: “Do you think you will get the job?” - Peter: “______________“.
A. I know so B. Well, I hope so C. I think not D. Yes, that’s right
Question 22: - Duy: “How nice ! You performed so beautifully!” - Huong: “______________“.
A. Thank you. I am happy you like me. B. Thank you. But I don’t think I did well.
C. Thank you. But I am not so sure. D. Thank you. It’s very encouraging.
MarktheletterA,B,C,orDonyouranswersheettoindicatetheword(s)CLOSESTinmeaningto
theunderlinedword(s)ineachofthefollowingquestions.
Question 23: In about one-third of all cases of hepatitis, it is unknown how the patient
contracted the virus.
A. became smaller with B. spread
C. got rid of D. became infected with
Question 24: Setting off on an expedition without thorough preparation and with inadequate
equipment is tempting fate.
A. taking a risk B. losing heart C. having panic D. going round in circles
MarktheletterA,B,C,orDonyouranswersheettoindicatetheword(s)OPPOSITEinmeaningto
theunderlinedword(s)ineachofthefollowingquestions.
Question 25: Love is supposed to follow marriage, not precede it.
A. come after B. take out C. happen D. find out
Question 26: The length of an X-ray wave is incredibly small: less than one ten-millionth of a
millimeter.
A. believably B. considerably C. famously D. sufficiently
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
Question 27. Linda seems to have very little record for other people’s feelings.
A. Linda has very few feelings like other people’s.
B. Linda appears unconcerned about other people’s feelings.
C. Linda has difficulty expressing her feelings for other people.
D. Linda doesn’t respect people who feel sorry for themselves.
Question 28. “I’m sorry I didn’t tell you about my trip earlier,” Lan said.
A. Lan apologized me for not to tell about her trip earlier.
B. Lan apologized for not telling her about my trip earlier.
C. Lan apologized for telling me about her late trip.
D. Lan apologized for not telling me about her trip earlier
Question 29. It was such strong coffee that he couldn’t drink it.
A. The coffee was too strong for him to drink.
B. He couldn’t drink the coffee although the coffee was so strong.
C. He couldn’t drink too strong coffee before.
D. The strong coffee made him able to drink it.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines
each pair of sentences in the following questions.
Question 30. He is a successful man in his career. He possesses a large number of shares of the
company.
A. He becomes successful in his career by possessing a large number of shares of the
company.
B.Given the large number of shares of the company he possesses, he is successful in
his career.
C. Successful as he is in his career, shares of the company he possesses are modest.
D. Given a large number of shares by the company he works for, he is successful in his
career.
Question 31. We planned to visit Petronas Building in the afternoon. We could not afford the fee,
however.
A. As planned, we could not afford the visit to Petronas Building in the afternoon because of
the fee.
B. We visited Petronas Building in the afternoon though the fee was too high for us.
C. We were going to visit Petronas Building in the afternoon, but the fee was too high
for us.
D. The fee was, however, high enough for us to plan a visit to Petronas in the afternoon.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Education and Employment
All men should study, we have to study to (32)_________ our knowledge and develop our
intelligence. An uneducated man can only utilize his (33)_________ strength to workand live.
An educated man, without this strength, still has the faculty of his intelligent brain and good
reflection. This intelligence and thought enable him to help his physical strength to act more quickly
and cleverly.
In a same profession or work, the educated man differs from the uneducated considerably.
Therefore, intellectual workers have to study, this is a matter of course but (34)_________ workers
must also (35)_________ an education.
In civilized countries compulsory education has been applied. Man must spend seven or
eight years studying. From ploughmen to labourers in these nations, no one is (36)_________ to read a
book or a paper fluently.
Question 32. A. expand B. stretch C. enlarge D. widen
Question 33. A. body B. power C. labour D. brain
Question 34. A. simple B. easy C. hard D. manual
Question 35. A. learn B. study C. acquire D. know
Question 36. A. able B. unable C. not D. never
Read the following passage, and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions.
CAN YOU PROVE WHO YOU ARE?
Today, we frequently read newspaper stories of unqualified people who are convicted of
posing as surgeons, dentists, airline pilots or financial experts. These people are sometimes
portrayed as amiable crooks, but in reality, they are not amiable; they are fraudsters who prey on
people's good nature. Fraudsters can do more than just trick you or steal your cash; they can steal
your identity, too.
Some years ago, Derek Bond, a seventy two-year-old retired civil servant, found out for
himself how dreadful modern fraud can be. As he stepped off a plane at Cape Town airport, he was
arrested and put in prison. It was worrying enough that he could have been mistaken for a 'most
wanted' criminal, but what made matters worse was that, despite having an impeccable reputation
in his hometown, it took three weeks for Mr. Bond's family to convince the authorities that they had
made a mistake. Away from people who knew him, Mr. Bond's reputation was based solely on the
contents of a police file. If that file said that Mr. Derek Bond, a man of medium height and build, was
actually Derek Lloyd Sykes, a conman responsible for a multi-million dollar fraud in Texas, then
who could prove that it wasn't true?
Mr. Bond was the victim of identity theft, where a thief assumes another person's identity
and uses it to steal directly from that person or to commit crimes using that person's name. In the
world of organized crime, for those involved illegal immigration or benefit fraud, as in drug-
trafficking, money laundering fake ID is a license to print money. Even more worrying is the fact
that there is now a ready market for stolen identities among the world's terrorists. More and more
people are shopping and banking online or by phone these days, so the opportunities for the
fraudulent use of credit cards or other personal information are increasing rapidly. In fact, it is true
to say that identity theft is booming, and for those affected by it, the consequences are often
catastrophic.
Under existing financial regulations, banks and credit organizations are required to 'know
their customers' before they are allowed to open an account. This means that they have to request
specific proofs of identity before they allow them to start spending] usually proof of name and
address and a photo ID such as a passport or a driver's license.
This sounds satisfactory, but in reality it is far from foolproof. The problem is that stealing
someone's identity is not rocket science. In theory, all an unscrupulous thief needs to start using a
person's name is a few snippets of information, such as a discarded phone bill or a credit card
receipt.
It has been claimed that 'bin diving' is a common way for thieves to get information. In an
extensive survey, a credit checking agency examined the contents of 400 rubbish bins. They found
that one in five of these contained enough sensitive information to commit identity fraud. Every
time people buy or sell goods, individuals are providing information about themselves on paper.
Receipts, invoices and bills all contain personal information that is useful to a fraudster. But
identity thieves don't even need to get their hands dirty. How often do people hand over their credit
or debit cards in shops? How many people buy something over the phone or shop online?
All it takes is one dishonest employee and people can say goodbye to their hard-earned
cash. Today, sophisticated criminals also use computer software packages to hack into the systems
of banks and other organizations to steal lists of their customers' identities, lists which can
sometimes run to millions of individuals. [Sourse: First Masterclass 2015 Student’s
Book]
Question 37: The writer says that real-life fraudsters_________.
A. are criminals who cheat other people B. live a glamorous lifestyle
C. are not as bad as they seem D. are not qualified to do ordinary jobs
Question 38: People should be particularly careful about using credit or debit cards because_________.
A. corrupt staff may pass on their details to criminals
B. criminals may find a way of stealing them
C. online systems may not be secure
D. criminals may listen to people giving their details on the phone
Question 39: Criminals commonly collect information about individuals by_________.
A. reading their telephone bills B. stealing their credit cards
C. going through things people have thrown away.D. contacting a credit checking agency
Question 40: Describing something as 'not rocket science' in the passage means that it is_________.
A. very difficultB. incomprehensible C. straightforward D. complicated
Question 41: In Cape Town, it was difficult fo r Derek Bond to establish his innocence
because_________.
A. his correct details were in a police file B. nobody knew him personally
there
C. there was proof that he was a criminal D. he had a bad reputation there
Question 42: The main purpose of this article is to_________.
A. tell the story of Derek Bond B. describe the dangers of identity theft
C. advise readers how to avoid having their identity stolen
D. explain howto steal someone's identity
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the questions.
Moving Your Mind for Maximum Fitness
When people design a new workout programme, they often target their chest, stomach, and
leg muscles, hoping to sculpt the perfect physique. However, they often neglect the most important
part of the body: the brain. Our brains grow stronger when we exercise them and weaker when
neglected. To assist in keeping our minds sharp, several websites and apps offer brain games to
help us get our mental workouts accomplished in a very short time.
As we age, our vocabulary continues to expand and we become better at creative plans.
However, by the time we enter our 20s, our prefrontal cortex starts to shrink. Although part of the
reason for our decline is physical, there is evidence that targeted exercises can halt or even reserve
cognitive damage. Throughout our lives we maintain the ability to create new neurons whenever
we learn something new, like a foreign language or a new sport. By repeating these activities we
create new pathways and connections between neurons that keep our minds functioning at an
optimallevel. This is what brain fitness exercises aim to accomplish.
These digital exercises are broken into different categories. The first is memory exercises.
These programmes display information to users and then quiz us to see how much we can recall.
The second type is attention exercises. These games get users to focus on multiple tasks at once,
dividing their attention. Although trying to concentrate on several things at once during work is not
recommended, doing itin a game environment can help to strengthen our focus in the long term.
Speed exercises, on the other hand, are designed to keep our minds agile. In addition to these major
categories, there are other games that focus on specific situations like remembering names and
faces, or calculating directions.
Although many users rave about positive effects of these games, there are other hacks we
can use to strengthen our brains. One is napping. Studies have shown that people who nap in the
afternoon fared much better at mental tasks than those who didn’t. A little caffeine can also make
your mind sharper, as long asyou don’t overdo it. Finally, getting some physical exercise also tends
to improve the clarity of our thinking. In other words, maybe the Roman poet Juvenal was on to
something when he wrote “A sound mind in a healthy body”.
Question 43. What happens when we don’t exercise our brains?
A. It doesn’t work well. B. It grows much bigger in size.
C. It causes lots of health problems. D. It keeps functioning well.
Question 44. What function of our brain improves as we get older?
A. We can remember more things. B. We are better at making plans.
C. We think much quicker. D. Nothing improves at all.
Question 45. All of the following are true about our brains EXCEPT that________.
A. there are several web sites and apps to help us get our mental workout
B. the number of neurons remains the same throughout our lives
C. our brains become stronger when we are more mentally active
D. connections and pathways between neurons play an important role in the functions of
our brains
Question 46. What could replace the word “optimal” in paragraph 2?
A. excellent B. unacceptable C. debatable D. decent
Question 47. What is the meaning of the word “it” in paragraph 3?
A. Doing memory exercises B. Keeping your mind empty
C. Concentrating on many things D. focusing on one thing
Question 48. Which of the following statements is NOT true about our brains and brain games?
A. We should concentrate on several things at once during our lives to strengthen our
focus.
B. These brain games don’t take us much time to carry out.
C. The brain games can help us improve our memory and keep our minds active.
D. There are some brain games for specific purposes.
Question 49. What can be inferred from the passage?
A. There are some brain games to treat mental diseases.
B. Our brains will work very well during a nap.
C. We don’t need brain games when we are playing a new sport.
D. There is a close relationship between physical and mental health.
Question 50. According to the passage, which of the following statements about coffee is true?
A. It is not very good for your brain. B. You should drink as much of it as possible.
C. A few cups of it could help your brain. D. Its effect on the brain were never tested.
_________THE END_________

pronunciation
Question 1: A. overlooks B. beliefs C. towards D. rights
Question 2: A. apathy B. lethal C. wreath D. brethren
Mark the letter to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress
Question 3: A. thermometer B. ignominious C. popularity D. paralytic
Question 4: A. atmosphere B. indelible C. versatile D. skyscraper
Mark the letter to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the ITALIC word(s) in each of the
Question 5: I wanted to prove to my family that I could make something of myself.
A. get through the difficult times by myself B. make up my mind without any help
C. become successful through my own efforts D. put my back into studying
Question 6: The students have to sift through all the journals in the library to find the information their
professor want them to find.
A. sort and select from B. immaculately tidy up
C. read carefully D. go over
Mark the letter to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the ITALIC word(s) in each of the
Question 7: In just four short years, his company has made phenomenal progress in delivering great
market success.
A. impeccable B. unremarkable C. impressive D. inadequate
Question 8: Because we know nothing, in this view, we should treat all things with indifference and
make no judgments.
A. reconciling ourself to something B. becoming annoyed very easily
C. feeling totally different from other people D. showing interest in something
Mark the letter to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions.
Question 9: According to classical musical tradition, the term “sonata” is given to those works are written
for solo piano or for a solo wind or stringed instrument.
A. classical musical B. works are C. a D. stringed instrument
Question 10: Although assemblage has been a part of art for centuries, its appearance in the West as a
serious art form is quite fairly recent.
A. has been B. a part of C. its appearance D. quite fairly
Question 11: If she can’t keep up payments she risks to lose her home, as thousands of families have
done. A. keep up B. to lose C. as thousands D. have done
Question 12: The number of people traveling by air has been growing_________.
A. by leaps and bounds B. from time to time C. slow but sure D. by hook or by crook
Question 13: Salt is manufactured in quantities that exceed those of most, ________, other commercial
chemicals.
A. of not all B. not if at all C. are not all D. if not all
Question 14: The boss told the workers that he would try his best to continue running the company and
promised not to_________ any employees during the economic recession.
A. cross out B. shut down C. lay off D. take over
Question 15: The accident is said _______ the driver’s careless driving and the thick fog.
A. to have been resulted in B. to result from
C. having resulted in D. to have resulted from
Question 16: I can’t do whatever I want because I am still financially_________ on my parents.
A. determined B. dependable C. reliant D. subject
Question 17: This book was so interesting that I could hardly_________ it.
A. get rid of B. keep myself away from
C. tear myself away from D. break away from
Question 18: The harder you study, the more questions you will think of _________ .
A. asking B. to ask C. being asked D. to be asked
Question 19: The previous negotiations did not go anywhere, and we intend to start them again next
week with a____ slate.
A. new B. plain C. clean D. fresh
Question 20: Many young people in the West are expected to leave_________ could be life’s most
important decision - marriage - almost entirely up to luck.
A. what B. that C. which D. who
Question 21: _____ to caring for the poor, Mother Teresa is greatly respected throughout the world.
A. Devoting B. Being devoted C. Having devoted D. Devoted
Q22: Since drinking water is a____ resource, we should let children know how precious it is, and teach
them to conserve it.
A. limitless B. limited C. limiting D. limitation
Question 23: When disaster________, organisations such as Oxfarm quickly provide help.
A. comes B. approaches C. arrives D. strikes
Mark the letter to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges.
Question 24: Peter: “My mother’s much better now.” – Kyle: “______________”.
A. Oh, I’m pleased to hear it B. Wonderful! Congratulation
C. Oh, really? The doctor must be very good D. Good news for you
Question 25: Tom: “Can I bring a friend to your party?” – Mary: “________________”.
A. The more the merrier B. That’s right
C. Beggars can’t be choosers D. Straight away
One of the most difficult questions to answer is how much a job is worth. We naturally expect
that a doctor’s salary will be higher than a bus conductor’s wage. But the question becomes much more
difficult to answer when we compare, say, a miner with an engineer, or an unskilled man working on an
oil-rig in the North Sea with a teacher in a secondary school. What the doctor, the engineer and teacher
have is many years of training in order to obtain the necessary qualifications for their professions. We feel
instinctively that these skills and these years, when they were studying instead of earning money, should
be rewarded. At the same time we recognize that the work of the miner and the oil-rig laborer is both hard
and dangerous, and that they must be highly paid for the risks they take.
Another factor we must take into consideration is how socially useful a man’s work is, regardless
of the talents he may bring to it. Most people would agree that looking after the sick or teaching children
is more important than, say, selling secondhand cars or improving the taste of toothpaste by adding a red
stripe to it. Yet it is almost certain that the used car salesman earns more than the nurse, and that research
chemist earns more than the school teacher.
Indeed, this whole question of just rewards can be turned on its head. You can argue that a man
who does a job which brings him personal satisfaction is already receiving part of his reward in the form
of a so-called “psychic wage”, and that it is the man with the boring, repetitive job who needs more
money to make up for the soul-destroying monotony of his work. It is significant that that those jobs
which are traditionally regarded as “vocations” - nursing, teaching and the Church, for example - continue
to be poorly paid, while others, such as those in the world of sport or entertainment, carry financial
rewards out of all proportion to their social worth.
Although the amount of money that people earn is in reality largely determined by market forces,
this should not prevent us from seeking some way to decide what is the right pay for the job. A starting
point for such an investigation would be to try to decide the ratio which ought to exist between the highest
and the lowest paid. The picture is made more complicate by two factors: firstly by the “social wage”, i.e,
the welfare benefits which every citizen receives; and secondly, by the taxation system, which is often
used as an instrument of social justice by taxing high incomes at a very high rate indeed. Allowing for
these two things, most countries now regard a ratio of 7:1 as socially acceptable. If it is less, the highly-
qualified people carrying heavy responsibilities become disillusioned, and might even end up by
emigration (the so-called “brain-drain” is an evidence that this can happen). If it is more, the gap
between rich and poor will be so great that it will lead social tensions and ultimately to violence.
(Adapted from: How much is job worth?)
Question 26: According to the passage, the professional man, such as the doctor, should be well paid
because__________.
A. he has spent several years learning how to do his job
B. he knows more than other people about his subject
C. he has to work much harder than most other people
D. his work involves much great intelligence than, say, a bus conductor’s
Question 27: As far as rewarding people for their work is concerned, the writer, believes that ______.
A. we should pay for socially-useful work, regardless of the person’s talent
B. we should pay people according to their talents
C. qualified people should be the highest paid
D. market forces will determine how much a person is paid
Question 28: The argument of the “psychic wage” is used to explain why__________.
A. people who do socially important work are not always well paid
B. people who do monotonous jobs are highly paid
C. you should not try to compare the pay of different professions
D. some professional people are paid more than others
Question 29: In Paragraph 2 and 3, the author indicates that__________.
A. the talented should do more important work
B. unskilled jobs have less social responsibility
C. those with more socially useful jobs earn less
D. people want to pay more to important services
Question 30: It can be inferred from the passage that a man who does a boring, repetitive job ______.
A. receives less money than he deserves
B. should receive more money as a compensation for the drudgery of his work
C. can only expect more money if his job is a highly-skilled one
D. has no interest in his work apart from the money he receives for doing it
Question 31: The word “disillusioned” in the passage is closest in meaning to__________.
A. disagreeable B. disenchanted C. discreditable D. dishonest
Question 32: The author mentions “brain-drain” as an evidence to show that__________.
A. well-educated people are prepared to emigrate whenever they can get a better paid job
B. people with jobs or responsibility expect to be highly paid
C. high taxation is a useful and effective instrument of social justice
D. the poor are generally more patriotic than the rich
Question 33: Which of the following statements would the author agree?
A. It’s difficult to define the social value of a job.
B. The market will decide what the right pay is for a job.
C. People should find a proper ratio between high and low pay.
D. Those receiving high salary should carry heavy responsibilities.
Read the following passage and mark the letter to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each
of the blanks.
The growth of population has its problems as we shall see. As there are more and more mouths
(34)______, there comes a great strain (35)_______ the resources of a country; this is real in the case of
developing countries with the result they are unable to push ahead economically. As food is not sufficient
there is chronic malnutrition in these countries especially in women and children resulting in weaker
population (36)_______ would only economically be a drain on the country as their productive years will
be short. As health and education are the State's (37)_______, they affect the country's finances. So in
developing countries health and illiteracy continue to be the problem. The unwieldy growth of population
leads to the problem of housing and sanitation. In many countries the slums are a (38)_______ to the
eyes. Slums grow round big cities and are found with all the drawbacks. These are the areas of disease,
filth and crime
Question 34: A. to be fed B. to feed C. for feeding D. fed
Question 35: A. to B. for C. down D. on
Question 36: A. which B. what C. who D. those
Question 37: A. problem B. job C. affair D. work
Question 38: A. pain B. sore C. hurt D. wound
[1]
Widespread evidence links global warming to a series of environmental effects.
[2]
Starving polar bears are eating one another in the Arctic. Flowers are blooming too soon and die. The
ice caps are melting so fast that rising water levels will threaten coastal towns along Florida within
several decades. These are just a few examples of the terrible consequences of climate change discovered
by a new research in Nature that paints a dark portrait of what a warming world will look like in the years
to come.
[3]
The researchers analyzed 829 abnormal phenomena - including melting glaciers - along with nearly
30,000 changes in plants and animals and found that about 90% of them are in sync with scientists’
predictions about how global warming will change the planet.
[4]
“In the past three decades, average global temperatures have risen about 0.6 0C and are projected to
jump by about 1.70C by the end of the century,” says Cynthia Rosenzweig, who leads the Climate Impacts
Group at NASA's Goddard Institute for Space Studies at Columbia University in New York. “We’ve
already seen that a relatively low amount of warming,” she says, “can result in a broad range of changes.”
[5]
The unnatural warming caused by man-made greenhouse gases, especially carbon dioxide produced by
cars and coal-powered plants, brings trouble for entire ecosystems. In North America alone, scientists
have identified 89 species of plants, such as the American holly, which have flowered earlier in the
spring. In Spain, apple trees bloom 35 days ahead of schedule in response to the higher temperatures.
Other wildlife, like the insects that use certain plants for food and the birds that feed on the insects, must
then move forward their seasonal stirrings and mating patterns to survive.
[6]
To try to follow this time shift, some birds such as robins, the classic symbol of winter’s thaw, are
returning to Colorado from their migrations some two weeks earlier than in years past. All these changes
can throw a food chain in disorder. Some bird species that arrive before the insects reappear may starve to
death.
[7]
“Around the world, plants and animals are waking up to an earlier alarm clock than they used to,” says
Terry Root, a biologist from Stanford University.
Question 39: The author describes some unnatural phenomena in paragraph 2 to__________.
A. show a picture of the present world
B. present the results of a recent research
C. indicate the earth is now in great danger
D. call readers’ attention to the new research
Question 40: The analysis of abnormal phenomena on earth shows that__________.
A. scientists made wrong predictions about the future of earth
B. most changes agree with scientists’ previous predictions
C. melting glaciers have caused the worst side effects
D. global warming has changed all the plants and animals
Question 41: The word “projected” in the passage is closest in meaning to__________.
A. forced B. presented C. indicated D. predicted
Question 42: Why must some birds move about earlier than usual?
A. Because they need to follow some insects for food.
B. Because certain trees bloom a month ahead of time.
C. Because the warm weather wakes them up earlier.
D. Because the plants they use to hunt food bloom late.
Question 43: According to the fifth paragraph, as a result of climate change__________.
A. the warm weather wakes animals up earlier B. certain trees bloom a season ahead of time
C. the birds need to change patterns of living D. the American holly will flower in late spring
Question 44: What do we know about robins?
A. Farmers depend on them to tell the time B. They used to come back when spring came
C. They used to predict the change of weather D. They usually migrate when seasons change
Question 45: Which of the following would be the best title for the text?
A. Man Is to Blame for Global Warming B. Humans Are Causing the World to Heat Up
C. The Terrible Consequences of Climate Change D. Global Warming Is Changing Nature’s Clock
Mark the letter to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions.
Question 46: Due to the fact that the demand for tea was very high in the 19th century, its price was
astronomical.
A. It was not until the 19th century that the demand for tea started to increase.
B. It was its astronomical price which decreased the demand for tea in the 19th century.
C. In the 19th century the price for tea didn’t increase despite the demand.
D. The demand for tea was so high in the 19th century that its price was enormous.
Question 47: “You should have finished the report by now”, John told his secretary.
A. John reproached his secretary for not having finished the report.
B. John said that his secretary had not finished the report.
C. John reminded his secretary of finishing the report on time.
D. John scolded his secretary for not having finished the report.
Question 48: He is an authority on primitive religion.
A. He is famous for his vast knowledge of primitive religion.
B. He has authority over the people who practise primitive religion.
C. He has a great influence on the people who practise primitive religion.
D. He has official permission to practice primitive religion.
Mark the letter to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following
questions.
Question 49: Her living conditions were not good. However, she studied very well.
A. Living in difficult conditions forced she to study very well.
B. She studied very well just because she lived in difficult conditions.
C. Difficult as her living conditions were, she studied very well.
D. Living in difficult conditions, she had no choice but to study well.
Question 50: His wife phoned him early in the morning. She didn’t want him to forget to bring along the
document.
A. His wife phoned him early in the morning lest he would forget to bring along the document.
B. His wife phoned him early in the morning so that she wanted him to bring along the document.
C. His wife phoned him early in the morning when she didn’t want him to bring along the document.
D. His wife phoned him early in the morning though she didn’t want him to forget to bring along
the document.
_________THE END_________
Question 1: A. village B. luggage C. engage D. damage
Question 2: A. swallowed B. practiced C. finished D. punched

in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. equal B. campus C.danger perform
Question 4: A.atmosphere B. information C. understanding D.

entertainment
Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet t o indicate the correct answer to each of the
Question 5: She gave me a ____________ box.
A. jewelry metal small square B. jewelry small metal square
C. small square jewelry metal D. small square metal jewelry
Question 6: Kong: Skull Island , a 2017 American monster film ________ by Jordan Vogt-Roberts,
was a critical and commercial success grossing over $559 million worldwide against its $185 million
budget and making it the fourth highest-grossing film of 2017.
A. made B. directed C. produced D. acted
Question 7: In the 22nd SEA Games, many ______ close to international levels were set.
A. marks B. digits C. grades D. records
Question 8: Tom doesn’t know much about computing ________ his brother is an expert at it.
A. whereas B. in contrast C. however D. therefore

Question 9: She was ____________she could not say anything.
A. so surprised of the news that B. such surprised at the news that
C. so surprised at the news that D. so that surprised for the news
Question 10: We should participate in the movement _______ to conserve the natural environment.
A. to organize B. which organized C. organizing D. organized
Question 11: Mountain gorillas are an endangered species ______ habitats are being badly destroyed.
A. why B. whose C. which D. that
Question 12: He is a great sports _______. He rarely misses any sport games.
A. enthusiast B. player C. energy D. programmer

Question 13. . Sarah ______ the keys. I cannot see it anywhere.
A. should have taken B. could have taken
C. must have taken D. needn't have taken.
Question 14: : In Vietnam, two or more ______ may live under one roof.
A. generations B. generous C. generation D. generators
Question 15: Species become extinct or endangered for _______ number of reasons, but _______
primary cause is the destruction of habitat by human activities.
A. Ø / a B. a / the C. the / a D. Ø / Ø
Question 16: It is crucial __________ to find out a solution to global warming before the weather
patterns of the world are disrupted irreparably.
A. the world would wor B. that the world worked C. that the world work D. the world to
work
Question 17: I thought you said she was going away the next Sunday,_______ ?
A. didn't you B. wasn't she C. wasn't it D. didn't I
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the most suitable response to complete
each of the following exchanges.
Question 18: .Tim: “It’s my birthday tomorrow.” Jackie:
“______”
A. Happy New Year! B. Would you like to have a party? C. How old are you? D. Many
happy returns.
Question 19: Mr. Black: “Can I try on these shoes, please.” Salesgirl: “______”
A. That’s right, sir. B. Go ahead, sir. C. I’d love to. D. Why not?
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 20: China has become the third country in the world which can independently carried
out the manned space activities.
A. put in B. put up C. put on D. put off
Question 21 : Some animals make identical sounds when they sense danger. Thus, they appear to be
communicating to each other.
A. loud B. similar C. different D. frightening
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the
underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: Many political radicals advocated that women should not be discriminated on the basic of
their sex.
A. openly criticized B. publicly supported C. rightly claimed D. publicly said

Question 23. Both Ann and her sister resemble her mother.
A. take after B. take place C. take away D. take only
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction.
Question 24: Mrs. Stevens, along with her cousins from Canada, are planning to attend the firework
display in Da Nang, Vietnam.
A.with B. her cousins C. are D. to attend
Question 25: After having driven for twenty miles, he suddenly realized that he has been driving in the
wrong direction.
A. having driven B. suddenly realized C. has been driving D. the wrong direction
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in
Question 26: You should have persuaded him to change his mind.
A .It was essential to persuade him to change his mind but you didn’t.
B. You didn’t persuade him to change because of his mind.
C. You should persuade him to change his mind.
D. You persuaded him to change his mind but he didn’t listen.
Question 27: Using a computer is a piece of cake.
A. It is very funny to use a computer. C. A computer is just like a piece of cake.
B. Using a computer is like eating a piece of cake D. Using a computer is something very easy.
Question 28: People are not allowed to photograph the interior of the palace.
A. Taking photograph inside the palace is strictly forbidden
B. It’s not advisable to try to bring a camera into the palace
C. We were only able to take photos of the palace exterior
D. No one has ever taken a photo inside the palace
Question 29: Ann always keeps up with the latest fashions. She works for a famous fashion house.
A. Despite working for a famous fashion house, Ann hardly keeps up with the latest fashions.
B. Ann always keeps up with the latest fashions so as not to work for a famous fashion house.
C. Not working for a famous fashion house, Ann always keeps up with the latest fashions.
D. Ann works for a famous fashion house, so she always keeps up with the latest fashions.
Question 30: You must read the instructions. You won't know how to use this machine without
reading them.
A. You will know how to use this machine unless you read the instructions.
B. Without reading the instructions, the use of this machine won't be known.
C. Unless you read the instructions, you won't know how to use this machine.
D. Reading the instructions, so you will know how to use this machine.
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Industry 4.0 is a collective term for technologies and concepts of value chain organization. Based
on the (31) __________ concepts of cyber-physical systems, the Internet of Things and the Internet of
Services, it facilitates the vision of the Smart Factory. Within the modular structured Smart Factories of
Industry 4.0, cyber-physical systems monitor physical processes, create a virtual copy of the physical
world and (32) __________ decentralized decisions. Over the Internet of Things, Cyber-physical
systems communicate and cooperate (33) __________ each other and humans in real time. Via
the Internet of Services, both internal and cross-organizational services are offered and utilized by
participants of the value chain.
Similar to Germany, in the United States an (34) __________ known as the Smart Manufacturing
Leadership Coalition (SMLC) is also working on the future of manufacturing. Their aim is to enable
stakeholders in the manufacturing industry to form collaborative R & D, implementation and advocacy
groups for (35 ) __________ of
the approaches, standards, platforms and shared infrastructure that facilitate the broad adoption of
manufacturing intelligence.
Question 31.A. technology B. technological C. technique D. technologically
Question 32.A. give B. do C. make D. take
Question 33. A. With B. about C. among D. between
Question 34.A. initiate B. initiation C. initiating D. initiative
Question 35. A. Develop B. development C. developing D. developer
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
In the early 1800’s, over 80 percent of the United States labor force was engaged in agriculture.
Sophisticated technology and machinery were virtually nonexistent. People who lived in the cities and
were not directly involved in trade often participated in small cottage industries making handcrafted
goods. Others cured meats, silversmiths, candle or otherwise produced needed goods and commodities.
Blacksmiths, silversmiths, candle makers, and other artisans worked in their homes or barns, relying on
help of family.
Perhaps no single phenomenon brought more widespread and lasting change to the United States
society than the rise of industrialization. Industrial growth hinged on several economic factors. First,
industry requires an abundance of natural resources, especially coal, iron ore, water, petroleum, and
timber-all readily available on the North American continent. Second, factories demand a large labor
supply. Between the 1870’s and the First World War (1914-1918), approximately 23 million immigrants
streamed to the United States, settled in cities, and went to work in factories and mines. They also
helped build the vast network of canals and railroads that crisscrossed the continent and linked
important trade centers essential to industrial growth.
Factories also offered a reprieve from the backbreaking work and financial unpredictability
associated with farming. Many adults, poor and disillusioned with farm life, were lured to the cities by
promises of steady employment, regular paychecks, increased access to goods and services, and
expanded social opportunities. Others were pushed there when new technologies made their labor
cheap or expendable; inventions such as steel plows and mechanized harvesters allowed one farmhand
to perform work that previously had required several, thus making farming capital-intensive rather than
labor-intensive.
The United States economy underwent a massive transition and the nature of work was
permanently altered. Whereas cottage industries relied on a few highly skilled craft workers who slowly
and carefully converted raw materials into finished products from start to finish, factories relied on
specialization. While factory work was less creative and more monotonous, it was also more efficient
and allowed mass production of goods at less expense.
Question 36: What aspect of life in the United States does the passage mainly discuss?
A . The transition from an agricultural to an industrial economy
B. The inventions that transformed life in the nineteenth century
C. The problems associated with the earliest factories
D. The difficulty of farm life in the nineteenth century
Question 37: Blacksmiths, silversmiths, and candle makers are mentioned in lines 5-6 as examples of
artisans who ________.
A. maintained their businesses at home C. produced unusual goods and

commodities
B. were eventually able to use sophisticated technology D. would employ only family members
Question 38: The phrase “hinged on” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _______.
A. recovered from B. depended on C. started on D. contributed to
Question 39: Which of the following is mentioned in the passage as a reason for the industrial growth
that occurred in the United States before 1914?
A. The availability of natural resources found only in the United States
B. The decrease in number of farms resulting from technological advances
C. The replacement of canals and railroads by other forms of transportation
D. The availability of a large immigrant work force
Question 40: The word “Others” in paragraph 3 refers to other _______.
A. adults B. promises C. goods and services D. social opportunities
Question 41: It can be inferred from the passage that industrialization affected farming in that
industrialization _______.
A. increased the price of farm products C. created new and interesting jobs on farms
B. limited the need for new farm machinery D. reduced the number of people willing to do farm
work
Question 42: What does the author mean when stating that certain inventions made farming “capital-
intensive rather than labor-intensive”?
A. Workers had to be trained to operate the new machines.
B. Mechanized farming required more capital and fewer laborers.
C. The new inventions were not helpful for all farming activities.
D. Human labor could still accomplish as much work as the first machines.
Question 43: According to the passage, factory workers differed from craft workers in that factory
workers ________.
A. were required to be more creative C. changed jobs frequently
B. worked extensively with raw materials D. specialized in one aspect of the finished product
only
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the
correct answer to each of the following questions.
Choosing a career may be one of the hardest jobs you ever have, and it must be done with care. View
a career as an opportunity to do something you love, not simply as a way to earn a living. Investing the
time and effort to thoroughly explore your options can mean the difference between finding a
stimulating and rewarding career and move from job to unsatisfying job in an attempt to find the right
one. Work influences virtually every aspect of your life, from your choice of friends to where you live.
Here are just a few of the factors to consider.
Deciding what matters most to you is essential to making the right decision. You may want to begin
by assessing your likes, dislikes, strengths, and weaknesses. Think about the classes, hobbies, and
surroundings that you find most appealing. Ask yourself questions, such as “Would you like to travel?
Do you want to work with children? Are you more suited to solitary or cooperative work?” There are
no right or wrong answers; only you know what is important to you. Determine which job features you
require, which ones you would prefer, and which ones you cannot accept. Then rank them in order of
importance to you.
The setting of the job is one factor to take into account. You may not want to sit at a desk all day. If
not, there is diversity of occupation- building inspector, supervisor, and real estate agent- that involve a
great deal of time away from the office. Geographical location may be a concern, and employment in
some fields is concentrated in certain regions. Advertising job can generally be found only in large
cities. On the other hand, many industries such as hostels, law education, and retail sales are found in
all regions of the country. If a high salary is important to you, do not judge a career by its starting
wages. Many jobs, such as insurance sales, offers relatively low starting salaries; however, pay
substantially increases along with your experience, additional training, promotions and commission.
Don’t rule out any occupation without learning more about it. Some industries evoke positive or
negative associations. The traveling life of a flight attendant appears glamorous, while that of a
plumber does not. Remember that many jobs are not what they appear to be at first, and may have
merits or demerits that are less obvious. Flight attendants must work long, grueling hours without
sleeps, whereas plumbers can be as highly paid as some doctors.
Another point to consider is that as you mature, you will likely develop new interests and skills that
may point the way to new opportunities. The choices you make today need not be your final one.
Question 44. The author states that “There are no right or wrong answers” in order to _______.
A . emphasize that each person’s answers will be different.
B. show that answering the questions is a long and difficult process.
C. indicate that the answers are not really important.
D. indicate that each person’s answers may change over time.
Question 45. The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to _______.
A. questions B. answers C. features D. jobs
Question 46. The word “assessing” in paragraph 2 could best be replaced by _______.
A. discovering B. considering C. measuring D. disposing
Question 47. According to paragraph 3, which of the following fields is NOT suitable for a person who
does not want to live in a big city?
A. plumbing B. law C. retail sales D. advertising
Question 48. The word “that” in paragraph 4 refers to _______.
A. occupation B. the traveling life C. a flight attendant D. commission
Question 49. Why does the author mention “long, grueling hours without sleeps” in paragraph 4?
A. To emphasize the difficulty of working as a plumber.
B. To contrast the reality of a flight attendant’s job with most people’s perception.
C. To show that people must work hard for the career they have chosen.
D. To discourage readers from choosing a career as a flight attendant.
Question 50. According to the passage, which of the following is true?
A. To make a lot of money, you should not take a job with a low starting salary.
B. To make lots of money, you should rule out all factory jobs.
C. If you want an easy and glamorous lifestyle, you should consider becoming flight attendant
D.. Your initial view of certain careers may not be accurate.
ĐỀ ÔN THI THPT QUỐC GIA – ĐỀ SỐ09
pronunciation Question 1:A. vineyard B. ignite C. business
D. Finland
Question 2:A. change B. image C. danger D. Oasis
stress
Question 3:A. demolish B. substantial C. dramatic D. terrorist
Question 4:A. proficiency B. electronic C. petroleum D. Equivalent
Mark the letter to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning tothe bold, italic word(s) in each
questions.
Question 5: In choosing your career, you should follow your heart, but you also need to be
rational.
A. making decisions because of relationships B. making decision because of profits
C. making decisions using strong emotion of feeling D. making decisions based on
intelligent thinking
Question 6: Some of the potential dangers to cows treated with synthetic bovine growth hormone
were brought into light through the effort of some scientist.
A. related B. certain C. obvious D. Possible
Mark the letter to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the bold, italic word(s)
Question 7: The general progress of science and technology and their application to endogenous
socio-economic development lie at the heart of many of the problems confronting mankind today,
and that the solutions to these problems.
A. are things which are the most dispensable B. are things which exist temporarily
C. are things whose role is the most fundamental D. are things that are always in need
of blood
Question 8: The prevailing attitude among experts is that the economy will continue to fluctuate
between periods of growth and periods of decline.
A. stay unchanged B. Vary C. oscillate D. remain unstable
questions.
Question 9: Rainforests are being cut and burning at such a speed that they will disappear from the
earth in the near future.A. from B. burning C. are being cutD. such a speed
Question 10: Adult education programs must be designed so the diverse needs of the participants
in mind.
A. must be B. so C. in mind D. needs
Question 11: Water pollution makes streams, lakes, and coastal waterunpleasant to look at, to
smell, and to swim in, as well as preventing us from drinking it without filtration.
A. it B. coastal water C. unpleasant D. Preventing
Question 12:_______ before I realized that I had made a big mistake.
A. It turned out B. It wasn't long C. It was impossible D. It was a pity
Question 13: Steve_______ his chances of passing by spending too much time on the first question.
A. threw in B. threw out C. threw away D. threw off
Question 14: Though his family is_______ to be seen, everybody isn't giving up hope.
A. nowhere B. somewhere C. everywhere D. anywhere
Question 15: He had already learned the news. I_______ the trouble to phone him about it.
A. needn't have taken B. should have taken C. could have taken D. mustn't
have taken
Question 16: He was especially interested in such_______ work, and had recently helped to organize
the first Brazilian school for deaf-mutes at Rio de Janeiro.
A. humanitarian B. humanity C. human D. humanistic
Question 17: Almost four in five people around the world believe that_______, a poll for the BBC
World service suggests.
A. fundamental right accessing the Internet is B. the fundamental right iaccess the
Internet
C. the Internet, which people access to, is a fundamental right D. access the Internet is a
fundamental right
Question 18: For years scientists have been worried about the_______ of air pollution on the earth's
natural conditions.A. cause B. result C. account D.
effect
Question 19:_______ the students go to college in their teens every year.
A. A lots of B. A good many C. A plenty of D. A good
many of
Question 20: Never before_______ as rapidly as during the last decades.A. technology is developing
B. has technology developedC. has developed technologyD. technology has developed
Question 21:___ the problem of water pollution gets more serious, the government is searching for
a way to deal with it.A. Because B. Although C. However
D. Providing
Question 22: The death toll in the devastating earthquake and tsunami_______ to rise.
A. expected B. are expectedC. expect D. is expected
Question 23: Cultural diversity supports the idea that every person can_______ a unique and
positive contribution to the larger society because of, rather than in spite of, their differences.
A. take B. make C. pay D. Lead
questions
The Japan of the mid-19th century was a shadow of the modern economic juggernaut that is
now one of the world's leading traders. For hundreds of years, Japan had been secluded from the
outside world by the strict policies of the rulers of Japan, the Tokugawa shoguns. With the
exception of one Dutch ship per year at the port of the Nagasaki, the Japanese refused to deal with
foreign ships or nations. Sailors shipwrecked on the Japanese islands were treated harshly and
often imprisoned. Passing vessels were refused food, water, and other provisions. With a goal to
right these wrongs and to open Japan to trade, in 1853, the United States sent its most capable man,
Admiral Matthew Perry, and four warships to open Japan to the rest of the world. The consequences
of those actions are still being felt today. In the 17 th century, the Japanese had opened their doors
briefly to the Dutch and allowed a trading station and Christian enclave in Nagasaki. Guns were
Imported as part of this trade, and they were one of the reasons for a great upheaval that engulfed
Japan for many decades, as a civil war raged between powerful shoguns, or warlords. Finally,
Tokugawa emerged as the victor and claimed the lordship of Japan. During these upheavals, the
emperor and his family had stood by wielding no power and existed merely as a figurehead. Soon
after the civil war, the Japanese abandoned the use of guns and the art of the gun making. When
Admiral Perry and his fleet arrived in 1853, they were defenseless against his awesome firepower.
Perry had three main purposes when he arrived in Japan: open the country to American trade, get
an agreement to use Japan as a coaling and provisioning station for American vessels, and provide
guarantees that Japan would aid shipwrecked American sailors. He wished to deal only with the
highest officials and rebuffed Japanese attempts to foster lower-level emissaries on him. He sailed
away to examine further the coast of Taiwan as a possible coaling station but returned to Japan the
following spring in March 1854. This time, under threat of naval bombardment, the Japanese
relented and finally signed the Treaty of Kanagawa on March 31, 1854. In addition to the three main
items, the Japanese agreed to allow an American consulate to be established. At first, only Nagasaki
was open to American trade, but the treaty stipulated that, after five years, other ports would be
opened.
The consequences of these events were far reaching for Japan and the world. Within a few
years, foreign currency began to flow to Japan, which upset its economy and caused rising inflation.
This was a precursor to the fall of the Tokugawa shoguns and the return of the emperor as the
leader of Japanese affairs in 1868. The Emperor Meiji then set a clear path for his nation, not
wanting Japan to be under the heel of the foreigners who now clamored at the heel of the foreigners
of his land. Meiji sent sailors to England to learn how to build ships and fight a modern naval war,
invited German army officers to train his soldiers, and made deals with many companies to
modernize Japan's Industry, transportation, and communications. In fact, the efforts were so
successful that, by the 1980s, the world began to view Japan as one of the great powers, more so
after idefeated both China and Russia on land and at sea in two local wars. The Russian defeat was
even more astonishing since the Europeans were unused to losing to those they considered their
inferiors. Japan's rapid Industrialized and militarization had dreadful consequences for Asia, as
Meiji's grandson Hirohito led the nation down the path to world war, which ultimately saw the
destruction of much of Japan. The shock of this defeat still echoes through Japanese history, as does
the arrival of Perry and his warships so long ago. His efforts opened Japan to the world.
Unknowingly, he unleashed a powerful force, with the Japanese not willing to be subjugated to
foreign domination. In the long run, Japan has become part of the global culture and has offered
more to the world than could have ever been imagined when Perry's ships first dropped anchor on
that fateful day in the past.
Question 24:According to paragraph 3, the Treaty of Kanagawa was agreed to by the
Japanese_______.
A. because they wanted to have relations with AmericanB. against wishes under the threat of
force of arms
C. In order to gain an advantage over the AmericansD. because the realized they could not be
secluded forever
Question 25:According to paragraph 4, in order to modernize Japan, Emperor Meiji relied on_______.
A. experts from outside of Japan B. the expertise of his own people
C. educating his people in new skills D. the capital from trade links
Question 26:According to paragraph 2, during the Tokugawa shogun period, the Japanese
emperor_______.
A. did not challenge the power of the shoguns B. was quite unknown to the Japanese people
C. shared power with the shoguns but was secondary D. was a symbol and not the real ruler of
Japan
Question 27:The world "secluded" in the passage is closest in meaning to_______.
A. removed B. reserved C. isolated D. hidden
Question 28:According to paragraph 1, all of the following are correct about Japan's dealings with
foreigners in the mid-nineteenth century EXCEPT_______.
A. They had a very limited foreign trade. B. Shipwrecked sailors were badly treated.
C. No ships were allowed to visit Japan. D. Ships In need were not helped by
Japan.
Question 29:According to paragraph 3, Admiral Perry's mission to Japan eventually_______.
A. achieved exactly what he wanted B. achieved some but not all of his objectives
C. achieved more than he had expected D. failed to achieve any concrete
objectives
Question 30:The word "they" in the passage refers to_______.
A. the emperor and his family B. the Japanese
C. powerful shoguns D. Admiral Perry and his fleet
Question 31:It can be inferred from paragraph 2 that the Japanese abandoned gun making because
guns____.
A. went against the Japanese idea of a warrior B. were blamed for helping cause the long
civil war
C. were difficult and expensive to make In Japan D. were the products of foreigners and thus
forbidden
best fits Teaching English as a foreign language can be a great way to travel the world and
earn money at the same time. However, some graduates actually like the idea of (32)________ a
career in teaching English long-term, and there are numerous courses at various (33)________ of
teaching, from the fast-track TEFL to a diploma or masters. To find the right course a good place to
start is TEFL.com - a website with lots of relevant information and helpful advice, Including a
comprehensive list of institutions in the UK offering TEFL courses. The site also offers a job search
facility to assist qualified students (34)________ finding work.
When deciding which course to take, the best bet is to look at what your needs are. If you
want a career in teaching English then definitely find one designed for that (35)________, like an MA
or diploma; but if you want to travel around the world, then do a shorter course which will supply
you with teaching skills. Some countries, like Japan, will employ people without a teaching
qualification as (36)________ as the teacher is a native speaker of English. However, most countries
do now expect a qualification.
(Adapted from "Earn After You Learn"by Kate Harvey)
Question 32:A. hunting B. tracking C. following D. chasing
Question 33:A. categories B. levels C. classes D. groups
Question 34:A. for B. at C. to D. in
Question 35:A. function B. purpose C. use D. aim
Question 36:A. soon B. long C. far D. well
questions
Global emissions of carbon dioxide from fossil fuel burning jumped by the largest amount
on record in 2010. Emissions rose 5.9 percent in 2010, according to an analysis released on Sunday
by the Global Carbon Project. Scientists said the increase was almost certainly the largest absolute
jump in any year since the Industrial Revolution. The increase solidified a trend of ever-rising
emissions that will make it difficult, if not impossible, to stop severe climate change in coming
decades.
The burning of coal represented more than half of the growth in emissions, the analysis
found. In the United States, emissions dropped by a remarkable 7 percent in the year of 2009, but
rose by over 4 percent in 2010, the new analysis shows.
"Each year, emissions go up, and there's another year of negotiations, another year of
indecision," said Glen P. Peters, a researcher at the Centre for International Climate and
Environmental Research. "There's no evidence that this path we've been following in the last 10
years Is going to change."
Scientists say the rapid growth of emissions is warming the Earth and putting human
welfare at long-term risk. But their increasingly urgent pleas that society find a way to limit
emissions have met sharp political resistance In many countries because doing so would involve
higher energy costs.
The new figures show a continuation of a trend in which developing countries have
surpassed the wealthy countries in their overall greenhouse emissions. In 2010, the burning of
fossil fuels and the production of cement sent more than nine billion tons of carbon into the
atmosphere, the new analysis found, with 57 percent of that coming from developing countries.
On the surface, the figures of recent years suggest that wealthy countries have made
headway in stabilizing their emissions. But Dr. Peters pointed out that, in a sense, the rich countries
have simply exported some of them.
The fast rise in developing countries has been caused to a large extent by the growth of
energy-intensive manufacturing industries that make goods that rich countries import. "All that has
changed Iis the location in which the emissions are being produced," Dr. Peters said.
Many countries, as part of their response to the economic crisis, invested billions in
programs designed to make their energy systems greener. While it is possible, the new numbers
suggest they have had little effect so far. (Source:
www.nytimes.com)
Question 37:According to the passage, the report found that the burning coal accounts for________ of
the increase in total emissions.
A. more than half B. over 4 percent C. only about 7 percentD. one-third
Question 38:Which of the following is TRUE according to the text?
A. Developing countries will produce less emissions with economic development.
B. Emissions in the United States dropped by about 7 percent in 2010.
C. There is a long way to go for many countries to limit the fast growth of emissions.
D. Over 50 percent of the growth iemissions resulted from the burning of fossil fuels.
Question 39:What is the main idea of this passage?
A. the possible climate change in future decades B. an analysis released by the Global
Carbon Project
C. the record jump in carbon dioxide emissions D. the main harm of greenhouse
gases
Question 40:The word "urgent" in thepassage is closest in meaning to________.
A. related B. unsolved C. pressing D. needful
Question 41: According to Glen P. Peters, we can learn that________.
A. rich countries actually take more responsibility for the growth of emissions
B. some countries negotiate together yearly whether to reduce the amounts of emissions
C. the rapid growth of emissions contributes to potential risks for humans
D. human beings will follow the same path of negotiations In the next 10 years
Question 42:The phrase "On the surface" in theseventh paragraph means most nearly the same
as________.
A. To all intents and purposes B. Judging from what can be seen
C. Just the tip of the iceberg D. Not thought about deeply or thoroughly
Question 43:Many governments in the world resist limiting emissionsbecause________.
A. It Is not the best way to solve such problems B. they are unwilling to accept
higher energy costs
C. they don't realize the risks of carbon emissionsD. it would probably harm human welfare in the
long run
Mark the letter to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following
exchanges.
Question 44: ~ Kay: "How kind, you really shouldn't have bothered." ~ Frank: "............"
A. Don't worry, I didn't bother. B. It was nothing, really.
C. Why not? I was happy. D. It was a very good thing.
Question 45: ~ Peter: "Do you mind if I put the television on?" ~ Susan: "............."
A. Not mention it. B. It's no matter to me.C. No, not in the least. D. You are welcome.
questions.
Question 46: A drug may affect several functions, even though it's targeted at only one.
A. However effective a drug may be, its functions have to be several.
B. Despite various other uses, a drug usually has a function for a special effect.
C. A drug is taken for a specific purpose, but it may have a range of other effects.
D. The functions expected of a drug are various even if it is used for a specific disease.
Question 47: Most politicians think about fulfilling their earlier promises only in an election year.
A. When an election comes, some politicians forget to fulfill their responsibilities.
B. When politicians have fulfilled their promises, they want to hold an election.
C. It Is not until the election year that most politicians pretend to fulfill their commitment, but do
nothing.
D. Many politicians don't seem to remember to keep their earlier promises until the
elections approach.
Question 48:"If you touch my iPad again, I'll tell mother," said my elder brother.
A. My elder brother tried to convince me that touching his iPadagain Is unallowed.
B. My elder brother advised me to tell mother if I touched his iPadagain.
C. My elder brother said that he would tell mother if I touched his iPadagain.
D. My elder brother threatened to tell mother if I touched his iPadagain.
Question 49:I think my hair looks fine. My mother believes it needs a little more brushing.
A. Either my mother believes it needs a little more brushing or I think my hair looks fine.
B. I think my hair looks fine, but my mother believes it needs a little more brushing.
C. I think my hair looks so fine that my mother believes it needs a little more brushing.
D. Not only do I think my hair looks fine, but my mother also believes it needs a little more
brushing.
Question 50:We can protect the world in which we live. We, for example, can grow more trees and
recycle rubbish.
A. We can protect the world in which we live, growing more trees and recycle rubbish.
B. We can protect the world in which we live by growing more trees and recycling
rubbish.
C. We can protect the world in which we live as well as we can grow more trees and recycle
rubbish.
D. We can protect the world in which we live such as growing more trees and recycling
rubbish.
_________THE END_________
Mark a letter to indicate the underlined part needs correction in each of the following
questions.
Question 1: Having finished his tem paper before the deadline, it was delivered to professor before
the class.
A B C D
Question 2: I’m very glad that you’ve done lots ofprogress this semester.
A B C D
Question 3: You can enjoy a sport without joining in a club or belonging to a team.
A B C D
Mark a letter to indicate the most suitable response to complete each the following exchanges.
Question 4: John: “Do you fancy a drink?” -Catherine: “_____________”
A. No, ever! B. I’m not sure I do. Thank all the same C. I don’t want D. It is none of
your business
Question 5: - Ann: “Excuse me, can you tell me where I can catch a bus to London, please?” - Mike:
“______”
A. Sure, go ahead B. Sorry, I’m new here myself C. OK. Here’s your ticket
D. Yes, please
questions from 6 to 13.
Quite different from storm surges are the giant sea waves called tsunamis, which derive
their name from the Japanese expression for “high water in a harbor.” These waves are also
referred to by the general public as tidal waves, although they have relatively little to do with tides.
Scientists often referred to them as seismic sea waves, far more appropriate in that they do result
from undersea seismic activity. Tsunamis are caused when the sea bottom suddenly moves, during
an underwater earthquake or volcano for example, and the water above the moving earth is
suddenly displaced. This sudden shift of water sets off a series of waves. These waves can travel
great distances at speeds close to 700 kilometers per hour. In the open ocean, tsunamis have little
noticeable amplitude, often no more than one or two meters. It is when they hit the shallow waters
near the coast that they increase in height, possibly up to 40 meters. Tsunamis often occur in the
Pacific because the Pacific is an area of heavy seismic activity. Two areas of the Pacific well
accustomed to the threat of tsunamis are Japan and Hawaii. Because the seismic activity that causes
tsunamis in Japan often occurs on the ocean bottom quite close to the islands, the tsunamis that hit
Japan often come with little warning and can, therefore, prove disastrous. Most of the tsunamis that
hit the Hawaiian Islands, however, originate thousands of miles away near the coast of Alaska, so
these tsunamis have a much greater distance to travel and the inhabitants of Hawaii generally have
time for warning of their imminent arrival. Tsunamis are certainly not limited to Japan and Hawaii.
In 1755, Europe experienced a calamitous tsunami, when movement along the fault lines near the
Azores caused a massive tsunami to sweep onto the Portuguese coast and flood the heavily
populated area around Lisbon. The greatest tsunami on record occurred on the other side of the
world in 1883 when the Krakatoa volcano underwent a massive explosion, sending waves more
than 30 meters high onto nearby Indonesian islands; the tsunami from this volcano actually
traveled around the world and was witnessed as far away as the English Channel.
Question 6: The paragraph preceding this passage most probably discusses _________ .
A. tides B. storm surges C. tidal waves D. underwater
earthquakes
Question 7: According to the passage, all of the following are true about tidal waves EXCEPT that
_____ .
A. they are caused by sudden changes in high and low tides
B. this terminology is not used by the scientific community
C. they are the same as tsunamis D. they refer to the same phenomenon as
seismic sea waves
Question 8: The word “displaced” in line 6 is closest in meaning to _________ .
A. not pleased B. located C. moved D. filtered
Question 9: It can be inferred from the passage that tsunamis ________ .
A. are often identified by ships on the ocean B. generally reach heights greater than 40
meters
C. are far more dangerous on the coast than in the open ocean D. cause severe damage in the
middle of the ocean
Q10: A main difference between tsunamis in Japan and in Hawaii is that tsunamis in Japan are more
likely to ___ .
A. come from greater distances B. originate in Alaska C. arrive without warning D. be
less of a problem
Question 11: A “calamitous” tsunami, in line 17, is one that is _________ .
A. disastrous B. expected C. extremely calm D. at fault
Question 12: From the expression “on record” in line 19, it can be inferred that the tsunami that
accompanied the Krakatoa volcano ______ .A. was filmed as it was happeningB. occurred before
efficient records were kept
C. was not as strong as the tsunami in Lisbon D. might not be the greatest
tsunami ever
Question 13: The passage suggests that the tsunami resulting from the Krakatoa volcano
A. was unobserved outside of the Indonesian islands B. resulted in little damage
C. was far more destructive close to the source than far away
D. caused volcanic explosions in the English Channel
Mark a letter to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each
questions.
Question 14: She was brought up in a well-off family. She can’t understand the problem we are
facing. A. wealthy B. kind C. broke D. poor
Question 15: Father has lost his job, so we’ll have to tighten our belt to avoid getting into debt.
A. buy new belt B. sell the belt C. squander D. economize
Mark a letter to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each
questions.
Question 16: She decided to remain celibate and devote her life to helping the homeless and
orphans.
A. divorced B. married C. single D. separated
Question 17: Education is desperately need in many countries with a high percentage of population
being unable to read and write. A. literate B. latterly C. wordy
D. learned
Mark a letter to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the offer three in
pronunciation
Question 18: A. address B. canal C. about D. cultural
Question 19: A. create B. creature C. peak D. beach
Mark a letter to indicate the word that differs from the offer three in the position of primary
stress
Question 20: A. zoology B. permanent C. movement D. government
Question 21: A. reservation B. communicate C. dictation D. occasion
Mark a letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
Question 22: Ben would have studied medicine if he_______ to a medical school.
A. was admitted B. has been admitted C. had admitted
D. would be able to enter
Question 23: In 1973, when the tigers appeared to be facing_______ the World Wide Fund for_______
and the Indian Government agreed to set up “Operation Tiger”.
A. extinct/ Nature B. extinction/ Nature C. extinction/ NaturalD. extinct/
Naturalists
Question 24: There is_______ public concern in Shelton following the discovery on Tuesday evening
of a metal container filled with poisonous liquid.
A. consider B. consideration C. considerable D.
considerably
Question 25: This house is_______ the others we’ve seen.
A. father more expensive than B. far more expensive thanC. far most expensiveD. further
more expensive
Question 26: The house owner_______ coming near the dog as it could become very fierce
unexpectedly.
A. warned me against B. advised me C. stopped me D.
accused me of
Question 27: I_______ Melisa at my yoga class tonight and will ask her about the plan for this
weekend.
A. will be seeing B. will have seen C. will not see D. will have
been seeing
Question 28: Jack and Laure_______ married for 25 years by that time but they still decided to get
divorced.
A. have been B. were C. will be D. had been
Question 29: This orange juice_______ awful: I bet you_______ it,
A. is smelling/ like B. smelling/ will not like C. smells/ will not like D. has
smelled/ liked
Question 30: The size and shape of a nail depends primarily on the function_______ intended.
A. which it is B. for which it is C. which it is for D. for which is
Question 31: The_______ friendly products are designed not to harm the natural environment.
A. environment B. environmental C. environmentally D.
environmentally
Question 32: He asked me_______ Robert and I did not know_______ .
A. that did I know/ who were Robert B. that I knew/ who Robert were
C. if I knew/ who Robert was D. whether I knew/ who was Robert
Question 33: Her contract_______ in two months, so she’s looking for another job.
A. runs down B. runs out C. goes out D. goes away
Read the following passage and mark the letter to indicate the correct word or phases that
best fits each blanks .
People have always dreamt of living forever. Although we all know this will never happen,
we will want to live as long as possible.
(34)______, there are advantages and disadvantages of a long life.In the first place, people
who live longer can spend more time with their family and friends. Secondly, (35)______ have busy
working lives look forward to a long, relaxing life, when they can do the things they‘ve never had
time for. (36)_______, there are some serious disadvantages. Firstly, many people become ill and
consequently have to spend time in hospital or become burden (37)_ the children and friends. Many
of them find this dependence annoying or embarrassing. In addition to this, (38)__ the fewer friends
they seem to have because old friends die or become and it’s often difficult to make new friends.
To sum up, living to a very old age is worthwhile for those who stay healthy enough to
remain independent and enjoy life.
Question 34:A. Naturally B. Really C. Consequently D. Surprisingly
Question 35:A. people who B. Peoples C. people D. everyone

who
Question 36:A. In other words B. For example C. On the other hand D. Contrary to
Question 37:A. Of B. for C. to D. with
Question 38:A. when people get older B. when the older people getC. the old people getD. the older
people get
Mark a letter to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in meaning to each of the following
questions.
Question 39: Life on earth will be destroyed if people keep cutting trees for their own benefits.
A. If we stop to cut the trees for our benefits, the life on earth will be better.
B. If we don’t continue to cut trees for our benefits, life on earth will be destroyed.
C. Life on earth will be destroyed unless people stop cutting trees for their own
benefits.
D. The more trees we cut for our benefits, the worst the earth becomes.
Question 40: WHO means World Health Organization.
A. WHO is on behalf of Health Organization. B. WHO stand for Health
Organization.
C. WHO is translated from Health Organization. D. WHO is explained about
Health Organization.
Question 41: The hurricane destroyed hundreds of buildings in the city.
A. The hurricane resulted in destruction of hundreds of buildings in the city.
B. The hurricane resulted from destruction of hundreds of buildings in the city.
C. Despite the appearance of the hurricane, hundreds of buildings in the city haven’t been in damager
of destruction.
D. The hurricane appeared, however, hundreds of buildings in the city have been destroyed.
Read the following passage and mark the letter to indicate the correct answer to each
questions from 42 to 48.
A lot of advice is available for college leavers heading for their first job. In this article we
consider the move to a second job. We are not concerned with those looking for a second
temporary position while hunting for a permanent job. Nor are we concerned with those leaving an
unsatisfactory job within the first few weeks. Instead, we will be dealing with those of you taking a
real step on the career ladder, choosing a job to fit in with your ambitions now that you have learnt
your way around, acquired some skills and have some idea of where you want to go. What sort of
job should you look for? Much depends on your long-term aim. You need to ask yourself whether
you want to specialize in a particular field, work your way up to higher levels of responsibility or
out of your current employment into a broader field. Whatever you decide, you should choose your
second job very carefully. You should be aiming to stay in it for two or three years. This job will be
studied very carefully when you send your letter of application for your next job. It should show
evidence of serious career planning. Most important, it should extend you, develop you and give
you increasing responsibility. Incidentally, if you are interested in traveling, now is the time to pack
up and go. You can do temporary work for a while when you return, pick up where you left off and
get the second job then. Future potential employers will be relieved to see that you have got it out
of your system, and are not likely to go off again. Juliette Davidson spend her first year after leaving
St. Aldate’s College working for three lawyers. It was the perfect first job in that “ OK ... they were
very supportive people. I was gently introduced to the work, learnt my way around an office and
improve my word processing skills. However, there was no scope for advancement. One day, I gave
my notice, bought an air ticket and traveled for a year. Juliette now works as a Personal Assistant to
Brenda Cleverdon, the Chief Executive of business in the Community. “In two and a half years I have
become more able and my job has really grown, “ she says. “ Right from the beginning my boss was
very keen to develop me. My job title is the same as it was when I started but the duties have
changed. From mainly typing and telephone work, I have progressed to doing most of the
correspondence and budgets. I also have to deal with a variety of queries, coming from chairmen of
large companies to people wanting to know how to start their own business. Brenda involves me in
all her work but also gives me specific projects to do and events to organize.”
Question 42: Who is intended to benefit from the advice given in the article?
A. students who have just finished their studies B. people who are unhappy with their
current job
C. those who are interested in establishing a career D. people who change jobs regularly
Question 43: According to the writer, why is the choice of your second job important?
A. It will affect your future job prospects. B. It will last longer than your first job.
C. It will be difficult to change if you don’t like it. D. It should give you the opportunity to study.
Question 44: “It” in the passage refers to_______.
A. first job B. second job C. application D. career
Question 45: If you have a desire to travel, when does the writer suggest that you do it?
A. straight after you have left college B. when you are unable to find a permanent
job
C. after you have done some temporary work D. between the first and second job
Question 46: What does the phrase “you have got it out of your system” in passage mean?
A. You have planned your career sensibly. B. You are an experienced traveler.
C. You have satisfied your wish to travel. D. You have learned to look after yourself.
Question 47: How did Juliette Davidson benefit from the experience of her first job?
A. It was good introduction to working in an office. B. She met a variety of interesting
people.
C. It enabled her to earn enough money to travel. D. She learnt how to use a word processor.
Question 48: In what way is Juliette’s current job better her first job?
A. She has a more impressive job title. B. She now know how to start her own
business.
C. She has been able to extend her skills. D. She is more involve in the community.
Mark a letter to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair sentences in the following
questions.
Question 49: The student works part-time at a bid restaurant. He also paints pictures to earn for
living.
A. Apart from works part-time at a bid restaurant, the student also paints pictures to earn
for living.
B. In addition working part-time at a big restaurant, the student also paints pictures to earn
for living.
C. Besides working part-time at a big restaurant, the student also paints pictures to
earn for living.
D. The student works part-time at a big restaurant as well as he paints pictures to earn for
living.
Question 50: The buses began to pull out. Most of them were full passengers.
A. The passengers, most of them were full of, began to pull out the buses.
B. The passengers, most of whom were full of the buses, began to pull out.
C. The buses, most of them were full of passengers, began to pull out.
D. The buses, most of which were full of passengers, began to pull out.
___________THE END____________

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Question 34. A. seen B. considered C. figured D. regarded

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ĐỀ ÔN THI THPT QUỐC GIA – ĐỀ SỐ 03

ĐỀ ÔN THI THPT QUỐC GIA – ĐỀ SỐ 04

ĐỀ ÔN THI THPT QUỐC GIA – ĐỀ SỐ 05

ĐỀ ÔN THI THPT QUỐC GIA – ĐỀ SỐ 6

ĐỀ ÔN THI THPT QUỐC GIA – ĐỀ SỐ 07

ĐỀ ÔN THI THPT QUỐC GIA – ĐỀ SỐ 08

Question 2: A. swallowed B. practiced C. finished D. punched

Question 4: A.atmosphere B. information C. understanding D.

A. made B. directed C. produced D. acted

A. marks B. digits C. grades D. records

A. whereas B. in contrast C. however D. therefore

A. enthusiast B. player C. energy D. programmer

A. should have taken B. could have taken

C. must have taken D. needn't have taken.

A. generations B. generous C. generation D. generators

A. didn't you B. wasn't she C. wasn't it D. didn't I

A. loud B. similar C. different D. frightening

A. openly criticized B. publicly supported C. rightly claimed D. publicly said

A. take after B. take place C. take away D. take only

A.with B. her cousins C. are D. to attend

B. You didn’t persuade him to change because of his mind.

C. You should persuade him to change his mind.

D. You persuaded him to change his mind but he didn’t listen.

Question 27: Using a computer is a piece of cake.

A. It is very funny to use a computer. C. A computer is just like a piece of cake.

B. It’s not advisable to try to bring a camera into the palace

C. We were only able to take photos of the palace exterior

D. No one has ever taken a photo inside the palace

A . The transition from an agricultural to an industrial economy

B. The inventions that transformed life in the nineteenth century

C. The problems associated with the earliest factories

D. The difficulty of farm life in the nineteenth century

A. maintained their businesses at home C. produced unusual goods and

A. recovered from B. depended on C. started on D. contributed to

A. The availability of natural resources found only in the United States

B. The decrease in number of farms resulting from technological advances

C. The replacement of canals and railroads by other forms of transportation

D. The availability of a large immigrant work force

Question 40: The word “Others” in paragraph 3 refers to other _______.

A. adults B. promises C. goods and services D. social opportunities

A. Workers had to be trained to operate the new machines.

B. Mechanized farming required more capital and fewer laborers.

A. were required to be more creative C. changed jobs frequently

ĐỀ ÔN THI THPT QUỐC GIA – ĐỀ SỐ09

ĐỀ ÔN THI THPT QUỐC GIA – ĐỀ SỐ 10

Question 35:A. people who B. Peoples C. people D. everyone

Question 37:A. Of B. for C. to D. with

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