1) Which of the following is not a type of antimicrobial therapy?

A) Preemptive therapy
B) Definitive therapy
C) Palliative Therapy
D) Suppresive Therapy
E) Prophylactic Therapy

2) Which of the following drugs is classified in fourth generation cephalosporins?

A) Ceftriaxone
B) Cefuroxime
C) Cefotaxime
D) Cefazolin
E) Cefepime

3) Please indicate the organ that will have the least distribution of drugs as long as the
normalized blood flow is considered.
A) Skeletal Muscle
B) Hearth
C) Kidneys
D) Liver
E) Brain

4) Which of the following antibacterial drug is different from others in relation to mechanism of
action?
A) Clindamycin
B) Azithromycin
C) Clarithromycin
D) Telithromycin
E) Vancomycin (BENCE)

5) After drug dosing if the elimination rate is equal to the absorption rate it means that …..
A) Plasma drug concentration has reached to the maximum level
B) The therapeutic window is narrowed
C) The volume of distribution is decreased
D) Plasma drug concentration has reached to the steady-state level
E) Half-life is prolonged

6) Which of the following macrolides has the longest half-life?

A) Azithromycin
B) Telithromycin
C) Clarithromycin
D) Erythromycin
E) Cethromycin

7) Please choose the administration route that is the most convenient the most frequently used
simple and economic.
A) Buccal Route
 B) Oral route
C) İv route
D) Sublingual route
E) Transdermal route

8) Which of the following dental interventions do not require infective endocarditis

prophylaxis?
A) Tooth extractions
B) Drainage of a dental abscess
C) Manipulation of the periapical region of the teeth
D) Manipulation of gingival tissue
E) Placement of a orthodontic brackets

9) Oral …….. is limited to treatment for potentially life-threatening, antibiotic-associated collitis

due to C. Difficile.
A) Vancomycin
B) Cefixime
C) Bacitracin
D) Amoxicillin
E) Cefepime

10) All of the following drugs are in beta-lactam antibiotic group, except :
A) Pennicilin V
B) Methicillin
C) Ceftriaxone
D) Amoxicillin
E) Doxycycline

11) Which of the following drugs is associated with pseudomembranous colitis caused by
C.difficile?
A) Clindamycin
B) Eryhtromycin
C) Telithromycin
D) Azithromycin
E) Quinupristin / Dalfopristin

12) Which of the following drugs can be used safely for a patient who is allergic to Pennicilin G?
A) Amoxicillin
B) Erythromycin
C) Methicillin
D) Cefepime
E) Cephalexin

13) TD50/ED50 is equal to …………..

A) Minimum effective concentration
B) Therapeutic index
C) Safety limit
D) Minimum toxic concentration
 E) Therapeutic window

14) Which of the following cepharosporin has the longest half-life?

A) Cefazolin
B) Cefotaxime
C) Ceftriaxone
D) Cefuroxime
E) Cephalexin

15) The mechanism of action of Telithromycin as an antibiotic is that it:

A) Binds to the 30S ribosome unit
B) Prevents cell membrane development
C) Binds to the 50S ribosome subunit
D) Inhibits RNA polymerase
E) Inhibits cell-wall synthesis

16) Which of the following biotransformation reactions is not a phase II reaction?

A) Hydroxylation
B) Reduction
C) Sulfation
D) Glucuronide Formation
E) Acetylation

17) Pharmacology stands for…………..

A) Drug science
B) Drug elimination
C) Drug biodisposition
D) Drug biotransformation
E) Drug development

18) Which of the following drug is recommended as infective endocarditis prophylaxis for high
risk dental procedures in high-risk patients if there is an allergy to pennicilin?
A) Cefazolin
B) Amoxicillin
C) Clindamycin
D) Vancomycin
E) Ampicillin

19) All of the statements regarding the basic principles of antibiotic therapy are true, except:
A) Combination therapy (CT) must be the first choice
B) Narrow targeting and monotherapy are preferable
C) Evaluation of benefits versus risks is important
D) Immediate start of therapy without pathogen isolation may mask diagnosis
E) Immediate start of therapy without pathogen isolation may promote resistant strains

20) Please choose the administration route that is used for administering the antidote to patients
who are poisoned by a chemical
A) Buccal route
 B) Transdermal route
C) İv route
D) Oral route
E) Sublingual route

21) The process by which the active drug is absorbed by the body after the drug- conjugate has
been hydrolyzed by intestinal bacteria is called…………..
A) First-order kinetics
B) First pass effect
C) Enterohepatic cycling
D) Pharmacokinetics
E) Lipid solubility

22) Quantal dose-response curves are used for …………………..

A) To determine the pharmacodynamics of a drug
B) To determine the pharmacokinetics of a drug
C) To determine the therapeutic index of a drug ( BENCE)
D) To determine the statistical variation of the maximal response of a drug
E) To determine the maximal efficacy of a drug

23) Which of the following macrolides may cause potentially fatal hepatotoxicity, potentially
fatal exacerbations of myasthenia gravis and visual disturbances?
A) Azithromycin
B) Telithromycin
C) Cethromycin
D) Erythromycin
E) Clarithromycin

24) Which of the following drugs bind to and inactivate B-lactamases to protect the antibiotics?
A) Methicillin
B) Aztreonam
C) Sulbactam
D) Vancomycin
E) Ceftriaxone

25) Please choose the correct one for spare receptors from the following.
A) Spare receptors may be detected by the finding that EC50 is smaller than KD (BENCE)
B) 99% of cardiac ß receptors are spare
C) Spare receptors activate the effector machinery of the cell without the need for a drug
D) Spare receptors are sequestered in the cytoplasm
E) 1% of insülin receptors are spare

26) A 10-year old child has bacterial pharyngitis and will be treated with Ampicillin. This drug is
…………….. soluble form (protonated) in the duodenum at a pH of 4.5 ?
A) About 90%
B) About 50 %
C) About 99%
D) About 10%
 E) About 1%

27) If when bound to the receptor, a compound gives the opposite effects that are expected, this
compound is called a …………
A) Inverse agonist
B) Partial agonist
C) Antagonist
D) Competitive Antagonist
E) Agonist

28) Although a chemical compound has no vasodilatory effect in-vitro, this effect was observed
in-vivo. Which of the following definitons for this compound (drug) is MOST correct?
A) It is an antagonist
B) It is an agonist
C) It is a competitive antagonist
D) It is a prodrug
E) It is a partial agonist

29) A 51 year old man presents to the emergency department due to acute difficulty breathing.
The patient is afebrile and normotensive but anxious, tachycardic, and markedly tachypneic.
The physician decides that the patient has asthma and wants to change the antihypertensive
drug that he has been using for his hypertension. Which of the following drugs was
discontinued in this patient?
A) Verapamil
B) Lisinopril
C) Losartan
D) Propranolol
E) Captopril

30) ……………. And CYP2C9. Please choose a reasonable explanation fort his phenomenon from
the following.
A) The patient is taking the drug with orange juice
B) The patient is using phenobarbital
C) The patian is Asian
D) The patient is Black
E) The patient is exceeding the recommended dose

31) Which one is wrong ( Sorusu belli değil )

A) Intramuscularly administered drugs have to pass the capillary endothelium before
reaching the blood
B) Orally administered drugs have to pass the epithelium of the gut lumen and capillary
endothelium before reaching the blood
C) Subcutaneously administered drugs have to pass the capillary endothelium before
reaching the blood
D) Sublingual administered drugs have smaller bioavailability compared to the orally
administered drugs
E) The bioavailability of drugs after intravenous administration is the highest compared to
other routes.
32) In which phase of a drug development 100-200 patients have been tested and
information………. Whether it is working is acquired?
A) Phase 4
B) Phase 1
C) Phase 0
D) Phase 3
E) Phase 2

33) Histamine lowers blood pressure, epinephrine however, increases blood pressure. This
interaction between histamine and epinephrine on blood pressure effect is an example of
which type of interaction ?
A) Competitive antagonism
B) Chemical antagonism
C) Pharmacological antagonism
D) Summative effect
E) Physiological antagonism

34) What the drug does to body is called ………….

A) Distribution
B) Pharmacodynamics
C) Pharmacokinetics
D) Bioavailability
E) Absorption

35) Which of the following protein synthesis inhibitors acts by binding to 30S ribosome subunit?
A) Clindamycin
B) Tetracycline
C) Azithromycine
D) Chloramphenicol
E) Clarithromycin

36) Which of the following drugs is a beta- lactam antibiotic?

A) Clarithromycin
B) Chloramphenicol
C) Ampicilin
D) Azithromycin
E) Clindamycin

37) Drug A in a dose of 5 mg produces the same pharmacologic response as 500 mg of the drug
B. Which of the following best describes these results?
A) The therapeutic index of drug B is greater than drug A
B) The toxicity of drug A is more than drug B
C) Drug A is about 100 times more potent than drug B
D) Drug A will have a shorter duration of action
E) Drug A is less efficacious than drug B
38) Process by which the amount of active drug in the body is reduced after administration but
before entering the systemic circulation is called ……………. ?

A) Pharmacodynamics

B) Lipid solubility

C)First order kinetics

D) First pass effect

E) Pharmacokinetics

39)All of the following are criteria for selection of a drug appropriately, except:

A) Beneficence

B) Safety

C) Efficacy

D) Convenience

E) Cost

40) All of the following drugs are cell-wall synthesis inhibitors, except:

A) Amoxicillin

B) Penicillin V

C) Cefixime

D) Vancomycin

E) Azithromycin