Professional Documents
Culture Documents
FRAMEWORK
AND
ACCOUNTING
STANDARDS
A Reviewer
3. Working capital is
a. The group of assets needed to operate profitably.
b. Capital reinvested in business.
c. Unappropriated retained earnings.
d. Current assets less current liabilities.
5. The basis for classifying assets as current or noncurrent is the period of time normally
required to convert cash invested in
a. Inventory back into cash or 12 months, whichever is shorter.
b. Receivables back into cash or 12 months, whichever is longer.
c. Property, plant and equipment back into cash or 12 months, whichever is
longer.
d. Inventory back into cash or 12 months, whichever is longer.
6. Under IFRS, an entity can report interest paid on bank loan in the statement of cash
flows
a. In operating activities
b. Either in operating activities or financing activities
c. In financing activities
d. In investing activities or financing activities
7. Under IFRS, the dividend received from investments can be classified as
a. Either an operating activity or a financing activity
b. Either an operating activity or investing activity
c. Only as an investing activity
d. Only an operating activity
9. Which classification of the cash flow arising from the proceeds from an earthquake
disaster settlement would be most appropriate?
a. Cash flow from operating activities
b. Cash flow from investing activities
c. Cash flow from financing activities
d. Does not appear in the statement of cash flows
10. Cash flows relating to asset held for rental to others are classified as
a. Operating
b. Investing
c. Financing
d. Either operating or investing
a. I only
b. II only
c. Both I and II
d. Neither I nor II
12. A change in accounting policy requires what kind of adjustment to the financial
statements?
a. Current period adjustment
b. Prospective adjustment
c. Retrospective adjustment
d. Current and prospective adjustment
13. A change in accounting policy should be reported as an adjustment to
a. Beginning balance of retained earnings
b. Net income for the current period.
c. Comprehensive income for the current period.
d. Shareholders' equity for the current period.
16. Which event after the reporting period would require adjustment?
a. Loss of plant as a result of fire
b. Change in the market price of investment
c. Loss on inventory resulting from flood loss
d. Loss on a lawsuit the outcome of which was deemed uncertain at year end
17. Events that occur after the current year-end but before the financial statements are
issued and affect the realizability of accounts receivable should be
a. Discussed in the management annual report
b. Disclosed in the notes to financial statements.
c. Used to record an adjustment to bad debt expense
d. An adjustment directly to retained earnings.
20. Which event after the end of the reporting period would generally require disclosure?
a. Retirement of key management personnel
b. Settlement of litigation when the event that gave rise to the litigation occurred
in a prior period
c. Strike of employees
d. Issue of a large amount of ordinary shares
23. The minimum disclosures about related party transactions include all of the following,
except
a. The amount of the transaction
b. Amount of outstanding balance
c. Allowance for doubtful accounts related to the outstanding balance
d. Nature of the relationship
24. An entity that entered into a related party transaction would be required to disclose
all of the following information, except
a. Nature of the relationship between the parties.
b. Nature of any future transactions planned between the parties and the terms
involved.
c. Peso amount of the transaction.
d. Amount due from or to related parties at the end of reporting period.
25. Which should be disclosed as related party transactions in the consolidated financial
statements?
a. Key management personnel compensation
b. Sales to affiliated entities
c. Key management personnel compensation and sales to affiliated entities
d. Neither key management personnel compensation nor sales to affiliated
entities
27. Which inventory method measures most closely the current cost of inventory?
a. FIFO
b. Specific identification
c. Weighted average
d. LIFO
28. In a period of declining prices, the inventory method which tends to give the highest
amount of cost of goods sold is
a. Specific identification
b. Average cost
c. FIFO
d. LIFO
29. In a period of falling prices, which inventory method provides the lowest amount of
ending inventory?
a. Weighted average
b. FIFO
c. Moving average
d. Specific identification
30. In a period of rising prices, which inventory method provides the highest amount of
net income?
a. Weighted average
b. Moving average
c. FIFO
d. Specific identification
31. Which of the following shall not be capitalized as cost of property, plant and
equipment?
a. Cost of excess materials from a purchasing error
b. Cost of testing whether the asset works correctly
c. Initial delivery and handling cost
d. Cost of preparing the site for installation
33. What is the proper treatment of freight and interest on the loan to fund the cost of
imported machinery?
a. Both expenses are capitalized.
b. Interest may be capitalized but freight is expensed
c. Freight is capitalized but interest cannot be capitalized
d. Both expenses are expensed
34. Which term best describes the removal of the carrying amount of the property, plant
and equipment from the statement of financial position?
a. Derecognition
b. Impairment
c. Writeoff
d. Disposal
35. The carrying amount of property, plant and equipment shall be derecognized
a. On disposal
b. When no future economic benefits are expected
c. On acquisition
d. On disposal and when no future economic benefits are expected from the use
of the asset.
40. All of the following factors need to be considered in determining the useful life of an
asset, except
a. Expected usage of the asset
b. Expected physical wear and tear
c. Technical obsolescence
d. Residual value
41. In the case of grant related to an asset, which of the following accounting treatment
in prescribed?
a. Record the grant at a nominal value in the first year and write it off in the
subsequent year
b. Either set up the grant as deferred income or deduct it in arriving at the
carrying amount of the asset
c. Record the grant at fair value in the first year and record it as income in the
subsequent year
d. As an extraordinary gain
42. In the case of grant related to income, which of the following accounting treatment is
prescribed
a. Credit the grant to equity
b. Present the grant as other income or as separate line item, or deduct it from
the related expense
c. Credit the grant to retained earnings
d. Credit the grant to sales revenue
46. If the qualifying asset is financed by specific borrowing, the capitalizable borrowing
cost is equal to
a. Actual borrowing cost incurred
b. Actual borrowing cost incurred up to completion of asset
c. Actual borrowing cost incurred up to completion of asset minus any
investment income from the temporary investment of the borrowing
d. Zero
47. Which of the following could be treated as qualifying asset for the purpose of
capitalizing borrowing cost?
a. Investment property
b. Financial asset at fair value
c. Inventory that is manufactured in large quantity
d. Biological asset
48. If the qualifying asset is financed by general borrowing, the capitalizable borrowing
cost is equal to
a. Actual borrowing cost incurred
b. Total expenditures on the asset multiplied by a capitalization rate
c. Average expenditures on the asset multiplied by a capitalization rate or actual
borrowing cost incurred, whichever is lower
d. Zero
49. Which is not a condition that must be satisfied before interest capitalization can begin
on a qualifying asset?
a. Interest is being incurred
b. Expenditures for the asset have been made.
c. The interest rate is equal to the bank prime rate.
d. Activities necessary to get the asset ready for the intended use are in progress.
51. Which is required for borrowing costs incurred directly attributable to a qualifying
asset?
a. Recognize as an expense in the period incurred
b. Capitalize as part of the cost of the asset
c. Either recognize as an expense in the period incurred or capitalize as part of
the cost of the asset
d. Recognize as a deferred charge
58. Under the equity method of accounting for investments, an investor recognizes its share of
the earnings in the period in which the
a. Investor sells the investment
b. Investee declares a dividend
c. Investee pays dividend
d. Earnings are reported by the investee
59. When an investor uses the equity method to account for investment in ordinary shares, cash
dividends received by the investor from the investee are recorded as
a. Dividend income
b. A deduction from the investment income
c. A deduction from the investment account
d. A deduction from shareholders' equity
60. When an investor uses the equity method to account for investment in ordinary shares, the
investment account tall be increased when the investor recognizes
a. A proportionate interest in the net income of the investee
b. A cash dividend received from the investee
c. Noncash dividend received from the investee
d. A share dividend received from the investee
62. When an entity holds between 20% and 50% of the voting power of an investee, which
statement is true?
a. The investor must use the equity method.
b. The investor should use the equity method unless circumstances indicate that it is
unable to exercise significant influence over the investee.
c. The investor must use the cost method.
d. The investor must use the fair value method.
64. When an investment ceases to be an associate, the fair value of the investment is regarded as
its
a. Cost on initial recognition as a financial asset.
b. Fair value on initial recognition as a financial asset.
c. Fair value on initial recognition as a financial liability.
d. Amortized cost on initial recognition as an investment.
65. The equity method is not applicable under all of the following circumstances, except
a. The investor is a wholly-owned subsidiary.
b. The investor's equity and debt instruments are not traded.
c. The investor is in the process of filing financial statements with SEC for the purpose
of issuing debt and equity instruments in a public market.
d. The ultimate parent of the investor produces consolidated financial statements.
72. The estimates of future cash flows in calculating value in use include all of the following,
except
a. Cash inflows from the continuing use of the asset
b. Cash outflows incurred to generate the cash inflows from the continuing use of the
asset
c. Net cash flows from the disposal of the asset at the end of useful life.
d. Income tax payment.
75. Which of the following conditions must exist in order for an impairment loss to be recognized?
a. The carrying amount is less than fair value.
b. The carrying amount of the asset is not recoverable.
c. The carrying amount is less than value in use.
d. The carrying amount is less than recoverable amount.
76. Impairment loss is reported
a. As direct deduction from retained earnings
b. As a component of discontinued operation.
c. As a component of income from continuing operations.
d. As a change in accounting estimate.
78. What is the allocation of an impairment loss recognized for a cash generating unit?
a. Across the assets of the unit based on carrying amount.
b. Across the assets of the unit based on fair value.
c. First, to any goodwill and the balance to the other assets prorata based fair value.
d. First, to any goodwill and the balance to the other assets prorata based on carrying
amount.
82. Which of the following costs should be excluded from research and development expense?
a. Modification of the design of a product
b. Acquisition of research and development equipment for use on a current project only
c. Cost of marketing research for a new product
d. Engineering cost required to advance the design of a product to the manufacturing
stage
83. Which of the following is not one of the criteria which must be met before development cost
can be capitalized?
a. The entity has sufficient funding to complete the project.
b. The entity intends to complete the project.
c. The entity can reliably identify the research costs.
d. The project has achieved technical feasibility.
88. A research and development activity for which the cost would be expensed as incurred is
a. Design, construction and testing of preproduction prototype or model
b. Quality control during commercial production
c. Periodic design changes to existing product
d. Adaptation of an existing capability to a particular requirement or customer needs
90. Which research and development cost should be capitalized and amortized over current and
future periods?
a. Labor and material cost incurred in constructing a prototype or model
b. Cost of testing equipment that will also be used in another research and development
project
c. Administrative salaries allocated to research
d. Research findings purchased from another entity to aid a particular research project
in progress
91. Subsequent to initial recognition, the investment property shall be measured using
a. Fair value model or revaluation model
b. Fair value through profit or loss model
c. Cost model or fair value model
d. Cost model or revaluation model
92. If the entity uses the fair value model for the investment property, changes in fair value are
a. Recognized in profit or loss
b. Recognized in retained earnings
c. Recognized in other comprehensive income
d. Not recognized
93. If the entity uses the fair value model for investment property, which statement is true?
a. The entity should value the property at cost less accumulated depreciation and
impairment.
b. The entity should report the increase in fair value other comprehensive income for
the period.
c. The entity depreciates the investment property.
d. The entity does not record depreciation.
97. Which disclosure must be made when the cost model is used for investment property?
a. The fair value of the property
b. The present value of the property
c. The value in use of the property
d. The net realizable value of the property
98. Which of the following disclosures shall be made when the fair value model has been
adopted?
a. Depreciation method used
b. The amount of impairment loss recognized
c. Useful life
d. Net gains or losses from fair value adjustments
99. Gain or loss from disposal of investment property shall be determined as the difference
between the
a. Net disposal proceeds and carrying amount.
b. Gross disposal proceeds and carrying amount.
c. Fair value and carrying amount of the asset.
d. Gross disposal proceeds and fair value of the asset.
100. Transfers from investment property to property, plant and equipment are
appropriate
a. When there is change of use.
b. Based on the discretion of management.
c. Only when the entity adopts the fair value model.
d. The entity can never transfer property into another classification once it is classified
as investment property.
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