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FIITJEE Talent Reward Exam - 2022

for students presently in Class 8 (going to 9) (Paper 1)


Time: 3 Hours (9:00 am – 12:00 pm) CODE: 89-1 Maximum Marks: 266

Instructions:
Caution: Class, Paper, Code as given above MUST be correctly marked on the answer OMR sheet
before attempting the paper. Wrong Class, Paper or Code will give wrong results.
1. You are advised to devote 60 Minutes on Section-I, 45 Minutes on Section-II, 30
Minutes on Section-III and 45 Minutes on Section-IV.
2. This Question paper consists of 4 sections. Marking scheme is given in table below:
Marking Scheme for each question
Section Subject Question no.
Correct answer Wrong answer
SECTION – I APTITUDE TEST 1 to 30 +3 0
PHYSICS (PART-A) 31 to 39 +2 0
CHEMISTRY (PART-B) 40 to 48 +2 0
SECTION – II
MATHEMATICS (PART-C) 49 to 57 +2 0
BIOLOGY (PART-D) 58 to 66 +2 0
PHYSICS (PART-A) 67 to 72 +1 0
CHEMISTRY (PART-B) 73 to 78 +1 0
SECTION – III
MATHEMATICS (PART-C) 79 to 84 +1 0
BIOLOGY (PART-D) 85 to 90 +1 0
PHYSICS (PART-A) 91 to 94 +4 –1
CHEMISTRY (PART-B) 95 to 98 +4 –1
SECTION – IV
MATHEMATICS (PART-C) 99 to 102 +4 –1
BIOLOGY (PART-D) 103 to 110 +4 –1
3. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheet. The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your
rough work. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
4. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.
5. Before attempting paper write your OMR Answer Sheet No., Registration Number, Name and Test
Centre in the space provided below.

Note: Please check this Question Paper contains all 110 questions in serial order. If not so, exchange for the correct Question Paper.

OMR Answer Sheet No. : ____________________________________________________________

Registration Number : ____________________________________________________________

Name of the Candidate : ____________________________________________________________

Test Centre : ____________________________________________________________

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Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – I

Section – I
APTITUDE TEST
This section contains 30 Multiple Choice Questions number 1 to 30. Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. Find the next term in the sequence 7G, 11K, 13M, ________.
(A) 15Q (B) 17Q (C) 15P (D) 17P

2. In the following question, find the word which holds same relation with the third word as there is
between the first two words.
Cap : Head : : specs : ?
(A) Eye (B) Cloth (C) Hair (D) Face

3. If ‘+’ means ‘–‘, ‘–‘ means ‘’,‘‘ means ‘‘,‘’ means ‘’, then what will be the value of following
equation ?
(10  5  3 – 2 + 3) = ?
53
(A) (B) 21 (C) 36 (D) 5
3

4. In the following questions, four alternatives are given in which one is odd, from the rest
alternatives, you have to choose that alternative.
Find the odd one out form the given options.
(A) Mile (B) Centimetre (C) Litre (D) Yard

5. A person completes 68 km in 50 minutes via Jeep. Starting 20 minutes, he travels by x km/hr and
next 25 minutes by 2x km/hr and rest time by 3x km/hr. What is the value of x ?
(A) 64 (B) 36 (C) 49 (D) 48

6. Saturday was a holiday for republic day. 14th of the next month is again a holiday for shivratri.
What day was it on the 14th ?
(A) Monday (B) Thursday (C) Friday (D) Tuesday
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7. What is the angle traced by minutehand between 10 : 00 a.m. to 10 : 40 a.m ?


(A) 240º (B) 230º (C) 260º (D) 180º

8. Direction : - One of two statements is given followed by two conclusion/assumptions. I and II. You
have to consider the statement to be true, even if it seems to be at a variance from commonly
known facts. You are to decided which of the given conclusion /assumptions, can definitely be
drawn from the given statements.
Statements :
All lawyers are cheats
Some men are lawyers.
Conclusion :
(I) Some men are cheats
(II) All cheats are men.
(A) If only conclusion I follows. (B) If only conclusion II follows.
(C) If either conclusion I or II follows. (D) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.

9. In the following question, select the number which can be placed at the sign of question mark (?)
from the given alternatives.

(A) 189 (B) 227 (C) 277 (D) 339

10. Manoj is 7 ranks ahead of Anish in the class of 39 students. If Ashok’s rank is 17th from the last,
then what in Manoj’s rank from the starts ?
(A) 16th (B) 23th (C) 24th (D) 15th

11. What was the day on 2nd January, 1901 ?


(A) Monday (B) Wednesday (C) Sunday (D) Tuesday

12. In the following question, select the odd letter from the given alternatives.
(A) B (B) N (C) P (D) W

13. Select the correct combination of mathematical signs to replace * signs and balance the given
equation :
6 * 15 * 10 * 3 * 12
(A)  + =  (B) +  = (C)  + = (D) + – = 
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14. In the recent climate conference in Paris, out of 700 men, 500 women, 800 children Present
inside the building premises, 20% of the men, 40% of women and 10% of the children were
Indians. Find the percentage of people who are not Indian ?
(A) 73% (B) 79% (C) 83% (D) 77%

15. In the question given below, there are few statements followed by few conclusions you have to
take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known
facts and then decide which of the given conclusion logically follow (s) from the given statements.
STATEMENTS :
No train is star
Some stars are man
CONCLUSION :-
1) Some men are trains
2) No men is train
3) All men are stars
(A) None follows (B) only I follows
(C) Only either I or II follows (D) only either I or III follows

16. What number will replace the question mark (?)


13, 13, 15, 27, 47, 67, 97, 153, ?
(A) 325 (B) 225 (C) 252 (D) 352

17. There questions are based on the word problems.


Ravi is the brother of Anuj. Sakshi is the sister of Sumit. Anju is the son of Sakshi. How is Ravi
related to Sakshi ?
(A) Nephew (B) Father (C) Brother (D) Son

18. In the following question, select the related letter/word/number from the given alternatives.
BJNX:CIOW: :DHPV:?
(A) EGQU (B) ELPV (C) E I Q W (D) E I O U

19. Six chidren P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting in a straight line. T and S have two children between
them. There are three children between Q and U. P is to the left of T, U is to the left of S, R is not
on either extreme ends. Which one of them are on extremes ?
(A) TU (B) QS (C) SR (D) PQ

20. The heights of A and B are equal. C is shorter than A, D is shorter than E, but taller than B. Who
is tallest of all ?
(A) D (B) C (C) E (D) B
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21. In a certain code PAGE is written as ‘3%7@’ SORE is written as 8©9@. How is ‘PEAS’ written in
that code ?
(A) 3 @  8 (B) 3 @ % 9 (C) 3 @ % 8 (D) 3 % @ 8

22. Choose the odd one out from the given alternatives.
(A) 5 : 9 (B) 17 : 19 (C) 83 : 89 (D) 37 : 41

23. In a class the number of boys is 20% more than the number of girls and total students are 33. If 5
more boys join the class, then what will be the ratio of number of boys to number of girls ?
(A) 8 : 5 (B) 23 : 15 (C) 2 : 1 (D) 11 : 6

24. In a row of 16 girls, when kanika was shifted by two places towards the left. She became 7th form
the left end. What was her earlier position from the right end ?
th th th th
(A) 7 (B) 9 (C) 8 (D) 10

25. A series is given with one or more number/letter missing. Choose the correct alternative from the
given ones that will complete the series.
A, D, G, J, M, P, S, V, ?
(A) Y (B) X (C) B (D) C

26. If it was Saturday on December 17, 1899, what will be the day on December 22, 1901 ?
(A) Friday (B) Saturday (C) Sunday (D) Monday

27. Select the missing number from the given responses.


7 56 8
9 63 7
12 ? 5
(A) 17 (B) 25 (C) 60 (D) 119

28. Identify the diagram that correctly represents the relationship among woman, mother and widow

(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D


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29. Select from the alternatives, the box that can be formed by folding the sheet shown in figure (X)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

30. Choose the correct mirror image of the given figure (X) from amongst the four alternatives.

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4


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Recommended Time: 45 Minutes for Section – II

Section – II
PHYSICS – (PART – A)
This part contains 9 Multiple Choice Questions number 31 to 39. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

31. A trough full of water is placed on a spring balance. If we put our hand in water without touching
the trough. How will be reading of the balance changed?
(A) It will remain unchanged. (B) It will decrease.
(C) It will increase. (D) It is not possible to predict.

32. Four students were asked to arrange forces due to rolling, static and sliding frictions in increasing
order. Their arrangements are given below. Choose the correct arrangement:
(A) rolling, static, sliding (B) rolling, sliding, static
(C) static, sliding, rolling (D) sliding, static, rolling

33. What can be inferred regarding the limiting frictional force in the following three figures
R R
R

A C
B

mg mg mg

(A) FA  FB  FC (B) FA  FB  FC
(C) FA  FB  FC (D) FA  FB  FC

34. Electrolysis is the passage of …………..through a liquid or a solution accompanied by a


……….changes.
(A) electric current, heat (B) electric current, chemical
(C) heat, chemical (D) chemical, electric current
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35. Two wires P and Q are made from the same material. Wire P and Q has length in the ratio of
18 : 12 and having cross sectional area in the ratio of 4:3. Then ration of their resistances is:
(A) 8 : 9 (B) 9 : 8
(C) 1 : 2 (D) 2 : 1

36. When the length and area of cross-section both are doubled, then its specific resistance-
(A) Will become half (B) Will be doubled
(C) Will remain the same (D) Will become four times

37. The point on the earth surface of earth vertically above the place or origin of an earthquake is
known as
(A) Focus (B) fault
(C) epicentre (D) all are correct

38. A fresh egg sinks in pure water, whereas it floats in saturated salty water. This is due to :
(A) the fluid matter inside the egg-shell
(B) higher density of the pure water
(C) higher density of the salty water
(D) the fact that the egg-shell is made of calcium which is heavier than pure water

39. Physical independence of a force is a consequence of


(A) third law of motion (B) second law of motion
(C) first law of motion (D) all of these laws
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CHEMISTRY – (PART – B)
This part contains 9 Multiple Choice Questions number 40 to 48. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

40. The monomeric unit of natural rubber is


(A) 1, 3-Butadiene (B) Chloroprene
(C) Isoprene (D) Styrene

41. What concentration of carbon monoxide in air leads to loss of consciousness?


(A) 100 ppm (B) 300 ppm
(C) 600 ppm (D) 800 ppm

42. Which of the following is a polyamide?


(A) Teflon (B) Nylon – 6, 6
(C) Terylene (D) Bakelite.

43. Buna – S is a Synthetic copolymer of


(A) Styrene and ethylene (B) 1, 3-butadiene and ethylene
(C) Styrene and 1, 3 –butadiene (D) None of the above.

44. Sulphide ores are generally concentrated by


(A) Froth floatation (B) Roasting
(C) Gravity Seperation (D) Reduction by carbon.

45. The chemical added to LPG to help detect its leakage is:
(A)Isobutene (B) Ethylamine
(C) Methylamine (D) Ethyl mercaptan

46. Which of the following burns without producing a flame.


(A) Camphor (B) Coke
(C) Cooking gas (D) Kerosene

47. Identify the substance which is tough, porous and black. It is almost a pure form of carbon.
(A) Curd Oil (B) Coke
(C) Coal tar (D) Coal gas.

48. One of the advantages of nylon over rayon is that nylon


(A) Is wrinkle free (B) Has low elasticity
(C) Is a natural fibre (D) Is a good conductor of electricity
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MATHEMATICS – (PART – C)
This part contains 9 Multiple Choice Questions number 49 to 57. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

49. If aa = b, bb = c and cc = a, then find the value of abc


(A) –1 (B) 0 (C) 1 (D) None of these

2 2
50. Factorize :  3x  4y   2  3x  4y  3x  4y    3x  4y 
(A) 6x2 (B) 36x2
(C) 6x (D) 36x

51. Which of the following expression is correct?


ab  c bc b
(A) ac (B) 
b a c c
ab  ac b  c ab  ac b  c
(C)  (D) 
ad d d d
3 5
52. If both a and b be rational numbers then a and b satisfying  a 5  b are
32 5
9 19 19 9 2 8 10 21
(A) a  ,b (B) a  ,b (C) a  , b   (D) a  ,b
11 11 11 11 11 11 11 11

3
53. 125  24 is equal to
(A) 5 1 (B) 3 2 (C) 5 1 (D) 5 2

54. Manju added the lengths of three sides of a rectangle and got 44 cm. Jagan added the lengths of
three sides of the same rectangle and got 40 cm. What is the perimeter of the rectangle?
(A) 42 cm (B) 56 cm (C) 64 cm (D) 84 cm
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55. Sides BA and DC of a quadrilateral ABCD are produced as shown in figure then a + b is equal to:
D C

y a

b
x
A B
(A) x  y (B) x  y
(C) x  2y (D) None of these

56. If the price of a commodity be raised by 40%, by how much per cent must a householder reduces
his consumption of that commodity , so as not to increase his expenditure?
1 1 4
(A) 12 (B) 13 (C) 28 (D) 18
4 3 7
57. A number is increased by 5% and then decreased by 5%, the net increase or decrease percent
is,
(A) 4% increase (B) 0.25% decrease (C) 1% decrease (D) None
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BIOLOGY – (PART – D)
This part contains 9 Multiple Choice Questions number 58 to 66. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

58. Sickle is connected to


(A) sowing (B) harvesting
(C) ploughing (D) threshing

59. The productivity of crop plants gets affected by weeds due to


(A) competition for space and sunlight
(B) competition for water and nutrients
(C) Both A and B
(D) None of these

60. Energy is produced in the form of _________


(A) ATP (B) MCPA
(C) AMP (D) 2,4-D

61. The pesticides are considered as hazardous because


(A) they persist in the environment (B) they do not enter the food chain
(C) they affect the target organism only (D) they do not kill natural enemy populations

62. Xanthium and Parthenium are examples of:


(A) Pests (B) Weeds
(C) Insects (D) Crop plants

63. The biggest cell is


(A) Ostrich egg (B) PPLO
(C) Human cell (D) Amoeba

64. Which of the following require more water during initial growth?
(A) Wheat (B) Paddy
(C) Maize (D) Mustard

65. Which of the following act as a garbage disposable system


(A) Golgi apparatus (B) Lysosome
(C) Vacuole (D) Peroxisome

66. In leguminous plants, the root nodules contain a nitrogen-fixing bacterium called
(A) bacilli (B) spirilla
(C) monococcus (D) Rhizobium
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Recommended Time: 30 Minutes for Section – III

Section – III
PHYSICS – (PART – A)
This part contains 6 Multiple Choice Questions number 67 to 72. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

67. There is rubber ball and a stone ball of same size. If both balls are at rest :
(A) rubber ball has more inertia than stone ball
(B) stone ball has more inertia than rubber ball
(C) both have same inertia
(D) less mass more inertia

68. A book is placed on your study chair at rest. Consider the following forces:
(I) A downward force of gravity
(II) An upward force exerted by the chair
(III) A net downward force exerted by the air
Then, which of the force(s) is/are acting on the book?
(A) Only (I) is correct (B) (I) and (II) both are correct
(C) (I), (II) and (III) are correct (D) none of the above forces

69. Pressure can be measured in :


(A) Nm–2 (B) bar
(C) Pa (D) All are correct

70. If a body is allowed to freely fall from a height, its speed increases continuously. It is because:
(A) air does not exert frictional force
(B) magnetic force of earth increases its speed
(C) gravitational force of earth increases its speed
(D) pressure of air force it downward

71. Which of these do not allow the current to pass through it


(A) Brass rod (B) Bakelite rod
(C) Copper rod (D) Iron rod

72. Two statements are given below:


(I) The buoyant force depends on the nature of object immersed in the liquid.
(II) ‘Archimedes’ principle can also be applied to gases.
Choose your option from following:
(A) Statement (I) is true but statement (II) is false
(B) Statement (I) and statement (II) both are true
(C) Statement (I) is false but statement (II) is true
(D) Statement (I) and statement (II) both are false
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CHEMISTRY – (PART – B)
This part contains 6 Multiple Choice Questions number 73 to 78. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

73. Bleaching powder reacts with water to give _____ which kills germs.
(A) H2 (B) O2
(C) O3 (D) Cl2

74. Give the constituent of fluorspar


(A) MnO 4 (B) CaF2
(C) Sn(SO 2 )3 (D) None of these

75. Oxides of non-metals are


(A) Acidic (B) Basic
(C) Amphoteric (D) None of these

76. Which among the following has the highest calorific value?
(A) Natural gas (B) LPG
(C) Coal (D) Hydrogen

77. Which amongst the following is used in the manufacturing of perfumes?


(A) Coal tar (B) Coal gas
(C) Coke (D) Kerosene

78. Among the following groups of oxides, the group that cannot be reduced by carbon to give the
respective metals is
(A) Cu2O, K2O (B) Fe2O3, ZnO
(C) CaO, K2O (D) PbO, Fe3O4
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MATHEMATICS – (PART – C)
This part contains 6 Multiple Choice Questions number 79 to 84. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

79. How many diagonals are there in a pentagon ?


(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 10 (D) 3

80. When the diagonals of a parallelogram are perpendicular to each other and diagonals are not
equal then it is called:
(A) square (B) rectangle (C) rhombus (D) parallelogram

3 3 3

81. Simplify :
a 2
 b2   b 2
 c2   c 2
 a2 
3 3 3
 a  b   b  c   c  a
(A) 3  a  b b  c  c  a  (B)  a  b b  c  c  a 
(C) 3  a  b  b  c  c  a  (D)  a  b  b  c  c  a 

82. ABCD is a trapezium and P, Q are the mid points of the diagonals AC and BD then PQ = ?
1 1 1 1
(A) AB (B) CD (C)  AB  CD (D)  AB  CD 
2 2 2 2

83. If x% of y is the same as 4/5 of 80. Then find the value of xy.
(A) 64 (B) 640 (C) 6400 (D) 16000

84. In a mixture 60 litres, the ratio of milk and water 2 : 1. If this ratio is to be 1 : 2, then the quantity of
water to be further added is:
(A) 20 litres (B) 30 litres (C) 40 litres (D) 60 litres

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BIOLOGY – (PART – D)
This part contains 6 Multiple Choice Questions number 85 to 90. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

85. “Micrographia” is a book authored by


(A) Leeuwenhoek (B) Jan Sammerdan
(C) Robert Hooke (D) Rudolf Virchow

86. Assertion (A): Maize is kharif crop


Reason (R): Maize is grown in rainy season
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation for A
(B) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation for A
(C) A is true and R is false
(D) A is false and R is true

87. When green tomatoes turns red than


(A) new chloroplast are made
(B) chromoplasts are changed into chloroplasts
(C) chloroplasts are disintegrated and get converted into chromoplasts
(D) none of these

88. Match the following


a. Rhizobium (i) Antibiotic
b. Lactobacillus (ii) Soil fertility
c. Penicillium (iii) Virus
d. Rabies (iv) Milk curdling
a b c d
(A) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(B) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(C) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(D) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

89. Which one of the following is/are included in bacterium?


(i) Nucleus (ii) Membrane bound organelles
(iii) Mesosome (iv) 70s ribosomes
(A) (i) and (ii) (B) (i), (ii), and (iii)
(C) (ii) only (D) (iii), and (iv)

90. A cell has mitochondria, ribosomes, smooth ER and other organelles. Based on this information,
it could NOT be:
(A) a bacterium (B) a cell from onion
(C) a cell from Drosophila (D) a cell from Neurospora
Space for Rough Work

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Recommended Time: 45 Minutes for Section – IV

Section – IV
PHYSICS – (PART – A)
This part contains 4 Multiple Choice Questions number 91 to 94. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

91. During purification of metals, the refined metal is obtained at the


(A) cathode (B) anode
(C) surface of electrolyte (D) None of these

92. A block is subjected two forces as shown in figure, where F = 10 N. The mass of block 30 kg. The
acceleration in the motion of block will be

(A) 3 m/s–2 (B) 1.5 m/s–2


(C) 1 m/s–2 (D) 0.5 m/s–2

93. The pressure at the bottom of a tank containing a liquid does not depend on
(A) Acceleration due to gravity (B) Height of the liquid column
(C) Area of the bottom surface (D) Nature of the liquid

94. The potential difference between the two points of a wire carrying 2 amperes current is 2.2 volt.
Then the resistance between these points is (in Ohm)
(A) 4.4 (B) 2.2
(C) 1.1 (D) 0.11
Space for Rough Work

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CHEMISTRY – (PART – B)
This part contains 4 Multiple Choice Questions number 95 to 98. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

95. The main metal used in thermite welding is


(A) Aluminium (B) Zinc
(C) Copper (D) Iron

96. Which of the following is an oxygen-demanding waste?


(A) Pesticides (B) Oil
(C) Grease (D) Domestic sewage

97. Terylene is a popular form of


(A) Polyster (B) Monomer
(C) Plastic (D) Nylon

98. Ordinarily, kerosene oil bums in air with a yellow flame. However, in stoves, it bums with a blues
flame. Which of the following statements explains the above observation?
(A) Complete combustion of kerosene takes place in stoves
(B) The ignition temperature of kerosene is attained easily in stoves.
(C) Stoves are made of iron and kerosene bums with a blue flame in the presence of iron
(D) None of these
Space for Rough Work

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MATHEMATICS – (PART – C)
This part contains 4 Multiple Choice Questions number 99 to 102. Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

4 2
99. A and B together have Rs. 1210. If of A’s amount is equal to of B ' s amount, how much
15 5
amount does B has ?
(A) Rs 460 (B) Rs. 484 (C) Rs. 550 (D) 664

1 2
100. The factors of z2  2
 2  2z  are :
z z
 1  1   1 1 
(A)  z   2   z   (B)  z    z   2
 z  z   z  z 
 1  1   1  1 
(C)  z   2   z   (D)  z    z   2 
 z  z   z  z 

101. ABCD is a rectangle. F is the mid-point of BC. If area BDF = 10 cm 2 then area ABCD is
D C

A B
2
(A) 40 cm (B) 20 cm2
(C) 10 cm2 (D) 80 cm2

102.    
The product of x 2  x  1 and x2  x  1 is equal to
4 2
(A) x  x  1 (B) x 4  x 2  1
(C) x 4  2x 2  1 (D) None of these
Space for Rough Work

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BIOLOGY – (PART – D)
This part contains 8 Multiple Choice Questions number 103 to 110. Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

103. Among the following which is not true about vaccines?


(A) Vaccines contain dead microbial cell or their parts
(B) Vaccines contains antibiotics to prevent diseases.
(C) Vaccine contain special proteins which evoke immune system against disease.
(D) Vaccines contains inactivated micro organisms.

104 Name of the microbe used in making yoghurt is


(A) Lactobacillus (B) Saccharomyces
(C) Clostridum (D) Rhizobium

105. The germ theory of disease was proposed by


(A) Hippocrates (B) Pasteur and Koch
(C) Jenner (D) Garrod

106. Escherichia coli is found in


(A) Human Intestine (B) Parasite on plant
(C) Milk (D) Animal liver

107. Which one of the following lists the structures which in present in both animal and plant cells?
(A) Cell wall, chromosomes, cytoplasm, chloroplasts
(B) Cell membrane, chromosomes, cytoplasm, mitochondrion
(C) Cell membrane, chloroplast, chromosomes, cytoplasm
(D) Cytoplasm, mitochondrion, cell wall, chromosomes

108. Which of the following term is used for raising both plant crop and livestock in farm?
(A) Mixed farming (B) Intercropping
(C) Mixed cropping (D) Crop rotation

109. Which of the following is an incorrect match?


(A) Cilia – Paramoecium (B) Flagella – Plasmodium
(C) Pseudopodia – Amoeba (D) None of the above

110. A pulse crop is grown in the time interval between 2 cereal crops to compensate for the
(A) Loss of phosphate (B) Loss of water
(C) Loss of Potassium (D) Loss of Nitrogen
Space for Rough Work

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SAMPLE PAPER-FTRE-2022-C-VIII (Paper-1)-AT+S&M-21

FIITJEE Talent Reward Exam - 2022


Class 8 (going to 9) (Paper 1)
for students presently in

SAMPLE PAPER ANSWER KEY


1. B 2. A 3. D 4. C
5. D 6. B 7. A 8. A
9. B 10. A 11. B 12. D
13. C 14. B 15. C 16. B
17. D 18. A 19. B 20. C
21. C 22. A 23. B 24. C
25 A 26. B 27. C 28. D
29. D 30 C 31. C 32. B
33. A 34. B 35. B 36. C
37. C 38. C 39. C 40. C
41. B 42. B 43. C 44. A
45. D 46. B 47. B 48. A
49. C 50. B 51. C 52. A
53. B 54. B 55. B 56. C
57. B 58. B 59. C 60. A
61. A 62. B 63. A 64. B
65. B 66. D 67. B 68. B
69. D 70. C 71. B 72. C
73. D 74. B 75. A 76. D
77. A 78. C 79. A 80. C
81. B 82. C 83. C 84. D
85. C 86. A 87. C 88. C
89. D 90. A 91. A 92. C
93. C 94. C 95. A 96. D
97. A 98. A 99. B 100. B
101. A 102. B 103. B 104. A
105. B 106. A 107. B 108. A
109. B 110. D

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