Multiple Choice Questions on Constitutional Law 1, As per President's Emoluments and Pension (Amendment) Act, 2008 (28 of 2008) the 6. present salary of President of India per month (a) Rs. 1,00,000 (b) Rs. 1,50,000 (©) Rs.1,55,000 (@)_ Rs. 1,65,000. 2. Before the Amendment of the President's 7 Emoluments and Pension Act, 1951, in December 2008 the President after his retirement received pension of Rs. 3,00,000 per annum. Now his monthly pension is fixed (@) 40% of his monthly emoluments (&) 50% of his monthly emoluments (6) 60% of his monthly emoluments (@) 70% of his monthly emoluments. z 3. After the new provision made by the Vice- President Pension (Amendment) Act in December 2008 the pension of Vice-President of India is fixed @) 50% of his monthly salary rather than Rs. 20,000 per month. () 45% of his monthly salary rather than Rs. 20,000 per month (©) 40% of his monthly salary rather than Rs. 9 20,000 per month (@) 35% of his monthly salary rather than Rs. 20,000 per month. 4. The Constitution 96th Amendment Act, 2011 altered the language of Oriya in 8th Schedule as: (@) Oriyan oo ©) Orea (©) Orriya (@) Odia. 5. For the first time, the system of appeals from India to Privy Council in England was 11. introduced by the Charter of (@) 1608 (©) 1683 © 1726 17 (a) 1833, Under which plan separation between revenue and judicial function was maintained (a) Plan of 1772 () Plan of 1774 (©) Plan of 1780 (d) Plan of 1782. In Raja Nand Kumar trial, Nand Kumar was charged for the crime of forgery and was hanged in the year 1775. He was sentenced to death, under the Act of (@) 1726 (b) 1724 (© 178 (@) 1753, The Regulating Act empowered the British Crown to establish a Supreme Court at Calcutta by issuing a charter in 1774, It also led (a) the abolition of Mayor's court at Calcutta (©) civil, criminal, admirality, ecclesiastical jurisdiction on the Supreme Court (©) both (a) and (b) (@) toestablish court of record. The sovereignty of the crown was declared ‘over the company’s territorial acquisition of India. It was done by the charter of (a) 1753 (b) 1774 (© 1813 (a) 1833. ‘What is the meaning of ‘lex loci” (a) law of land (b) sovereignty is essential for enacting laws (0) law of the iand is supreme (a) Crown has supreme authority. Lord Cornwallis introduced the ‘Comwallis Code’ in 1793. What are true effects of this Code. (a) the collector was to collect the Revenue only18 (b) the magesterial powers of the collection of Tevenue were taken away (©) the court fees were abolished (@) all of the above. 12, The Plan of 1772 under the territories of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa were divided in districts and in each district a collector was appointed. Such plan was drafted under the Chairmanship of (a) Lord Clive (b) Lord Cornwallis (©) Warren Hastings (@) Lord William Bentick. 13. The Charter of 1753 was introduced to reform some of the provisions of the Charter of 1726. One of the important provisions was: (a) establishment of the Court of Admirality (b) establishment of the Court of Revenue (©) establishment of the Mayor's Court (@) none of the above. 14. The transfer of the company’s Government to the British Crown was proclaimed by Queen Victoria just after ‘Sepoy Mutiny’. It was declared on (@) 1 October, 1857 (©) 1 October, 1858 (©) 1 October, 1859 (@) 1 December, 1859. 15. One of the following was not the main objective of the Indian Councils Act, 1909 (a) increase the size of the legislative Council (b) enlarge the functions of the legislative Councils (©) secure the support of the moderate section in the Indian National Congress (d) decrease in the proportion of the elected members. 16. The recommendation regarding dyarchy which had to be abolished in the Provinces and also proposed enlargement of the Provincial Legislature. It was appointed in the year (a) 1927 (&) 1929 (© 1928 (a) 1931. 17. Which one of the following Act made the Central Legislature a bicameral ic, the Council of States and the Legislative Assembly Multiple Choice Questions for Judicial Service Examination 18. 19. 20. a. (a) Government of India Act, 1909 (6) Government of India Act, 1919 (©) Government of India Act, 1935 (a) none of the above. Under the Government of India Act, 1935, the Federal Court had (a) original jurisdiction only (b) appellate jurisdiction only (©) original, —_ appellate jurisdictions (@) advisory jurisdiction only. and advisory Quit India Revolution was declared by the Indian National Congress after the failure of the (a) Cripps Mission (b) August offer (©) Wavell Plan (4) none of the above. One of the following statements was not among the Simon Commission’s recommen- dations (a) dyarchy to be abolished in the provinces (b) reconstitution of the Central Legislature (©) establishment of the Provincial Public Service Commission for all Provinces Indian Council is not needed to advice the Secretary of State for India. By the Government of India Act, 1919, dyarchy was introduced in the provinces and the federal subjects were divided into two pairs: Reserved and Transferred. Reserved subjects included (a) ecclesiastical @) affairs, public accounts, defence and tribal affairs (b) external affairs, ecclesiastical affairs, defence and tribal affairs (©) external affairs, public accounts, defence and tribal affairs (d) ecclesiastical affair, public defence and external affairs. Quit India movement was declared by the Indian National Congress in Bombay Session of AICC on (a) August 8, 1942 (b) August 9, 1945 (©) July 18, 1947 (d) none of the above. accounts, |26. 27. Constitutional Law ‘The Plan of Lord Mountbatten was accepted by the Congress and the Muslim League. The British Parliament enacted the Indian Independence Act, 1947. It got Royal Assent on (a) 3June, 1947 () 4 July, 1947 (©) 15July, 1947 (@) 18 July, 1947. The Cabinet Mission (1946) did that (@) the Union Constitution be jointly settled by the entire Constituent Assembly including representatives of the States there were to be three groups — Hindu majority provinces, Muslim majority provinces, Bengal and Assam the Union of India would comprise British India and the States the provinces could not opt out of their respective groups. not propose ) (©) (a) Which one of the following made the Indian Legislature bicameral (a) Indian Councils Act, 1909 (b) Government of India Act, 1919 (€) Government of India Act, 1935 (d) Indian Independence Act, 1947. The first attempt at introducing a representative and popular element in administration was made by (a) Indian Councils Act, 1900 (b) Indian Councils Act, 1909 (©) Government of India Act, 1935 (4) Indian Councils Act, 1919. The Government of India Act, 1935 vested the residuary power in the (a) British Parliament (©) Federal Legislature (©) State Legislature (4) Governor-General. Which of the following was not one of the features of Government of India Act, 1935 (@) Provincial autonomy (b) Dyarchy of centre and the provinces (©) Bicameral legislature (4) All India federation, The first Session of the Constituent Assembly was held on (a) 9 Dec., 1946 (b) 26Nov,, 1949 (©) 15 Aug,, 1947 119 (a) 26 Jan., 1946 30. Which one of the following aimed at providing a federal structure for India (a) Indian Council Act, 1909 (b) Montague-Chelmsford Reforms Act, 1919 (©) Charter Act, 1831 (d) Government of India Act, 1935. 31. What was the main stipulation of Government of India Act, 1935 (a) a federation was suggested (b) unitary form of goverment was recommended (©) complete independence was guaranteed (a) dyarchy was made applicable at provincial level 32. The scheme of Morley-Minto constitutional reforms were given effect (@) in 1922 (b) through Indian Council Act, 1909 (©) through Indian Council Act, 1919 (@) through Simon Commission report. 33. For the first time a bid to bring about centralisation in the leg’ under (a) Act of 1900 (b) Act of 1919 (©) Indian Councils Act, 1861 (d) Charter Act of 1833. 34. The amendment procedure laid down in the Constitution of India is on the pattern of (a) Government of India Act, 1935 (b) Government of India Act, 1947 (©) Constitution of USA (@) Constitution of UK. The British, conceded the demand for Partition of India under (a) Cabinet Mission Plan (b) Mountbatten Plan, 1947 (©) Cripps Mission (@) Shimla Pact, 1945. system of “dual government” was ed by the (a) Charter Act of 1813 (b) Charter Act of 1833 (©) Act of 1858 (a) Act of 1909. From which of the countries, Constitution of India has adopted fundamental duties (a) USA 35. 37.120 38. 39. 41. Multiple Choice Questions for Judicial Service Examination (©) Canada (©) Erstwhile USSR (@) UK. The Indian Constitution has borrowed the ideas of Preamble from the (a) Italian Constitution (b) Canadian Constitution (©) French Constitution (@) Constitution of USA. The Indian Independence Act, 1947 came into force on (a) 18 July, 1947 (b) 14 August, 1947 (©) 3June, 1947 (a) 26 July, 1947. Match the following Government of India Act, 1858 Indian Councils Act, 1861 Indian Council Act, 1909 Government of India Act, 1919 1, Absolute imperial control 2. Non-official members in Governor oop General's Executive Council 3. Separate representation of Muslim Community 4. Dyarchy in the Provinces Codes: @ A2 BS Cl D4 () At Bi C2 D3 © A383 B4 Cl D2 @Al B2 C3) D4 Which of the following sought to change the character of Indian Government from unitary to federal (a) Government of India Act, 1919 (©) Government of India Act, 1935 (c)_ Indian Council Act, 1909 (d) Indian Independence Act, 1947. The main recommendations of the Cabinet Commission include (a) formation of Federal Union consisting of British Indian provinces and Indian States (b) a Constituent Assembly to frame a ‘Constitution for India (© an interim government consisting of representatives of various political parties (@ all of the above. . Which one of the following Acts provided for setting up of a Board of Control in Britain through which the British Government could 45. 47. fully control the British East India Company civil, military and revenue affairs in India (a) Regulating Act of 1773 (b) Pitt’s India Act, 1784 (©) Charter Act of 1833 (4) Government of India Act, 1858. ‘The plan of Stafford crips envisaged that after the second world war (a) India should be granted complete independence (b) India should be partitioned into two before granting independence (©) India should be made a republic with the condition that she will join the commonwealth (d) India should be given dominion status. ‘The Act in which for the first time statutory rules were framed to separate provincial subjects from the central subjects was the (a) Government of India Act, 1935 {b) Government of India Act, 1919 (©) Indian Council Act, 1909 (@) Indian Council Act, 1892. Under which one of the following Acts was the Communal Electorate System introduced by the British in India for the first time (a) Government of India Act, 1909 (©) Government of India Act, 1919 () Indian Councils Act, 1861 (@) Indian Council Act, 1892. In the Federation established by the Act of 1935, residuary powers were given to (a) Federal Legislature (©) Provincial Legislature (©) Governor General (d) Provincial Governors. Which of the following are the principal features of Government of India Act, 1919 1. Introduction of dyarchy in the executive government of the provinces 2. Introduction of separate communal electorate for Muslims 3. Devolution of legislative authority by the Centre to the Provinces 4, Expansion and reconstitution of Central and Provincial Legislatures Codes: (@) 1,2and3 (b) 1,2and4 (©) 2,3and4 gg49. 52. Constitutional Law (@) 1,3and4, First attempt at introducing a representative and popular element in the Governance of India was made through (@) Indian Council Act, 1861 (®) Indian Council Act, 1892 (Q) Indian Council Act, 1909 (@) Government of India Act, 1919, 1. Which of the following proved to be the most short lived of all the British constitutional experiments in India (a) Government of India Act, 1919 (b) Indian Councils Act, 1909 (©) Pitt's India Act, 1784 (4) Government of India Act, 1935, |. Which one of the following Acts formally introduced the principles of elections for the first time (a) Indian Councils Act, 1909 (&) Government of India Act, 1919 (©) Government of India Act, 1935 (d) Indian Independence Act, 1947. Which of the following Acts gave representation to Indians for the first time in the legislature (a) Indian Councils Act, 1909 (b) Indian Councils Act, 1919 (©) Government of India Act, 1935 (d) None of the above. The Crown took the Government of India into its own hands by (a) Charter Act, 1833 (b) Government of India Act, 1858 (©) Indian Council Act, 1861 (@) Government of India Act, 1935. In which case, it was held by the Supreme Court that ‘Preamble is the basic feature of the Constitution’? (a) In re: Golaknath case (b)_ In re: Maneka Gandhi (©) Imre: Swarn Singh (d) Imre: Keshwananda Bharti. In which case the Supreme Court held that the Preamble is not the Part of the Constitution? (@) A.K. Gopalan case (©) Berubari case (©) Minerva Mills case (d) A.K. Antony case. 56. 57. 59. 61. 62. 121 Preambleless statute is a rare occurrence. But there are some statutes which do not have a Preamble. Which of the following statutes has no Preamble (a) Government of India Act, 1935 (b) Government of India Act, 1919 (©) The British North America Act (d) Constitution of Switzerland. Sovereignty under Constitution belongs to (@) the President (©) the Parliament (©) the People (d) the Executant, Judiciary and Legislature. The Indian Constitution was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on (a) 25 August, 1949 (b) 26 November, 1949 (©) 26 January, 1950 (@) 15 August, 1947. The Preamble of the Constitution of India envisages that (a) it shall stand part of the Constitution. (b) it could be abrogated or wiped out from the Constitution (©) it does not acknowledge, recognise or proclaim anything about the Constitution (4) ithas a separate entity in the Constitution. In the Preamble of the Constitution equality of status and opportunity refers to (a) public services and public matters only (b) social, political and economic affairs only (©) social and economic affairs only (d) both (a) and (b). Expression ‘socialist’ in the Preamble has been added by taking the views of (@) Marx and Laski (b) Marx and Gandhi (©) Rousseau and Gandhi (4) Gandhi and Hegel. Which of the following statement is incorrect (a) Preamble is a key to the understanding of the mind of founding fathers (b) Preamble embodies the ideals, hopes, faith and aspirations of the people (©) Preamble embodies the intentions of the founding fathers and objectives of the Constitution (d) Preamble of the Constitution has no importance. It is no more than an introduction to the Constitution.122 IEEE EE ONS ‘Multiple Choice Questions for Judicial Service Examination The word ‘socialist secular’ and ‘unity and integrity of the Nation’ were made to our Constitution by (a) 42nd Amendment of the Constitution (b) 44th Amendment of the Constitution (&) Preamble reflects the intention of the members of the Constituent Assembly (©) the Preamble codifies the regular measures to the citizens (@) envisages only liberty in all spheres, (©) 46th Amendment of the Constitution 69. The word ‘Socialist’ in Preamble, aims to (©) None of the above. (a) eliminate inequality in economic and 64. Which one of the following statements is i Lcmreinhgi af ee correct eliminate inequality in politic (a) Preamble of the Constitution is the part of rela abalrs thd 4 the Constitution and can be amended Oe eae cetera nmmesend satay under Article 368 s i (b) Preamble of the Constitution is not a part Oa eee ects of the Constitution and cannot be amended 70. Which one of the following statements is (©) Preamble is the part of the Constitution correct and can be amended only if no change in (a) the Constitution gives more importance to the basic structure is made the society as a whole (d) Preamble can be amended by Parliament (b) the Constitution is individual centric or simply by an objective resolution. individual oriented 65. The Preamble of our Constitution is solemnly (©) ie Constitution s sca economic pater eee a engeeere tae ec , (a) the Constitution has not ignored individual ee nec eae a OL ica but has endeavoured to harmonise the erty of thought, expression, belief, faith individual interest with permanent interest and worship and equality of status and eee ES opportunity (©) Fundamental Rights and Duties 71. In the case of Golak Nath v. State of Punjab, it (© Civil, Political and Economic fundamental ‘was remarked that our “Preamble contains in a rights nutshell its ideals and aspirations’. Who was (d) Parliamentary form of Government. at re F fathew, J. 66, The solemn resolution in the Preamble of our () Krishna Iyer, J Constitution is made in the name of (©) Subba Rao, J. (a) People of India (d) H.R. Khanna, J. (b) Constituent Assembly of free India ; s se pean 72. The Chairman of the Constituent Assembly (d) Indian Independence Act, 1947. () Mjawaharial Netra 67. The Preamble to our Constitution proclaims (b) Jai Prakash Narayan that ‘We, the People of India have established (©) C. Rajgopalachari (a) a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, (d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad. Republic 73. The Chairman of the Draftin; of a , i 1g Committee (b) a Sovereign, Democratic Republic the Constitution was (©) a Sovereign, Secular, Democratic, Socialis, (@) Dr. BR. Ambedkar Republic. ; (e) KM. Munshi (d) a Secular, Socialist, Democratic, Sovereign, (©) Sir. A. Krishna lyer Republic. (A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad. 68. Which one of the following statements is 74. ‘Fraternity’ means a ‘sense of common correct brotherhood to all Indians’ and is the Principle which gives unity and solidarity to Social life’. It was said by (a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (a) the Preamble enumerates the purpose and objectives that the legislation intended to achieve glConstitutional Law (b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (©) Jawaharlal Nehru (4) C. Rajgopalachari . The words ‘Social Justice’ in the Preamble of the Constitution, aims the primary duty of the State (@) to make sure that justice was not based on caste, community, race or religion (©) to work for creating a fruitful environment where a reasonable attitude towards social relations strengthened (©) both (a) & (b) (4) none of the above, The words ‘Socialist’ and ‘Secular’ were inserted in the Preamble by (a) 15th Amendment of the Constitution (b) 39th Amendment of the Constitution (©) 42nd Amendment of the Constitution (4) 44th Amendment of the Constitution . Which of the pairs is correctly matched (@) Republic Head of the State is hereditary Monarch (b)Sovereign Constitution rests on People’s will (©)Democratic Constitution does not recognise legal supremacy of another country (@)Secular State is without any religion of its own. Though the major part of the Constitution of India came into force on January 26, 1950, the Provision relating to citizenship, elections, Provisional Parliament, and temporary and transitional provisions came into force with immediate effect, from (a) 15 August, 1949 (b) 30 June, 1948, (©) 26 November, 1949 (d) 26 June, 1950. . ‘Preamble of our Constitution is of extreme importance and the Constitution should be tead and interpreted in the light of the grand and noble vision expressed in the Preamble.’ justice Sikri expressed the above opinion in J the «9 Groen bar nin (b) Reshuananda Bharti v. State of Kerela (©) AK. Gopalan v. State of Madras (4) Im re: Kerala Education Bill. 80. 81. 82. 123 In accordance with the text of the Constitution, a reasonable restriction in the interest of ‘sovereignty and integrity’ of India can be imposed on the right to (a) freedom of speech and expression (b) move freely throughout the territory of India reside and settle in any part of territory of India (4) carry on any occupation, trade or business. Consider the following statements ©) The Indian Constitution is (1)unwritten Constitution (2)written Constitution (largely based on Government of India ‘Act, 1935 (@) 2and 1 are correct (b) 2and 3 are correct (©) 1and2are correct (4) Land 3 are correct. Democracy and federalism are essential features of our Constitution and basic feature of its structure. This observation was made in S.R. Bommai case by (a) J. A.M. Ahmadi (b) J.JS. Verma (©) J. P.B. Sawant (d) J.S.R. Pandian. The text of the Preamble of the Constitution of India aims to secure (@) fundamental rights to all individuals (b) fundamental duties to citizen of India (©) dignity of the individual and unity and integrity of the nation (4) security of service to Government Servant: In Tinsukia Electricity Company v. State of Assam, the Supreme Court pointed out that the term ‘Socialist’ used in the Preamble to the Constitution of India, means State whose basic policy is to (a) prohibit concentration of wealth and distribute equitability the natural resources (b) prohibit equitably the natural resources (©) distribute equitably the natural resources (4) prohibit concentration of wealth and uplift the living standard of people. The Preamble to the Constitution of India secures “Justice, Liberty, Equality and Fraternity” to (a) all persons124 (b) those who reside within the territory of India (©) allcitizens (@) those citizens who reside within the territory of India. 86. ‘Justice, social, economic and political’ is: (a) guaranteed by Fundamental Rights in the Constitution of India (b) guaranteed to the people by the writs issued by the Supreme Court of India (©) an idea enshrined in the Preamble to the ‘Constitution of India (d) a Directive Principle of State Policy taken into account making enactments. 87. Consider the following statements with reference to the term ‘secularism’: 1. Secularism means that the State has no recognized religion of State 2. Secularism means that the State treats all the religions equally 3. Secularism means that the State regulates the relation of man with God. Which of these statements are correct? (@) 1,2,and3 (©) 1and2 (©) 2and3 (@) 1and3 88. The concept of Directive Principle of State policy is borrowed from ....... (a) Germany (b) France (©) Ireland (@) USA. 89. India has borrowed the scheme of federation i.e. ‘Union of States’ from which country? (a) USA (&) Russia (©) Ireland (@) Canada Which of the following said that “In any event, whatever system of Goverment we may establish here must fit in with the temper of the people and be acceptable to them” (a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar (©) D.D.Basu (d) M.V. Pylee. By which amendment Act ‘Unity of the Nation’ was substituted by ‘Unity and 1. 92. 93. 94, 95. 97. ‘Multiple Choice Questions for Judicial Service Examination integrity of the Nation’ in the Preamble of the Constitution. (a) Forty-second Amendment Act, 1976 ) Forty-fifth Amendment Act, 1980 (©) Forty-fourth amendment Act, 1979 (d) None of the above. Who among the following said that “The new Constitution establishes, indeed a system of Government which is at the most quasi- federal, almost devolutionary in character, a unitary state with subsidiary federal features rather than the federal state with unitary features”. (a) Dr. K.C. Wheare (b) Subash Kashyap (©) Dr.B.R. Ambedkar (@) Dr. Rajendra Prasad. Is the Preamble a part of the Constitution? (a) Itis the part of the Constitution (b) tis not the part of the Constitution (©) Still this question is to be decided by the court (A) None of the above. Which of the following feature is not borrowed from United Kingdom? (@) The Cabinet system of Government (b) The Parliamentary type of Government (©) Bicameral Parliament (d) Written Constitution. The feature ‘power of judicial review’ is borrowed from which of the following country? (@ UK (b) USA (©) Canada (d) Ireland. . Under Article 11 of the Constitution the Parliament passed the _—ritizenship Amendment Act, 2003 (assented in January 2004) which provides the overseas citizenship to the People of Indian Origin in (@) 12 specified countries (b) 16 specified countries (©) 18 specified countries (d) 20 specified countries Which of the following Articles describe about the person voluntarily acq citizenship of a foreign state not to be citizens (a) Article 5 -—Constitutional Law (0) Article7 (©) Article 8 (@) Article 9. 98, The expression ‘every person’ in Article 5 includes (@) aprisoner (&)_ member of armed forces (©) persons living within the territory of India (@) allof the above 99. Under the Indian Constitution it was held in the case Pradeep v. Union of India (@)_ there is only one domicile of the country (b) there are two domicile of the Union as well as of the State (©) incase of Jammu & Kashmir, there are two domiciles one of the Union and other of the State (@). both (a) & (c). 100. Article 6 enshrines the provision conferring Rights of citizenship of certain persons who have migrated to India from Pakistan. Which one of the following provision is incorrect (@) he or either of his parents or any of his grand-parents was born in India as defined in the Government of India Act, 1935 (&) such person has so migrated before 19 July, 1948. (© such person has so migrated on or after the 19 July, 1948, he has been registered as a citizen (@) such person has got married in India. WL The Fundamental rights secured to the individual are @) limited to the State action only (6) meant to protect persons against the conduct of private persons (©) meant to protect persons against the police action (d) all of the above are correct. 102. The term ‘other authorities’ as given under Article 12 includes (@) such bodies as are functioning as agents of the Executive Government only, (b) all authorities are created by the Constitution or statute and persons on whom powers are conferred by law (6) none of the above (4) all of the above. 103. Which of the following are included in. the concept of ‘the State’ under Article 12 a 125 (@). Railway Board and Electricity Board (b) Judiciary (©) University (@) all of the above. 104, Article 12 of the Constitution defines ‘State’ for the purpose of enforcement of fundamental rights. Against which of the following writs cannot be issued for the enforcement of fundamental rights (@) High Court (b) Income Tax Tribunal (©) Delhi Municipal Corporation (d) Port Trust. 105. In light of the definition of ‘State’ which of the following are not States (a) Indian Statistical Institute (b) Institute of Constitution and Parliamentary Affairs (©) Council Research (a) Prathama Bank. 106. For the purpose of fundamental rights an authority must come within the definition of ‘State’. Which of the following are not State (a) ONGC (b) Industrial and Finance Corporation (© NCERT (@) Kerala Legislative Assembly. 107. In the light of the definition of State as including other authorities, which of the following are not States (a) Consumer Protection Society (b) Gram Panchayat, Phoolpur (c) Town Area Committee, Ambala. (A) Punjab Legislative Assembly. 108. An Electricity Board terminated the services of certain employees arbitrarily without giving notice. Which one of the following alternative remedies can be best adopted by the concerned employees (a) the employees can move the High Court by a writ as Electricity Board is included within the definition of the State (b) the employees can make an appeal to the State Government (©) the employees can move the High Court after getting the permission of Electricity Board only (d) the employees can directly approach the Supreme Court for violation of a fundamental right, of Scientific and Industrial126 109. Which of the following is not State for the Purpose of Article 12 of the Constitution (a) NCERT (b) A Nationalised Bank (©)_ Institute of Medical Research, Chandigarh (@) Griha Kalyan Kendra. 110. In which Indian case it has been quoted that “A man’s liberty of movement is regarded so highly by the law of England that it is not to be hindered or prevented except on the surest grounds” “Article 12” (@) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (b) Joginder Kumar case (©) Amarawati case (d) None of the above. T11.In which of the following cases did the ‘Supreme Court hold that an amendment of the Constitution under Article 368 was ‘law’ within the meaning of Article 13 (a) Golaknath v. State of Punjab (b)_Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan (©) Shankari Prasad v. Union of India (@)_Kestroananda Bharti v. State of Kerala. 112. The term ‘State’ as mentioned in Article 12 of the Constitution includes also fa) LIC (b) Indian Law Institute (©) Institute of ~ Constitutional and Parliamentary Studies (@) Affiliated but privately owned and managed colleges. 113. In which recent case it was held that “State” within the meaning of Article 12 of the Constitution of India should have placed full facts before the High Court (@) Nehru Yuoa Kendra Sangathan v. Mekbub Alam Laskar (b) Abhijit Gupta v. S.N.B. National Centre Basic sciences (©) Dhananjay v. Chief Executive Officer, Zila Parishad (4) None of the above. 114. In which recent judgment it was held that if landlord being State within the meaning of Article 12 of the Constitution is required to prove faimess and reasonabiness on its part in initiating proceeding, it is for it to show how its prayer meets the constitutional requirements of Article 14 of the Constitution (a) Ashoka Marketing Ltd. v. Punjab National Bank it ‘Multiple Choice Questions for Judicial Service Examination (b) New India Assurance Company Ltd. v. Ny Neville Wadia (©) Narendra Kumar Maheswari v. Union of indy (@)_ None of the above. 115. The term “law in force” in clause (3) of Arty 13 means (a) only statutory law (©) customs and usages only (©) both (a) & (b) (d) newly formed public order only. 116. Under Article 13(1) pre-Constitution laws, (a) become completely void (b) not void (€) become void (from the date of te commencement of the Constitution) insofa as they are inconsistent with the fundamental rights (d) none of the above. 117. Article 13(2) (a) includes law amending the Constitution (b) does not include a law amending the Constitution (©) states that the State shall not make any law which takes away or abridges the fundamental rights (4) none of the above, 118. The fundamental rights have (a) retrospective effect (b) have no retrospective effect under Artie 13(1) or 13(3)(b) (Q) have only future effect (@) none of the above. 119.In Keshvananda Bharti v. State of Kerala it was held that (a) Under the amended Article 368, al Provisions of the Constitution including those enshrined fundamental rights could be amended (b) Fundamental rights cannot be amended (©) Fundamental Rights have the primacy and supremacy than any of the provisions & ‘the Constitution (4) none of the ahove. 120. Article 14 guarantees equality before law a equal protection of law to ory of (a) All persons living within the territory India (©) All Indian citizens living in India (©) Allpersons domiciled in India (d) All persons natural as well as artificial. oesConstitutional Law 127 121. Article 14 lays down that “State shall not deny to any person equality before law and equal protection of laws.” The expression ‘any person’ means (@) citizens and non-citizens living within the territory of India (©) citizen of India living anywhere (c)_natural persons but not artificial Persons (d) only natural persons. 122, ‘Any person’ under Article 14 denotes @ any company or association or body of individuals both citizens, non-citizens, natural persons and legal persons. (&) any person is preferred as individual only (©) any person includes only the foreign tourists (@) allof the above. 123,Give response to the statements Equality before law under Article 14 of the Constitution with reference to (a) Laws enacted by Legislature (b) Orders passed by the Executive (©). Notifications issued by the Government (@) Laws enacted by Legislature, Executive order, etc. 124.In which recent judgment it was raised that whether section 14(1)(e) of Delhi Rent Control Act, 1958 is ultra vires the doctrine of equality enshrined in Article 14 of the Constitution of India (@) Oriental Insurance Co. Ltd. v. Rajni Devi (b) Satyawati Sharma (Dead) by LRS. v. Union of India (©) Kailash v. Nanhku (4) Sajjan Kumar v. Ram Kishan 125.In which of the following cases, it was observed as Articles 14, 19 and 21 are not mutually exclusive and they jointly aim at reasonableness and fairness (a) Ram Swarup v. Delhi Administration (b) Jagan Nath v. UOI (©) Golak Nath v. State of Punjab (4) Maneka Gandhi v. UOI. 126.On which date the judgment passed which has changed the 50 years old law of Rent and challenged the doctrine of equality enshrined in Article 14 (a) 14th April, 2008 (b) 16th April, 2008 (©) 20th April, 2008 (a) 2nd April, 2008. 127. Article 14 guarantees equality before the law, if any making special provision for a woman or children under Article 15(3) {a) . it will be in contravention of Article 14 (b) it does not contravene Article 14 (©) it depends on the circumstances and gravity of the situation (a) both (b) & (c). 128. Article 15 does not permit the State to make any special provision for one of the following. Which one is that (a) socially and educationally backward classes of citizens (b) economically backward classes (©) Scheduled Castes only (@) Scheduled Tribes only. 129. Article 15(1) prohibits the State to discriminate against citizens on the grounds only of (a) religion (b) race (©) caste and place of birth (@) all of the above. 130. The expression in Article 14 “equality before law and equal protection of law” means (a) equality before law is a negative concept implying the absence of any special privilege in favour of individuals and equal subject of all classes to the ordinary law. (b) equality means, socio-economic balance (©) these two expressions are not applicable to our Democratic Republic (@), violation of these laws will lead to socio- economic imbalance. 13%, Article 15 forbids the classification on the basis of sex, caste, religion, race or place of birth. Which is the correct response (a) classification in favour of women. (b) classification in favour of socially and ‘educationally backward classes (©) both (a) & (b) (a) none of the above. 132. The group of people in the State to constitute backward clas to satiety Article 15(4) is left to (a) the court to determine (b) the Parliament to decide (©) the President of India to decide (d) the State to decide. 133. A law making classification on the basis of the place of residence is (a) violative of Article 15128 Multiple Choice Questions for Judicial Service Examination (©) not violative of Article 15 (©) violative of Article 15, read with Article 14 (@) violative of Article 15, read with Article 14 and Article 16(1). 134. Which of the following is correct (a) Article 15(3) prevents the State from making provision for women and children (b) nothing in Article 15 shall prevent the State from making provision for women and children (© prevents the State to make separate laws for disabled only under Article 15(3) (d) special provisions are made for foreign diplomats under Article 15. 135. Besides the right to equality of opportunity in general terms, Article 16(2)._ prohibits (© sex (@) education. 136. It has been said in many cases viz., Deodasan v. UOL, that Article 16 should be read with (@) Articles 45 and 332 (b) Articles 46 and 335 (©) Articles 15 and 332 (d) Articles 46 and 332. 137. Article 16(4A) which gives power to the State to make laws regarding reservation in favour of Scheduled Castes and Tribes was added by (a) 75th Amendment of the Constitution (b) 77th Amendment of the Constitution (©) 79th Amendment of the Constitution (a) 78th Amendment of the Constitution. 138. Under Article 16, the words ‘any employment or office’ applies vamp (@) only to public employments (b) private employments. (©) both public and private employments (@) none of the above. (a) Article 15(4). 140. Article 19(1) includes (@) freedom of speech and expression (b) liberty of press (©) freedom of propagation of ideas (d) none of the above. 141. Article 19(1)(a) guarantees freedom of ‘Speech and expression to (a) all citizens of India (b) all Indians and foreigners (©) only persons above 21 years of age (a) only persons who have attained 60 years of age. 142. To practise any profession or to carry occupation, trade or business under Article 19(1)(g), dealing in intoxicants is (a) a trade and legal (b) a trade but not legal (©) nota trade and illegal (d) a trade as status varies according to the state. 143. Freedom under Article 19 are (a) sacrosanct and inalienable (b) absolute without any restriction (©) subject to reasonable restriction (d) both (a) & (c). 144. Article 19(1)(d) provides right to move freely throughout the territory of India. This right is. (a) subject to reasonable restrictions for certain and specific purpose (b) absolute and unchallengeable (©) not subjected to any restriction (d) guaranteed and any restriction is infringement. 145. After which one of the following Supreme Court decisions was the special provision for socially and educationally backward classes introduced by an amendment to the Constitution (a) Balaji v. State of Mysore (b) State of Madras v. Champakam Doirajan (©) Devdasan v. UOT (d) Periakarupan v. State of Tamil Nadu. 1146. Which one is not correctly matched (2) Freedom of speech include freedom and expression of press (©) Freedom of include right 1 conscience wear and cany kkirpans by Sikhs (© Right to Personal include right © liberty carry on any trade ‘or business (@) Right to equality includes principles of natural justice. _Constitutional Law 147. Right to work in India is (a) fundamental right (b) directive principle (©) is not a fundamental right but it can be claimed after employment (4) constitutional duty. 148. Assertion (A): In C.B. Muthamma y. UOI, the Supreme Court struck down the provision in service rules requiring a female employee to obtain the permission of the government in writing before her marriage is solemnised Reasoning (R):_ Such__ provision _is discriminatory against women and violates Article 16 and hence unconstitutional Codes: (a) both A and R are true (b) both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A (0) Ais true but Ris false (4) Ais false but R is true. 149, Assertion (A): the principle of equality before law means that there should be ‘equality of treatment under equal circumstances. Reason (R): All persons are not equal by nature, attainment or circumstances. Codes: (@) both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A (b) both A and R are true and R is not correct explanation of A (©) Ais true but R is false (d) Ais false but R is true. 150. Right to life does not include right to die. It was held in the case (a) R. Rathiram vy. UOI (b). State v. Sanjay Kumar Bhatia (©) Chenna Jagadeshwar v. State of A.P. (@) Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab. 151. It has been held by Supreme Court that the appointment of the candidates in excess of the notified vacancies is a denial of fundamental right under Article 14 read with Article 16(1) of the Constitution (a) Kerala Public Service Commission v. Dr. Kanjamma Alex ‘Ashok Kumar v. Chairman Banking Service Recruitment Board (©) State of Karnataka y. A.B. Ongale (d) M.D. Kasekar v. Vishnath Pandu Barde. (b) 129 152, After the Mandal case, it has been observed that ‘The poisonous weed of Casteism has been replanted where it will trouble us a thousand years: each age will have to consider it” (a) Prof. Upendra Baxi (b) N.A. Palkhiwala (©) Ram Jethmalani () P.N. Bhagwati 153. The Supreme Court has ruled that a person belonging to the non-reserved class transplanted by adoption or marriage or conversion or any other voluntary act to family belonging to the reserved class does not become eligible to benefit or reservation either under Article 15(4) or Article 16(4) of the Constitution in (a) Indra Sawhney v. UOT (b) Km. Madhuri Patel v. Addl. Commissioner, Tribal Development (©) Valsamma Paul v. Cochin University (d) M.D. Kasekar v. Vishnath Pander Barde, 154. As far as Armed Forces are concerned the fundamental rights granted under Articles 14 and 19 of the Constitution are (a) not available at all (b) available to armed forces but not to other forces (c) available only at the discretion of the Chief of Army staff (4) available only according to law made by Parliament. 155.Which one of the following statements is correct in respect of State power of reservation (a) caste can be sole criterion (b)_ poverty can be sole criterion (©) both caste and poverty are relevant criteria (d) residence in rural areas and lack of educational facilities can be exclusive criteria. 156. The Press has no fundamental right to publish the proceedings of the Legislature because (a) the freedom of press is not fundamental right (b) the press publishes for project (©) each House of the Legislature is the exclusive master of its proceedings (d) a House of Legislature is a court and can regulate access to its proceedings.130 157. The fundamental right to life emanates from (a) Article 21 and includes right to die (©) Article 19 and does not include right to die (©) Articles 19 and 20 and does not include tight to die (a) Article 21 and does not include right to die. 158. Right to education is a fundamental right emanating from right to (a) freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a) (b) culture and education under Articles 29 and 30 (©) life and personal liberty under Article 21 (4) equality before law and equal protection of law under Article 14. 159. Right to freedom of religion cannot be restricted on the ground of (@) public order (©) security of State (©) health (@) morality. 160. Reservation of seats in educational institutions in favour of Scheduled Castes and Tribes are governed by (@) Article 15(4) of the Constitution (&) Article 16(4) of the Constitution ()_ only (a) (@) both (b) and (a) 161. On which date the Supreme Court upheld the OBC quota in Central Educational Institutions clearing the way for reservation of 27% seats for Backward Classes (a) 10th April, 2008 (b) 8th April, 2008 (©) 1st April, 2008 (a) 20th April, 2008. 162, In which recent case it has been held that status of Scheduled Tribes to be determined with reference to the entries issued by State Government under the said 1950 Constitution order (@)_ Union of India v. S. Krishnan (b) State of Maharashtra v. Milind (©) Palgat jilla Thandan Samudhaya Samrakshna Samithi v. State of Kerala, (a) None of the above. 163. Which one of the under mentioned right is guaranteed to citizens as freedom of religion under Article 19 (@) right to vote Bir, Multiple Choice Questions for Judicial Service Examination (b) right to citizenship (©) right to contest election (a) right to assemble peacefully without arm, 164.In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court rule that harmony and balance in fundamental rights and directive princi is the basic feature of Indian Constitution (a) Keshwananda Bharti v. State of Kerala () Mineroa Mills v. UO (©) Golaknath v. State of Punjab (4) Waman Rao v. UOL. 165. On which one of the following freedoms can reasonable restrictions be imposed on the ground of security of the State (@) speech and expression (b) peaceful assembly (©) association or Union (d)_ movement. 166.In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court rule that the principle of sovereign immunity will not apply to a Proceeding for award of compensation for violation of fundamental rights (a) Blum Singh v. State of Punjab (b) Kasturi Lal v. State of U.P. (©) Rudal Sah v. State of Bihar (A) Nilabeti Bechara v. State of Orissa. 167. The phrase ‘subjected to restriction by any authority’ means (a) itis a restriction which prompts the whims and fancy of the executives (©) it is inconsistent and repugnant to the fundamental rights (©) that the limitations imposed upon a person in the enjoyment of a right should not be arbitrary or of an excessive nature beyond what is required in the interest of the public (4) any type of unquestionable restriction by the authority, 168. Article 19(1)(d) provides right to move freely throughout the territory of India. This right is (@) subject to reasonable restriction for certain and specific purposes (b) absolute and unchallengeable (©) not subjected to any restriction (d) guaranteed and any restriction is infringement. sfConstitutional Law 169,Article 19(1)(g) provides to practice any profession or any occupation throughout the territory of India. With reference to this give correct response to the following @ ) © business in sale of literature including pornography business in intoxicating drugs and liquor business in adulterated foodstuff (@) none of these. 170. Reasonable restrictions on freedom to assemble can be imposed (a) in the interest of sovereignty and integrity &) © (@) of India or public order in the interest of sovereignty and integrity of India in the interest of general public and public order in the interest of general public, unity, integrity and sovereignty of India, 171. Which of the following are prohibited without the consent of President of India according to Article 18 @ (b) © @ conferment of title accepting any title from foreign state accepting any gift or office of any kind from or under any foreign state all of the above. 172. The doctrine of ‘double jeopardy’ in Article 20(2) means @ @) © (d) no one can be tried and punished more than once for the same offence one can be tried several times for the same offence punishment once awarded cannot be enhanced in appeal or revision one can be tried more than once but punished only once. 173. The expression ‘prosecution’ under Article 20(2) contemplates f@) (b) © (d) a person must be accused of an offence the proceedings should not be under a law which creates offences Built is not criterion for prosecution prosecution is possible only after the final verdict from the court. 14, Article 20(3) forbids to compel a person ‘accused’ to say something from his personal knowledge relating to the charge (a) (b) the statement is true even if the accused is not charged with an offence he cannot be compelled to state anything against somebody 131 (©) none of the above (a) both (a) and (c) are correct. 175. According to Article 22(3), fundamental rights 176. 17. guaranteed to arrested persons in Article 22(1) and (2) do not apply to (a) enemy aliens (b) persons arrested or detained under any law providing for preventive detention (©) none of the above (4) both (a) & (b) are correct. Article 20(1) protects against ex-post facto law. Ex-post facto law means (a) law which imposes penalty retrospectively (©) penalty is nullified (©) penalty is enhanced with respect to the law in force (d) the accused is not benefited as it enhances the punishment. Right to travel abroad is a part of ‘personal liberty’ as envisaged under Article 21 (a) the statement is true (b) the statement is incorrect (©) the right to travel abroad is person's personal liberty but within the procedure established by law this article deals with personal liberty in India only and not for the travel abroad. (a) 178, Preventive detention according to Article 22 179. 180. can be enforced (a) only during the time of communal violence (b) during the period of emergency (©) innormal times (d) can be enforced in the democracy with the permission of the President of India, According to Article 23, the following are prohibited (a) traffic in human beings, beggary, slavery and bonded labour (b) monopoly of trade (©) sale of incenses (d) visit to terrorist infected areas. The expression ‘minority’ in Article 30 means any community which is (a) less than 50% of the population of a particular State as a whole (b) 40% only (©) it is determined on the basis of the entire population of the country (4) none of the above.im 182 Multiple Choice Questions for Judicial Service Examination 181. Articles 20-22 relate to the fundamental right _ 187. The following are not included in the right to to life and personal liberty. These rights are available to (@) citizens and non-citizens (b) natural persons as well as artificial persons (© citizen only (@) all persons who have juristic personality. 182. Doctrine of self-incrimination enacted in Article 20(3) means (@) no person accused of an offence can be compelled to be witness against himself. (©) no person accused of an offence can be compelled to be witness against others (©) no advocate accused of an offence can be compelled to give evidence against himself (@) no person accused of an offence can be judge against himself. 183. The protection of Article 20(3) is not available to (a) confession of guilt made in police custody by words (©) confession made through _ intelligible gestures under compulsion (©) confession made through the production of document or thing under compulsion (@) confession of guilt made to a friend who visits the accused who is in police custody. 184.In which case it was held that “taking ‘specimen fingerprints and handwritings from accused is not hit by Article 20(3) as being “witness against himself” (a) State through SPE & CBI, A.P. v. M. Krishna ‘Mohan (©) Jaya Sinha v. State of Karnataka (©) Oriental Insurance Co. Ltd. v. Raj Kumari (a) None of the above. 185. Right to life means (a) right to remain alive (b) right to survive in the world (©) right to have all limbs and faculties intact (@) right to continue to breath. 186.In which case it was held that your prohibition of men below 25 years for the employment in Hotels and Bars is violative of right of livelihood (a) Deepa v. Hotel Association of India (&) RK. Group of Hotels v. Hotel Association of India (©) Amuyj Garg v. Hotel Association of India (@) None of the above. personal liberty (a) Right to go abroad (©) Right to undertrial prisoners not to be detained for unreasonably long period Right to human dignity Right not to be detained beyond 24 hours in police custody. © @ 188. The words ‘procedure established by law’ in 189. Article 21 means @ &) that due process of law must be followed a procedure laid down or enacted by a competent authority the same things as ‘due process of law’ a law which is reasonable, fair and just. © @) Constitution 86th Amendment, 2002 inserted the provision for right to education which provides for that the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children in such manner as the State may, by law, determine. The age of such children should be (@) 7 to 12 years (&) 6 to 14 years (©) 12to 18 years (d) 12year only 190. The following are not included in the right to personal liberty (a) Right not to be tortured (b) Right to free legal aid (©) Right to equality of wages (a) Freedom from arrest. 191. According to Article 22(4) no detention of any person is possible without the intercession of the Advisory Board for a period exceeding (a) three months (©) twomonths (©) twelve months (@) less than two months. 192.It is obligatory on the part of detaining authority to give to a person in preventive detention (a) an opportunity to make a representation against his detention at the earliest. (b) an opportunity of personal hearing (©) an opportunity to be heard through 4 lawyer of his choice . (@) an opportunity to appeal against his detention.Constitutional Law 193, Article 25 guarantee freedom of religion, but it is subject to (a) public order, morality, health and other fundamental rights (©) public order, morality and health (©) public order, morality, health and sovere- ignity and integrity of India (@) public order, morality and secularism. 194, Article 25 guarantees to all persons equally (a) freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practise and propagate religion (b) freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice and propagate religion (©) freedom to profess, practice and propagate their religion (4) freedom of religion. 195, Article 29 guarantees the right to preserve one’s own culture, language, script and right to admission to State maintained or State- aided educational institutions is guaranteed to (a) every citizen (b) every person residing in India (©) allindividuals, citizens and non-citizens (@) all sections of citizens residing in India, in regard to former right and to every citizen of India whether or not residing in India, in regard to latter. 196. Article 30(2) lays down that there cannot be any discrimination in giving aid to educational institution on the ground of institution being managed by the minority (b) institution is managed by the religious or linguistic minority (c) institution managed by religious, cultural and linguistic minority (4) institution is managed by cultural, religious, linguistic minority or majority. 197. Under Article 30(1) the right to establish and administer educational institution belongs to (a) Religious and linguistic minorities (b) All people of India (©) Minorities as well as majorities (a) All citizens of India. 198, The remedial fundamental right, the back- bone of fundamental rights guaranteed under Article 32 is lable to (a) Indian citizens only (b) Indian citizens as well as foreigners 133 (©) all persons, natural or artificial, citizens as well as non-citizens. (d) all natural persons, Indian citizens or non- citizens. 199. For the enforcement of any of the funda- mental rights (a) a writ petition must be first moved in the High Court (b) writ petition cannot be filed directly in the Supreme Court (©) a writ petition can be directly moved in the ‘Supreme Court, (d) a writ petition can be directly moved in the Supreme Court with its leave. 200. The Supreme Court's power to issue writs under Article 32 for the enforcement of fundamental rights (a) _is restricted to the issuance of five writs (b) is not restricted to five writs, It has power to issue any order or directions as it may deem appropriate in a case (©) is restricted to the issuance of writs of mandamus and prohibition (d) is restricted to a traditional common writs 201. Under Article 32 a writ petition can be made to the Supreme Court by a person who himself has suffered only. Under which of the following, a relative or friend of a person aggrieved can file a writ petition (a) Habeas Corpus (b) Mandamus (©) Certiorari (d) all of the above. 202. The right guaranteed under Article 32 can be suspended (a) by the Parliament (b) by the State Legislature (©) by the Supreme Court of India (4) when proclamation of emergency is in operation. 203. Petitions to the Supreme Court under Article 32 are subject to the rule of Res judicata except (a) Quo Warranto (b) Habeas Corpus (©) Certiorari (a) Prohibition, 204, The right given by Article 32 (a) cannot be abrogated by the Act of Legislature4 ©) cannot be abrogated unless the Constitution itll is amended (0) canbe altered by the State Legislature (4) one ofthe above 208. The Supreme Court has power under Article {32 0 lstue directions or orders or wits in the ature of habeas corpus, _ mandarns, Prohibition quo warrante and crtiorat @) only when there iw a question of enforcement ofa fundamental right ‘when there is a” question of intemal » disputes among communal groups when there Aisputes When “there sa question of riotous station question ot election lowing cae he petition only by Inthe cate of habeas (4) ‘Trilotchand Molchand v. 8. Munaht (©) oginder Nath: UOT (€) Rabindranath Boxe v. UOL (8) Upendra Baxi. State of UP, 1 be Imposed on fling of petitions ant so the Indian Limitation Act bpplies there is no lower and upper mit. The party aggrieved must move the court atthe aries posible time and it isthe discretion of the ‘court to decide whether It it reasonable delay o not (0) time limit can be Imposed by counc of 208, According to Article 30 ‘minorities’ have the tight for the administation of ‘education Institutions (@) Which have been established by them only (@) which “not ‘necenarly have. not been tablished by them but Belong to thle Feligion o language ‘Article 30 does not speak about minority but deals with Scheduled Tribes only (@) none of the above According to Articles 25 and 26, what constitutes an essential part of religion or religious practice ts to be decd by the cout ‘on the basis of © (@) doctrines of particular religion _Madtiple Choice Questions or Judicial Sercice Examination (©) by referendum (@) bymajority . (a) by convening religious meeting. aunty ie tes reel sShotcae {G) connote amended all L. Right of disabled employee as “~~ Bee detetd oy be pees a Siactagiate neers a (0 Set Per Uno ea a @ Sine scg Tonk nox : rg rd 0) teem Se Hig (None ott ove {2m the case of Peoples Union for demoengy Has etor = eee ene waurerancen i (b) the decision in this case did not Ve : tose ne wid bar ane a 9 Maem com ames with human dignity, oo (a teeth 213, The protection given to the accused und Teich "Ses” pas “cone viet eld ein een {nd tetimonil evidence (the protection given under Arie to traced by he save then (0) the prosecton ven under Ae A ttened by he above an Se (0) wines mare oer tan sca Sthom proton ent pen (€) tone ol he above : 2 ease of AK. Gop Stat of Mad te Frevenve Detention” Ac, 190 a ed onic with eto Aree (a) Aries and 7 (Aries 1 ond 21 (0) Arties and 3, (@) Arties and 22 21S. Which seton of Preventive Detain A 1950 wn declared re re by the Spa ‘Court in case of AK. Gopalan v, See Madras (@) Arte 17 (©) Atti 11 Constitutional Law om Be te weet natn rth a, w recaaaeni ae O ‘Gawande ee Oe cate aay § Neiscooene 20: Aeeeal lerty of cise. net only ta Prceutive action but also from legislative sation. The case Is (a). Mineroe Mis (@) AK Gopalen (0) Manca Gandhi (ay Reownarda Bhar Inder Indian Constitution which I not a 2m pecic ground on which the State can place festrction on freedom of religion, (a) public order 10) morality (@) soca Justice (@) heal Arringe the decisions of the Supreme Court 7H on Tandamenial Right relating to. personal ery in comecchronologia rquente {Q) Manes Gandhi. UOT (2) ADM Jaupur Shi Kant Shute 8), AK Goplonv Stato Madras a ® (@ @ 123, 228. An accused person hasbeen provided with the following protections by Conatttion of Ind (1) expos fact law ) safeguard against arest and detention ©) double jeopardy Cote: « 1 © 312 @ 213 221, Which one of the following pale ls comecty 8 pale ly 1 3 n 32 () We ot available against pri- Habeas Compu ‘ate individual as well . ee 135 0) Writ of available against sub- Que Werranto Ordinate courts only (© Waitor available against auto- Cerin ‘pomous bodies ony (@) Watot available against pubic Prohibition servants ony. ‘2.Which one of the following paire is not Includes the pring ples of natural justice Includes right to vetoed {includes protection against ex post facto [vs neil maters Includes right to consult and tobe Setended by lawyer ‘of one'sown choke 223. Assertion (A) An accused person cannot be ‘compelled to give his thumb impression Reason (Rs An accused person cannot be compelled to be witnes against hinwelf (a) both A and Rare true (©) both A and Rae false (©) Alstrve but Rs fae (@) Ais fase but Rite 24. When a wt i Issued to an inferior court oF lebunal "on "ground. of exceeding the Jurisdiction or acting contrary tothe rales of ‘natural justice, iscalled a writ of (@) Certo () Mandemus (© Quo Werranto (4) Habeas Corus ‘225. Assrtion (AX A Habeas Corpus wet petition dismissed by the. Supreme Court can be ‘dmited by High Coun under Article 236 of the Conatlatlon Reasons (Rn exerlsing wt jurisdiction the ‘powers ofthe Supreme Court and High Court (@) both A de R are tue and R is correct ‘explanation | () both Ae ate true but Ris nt the correct ‘explanation o | (0) Alntruebut Rs false 4) Aisfalebut Ristrve136 226. The observation that Article 30(1) is not charter of mal-administration was made in the case of (a) Saifuddin v. State of Bombay (©) Mancka Gandhi v. UOT ©) St Stephen's College v. University of Det (@) Mitta'v. OL 227. Match the following, (2) ADM. Jebalpurv.Shutta (©) MSM Sharma v.S.K. Sinha (© RC Cooper. UO! @ RK Gag uot ‘Bearer Bonds case Habeas Corpus ease Bank Nationalisation case Searchlight case Codes: @ A2.B1,c4,D3 ©) A4 B41 DS (© AZB4CLDS (@) A2B4.C3,D1. 228, Match the following, (@) Right to live with human dignity en shined in Article 21 derives life breath from directive principles of State policy clauses (e) and (of Articles 38,41 and 42 Speedy trial is an essential ingredient of st, fair and’ reasonable» procedure guaranteed by Article 21 In PLL, a total stranger toa trial cannot be Permitted to question the correctness of Conviction ofthe accused In case of helplessness or disability, any member of the public can maintain an allocation for an appropriate order, irection or wnt, if there i violation of constitutional night 1. Bhagwati Jin Bandhua Mukti Morcha v.uor 2. PN. Bhagwati J. in Hussamara Khatoon v Stat of Bihar 3. Ahmadi Jin Simran Singh v. UOL 4. Bhagwati J-inS. P. Gupta v. UOL ® 0 @ Codes (@) A2,B4,C3,D1 (9) A1B2.C3,D4 (@) A1B2,C4,D3. 9. Which of the following writs can be issued only against the judicial or quasi-judicial authorities ‘Multiple Choice Questions for Judicial Service Exxmination (0) Mendon (Hates Corus {© Corona (8) Quo Warrno § 220.The appropriate wat issued bythe c Juste appointment of s person to Sie hat of {@) Prohibition {8) Quo Warranto (0, Certons | {Mandamus 231. Match the following (0) Rightto go abroad | {0 Pasoners ight (0) Death Penalty | {2) Government abity 1. Blom Singh’ case | 2 Manca Gandhi's case 3. Racin Sings cave 4 Sum Batra case uty ‘| Cates ( A2,84,ca,03, | ) £482.03. D1 (9 A2B4.C3,D41 y (@ A482.C1,D3 232 The right 10 establish and admin “ducationa instations tothe minor ‘icles (@) isan absolute right so it i fee from sp regulation (©) can be regulated in the interes of instruction, discipline, health, saniaon ‘morality & public order (0 Babes ot El rr the purr A 0, 233, Which among the following isnot Fundamental Right: (a) right to strike (©) right against exploitation {€) right to equality (@) right to freedom of religion. 234. The right to property was dropped from ti lst of Fundamental Rights by the: (a) 24th Amendment (®) nd Amendment (©) 44th Amendment (@) none ofthe above. 235. Which one of the following inde Rights has been a subject of maxi ‘controversy and litigation (@) right to freedom of speech a Constitutional Law to property eb contintiona remedies {@) sight to religion pawhich one of the following is not a 2 andamental Right (0) ght 0 property {B) might to assemble peacefully © aN move yout te (a) ght to Consittonal Remedies, en Which one of the following Fundamental Rights was decribed by Dr BAR Ambedar as the “heart and soul of the Constitution” (a) nightto property (©) ight to religion (©) ight to Constitutional Remedies {@) allofabove 238 Which one of the following Is bulwark of personal freedom: (@) Mandamus (0) Habeas Corpus (9 Quowurrano (@) Cortona. 2AWhich one of the following Fundamental [Rights are restrained by Preventive Detention Aa (a) ight to religion (0) ight to constitutional remedies (6) ightto freedom {@) sightto equality, 20. Which one of the following has been dropped from the lst of personal fredome enaheined in Aticle 19 ofthe Constitution, (@) freedom to assemble peacefully without (&) freedom to acquire, hold and dispose of Property (© freedom to reside and settle in any part of the country (@) freedom to carry on any profession, ‘occupation, trade or business 241. The Right agains exploitation prohibits: (@) trafic in human beings (©) bepgar (© employment of children below 14 years in factories, mines, ee (@) allof the above, 242. Fundamental Rights of Indian citizens were: (@) enshrined in the Original Constitution 137 (©) outing nan Act pase by Pashament in (©) incorporated in the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment (@) added by 4th Amendment 243. The Supreme Court may refuse to entertain a Delton prestnied to itunder Ace 32 of the Cetin Ge elect fendamentlighton the ground that (@) the petition iwolves the determination of Alpeted questions of act (&) the petitioner has fled to furish security ts ete by a rule made by the Supreme Court under Arce 145 ofthe Contin the petitioner shoud hve ist. the High Court under Aricle 256 of the Constittion the petitioner as already 2 the High Court under Amide 226 of the Constittion and his pettion has, been rected bythe High Cour on mer 2M. A tlephonic conversation was secretly tapped ty the police wile the neue wes hag Conversion with hit fiend. Can thir ay bass for riting he lave ally at (0) etinges the fandamental ight agar testimonial compulsion under tide 50) ofthe Contin © tegen idaho povecy ander Ate 19 of te wit © @ (@) there is no constitutional bar to the prosecution. 245. corporation is ‘State’ for the purpose of ‘enforcement of fundamental rights {E (a) itis a body registered according to law ©) it i an agency of instrumentality of Government (0, ithas to report to Government (@) the Government service rules are made applicable to its employees 246, Match List [with List T and selec the comet answer from the Codes below the List, Listl A. Balaji. Stat of Mysore ‘BL Mancka Gand v. Union of India C._ Rew, Stains v. Stat of MP