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    10 views72 pages

    Apollon Review Questionnaire

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    Jules Filly

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    © All Rights Reserved
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    10. 11. 12. 13, 14. 16. 17, 18, 19, = CLINICAL CHEMISTRY By Apollon et.al. CHAPTER 1 - Chemistry Questions Clinical Chemistry Questions A volumetic pipette has an accuracy of: A, 1:10 B. 1:100 ..4:500 D.1:1000 ‘* pipette with a bulb Clase to the delivery ip is used for viscous fluids and is called a: A” Mohr pipette ©. Lewis-Dahn pipette B. Volumetric pipette ‘The etched rings on the top of a pipette means: ‘A. The pipette should be allowed to drain ana the last drop should remain in the pipette: 8B. The last drop is to be blown out after the pinettes drains G. The pipette is color coded D. The pipette fs a volumetric pipette ‘Standard solution from which 99.95% of the chemical can be retrieved are referred to as: 4, Secondary standards ©. Lyophilized standards 8, Primary standards D. Preset standards \When preparing solutions: 4. A percent solution can be prepared from a volumetric solution 5. A volumteric solution can be prepared tron’ a parcent solution . A triple beam balance and cylinder are necessary in \he preparation of any type of solution ©. Only an analytical balance.can be used in solution preparation = 4 solution in which the molecules of solute in solution arv in equilibrium with excess undissolved molecules is referred to as: D. Ostwald-Folin pipette A. Dilute B, Concentrated ©, Saturated D, Supersaturated Pure water has a pH of: A 68 8.7.0 ota 0.90 41x10 *N solution of hydrochloric acid (HCI) has a pH of: A 8.6 c.8 0.12 The statistical erm that most Specifically describes anaiytical precision is the: ‘A. Mode 8. Mean © Median D. Coefficient of variation Quality control shauld be used with all procedures to determine: A. Accuracy B. Reliability ©. Precision. Coefficient of varation DELETED ‘A procedure has a 2 SD variation from a mean value. How many values from a normal population will the 2SD include: A. 68.27% B, 84.76% C. 95.45% D, 99.73% Material with physical and chemical properties closely resembling the test specimen and cantaining Concentrations of the substances being measured is known as: A." Control B, Standard ©. Calibrator D. Reference solution Optical density, according to Beer's law, is A. Inversely proportional to the concentration 5 Directly proportional to the concentration C. Proportional to the square of the concentration D, Proportional to the square root of the concentration £ The ditterence between serum and plasma is that serum does not contain: A. Thrombin 8. Fibrin C. Fibrinogen ©. Calcium ‘Two control sera are desirable for each general chemistry procedure. Which of these combinations would be appropriate? ‘A, Mean of normal range and abnormal (high) _G. Low normal range and abnormal (os) B, High normal range and abnormal (high) D. Abnormal (ow) and ebnorrnal (high) ‘Sodium fluoride is used in specimen collection to: “ ‘A. Prevent glycolysis C.Chelste calcium =, B. Prevent conversion of prothrombin to thrombin D. Bind calcium ‘The concentration of oxalate recommended to be used as an anticoagulant, in mgimL blood, is: A 12 B24 C.46 0.68 Etnylenediamine tetr A, Chelating caldum B. Preventing conversion of prothrombin to thrombin C. Forming an insoluble complex with calcium D. Binding magnesium jcetic acid (EDTA) works 2s anticoagulant by: TT TBO THE Venipuncture site for a routine puncture is commonty cleaned with: A. 904 alcohol ©. 70% alcohol 8. BETADINE (Purdue-Frederick) 1D. Quaternary ammonium compounds 21. The one precaution to be followed with a s) ecimen for Lilirubin determination is to: A. Refrigerate ©. Protect from ight B. Cap and refrigerate D. Freeze immediately 22, Which of these substances cannot be presened by freezing? A. Blood urea nitrogen ©. Lactic dehydrogenase 1h Creat inate taney 1) Prostate went phergh J Sovutn moe stout bee dicate ab the sane tate en sucee”aves tay fo VOL ‘A. Diumal variation ©. Effect of mevication F. Chance of consumption of dietnry iron stunt abuneption ot hon 4 What of the prote able in wats A. Albumin B. Beta globulins C. Gamma globulins D. Histones 25, The alpha-amino acids constitute the basic bi iiding blocks of proteins, The amino acids are joined together to form a chainlike structure through: ‘A Disulfide bonding —_B. Hydrogen bondina_C. Covalent bonding _D. Peptide bondin 26, Which of the tour elements in p.oteins differentiate this class of substances from carbohydrates and lipids? A. Carbon B. Hydrogen ©. Nitrogen D. Oxyger 27. Which amino acid cannot rotate potarized lig’? A. Cystine B. Glycine C. Histidine D. Thionine 28. Proteins may become denatured when subjected to mechanical agitation, heat, or extreme chemical treatment. Deriaturation of proteins refers to an: ‘A. Alteration in primary structure C: Alteration in tertiary structure B. Alteration in secondary structure D. Increase in solubility 29, The hemoglobin measurement technique employed for | ood donors is A. Refractive index . Flotation technique of Philips 8. Hemoglobin electrophoresis . Falling drop technique 0, The ration of velocities of ight in two different media refurs to the: A. Density gradient , Rotation of polarized light B. Refractive index . Ultraviolet absorption 31, The most anodic protein on electrophoresis at pH 8 6 is: A. Alpha, globulit B. Albumin C. Beta globulin D. Gamma globulin 32. Proteins are dipolar or zwitterion compounds containing both positive and negative charges. When a p-otein is ut its isnelectric point, the proiein sill have A: A Not sew eusnye 1s pilot 20 Not puniiy 1B Hot ngative chaiue 33. Svedberg (S) number refer to protein. A. Electrophoresis B. Flotation ©. Precipitation D. Utteacentrifugation 34 The macroglobulins bolong to what sodimentiion class * A 488 U. 1.08 v. (2b v. 19.08 35, AS urine is heated, a precipitate appears al 60 C and disappears al 100 G The substance present i: a A. Macrogiobulin B. Cryoglobutin . Bence Jones prote i D Protease 36. The process of separating albumin from globulins using sodium sulfate is know" as: A. Floatation B. Protein precipitation C. Salting out 0. ‘tracentrifugation ‘37. The conversion of protein nitrogen contant to protein content depends on the factor: A 6.25 8.6.54 C.663 D618 38. Which of the following is NOT true of the biuret reaction? A Fallows Flo's law fer a measonable ainge of pratolry 11 Depots ni aie promendes Gf at inant byes poids Muka C. Is relatively free from interference by lipids and hneiogiobia D. Is insensitive to the low protein levels of uri 39. In acute renal failure which nonprotein nitrogen rises the fastest? A. Uric acid 'B. Blood urea nitrogen ©. Creatinine D. Creatine 40. Why is bromeresol purple the proferrod in! cistor for albanien dyes tadiig twetanen? A. {lends itself to manual and automated procedures best Bl never binds with alpha and bea glotaulins ‘Lean be employed with heparinized plasan D._ There is less interference from pigment 41, Which reagent is employed in the serum prot in determination? A. Molybdenum blue 8, Ferriferrocyanide —C. ResorcinolHCl_—_O. Biuret 42. Hemotyzod serum should not bo used for total protwin because A. Hemogiobin ts absorbed at the same wavelength as protein of biuret regent Of e:.vated protein amounts in red biood cells as compared to serun C_ Hemoglobin reacts wita biuret reagent 0 Thhe vats will ee fel lowwere 43 Turbidity in serum is associated with the presence of x A Cholesterol B, Chylomicrons C. Free fally acids. Total lipids 44, Clycoproteins and mucoproteins are usually bound to: A. Lactose and sucrose C. Galactose and mannose B. Lactose and maltose ©. Glucose and sucrese 45, Ail ofthe following are glycooroteins, except: A. Cenuloplasmin B. Follicle stimulating hormcne C. Fibrinogen. Cryaglobulin 46, 47. 48, 49, 51 64 65, 66. 67 ‘Which of these statements is not applicable to mucoproteins? ‘A. They are proteins complexed with carbohydrates 8. They are related to alycoproteins C. They contain more than 4% hexosa-nine D Hormones and coagulation proteins aré included in this class How many immunoglobulin classes are currently recognized? A. One B. Three ©. Four D. Five Whe: performing an immunoglobulin electrophoresis, there must be present: A. Excess antigen B. Excess antibody and constant trough distance between antibody and ant'gon ©. Acetate matrix D._Direst current A normal serum protein electrophoresis has approximately 80% albumin and 5-10% cach of the other 4 fractions. {fan electrophoretic pattern shows. 30% albumin, 4-10% of other fractions except gamma which is 45%, you would expect what condition to exist in the patient? A. Cirhosis, . Inflammation . Monoclonal gammopathy 1D. Chronic lymphocytic teukeniia Which of the following applies to cryoglobuiins?, ‘A. They are temperature-sensitive proteins B. The blood specimen should ciot at room temperature C. The sample unit must remain at room temperature so that precipitation can be observed D. Only qualitative tests are available ‘Which: of the fotiowing statements is true of albumin? A. Compared to globulin, it makes up the lesser portioa of total protein Its size provents its passage through even a damaved glomerular barrier ©. this produced in the iver D. Clinical problems ara usually related to high serum values To measure urinary protein you can use A. Biuret reagent ©. Bromeresol purple B. Biuret reagent with trichlorcacetic acid pretreatment of urine _D. Bromeresol green ‘An elevated creatinine valve is most likely to be accompanied by which of these values? ‘A, Normal uric acid ©. Normal blood urea nitrogen B. Elevated uric acid, 10x creatinine value D. Eievated blood urea nitrogen, 10x creatinine value The -onversion factor for blood urea nitrogen to rem is a wala Cala pass by the urease methad, ulea is anzymatically converted to. A Ammonia 8. Carbon dioxide —_€. Nitrogen 1D, Amino groups Untreated ne cai bee sed foe the deters nition Fas by Hie diacetyl snoioninny nah ben ie 4 Dialyst 1) any autoarualy or eenioves inte, foray Substances B. The method is not measuring ammonia ©. The increased temperature destroys the ammonia D. Zinc does not interfere Urinary creatine may be elevated in which of the follawi ig? A. Kidney failure B. Cirrhosis of the liver . Muscle destruction. Intestinal blockage ‘The measurement of creatinine is based on the formatinn of a yellow-red color with: A. Alkaline picrate B. Ehrlich’s rayent —C. Phosphomolybdate D. Titan yellow The classic creatinine reaction is that ot A date B. Lloyd © Kielant D.Nessier The specificity of the Jaffe reaction can be en.nanced by ‘A. Adsorption with Lloyd's reagent C. Plior treatment with urease B._ Boiling D. Prior treatment with uricase A diana A A. AMlhutosclorosts ©. Aas ba The most commen reagent employed in uric acid methadolocy by alkuline oxidation x A, Potassium penmanganate ©. Potassium persulfate 5 Phosphotungstic acie D Hydrachtowe weit (IC) The urtcase method for uric acid assay depends on: Ultraviolet absorption peak al 290 nm bolare and alter treatment with uricase h volved! git alter uricina hesitant c. 1 aabswiepiion aitlor uric thet D. Measurement of biue-violet color The most precise method for amino acid detvcmination is: A Iyothormnal distillation © Alkaline oxidation B._Gasometric ninhydrin reaction B. Color development with Blihetot reagent The urea clearance test is an indication of A. Overall kidney function ©. Tubular function . 8. Tubular reabsorption D. Glomerular fitration The creatinine clearance is based an the assumption that creatinine: A. Passes into the uttrafitrate C. Is converted to creatine B._Is retained! in the blood D. Is passively realsorbed by the kidney tubule Which of the clearance tests offers the most accurate measure of glometular filtration? A. Inulin 8. Creatinine ©. Urea . p-aminohippurete (PAH) "7 SB" Whiiei Of the Clearance tests offers the best measure of tubular function? 68. 70. n. 72 73, 74. 75. 78. 7 78 79. 80, at 82. 83, 85, 86, 87, 88, 89. 80, A. Creatinit B. Inulin C. p-aminohippurate (PAH). Urea A creatinine clearance test is performed. The 24-hour volume of urine is 770 mL; serum creatinine is 2.0 mg/dL ‘and urine creatinine is 240 mgidL, What is the clearanice expressed in ml plasma cleared per minute, assuming average body surface? A 60 B.384 c.600 D.924.0 The usual determination of osmolality Invalves measurement of A. pGOs and pO» B. Na” and K” ©. Electrolytes D. Freezing point depression Which of the following is true of blood glucose? A. The renal threshold is 200-240 mg/dL 3. Once excreted inthe glomerular irae, glucose must be excreted in the urine G, A high blood glucose must be associated with a positive u'ine glucose 5. In the glucose tolerance tes" (GTT), one may be faced with a normal blood giucnse, accompanied by & Positive urine glucose Patients with borderfine blood glucose levels are further investigated by performing: ‘A. Postprandial sugar (PPS) . Inulin tolerance test B. Fasting blood sugar D. 3 hour glucose tolerance test (TT) The test that gives a two to three (2-3) month picture of a diabetic's glucose levels is: ‘A. Hemoglobin A, C, Hemoglobin AC. 5.2 hour postprandial sugar D. 3 hour glucose tolerance test Which of the following precautions is necessary to insure validity of the glucose tolerar ce test? ‘A. A 150 gram/day carbohydrate diet for 3 days prior to the test 8, A fasting state before glucose is given ©. No undue stress betore or during the test : D. Allof the above Contamination of the glucose reagent with catalase is @ problem with which glucose method? A. Alkaline cupric ion reduction (neocuproine) C. Glucose oxidase B._ Alkaline ferric ian reduction (ferricyanide) D. Hexokinase ‘The hexokinase methodology for glucose determination is based on A. Reduced coenzyme read at 340 nm - 8. Rose-pink color of oxygen-o-diansidine . Peroxidase acting upon H20) released from glucose D. Protein-free fitrate Proteins are precipitated by which of the following reagents in the Folin-Wu method? A. Tungslie acid B. Trichloroacetic acid . Sulfune acid D. Hydrochloric acid ‘The interfering reducing substances in the Folin-Wu glucose method may be removed by: A. Dialysis . Zine-barium precipitation B._ Tungstate precipitation D. Heating |) the copper reduction method for glucose, measurable color is developed through the formation of: = A. Gopper sulfate . Copper-cobalt complex. é 8. Molybdenum blue D. Phosphomolybdenum ‘The most frequently employed automated method for glucose uses ‘A. Coupled enzyme system consisting of glucose oxidase and catalase B. Reduction of alkaline cupric ion C. Addition of molybdenum blue D. Reduction af alkaline ferricyanide to ferroryanide When sugars are separated by chromatography, the application of anisaldehyde/sulfuric acidiethyl alcoho! spray will identify galactose as what color spot? AS Blue B Grey ©. Green D. Yellow Seliwanoff’s test detects: A. Dextrose B. Glucose ©. Lactose D. Fructose Xylose excretion is helpful in the determination of: ‘A. Intestinal malabsorption C. Pancretic secretion 5. Renal clearance ©. Liver failure Prehepatic bilirubin has which of the following for a protein carrier? A. Albumin B. Alphaz globulin. Beta globulin 1, Gamma globulin , An increase in indirect-reacting bilirubin is suggestive of A. Bile acid build-up ‘C. Hemoglobin breakdown 7 8. Lipid accumulation D. Gamma globulineria Direct-reacting bilirubin is: A. Free biirubin C. Bilirubin diglucuronide B. Bilirubin bound to albumin D. Bilirubin bound ta red blood cells Bilirubin is converted in the intestines to which of the: following: ‘A. Porphobilinogen B. Hemoglobin C. Urobilinogen D. Phospholipid Which of the following will interfere with the Evelyn and Malloy method for bilirubin? . A. Lipemia B. Hemalysis . Anticonvulsants. Alcohol The “port wine® color of some urines can be attributed to: A. Porphyrins B. Melanin C.Red blood cetls_D. Bilirubin Para-dimethylaminobenzaldehyde is a cor s“ituent of which reagent? A Eh B. Salkowski . Drabkin ©: Bloor 17 Both porphotninogen and urotatinoges| torn a rod colored compound with Chics eager Ballornnatatint be obtained by: ‘A. Solubility of porphobilinogen in chloroform —_C. Difference in UV absorption B._ Solubility of urobilinogen in water D. Solubiity of urobilinagen in chlorotoun $92. Filinibin will clovelop: a viola! color after which of the following is ackort A. Lydvochtoic acid Methyl alcohol B, Ehvrich’s reagent D. Van den Bergh's reagent 93. A.urine specimen that exhibits yellow foam cn being shaken should be suspected of having an increased concentration of: A. Ketones: B. Glucose ©, Bilirubin ~ D. Nitrite 94, An enzyme may be defined as alan: A. Biological catalyst C. Metal catalyst B. Inorganic catalyst D. Large moiecuile of biological impr. 95. Hemolysis will interfere with all of the following enzyme measurements except: 4. Alkaline phosphate ©. Aldolase B._ Lactate dehydrogenase D. Aspartate aminotransferase 96. A high alkaline phosphatase level in the presence 0° ather negative liver function tests is indicative of: ‘A. Obstructive jaundice ©. Carcinoma of the liver B. Hepatitis. D. 4emoistic disorder 97. A metal ion is sometimes necessary in an enzymatic reaction to A. Act as an activator of the enzyme C. Regulate pH B._ Permit the colorimetric reaction to occur D. Lahibit competing enzymes 98. Which of the following is true of an isoenzyme? ‘A. The substrate is different form each isoenzyme B, The rate of reaction is the same for each enzyme with its own substrate CC. The electrophoretic property is different for each isoenzyme D. Any of a group of isoenzymes will react the same to heat denaturation 99. As the temperature is increased from 25 C to 37 C in the aspartate aminotransferase reaction, the activity of the tion, A. Almost doubles 8B. Is halved C. Is tripled D. Is reduced to zero 100. The Michaelis-Menten constant in the rate of conversion of substrate to product is determined by. ‘A. Substrate concentration B, Substrate concentration and rate of dissociation of enzyn ¢-substrate complex C. Temperature, pH and substrate concentration D. Temperature and pH 101. Ina zero order reaction, .nere will be no further increase in velocity because: A, There is no excess substrate C. All enzyme is bound to substrate B. The temperature is 35 C 1D. There is excess enzyme 102. Lipase catalyzes the hydrolysis of, A. Starch B. Gelatin C. Glycerides D. Sugar 103. Which of the following is true of the isoenzyme LD-1. is ‘A. The slowest moving of the lactate dehydrogenase (LD) isoenzymes electrophoresis B. The most positively charged fraction C. Ahealtabile fraction ©. Present in the greatest amount in normal heart tissue 104. Lactate + NAD —> Pyruvate + NADH. The catalyst in the reaction is; ° ‘A. Asparate aminotransferase (AST) C. Lactate dehydrogenase (LOH) B. Aldolase D. Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 105. Serum creatine kinase is clinically significant in diseases of the: A. Pancrease B. Liver C. Muscle D. Gonads 106. Creatine kinase is frequenlly elevated in disorders such as acute myocardial infarction (Mi) and: A. Duchenne muscular dystrophy €. Cimhosis, 5 Acute hepatitis D. Infections 107. The kinetic of rate enzymatic methodologies, optical density decreases as: ‘A. Triphosphopyridine mucleotide (TPN) is changed to triphosphopyridine nucleotide reduced form (TPNH) B. Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD) is changed to nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide — reduced form (NADP) . Neotramide adenine dinucleotide ~redvcad fon (NADP) is change to icotnamide adenine dincletde (NAD) D. Gericionis changed to cerous ~ 108. in myocardial infarction, the clinically significant enzymes are: ‘A. Creatine kinase, aspartate aminotransferase, alanine aminotransferase B. Creatine kinase, aspartate aminotransferase, lactate dehydrog=nase ©. Aldolase, aspartate aminotransferase, alanine aminotransferase D. Lactate dehydrogenase, alanine aminotransferase, aspartate aminotransferase, aldolase 108. During a suspected myocardial infarction, you should perform creatine phosphokinase isoenzyme and lactate dehydrogenase isoenzymes to demonstrate the: MB fraction of creatine kinase and LO-5 (MB fraction of creatine kinase and the LD 1-2 flip, 10-5 and LD-3 BB fraction of creatine kinase and LO-1 com> 110, 114 112, 113, 114, 116. 116. uF. In muscular dystrophy, the clinically significant enzymes are: Creatine kinase, aldolase, aspartate aminotransferase Alanine aminotransferase, aldolase, lactate cehydrogenase \featine kinase, aspartate aminot ansferase, alanine aminotransferase Aldolase, aspartate aminotransferase, alanine aminotransferase Ceruloplasmin is an alpha, globulin that binds: Copper B. Cobalt ©. tron D, Manganese Pos ibly the most sensitive enzyme indicator of liver function, particulaily ir obstructive jaundice, is: ‘Alkaline phosphatase ©. Acid phosphatase Alanine aminotransferase B. Lactate. dehydrngen se In acute viral hepatitis, which of the following would NOT be suspected” Alkaline phosphatase increase grester than aspartate aminotransferase Lactate dehydrogenase - § increase Gamma-plutamy! transferase increase, mild Aspartate aminotransferase and alanine minotvansferase increase 10 to 200 - fold What is the optimum pH for acid phosphatase? A 3.0 8.5.0 6.7.0 D.90 The clinical significance of an elevated acid phosphatase is: 4. Renal disease B, Pancreatic disease G. Bone disease D. Prostatic disease Ian acid phosphatase test cannot be performed imumediately after collection, hw should the serum be treated? A, Acidity to pHof2 ‘Freeze CC. Capand freeze __D.. Either acidify or freeze Tess for acid phosphatase detect levels of the enz /me from tissues such as; A. Bone, liver, spleen, kidney, erythrocytes and platelets B. Bone, liver and kidney . Muscle, spleen, and \Jatelets ©. Liver, spleen, prostate, and platelets e>”> “com> goe> ‘The substrate for the Cherry — Crandall lipase methed is: A Glycoride B. Nitrophenyl acetace ©, Olive 9 D. Starch stance ronized Galchutn Gan be changed wittiout altectiig the total calciwel foved, what allie parimateria ‘niust Be known to properly evaluate ealcium’? A phy 1B Phosph sis © Magaosien 10. pM and protein ‘The classic Clark = Collip method for calcium is based on the assumption that calcium will be: A. Precipitated as calcium carbonate 8B. Precipitated as an oxalate and converter’ to an oxide C. Chelated with EOTA, D._ Precipitated as an oxalate and converted to oxalic acid In the titration of calcium oxalate with potassium permanganate, the temperature must be maintained at: A 1-4¢ 8.376 C. 60-806 D. 1006 A low parathyroid homone level will cause a: ‘A. Low serum phosphorus C. Low serum vatcium 8. High urine calcium fevet D. High serum calciurn level In the compleximetrc titration (EDT 4) mettiod ior calcium, the pH must be adjusted to prevent: ‘A. Incomplete precipitation of calcium. ‘C. A reversible color change B. Interference by magnesium 1D. Co-binding of phosphorus What is the purpose of lanthanium in the «iomic absorption determination of calcium? Lanthanium: Is involved in starting up the instrument C. Will bind calcium 1 pat of the hollow ¢athoce discharge tube: ©. Will hind phosphate Al of the follawing can cause low chord. levels, E (CEPT A. Diabetic acidosis. Renal faiure ©. Prownged vomiting D. Dehydration Inorganic phosphate can be determined frou a combination of trichloroacetic ace fitale and A. Stannous hlorde © Tungstute B. Glacial acetic — sulfuric acia D. Mulybdate AL a pH of 7.4, most of the inorganic phosphate in {ie plasma is in which form? A. HBO, 8. PO, C.H,PO, D. P05 A phosphorus value of 2.5 mEq/L would be how many mgldL.? (AtW. P=31)? A 43 B52 cas D.25 The colorimetric method for magnesium employs which reagent? A. Molybdate B. Calcium oxalate. Titan yellow D. B-hydroxy-5-quinoiine The first step in the sevum iron method involves: A. Break up ofthe iron — protein complex ©. Addition of excess iron for pro.ein to absorb 8. Reaction of iron with a chromogen D. Measurement of amuunt of fee serum iron The major extracellular cation i: A Chloride B. Manganese © Potassium D. Seuiun The major intracellular cation is A. Chioride 8. Manganese ©. Potassium . Sodium Whieh of these patassiuen values would termed sypokalemic? , A 30 mmol 8 4.0100 C4 Frennott 11 Simm What is the intemal standard when sodiv'n and polussium are measured by flame photometry? A. Catcium B. Lithium ©. Magnesium D. Copper 135, In the classic Schales and Schales (mercurimetric tration) method for chloride, what substance reacts with the indicator to form . violet color? 4. HgCl, BLHNO, ©. Excess Hi’ D.Be a * re 196. Inthe coulometic = AgCl produced Mperometric method for chloride, the amount of chloride is measured by: ‘A. Time needed to reach the titration endpo:nt B. Amount of current needed to generate Ay” . Rate of generation of current D. Time needed to reach the titration endpoint 137. In gasometric analysis of CO;, the liberated gas is absorbed w’th A. Lattic acid B. Hydrochloric acid. Sulfuric acid ©. Sodium hydroxide 198. What is the purpose of caprylic alcohol in the gasometric method for CO.? To: ‘A. Prevent foaming . Absorb CO; - B. Release CO, D. Maintain the atmospheric pressure at a constant value 139. The normal pH of blood is: A. 6.50-7.50 B.7.05-7,35 ©.7.35- 7.45 D.7.45~7.65 140. Which of the following is the Henderson — Hasselbalch equation? A. pK.= pH+ log dissociated salt C. pH = pk, + (Ax) undissociated salt (HA) 8. PH= pKs* log undissociated salt D. pH = p'% + log dissociated salt (A-) dissociated salt uuudissociated salt (HA) 141, The ratio of bicarbonate: carbonic acid in normal plasma is: A 4:20 B51 C.101 D.20:1 142, Most of the CO; in the blood is present in which form? ‘A. Dissolved CO: C. Calcium carbonate B, Bicarbonate ion D. Ammonium carbonate 143, What will happen if blood is exposed to air during collection for pH and blood gas .tudies? A. CO;content increases B. pH decreaves ©, PO; decreases —_D. pCO; decreases 144, If the glass electrode of the pH instrument is coated with protein, the pH value wil be: A. Too high B, Too low ©. Unchanged D. Variable 145, Which of the following is true of the pCO: electrode? Only charged particles can crass the membrane Both charged and uncharged particles cn cross the membrene The actual pH of thy sample has no effect, ‘There is no calibration available for the electrode because gases are involved 148. The wavelength at which oxyhemogiabin and reduced hemoglobin have the same absorbance is referred to as the: A. Differential point B. Isoelectric point ©. Equivalence point _D. Equilibration point AF. Which of these statements is appropriate for the platting of a conce tralian curve? On: A. Semi-log paper. plot % units on y axis and standard concentration on x axis F. Semi-iog paper. pint standard concentration on y axis and absorbance on x axis ‘. Linear graph paper, plot absorbance on x axis and standard concentraticn on y axis D, Linear graph paper, plot absorbance on y axis und % onTonxaxis 148. When performing spectrophotomieter quality nontrol checks, the holmium oxide glass filter is used to ussess A. Straylight —B. Linearity. Absorbance accuracy D. Wavelenath accuracy 149. For the ultraviolet range, which of these rmust be employed in the spectrophotomeler? A. Diffraction grating 'B, Glass prism ©. Quartz cuvette —_D. Tungsten lamp 180." Measurement by flame photometry involves: ‘A. Absorption of energy when an elements ionized 3. Electrometric titration ©. Colorimetiicanaiysis ._ Emission of a color wnen an element is bumed 151. Atomic absorption spectroscopy is based on the measurement of: A. Light given off by excited atoms, B. Light absorbed at wavelength of resonance line by unexcited atoms ©. Energy emitted by ultraviolet treated atoms D. Energy emitted by infrared treated atoms 12. What i the light source in atomic absorption instrumentation? gom> A. Sathode tamp. 8. Flame ©. Grating D. Prism 153. Quenching is a disadvantage encountered in: A. Fluorometry B. Atomic adsorption _C. Flame photometry _D. Nephelometry 18" To achieve the best levels of sensitivity and specificity, a type of detector system that a gas chromatograph may be coupled to is a/an: A. Fluoresecnce detector ©. Bichromatic spectrophotumeter 8. Ultraviolet spectrophotometer D. Mass spectrophotometer 185. Automated chemistry systems, whether viscrete or continuous flow, mis include: A. Unknown, reagent, mixing of the previows two mentioned ingredienis, reaction analysis, calculation and reporting of results 8. Unknuwn, mixing, incubation, calculation, and reporting of resul's . Standards, mixing, incubation, and repe ting of results D. Unknown, mixing, incubation, and rz aning of results 16 fam isotope has a halite of 12 hours and an activity of 24 miicunes (mC, what wil be its activity in 38 ours A 3mci 8.6 mci ¢.9mei D, 12imci 57 158 159. 160. 170, 172 173, 174, 175, 176. 17 178. Concentrated sulfuric acid has a normality of: A 12 B16 c.18 26 Match the following types of instruments with the description: 1. Mixtures can be separated Into individual compounds ta be measured on the basis of differences in thelr physical characteristics ‘Analytes are measured in a sample by means of tubing diameter and flow rate ‘Samples and reagents are pipetted into curvettes, read in a photometer and results are calculated Light absorbed by an element is converted into the concentration of the element ‘The light emitted by an element as it fais from a high energy state to a low energy state is converted into the concentration of the element $ a. Atomic absorption c. Flame photometry ‘e. Chromatography b, Diserete processing system 4d. Continuous tlow analysis The major binding protein for T-4 is: ‘A. Albumin ! Thyroid binding preaibumin (TBPA) B. Thyroid-binding globulin (TBG) D. None, T-4 is free in plasma What purpose does iodine serve in the protein-bound iadine (PBI) methodology? ‘A. Holds organic iodine in the protein-bound state 8. Acts as a catalyst in the ceric-arsenite reaction C_ Gompensates for lass of inorganic iodine in the washing siage D. Keeps mercury from suppressing the color reaction ‘A T-4measured as iodine is 1.8 mogidL. To what thyroxine value is it equivalent? AL 4.10 B.275 C. 3.60 D. 5.40 In T-4 by radioimmunoassay (RIA), the more thyroxine present in the patient's serum: ‘A. The more the amount of radioactive-labeled thyroxine bound to antibody 8. The fess the amount of radioactive-labeled thyroxine bound to antibody G. The fess free radioactive-abeled thyroxine to be absorbed — D. Aandc T-3 uplake is actually a measurement of. ATS B.T4 °. 86 D. Free thyroxine The following tests are good indications of hypothyroidism except A. T-3. uptake ©. Total T-4 by radisimmun >assay RIA) B. Free T-4 by radioimmunoassay (RIA) D. 7-3 by radioimmunoassay (RIA) ‘Which of the steroids is identified as an 18-carbon compound that possesses «i rhenolic “A” ring? A. Adrenocortical steroids ©. Estrogens 5. Androgens D. Progesterone The estrogen with the greatest concentration in urine is A. Estriol B. Estradiol C. Estrone D. Progesterone The standard for 17-ketosteroid determinations is A, Testosterone _ B. Progesterone ©. Dehydroepiandrosterane Aldosterone. Which of the fotiowing is true regarding pregnanediol? tt is ‘A. AC-19 compound . Manufactured in the adrenal medulla B. The excretion product of progesteruns . Altered in the adrenal medulla Which ofthe following is true of steroids? . ‘A. They are excreted as hormones rather ign metabolites B. There is no differential value for male and female . They are lipids D. They contain the 21 carbon atoms of the eysiopentanopertydrophenanthren ring + What is the hormone that controls the reabso ption of sodium in the kidney? ‘A. Aldosterone 8. Alcohol dehydrogenase _C. Estrogen . Growth hormone ‘The Kober reaction refers to the pink color resulting from the combination of hot concentrated sulfuric acic and extracted: A. Estrogens B. Androgens ©. Corticosteroids. 17-ketosteroids The Ittrich extraction for estrogens involves the «agent: ‘A. Phenyihydrazone —_B. p-nitrophenol C.m-dinitrobenzene —_D. Sodium bismuthate ‘The Porter-Silber reactions employs phenylhydrazine to detect A. Estrogens B.Cofticosieroids —__C. 17-ketasterolds —_D., Catecholamines ‘The Zimmerman determination of 17-ketosteroids is based on reaction with: ‘A. Acetic anhydride ©. ldeta-dinitrobenzene &. Ehilich’s reagent D. Potassium ferricyanide For the measurement of 17-ketogenic steroids (17-hydroxycorticasteroids), prior treatment with what reagent | required? " A. mdinitrobenzene —_B. Hot sulfuricacid ©. Sodium. wthate D. Chloroform Catecholamines are secreted by the: A, Kidney B, Pituitary ©. Adrenal cortex —_—D. Adrenal medulla Which of the fatlowing is a metaboite of epinephrine? A. 17-ketosteroids. ' . Vanillyimandelic acid &. Follicle stimulating hormone D. Thyroid stimulating hormone ‘A two-hour pregnancy test can measure: ‘A. Androgens ©. Estrenens B_ Chorionic gonadotropins, beta subunit D. Progesterone — PagePof10 | 178. Which of these statements is true of an immunological test for pregnancy? A. Only first morning urine specimen is suitable B. With the agglutination inhibition methad, tire presence of agglutination means a nenative test C. Drugs do not present a problem with inter erence: D. The hormone level in the urine detectable by this method steadily increases aller ths first two weeks of yest +20. Winch subunit of human chorionic gonadotropin (ne) wil give a very speci adolmmunoassay tet forthe ‘measurement of hCG? A. Alpha B. Beta ©. Samma_ D. Detta 181. Which of the following specimens is/are used for pregnancy tests? ‘A. Cerebrospinal fluid B. Blood ©. rine D.Bandc 182. An ectopic pregnancy is one that occurs in the: ‘A. Stomach B. Urethra C. Fallopantubes —_D. Gvaries 103. Human chorionic gonadotrapin (nC) is secreted by the: ‘A. Thymus gland B. Placenta ©. Ovary D. Ureter 184. The highest level of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) ocours in which \rimester of pregnaricy? A. First trimester B. Second trimester C. Thirdtrimester —_D. NOTA 185, glycoprotein consisting of two nonidentical noncovalently bound subunits is: A. Estrogen ©. Androgen B. Progesterone . Human chorionic gonadotropin 186. Some commercial kits now available for gregnancy tests incorporate which of the following? ‘A. Monoclonal antibodies C, Heterophile antibodies B. Forssman antibodies D. Opsonins 187. To produce reliable results, at which time should blood specime.ss for lipid studies be drawn? ‘A. 2=4 hour fasting ©. 8-10 hour fasting B. 6-8 hour fasting D. 12—16 hour fasiing 188. The reagent for color development in the Liebermatin-Burchard reaction for cholestero\ is: A. Sulfuric acid C. Glacial acetic acidisulfuric acid B. Acetic anhydride/sutfuric acid D. Ferric chloridevethanol 189. Which of the statements applies to Bloor's reagent? It: ‘A. Provides for color development in the ch slesterol methods B. Is composed of ethanol and ether in w ratio of 3:4 C. Compensates for the otherwise unequal color ineasurement resulting frorn free and esterified cholesterol D. Comoensates for possible water contamination of the reagents. 180. The purpose of the saponification step in some cholesterol methods is to ‘A. Break the pratein-lipid bond B. Precipitate the protein C. Convert esters to free cholesterol so that all measured cholesterol is of the same type 1D. Remove the error of nonspecific ct.romogen interference 191. The purpose of the digitonin in cholesterol methodology is the: ‘A. Precipitation of free cholesterot C. Color developer B. Precipitation of esterified cholesterol D, Reagent for extrartion 192. _Inwhich of these clinice! conditions may blood cholesterol be increase: ‘A. Hypothyroidism ©. Lupus erythematosus B. Malnuirition D, Pancreatic cancer 193. Which of the following is the Friedewald formula by which low density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol can be estimated? (TC = total cholesterol, TG = triglycerides, PL = phospholipids) A. LDL cholesterol = TC - (TGIS + HDL cholesterol) B. LDL cholesterol = TG - (TG + PL) C. LDL cholesterol = TG ~ % HDL cholesterol D. LDL cholesterol = HDL- TC 184. When evaluating a coronary risk indsx for a patient you should know the total cholesterol and: ‘A. Total lipids . Low-density lipoprotein cholesterol B. Triglycerides D. High-density ipoprotein chelesterot 195, Most triglyceride procedures involve measurement of: A. Eatly acids B. Glycerol ©. Lipoprotein D. Phospholipids 198. \Ahich of these lipids nas the lowest density? A. Alcha lipoprotein ©. Chylomicrons B. Beta lipoprotein ©. Pre-beta lipoprotein 19° The sore current kinetic methads for !"e quantitation of serum tralvcerides employ enzymatic hydrolysis, the enzymatic hydrolysis of trigycerides mav be acconplshed by vhal enzyme? A. Lactate dehydrogenase B. Lipase. Aldolase D. amylase 198. The migration sequence, from the origin, of fiponrot sins is: A. Chylomicrons, beta, pre-beta, alpha C, Alpha, beta, pre-beta, chylomicrons B, Chylomicrons, pre-beta, beta, alpha D. Chylomicrons, alpha, pre-beta, bete : 199. Diseases of which system are associated with elevited bela lipoprotein values? A. Pulmonary —B. Cardiovascula, ——_C. Gastrointestinal 0. Connective tissue 200. Which statement is true for the oral rout of drug 2oministration? A. Drug action occurs must rapidly wh n taken orally B. The oral route of administration is the most reliable ‘C. The oral route compensates for drug solu‘ility problems $ 'D. Patient compliance is not always reliable ACIS Keviow Genie APOLLON = Chessy Clap 1 Clini Chemistry Queation Page 100 10 Which of the following therapeutic drugs is not an anticonvulsant? A. Digoxin B. Dilantin ©. Carbomezepine D. Phenobarbital ‘The point of equilibrium between drug dosage intake ani drug elimination is referred to as: ‘A. Peak concentration C, Stealy slate B. Trough concentration D. Drug hatte A major disadvantage cf drug detection by immunoassays *s: ‘A. Speed of performance 207, 208. 209, B. Stability of reagents ©. Technical difficuity of procedure D. Simultaneous assay of multiple drugs in one specimen is not feasible Lithium is measured by: ‘A. Gas chromatography C. Visible spectrophotometry B. Flame photometry D. High-pressure liquid chromatography * Tricyclic antidepressants include: ‘A. Diazepam B. Dilantin . Lithium D. Doxepin ‘When a kidney stone is tested with sodium cyanide and sodium nitroprusside, the appearance-of a magenta color identifies what substance? A. Carbonate B. Cystine ©. Calcium D. Uric acid The sweat chloride testis useful in the diagnosis of: A. Dehydration C. Hyperkalemia B. Cystic fibrosis D. Paroxysmal noctumal hemoglobinuria = The use of the radioisotope “Cr provides a direct measurement of which of the following? ‘A. Plasma volume B.Redcellmass CG. Hematocrit . Total blood volume ‘The average biood volume for human beings, expressed in ml/kg body weight, is 40 B.50 ©.60 D. 80 RB March 2006 Urinalysis By Apollon st.al. CHAPTER 1 - Chemistry Questions Urinalysis (CM) Questions 210. — Cloudiness in a freshly-voided urine could indicate the presence of ‘a. protein b. sugar °. waite blood cells 4d. any of the above 211. In acute febrile disease, urine may acquire a reddish color due to: a. hemogiobin pigment, porphyrin «, urobilinogen 4, uroerythrin 212. A smoky red-brown urine should be suspected of containing 2, bilirubin . hemoglobin ©. porphyrin 4d. urobilinogen 213. A urine that tums brown-biack upon standing may contain ‘a. homogentisic acid . myoglobin . porphyrin d, red blood cells 214. When a urine specimen is allowed to stand at room temperature, which one of the following does NOT occur? €. disappearance of formed elements ©. false positive glucose ». elevation in pH . false positive protein 218. _The first morning specimen of urine is oftan tested because this specimen €. contains the most formed elements «, is moet likely to contain protein is fresh «, will display the phenomenon of “alkaline tide* 216, _ What is the highest specific gravity to which the kidney is able to conccntrate urine? a. 1.022 b, 1.030 4.040 ¢. 1.050 217 _Allof the following systems may be used to determine tho specific gravity of urine, EXCEPT @ spectrophotometer —_b, refractomeler ¢. T-S meler d. reagent test strip 218. Ata temperature of 26C, a urine specific gravity reads 1,014, Ifa temperature correction is employed, what would the corrected specific gravity be? a. 1.010 B10 ©. 1.016 1.048 219, _Arefractometer would be used in a urinalysis department to tieasure . glucose b, ketones ‘e.specific gravity. blirubin 220. If the plasma osmolality is normal (185 mOsm/Kg water), tne urine osmolality should be at least a. the same osmolality as that of the plasma «three times that of the plasma 'b. 500 mOsmvkg 4. 1000 mOsnvkg 221. Which of these plasma substances ‘s NOT normally filtered through the glomerulus in significant amoun a creatinine . glucose «. protein 4. urea 222. _ Precipitation tests for urine protein DO NOT include which of the following? a. acid and heat », dipstick 6. sulfosalicylic acid d, trichloracetic acid 223. she normal excretion of small amcunts of protein in urine is considered to be less than what dally amount? aSmg b. 50mg ©. 150 mg d. 300mg 224, All ofthe following apply to the dipstick test for urine protein, based on the protein error of indicators, EXCEPT, mor’ of the indicator is in nonionized form . the protein will combine with the nonionized form ofthe indicator &. protein combination with. indice'or changes the ratio of ionized and nonicnized forms d._ the color chang on the stick is due to a pH change 225. Which of the following does NOT apply to urine protein estimation by the dipstick method? Bence-Jones protein interferes with measureinert of albumit Highly alkaline buttered urine can cause a false positive test The principle ofthe testis the protein error of indicators The test is more sensitive to albumin than to globulin 228. Which of the following is true of the detection of urinary glucose? {any reducing substance can give a fals® positive reaction with the copper reduetion method for glucose the copper reduction method is specific for glucose glucose cannot appear in the urine in the absence of an elevated plasma glucoe ketonuria may produce a false negative dipstick test for glucose 227. The enzyme dipstick test far glucose in urine has a sensitivity of a. 10 magia . 50 mg/d . 100 mga 4, 200 mg/d 228. Which of the following may give a false positive reaction on the glucone dipstick? a. galactose . lactose ¢. maltose d. oxidizing agent 228. For fructose detectios,, which of these reagents is employed? a. Ehrlch’s reagent «resorcinol and hydrochloric acid b. ferric chloride 4. sodium nitroprusside 230, Which of the folowing is the most definitive test for phenylketonuria (PKU)? @. Srect measurement of bloud level of phenylalanine b. Guthrie tests on blood of a newborn ¢. Measurement of liver enzymes 4d. PHENISTIX test on a freshly voided urine a. hemoglobin can act as a peroxidase hemoglobin can release an enzyme froin the strip hemoglobin in urine combines with oxygen on the strip to produce a blue color d._ red blood celis in urine are lysed by percxide from the strip 232. Which of the following statements is true regarding (he test for heme pigment in urine? ‘color in the inorganic phase identifies urobilinogen ©. color in the organic phase identifies porphobilinogen ¢.Ehrlich’s reagent contains resorcinol and hydrochiovic acid 4d. Prior removal of bilirubin is necessary 233. The addition of Fouchet's reagent to the barium chloride précipitate of urine resulis in a grenn color in the presence of bilirubin b. ketones «. protein 4. urobilinogen 234, The Addis count is the semiquantitative estimate of the 12-hour excretion of whicls urinary constituent? a. vacteria and protein b. cats, red biood cells, and white blood cetis number and type of casts 3. white blood celis and tubular epithelial ells 238, The most common use of polarized microscopy is to visualize a. crystals, », lipids (fats) ‘c. white blood cells 4. casts 236. Which statement does NOT apply to white blood ce'ls in the urine sediments? a few white blood cells may be present in normal urine an increase in white blood cells is associated with en inflammatory process white blood cells in the urine must be accompanied by proteinuria unstained white blood cells in urine appear spherical and granular 237. With infections of the urinary system, wt te biood cells are frequently seen in the urine sediment, What type ‘of white blood ceil is seen most frequer'ly in urine sediment? eosinophil . lymphocyte. ‘¢, monocyte 4. neuirophit 238. Vaginal contamination may be responsible for the aapearance of which element ia the urine from a female patient? a. glucose b. hyaline cast crystals 4. squamous epithelial cells 239,” Red blood cells in the urine may be confuseo with any of the following, EXCEPT a. calcium oxalate crystals b. cholesterol crystals .oll droplets d. yeast cells 240. Which urinary crystal can assume the greatect variety of forms? a. cystine b. oxalate ©. phosphate 3d. uric acid 241, Which urinary erystal is unlikely to appear in an acid urine? a. ammonium biurate ——b. Galoium oxalate. cystine uric acid 242. Which crystal is unlikely to appear in an alkalive urine? a.ammonium biurate ——b. calcium oxalate. cystine 4. cholesterol 243. The ‘coffin lid” erystal is that of @ ammonium biurate ——_b, calcium oxalate —_¢. sodium urate 4. triple phosphate 244. The finding of six-aided puffy crystals in te acid urine of an infant should arouse a suspicion of a. cystinosis . cystinuria .¢. sxaluria . tyrosinuria 245. Yeast, oval fat bodies, and calcium oxalate crystals are common in persons who suffer from a obesity b.chronic nenhintis —¢. diabetes mellitus —d. chroniz cystitis 246. The matrix of urinary casts has been identified as which protein? a. albumin ». globulin +. glycoprotein 4. Tam-Horsfall 247. Which of the following is true of casts in urine? the high power objectiva is employed in a search for these elements b, some kind of stain is needed to make ther, visible © their refractive index makes them easily visible 4. they tend to accumulate near the edges of the coverslip 248. Agranular cast is thought to represent the decomposition of which af these casts? 4 collalar tally © hyaline waxy 249. Which of these casts is most easily visualized in unstained urinary sediinent? a fatty . hyaline €. red blood cell 4d. white blood cell 250. Which cast may appear in urine in the absence of renal disease? a. granular ». hyaline ¢. red blood cell 4d. waxy 251. The best single indicator of renal disease is a. glycosuria b. polyuria ©. proteinuria 4 py sia 252. “Glitter cell’is a term used to describe a specific type of a. fatty droplet b. ketone body ¢. oval fat body 4. neutrophil 253. Which of the following is NOT true about oval fat bodies? ‘@ cholesterol esters break down into fatty globules in desquamated tubular epithelial calls . their fat content is related to the level of lipids in the plasma ©. they are associated with degenerative tubular disease + they are associated with the appearance of the "Maltese cross" formation under polarization 254 Casts are formed primarily in which pc rion of the kidney? 2. distal convoluted tubule loop of Henle bb glomerulus proximal convoluted tebules Bicester pena gnnebedbncecicr es a iat healt = y ACTS Review Cant APOLLON Urinals Chap $~ Chemisty Question Page 3 of 255. Which of the foliowing statements is NOT true? ‘&. “clean catch’ uiine is preferable, in most instances, to a specimen ccliected by catherization . ina routine culture of urine, 10° microorganisms/m! of urine is considered cignificant the presence of bacteria in the uncentrituged specimen of urine collected ur der controlled conditions is ‘associated with a significant colony count on ‘culture = the presence of bacteriuria can be recognized by a positive result on the nitite portion of a dipstick casts 256. In glomerulonephritis, which of the following should be expected in a urine specimen? '8._ clumps of white blood cells and white blood cell casts, b. fatty and granular casts ©. red blood cells and red blood cell and fatty casts @. waxy and fatty casts 257. Which of the following is a true statement? a high specific gravity of urine may result in lysis of red blood cells b, hemoglobinuria is a more common finding than hematuria ‘alow pH of urine may result in the conversion of red blood cells to hemoglobin 4. true hemoglobinuria occurs after intravascular hemolysis Bitten stone see CLINICAL CHEMISTRY By Apollon et.al. CHAPTER 1 - Chenistry Questions Math Questions 258. The mean for a series of laboratory resulls is 10.0, tha 95% confidence limits ave 9.8 to 10 2. What is the standard deviation? a.02S8D b.0.18D ©.04SD 4.0580 259. If 0.5 mi packed red blood cells are diluted to a volume of 10 mi wie normal saline, what dilution is achieved? ats b. 4:10 61:20 41:46 260. § mi filtrate are required for a procedure. The final colored solution proves to be too high to read accurately ‘on the spectrophotometer. 1 ml filtrate ano 4 mi distilled water are substituted fcr the original fitrate and the Procedure is run as before. The graph realing is 46 mg/dl. What is the actual ainount of substance in the patient's serum? 2, 9.5 mid b. 11.5 mgidl ¢. 184.0 mgidt 4. 230.0 mgidi 261. If 1.0 mi serum is diluted with 4 mi 25% benzoic acid, how much serum is represented in 2.0 ml of the solution? 2.0.20mi b.0.25 mi 0.40 mi d. 1.00 mt 262. _90 mi distilled water is added to 10 ml of a 3% solution. What is the strength of the resulting salution? 8. 0.10% b.0.27% ©. 0.30% d, 0.90% 263. 0.1 mi serum is added to 0.4 ml saline in the first tube of a serial dilution. Half (0.25) of the contents of the first tube are transferred to the second tube, which already contains 0.25 mi saline. What's the serum dilution in the second tube? a. 1:20 b. 1:50 6. 1:80 41:40 264. ina thrombocytopenia, twice the usual amount of biood is drawn into the red cell diluting pipet (blocd to the 4.0 mark), which is then filed with Rees-Ecker diluent to the Line at the top of the bulb. All nine squares of the hemacytometer are employed to increase the accuracy of the count. In these nine squares, 27 platelets are counted. In celis/cu mm, what is the platelet count for this patient? a.300 b. 3,000 ©. 6,000 4. 27,000 265. Dilution of a spinal fluid is accomplished in a white cell diluting pipet, using diluent to the 1.0 mark and spinal fluid to the 14 mark. All nine squares of @ hemacytometer are counted, with a tally of 45 white celis. In celisicu ‘mm, what is the spinal fluid cell count? 2.50 b. 56 6,500 , 4000 266. A 10% (WV) solution of sodium chloride is needed. Of what does it consist? 8.10 mg NaCidl b. 10g Nacval ©. 10g NaClL 4.1.9 NaCV'100 mi 267. A solution of calcium chloride contains 3 grams per 100 ml. What percent is this solution? and b.3.0 ©, 15.0 4.30.0 268. How much sodium citrate is required to make 500 mi of a 3.2% solution for c2agulation studies? (M.W. of sodium citrate = 288) atég b.329 2.809 4.1609 269, _Aconcentrated acid has a specific gravity of 1.5. What is the weight of 30 mit of this acid? a4 b.20.03 6.45.09 4. 200.09 270. Concentrated sulfuic acid has a specific gravity of 1.84 and a percent purty of 98%. How many grams of sulfuric acid are there in 200 mi of concentrated acid? att b. 361 ©. 368 4.720 274. 160 mlurine weighs 154 grams. Whatis the specific gravity of the urine? 94.013 b. 4.027 ©. 4.030 4.050 272. How much NaOH is needed to make 4 liters of a 1N solution? (M... Na = 23; 0 = 16; H= 1) 40g b.80g <, 1609 4.400 9 273. How many milligrams of CaCi2 are needed tc prepare 100 ml ofa 1x 10°M solution? (WW. Ca = 40; Cl = 35.5) ass bit ©. 35.0 4.11.0 274, — How much Na;SO,is there in 400 ml ot @ 4M solution? (M.W. Na = 23; S = 32; 0 = 16) at49 b. 1509 ©. 1909 4.2279 276. What is the normaity of isotonic saline (U.85%)? (M.W. Na = 23; Cl = 35.5) 2,0.014N b.0.028N ¢..0.140N 4. 0.260N 278. What is the normaly of 4M NaOH? (M.W. Na= 23; 0 = 16; H=4) ON bO4N c20N 4.40N 5 277. Asolution of HCI contains 84 grams per liter. What is its normality? (MW. H = 4; Cl= 36.5) a.042N b.0.43N ¢.230N 0.2.36N 278. What is the normality of a 3.6M sulfuric acid solution? (MW. H= 1; $= 32; O = 16) a48N b.36N c.49N 4.72N 279. _ How many inl of 95% alcoho! do you need to make 1 liter of a 70% sulution? 274 mi b. 136 mi ¢.737 mi d. 1360 mt ‘ACTS Review Cznter ‘APOLLON Math ‘Chap 1 Clnkal Chea Quetlos § "Page 2 of2 280. HNO, has a percent purity (assay) of 70 and a specific gravity of 1.42. How many mi of concentrated acid ‘are needed to make 500 ml of 0.22N acid? @.3.5 mi b.3.7 mi 4.7.0 ml 281, What percent solution is 0.4N HCI? (At. W. H. 21.42% b, 1.48% ©.14.20% 4. 14.60% 282. _ What amount of 10N NaOH must be used to prepare 1 liter of 1N NaOH? a,.10mi 'b, 40 ml 100 ml , 200 mi 283. Asserum calcium level of 10 mg/dl would be expressed as how many mEQ/L? (ALW. Ca = 40) a4 bh 8 4.10 284, The microgram can be expressed as which of the following? ‘2, 1/10 gram b, 1/100 gram ©. 1/1000 gram 4.111000 mg ‘RBB Merch 2008 Microbiology & Parasitology By Apollon et.al. CHAPTER 2 - Microbiology Questions Bacteriology Questions 4. DELETED 2. DELETED “3. Capsules can be used for a: ‘A Complement fixation ©. Serotyping by swelling B. Hemagglutination test D, Precipitation test 4. To demonstrate capsules, grow the culture on media containing: A. Antibiotics B.Mik C. Serum D.Bandc 5. The Quellung test depends on the antigenic specificity of the: A. Vucleus B. Cell wall . Flagella D. Capsule 6, Dark staining granules are called: A. Spores: 8. Capsules ©. Cysts D. Metachromatic 7. Organisms that vary in size and shape are referred to as: A Psychrophilc B. Thernophitic C. Palisades D. Pleomorphic 8 Inthe bacterial growth cycle, growth ceases because nutrients are exhausted oF toxic metabolic products have ‘accumulated in the: A. Stationary phase B. Logarithmic phase C. Lag phase D.AandB 9. Which genera of bacteria form spores? ‘. Corynebacterium B. Bacillus C. Clostridium D.Bendc 10. Jacteria that grow in the absence of atmospheric (free) oxygen and obtain cygen from oxygen-containing ‘compounds are called: A. Anaerobes B. Acrobes: ©. Gapnophiles D. Aerotelerants 11, The temperature at which tacteria grow best is known as: A Thermophilic B. Paychrophitic © Optimum: 1D. Mesophilic 12 Astiny colony of blood agar medium indicales which oF the following Characteristics say bes jean? ‘A, Blood agar is too old ‘C. Plate was incubated too long 8. Organism has a capsule D Plate was incubated at too high temperature 13, On blood agar plates a sinall zone of alpha-hamelysis surrounded by zone of bela-hemolysiss ulter refrigeralion Is known as: A. Gamma-hemolysis _B. Beta-hemolysis__—C. Alpha-hemolysis__D. Alpha-prime 114. When using fractional sterilization the sequence is: A. Heating (kills vegetative bacteria) . Heating (kills remaining vegetative bacteria) B._ Incubation (spores germinate) D.AOTA 18. Whats the most effective method of sterilization? A. Autoclave 8. Dry heat oven C. Boiling D. Disinfection 16. Wh'ch of the following is used for quality control for the dry heat oven? A. Bacillus subtilis . Staphylococcus aureus B. Bacillus stearothermophilus D, Salmonella typhi 17. Which of the following filters. can give 100% sterility? A Seite B. Millipore (0.22 um) €. Millipore (0.5 um) D.AandB 18, Media that cannot be heated can be sterilized by: A. Filtration C. Antiseptics B. Chemical disinfectants D. Cannot be sterilized 19. Which of the following is not a disinfectant? A. Phenol B, 70% alcohol ©. QUATS D, 2% aqueous glutaraldehyde 20 lodophors are composed of iodine and: A Phwwolic compound — &. Detegent © M% ulead! 90-08% alcohot 21, Quaternary ammonium disinfectants are ea ily inactivaved by: A Heat B.P. aerucin.osa C. Organic material —_D. tap water 22. What is a term that describes a process or treatment that renders a medical device, instrument, or environmental, surface safe to handle? A, Decontamination B. Antispesis, , Disinfectant D. Sterile 23, What do gram-positive bacteria stain? A. Purple 8, Green c. Red D. Maroon 24. The mordant used in the Ziehl-Neelsen acid fast stain is: A. Grams iodine 8, Auramine ©. Heat D. Aci¢-alcohot . 25. How is smear for an acid-fast stain fixed? ‘A. Methyl alcoho! © Tergito! no. 7 B. Acid alcohol D Side warmer at 65 C for 2 hours 26. Acid-fast bacteria appear what color microscopically? A Red B.Blue ©. Green D.Purpie "27" Acid-fast organisms in tissue are best stainew by which of the following methods? 28 29 30 34 32 aa 36. 37, 38. 39, 40. a 42. 43. 44, 45. 47. 48. A Hiss B. Kinyoun C. Ziehl-Neelsen, D. Negative stain In the Ziehl-Neeisen staining method, the decolorizer is: A. Heated saline 'B. Acetone ©. Acetoneraicohol _D. Alcohol + HCI ‘An example of a negative stain is: A. Auramine rhodamine stain India ink stain 8. Gram stain D. Methylene biue stain ‘Which of the following is NOT gram-negative? A. Peptococcus B, Salmonelia C. Branhamella D. Aeromonas ‘Which of the following is NOT an anaerobo? : A. Neillonelia B. Fusobacterium —_G. Actinomyces D. Campylobacter fa patient is taking antimicrobials, which of the followin, can neutralize the antimicrob’als? A “Tryptic woy broth C. Mhiol broth 8. Antinistamine D, Grain-teart infusion broth From @ bronchial washing, organisms aro soon on a Grunt stain, but no growth occ’ anaerobically. This ls most likely due to A, Anaerobes 8. Inhibition by antibiotic therapy C Uncultivable bacteria e g., rickettsiae, nycopliame, M.laprac: D. The specimen being incubated instead ot refrigerated Which of the following should be used to remove antimicrobials before culturing? worobir ily and ‘A. Antimicrobial Removal Device . Septi-Chek B. Isolator D.NOTA Sodium polyanethol sulfonate may be used as an anticcagulant in blood cultures because it: A. Removes some antimicrobials C, Neutralizes the bacterial effect of human serum B._ Prevents phagocytosis D. Band c What is the most abundant normal flora In throet cultures? A. Micrococcus C. Escherichia cali B._Alpha-hemolytic Streptococcus ‘2. Legionella pneumophila ‘What is the most common pathogen in throat cultures? ‘A. Group A Streptococcus . Staphylococcus ep'dermidis B._Alpha-hemolytic Streptococcus D. Coynebacterium diphtheriae ‘Why must blood agar plates for throat cultures be incubated aerobically and ariesrobically when beta-hemolytic streptococci are suspected? ‘A. Some may producebeta-hemolysis under aerobic conditions B. Streptococci only grow under aerobic conditions ©. Streptococc only grow under anaerobic conditions 1D. Neither A nor B ‘Nasopharyngeal swabs are recommended for the detection of carriers such as: ‘A. Hemophilus influenzae, Neisseria, Bordetella pertussis B, Neisseria, Vibrio, Bordetella pertussis, ©. Hemophilus influenzae, Erysipelothrix, Vibrio D. Erysipelothrix, Neisseria, Listeria Todd-Hewitt broth is recommended for: ‘A. Determination of mycobacterial growth rate B. Primary culture for anaerobes C. Stool enrichment for Salmonella but not for Shigella . Culture of beta-hemolytic streptococci fo. fluoresecnce micracopy Phenylethyl alcoho! is usied in media to: ‘A. Inhibit gram-positive bacteria C. Stimulate gram-positive bacteria B._Inhibit gram-negative bacteria D, Stimulate gram-negative bacteria ‘Why is a frst morning uiine specimen preferred for urine cultures? A. Specimen is diluted C. Specimen is more concentrated B, Bacteria are ali motile D.AandB ‘What indicates vaginal or urethral contamination of urine’? 4. Many squamous epithelial cells C. 1-2 RBCsinpt 1. Few white blood celts 1D. morphous urates |In the pour-plate method for colony counts, how dos the amount of agar adde effect the dilution ‘A. Dilution is increased C. Dilution is increased 20% B. Dilution is decreased Dilution is not affected ‘Smears of cerebrospinal fluid are prepared from: ‘A. Cerebrospinal fluid sediment C. Heated cerebrospinal fuid 'B._Uncentrituged cerebrospinal fluid D. Stozen cerebrospinal fluid ‘Smears of cerebrospinal fluid are usually staned with: = A. Acid-fast stain 8. Gram stain . india ink stain D.Bandc ‘Which of the folowing lets for becerlal angen on cuties isolated from cerebrospinal ud is more sanstive and fas A. Coagglutination tests C. Counterimmuncelectrophioresis test B. Latex agglutination terts D. Coaguiase test ‘Staphylococcal protein A coated with antiserum is used in which of the following serological test on cerebrospinal fluid? ‘A. Coagglutination test C. Counterimmunoelectrophoresis 'B. ' atex agglutination test D.ELISA 49. st 52 59. 60 62 63, 65. 67. 68. re — Which of the following is not the cause of a venereal dis sase? ‘A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae ©. Staphylococcus aureus B._ Treponema pallidum . Trichomonas vaginalis, Using sheep biood for tiood

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