BCQS

Q1: A 50 year old diabetic man presents in clinic with severe left Otalgia refractory to
routine and gesics for 1 week. He also used some antibiotics but no improvement in the
symptoms. On clinical examination left ear shows pus and granulation tissue at floor of
external auditory canal.

What is the likely diagnosis?

A. Acute otitis externa

B. Boil in external auditory meatus
C. Carcinoma of ear
D. Malignant otitis externa

Q2: Treatment of Pre-auricular sinus is

A. Analgesic
B. Antibiotics
C. Surgery
D. Observe

Q3: A 20 year old man presents with history of block ear for the last 3 days following
shower. He does not complain of pain. What is the likely diagnosis?

A. Acute Otitis Externa

B. Acute Otitis Media
C. Boil external auditory canal
D. Wax

Q4 Most common benign tumour of external auditory meatus:

A: Osteoma
B: Adenoma
C: Papilloma
D: Ceruminoma

Q5: Primary cause of osteoma of external auditory canal is:

A. Otitis external
B. Swimming in cold water
C. Trauma
D. Long standing otitis media
Q6: Commonest organism responsible for otitis externa in tropics is:

A. Streptococcus
B. H. Influenza
C. Staphylococcus
D. Pseudomonas

Q7: Abnormally patent Eustachian tube may be seen in all of the following EXCEPT:

A. Marked weight loss

B. Adenoid enlargement
C. Debilitating diseases in old age
D. Congenital

Q8: Unilateral secretory otitis media in an adult may seen in:

A. Grandular fever
B. Parapharyngeal tumour
C. Aids
D. Carcinoma nasopharynx

Q9: Commonest bacterial isolate in acute suppurative otitis media is:

A. Pneumococcus
B. H. Influenza
C. E. Coli
D. Staphylococcus

Q10: Chief complaint in chronic middle ear effusion in adult is:

A. Pain in ear
B. Blocked feeling in ear
C. Tinnitus
D. Deafness

Q11: All points towards chronic middle ear effusion EXCEPT:

A. Reduced mobility of drum

B. Flat tympanogram
C. Conductive deafness
D. Red tympanic membrane

Q12: Cholesteatoma commonly erodes all of the following EXCEPT:

 A. Fallopian canal
B. Cochlea
C. Incus
D. Lateral semicircular

Q13: Characteristic discharge in attico-antral disease is:

A. Purulent discharge
B. Mostly stained discharge
C. Mucopurulent discharge
D. Mucoid discharge

Q14: Commonest material used in myringoplasty is:

A. Perichondrium
B. Cartilage
C. Temporalis fascia
D. Dura matter

Q15: A 25 year old man presents with history of left otalgia for last 2 days, which is
progressing and severe? No history of deafness. A day before onset of his symptoms, he
went to local doctor who syringed his ear to remove wax. On examination, pulling his pinna
causes pain.

What is the likely diagnosis?

A: Acute Otitis Externa

B: Acute Otitis Media
C: Wax
D: Necrotizing Otitis Externa

Q16: Treatment of Hematoma Pinna:

A: Analgesic
B: Antibiotics
C: Incision & Drainage
D: Pressure dressing
Q17: Treatment of Acute Otitis Externa

A: Topical Steroid Drops

B: Topical Antibiotic Drops
C: Topical Antibiotic/Steroid Drops
D: Topical Antibiotic/Steroid Wick

Q18: Organism commonly seen in Acute Otitis Externa

A: Hemophilus Influenzae
B: Proteus
C: Psuedomonas aeruginosa
D: Staphylococus Aureus

Q19: A 20 year old swimmer presents with history of recurrent block ear for 6 months. He
repeatedly goes to his GP who remove wax from his ears with syringing.
What is the likely diagnosis?

A: Chronic Otitis Externa

B: Exostosis
C: Meatal atresia
D: Meatal Stenosis

Q20: If Acute Perichondritis of Pinna not treated urgently, it can lead to:

A: Abscess
B: Cauliflower ear
C: Scarring
D: Thickening of Pinna

Q21: A 25 year old man presents with history of right otorrhea for the last eight months.
He has noticed brief episodes of vertigo whenever doctor does aural toilet in the affected
ear.
What is the cause of vertigo:

A: Cholesteatoma
B: Labrynthitis
C: Ototoxicity
D: Prilymph fistula

Q22: A 10 year old girl presents with right otalgia and right deafness for the last one day.
On examination she has temperature of 38 degree Celsius. Right tympanic membrane is
hyperemic and bulging. Weber is lateralize to right ear. Rinne’s test negative on both sides

How would you treat?

A: Analgesics
B: Oral Antibiotics
C: Intravenous Antibiotics
D: Antipyretic

Q23: A mother brings 4 year old girl to ENT clinic with history of recurrent bilateral
otalgia on enquiring her mother told that her nose remained most of the time for last on
year. She also notice that girl slept with open mouth mostly. On clinical examination both
tympanic membranes are retracted and amber colour. How would you treat the child?
A: Bilateral Myringotomy, Grommets and Adenoidectomy
B: Bilateral Myringotomy, Grommet and Antral wash
C: Bilateral Myringotomy and Adenoidectomy
D: Bilateral Myringotomy and Grommets

Q24: A 30 yr old man comes to clinic with history of leftt otorrhea for 1 year. On
examination of left ear there is a posterior retraction pocket with mucopus and granulation
tissue. Fistula test is positive.
What investigations you would ask for?

A: CT scan temporal bone

B: MRI scan temporal bone
C: Pus for culture and sensitivity
D: X-ray Mastoid

Q25: A 20 year old man had road traffic accident. He is immediately brought to casualty.
On examination the patient is fully alert. However there is complete right facial palsy. Both
ear canal and tympanic membrane are normal

What is the most likely cause of facial palsy?

A: Hemotympanum
B: Extradural hematoma
C: Longitudnal fracture petrous bone
D: Tranverse fracture petrous bone

Q26: A 28 year old lady presents with history of pain in left ear followed by rashes and left
facial weakness two days later. She has also noticed decrease hearing on the same side.
What is the likely diagnosis?

A: Bell’s palsy with eczema face

B: Herpes zoster
C: Necrotizing otitis externa
D: Ramsey Hunt Syndrome

Q27: A 30 year old female presents with history of left otorrhea for the last 3 years. On
examination of left ear there is pus and large polyp filling ear canal. Audiogram shows 60
db conductive deafness.
How would you treat this patient?

A: Aural Polypectomy
B: Aural Polypectomy and Tympanoplasty
C: Exploration of mastoid
D: Exploration of mastoid and Tympanoplasty

Q28: A 30 year old man presents with history of sudden deafness for the last one day.
Audiogram shows bilateral 60db sensorineural deafness. How would you treat?

A: Hearing Aid
B: Carbogen (5% CO2 95% O2)
C: Low molecular weight Dextran
D: Steroids

Q29: A 50 year old man presents with history of sudden onset of vertigo with nausea and
vomiting for the last three days. On examination the patient is on wheel chair. Both
tympanic membranes are normal. Romberg test is positive. How would you manage the
patient?

A: Anti-emetic and cervical collar

B: Bed rest and antimetic
C: Cervical collar and bed rest
D: Labrynthine suppressant and bed rest.

Q30: A 45 year old man presents with history of vertigo and left sensorineural
deafness.Which single test you would ask for?

A: Brainstem evoked response audiometry

B: CT scan internal auditory meatus with contrast
C: Electronystagmography
D: MRI scan internal auditory meatus with contrast

Q31: A 50 year old man presents with history of episodic vertigo on looking up lasting few
seconds. Both ears are normal. How would you confirm the diagnosis?

A: Caloric test
B: Dix Hallpike
C: Electronystagmography
D: Romberg’s Test

Q32: Dorsum of Nose formed by all of the following EXCEPT:

A: Vomer
B: Lower Lateral Cartilage
C: Nasal Bones
D: Septal Cartilage

Q33: The Parotid Duct opens at the level of?

A) Mandibular second Molar Tooth

B) Mandibular Second Premolar Tooth
C) Upper Second Incisor Tooth
D) Upper Second Molar Tooth |
E) Upper Second Premolar Tooth

Q34: A 30 years old surgeon operated upon a middle aged lady for enlarged thyroid and
ligated superior and inferior arteries as closed to the poles as possible. After two weeks the
lady presented with hoarsness of voice. Most likely cause could be injury to?

A) Vagus Nerve
B) Sore throat
C) Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve
D) Laryngeal Oedema
E) External Laryngeal Nerve

Q35: A surgeon is doing surgery of submandibular gland which of the following nerve is
likely to be damaged during surgery?

A) Vagus Nerve
B) Marginal Mandibular branch of facial
C) hypoglossal Nerve
D) Glossopharyngeal Nerve
E) Descending branch of Facial nerve

Q36: Most common tumor of salivary gland is

A) Papillary cystadenoma lymphomatosum

B) Oxyphillic cell sdenoma
C) Pleomorphic adenoma
 D) Adenoid cystic carcinoma

Q37:Most common site of occurrence of salivary gland tumors

A) Parotid gland
B) Sub-maxillary gland
C) Sub-lingual gland
D) Minor salivary gland

Q38: The cricoids cartilage is at the vertebral level of

A) C2
B) C4
C) C6
D) T1
E) T3

Q39: The following structure occupy the carotid sheath, except

A) Common carotid artey

B) Internal carotid artey
C) Vagus nerve
D) Sympathetic trunk
E) Internal jugular vein

Q40: Which of the following nerve is present in Cavernous Sinus?

A)Ophthalmic
B)Trigeminal
C)Abducens
D)Trochlear
E) Occulomotor

Q41: On protrusion, tongue deviates, which nerve is involved?

A) Facial Nerve
B) Hypoglossal nerve
C) Abducent Nerve
 D) Facial Colliculis
E) Trigeminal Nerve

Q42: The mucous membrane of the larynx below the vocal folds is supplied by this nerve

a.       pharyngeal
b.       recurrent laryngeal
c.        internal laryngeal
d.       external laryngeal
e.        glossopharyngeal

Q43: The inferior meatus of nose has this structure opening into it

a.       maxillary sinus

b.       sphenoid sinus
c.        posterior ethmoidal sinuses
d.       middle ethmoidal sinuses
e.        nasolacrimal duct

Q44: The most common and earliest manifestation of carcinoma of the glottis is:

A. Hoarseness
B. Haemoptysis
C. Cervical lymph nodes
D. Stridor

Q45: The most common site of leak in CSF rhinorrhoea is:

A. Sphenoid sinus
B. Frontal sinus
C Cribriform plate
D.Tegmen tympani

Q46: Unilateral offensive blood tinged purulent rhinorrhea in a 3 years old is more likely due
to:

a) Rhinosceleroma
b) Lupus
c) Foreign body
 d) Adenoid

Q47: Stridor is characteristic feature of the following diseases except:

a) Laryngeal dipheteria
b) Angioneurtic edema
c) Adenoid hypertrophy
d) Bilateral abductor vocal cord paralysis

Q48: Organism responsible for nasal vestibulitis is

a) Candida
b) Pseudomonas
c) Staphylococcus aureus
d) Streptococcus pyogenes

Q49: Juvenile nasopharyngeal angiofibroma arises from

a) Fossa of Rosenmuller
b) Nasal septum
c) Posterior part of nose
d) Sphenopalatine foramen

Q50: In woodworkers the most carcinoma of nose is

a) Adenocarcinoma
b) Adenoid cystic carcinoma
c) Olfactory carcinoma
d) Squamous cell carcinoma

Q51: Thin plate of bone separating the ethmoid from the eye is

a) Basal lamella
b) Cribriform plate
c) Fovea ethmoidalis
d) Lamina papyracea

Q52: In paediatric acute rhino-sinusitis the organism is

 a) Streptococcus pneumoniae
b) Streptococcus pyogenes
c) Pseudomonasauraginosa
d) Klebsiella

Q53: Young male child with recurrent nasal bleeding, proptosis and slight facial distortion
suggests

a) Angiofibroma
b) Ethmoidal polyp
c) Hemangioma
d) Rhinolith

Q54: The surgery of choice for allergic nasal polyposis is

a) Functional endoscopic sinus surgery

b) Intranasal ethmoidectomy
c) Intranasal polypectomy
d) Lateral rhinotomy and polypectomy

Q55: Unilateral secretory otitis media in an elderly patient is ominous because

a) Causes hearing loss.

b) Causes pain in ear and headache.
c) Indicate nasal tumors.
d) Suspicious of Nasopharyngeal tumor

Q56: Anosmia is.

a. Inability to breath.
b. Loss of flavor.
c. Loss of smell
d. Loss of taste.

Q57: Among the turbinates, which one is a separate bone.

a. Superior turbinate.
b. Inferior turbinate.
c. Middle turbinate.
 d. Supreme turbinate

Q58: Rhinophyma is associated with

a. Hyperplasia of endothelial cells

b. Hyperplasia of epithelial cells
c. Hypertrophy of sebaceous glands
d. Hypertrophy of sweat glands

Q59: Which of the following ganglion is associated with lacrimation?

a. Ciliary ganglion
b. Gasserian ganglion
c. Otic ganglion
d. Spenopalatine ganglion

Q60: Opening of nasolacrimal duct is situated in

a. Ethmoid infundibulum
b. Inferior meatus
c. Middle meatus
d. Superior meatus

Q61: The space between bulla ethmoidalis and uncinate process is called:

a. Agger nasi
b. Frontonasal duct
c. Hiatus semilunaris
d. Olfactory cleft

Q62: Thornwalds cyst is seen in

a. Base of tongue
b. Floor of mouth
c. Larynx
d. Nasopharynx
Q63: Unilateral secretory otitis media with conductive deafness in an elderly, calls

for the investigation for:

a. AIDS
b. Carcinoma nasopharynx.
c. Glandular fever.
d. Parapharyngeal tumours

Q64: Common site for CSF rhinorrhoea is?

a. Cribriform plate
b. Ethmoidal sinus
c. Frontal sinus
d. Petrous bone

Q65: Young male child with recurrent nasal bleeding, proptosis and slight facial distortion
suggests

a. Angiofibroma
b. Ethmoidal polyp
c. Hemangioma
d. Rhinolith

Q66: Organism responsible for nasal vestibulitis is

a. Candida
b. Pseudomonas
c. Streptococcal species
d. Staphylococcal aureus

Q67: Rhinolalia aperta is associated with:

a. Adenoids
b. Allaergic rhinitis
c. Nasal polyp
d. Palatal paralysis
Q68: A child just after birth developed severe cyanosis which improved on crying.
Probable diagnosis is:

a. Acute laryngitis
b. Bronchial asthma
c. Bilateral choanal artesia
d. Hypertrophic adenoides

Q69: All the muscles of larynx are supplied by recurrent laryngeal nerve except:

a. Cricothyroid.
b. Oblique arytenoids
c. Thyroarytenoid
d. Vocalis

Q70: Lymphoid tissue called waldeyer’s ring is situated in:

a. Base of tongue
b. Nasopharynx
c. Nasopharynx And oropharynx
d. Oropharynx

Q71: Virus responsible of laryngeal papilloma is

a. Cytomegalo virus
b. Ebstein bar virus
c. Human immune deficiency virus
d. Human Papilloma virus

Q72: Tracheostomy

a. Cannot be permanent
b. Increases the work of breathing
c. Results in increase of dead space
d. The incision is generally through the second to fourth tracheal rings

Q73: Orodental fistulais most commonly seen after extraction of:

 e. First molar
f. First premolar
g. Second molar
h. Second premolar

Q74: Trismus accompanying peritonsillar abcess is due to spasm of which muscle?

a. Masseter
b. Medial pterigoid
c. Pharyngeal constrictors
d. Temporalis

Q75: Laryngeal crepitus is seen in:

a. Fracture of thyroid cartilage

b. Normal person
c. Post cricoids carcinoma
d. Prevertebral abcess

Q76: laryngocele arises from:

a. vallecula
b. laryngeal saccule
c. laryngeral ventricle
d. aryepiglottic fold

Q77: Long standing obstruction due to enlarged tonsils and adenoids can cause:

a. Left ventricle hypertrophy

b. Bundle branch block
c. Cor pulmonale
d. Cardiac ischemia

Q78: The best way to diagnose laryngomalacia is:

a. Direct laryngoscopy
b. flexible fiberoptoc laryngoscopy
c. Signs and symptoms of the desease
d. Soft tissue lateral view neck
Q79: A child with acute tonsillitis and bull neck appearance comes with blood report
showing lymphocytosis. The diagnosis can be

a. Acute follicular tonsillitis

b. Diphtheria
c. Infectious mononucleosis
d. Streptococcal tonsillitis

Q80: Sjogren syndrome is

a. An autoimmune disorder
b. Granulomatous infection
c. Involves endocrine glands
d. viral infection

Q81: Virus responsible of laryngeal papilloma is

e. Cytomegalo virus
f. Ebstein bar virus
g. Human immune deficiency virus
h. Human Papilloma virus

Q82: Most common site for impaction of foreign body coin is at

a. Crico-pharyngeal sphincter
b. Esophagus
c. Larynx
d. Tracheo-bronchial tract

Q83: The structure that lies beneath the floor of the middle ear is

a. Internal Carotid Artery

b. Internal Jugular Vein
c. Jugular Bulb.
d. Parotid gland
Q84: Which of the following lesion in oral cavity has more malignan potential

a. Leucoplakia
b. Aphthous ulcer
c. Candida
d. Etythroplakia

Q85: The first system of glottic carcinoma is:

a. Dyspnoea
b. Cough
c. Hoarseness
d. Stridor

Q86: Treatment of reactionary hemorrhage after tonsillectomy is:

a. Ligation of bleeding vessel under anaesthesia

b. Blood transfusion
c. Cold application
d. Ligation of external carotid artery.

Q87: Hearing loss in acoustic neuroma is:

a. Cochlear.
b. Retrocochlear
c. Vestibular
d. vestibulocochlear.

Q88: A patient came with complain of blood stain nasal discharge. He also has loose tooth
at same side. Radiograph reveals erosion of bone and opacity of maxillary sinus.

a. Acute sinusitis.
b. Maxillary retention cyst
c. Rhinolith.
d. Sinonasal malignancy.

Q89: Olfactory cleft lies between the:

 a. Middle turbinate & cribriform plate
b. Superior turbinate & cribriform plate
c. Superior turbinate & inferior turbinate
d. Inferior turbinate & cribriform plate

Q90:The nerve supply of the nose:

a. Sympathetic supply from middle cervical ganglion
b. Parasympathetic supply via nervus intermedius
c. Parashympatheti supply via otic ganglion
d. Parashympatheti supply via ciliary ganglion

Q91: Nasal polyps in a child should arouse the suspicion of:

a. Angiofibroma
b. Enlarged adenoids
c. Cystic fibrosis
d. Down’s syndrome

Q92: Syphilis of nose usually involves the:

a. Nasal septum
b. Ethmoid sinus
c. Nasal bone
d. Maxillary sinus

Q93: Septal perforation may seen in all EXCEPT:

a. Tuberculosis
b. Syphilis
c. Leprosy
d. Toxoplasmosis

Q94: Radiologically, maxillary sinus is best seen in:

a. Lateral view
b. Oblique view
 c. Occipito frontal view
d. Occipitomental view

Q95: Reduction rhinoplasty is for:

a. Hump nose
b. Narrow nose
c. Crooked nose
d. Saddle nose
Q96: Potato nose is seen in:

a. Malignancy
b. Sarcoidosis
c. Rhinophyma
d. Rhinosporidiosis

Q97: Commonest malignant neoplasm of the nose and paranasal sinuses is:
a. Basal cell carcinoma
b. Squamous cellcarcinoma
c. Adenocarcinoma
d. Malignant melanoma

Q98: Diagnosis of glandular fever is confirmed by:

a. Positive monospot test
b. Raised liver enzyme
c. Leucocytosis
d. C-reactive protein

Q99: Killian Dehiscence leads to:

a. Oesophageal diverticulae
b. Pharyngeal pouch
c. Laryngocele
d. Plummer-vinson syndrome
Q100: True about globus syndrome:
a. Feeling of lump in the throat
b. Organic lesion present
c. Relieved by anxiety
d. Treatment is surgery

Q101: Difficulty in swallowing fluids than solids seen in:

a. Achlasia
b. Oesophageal stricture
c. Pharyngeal pouch
d. Carcinoma oesophagus

Q102: Organism responsible for Ludwig’s angina is:

a. Haemolyticus streptococcus
b. Albus streptococcus
c. Viridans streptococcus
d. Aureus streptococcus

Q103: Mainstay of treatment in Ludwig’s angina is treated by:

a. Supportive treatment
b. Antibiotics
c. Incision and drainage
d. Radiation

Q104: Treatment of nasopharygial carcinoma is:

a. Radiotherapy
b. Cryosurgery
c. Surgery
d.Chemotherapy
Q105: Type of aphthous ulcer seen in population normally:
a. Minor
b. Malignant
c. Major
d. Recurrent
Q106: Treatment of geographical tongue is:
a. Reassurance
b. B-complex
c. Vit. A
d. Iron

Q107: In Sjogren’s syndrome biopsy taken from:

a. Palatal glands
b. Monir sublabial gland
c. Submandibular
d. Lacrimal glands

Q108: Frey’s syndrome occurs:

a. Sialectasis
b. After parotidectomy
c. Warthin’s tumour
d. In pleomarphic adenoma

Q109: Abducters of vocal cords:

a. Cricothyroid
b. Thyroarytonoid
c. Posterior cricoartytenoid
d. Lateral cricoarytenoid

Q110: Vocal nodules present usually seen at:

a. Anterior 2/3 & posterior 1/3 junction
b. Middle of the cord
c. At the junction of anterior 1/3 & posterior 2/3 of the cord
d. Posterior 1/3 of the cord

Q111: A 7 years old boy has severe deflection of nasal septum. He finds lots of difficulty in
breathing through his nose along with recurrent episodes of acute sinusitis. Which treatment is
best for him?

a. SMR
 b. FESS
c. Septoplasty
d. Wait till he gets 16 years old then SMR

Q112: Antro-choanal polyp originate in

a. Sphenoid sinus
b. Frontal sinus
c. Maxillary sinus
d. Ethmoidal sinus

Q113: A 45yrs. old man presents with a malignant growth on the right lateral border of
tongue. The most likely diagnosis on biopsy would be

a. Malignant melanoma
b. Salivary gland tumor
c. Sarcoma
d. Squamous cell carcinoma
e. Adenocarcinoma

Q114: Acute pharyngotonsillitis due to infectious mononucleosis is caused by the following

microorganism

a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Group A β hemolytic streptococcus
c. Cytomegalovirus
d. Epstein Bar virus
e. Corynebacterium diphtheria

Q115: Nasal polyp commonly present with:

a: Increasing nasal obstruction

b: Rhinorrhoea
c: Headache
d: Anosmia