DU LLB MOCK TEST

Questions 1 through 7 refer to the following passage:

In the 16th century, an age of great marine and terrestrial exploration, Ferdinand
Magellan led the first expedition to sail around the world. As a young Portuguese noble,
he served the king of Portugal, but he became involved in the quagmire of political
intrigue at court and lost the king’s favor. After he was dismissed from service by the
king of Portugal, he offered to serve the future Emperor Charles V of Spain.
A papal decree of 1493 had assigned all land in the New World west of 50 degrees W
longitude to Spain and all the land east of that line to Portugal. Magellan offered to
prove that the East Indies fell under Spanish authority. On September 20, 1519,
Magellan set sail from Spain with five ships. More than a year later, one of these ships
was exploring the topography of South America in search of a water route across the
continent. This ship sank, but the remaining four ships searched along the southern
peninsula of South America. Finally they found the passage they sought near 50 degrees
S latitude. Magellan named this passage the Strait of All Saints, but today it is known as
the Strait of Magellan.
One ship deserted while in this passage and returned to Spain, so fewer sailors were
privileged to gaze at that first panorama of the Pacific Ocean. Those who remained
crossed the meridian now known as the International Date Line in the early spring of
1521 after 98 days on the Pacific Ocean. During those long days at sea, many of
Magellan’s men died of starvation and disease.
Later, Magellan became involved in an insular conflict in the Philippines and was killed
in a tribal battle. Only one ship and 17 sailors under the command of the Basque
navigator Elcano survived to complete the westward journey to Spain and thus prove
once and for all that the world is round, with no precipice at the edge.
1. The 16th century was an age of great ______ exploration.
1. cosmic
2. land
3. mental
4. common man
5. None of the above
2. Magellan lost the favor of the king of Portugal when he became involved in a
political ________.
1. entanglement
2. discussion
3. negotiation
4. problem
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5. None of the above

3. The Pope divided New World lands between Spain and Portugal according to
their location on one side or the other of an imaginary geographical line 50
degrees west of Greenwich that extends in a _________ direction.
1. north and south
2. crosswise
3. easterly
4. south east
5. north and west
4. One of Magellan’s ships explored the _________ of South America for a passage
across the continent.
1. coastline
2. mountain range
3. physical features
4. islands
5. None of the above
5. Four of the ships sought a passage along a southern ______.
1. coast
2. inland
3. body of land with water on three sides
4. border
5. Answer not available
6. The passage was found near 50 degrees S of ________.
1. Greenwich
2. The equator
3. Spain
4. Portugal
5. Madrid
7. In the spring of 1521, the ships crossed the _______ now called the International
Date Line.
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1. imaginary circle passing through the poles

2. imaginary line parallel to the equator
3. area
4. land mass
5. Answer not available

8 )The latest version of ‘Consumer Protection Act’ was passed in which year?
[A] 2010
[B] 2015
[C] 2019
[D] 2021
9) Which South-American country is drafting a new Constitution?
[A] Chile
[B] Brazil
[C] Argentina
[D] Bolivia
10) The Special Protection Group Act, 1988 was passed to provide security to……….
[A] Nuclear Power Plants
[B] Prime Minister and former Prime Ministers
[C] India’s land borders
[D] India’s water borders
11) Which institution launches the ‘World Employment and Social Outlook’?
[A] World Bank
[B] IMF
[C] ILO
[D] UNICEF
13) India along with which country signed the ‘Green Strategic Partnership – Action
Plan 2020-2025’?
[A] France
[B] Denmark
[C] Australia
[D] United Kingdom

14) .Barbados island is located in which sea?

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[A] Caribbean Sea

[B] Mediterranean Sea
[C] Baltic Sea
[D] South China Sea
15) When is the “National Girl Child Day” celebrated in India?
[A] January 23
[B] January 24
[C] January 26
[D] January 30
16) .What is the theme of the “The International Day of Education” 2021?
[A] Changing Course, Transforming Education
[B] Education amidst the Pandemic
[C] Education in ensuring peace
[D] Equitable and Quality education for all
17) Vayam Rakshamah” or “We Protect” is the theme of which armed force of India?
[A] Indian Coast Guard
[B] Indo-Tibetan Border Police
[C] Assam Sentinels
[D] Border Security Force
18) .What is the theme of the ‘World Wetlands Day 2022’?
[A] Wetlands Action for People and Nature
[B] Universal Wetlands
[C] Waste management in Wetlands
[D] Wetlands and Climate Change
19) Which is the largest glacier in India?
[A] Zemu Glacier
[B] Satopanth Glacier
[C] Gangotri Glacier
[D] Siachen Glacier
20) Which is the longest river of Europe?
[A] Danube River
[B] Rhine River
[C] Volga River
[D] Elbe River
21)Which one of the following native states was NOT annexed by the British on the
basis of the Doctrine of Lapse?
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[A] Satara
[B] Punjab
[C] Jhansi
[D] Karauli
22) .Which among the following was the first Presidency of British East India Company
in India ?
[A] Madras
[B] Masulipattam
[C] Surat
[D] Hungli
23) .The founder of Satya Shodhak Samaj was ___?
[A] Atmaram Pandurang
[B] Gopal Hari Deshmukh
[C] M. G. Ranade
[D] Jyotiba Phule
24) .The revolt of 1857 was described as a ‘National Rising’ by which of the following
political leaders of Britain?
[A] Canning
[B] Gladstone
[C] Palmerstone
[D] Disraeli
25) .Lord William Bentinck is credited for which of the following in the Indian History ?
[A] Education reforms
[B] Laws
[C] Abolition of sati
[D] Local government
26) Which Union Ministry implements the ‘PM MITRA’ Scheme?
[A] Ministry of Textiles
[B] Ministry of Home Affairs
[C] Ministry of Defence
[D] Ministry of External Affairs
27).When was the first ‘World Athletics Day’ celebrated?
[A] 2022
[B] 2020
[C] 2010
[D] 1996
28)‘PM-WANI’ scheme, which was seen in the news, is associated with which service?
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[A] Water
[B] Electricity
[C] Wi-fi Access
[D] Digital Paymen
29)Which country is the host of the ‘Second global pandemic summit’ held in May 2022?
[A] Indonesia
[B] USA
[C] India
[D] Australia
30)The first case of monkeypox in humans was recorded in which country?
[A] Kenya
[B] Nigeria
[C] DRC
[D] India
31).What was the theme for International Day of Yoga 2022?
[A] Yoga for Well-being
[B] Yoga for Harmony And Peace
[C] Yoga for Health
[D] Yoga for Humanity

32)A problem is given to three students whose chances of solving it are 1/2, 1/3 and
1/4 respectively. What is the probability that the problem will be solved?

A) 1/4 B) 1/2

C) 3/4 D) 7/12

33) Find the missing number in the series?

4, 18, ?, 100, 180, 294, 448

A) 48 B) 50

C) 58 D) 60
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34) A B C D E F G H I J K L M N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z .

Which letter in this alphabet is the eighth letter to the right of the letter
and which is tenth letter to the left of the last but one letter of the alphabet?

A) X B) W

C) I D) H

35) Find the odd man out?

396, 462, 572, 427, 671, 264.

A) 671 B) 462

C) 427 D) 264

36) A bag contains 50 P, 25 P and 10 P coins in the ratio 5: 9: 4, amounting to Rs. 206.
Find the number of coins of each type respectively.

A) 360, 160, 200 B) 160, 360, 200

C) 200, 360,160 D) 200,160,300

37) A grocer has a sale of Rs 6435, Rs. 6927, Rs. 6855, Rs. 7230 and Rs. 6562 for 5
consecutive months. How much sale must he have in the sixth month so that he gets an
average sale of Rs, 6500 ?

A) 4991 B) 5467

C) 5987 D) 6453

38) In a certain code language COMPUTER is written as RFUVQNPC. How will

MEDICINE be written in that code language?

A) MFEDJJOE B) EOJDEJFM
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C) MFEJDJOE D) EOJDJEFM

39) Tickets numbered 1 to 20 are mixed up and then a ticket is drawn at random. What
is the probability that the ticket drawn has a number which is a multiple of 3 or 5?

A) 1/2 B) 3/5

C) 9/20 D) 8/15

40) . The President may for violation of the Constitution be removed from the office by
(a) The Prime Minister
(b) The Electoral College consisting of members of Parliament and the State
Legislatures.
(c) Impeachment
(d) A no- confidence vote

41. In which of the following situations does the President act in his own
discretion ?
(a) In returning a proposal to the Council of Ministers for reconsideration
(b) None of the Above
(c) In appointing the Prime Minister
(d) Both of these

42. The Prime Minister, Union Cabinet Minister, Chief Minister and Council of
Ministers are all
members of
(a) National Development Council
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(b) Regional Council

(c) Planning Commission
(d) Zonal Council

43. The President's Rule in a state means that the state is ruled by
(a) A caretaker government
(b) The Chief Minister nominated by the President
(c) The Governor of the State
(d) The President directly

44. The Chief - Minister of a Union Territory whenever such a set up exists, is
appointed by
(a) The Lt. Governor
(b) The majority party in the legislature
(c) The President
(d) The Prime Minister

45. Under what article of the Constitution of India can the President take over the
administration
of a state in case its constitutional machinery breaks down ?
(a) Art 352
(b) Art 343
(c) Art 356
(d) Art 83

46. The President can make laws through ordinances

(a) Only on subjects contained in the concurrent list
(b) Under no circumstances
(c) On certain subjects even when Parliament is in session.
(d) During the recess of the Parliament
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47. Which of the following qualification is not essential for a person to become
the VicePresident ?
(a) He must be an Indian.
(b) He must be qualified to be a member of the Rajya Sabha.
(c) He must not be less than 35 years.
(d) He must be a graduate.
48. How many types of Emergency have been visualised in the Constitution of
India ?
(a) Four
(b) Three
(c) One
(d) Two

49. The impeachment proceedings against the Vice- President can be initiated
(a) Only in Lok Sabha
(b) In neither Hosue of Parliament
(c) In either House of Parliament
(d) Only in Rajya Sabha

50. Who appoints the Lt. Governor of Jammu and Kashmir?

(a) Chief Minister of the State
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Chief Justice of the High Court
(d) President

51. The President of India can be removed from his office by the
(a) Parliament
(b) Chief Justice of India
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(c) Prime Minister

(d) Lok Sabha

52. If the President returns a Bill sent to him for his assent and the Parliament
once again passes
the Bill in its original form, then the President
(a) Can seek the opinion of the Supreme Court on the bill
(b) Gives assent to the bill
(c) Can once again return the bill for further reconsideration
(d) Can ask for a referendum on the bill

53. If a Minister loses a no- confidence motion, then

(a) Lok Sabha is dissolved
(b) Only Prime Minister and that Minister resigns.
(c) The whole Council of Ministers resigns
(d) The Minister resigns

54. The only instance when the President of India exercised his power of veto
related to the
(a) Indian Post Office (Amendment Bill)
(b) Dowry Prohibition Bill
(c) Hindu Code Bill
(d) PEPSU Appropriation Bill

55. The control of the preparation of electoral rolls for parliament and legislature
vests with the
(a) President
(b) Election Commission
(c) Cabinet
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(d) Prime Minister

56. What is contained in the tenth schedule of the constitution ?

(a) Languages recognised by constitution
(b) Forms of oath or affirmation
(c) Laws that cannot be challenged in any court of law
(d) Provision regarding disqualification on grounds of defection

57. The Election commision holds election for

(a) The Parliament, State Legislature and the posts of the president and the Vice-
President
(b) The parliament, State legislative Assemblies and the State Council
(c) The Parliament
(d) The parliament and the State Legislative Assemblies

58. For Election to the lok sabha, a nomination paper can be field by
(a) Any citizen of India
(b) Any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a
Constituency
(c) Anyone residing in India
(d) A resident of the Constituency from which the election to be contested

59. In India, political parties are given recognition by

(a) Election Commission
(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) President
(d) Law Commission

60. The Vice President is elected by an Electoral College consisting of members of

(a) Both Houses of Parliament and state legislative
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(b) Both Houses of Parliament

(c) Lok Sabha
(d) Rajya Sabha

61. The election Commision dose not conduct the elections to the
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) President's election
(c) Rajya Sabha
(d) Local Bodies

62. The maximum age prescribed for election as president is

(a) No such Limit
(b) 62 years
(c) 58 years
(d) 60 years

63. The power to decide an election petition is vested in the

(a) High Court
(b) Election Commission
(c) Parliament
(d) Supreme Court

64. To elect the President of India, which one of the following election
procedures is used ?
(a) System of proportional representation by means of the single transferable
vote
(b) Secondary voting system
(c) Proportional representation through list system
(d) Collective Voting system
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65. In which year were the first general election held in India ?
(a) 1950-51
(b) 1948-49
(c) 1951-52
(d) 1947-48

66. Election to the house of the people and the Legislative Assemblies of States in
India are
conducted on the basis of
(a) Single Transferable vote
(b) Propotional Representation
(c) Limited sufferage
(d) Adult Franchise

67. Who appoint the Chief Election Commissioner of India ?

(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Parliament

68. Which among the following is not a part of the electoral reforms ?
(a) Installation of electronic voting machines
(b) Appoinment of election Commissioner
(c) Registration of Political parties
(d) Disquallifying the offenders

69. Recognition to a political party is accorded by

(a) The Election Commision
(b) A Committee of Whips
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(c) The ministry of parliament Affours

(d) The speaker of the Lok Sabha in the case of national Parties and the Speaker
of Legislative
assemblies in the case of regional parties

70. The Chief Minister of a state in India is not eligible to vote in the Presidential
election if
(a) He is a member of the Upper House of the State Legislature
(b) He is a caretaker Chief Minister
(c) He himself is a candidate
(d) He is yet to prove his majority on the floor of the Lower House of the state
Legislature

71. Indian Evidence Act is enacted in the year

(a) 1908
(b) 1973
(c) 1872
(d) 1888
72. Who drafted Indian Evidence Act
(a) Sir James Stephen
(b) Henry Maine
(c) Macaulay
(d) None of the above
73. Identification parade is conducted by
(a) Police officer
(b) Government official
(c) Magistrate
(d) Any person
74. In criminal cases the previous good character of the person is
(a) Relevant
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(b) Irrelevant
(c) Cannot be given as evidence
(d) Relevant in tort cases only
75. What is the meaning of the maxim “incumbit probation qui dicit, non qui
negat”
(a) Guilt must be proved beyond reasonable doubt
(b) The burden of proof is on him who denies a fact.
(c) No man is guilty without proof
(d) No one should be punished for the same offence more than once
76. 'Quid Probandium' means
(a) Things need not be proved
(b) Things already proved
(c) Things to be proved
(d) None of the above
77. Which among the following is relevant under Indian Evidence Act, 1872?
(a) Confession to a Police Officer
(b) Judicial Confession
(c) Involuntary Confession
(d) Retracted Confession
78. Any question suggesting the answer which the person putting it wishes or
expects to receive is called.
(a) Direct question
(b) Leading question
(c) Irrelevant question
(d) Oral question
79) LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Nothing is an offence which is done by a person who is
justified by law or
who by reason or by mistake of fact and not by mistake of law, in good faith,
believes himself to
be justified by law in doing it.
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FACTS: A constable sees Julie carrying some goods. Seeing Julie behave in a
peculiar manner,
the constable becomes suspicious, approaches her and asks to inspect the goods.
Julie refuses
and tries to leave the scene but the constable persists and there is a scuffle. Julie
is arrested and
later released since the goods were found to be innocent. She sues the constable.
(a) The constable is liable since he should have obtained a search warrant before
searching Julie.
(b) The constable is liable since he should not have arrested Julie unless he had some
reasonable basis
to suspect that she was doing something wrong.
(c) The constable is not liable since he would have immunity as a policeman.
(d) The constable is not liable since he believed that he was legally justified in arresting
Julie.

80) . The Law Commission in which of its Report had recommended the retention
of death penalty in
India?
(a) 35th Report (b) 142nd Report
(c) 262nd Report (d) 142nd] Report
81). In which landmark judgment did the Supreme Court of India lay down
guidelines relating to
sexual harassment of women at workplace?
(a) Nilabati Behera v. State of Orissa
(b) Vishakha v. State of Rajasthan
(c) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
(d) Hussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar
82. What is an extradition treaty?
(a) A treaty for surrender of an alleged or convicted criminal by one nation to another.
(b) A treaty for ensuring fair trial of an alleged or convicted criminal transferred by one
nation to
another.
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(c) A treaty for international trial of an alleged or convicted criminal.

(d) A treaty for trial of an alleged or convicted criminal by a nation for crime committed
or allegedly
committed in another nation.
83. ASSERTION (A): Crime is punishable because it is prohibited by the law.
REASON (R): Crime is revolting to the moral sense of society.
(a) Both (a) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (a).
(b) Both (a) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (a).
(c) (a) is true, (R) is false.
(d) (a) is false, (R) is true
84. Which one among the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code defines
murder?
(a) 299 (b) 300 (c) 301 (d) 302

85. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Cheating is defined as deceiving any person to deliver any
property and it
includes the dishonest concealment of facts. Cheating by personation means one
person cheating
another by pretending to be some other person or by knowingly substituting one
person for
another or representing that he or any other person is a person other than he or
such other
person really is.
FACTS: A while leaving a restaurant, by mistake picked up the umbrella of B
instead of his
own. The next day, he decided to return to the restaurant with the umbrella
hoping to find the
real owner. C, who had never seen B in person and had only communicated with B
through
letters was on his way to the restaurant to meet B. Since B and C had never met, it
was agreed
between them to identify each other at the pre-appointed spot, the restaurant
door, by the
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clothing of C and umbrella of B which they had described to each other in detail. C
saw A at the
door of the restaurant and identified the umbrella. Thinking A to be B, C delivered
a parcel
labelled Mr. B to A. A received the same without protest and promptly returned
home without
looking for B. Is A guilty of cheating by personation?
(a) A is not guilty because he was going to return the umbrella to the real owner and
handing over B’s
packet to A was C’s mistake.
(b) A is not guilty because he was overcome by the sudden temptation.
(c) A is guilty because he was aware of the mistaken identity and he knew that the
parcel was not
meant for him but for B.
(d) A is guilty because the parcel might have been valuable to B
86. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: When and act which would otherwise be a certain offence
is not that
offence by reason of the unsoundness of mind of the person doing that act, every
person has the
same right of private defence against that act which he would have if the act were
that offence.
FACTS: Z, under the influence of madness, attempts to kill A.
(a) Z is guilty of an offence
(b) A has the same right of private defence which he would have if Z were sane.
(c) A does not have the same right of private defence which he would have if Z were
sane
(d) Both (a) and (b) are correct
87. Homicide means
(a) Causing death
(b) Intentionally causing death
(c) Causing death of anyone
(d) Causing death of a human being
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88. In dowry cases, the burden of proof lies on

(a) Victim (b) Prosecution (c) State (d) Accused]
89. The Penal Code which used to be applicable to the territory of Jammu and
Kashmir was known
as the
(a) Indian Penal Code
(b) Macaulay Penal Code
(c) Ranbir Penal Code
(d) Jammu and Kashmir Penal Code
89. The territorial waters of India extend up to
(a) 12 Nautical Miles
(b) 6 Kilometers
(c) 10 Nautical Miles
(d) 15 Nautical Miles
90. In criminal proceedings, acquittal refers to
(a) Being cleared of a charge or accusation
(b) Being declared guilty of a charge or accusation
(c) Conviction for a lesser offence as part of a plea bargain
(d) Taking a lenient view considering the honest past record of an accused

91. Which of the following reduces the offence of murder to culpable homicide?
(a) Unsoundness of mind
(b) Intoxication
(c) Provocation
(d) Accident
92. M was driving his fancy sports car at the speed of 120 km/h after consuming
alcohol. He lost
control of the car and ran over 3 persons leading to their death. M escaped the
accident with
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injuries. What offence, if any, has M committed under the Indian Penal Code?
(a) M is not guilty of any offence since he was incapable of judgment by reason of
intoxication caused
against his will.
(b) M is guilty of causing death by doing a rash or negligent act.
(c) M has committed the offence of culpable homicide since he caused death by doing an
act with the
intention of causing such bodily injury as is likely to cause death.
(d) M is guilty of committing murder since he did an act by which the death was caused
and which
was done with the intention of causing death.
93. On 1st April, P and Q, friends of X, decided to pull a prank on her. They wore
black masks to
cover their faces and proceeded in an unnumbered car towards the road that X
took her regular
morning walk. As X was taking her morning walk, they brought the car to a halt
next to her and
proceeded to forcefully get her in it. A bystander, Y, watching this, opened fire on
P and Q with
his licensed gun and caused grievous injuries to them.
(a) Y is guilty of causing grievous hurt as he had no right to intermeddle in the private
affairs of the
friends and he was neither a public authority nor a police official.
(b) Y is not guilty of any offence because he had a right to protect the body of any other
person besides
his own.
(c) Y is not guilty of any offence because he had a reasonable apprehension that X was
being assaulted
with an intention of abduction
(d) Both (b) and (c) are correct
94. The term doli incapax is meant for
(a) Child below 7 years
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(b) Child above 7 years but below 12 years

(c) Child below 18 years
(d) Child below 14 years
95. LEGAL PRINCIPLE I: According to Section 494 of the Indian Penal Code,
whoever having a
husband or wife living, marries in any case in which such marriage is void by
reason of its
taking place during the life of such husband or wife, shall be punished with
imprisonment of
either description for a term which may extend to seven years and shall also be
liable to fine.
II: Hindu law, as contained in the Hindu Marriage Act, enforces monogamy.
III. Polygamy is permitted under the Muslim law.
FACTS: Jitendar, a Hindu, was married to Meena, also a Hindu. Jitendar and Sunita,
another
Hindu girl, converted to Islam and got married. Is Jitendar guilty of the offence
under Section
494 of the Indian Penal Code?
(a) No because Jitender converted to Islam which permits more than one wife.
(b) No because Jitender and Sunita converted to Islam and then got married with
mutual consent.
(c) Yes because Jitender had a wife living. He married again. The said marriage is void
by reason of its
taking place during the life of the first wife in terms of Section 494, IPC.
(d) Both (a) and (b) are correct.
96 The act of unlawfully entering into another’s property constitutes
(a) Trespass
(b) Restraint
(c) Appropriation
(d) Encroachment
97. The word ‘instigate’ means
(a) To cheat
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(b) To do an unlawful act

(c) To provoke
(d) To promote
98. A finds a watch on the floor of a state transport bus while leaving it as the last
passenger. He
picks it up and puts it in his pocket instead of returning it to the state transport
authorities. Next
day, he sells the watch. A is liable for
(a) Theft
(b) Extortion
(c) Criminal misappropriation
(d) Criminal breach of trust
99. The right to protect one’s own person and property against the unlawful
aggression of others is
known as
(a) An act done by the consent of the other
(b) The right of private defence
(c) Volenti non fit injuria
(d) None of the above
100. An act is punishable as a crime
(a) If it is accompanied by guilty mind
(b) If it is accompanied by a notice, intention and knowledge
(c) Even if it is not accompanied by guilty mind