Countdown Mock 08 (CLAT) 2023 English Language

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qSetID= o7RbPfHjQk%3D
Countdown Mock 08 (CLAT) 2023
English Language
Directions: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.

Passage – 1

The idea of a Uniform Civil Code (UCC) is once again in the limelight because of the recent
observations made by
the Supreme Court. Besides the desirability of the UCC, these observations
also raise issues about the court's
role in questioning the government on framing and implementing a
UCC in a democracy founded on the principle
of separation of powers. I deal with both these aspects
in this article.

This is not the first time that the court has called for implementing Article 44 of the Constitution,
enjoining the state
to "endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory
of India." In Sarla Mudgal
(1995), the court controversially said that a UCC modelled on Hindu law
would resolve the treatment of bigamy in
different communities. Following widespread outrage, the
court clarified that its views were merely observations
and not binding. In Pannalal Bansilal (1996),
the court came full circle, saying that "a uniform law, though is highly
desirable, enactment thereof in
one go perhaps may be counter-productive to [the] unity and integrity of the nation.
The mischief or
defect which is most acute can be remedied by process of law at stages." The court will find it
impossible to reconcile this earlier, and arguably more reasonable, position with its present
observations.

This is not to say that a UCC should be indefinitely postponed. However, the goal of Article 44 is
perhaps
misunderstood. In Shah Bano (1985), it was said that a UCC would help national integration
by removing disparate
loyalties to conflicting laws

But the UCC is not a magic wand for uniformity, nor will uniformity achieve national integration
overnight.Instead, a
UCC ought to have the objective of reducing gender discrimination by
empowering women and restoring their
dignity and self-esteem. Such an approach can radically alter
stakeholder perspectives, and give an impetus of a
different nature.

An interesting phenomenon in this context exists in the subcontinent itself. Personal laws in
Bangladesh and
Pakistan on the one hand, and India on the other, mirror each other in their treatment
of majority and minority
communities. Post-Partition changes to Muslim family laws in Bangladesh and
Pakistan benefited women
greatly, but legal benefits gained by Hindu women in India did not spill over
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into the neighbouring countries.

Similarly, minority women in India do not enjoy the same benefits as
their counterparts in Bangladesh and Pakistan.
Q 1. 30265180 What are the two issues the author is discussing in the passage?
a) Nationalism and rights of minorities
b) The responsibility of the Supreme Court to reduce gender discrimination
c) Uniform Civil Code (UCC) and the role of the Supreme Court versus the Executive
d) The condition of women in Pakistan and Bangladesh
Q 2. 30265180 According to the author what should be the primary goal of UCC?
a) National integration b) Uniformity of law
c) Reducing gender discrimination d) Uplifting women from minority communities
Q 3. 30265180 How does the UCC result in national integration according to the Supreme Court?
a) It established equality b) It removes gender discrimination
c) d) It creates nationalist sentiment

It creates allegiance towards the same set of laws
Q 4. 30265180 Which of the following is a synonym of 'acute'?
a) Brief b) Shrill c) Urgent d) Astute
Q 5. 30265180 What doesthe last paragraph of the passage imply?
a) The condition of Muslim women in India, Pakistan, and Bangladesh will continue to worsen
b) Irrespective of the country there is no hope for women in the Third World
c)
Women from minority communities did not reap from the benefit of changes brought about by law in
their
respective countries
d) The situation of Muslim women in Pakistan is better that those of Muslim women in India

Passage – 2

One may call it much ado about a candy that half the country hasn't even heard about, but the
acrimony about
"revdi culture" has only helped rev up the debate on the existential crisis looming over
the cooperative federalism
envisaged by our founding fathers. The Supreme Court should, in all its
earnestness, turn its attention to the
plaque of opaqueness that has accumulated over Centre-state
relations instead of so-called freebies. It's time the
country and its opinion makers understood the
Centre's stranglehold over states on almost all fronts, which is
leading to a breakdown of trust

between the two "partners".
The framers of our Constitution were aware of the apprehensions raised when India embraced a
federal structure
with strong unitary features. But they would have never dreamt of a situation where
trumpeting unilateralism is
hailed as some kind of a good governance model.

It's interesting to recall how Jawaharlal Nehru defended the unitary slant of our polity. "It would be
injurious to the
interests of the country to provide for a weak central authority which would be
incapable of ensuring peace, of
coordinating vital matters of common concern and of speaking
effectively for the whole country in the international
sphere." But B R Ambedkar assured the
Constituent Assembly: "The Constitution is a federal Constitution…
The Union is not a league of
states…nor are the states the agencies of the Union, deriving powers from it. Both the
Union and the
states are created by the Constitution, both derive their respective authority from the Constitution."

I will restrict this article to fiscal federalism since "revdi culture" is the focal point of the debate
although the
process of centralisation is now all-pervasive. Over the years, the very nature of fiscal
transfer has become
thoroughly centralised. For a long time, the Planning Commission and Finance
Commission were the cardinal
pillars of Centre-state relations on the fiscal front. But the ushering in of
the Goods and Services Tax (GST), the
scrapping of the Planning Commission and non-adherence to
Finance Commission recommendations have led
to an asymmetrical framework.
Q 6. 30265180 What is the synonym of 'acrimony'?
a) animosity b) perspicacity c) felicity d) dexterity
Q 7. 30265180 Which statement uses the word, 'envisage',correctly?
a) The freedom fighters of India envisaged a self-reliant nation.
b) She envisaged the bag into the car.
c) She put the letter in the envisage.
d) Peter envisaged the ship from the harbour.
Q 8. 30265180 What central concern does the author express in this passage?
a) The scrapping off the Planning Commission.
b) The views expressed by Nehru and Ambedkar.
c) The centralising trend between the state and centre which is straining their relationship.
d) The proliferation of 'revdi' culture.
Q 9. 30265180 What does the statement 'have led to an asymmetrical framework' mean in the
context of the passage?
a) Have led to more representation for the centre at expense of the states

b) More free schemes are being announced by the states
c) There is a power imbalance between the states and the centre
d) The Planning Commission was more important that the Finance commission
Q 10. 30265180 What is the correct paraphrased sentence of B R Ambedkar's view on the centre
and states?
a) The states are extensions of the centre
b) The states are subordinate to the centre
c) The states and centre have their distinct responsibilities within the constitutional framework
d) The states and centre are equal as they both are derived from the same constitutional framework

Passage – 3

Free speech, always a precarious ideal, has fallen on hard times. In India, it is not a value defended
with passion,
enshrined firmly in law, or insulated from being taken hostage by politics. Quite the
contrary: it has become the site
at which our prejudices are expressed, our hostilities intensified and
our mutual hypocrisies exposed. It is not an
ideal around which to attempt a consensus. Instead, it
has become a pretext for warring groups to assert their
power. But the precariousness of free speech
in India is also now intimately tied to an increasingly murderous
global politics of free speech. The
execution-style terrorism at the offices of Charlie Hebdo has reignited a debate
on the threat to free
expression that some brands of militant Islam pose. It has also exposed deep fault lines in the
European discourse on free speech.

In India, the threat to freedom is serious. It is denting our reputation as a liberal democracy. This is a
democracy
where artistes are forced into exile, scholarly works are taken off the shelves, investigative
journalism is in serious
peril, historical inquiry is curtailed, political films are censored, and authors
have to announce their own death.
There is a sense of foreboding about free expression. But the
roots of this foreboding run very deep.

Free Speech has always been attacked. Most societies have also placed some limits on speech-
whether in the
name of regulating the expression of hate, preventing violence, protecting individuals
against libel and slander, or
outlawing obscenity. There have been vigorous philosophical and
constitutional debates about the boundaries of
such regulation. Many of these will continue. This
essay will not go into traditional legal and philosophical questions
about the boundaries of free
speech. Instead it is going to ask questions about the cultural politics of free speech.
The idea is not to
resolve issues, as much as it is to provoke a deeper discussion about the politics of speech.
Why
does it feel as if the ideal of free speech is now so tied up in knots that pulling any string seems to

imperil it
even more?
The attack on Charlie Hebdo was of course a classic and murderous illustration of such a trap, where
every
response can be seen by the perpetrators of this attack as a vindication. It is, like most terrorist
traps, by design,
a 'heads we win, tails you lose' strategy. In a sense, calls to respect people's religion
and not be provocative in the
aftermath of an attack have earned the attackers a kind of victory; they
have induced self-restraint. If, on the other
hand, such an act inflames anti-Islam feelings, as despite
best efforts it might, then also a purpose is achieved.
It produces the kind of polarisation Al-Qaeda
would like. States might use the language of bringing the killers to
justice. But in the era after 9/11, it
has invariably led democratic states to commit all kinds of excesses in different
parts of the world to
the point where their moral self-confidence is dented. Again, Al-Qaeda achieves its purpose.
Q 11. 30265180 What does the writer aim to do in the passage?
a) b) To condemn the supporters of free speech

To provoke discussion on various aspects of free c)
To oppose the supporters of free speech
speech
d)
To convince the readers about the need for free
speech
Q 12. 30265180 How does the writer describe the situation of free speech in India?
a) Perilous b) Unproblematic c) Non-existent d) Useful
Q 13. 30265180 What is tone of the passage with regards to the condition of free speech all over the
world?
a) Anxious b) Jubilant c) Angry d) Optimistic
Q 14. 30265180 According to the passage how is free speech misused in India?
a) It is not used at all b) It is used in anti-national activities
c) It is used to express our bigotry d) It is used to hurt religious sentiments
Q 15. 30265180 What is the synonym of 'libel'?
a) Rebel b) Liberate c) Defame d) Free

Passage – 4

When I worked in a second-hand bookshop - so easily pictured, if you don't work in one, as a kind of
paradise
where charming old gentlemen browse eternally among calf-bound folios - the thing that
chiefly struck me was the
rarity of really bookish people. Our shop had an exceptionally interesting
stock, yet I doubt whether ten per cent of
our customers knew a good book from a bad one. First
edition snobs were much commoner than lovers of

literature, but oriental students haggling over
cheap textbooks were commoner still, and vague-minded women
looking for birthday presents for
their nephews were commonest of all.

Many of the people who came to us were of the kind who would be a nuisance anywhere but have
special
opportunities in a bookshop. For example, the dear old lady who 'wants a book for an invalid'
(a very common
demand, that), and the other dear old lady who read such a nice book in 1897 and
wonders whether you can find
her a copy. Unfortunately she doesn't remember the title or the author's
name or what the book was about, but she
does remember that it had a red cover. But apart from
these there are two well-known types of pest by whom
every second-hand bookshop is haunted. One
is the decayed person smelling of old breadcrusts who comes
every day, sometimes several times a
day, and tries to sell you worthless books. The other is the person who
orders large quantities of
books for which he has not the smallest intention of paying. In our shop we sold nothing
on credit, but
we would put books aside, or order them if necessary, for people who arranged to fetch them away
later. Scarcely half the people who ordered books from us ever came back. It used to puzzle me at
first.
What made them do it? They would come in and demand some rare and expensive book, would
make us promise
over and over again to keep it for them, and then would vanish never to return. But
many of them, of course, were
unmistakable paranoiacs. They used to talk in a grandiose manner
about themselves and tell the most ingenious
stories to explain how they had happened to come out
of doors without any money - stories which, in many cases,
I am sure they themselves believed.

We did a good deal of business in children's books, chiefly 'remainders'. Modern books for children
are rather
horrible things, especially when you see them in the mass. Personally I would sooner give a
child a copy of
Petrenius Arbiter than Peter Pan, but even Barrie seems manly and wholesome
compared with some of his later
imitators. At Christmas time we spent a feverish ten days struggling
with Christmas cards and calendars, which
are tiresome things to sell but good business while the
season lasts. It used to interest me to see the brutal
cynicism with which Christian sentiment is
exploited. The touts from the Christmas card firms used to come
round with their catalogues as early
as June. A phrase from one of their invoices sticks in my memory. It was:
'2 doz. Infant Jesus with
rabbits'.
Q 16. 30265180 What is the tone of the passage?
a) Cynical b) Happy c) Nostalgic d) Romantic
Q 17. 30265180 In what way does the passage defy the romantic stereotypes about book shops and
book-lovers?
a) It shows that book-sellers are not interested in selling books
b) It shows that most readers are not avid readers
c) It shows that book-shops are meant only for students
d) It shows that book-shops have only old books

Q 18. 30265180 What best describes the writer's attitude towards the readers who thronged his
book-shop?
a) Judgmental b) Loving c) Rude d) Nonchalant
Q 19. 30265180 In the context of the passage what does 'invalid' mean?
a) Incorrect b) Unavailable c) Bed-ridden d) Weak
Q 20. 30265180 Choose a suitable title for the passage:-
a) b) The Love for Books c) d) The Bliss of Reading

Book-shop Memories My Happy Days at a
Book-shop

Passage – 5

For ages, people have debated if leaders are born or made. So too goes the debate about emotional
intelligence.
Are people born with certain levels of empathy, for example, or do they acquire empathy
as a result of life's
experiences? The answer is both. Scientific inquiry strongly suggests that there is a
genetic component to emotional
intelligence. Psychological and developmental research indicates
that nurture plays a role as well. How much of
each perhaps will never be known, but research and
practice clearly demonstrate that emotional intelligence can
be learned.

One thing is certain: Emotional intelligence increases with age. There is an old-fashioned word for the
phenomenon:
maturity. Yet even with maturity, some people still need training to enhance their
emotional intelligence. Unfortunately,
far too many training programs that intend to build leadership
skills-including emotional intelligence-are a waste of
time and money. The problem is simple: They
focus on the wrong part of the brain.

Emotional intelligence is born largely in the neurotransmitters of the brain's limbic system, which
governs feelings,
impulses, and drives. Research indicates that the limbic system learns best through
motivation, extended practice,
and feedback. Compare this with the kind of learning that goes on in
the neocortex, which governs analytical and
technical ability. The neocortex grasps concepts and
logic. It is the part of the brain that figures out how to use a
computer or make a sales call by reading
a book. Not surprisingly-but mistakenly-it is also the part of the brain
targeted by most training
programs aimed at enhancing emotional intelligence. When such programs take, in
effect, a
neocortical approach, my research with the Consortium for Research on Emotional Intelligence in
Organizations has shown they can even have a negative impact on people's job performance.
Training programs
must help people break old behavioral habits and establish new ones. That not
only takes much more time than
conventional training programs, it also requires an individualized
approach.
Imagine an executive who is thought to be low on empathy by her colleagues. Part of that deficit
shows itself as an
inability to listen; she interrupts people and doesn't pay close attention to what
they're saying. To fix the problem,
the executive needs to be motivated to change, and then she needs
practice and feedback from others in the
company. A colleague or coach could be tapped to let the
executive know when she has been observed failing to
listen. She would then have to replay the
incident and give a better response; that is, demonstrate her ability to
absorb what others are saying.
And the executive could be directed to observe certain executives who listen well
and to mimic their
behavior.

With persistence and practice, such a process can lead to lasting results. It's important to emphasize
that building
one's emotional intelligence cannot-will not-happen without sincere desire and concerted
effort. A brief seminar
won't help; nor can one buy a howto manual. It is much harder to learn to
empathize-to internalize empathy as a
natural response to people-than it is to become adept at
regression analysis. But it can be done. "Nothing great
was ever achieved without enthusiasm," wrote
Ralph Waldo Emerson. If your goal is to become a real leader,
these words can serve as a guidepost
in your efforts to develop high emotional intelligence.
Q 21. 30265180 What can be said about author's attitudes towards a typical training program that
intends to build leadership
skills?
a) Instrumental in grooming leadership qualities b) Useless in the present times.
c) A sheer wastage of one's resources d) Need to be banned
Q 22. 30265180 Which of the following cannot be inferred from the passage?
a) Meddling with the neocortex can be unfortunate.
b) The inability to listen others indicates lack of empathy of one's colleagues.
c) Building one's emotional intelligence cannot be completed overnight.
d) A 75-year old woman is likely to be more emotionally intelligent than 24-year old boy.
Q 23. 30265180 What can be concluded about the limbic system as per the passage?
a) An autonomous system that governs feelings, impulses, and drives.
b) A system that governs feelings, impulses, and drives of a person.
c) A part of the brain that regulates bodily responses to external temptations.
d) An independent organ in the human skull responsible for generating impulses.
Q 24. 30265180 Which of the following correctly describes the author's tone?
a) Contentious b) Aggressive c) Vitriolic d) Insightful
Q 25. 30265180 Which rhetorical device is used in the following sentence?

'These words can serve as a guidepost in your efforts to develop high emotional intelligence.'
a) Metaphor b) Apostrophe c) Simile d) Synecdoche

Passage – 6

Classical political economists of the 18th and 19th centuries have had different views of the society.
Some
economists have put forward the thesis of a harmonious society, promoting the policies of
laissez-faire. The core
belief behind this understanding is that if everybody pursues their self-interest,
then the society would operate in a
harmonious fashion. Some others have focused on the conflicts
between classes in the capitalist society, lending
economics the name of a "dismal science". While the
former have been labelled as optimists, the latter have been
commonly called pessimists. The
optimists are enthusiastic about the growth prospects of capitalism, while the
pessimists are critical
about the same.

Adam Smith was a classical economist who focused on long-run economic growth with his analysis
centred
around a self-interest maximising individual. Smith's (1776) An Inquiry into the Nature and
Causes of the Wealth of
Nations was concerned with increasing the overall national income of a
country. This was to be brought about by
the division of labour that would stimulate capital
accumulation, increase productivity of the workers, and increase
national output, and consequently,
the wealth of nations would be augmented.

One of Smith's popular concepts is the "invisible hand". The implication is that the self-interested
actions of every
individual would culminate in public welfare and the competitive forces in the
economy would constantly work to
harmonise society as a whole. In The Theory of Moral Sentiments,
Smith (1759) states that by spending their
surplus wealth, rich people unknowingly contribute to
making a distribution of the "necessaries of life" equally
among the people of the society. Similarly, in
The Wealth of Nations, he asserts that when individuals pursue their
own advantages, it collectively
leads to public benefit.

Smith has often been touted as the prophet of capitalism. He wrote that the history of human beings
has passed
through four major epochs: the age of hunters, the age of shepherds, the age of
agriculture, and the age of
commerce; and this history has culminated into the age of commerce
where freedom, civilisation and
self-preservation reached its highest form. He has, therefore, been
labelled as "the great optimist" on account of
his enthusiasm towards the prospects of economic
growth in the commercial age, and his belief in the rationality
of the individual. Through free trade,
division of labour and capital formation, Smith further envisaged the progress
of a nation under the
domain of the unrestricted spread of the market economy through laissez-faire.

However, Smith had himself discussed the issues of conflict and power structure within the economy.
He had
mentioned that when the land of a country becomes private property, the class of landlords
will try to extract rent

off the land through the labour of the workers. Further, in the chapter, "Of the
Wages of Labour" in The Wealth of
Nations, Smith identified the contradiction between the workers
and the employers in the manufacturing sector.
He placed these contradictions on the difference in
interest of the two classes. While the employers are interested
in lowering the wages, the workers'
interests lie in increasing the same. In this conflict, the employers and workers
do not have the same
bargaining power because of the legislative power and higher savings that the former
possess. As a
result, the employers' interests generally prevail.
Q 26. 30265180 Why has Adam Smith been called "the great optimist"?
a)
On account of his enthusiasm towards the prospects of intellectual growth in the commercial age,
and
his belief in the rationality of the individual.
b)
Through free trade, division of labour and capital formation, Smith envisaged the progress of a nation.
c)
He wrote that human beings have passed through four major epochs: the age of hunters, the age of
shepherds, the age of agriculture, and the age of commerce
d)
Adam posited that the population would outgrow natural resources and the society would ultimately
reach a situation of "misery and vice".
Q 27. 30265180 As per Adam Smith, which of the following does not contribute in increasing the
overall national income of a
country?
a) Division of labour b) Stimulation of capital accumulation
c) Increment in productivity of the workers d) Increment in national expenditure
Q 28. 30265180 As per Adam Smith, how is being rich conducive to "the invisible hand"?
a)
Business productivity and profitability are improved when profits and losses accurately reflect what
investors and consumers want.
b)
The constant interplay of individual pressures on market supply and demand causes the natural
movement
of prices and the flow of trade.
c)
As wealthy individuals purpose their own interests, they distribute the necessities that all would have
received had there been an equal division of the Earth..
d)
Through free trade, and capital formation, a nation can progress under the domain of the unrestricted
spread of the market economy through laissez-faire.

Q 29. 30265180 Which of the following correctly describes the 'class antagonism' introduced by
Adam Smith?
a)
When the land of a country becomes private property, the class of landlords will try to rent out the land
in
exchange of labour.
b)
While the employers are interested in lowering the wages, the workers' interests lie in increasing the
same.
c)
The employers and workers do not have the same bargaining power, and the employers' interests
generally
prevail.
d)
The interest of the landowners is "always opposed to the interest of every other class in the
community".
Q 30. 30265180 Which of the following correctly describes the primary purpose of the author?
a) To describe the economic outlook of Adam Smith with respect to free markets.
b) To contrast the economic philosophy of Adam Smith with that of other economists.
c) To highlight the upsides of the Laissez-faire economic system.
d) To criticize the economics of optimists like 'Adam Smith'.
General knowledge and Current Affairs

Passage – 1

Nepal has urged India to suspend the recruitment of Gorkhas to the Indian Army under the newly
introduced
Agnipath scheme. Foreign Minister Narayan Khadke met with India's Ambassador to Nepal
Naveen Srivastava
and requested him to postpone the plan to recruit Nepali youths under the new
scheme.

Another report in the Kathmandu Post said that the meeting took place just a day before the Indian
Army's scheduled
plan to recruit Nepali youths in Butwal in Lumbini Province, for its Gorkha
regiments.

Although Nepal government is positive towards facilitating recruitment of Gorkhas in the Indian Army
but the
government will formally make the decision regarding the matter after holding talks with other
major political
parties as government of India has introduced the new military recruitment, Khadke told
the Indian envoy during
the meeting held at the Ministry of Foreign Affairs, the Kantipur daily said.


While unveiling the scheme in June, the Indian government said youths between the age of 17 and-a-
half and 23
years would be inducted for a four-year tenure while 25 per cent of them will be
subsequently inducted for regular
service.
Q 31. 30265180 Nepalese youths have been recruited in the Indian Army for a long time since the
Tripartite agreement signed
between Nepal, India and _____________ in 1947.
a) Myanmar b) Bangladesh c) United Kingdom d) Pakistan
Q 32. 30265180 The first battalion of the Gorkha Regiment was raised as the Nasiri regiment
on___________.
a) 24 April 1815 b) 24 April 1857 c) 24 April 1915 d) 24 April 1927
Q 33. 30265180 Which of the following statements is Not true regarding the benefits for Agniveers
under Agnipath Scheme?
a)
Upon the completion of the 4-years of service, a one-time 'Seva Nidhi' package of Rs. 11.71 lakhs will
be
paid to the Agniveers that will include their accrued interest thereon.
b) They will also get a Rs 48 lakh life insurance cover for the four years.
c) In case of death, the payout will be over Rs. 4 crore, including pay for the unserved tenure.
d) The government will help rehabilitate soldiers who leave the services after four years.
Q 34. 30265180 Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the Agnipath Scheme?
a) Youth will be able to be recruited into the army for a short duration.
b)
It aims at providing an opportunity to the patriotic and motivated youth with the 'Josh' and 'Jazba' to
join
the Armed Forces.
c)
The scheme envisions that, the average age in the forces is 32 years today, which will go down to 26
in
six to seven years.
d) All of the above
Q 35. 30265180 Who among the following was the first and only officer of the Indian Air Force (IAF)
to be promoted to
five-star rank as Marshal of the Indian Air Force, equal to the army rank of Field
Marshal?
a) Romesh Bhandari b) P. Venkateswaran c) Markandey Singh d) Arjan Singh
Passage – 2

India capped off an impressive campaign at the 2022 Commonwealth Games, finishing the event in

Birmingham
fourth with [1] medals. On the final day, Shuttlers PV Sindhu and Lakshya Sen struck
gold in their respective
singles' finals in badminton, while the men's doubles pair of Satwiksairaj
Rankireddy and Chirag Shetty too won
gold after winning the final. Paddler Sharath Kamal was one of
the gold medallists in table tennis, beating England's
Liam Pitchford in the men's singles final.

Weightlifters Sanket Sargar, Gururaja Poojary and Bindyarani Devi had opened India's medals tally at
CWG on the
second day of the Games. Meanwhile, Mirabai Chanu was India's first gold medallist at
the CWG this edition,
winning the women's 49kg competition.

The India men's hockey team collected silver after losing 0-7 to Australia in the final, while their
women's counterpart
won bronze by beating New Zealand in the playoff. It was another tale of 'too
close, yet too far' for Harmanpreet
Kaur's India cricket team, who went down to Australia by nine runs
in the final to win silver. Boxers and wrestlers
too claimed medals, with Amit Panghal, Nikhat Zareen,
Sakshi Malik and Bajrang Punia among Indians striking
gold.
Q 36. 30265180 How many medals did India win at 2022 Commonwealth Games which has been
redacted with [1] in the
passage above?
a) 36 b) 46 c) 56 d) 61
Q 37. 30265180 How many gold medals did India win at 2022 Commonwealth Games?
a) 12 b) 16 c) 22 d) 32
Q 38. 30265180 What is the India rank at the 2022 Commonwealth Games?
a) Third b) Fourth c) Sixth d) Tenth
Q 39. 30265180 Which of the following countries topped the medals list at the 2022 Commonwealth
Games?
a) Australia b) England c) Canada d) China
Q 40. 30265180 The official mascot for the Birmingham 2022 Commonwealth Games is
a) Jerry b) Perry c) Emma d) Burnie
Passage – 3

Amid allegations of the Bharatiya Janata Party trying to topple the Jharkhand government, the
Election Commission
on August 26 disqualified Jharkhand Chief Minister Hemant Soren as MLA over
a mining case, several media
outlets reported.

The development came just hours after the Jharkhand CM presided over a meeting of the legislators
and ministers
of the ruling Jharkhand Mukti Morcha-led alliance at his residence in Ranchi to discuss
the political crisis that has
gripped the state


The ECI had made the recommendation to Governor Ramesh Bais after he sought its advice on
allegations
levelled against Soren by the BJP and the latter seeking action against him for holding a
mining licence which is
equivalent to holding an "office of profit".

Earlier this year, the saffron party had written to the Governor seeking the Jharkhand CM's
disqualification as MLA
under Section 9(A) of the Representation of People's Act. They had alleged
that he misused his position to obtain
a stone mine's licence. Soren, however, had applied for
cancellation of the lease in the same month (February)
itself. He claimed that the mining lease did not
fall under the purview of the office of profit rules as he got the
10-year lease in 2008 when he was not
the chief minister.
Q 41. 30265180 Recently, Election Commission (EC) recommended the disqualification of Jharkhand
Chief Minister Hemant
Soren as MLA under the________________.
a) Representation of the People Act, 1949 b) Representation of the People Act, 1951
c) Representation of the People Act, 1954 d) Representation of the People Act, 1956
Q 42. 30265180 Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the disqualification under the
Constitution of India?
a)
If he holds any office of profit under the Union or state government (except that of a minister or any
other
office exempted by state legislature).
b) If he is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a court.
c)
If he is not a citizen of India or has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign state or is under
any
acknowledgement of allegiance to a foreign state.
d) All of the above
Q 43. 30265180 The Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution lays down the grounds and process
by which legislators may
be disqualified on grounds of defection by the Presiding Officer of a
legislature based on a petition by any
other member of the House. The Tenth Schedule of the Indian
Constitution was inserted by the_____________.
a) b) c) d)

32nd Amendment Act 42nd Amendment Act 52nd Amendment Act 62nd Amendment Act
Q 44. 30265180 Under the Anti-defection Law, a nominated member of a House becomes

disqualified for being a member of
the House if he joins any political party after the expiry of
___________months from the date on which he
takes his seat in the House.
a) Three b) Six c) Nine d) Ten

Q 45. 30265180 Under Article ___________ and Article ___________of the Constitution, an MP or

an MLA (or an MLC) is
barred from holding any office of profit under the Central or State government.
a) b)
Article 100 (1) and Article 190(1) of the Article 101 (1) and Article 189(1) of the
Constitution Constitution
c) d)
Article 102 (1) and Article 191(1) of the Article 103 (1) and Article 193(1) of the
Constitution Constitution
Passage – 4

India is projected to surpass [1] as the world's most populous country next year, according to a report
by the United
Nations which said that the world population is forecast to reach eight billion by mid-
November 2022.

The World Population Prospects 2022 by the United Nations Department of Economic and Social
Affairs, Population
Division, said that the global population is projected to reach eight billion on
November 15, 2022.

The global population is growing at its slowest rate since 1950, having fallen under 1% in 2020. The
latest projections
by the United Nations suggest that the world's population could grow to around 8.5
billion in 2030 and 9.7 billion in
2050. It is projected to reach a peak of around 10.4 billion people
during the 2080s and to remain at that level until
2100.

"This year's World Population Day falls during a milestone year, when we anticipate the birth of the
Earth's eight
billionth inhabitant. This is an occasion to celebrate our diversity, recognise our common
humanity, and marvel at
advancements in health that have extended lifespans and dramatically
reduced maternal and child mortality rates,"
U.N. Secretary-General António Guterres said.

"At the same time, it is a reminder of our shared responsibility to care for our planet and a moment to
reflect on
where we still fall short of our commitments to one another," he added. The report said that
"India is projected to
surpass [1] as the world's most populous country during 2023."
Q 46. 30265180 According to a report by the United Nations, India is projected to surpass [1] as the
world's most populous
country next year, which of the following countries has been redacted with [1]
in the passage above?
a) USA b) Russia c) China d) United Kingdom
Q 47. 30265180 The World Population Day is observed every year on __________.
a) April 11 b) May 11 c) June 11 d) July 11

Q 48. 30265180 The theme for the World Population Day 2022 is______________.
a) The impact of the Covid-19 pandemic on fertility.
b) How to safeguard the health and rights of women and girls now.
c)
A world of 8 billion: Towards a resilient future for all - Harnessing opportunities and ensuring rights
and
choices for all.
d) Family planning is a human right.
Q 49. 30265180 Which is the only state in the country to record a negative growth (–0.47%) in
decadal population growth in
the 2011 census?
a) Goa b) Sikkim c) Manipur d) Nagaland
Q 50. 30265180 The 2021 Census of India also the ___________ Indian Census, is intended to be
carried out in 2023.
a) 10th b) 12th c) 16th d) 20th
Passage – 5

India's rank improved one place to [1] among 180 countries in a corruption perception index (CPI) of
2021, according
to a new report by Transparency International which, however, raised concern over
the country's democratic
status.

The index, which ranks 180 countries and territories by their perceived levels of public sector
corruption according
to experts and business people, uses a scale of 0 to 100, where 0 is highly
corrupt and 100 is very clean.
[2], Finland, New Zealand and Norway topped the list with the highest
score. [3], Syria and Somalia remain at the
bottom of the index.

Among those with weak scores are some of the world's most populous countries such as China (45)
and India
(40), and other large economies such as Indonesia (38), Pakistan (28) and Bangladesh
(26), the report by the
anti-corruption watchdog said.

India's rank improved by one place to [1] in 2021 from 86th in 2020, according to the index. Except
Bhutan, all of
India's neighbours are ranked below it. Pakistan dropped 16 spots in the index and was
ranked at 140.

Calling the case of India particularly worrying, the report released said while the country's score has
remained
stagnant over the past decade, some of the mechanisms that could help reign in corruption
are weakening.

There are concerns over the country's democratic status, as fundamental freedoms and institutional
checks and
balances decay. "Journalists and activists are particularly at risk and have been victims of
attacks by the police,
political militants, criminal gangs and corrupt local officials, the report based on
the index said.
Q 51. 30265180 What is the India rank in the corruption perception index (CPI) 2021 released by the
Transparency International
which has been redacted with [1] in the passage above?
a) 80 b) 85 c) 90 d) 96
Q 52. 30265180 Which of the following countries is the least corrupt country in the corruption
perception index (CPI) 2021
released by the Transparency International which has been redacted with
[2] in the passage above?
a) Poland b) Canada c) Denmark d) Switzerland
Q 53. 30265180 Which of the following countries is the most corrupt country in the corruption
perception index (CPI) 2021
released by the Transparency International which has been redacted with
[3] in the passage above?
a) South Sudan b) Afghanistan c) Sri Lanka d) Somalia
Q 54. 30265180 Transparency International is a nonprofit and non-governmental organization based

in____________.
a) Tokyo b) Berlin c) Paris d) New York
Q 55. 30265180 India Against Corruption (IAC) is an anti-corruption movement in India which was
particularly prominent
during the anti-corruption protests of 2011 and 2012, concerned with the
introduction of the Jan Lokpal bill.
Who among the following is/are associated with India Against
Corruption (IAC)?
a) Arvind Kejriwal b) Anna Hazare c) Ramachandra Guha d) Both (a) and (b)
Passage – 6

The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation is all set for expansion with [1] joining the grouping as its
ninth member
while Belarus has applied for membership, its Secretary General Zhang Ming said.

The decision to admit [1] was made in last year's Dushanbe summit and Belarus has submitted its
application,
Zhang told a media briefing here ahead of the grouping's summit to be held in Samarkand
in Uzbekistan on
September 15-16.

He said [1] will become a full member after completing the formalities while Shanghai Cooperation
Organisation
(SCO) member states who follow the system of consensus in deciding admission of new
members will take a call
on Belarus's application.


This is the first expansion of the SCO after India and [2] were admitted to the grouping in 2017. The
SCO is an
eight-member economic and security bloc consisting of China, Russia, Kazakhstan,
Kyrgyzstan, Tajikistan,
Uzbekistan, India and [2].

When asked whether Chinese President Xi Jinping will attend the Samarkand summit, Zhang said so
far, all
participating countries have confirmed the attendance of their leaders but the format of
attendance is not finalised.
The SCO summits in the last two years were held in the virtual format due
to COVID-19.
Q 56. 30265180 The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation is all set for expansion with [1] joining the
grouping as its ninth
member, which of the following countries has been redacted with [1] in the
passage above?
a) Iraq b) Iran c) Israel d) Saudi Arabia
Q 57. 30265180 In 2017, India and [2] were admitted to the SCO grouping, which of the following
countries has been redacted
with [2] in the passage above?
a) Latvia b) Pakistan c) Vietnam d) Indonesia
Q 58. 30265180 The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) is a Eurasian political, economic and
security organization.
The SCO Charter was signed on 7 July 2002 and entered into force
on__________.
a) 19 August 2002 b) 19 September 2003 c) 19 July 2004 d) 19 July 2005
Q 59. 30265180 Which of the following statements is /are true regarding the Shanghai Cooperation
Organisation (SCO)?
a) The supreme decision-making body in the SCO is the Heads of State Council (HSC).
b)
The Heads of State Council (HSC) meets once in a year and adopts guidelines and decisions on all
important matters of the SCO.
c)
The SCO has two permanent bodies; the first is the Executive Committee of the Regional Anti-
Terrorist
Structure (RATS) based in Tashkent and second is the SCO Secretariat based in Beijing.
d) All of the above
Q 60. 30265180 In September 2021, the 6th Edition of SCO exercise ‘Peaceful Mission’ is hosted
by____________.
a) India b) China c) Russia d) Kazakhstan
Passage – 7

India's national emblem cast on the roof of the new Parliament building was unveiled by PM Narendra
Modi.
Several Opposition parties have slammed the expression of the four lions of the national
emblem in the sculpture,
and alleged that Modi government has violated the Constitution. However,
Central government justified the national
emblem's cast saying it was done after research and a well-
laid procedure.

The national emblem is one of the most visible symbols of national identity and is used as the seal of
the Republic.
Ours was adopted from the Lion Capital of one of the Ashoka Pillars on [1]. The symbol
was adopted along with the
motto 'Satyamev Jayate', taken from the [2] and meaning 'truth always
wins'. Our national emblem has four lions
mounted back to back on a circular abacus, facing four
different directions. They represent courage, pride, power
and confidence.

A circular abacus on which the lions stand is adorned with the engravings of a bull, a horse, and an
elephant.
Along with the lions, it is believed that the animals represent the four stages of Gautam
Buddha's life.
Lions indicate the stage of achieving enlightenment.

The bull symbolises Taurus, the zodiac sign of Buddha. The elephant denotes his outset. The horse
symbolises
his ride after leaving the citadel where he gave his first sermon. The animals are
separated by Ashok Chakras or
Dharmachakras. The above-mentioned structure rests on an inverted
lotus, which was chosen as the National
Flower of India. However, it is not a part of the Emblem.
Q 61. 30265180 National Emblem of India is a representative seal of the Republic of India that is
adapted from the Lion
Capital of Ashoka Pillar. India adopted it as the State Emblem on [1], which of
the following has been redacted
with [1] in the passage above?
a) January 26, 1949 b) January 26, 1950 c) January 26, 1951 d) January 26, 1952
Q 62. 30265180 National Emblem is the symbol of authority and is present in all the official
communications of the government.
The symbol was adopted along with the motto 'Satyamev Jayate',
taken from the [2] and meaning 'truth
always wins'. Which of the following has been redacted with [2]
in the passage above?
a) Aitareya Upanishad b) Mundaka Upanishad c) Taittiriya Upanishad d) Prasna Upanishad
Q 63. 30265180 The Lion Capital of Ashoka is the capital, or head, of a column erected by the
Mauryan emperor Ashoka in
____________.
a) Sarnath b) Bodh Gaya c) Pataliputra d) Vaishali
Q 64. 30265180 How many animals are there in the national emblem of India?
a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6
Q 65. 30265180 What is the name of the ongoing redevelopment plan to revamp the Central Vista
which is the central
administrative area of India located near Raisina hill in New Delhi?
a) Central Cabinet Vista Redevelopment Project b) Central Vista Redevelopment Project

c) Delhi Central Redevelopment Project d) Delhi Raisina Vista Redevelopment Project
Legal Reasoning
Directions for questions 66 to 105: You have been given some passages followed by questions
based on each
passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from
the passage.
Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and
no external knowledge of
law howsoever prominent is to be applied.

Passage – 1

International law of armed conflict has always distinguished between civilians and military. Two days
after Putin
announced "special military operations", media showed that several went to defend their
home. Soon after, Ukraine's
defence ministry urged citizens to make Molotov cocktails, and the
National Guard of Ukraine tweeted an infographic
on how to make it. Ukraine brought its case before
the International Court of Justice under the Genocide Convention
of 1948 and has requested an
injunction, allowing Ukraine to have a prompt hearing. Now that the ICJ is soon going
to hear
Ukraine's arguments against Putin's invasion, what will be the position of these Ukrainian citizens who
have taken up arms against the onslaught of the Russian Army?

Before the big legal fight in the ICJ, one should know of the protections that Geneva Convention III
offers for
combatants and civilians. Article 4A of the Convention has several categories of persons
who take part in hostilities.
If ever caught by the enemy forces, combatants are then protected as
'prisoners of war'. If a mercenary is ever
caught by the 'other side', they may be granted 'prisoner of
war' status, but it depends on the State. Article 4A (1)
- grants combatant status to members of the
armed forces, etc and even members of State law enforcement who
have been formally incorporated
into the armed forces of their State. Article 4A (2) distinguishes between informal
volunteer groups
who are then not entitled to either 'combatant' status nor 'prisoner of war' privileges. Under Article
4A
(2), combatants should wear a distinct sign and should openly carry arms.

'Lawful combatants' enjoy 'combatant immunity', which gives right to participate in hostilities and to
enjoy immunity
from their warlike acts, which also means they can be lawfully targeted by the enemy
at any time.

Levée en masse is a French term used for a policy of mass national conscription, often in the face of
invasion.
And under Article 4A (6), civilians who take part in a levée en masse have a combatant
status. While combatants
under this category do not need a command structure, they still need to
openly carry arms and abide by all laws of
armed conflict.

Civilians are defined in Additional protocol I, as non-combatants. Civilians enjoy all kinds of immunity
and attacking
them is a war crime. As stated by Dustin Lewis "a war crime is any conduct - whether
an act or an omission - that
fulfils two cumulative criteria, first, the conduct must be committed with a
sufficient connection to an armed
conflict. Second, the conduct must constitute a serious violation of
the law that has been criminalised by international
treaty or customary law".

While 'direct participation in hostilities' of civilians is a debated topic, it is generally accepted that a
civilian loses
their immunity once they directly participate in hostilities. Therefore, all persons directly
taking part in hostilities that
do not fall under any of the above-mentioned categories are not
combatants, nor do they get the prisoner of war or
civilian protections.
Q 66. 30265180 Which of the following is the primary legal question that has been dealt by the author
in the passage?
a)
The author has tried to find out the position of Russia in front of International court of justice and its
argumentation defending their acts
b)
The author analyses how Ukraine is not manifestly wrong in asking their citizens to take up arms
against
the Russian tyrants.
c)
The author analyses that what will be the position of these Ukrainian citizens who have taken up arms
against the onslaught of Russian Army
d)
The author discusses how the rule of law is being violated by the act of Russian invasion of Ukraine
Q 67. 30265180 Which of the following statements is true in the light of the above given passage?
a)
Ukraine brought its case before the International Court of Justice under the Nuclear power nations
non-aggression act of 1948 and has requested an injunction.
b)
'Lawful combatants' do not enjoy 'combatant immunity', which is the right to participate in hostilities
and
the same is given only to the registered military.
c)
Levée en masse is a French term used for a policy of mass national conscription, often in the face of
invasion
d) None of the above
Q 68. 30265180 Russia and Ukraine are involved in a military combat. One Ukrainian soldier A is
captured by the Russian
soldiers during the war. Does A receive any protection under legislative
provisions after being caught?

a)
A is a prisoner and does not have any protection. He is at the mercy of the Russian army and Lord
Putin.
b) A is a 'prisoner of war' and is protected under the relevant provisions of Geneva convention
c)
The Geneva convention is not applicable to the Russia-Ukraine conflict and therefore A has no
protection.
d) A receives protection for being the ally of the west and he should not be treated inhumanely.
Q 69. 30265180 B was a Ukrainian citizen who was helping the country in the war. He used a knife
as his weapon of war and
wore a Gucci -T shirt, Track pants and a Bikers shoe. B was caught by the
Russian soldiers. Can B be
considered as a Ukrainian soldier in the given situation?
a) B can be considered as a Ukrainian soldier as he is fighting for the cause of Ukraine.
b)
B cannot be considered as a Ukrainian soldier as he is not wearing the requisite uniform and not
carrying
any explicit weapon.
c)
Weapon and outfits do not make one a soldier, courage alone does and therefore B is a Ukrainian
soldier
by heart
d) The passage hasn't provided enough information to arrive at the correct answer.
Q 70. 30265180 Which of the following statements is false in the light of the above given passage?
a)
While 'direct participation in hostilities' of civilians is a debated topic, it is generally not accepted that a
civilian loses their immunity once they directly participate in hostilities.
b)
Civilians on the other hand, are defined in Additional protocol I, as all persons who are non-
combatants
c) Article 4A of the Convention has several categories of persons who take part in hostilities.
d)
Article 4A (2) distinguishes between informal volunteer groups who are then not entitled to either
'combatant'
status nor 'prisoner of war' privileges
based on each
the passage.

Passage – 2
The Surrogacy (Regulation) Bill (SRB) 2021 is the successor to the Surrogacy (Regulation) Bill 2016,
which could
not be passed by the Parliament of India. The Bill defines surrogacy as a practice
whereby one woman bears and
gives birth to a child for an intending couple with the intention of
handing over such child to the intending couple
after the birth. It seeks to prohibit commercial
surrogacy, which includes trading human embryos and gametes
and buying and selling of the services
of a surrogate by a monetary reward except for insurance but allows
altruistic surrogacy, which
involves no monetary incentives or rewards to the surrogate mother other than the
medical expenses
incurred and insurance coverage.

SRB 2021 envisages that surrogacy-related medical procedures shall take place only at designated
surrogacy
clinics. It also regulates them through registration and prohibits taking services of
unqualified professionals or
inducing women to become surrogates through advertisements or other
means.

The intending couple would also need a 'certificate of essentiality' and a 'certificate of eligibility issued
by the
appropriate authority in order to be eligible to opt for the procedure. A certificate of essentiality
will be issued only if
infertility affects the intending couple and certain other conditions.

Ban on Surrogacy

Judicial View

The Supreme Court's decision in Indian Hotels and Restaurants Association and Others v State of
Maharashtra in
the context of bar dancers in Maharashtra would be suitable to evaluate on the subject
of what kind of labour
women may and cannot undertake. The Supreme Court reaffirmed an earlier
decision holding that a ban on a
woman's right to work cannot be imposed solely on the basis of moral
disapproval if there is no objective evidence
that the activity harms women. The Court had previously
struck down a total ban on women dancing in bars, and
in this case, the Maharashtra legislature's
attempt to "regulate" it ran afoul of constitutional guarantees of equality,
freedom of expression

Similarly, after the Supreme Court's decision in Justice K S Puttaswamy (Retd) v Union of India, the
conceptions
of right to privacy and freedom to choose have extended considerably. While the Court
said that the right to privacy
is a basic right, it also stated that it has three parts, the most important of
which is "decisional autonomy." Decisional
autonomy refers to the freedom to make personal
decisions about having children, marriage, clothing, food, beliefs,
and so on. While the decision has
significant flaws, any regulation that aims to restrict women's ability to manage
their own bodies must
pass the three-part standard given forth by the Supreme Court to show why the limitation is
permissible under the Constitution. While the 2021 law would easily satisfy the "legality" test, it would
still need to
demonstrate that its provisions are necessary and appropriate under the criteria of the
judgement's test.
Q 71. 30265180 What does the Surrogacy (Regulation) Bill (SRB) 2021 envisage?
a)
The surrogacy (regulation) bill 2021 envisages to remove the age old practices and replace them with
modern ideas.
b)
The surrogacy (regulation) bill 2021 envisages that surrogacy-related medical procedures shall take
place only at designated surrogacy clinics.
c)
The surrogacy (regulation) bill 2021 envisages that surrogacy-related medical procedures shall take
place only under the watchful eyes of government hospitals.
d)
The surrogacy (regulation) bill 2021 envisages to develop well structured surrogacy clinics across
each
district in India.
Q 72. 30265180 B and D were happily married. B was a medical researcher and he believed a child
born through surrogacy
would develop more immunity and would be healthier. So, B and D decide to
have a baby through surrogacy.
Decide.
a)
B and D are permitted to have a surrogate baby as it is their decision to have a baby according to
their
choice.
b) B and D cannot have a surrogate baby and the same is prohibited
c) B and D can have a surrogate baby after getting the 'certificate of essentiality'.
d)
B and D shall have to write an appeal to the public authorities to allow them to have a surrogate baby.
a) Now the ambit of right to privacy has been extended to a broad ambit.
b)
Surrogacy can be defined as a method where one woman bears and gives birth to a child for an
intending
couple with the intention of handing over such child to the intending couple after the birth.
c)
The intending couple would also need a 'certificate of essentiality' and a 'certificate of eligibility issued
by
the appropriate authority.
d)
The Supreme Court reaffirmed an earlier decision holding that a ban on a woman's right to work can
be
imposed solely on the basis of moral disapproval.
Q 74. 30265180 Which one of the following is the reasoning behind the supreme court striking down
a total ban on women
dancing in bars?

a) Such a provision is violative of article 21 of the Indian constitution.
b) Such a provision is violative of constitutional guarantees of equality, freedom of expression
c) Such a provision is arbitrary and violative of rule of law.
Q 75. 30265180 What does 'decisional autonomy' mean in context of the above given passage?
a)
Decisional autonomy refers to the freedom to make personal decisions about having children,
marriage,
clothing, food, beliefs, and so on.
b)
Decisional autonomy means the discretion of the court to take up certain autonomy in order to uphold
the
ends of justice
c)
Decisional autonomy means the ability of the court to intervene with the legislative overpowering and
ensure that justice is reached
d) The passage does not explain the said concept.
based on each
the passage.
Passage – 3

It has been observed that the ambiguous text of provisions causes abuse of investigation powers by
police officers
often leading to harsh ramifications for ostensible innocent parties and accused
persons. One of such provisions
is Clause (1) of Section 102 of CrPC wherein police officers are
empowered to freeze the bank accounts of a
person. However, the issue that surrounds the
interpretation of Section 102(1) is the condition precedent for
seizing the bank accounts of a person.
The conundrum is that whether this condition precedent before seizing the
bank account is that the
transactions of the bank account must create the suspicion of the commission of any
offence by the
bank account holder, or simply that the bank account holder must be an accused in the commission
of
any offence and there should be a nexus between the bank account and the alleged offence.

Clause (1) of Section 102 states that "Any police officer may seize any property which may be alleged
or suspected
to have been stolen, or which may be found under circumstances which create
suspicion of the commission of
any offence." The term "create" has created an ambiguity that whether
the discovery of the offence should be a
sequel to the discovery of suspicious bank transactions and
not the other way around. On this aspect, the Supreme
Court has taken a view in the case of Tapas

D.N. Neogy that there is no such requirement that the bank transactions
must create the suspicion of
an offence in every case. It was held that the police officer can seize the bank
account if there is any
direct link with the commission of the offence for which the police officer is investigating into.
However,
subsequently, High Court of Madras in R. Chandrasekar vs. Inspector of Police held that the discovery
of
the offence must precede the discovery of the suspicious transactions. The Court concluded that
"There are no
circumstances attendant upon the bank account or its operation that have led the police
to suspect that some
offence has been committed somewhere.

The allegation of the prosecution is that the bank account in this case is a sequel to the discovery of
the commission
of the offence. This is not sufficient to attract Section 102 of Cr. P.C. as it cannot be
since that the bank account
has been traced or discovered in circumstance which have made the
police aware of the commission of an
offence." Then, the High Court of Allahabad in Suninder Sandha
considered the decision of Apex Court in Tapas
D.N. Neogy and held that discovery of any offence
can precede the discovery of suspicious bank transactions.
It was held that "Thus, various judgments
of the High Courts cited by learned counsel for the applicant on the
proposition that powers under
Section 102 of the Code, are to be exercised only when discovery of a property
leads to suspicion of a
commission of an offence, does not represent the correct statement of law in view of
Neogy.
Q 76. 30265180 D was a beggar in Hastinapur. He used to beg around the streets of Rajghat and
fend for food. Once B,
one police in Hastinapur found a golden statute of Lord Vishnu with D. B
immediately seized the same.
D now approaches the court of law stating the act of B to violative of his
fundamental rights. Is the act of B
is justified?
a)
The act of B is not justified as he does not have the power to seize valuable properties just because
he
is a public officer.
b)
The act of B is not justified as there is no legal duty on B to capture an authority from the hands of D.
c) The act of B is justified under the relevant provisions of code of criminal procedure code 1973.
d)
The act of B is only justified if D can establish the reasoning behind his action of seizing the property
from
D.
Q 77. 30265180 Which of the following statement is false in the light of the above given passage?
a)
The passage suggests that ambiguous text of provisions causes abuse and misuse of investigation.
b)
The allegation of the prosecution in the case of R. Chandrasekar is that the bank account in this case
is
a sequel to the discovery of the commission of the offence.

c)
The powers under Section 102 of the Code, are to be exercised only when discovery of a property
leads
to suspicion of a commission of an offence, does not represent the correct statement of law in
view of
Neogy
d)
The police officer cannot seize the bank account if there is a direct link to a case with the commission
of
the offence for which the police officer is investigating into.
Q 78. 30265180 Why was the allegation of the prosecution not enough to the freeze the bank
account in the case of R.
Chandrasekar?
a)
The allegation of the prosecution was not enough as the freezing of bank account only happens in
exceptional circumstances.
b)
It cannot be since that the bank account has been traced or discovered in circumstance which have
made the police aware of the commission of an offence
c)
The allegation did not have enough evidence to prove that the prosecution not enough to the freeze
the
bank account in the case of R. Chandrasekar
d)
The passage fails to provide analysis for why the allegation of the prosecution not enough to the
freeze
the bank account.
Q 79. 30265180 What did the High Court of Allahabad in Suninder Sandha consider?
a) The HC considered a judgement of the supreme court and took its help to arrive at the decision.
b)
The HC considered discovery of any offence can precede the discovery of suspicious bank
transactions.
c) The HC considered the application of section 102(1) in the case of Suninder Sandhu.
d) Both a and b are correct answer.
Q 80. 30265180 How has the section 102(1) of the CrPC created ambiguity regarding the freezing of
bank accounts?
a)
The term "create" has created an ambiguity that whether the discovery of the offence should be a
sequel
to the discovery of suspicious bank transactions and not the other way around.
b)
The term 'freeze' under the section 102(1) has created misunderstanding and confusion among the
legal luminaries bringing CrPC under hammer.
c)
The application of section 102(1) has been varied and has led to confusion among the professionals.
based on each
the passage.

Passage – 4

The phenomenon of disruptive passengers is not new, yet, the number of incidents is constantly on
the rise.
The International Air Transport Association released data in 2017 which stated that there was
1 unruly passenger
incident per 1,053 flights. In 2017 alone, approximately 8,371 incidents of unruly
passenger behaviour were reported.
The definition of a disruptive passenger is laid down in Annex 17
of the International Civil Aviation Organisation
(ICAO) Chicago Convention. This Convention on
International Civil Aviation Security Safeguarding International
Civil Aviation Against Acts of Unlawful
Interference defines an "unruly passenger" as a passenger, who does not
respect the rules of conduct
at the airport or on-board a flight or fails to follow the instructions issued by the airport
staff or crew
members. Owing to this behaviour, such a passenger disturbs the good order and discipline at an
airport or on-board an aircraft. A similar definition has been adopted by the Indian law.

A disruptive passenger is someone who by their actions or stated intentions jeopardizes or might
jeopardize the
safety of the aircraft, persons aboard it, or property therein. The International Air
Transport Association (IATA) has
promulgated a 'non-exhaustive' list of behaviour which counts as
unruly or disruptive. The list mentions the following
acts:

1. Illegally consuming narcotics,

2. Smoking cigarettes in the aircraft,

3. Consuming excessive alcohol,

4. Refusing to comply with safety instructions,

5. Verbal or physical confrontation with crew members or other passengers,

6. Sexual harassment/abuse,

7. Making threats towards the crew or other passengers, and

8. Other types of reckless behaviour, including screaming, banging head on the seatbacks, etc.

International Air Transport Association is a private organisation consisting of members from nearly
120 countries.
The aim of this organisation is working for the promotion of the interest of various
airlines. Pursuant to this, IATA
has devised several guidelines and recommended practices that have
over time become the standard operating
procedure for airlines dealing with unruly passengers. IATA
has recommended that every member should develop
a company policy to deal with disruptive

passengers. Further, it has also formulated a basic guide to deal with

unruly passengers. The IATA
Guidance on Unruly Passenger Prevention and Management, 2015 provides numerous
ways on how
airlines can deal with unruly passengers. This guide also recommends airlines to enforce their
respective alcohol policy so that troublemaking passengers are identified at the outset. The first-ever
attempt at
framing international legislation for governing offences and certain other acts committed on
board an aircraft was
the Tokyo Convention, 1963. This legal framework has been ratified by 186
countries. Article 1 of the Convention
talks about the applicability of this law. The provisions of this
Convention are applicable in cases wherein the
conduct complained of is either:

1. An offence under any applicable penal law or criminal code; or

2. It is an act which falls short of criminal conduct but is capable of jeopardizing the safety of the
aircraft or the
passengers. It could also affect the general good order and discipline as well as the
overall safety.

Therefore, according to the Tokyo Convention, it is not essential that such disruptive behaviour meets
the threshold
of criminal conduct. The mere possibility of an act which is capable of jeopardising
safety and security is sufficient.
Q 81. 30265180 Racheal was leaving for Paris. She was seated in the flight and was waiting for the
flight to take off.
Her friend Phoebe called her to tell that there was a problem in the left philange of the
aeroplane.
Racheal had a panic attack and started acting obnoxiously, this led to a panic situation in
the entire flight.
Flight attendants had tried their best to convince Racheal that there did not exist a
part called Philange,
but in vain. This mishap delayed the flight for 2 hours. The flight management
wanted to sue Racheal for her
act, but she had not committed any act that could have been classified
as a crime under countries penal
codes. The said country had ratified the Tokyo convention. Can a
suit be filed against Racheal?
a)
A suit cannot be filed against Racheal as she has not committed any act that is violative of any penal
laws.
b)
A suit can be filed against Racheal according to article 1(2) of the Tokyo convention which allows the
prosecution of an individual whose action affects the general safety and discipline of the plane.
c)
A suit can be filed against Racheal in accordance with the IATA convention which allows the
prosecution
of an individual whose action affects the general safety and discipline of the plane.
d) No suit can be filed against Racheal as her panic was reasonable. Phoebe foresees events.
Q 82. 30265180 Racheal was leaving for Paris. The flight was already set in motion for take-off.
Suddenly she realized that
Ross was the love of her life and could not live without him. She started
yelling and acting violently. She was
yelling at the pilots to turn the aeroplane back to the airport. As
her behaviour went out of control the pilots
had to give in and turn the aeroplane back to the airport.

Can she be considered as an 'unruly passenger'

under Article 17 of International Civil Aviation
Organisation (ICAO) Chicago Convention?
a) No, she cannot be considered as an unruly passenger, she was doing it for the love of her life.
b) True love stands above 10 minutes delay, Racheal should be pardoned.
c)
Racheal can be considered as an unruly passenger under article 17 of the International Civil Aviation
Organisation (ICAO) Chicago Convention.
d)
Ross has to be charged, as it is his mistake that he confessed his love while she was boarding the
aeroplane.
Q 83. 30265180 Racheal had taken a flight to Paris. When the flight was about to fly, she realised
that Ross was her true love
of life. This severely affected her and traumatised her leading to a mild
panic attack which made her
unconscious. The flight returned to the airport and Racheal was taken to
the hospital. Can Racheal be
charged for disruption of discipline of the flight?
a) No, But Ross has to be charged as it is because of him Racheal had a panic attack.
b) No Racheal had a health upset which was a natural cause and cannot be charged for the same.
c) Yes, Racheal should not have thought about Ross in a plane, Ross is unpredictable.
d) Yes, thinking about Ross in an aeroplane is a negligent act by Racheal.
Q 84. 30265180 Which of the following statements is false in the light of the given passage?
a)
A disruptive passenger is someone who by their actions or stated intentions jeopardizes or might
jeopardize the safety of the aircraft, persons aboard it, or property therein.
b)
International Air Transport Association is a public organisation consisting of members from nearly 125
countries.
c) Article 1 of the Tokyo convention discusses the applicability of the laws.
d)
The IATA Guidance on Unruly Passenger Prevention and Management, 2015 provides numerous
ways
on how airlines can deal with unruly passengers.
Q 85. 30265180 Which of the following is not an association/law that deals with safety of aeroplanes
and its movements?
a) International Air Transport Association b) Tokyo convention 1963
c) International Civil Aviation Organisation d)

Aviation organisation of southeast Asian nations

based on each
the passage.

Passage – 5

A person is said to 'instigate' another to an act, when he actively suggests or stimulates him to the act
by any
means of language. 'Instigate' literally means to goad or urge forward or to provoke. A person
instigates with
intention to incite or encourage the doing of an act by another. Instigation involves a
physical act or omission as
well as a mental act. A mere acquiescence or permission does not amount
to instigation. Instigation necessarily
connotes some active suggestion, support or stimulation to the
commission of the act itself. It implies knowledge
of the criminality of an act. For abetment by
instigation, the instigation. must have reference to the thing that was
done and not to the thing that
was likely to have been done by the person who is instigated. It is only if this condition
is fulfilled that a
person can be guilty of abetment by instigation. Under section 107, IPC, it is the instigation of the
commission of the act itself which constitutes the offence which is regarded as abetment. Instigation
does not
merely mean the placing of temptation to do a forbidden thing, but the actively stimulating a
person to do it.
There is no instigation unless it is communicated to the author of the act in some form
or the other. Instigation may
be personal or through a letter or a third party. The act of causing
humiliation is not instigation. The instigation may
be direct or indirect, but in either case it is necessary
to show that the mind of the person instigated was affected
thereby. If the instigation is by means of a
letter sent through post, the offence of abetment by instigation is
completed as soon as the contents
of such letter become known to the addressee, and the offence is triable at the
place where such
letter is received. An advice per se cannot necessarily be instigation. Advice can become
instigation
only if it is found that it was an advice which was meant actively to suggest or stimulate the
commission
of an offence. In Jai Narain v. State of Bihar, where the persons who were members of an
unlawful assembly set
fire to a hut in consequence of the order of the accused, the Court held that it
would be too unreal to hold that the
persons who set fire to the hut did so irrespective or
independently of the order given by the accused. In another
case, where accused persons went to the
house of the deceased, hurled abuses at her, the words used by them
were highly provocative and
stimulating, the deceased as a result committed suicide, the acts of the accused
persons amounted to
instigation and they were held liable to be convicted under section 306 read with section 107,
IPC. A
wilful misrepresentation of a fact amounts to an abetment of an act within the meaning of section 107,
explanation. There has to be a reasonable certainty in regard to the meaning of the words used by the
instigator in
order to determine whether or not there was instigation, but it is not necessary to prove
the actual words used for
the incitement.
Q 86. 30265180 D idolized the character Captain America. Once D commented upon a post of the
actor of captain America
stating 'Captain, Do I have your permission to take down enemies and make
America great again?'
The actor replied back- 'Go ahead, Make America great again'. After that D

killed two of his neighbors who

were expatriates from Iran. Now the legal representatives of D want to
file a case of abetment on the actor
of Captain America. Decide.
a)
The legal representatives of D can file a suit of abetment as the actor's words to make America great
again led to the murder.
b)
The legal representatives cannot file a suit as it was mere permission which did not intend or aspire to
commit the act.
c)
The actor shall be held liable for abetment as the murder was foreseeable and he was negligent with
his
tweets.
d)
The actor shall not be held liable as the acts of replying to a comment will not be considered as an
abetment.
Q 87. 30265180 A and B met in a restaurant. A was a former felon. He mentioned to B about Randy
Wash, an infamous drug
dealer and thief who made millions by cheating the government. B was
inspired by Randy Wash and attempted
to commit a theft of a bank. He was caught during his
attempt. Can A be held liable for abetment?
a) A can be held liable for abetment as he knowingly and with intention abetted B to undertake theft.
b) A cannot be held liable as he did not directly intend to incite or encourage B to commit theft.
c) A can be held liable as he indirectly affected the mind of B and influenced him to commit theft.
d) A cannot be held liable as he did not expressly ask or mention B to commit theft.
Q 88. 30265180 What did the court hold in the case of Jai Narain v. State of Bihar?
a) The court held that indirect instigation cannot be a ground for abetment in normal circumstances.
b) The court held that the act of causing humiliation is not instigation.
c)
The Court held that it would be too unreal to hold that the persons who set fire to the hut did so
irrespective
or independently of the order given.
d) None of the above.
Q 89. 30265180 A and B were neighbors and always fought with each other. Once it was realized
that A's son was in love
with B's daughter. When A asked for a marriage proposal, B said "you and
your family are good for nothing
and you can never get a bride like my daughter." Enraged by this, A
went on to kidnap Twinkle, the most
beautiful girl of the village and tried to marry her to his son. He
was stopped by the police. Now, A wants to file
a case of abetment on B. Decide.
a) There is no abetment in the given case, as humiliation cannot be considered as an abetment.

b)
B willfully abetted A knowing that he would kidnap twinkle. Hence, there is abetment in the given
case.
c) B cannot be charged with abetment unless he accepts that he knew A would kidnap twinkle.
d)
There is abetment as B's words were an indirect challenge to marry A's son to the most beautiful girl
in
the village.
Q 90. 30265180 Once the kingdom of Dholakpur was attacked by the kingdom of Pehlwanpur.
Bheem, the king of Dholakpur
went to fight in the war. One Kalia informed the queen Indumati that
Bheem had died in the battle and the
troops of Pehlwanpur were breaching the castle. Only Raju was
fighting from their side and everyone else
was dead. Shocked by this and not wanting to be taken as
a prisoner, Indumati committed suicide.
Later it was revealed that Kalia had blatantly lied and
Dholakpur had won the battle. Will Kalia be held liable
for abetment under section 107?
a) Kalia will not be held liable for abetment as he did instigate Indumati to commit suicide.
b) Kalia will be held liable as his act of misrepresentation of facts had led to the suicide of Indumati.
c)
Kalia shall not be held liable as he only misrepresented the facts and did not instigate any abetment.
d) Kalia should be held liable for murder as his statement had led to the death of Indumati.
based on each
the passage.

Passage – 6

Unnatural offences are covered in IPC under section 377. Section 377 of the IPC states that "whoever
voluntarily
has carnal intercourse against the order of nature with any man, woman or animal, shall be
punished with
imprisonment for life, or with imprisonment of either description for a term which may
extend to ten years,
and shall be liable to fine". As per the explanation provided under this section,
penetration is sufficient to constitute
carnal intercourse. This section corresponds to the offences of
sodomy and bestiality under the English law.
As evident from the language of this section, consent is
wholly immaterial in the case of unnatural offences and
the party consenting would be equally liable
as an abettor. This section is very vague as what is against the order
of nature is not possible to
define objectively. What is natural and what is not is a subject of debate and has led to
much
confusion. As per this section homosexuality is construed as an unnatural offence as it is considered
to be
against the order of nature. This has led to many controversies and has led to questions
regarding the constitutional
validity of this section. Thus, in order to determine the constitutional
validity of this section and the reasons for its
incorporation in the IPC it is important to look at its
historical basis.
In Khanu v Emperor it was held that "the natural object of carnal intercourse is that there should be
the possibility
of conception of human beings, which in the case of coitus per so is impossible". The
courts in India have interpreted
the term "carnal intercourse against the order of nature" so broadly
that it now includes from oral and anal sex to
penetration into artificial orifices such as folded palms or
between thighs. Such a wide application of section 377
where the language itself is not very clear has
led to arbitrary application of the law and thus questions were raised
regarding the constitutional
validity of this section. Apart from this, section 377 clearly makes homosexuality illegal
on the ground
that it is against the order of nature. This has also led to various controversies in view of recognition
of
right to freedom as a fundamental human right, it is considered world over that criminalization of
homosexual
acts is a clear violation of right to privacy. In view of the arbitrariness of section 377 and
violation of basic fundamental
rights, the constitutional validity of this section was challenged in the
court.

The constitutional validity of section 377 was challenged in the Delhi High Court in the case of Naz
Foundation v
Government of Delhi & Ors. In this case it was argued that s 377 on account of covering
consensual sexual
intercourse between two adults in private, is violative of the fundamental rights
guaranteed in Articles 14, 15, 19
and 21 of the Constitution. It was also contended that Article 21 can
be curtailed only in case of compelling state
interest, which is missing in this case. The petitioner also
contended that the legislative intent behind section 377
is based on stereotypes that are outmoded
and have no historical or logical backing. They also argued that the
expression "sex" as used in Article
15 also includes "sexual orientation" and thus according to Article 15 there can
be no discrimination
on the basis of sexual orientation. Broadly they prayed before the court that section 377 of IPC
should
be declared ultra vires to the constitution, insofar it criminalizes consensual sexual acts of adults. In
this
landmark case, the two-bench judge held that treating consensual homosexual reating
consensual homosexual
sex between adults as a crime is a violation of fundamental rights protected
by India's Constitution
Q 91. 30265180 Which of the following was not a ground of pleading for the appellants in the case of
Naz Foundation v
Government of Delhi & Ors?
a) Section 377 of Indian Penal code is violative of articles 14, 15, 19 and 21 of the constitution.
b) Article 21 can be curtailed only in case of compelling state interest, which is missing in this case.
c)
Article 15 also includes "sexual orientation" and thus according to Article 15 there can be no
discrimination
on the basis of sexual orientation.
d) Section 377 is against the principles held by our founding fore father Jawaharlal Nehru.
Q 92. 30265180 Why has there been arbitrary application of law in case of section 377 of IPC?

a)
Section 377 of IPC uses the term 'against the order of nature' which is in itself quite confusing and
contradictory and has allowed the courts to apply it in whatsoever manner they choose.
b) Very broad interpretation of section 377 has led to the arbitrary application of the same.
c)
As per this section homosexuality is construed as an unnatural offence as it is considered to be
against
the order of nature and this had led to arbitrary rules against LGBTQ+ community.
d)
Right to freedom of fundamental rights have been restricted and the court has bent the restriction
according
to their choice.
Q 93. 30265180 Ram and Ninan were two adults and were in love with each other. Once they moved
into a new place in the
town of Ramkashi and rented a place. The news of their homosexual
relationship spread like wildfire in the
town. One night the localites broke into their house and found
them in a compromising position.
They harassed both of them and handed them over to the police.
This incident happened after the supreme
court judgement of the Naz foundation. Pick the correct
answer.
a) Ram and Ninan shall be liable under section 377 of the Indian penal code 1860.
b)
Ram and Ninan shall not be protected under the Naz foundation judgment as their act should have
been
with resepct to public order, health and morality.
c)
Ram and Ninan shall not be held liable as both of them being consenting adults have the right to be
ina
relationship and have sex.
d)
Ram and Ninan should have thought before moving into Shivkashi and the local practices need to be
upheld.
Q 94. 30265180 Which of the following statements is not an interpretation of section 377 of IPC?
a)
the natural object of carnal intercourse is that there should be the possibility of conception of human
beings, which in the case of coitus per so is impossible.
b) Carnal intercourse is a disgrace on humans and their ability to live in a dignified manner.
c)
carnal intercourse against the order of nature" includes from oral and anal sex to penetration into
artificial
orifices such as folded palms or between thighs.

d)
treating consensual homosexual reating consensual homosexual sex between adults as a crime is a
violation of fundamental rights protected by India's Constitution
a) Section 377 corresponds to the offences of sodomy and bestiality under the English law.
b)
The constitutional validity of section 377 was challenged in the Delhi High Court in the case of Naz
Foundation v Government of Delhi & Ors.
c)
In Naz foundation case it was argued that section 377 violates Article 15 which says there can be no
discrimination on the basis of sexual orientation.
based on each
the passage.

Passage – 7

Change is the only constant. This is also true when it comes to interpretation of statutes. While the
fundamental
core of our legal principles remains universal and classic, their interpretations change
and evolve with time.
One such example of evolution could be the interpretation of the relationship
between Article 14, Article 19 & Article
21 under Part III of the Indian Constitution

Article 14, it provides for equality before law and equal protection of the law. It means that no person
is deprived of
his equality among other citizens of our country. The provision also gains importance
because the enactment of
such a provision leads to the abolishing of certain inhuman customary
practices of our country. The provisions of
this article also envisage certain legal rights like protection
of law which purely means that the law should be the
same for every person with some necessary
exceptions.

According to the Golden Triangle rule established by the infamous Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India,
Article 14,
Article 19 & Article 21 are connected with each other. They are complementary to each
other and grant the most
basic rights to the Indian citizens and even non-citizens of India in some
cases. Right to equality, right to basic
freedoms and right to life & personal liberty - all must be read
together and collectively interpreted. As per the
Golden Triangle jurisprudence, if someone's personal
liberty has been encroached - it must necessarily pass the
test of violation of all the three articles in
order to be categorized as "infringement of personal liberty".


Article 19 provides certain absolute rights such as freedom of speech and expression, freedom of
movement,
freedom of forming associations and unions, etc. This Article brings about important
changes in the society as it
provides various rights to the people so that there is harmony among the
people of our country. Even though this Article covers a vast area of operation, it does not provide a
person the freedom to do anything and everything as
per his whims and fancies. Various other
provisions of the Article provide restrictions to various issues affecting
public tranquillity and security.

Article 21 is applicable even during the time of election wherein people have the sole right of electing
the best
person as their representative. No person has a right to compel anyone to elect the person
other than his/her wish.
Even though voting is not a fundamental right but a 'statutory right', the court,
in the judgment of the case PUCL v.
Union of India[8], distinguishes "right to vote" and the "freedom of
voting as the species of the freedom of expression"
under Article 19 of the Constitution. There are
various other major judgments in cases regarding enforcement of
fundamental rights. For example,
the case of Kesavananda Bharati v. Union of India[9], which is considered as a
landmark among
cases regarding the enforceability of constitutional rights in favour of the citizens. The judgment
in the
said case makes it clear that even the Central or State Government has certain limitations in
encroaching
into a person's rights, mainly fundamental rights.
Q 96. 30265180 What is the basic thumb-rule of doctrine of Golden triangle according to the
passage?
a)
The doctrine of Golden triangle suggests that while applying the said three articles the other has to be
imperatively taken into consideration as they don't exist without the other.
b)
According to the golden triangle the three articles are contemporary to each other and grant the most
basic rights to the Indian citizens and even non-citizens of India in some cases.
c)
Golden triangle is the term used by Dr. BR Ambedkar in constitutional assembly debates in the year
1949.
d)
The golden triangle thumb rule is that article 21 takes the precedence while article 14 comes next
followed
by article 19.
Q 97. 30265180 How can one categorize "infringement of personal liberty"?
a) Infringement of personal liberty can be considered after looking into violation of article 21.
b)
Infringement of personal liberty can be taken into consideration only after taking into consideration all
the
three articles of the golden triangle.

c)
It must necessarily pass the test of violation of all the three articles in order to be categorized as
"infringement of personal liberty".
d) Both (b) and (c)
a)
Article 19 provides certain absolute rights such as freedom of speech and expression, freedom of
movement, freedom of forming associations and unions, etc.
b) Article 14 provides only for the right to equality before law.

c) Article 19 is an integral part of the principle of Golden triangle.
d) The principle of the golden triangle was developed in the case of Maneka Gandhi.
Q 99. 30265180 What is the example provided in the passage to suggest the existence of broad
application of article 21?
a) Article 21 extends the right to sleep peacefully as held in the case of Re Rammaidan.
b)
Article 21 also applies to the right to protest peacefully, the same also is covered under article 19.
This
shows the inextricable nexus between these articles.
c)
Article 21 is applicable even during the time of election wherein people have the sole right of electing
the
best person as their representative.
d)
The passage does not discuss the broader application of article 21 and constricts itself to the idea of
golden triangle.
Q 100. 30265180 What specific idea regarding the interpretation of statues does the author of the
passage have?
a)
The author of the passage strongly suggests that interpretation of the statute should be made in
consonance
with the idea of formalism.
b) The author of the passage feels that interpretation of statutes changes and evolves with time.
c) The author does not provide any specific opinion regarding the interpretation of statues.
d) Both (a) and (b)
based on each
the passage.

Passage – 8

Several states have provisions in their constitutions that mention the environment and (loosely) define
the role of
the state government in protecting the state's natural resources and the health of its
residents. One state is
particularly unique in that it dedicates an entire article of its constitution to
natural resources. Article VIII, section 2
of the Alaska State Constitution declares that "[t]he legislature
shall provide for the utilization, development,
and conservation of all natural resources belonging to
the State, including land and waters, for the maximum
benefit of its people." As such, the state's
natural resources are held in trust by the government for the people.

The idea that governments should hold certain natural resources in trust for public use dates to
ancient times.
One early example comes from Byzantine Emperor Justinian, who recognized "public
values in water" and ordered
that the sea, the seashores, running water, and the air were common to
everyone. Today, the notion that common
resources should be held in trust for the public-dubbed the
public trust doctrine-is most often applied to shorelines
between low and high tides. Importantly,
whether a certain resource falls under the protection of public trust
involves a state-by-state analysis.

In the late 20th century, the public trust doctrine gave rise to a developing area of environmental law
called
"atmospheric trust litigation." Championed by Professor Mary Christina Wood, this innovative
legal theory attempts
to force governments to control climate change-contributing greenhouse gas
(GHG) emissions into the atmosphere.
In perhaps the most famous example of atmospheric trust
litigation, Juliana v. United States, a coalition of youth
plaintiffs brought a lawsuit arguing that the US
Constitution guarantees an unenumerated fundamental right to a
"stable climate system." The
deciding court recognized the evidence regarding the plaintiffs' injuries from climate
change but
"reluctantly concluded" that the requested remedies were best addressed by the political branches of
government: the executive and legislative branches, not the judiciary.

Since the 1970s, political branches in five states-Pennsylvania, Montana, Illinois, Massachusetts, and
Hawaiihave
enacted constitutionally based environmental rights provisions, including the right to a
"clean and healthful
environment." Pennsylvania was first in 1971, followed by Montana in 1972. The
Rhode Island Constitution also
includes specific environmental protections in its 1987 bill of rights;
however, those protections only extend to
fishery rights and shore privileges, and therefore the state
is not generally regarded as having a green amendment.

Proposing Constitutional Amendments

There are four primary methods of passing proposing constitutional amendments for ratification. Many
state
constitutions allow for multiple methods. However, two have been successful means of
proposing and passing
green amendments:
• Through legislatively referred constitutional amendments;

• Through citizen-initiated constitutional amendments;

• Through constitutional conventions; and

• Through commission-referred constitutional amendment.

Furthermore, every state except Delaware requires voters to ratify proposed constitutional
amendments.
Q 101. 30265180 What idea does the Article VIII, section 2 of the Alaska State Constitution give?
a) Article VIII, section 2 gives autonomy over the use of natural resources to the government.
b)
Article VIII, section 2 gives the idea that governments should hold certain natural resources in trust for
public use.
c) Article VIII, section 2 bans illegal destruction of forests and other protected areas,
d) Article VIII, section 2 provides safeguarding duties of the government to protect natural resources.
Q 102. 30265180 How has the atmospheric trust litigation proved to be successful or can be claimed
as an effective remedy?
a)
The atmospheric trust litigation can be claimed as an effective remedy as its genesis is from public
trust
doctrine.
b)
Public trust doctrine has been previously held successful and hence the atmospheric trust litigation
can
also be considered to be successful.
c)
The case of Juliana v. United States for the first time showed that atmospheric trust doctrine can be
successful and is an effective remedy.
a)
Since the 1970s, political branches in five states of the USA have enacted constitutionally based
environmental rights provisions.
b)
Today, the notion that common resources should be held in trust for the public is most often applied to
shorelines between low and high tides.
c)
The idea that governments should hold certain natural resources in trust for public use dates to
ancient
times. One early example comes from Byzantine Emperor Justinian

Q 104. 30265180 Why is the Rhode-island constitutional provision of the environment different from
others?
a) Rhode-island provision is much constricted and strict while considering the other state provisions.
b)
Rhode-island protections only extend to fishery rights and shore privileges, and therefore the state is
not
generally regarded as having a green amendment.
c)
Rhode-island protections only extend to marine and sea shores and therefore the state is not
generally
regarded as having a green amendment.
Q 105. 30265180 Why does the passage hail Alaska State Constitution by comparing it with the rest
of the other state
constitutions?
a)
The Alaska state constitution has been more vigilant and has brought in better rules to safeguard the
greenery.
b) The passage does not provide the definite reason for the same.
c) The Alaska state constitution has adopted the public trust doctrine.
d) Both (a) and (c).
Logical Reasoning
Directions for questions 106 to 135: Read the passages and answer the questions that follow.

Passage – 1

Ominous clouds hover over India's "Sunshine Legislation", enacted with great fanfare in 2005. Amidst
renewed
concern over its functioning across states, the Right to Information Act (RTI) is set to
complete 17 years this
October. A damning indictment of the various Information Commissions -
"acting as a major bottleneck in effective
implementation of the RTI Law" - comes from the report of
the Sarthak Nagrik Sangathan (SNS) 2021.

A huge backlog of second appeals, lengthy wait time for hearings, hesitancy in posting penalties and
increasing
opacity in the working of the commissions have led SNS to this conclusion. The
commissions have been plagued
with vacancies, poor choice of commissioners, untrained staff and a
non-cooperative set of public information
officers (PIOs). The sufferers, however, are the applicants.


The RTI Act is a sunshine legislation aimed at eradicating corruption and promoting transparency. The
Indian
information law, rated as one of the strongest in the world, needs to be bolstered by raising
awareness amongst
the people and organising rigorous training of government officials. A strong
political system is a must for the RTI
regime to flourish.

It is imperative to ensure freedom of the press and democratic institutions, punish errant officials and
maintain
complete autonomy of the information commissions, in the interest of the people and the
nation at large.
As India emerges as a global power, the implementation of legislation like the RTI Act
will be under the constant
scrutiny of the comity of nations.
Q 106. 30265180 Which of the following is the overall conclusion of the whole passage?
a)
RTI Act should be revamped as it is completing 17 years this October, new changes must be
introduced.
b)
There has been a wide range of corruption being observed when it comes to Right to Information Act,
this has resulted in RTI.
c)
It has now become very necessary to give freedom to the information commissions so that the needs
of
the people could be dealt with at a larger level without any corruption.
d) In the coming years, RTI will be under scrutiny by a majority of countries.
Q 107. 30265180 Which of the following expresses the paradox of the passage?
a)
RTI act being right to information Act is in fact concealing the information from people instead of giving
them appropriate information.
b)
Despite completing 17 years in October, RTI Act has been ineffective in dealing with corruption along
with lack of awareness.
c)
RTI Act is considered to be a sunshine legislation, however it is still filled with deep cracks of
corruption
and lack of freedom
d) The applicants are the sufferers and not the one who have legislated this act.
Q 108. 30265180 Which of the following inferences CAN BE DRAWN from the passage?
a)
A huge backlog of appeals, lengthy wait time for hearings, hesitancy in posting penalties and
increasing
opacity in the working of the commissions have led SNS to this conclusion.

b)
A damning indictment of the various Information Commissions - "acting as a major bottleneck in
effective
implementation of the RTI Law" - comes from the report of the Sarthak Nagrik Sangathan
(SNS) 2022.
c)
Ominous clouds hover over India's "Sunshine Legislation", enacted with great fanfare in 2005.
Amidst
renewed concern over its functioning across states, the Right to Information Act (RTI) is set to
complete 18 years this October.
d)
It is important to ensure freedom of the press and democratic institutions, punish errant officials and
maintain complete autonomy of the information commissions.
Q 109. 30265180 Which of the following WEAKENS the passage the most?
a)
Being a sunshine legislation, RTI envisages equal right to information to all even though it is being
corrupted
on many levels.
b) Errant officials must be punished and brought to court for justice to be served
c) Other countries do not have a locus standi to interfere in the RTI Act of India.
d) RTI Act would further improve if it will be under a constant scrutiny by the nations.
Q 110. 30265180 Which of the following STRENGTHENS the passage the most?
a)
RTI Act is going to be further improved in future considering the breakthroughs that have occurred in
the
recent years
b)
The Supreme Court has also emphasised the importance of the Right to Information Act and has
recommended various measures in order to improve it.
c) Both (a) and (b) are correct answers.
d) neither (a) nor (b) are correct answers.

Passage – 2

A virus belonging to the poxvirus's family causes a rare contagious rash illness known as monkeypox.
This zoonotic
viral disease (a disease transmitted from animals to humans) has hosts that include
rodents and primates.
What was previously limited to the disease's local spread in central and west
Africa, close to tropical rainforests,
has recently been seen in various urban areas and now in more
than 50 countries. The good news is that most
infected people will have minor illnesses and recover
on their own. Despite mild illness and a low transmission

rate, the WHO has declared monkeypox, a
public health emergency of international concern (PHEIC) to contain
the disease. The increase in
monkeypox cases in a short span of time in many countries necessitated the declaration
of PHEIC
and additional research studies. It is unclear whether the recent sudden outbreaks in multiple
countries
result from mutations that alter virus transmissibility. SARS-CoV-2 and monkeypox virus co-
infection can alter
infectivity patterns and response to vaccination against both diseases. As a result,
there is a need to improve test
efficiency.

The world is yet to recognise emerging infectious diseases as a threat. The immediate priority is to
strengthen the
surveillance infrastructure, including hiring public health professionals who can
participate in outbreak detection
during many future PHEICs. Mechanisms for initiating contact
tracing, quarantining exposed people should be
institutionalised. Without prioritising public health
strengthening, the threat of new and re-emerging infectious
diseases, as well as the enormous social
and economic challenges that accompany them, is real and grave.
Q 111. 30265180 Which of the following is the main point of the passage?
a)
The world should recognise monkeypox as a disease which could threaten the public health systems
of
various countries.
b)
The priority of each country now should be to improve their health infrastructure. Challenges such as
social and economic must be averted.
c)
We have grave public health challenges before us, they must be averted before any serious
emergency
arises
d)
Monkeypox is a virus quite similar to SARS COV-2 and vaccination against either disease is not fully
available. An alternative must be searched to combat these diseases.
Q 112. 30265180 Which of the following is the paradox drawn from the passage?
a)
Despite mild illness and a low transmission rate, the WHO has declared monkeypox, a public health
emergency of international concern (PHEIC) to contain the disease.
b)
Though monkeypox is a transmissible disease still the countries are not taking action to tackle the
disease
properly.
c)
COVID-19 spread very rapidly and the countries were reluctant to take any action at first, similarly the
same should not be done with monkeypox as then the situation would be quite paradoxical.

d)
Going through COVID-19, our infrastructure should have been robust as of now to tackle monkeypox,
however it has become more weakened instead of strengthening.
Q 113. 30265180 Which of the following inferences cannot be drawn from the passage?
a)
This zoonotic viral disease (a disease transmitted from humans to animals) has hosts that include
rodents and primates.
b)
Without prioritising public health strengthening, the threat of new and re-emerging infectious diseases,
as well as the enormous social and economic challenges that accompany them, is real and grave.
c)
The good news is that most infected people will have minor illnesses and recover on their own.
Despite mild illness and a low transmission rate, the WHO has declared monkeypox, a public health
emergency of international concern (PHEIC) to contain the disease.
d)
SARS-CoV-2 and monkeypox virus co-infection can alter infectivity patterns and response to
vaccination
against either disease.
Q 114. 30265180 Which of the following weakens the passage the most?
a)
Monkeypox should not be treated as a disease of serious nature, we have encountered many
diseases
like this before and are well equipped to handle this as well.
b)
Our infrastructure has become more strengthened from the past encounter with the diseases we
have,
therefore efforts should be channelised by using them to prevent other threatening diseases.
c) Both (a) and (b) weaken the passage.
d) Neither (a) nor (b) weakens the passage.
Q 115. 30265180 "The world is yet to recognise emerging infectious diseases as a threat". Which of
the following purposes
this line serves?
a) It acts as a conclusion of the passage. b) It acts as a premise to the passage.
c) It acts as an assumption to the passage. d) It acts as a paradox to the passage.

Passage – 3

Another Dozen Stories, by Satyajit Ray, translated from the Bengali by Indrani Majumdar. The book

features
never-before translated stories of spooky, magical and astonishing worlds created by the
polymath. We spoke
with Majumdar about these Ray's world of fascinating stories. On asking Indrani
to tell us about her experience
while translating the stories included in the book, she gave us this
answer.

"Ray's style of writing at one level is very simple, colloquial and down to earth. Yet, this style posed a
huge
challenge to me. The opening story in this volume, The Life and Death of Aryasekhar, written
way back in 1968, is
one that Ray labelled as 'the only story written with adults in mind'. Not just the
theme, what was a complete
departure was the use of a very strict, formal Bengali style of writing by
Ray. Reading this story, one was more
than impressed, and it revealed Ray's strong hold over his
mother tongue. And here, I put in real effort and labour
over my translation. If readers like reading this
book, the credit goes strictly to the writer. Though translating the
other stories meant for young adults
proved less daunting, it meant reworking on the structure of certain sentences
quite a few times. In
Bengali, Ray on occasions wrote a sentence so long, it almost amounted to one paragraph.
In the
original, it works rather well. But not necessarily so when transforming it into another language. To
ease the
flow of reading, I cut it down to 3-4 sentences to retain the essence. Translating his quaint
use of humour and wit
is no less a challenge.

Time and again a twist in the last sentence of a story could never retain the same charm or offer a
tone of the same
surprise while writing in English. I felt translating a language often meant translating
a culture, too. For instance,
a story ends with a mere sentence stating that the protagonist chose to
die in the early hours on the day of his
niece's wedding. It imports a note of a huge tragedy as a death
in a Bengali family meant no auspicious activities
to be observed for the next whole year. I'm sure
such a custom works elsewhere, too in India."
Q 116. 30265180 According to the passage, which of the following inferences can be drawn about
Indrani Majumdar?

I. She is a brilliant and wonderfully successful writer.

II. She, as a translator, adds creativity to her work.

III. She has a deep insight about translating, not just words but emotions too.

IV. She likes getting credit for her work.
a) Only I b) Only II c) Both II and III d) Both I and IV
Q 117. 30265180 "Time and again, a twist in the last sentence of a story could never retain the same
charm or offer a tone of
the same surprise while writing in English."

Which of the following, if true, seriously weakens the argument above?

I. English as a language lacks the power of expression.

II. Bengali is better than English.

III. Satyajit's stories had predictable endings.

IV. The English novels have immense power to hold the interest of the audience.
a) Only I b) Both II and IV c) Both III and IV d) All I, II, III and IV

Q 118. 30265180 "Ray's style of writing at one level is very simple, colloquial and down to earth. Yet,
this style posed a huge
challenge to me."

The above statement makes which of the following assumptions?

I. Ray's writing style is unmatchable.

II. The translator likes taking up challenges

III. Translation demands retaining the essence of the original work
a) Only I b) Only II c) Both I and II d) Both II and III
Q 119. 30265180 Which of the following statement(s) is/are true according to the passage?
a) It is difficult to translate books written with adults in mind
b) It is challenging to recreate instances and emotions like the original in the translated version.
c) Working on sentence structures is the most daunting task of all.
d) All of the above
Q 120. 30265180 Which of the following conveys the main idea expressed in the passage?
a) Exaggerating the work of Satyajit Ray. b)

Self-appreciating the efforts of Indrani Majumdar.
c) Outlining the challenges of a translator. d) Comparing English and Bengali.

Passage – 4

Human beings are self-conscious creatures: we can conceptualise ourselves as psychological beings,
forming
beliefs about who and what we are. We also have identities: self-beliefs that are sources of
meaning, purpose and
value, and that help to constrain our choices and actions. In addition to being
able to think about ourselves,
self-conscious beings can recognise that we are the objects of other
people's thoughts. This opens up the possibility
of a conflict between our own identities and how we
are perceived by others. This potential for conflict gives us
unique power over each other, and also
makes us uniquely vulnerable: only self-conscious beings can kill with a
glance or die of
embarrassment. Our vulnerability to how others regard us might create obligations to try to regard
others in some of the ways they desire - ways that are consonant with their own identities. But what
about identities
that we think are false or absurd - or that we simply don't understand?

A plural is a human being who says things like: 'I'm one of many people inside my head.' Although
they are quite
rare (it's impossible to say now rare), plurals are increasingly visible on social media
and in the occasional popular
media article. At present, there is a handbook online about now to
respond to a co-worker's 'coming out'
(as the document puts it) as plural. You might think you've heard
of plurals if you've heard of dissociative identity
disorder (DID), because, like plurals, people With DID

experience themselves as being psychologically multiple.

But many plurals don't meet the diagnostic
criteria for DID. Often, this is because they don't find their plurality per
se to be distressing or
impairing. In other cases, it's because they don't meet the amnesia criterion for DID,
since the multiple
beings that plurals experience as being inside them can share experiences or communicate to
each
other about their experiences.
Q 121. 30265180 Which of the following can we infer about 'plurals' from the given passage?
a) Plurals might be mistaken for people with dissociative identity disorder.

b) A plural human being isn't a person at all.
c) There are identities that we shouldn't respect, because they reinforce unjust social arrangements.
d)
Plurals live with a discord between what they believe about themselves and what everyone else
believes.
Q 122. 30265180 We can infer from the passage that…
a) Plurality is the by-product of the online social media platforms.
b) Human beings can counter conflicts by becoming impervious to others perception about self.
c) What we can learn about respect and identity from plurals.
d) Human beings have many mental malaises that they are unaware of.
Q 123. 30265180 Which of the following is most likely to be true had human beings not cared about
what others think of them?
a) Human beings would be facing existential crisis.

b) The element or concept of plurality might not be in existence at all.
c) There won't be any vulnerability among human beings.
d) There won't be any conflict among human beings.
Q 124. 30265180 Which of the following forms the premise for the author's argument that potential for
conflict makes us
powerful and vulnerable at the same time?
a)
By virtue of possessing the element of plurality, we can experience two contrasting emotions
(powerfulness
and vulnerability) at the same time.
b) Human beings experience an identity crisis if they don't feel multiple emotions all at once.
c)
We can form opinions about others which makes us powerful and at the same time will be judged by
others, making us vulnerable.
d) Responding to a particular situation requires a mixed set of emotions.

Q 125. 30265180 Which of the following, if true, would weaken the argument made in the passage
that we are objects of other
people's thoughts?
a)
Out in the social world - that is, the social world outside their heads - plurals mostly live as if they were
the
way that singlets see them.
b) It generally matters to us that other people respect those identities which matter to us.
c)
A relationship with plurals would put one in a position to grasp what their plural identities mean to
them -
what this does for them, what it scaffolds or supports in their lives.

Passage – 5

J F C Fuller did not invent the tank.

That distinction should probably fall to E L de Mole, an Australian who approached the British war
office in 1912
with a design that was - in the words of historians Kenneth Macksey and John Batchelor
- "so convincingly similar
to those which finally went into service that one wonders why it was never
adopted from the outset". But when the
British army eventually introduced the tank, it was J F C
Fuller, chief staff officer of what would later become the
tank corps, who understood what to do with it.
Late in 1917, after almost 400 British tanks had, with modest
success, lumbered across the German
lines at the battle of Cambrai, Fuller applied his radical streak to the
problem of using the tank
effectively. A Medium D could roll across the trenches and be on the German command
posts in an
hour; Fuller's attack would come from nowhere. Air support would disrupt German road and rail travel.
"Bad news confuses, confusion stimulates panic," wrote Fuller. By striking suddenly at the German
command,
Plan 1919 would cause the German army to disintegrate. It would, Fuller declared, be "the
winning of the war in a
single battle".

His astonishing idea became "the most famous unused plan in military history", according to his
biographer Brian
Holden Reid. But, of course, that is not entirely true. It was used to great effect, in
1940 - by the Germans.
J F C Fuller had invented blitzkrieg.

The story might be a historical curiosity, had echoes of it not been repeated so frequently since the
British army
stuffed Fuller's plans for blitzkrieg into a desk drawer. Organisations from newspapers to
oil majors to computing
giants have persistently struggled to embrace new technological
opportunities, or recognise new technological
threats, even when the threats are mortal or the
opportunities are golden.

In 1970, the photocopying giant Xerox established the Palo Alto Research Center, or Parc. Xerox

Parc then developed

the world's first personal computer, with a graphical user interface, windows,
icons and a mouse. Bill Gates of
Microsoft and Steve Jobs of Apple observed developments at Xerox
Parc with great interest. Xerox still makes
photocopiers.
Q 126. 30265180 J F C Fuller did not invent the tank. Through the statement, the author does which
of the following?
a) The author clears the disseminated misconception
b) The author categorically puts aside a common perception.

c) The author draws the attention of the readers towards the truth.
d) The author expresses regret for the misconception around who invented the tank.
Q 127. 30265180 Which of the following situations is parallel to the reasoning provided in the
passage?
a)
IBM - the giant of mainframe computing. IBM is a survivor. It predates the digital computer by more
than
three decades. While the performance of computers was being revolutionised by the
semiconductor,
the integrated circuit, the hard drive and the compiler, IBM maintained a dominant
position without breaking
stride.
b)
Unsuccessful organisations stick to their once-triumphant strategies, even as the world changes
around
them.
c)
When Steve Jobs visited Xerox Parc in 1979, and saw a windows-and-mouse interface for the first
time,
he couldn't contain himself, according to an article by Malcolm Gladwell. "Why aren't you doing
anything
with this?" he yelled. "This is the greatest thing. This is revolutionary!"
d)
In 1999, Sony launched the "Memory Stick Walkman", one of the world's first digital music players.
Sony was armed with the iconic Walkman brand, some of the world's best consumer electronics
engineers
and the talent-soaked Sony-BMG music label. The Memory Stick Walkman went nowhere
and, two years
later, it was eclipsed by a similar product that transformed the fortunes of a struggling
Apple: the iPod.
Q 128. 30265180 The arguments presented in the passage can be the answer to which of the
following concerns raised by
the author in question form?
a) Why do ideas slip out of the hands of the executors and fall into the hands of the innovators?
b) What were the reasons behind J F C Fuller's unused radical ideas?
c) Why do some ideas slip out of the grasp of incumbents, then thrive in the hands of upstarts?
d) Why do brilliant ideas never find the daylight and are lost in the darkness?

Q 129. 30265180 The historical events shared by the author are
a) anecdotes to show how people miss out on golden opportunities.

b) to present that a brilliant idea lost by one becomes a golden goose for the other.
c) an illustration to prove the mistakes made by Xerox Parc.
d) to show how Germany used the radical idea by JFC Fuller.
Q 130. 30265180 What might be the possible explanations to why organisations squander good
ideas?

1. Firms fail because they stick to idea(s) that made them successful,"

2. New technologies are flawed or under-developed at first, so do not appeal to their conceptualizers.
a) Only 1 b) Only 2 c) Both 1 and 2. d) Neither 1 nor 2.

Passage – 6

The French mathematician Pierre-Simon Laplace (1749-1827) believed that the Universe was a piece
of machinery,
and that physics determines everything. Napoleon, who had read up on Laplace's work,
confronted him about the
conspicuous absence of a creator in his theory. 'I had no need of that
hypothesis,' came the reply. Laplace might
have said the same thing about free will, which his
mechanistic universe rendered superfluous.
Since Laplace's day, scientists, philosophers and even neuroscientists have followed his lead in
denying the
possibility of free will. This reflects a widespread belief among theoretical physicists that if
you know the initial
values of the variables that characterise a physical system, together with the
equations that explain how these
variables change over time, then you can calculate the state of the
system at all later times. For example, if you
know the positions and velocities of all the particles that
make up a gas in a container, you can determine the
positions and velocities of all those particles at
all later times. This means that there should be no freedom for any
deviation from this physically
determined trajectory.

Consider, then, that everything we see around us - rocks and planets, frogs and trees, your body and
brain -
is made up of nothing but protons, electrons and neutrons put together in very complex ways.
In the case of your
body, they make many kinds of cells; in turn, these cells make tissues, such as
muscle and skin; these tissues
make systems, such as the heart, lungs and brain; and these systems
make the body as a whole. It might seem
that everything that's happening at the higher, 'emergent'
levels should be uniquely determined by the physics
operating beneath them. This would mean that
the thoughts you're having at this very moment were predetermined
at the start of the Universe, based
on the values of the particle physics variables at that time.

Q 131. 30265180 Which of the following statements may have formed the premise for Laplace's
argument that 'I had no need
of that hypothesis'?
a) He was an atheist and did not believe in the existence of a sole creator, after all.
b)
He proved that biological activity at the micro level is literally grounded in the physical shape of
biological
molecules.
c)
He might have proved or formulated the existence of all events in the Universe on the basis of physics
and mathematical equations, rejecting the plausibility of free will.
d)
He failed to explain some of the events which were beyond the realms and reach of theories of
physics.
Q 132. 30265180 Which of the following would undermine the argument made in the passage that if
you know the initial values
of the variables that characterise a physical system, together with the
equations that explain how these
variables change over time, then you can calculate the state of the
system at all later times?
a)
Ions are atoms that have become electrically charged because they have lost or gained an electron.
b)
Heisenberg's uncertainty principle introduces an unavoidable fuzziness and an irreducible uncertainty
in
quantum outcomes. You might know the value of one variable, such as a particle's momentum;
that
means you can't accurately detect another, such as its position.
c)
An apple is suspended from a branch of the tree by a string attached to its stalk. It would thereby have
been turned into a pendulum, because the string constrained its motion. Instead of dropping to the
ground, it would have swung back and forth in a circular arc under the branch, with its state of motion
determined uniquely by its initial position and velocity.
d) All of the above.
Q 133. 30265180 Which of the following can we infer from the passage above?
a)
The state of a system is described by what's known as its wave function, which determines the
probabilities
of different outcomes when events take place.
b) At very small scales, the theory of Physics underlies what's happening in the world.
c) The structure of the molecules is truly the secret of life.

d) Outcomes don't depend only on the equations and the initial data.

Q 134. 30265180 Which of the following is most likely to be true had theories of physics and
mathematical equations failed to
explain some of the earthly events?
a)
Learning and memory offer examples of how downward causal effects shape the underlying physics.
b)
If you seriously believe that fundamental forces leave no space for free will, then it's impossible for us
to
genuinely make choices as moral beings.
c)
The power of choice enables physiological systems such as the heart and brain to function in a way
that
is enslaved by the lower-level interactions, and choosing the outcomes of the preferred
interactions from
a multitude of options have been predetermined at the elementary level.
Q 135. 30265180 Which of the following most accurately expresses the main point of the passage?
a)
The confounding thing for free-will sceptics is that all outcomes don't depend only on the equations
and
the initial data; they also depend on randomization.
b) In a physically determined world, there is freedom for deviation up to a certain extent.
c)
There are events or things which Physics is unable to answer or reach to an acceptable conclusion.
d) An understanding of physics sees determinism at work in the universe.
Quantitative Techniques
Directions for questions 136 to 140: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given
below.

In a factory there are a total of 240 management employees and 400 workers. 65% of the number of
management
employees are officers and the remaining are executives. Out of the total number of
workers 45% are females.
20% of the female workers are only graduates. The remaining female
workers are graduates as well as certified
technicians. Three-fourths of the male workers are only
graduates whereas the remaining male workers are
graduates as well as certified technicians. Two-
thirds of the officers are males. Five-fourteenth of the number of
the executives are females.
Q 136. 30265180 What is the ratio of the total number of officers to the number of male workers who
are graduates only?
a) 13 : 55 b) 55 : 54 c) 11 : 52 d) 52 : 55

Q 137. 30265180 What is the total number of male officers, female executives and female workers
who are graduates as well
as certified technicians?
a) 278 b) 315 c) 197 d) 257
Q 138. 30265180 The workers who are graduates as well as technicians form approximately what
percentage of the total
employees of the factory?
a) 27% b) 31% c) 39% d) 19%
Q 139. 30265180 What is the difference between the total number of males and the total number of
females in the factory?
a) 96 b) 132 c) 116 d) 143
Q 140. 30265180 All the workers who are graduates only are fresh recruits and they are provided
with an induction training
program, which costs the company Rs.1,250 per head. Find the cost of
providing training to all the workers
who are only graduates?
a) Rs.2,45,250 b) Rs.1,75,250 c) Rs.2,90,000 d) Rs.2,51,250
below.

The table given below shows the percentage distribution of energy released by different energy
components and
the total energy released (in kilocalorie) by combustion of one kilogram of that food
product.

It is also given that:

On dozen eggs = One kilogram

Half dozen banana = Half dozen apple = One kilogram

Q 141. 30265180 Energy released by combustion of glucose in one kilogram of product, is highest for
which of the following
products?
a) Sprout b) Egg c) Meat d) Fish
Q 142. 30265180 If the breakfast diet of a person consists of 250 gm of sprout, one banana and one
egg, then what is the total
energy (in kilocalorie) intake of the person?
a) 1450 b) 1200 c) 1080 d) 1180
Q 143. 30265180 For which of the following two products, energy released by combustion of protein
in one kilogram of the
product is the same?
a) Banana and Apple b) Sprout and Fish c) Egg and Meat d) Sprout and Apple
Q 144. 30265180 Energy released by the combustion of iron, in 100 gm each of meat and fish, is
approximately what percent
of the total energy released?
a) 12.86% b) 11.36% c) 10% d) 14.2%
Q 145. 30265180 Energy released by combustion of fat in one kilogram of product, is lowest for
which of the following products?
a) Sprout b) Egg c) Meat d) Fish
below.

Three pieces of wire of equal lengths are used to form three different shapes. One piece of wire is
bent in the form
of a circle having radius 42 cm. Another length of wire is bent and made into a
square. The third piece is bent to
form an equilateral triangle.
Q 146. 30265180 Find the absolute difference in the area of the square and the circle.
a) 1262 cm2 b) 1188 cm2 c) 1328 cm2 d) 1022 cm2
Q 147. 30265180 What is the area of the triangle so formed?
a)
b)
c)
d)
Q 148. 30265180 What is the total length of all the three wires?
a) 264 cm b) 792 cm c) 692 cm d) 882 cm
Q 149. 30265180 What is the length of the diagonal of a rectangle having length equal to the side of
the triangle and breadth
equal to the side of the square?
a) 110 cm b) 120 cm c) 111 cm d) 121 cm
Q 150. 30265180 What is the area of the circle formed by joining all the three wires without
overlapping?
a) 440506 cm2 b) 55594 cm2 c) 49896 cm2 d) 39424 cm2

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18/09/2022, 15:36 https://www.aspiration.link/LAW/sis/QuestionPaper.jsp?

Countdown Mock 08 (CLAT) 2023

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into the neighbouring countries.

a) Nationalism and rights of minorities

b) The responsibility of the Supreme Court to reduce gender discrimination

d) The condition of women in Pakistan and Bangladesh

Q 2. 30265180 According to the author what should be the primary goal of UCC?

a) National integration b) Uniformity of law

c) Reducing gender discrimination d) Uplifting women from minority communities

a) It established equality b) It removes gender discrimination

c) d) It creates nationalist sentiment

Q 4. 30265180 Which of the following is a synonym of 'acute'?

a) Brief b) Shrill c) Urgent d) Astute

Q 5. 30265180 What doesthe last paragraph of the passage imply?

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between the two "partners".

a) animosity b) perspicacity c) felicity d) dexterity

Q 7. 30265180 Which statement uses the word, 'envisage',correctly?

a) The freedom fighters of India envisaged a self-reliant nation.

b) She envisaged the bag into the car.

c) She put the letter in the envisage.

d) Peter envisaged the ship from the harbour.

Q 8. 30265180 What central concern does the author express in this passage?

a) The scrapping off the Planning Commission.

b) The views expressed by Nehru and Ambedkar.

d) The proliferation of 'revdi' culture.

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b) More free schemes are being announced by the states

c) There is a power imbalance between the states and the centre

a) The states are extensions of the centre

b) The states are subordinate to the centre

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a) b) To condemn the supporters of free speech

a) Perilous b) Unproblematic c) Non-existent d) Useful

a) Anxious b) Jubilant c) Angry d) Optimistic

Q 14. 30265180 According to the passage how is free speech misused in India?

a) It is not used at all b) It is used in anti-national activities

Q 15. 30265180 What is the synonym of 'libel'?

a) Rebel b) Liberate c) Defame d) Free

edition snobs were much commoner than lovers of

a) Cynical b) Happy c) Nostalgic d) Romantic

a) It shows that book-sellers are not interested in selling books

b) It shows that most readers are not avid readers

c) It shows that book-shops are meant only for students

d) It shows that book-shops have only old books

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a) Judgmental b) Loving c) Rude d) Nonchalant

a) Incorrect b) Unavailable c) Bed-ridden d) Weak

Q 20. 30265180 Choose a suitable title for the passage:-

a) b) The Love for Books c) d) The Bliss of Reading

a) Instrumental in grooming leadership qualities b) Useless in the present times.

c) A sheer wastage of one's resources d) Need to be banned

Q 22. 30265180 Which of the following cannot be inferred from the passage?

a) Meddling with the neocortex can be unfortunate.

b) The inability to listen others indicates lack of empathy of one's colleagues.

c) Building one's emotional intelligence cannot be completed overnight.

a) An autonomous system that governs feelings, impulses, and drives.

b) A system that governs feelings, impulses, and drives of a person.

Q 24. 30265180 Which of the following correctly describes the author's tone?

a) Contentious b) Aggressive c) Vitriolic d) Insightful

Q 25. 30265180 Which rhetorical device is used in the following sentence?

a) Metaphor b) Apostrophe c) Simile d) Synecdoche

Q 45. 30265180 Under Article _ and Article _of the Constitution, an MP or