Data Communications and Networking 3 

1. A network administrator discovers a visitor is trying to flood an AP with authentication

frames. After some interrogation the security department finds out he is from a
competitor company. The attack the visitor used is called jamming. 
a. True 
b. False 

2. A router that has at least one interface that is attached to a non-OSPF network is
called ASBR. 
a. True 
b. False 

3. A router with its interfaces attached to multiple areas is called ABR. 

a. True 
b. False 

4. Access Layer is a design model layer that provides connectivity for the
users.
a. True 
b. False 

5. An ASBR generates type 5 LSAs for each of its external routes and floods them into
the area that it is connected to. 
a. True 
b. False 
6. Core Layer is a design model layer that forwards traffic from/to different local
networks
a. True 
b. False 

7. In FHRP operation, two or more routers are represented as a single virtual

router
a. True 
b. False

8. In networking term, port density refers to the number of ports available on a single
switch.
a. True 
b. False 

9. In networking world, "Rack unit" is the term used to express the thickness or height of
a switch. 
a. True 
b. False 

10.In understanding of chapter 7 EIGRP uses the dual algorithm for finding shortest
path?
a. True 
b. False 

11. OSPF type 2 LSA messages are only generated by the DR router to advertise
routes in multiaccess networks. 
a. True 
b. False 
12. Which switchport mode puts the interface into permanent
nontrucking?
a. switchport mode trunk 
b. switchport mode access 

c. switchport mode dynamic desirable 

d. switchport mode dynamic automatically 

13. Which feature could be used in a network design to increase the bandwidth by
combing multiple physical links into a single logical link. 
a. trunk ports 
b. EtherChannel 
c. subinterfaces 
d. VLANS 

14. Which network design solution will best extend layer connectivity to host devices?
a. implementing EtherChannel 
b. implementing router protocol 
c. implementing wireless connectivity 
d. implementing redundancy 

15. Which type of router would an enterprise use to allow customers to access content
anytime and anyplace, regardless of whether they are at home or work?
a. branch routers 
b. network edge routers 
c. service provider routers 
d. modular routers 
16. Which type of VLAN is identified by a VLAN ID between 1006 and 4094 and not
contained in updates of switches participating in a VTP domain. 
a. extended 
b. pruned 
c. native 
d. transparent 

17. What is a characteristic of out-of-band device management? 

a. It requires a terminal emulation client.

b. Out-of-band device management requires direct connection to a network interface.
c. It requires Telnet, SSH, or HTTP to access a Cisco device 
d. It requires at least one network interface on the device to be connected and
operational 

18. Which sentence correctly describes the SVI inter-VLAN routing

method.
a. The encapsulation type must be configured on the SVI. 
b. A physical interface is needed for every VLAN that is created 
c. Subinterfaces have to be created 
d. an SVI is needed for each VLAN 

19. Which technology is required when switched networks are designed to include
redundance links?
a. virtual LANS 
b. link aggregation  
c. Spanning Tree Protocol 
d. virtual private network 
20. Which is the default STP operation mode on Cisco Catalyst
switches?
a. PVST+ 
b. Rapid PVST+ 
c. RSTP 
d. MST 
e. MSTP 

21. An administrator is troubleshooting a switch and wants to verify if it is a root bridge.

What command can be used to do this? 
a. show spanning-tree 
b. show running-config 
c. show startup-config 
d. show vlan 

22. Which STP port role is adopted by a switch port if there is not other port with a lower
cost to the root bridge? 
a. designated port 
b. disabled port 
c. alternate 
d. root port 

23. Which command will start the process to bundle two physical interfaces to create an
EtherChannel group via LACP? 
a. channel-group 2 mode auto 
b. channel-group 1 mode desirable 
c. interface range GigabitEthernet 0/4-5 
d. interface port-channel 2
24. When PVST is running over a switched network, which port state can participate in
BPDU frame forwarding based on BPDUs received, but does not forward data frames?
a. forwarding 
b. listening 
c. disabled 
d. blocking 

25. What value determines the root bridge when all switches connected by trunk links
have default STP configurations? 
a. bridge priority 
b. extended system ID 
c. MAC address 
d. VLAN ID 

26. Which EtherChannel is configured, which mode will force an interface into a port
channel without exchanging aggregation protocol packets? 
a. desirable 
b. on 
c. auto 
d. active 

27. Which range of ports is being configured for EtherChannel, which mode will
configure LACP on a port only if the port receives LACP packets from another device?
a. auto  
b. desirable 
c. active 
d. passive 
28. When EtherChannel is implemented, multiple physical interfaces are bundled into
which type of logical connection? 
a. VLAN interface 
b. loopback 
c. port channel
d. interface range 

29. Which PagP mode forces the interface to channel without Pagp? 
a. PagP auto 
b. On 
c. PagP desirable 

30. _________ are typically deployed in the core and distribution layers of an
organization’s switched network.  Multilayer switches