ICCT COLLEGES FOUNDATION

V.V. SolivenAve.II. Cainta, Rizal

Midterm Examination in Cisco02

Multiple Choice: choose the best answer on the following questions (2 points each)

1. Which statement describes the port speed LED on the Cisco Catalyst 2960 switch?
a. If the LED is green, the port is operating at 100 Mb/s.
b. If the LED is off, the port is not operating.
c. If the LED is blinking green, the port is operating at 10 Mb/s.
d. If the LED is amber, the port is operating at 1000 Mb/s.
2. What is a function of the switch boot loader?
a. to speed up the boot process
b. to provide security for the vulnerable state when the switch is booting
c. to control how much RAM is available to the switch during the boot process
d. to provide an environment to operate in when the switch operating system cannot be
found
3. In which situation would a technician use the show interfaces switch command?
a. to determine if remote access is enabled
b. when packets are being dropped from a particular directly attached host
c. when an end device can reach local devices, but not remote devices
d. to determine the MAC address of a directly attached network device on a particular
interface
4. If one end of an Ethernet connection is configured for full duplex and the other end of the
connection is configured for half duplex, where would late collisions be observed?
a. on both ends of the connection
b. on the full-duplex end of the connection
c. only on serial interfaces
d. on the half-duplex end of the connection
5. What is the effect of using the switchport port-security command?
a. enables port security on an interface
b. enables port security globally on the switch
c. automatically shuts an interface down if applied to a trunk port
d. detects the first MAC address in a frame that comes into a port and places that MAC
address in the MAC address table
6. Where are dynamically learned MAC addresses stored when sticky learning is enabled with
the switchport port-security mac-address sticky command?
a. ROM
b. RAM
c. NVRAM
d. Flash
7. Which action will bring an error-disabled switch port back to an operational state?
a. Remove and reconfigure port security on the interface.
 b. Issue the switchport mode access command on the interface.
c. Clear the MAC address table on the switch.
d. Issue the shutdown and then no shutdown interface commands.
8. What is one difference between using Telnet or SSH to connect to a network device for
management purposes?
a. Telnet uses UDP as the transport protocol whereas SSH uses TCP.
b. Telnet does not provide authentication whereas SSH provides authentication.
c. Telnet supports a host GUI whereas SSH only supports a host CLI.
d. Telnet sends a username and password in plain text, whereas SSH encrypts the username
and password.
9. Which type of VLAN is used to designate which traffic is untagged when crossing a trunk port?
a. data
b. default
c. native
d. management
10. When a Cisco switch receives untagged frames on a 802.1Q trunk port, which VLAN ID is the
traffic switched to by default?
a. unused VLAN ID
b. native VLAN ID
c. data VLAN ID
d. management VLAN ID
11. What happens to a port that is associated with VLAN 10 when the administrator deletes VLAN
10 from the switch?
a. The port becomes inactive.
b. The port goes back to the default VLAN.
c. The port automatically associates itself with the native VLAN.
d. The port creates the VLAN again.
12. A Cisco switch currently allows traffic tagged with VLANs 10 and 20 across trunk port Fa0/5.
What is the effect of issuing a switchport trunk allowed vlan 30 command on Fa0/5?
a. It allows VLANs 1 to 30 on Fa0/5.
b. It allows VLANs 10, 20, and 30 on Fa0/5.
c. It allows only VLAN 30 on Fa0/5.
d. It allows a native VLAN of 30 to be implemented on Fa0/5.
13. What is a characteristic of legacy inter-VLAN routing?
a. Only one VLAN can be used in the topology.
b. The router requires one Ethernet link for each VLAN.
c. The user VLAN must be the same ID number as the management VLAN.
d. Inter-VLAN routing must be performed on a switch instead of a router.
14. What is a disadvantage of using router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing?
a. does not support VLAN-tagged packets
b. requires the use of more physical interfaces than legacy inter-VLAN routing
c. does not scale well beyond 50 VLANs
d. requires the use of multiple router interfaces configured to operate as access links
15. What must the network administrator do to remove Fast Ethernet port fa0/1 from VLAN 2 and
assign it to VLAN 3?
a. Enter the no vlan 2 and the vlan 3 commands in global configuration mode.
b. Enter the switchport access vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode.
c. Enter the switchport trunk native vlan 3 command in interface configuration mode.
d. Enter the no shutdown command in interface configuration mode to return it to the
default configuration and then configure the port for VLAN 3.
16. A small college uses VLAN 10 for the classroom network and VLAN 20 for the office network.
What is needed to enable communication between these two VLANs while using legacy inter-
VLAN routing?
a. A router with at least two LAN interfaces should be used.
b. Two groups of switches are needed, each with ports that are configured for one VLAN.
c. A router with one VLAN interface is needed to connect to the SVI on a switch.
d. A switch with a port that is configured as trunk is needed to connect to a router.
17. When configuring a router as part of a router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing topology, where
should the IP address be assigned?
a. to the interface
b. to the subinterface
c. to the SVI
d. to the VLAN
18. A high school uses VLAN15 for the laboratory network and VLAN30 for the faculty network.
What is required to enable communication between these two VLANs while using the router-
on-a-stick approach?
a. A multilayer switch is needed.
b. A router with at least two LAN interfaces is needed.
c. Two groups of switches are needed, each with ports that are configured for one VLAN.
d. A switch with a port that is configured as a trunk is needed when connecting to the router.
19. Which address is required in the command syntax of a standard ACL?
a. source MAC address
b. destination MAC address
c. source IP address
d. destination IP address
20. If a router has two interfaces and is routing both IPv4 and IPv6 traffic, how many ACLs could
be created and applied to it?
a. 4
b. 6
c. 8
d. 12
21. On which router should the show access-lists command be executed?
a. on the router that routes the packet referenced in the ACL to the final destination
network
b. on the router that routes the packet referenced in the ACL from the source network
c. on any router through which the packet referenced in the ACL travels
d. on the router that has the ACL configured
 22. What is the quickest way to remove a single ACE from a named ACL?
a. Use the no keyword and the sequence number of the ACE to be removed.
b. Use the no access-list command to remove the entire ACL, then recreate it without the
ACE.
c. Copy the ACL into a text editor, remove the ACE, then copy the ACL back into the router.
d. Create a new ACL with a different number and apply the new ACL to the router interface.
23. An administrator has configured an access list on R1 to allow SSH administrative access from
host 172.16.1.100. Which command correctly applies the ACL?
a. R1(config-if)# ip access-group 1 in
b. R1(config-if)# ip access-group 1 out
c. R1(config-line)# access-class 1 in
d. R1(config-line)# access-class 1 out
24. Which type of router connection can be secured by the access-class command?
a. vty
b. console
c. serial
d. Ethernet
25. What is the effect of configuring an ACL with only ACEs that deny traffic?
a. The ACL will permit any traffic that is not specifically denied.
b. The ACL will block all traffic.
c. The ACL must be applied inbound only.
d. The ACL must be applied outbound only.

Prepared by:
Raymond A. Ramirez, MIT. (Cand)
Instructor