SỞ GIÁO DỤC – ĐÀO TẠO NAM ĐỊNH ĐỀ THI THỬ HỌC SINH GIỎI LẦN 1

TRƯỜNG THPT NGUYỄN KHUYẾN NĂM HỌC 2022 - 2023

Môn: TIẾNG ANH - Lớp: 11 THPT

Thời gian làm bài: 120 phút
(Đề thi gồm: 08 trang)
HỌ VÀ TÊN THÍ SINH: ………………………………………………..……
SỐ BÁO DANH: ……………………………………

Chữ ký giám thị: SỐ PHÁCH:

Chú ý: Thí sinh làm bài ngay vào đề thi này

Điểm Chữ ký giám khảo: SỐ PHÁCH:

Chú ý: Thí sinh làm bài vào đề thi này

PART A. LISTENING (4.0 points)

Hướng dẫn làm phần thi nghe hiểu:
- Bài nghe gồm 20 câu, thí sinh được nghe 2 lần, đĩa CD tự chạy 2 lần.
- Mở đầu và kết thúc bài nghe có tín hiệu nhạc, hướng dẫn chi tiết đã có trong bài nghe.

SECTION 1:
Questions 1 - 10.
Complete the notes below. Write no more than TWO WORDS and/ or A NUMBER
Cycling holiday in Australia
Example Answer
Most suitable holiday lasts (0) ………… 10 …..……
Holiday begins on (1) ………………………
No more than (2) ……………………… people in cycling group
Each day, group cycles (3) ……………………… on average
Some of the hotels have a (4) ………………………
Holiday costs (5) ……………………… per person without flights
All food included except (6) ………………………
Essential to bring a (7) ………………………
Discount possible on equipment at www (8) ……………………… com
Possible that the (9) ……………………… may change
Guided tour of a (10) ……………………… is arranged
SECTION 2:
Questions 11 - 14. Choose the correct letter A, B or C.
11. The Market is now situated …….
A. under a car park B. beside the cathedral C. near the river
12. On only one day a week, the market sells …….
A. antique furniture B. local produce C. hand-made items
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13. The area is well-known for …….
A. ice cream B. a cake C. a fish dish
14. What change has taken place in the harbour area …….
A. Fish can now be bought from the fishermen
B. The restaurants have moved to a different part
C. There are fewer restaurants than there used to be

Questions 15 - 20. Which advantage is mentioned for each of the following restaurants?
Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-H, next to questions 15-20.

Advantages
15. Merrivales A. The decoration
…D…… B. Easy parking
16. The Lobster Pot C. Entertainment
… H …… D. Excellent service
17. Elliots E. Good value
…F…… F. Good views
18. The Cabin G. Quiet location
… G …… H. Wide menue
19. The Olive Tree
……C…
20. The Old School Restaurant

PART B. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (6.0 points)

I. Circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other
three in each of the following questions.
Question 1: A. laughs B. ploughs C. mouths D. clothes
Question 2: A. course B. courtesy C. resource D. force

II. Circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position
of primary stress in each of the following questions.
Question 3: A. focus B. injure C. offer D. provide
Question 4: A. argument B. conference C. condition D. secretary

III. Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 5: The number of students in school A increased significantly in the last 5 years. Likewise, that
in school B experienced a substantial rise.
A. Adversely B. Conversely C. Comparably D. Similarly
Question 6: The enemy can attack us at any minute, so stay sharp or they will take us by surprise!
A. intense B. alert C. rapid D. precise

IV. Circle the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning
to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 7: The Beatles were a phenomenon – nobody had heard anything like them before.
A. success B. wonder C. disastrous D. failure
Question 8: Jenny really broke the mould with her latest education initiative and several schools have
since adopted her method.
A. did something innovative B. acted differently
C. made rapid progress D. did in a normal way

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V. Circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the option that best completes each of the following
exchanges.

Question 9: March: “Excuse me, where could I find the Rich Tea Biscuits?”
- The store attendant: “______”
A. Sorry, it’s in stock at the moment. B. How would you like to pay?
C. It’s been discontinued, I’m afraid. D. You can manage yourself, thank you!
Question 10: Ron: “I haven’t seen you for ages. How are you doing?”
- Neville: “______”
A. Well, I’m working as an engineer now. B. Never better! How are you?
C. A little bit off the weather. D. Every cloud has a silver lining.

VI. Circle the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the
following questions.
Question 11: The audience watching (A)the rock concert obviously do not satisfy (B) with (C) the way the
band played (D).
Question 12: Exploration of the Solar System is continuing (A), and at the present (B) rate of progress all
the planets will have been contacted within (C) the near (D) 50 years.

VII. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Question 13: It’s believed that _________ car is one of the main factors causing a lot of damage to our
environment.
A. a B. the C. an D. 0
Question 14: The school is proud of its wide range of _________ activities
A. antisocial B. tertiary C. hyperactive D. extracurricular
Question 15: Everyone has to hand in their assignments by noon but in the case of Sam, I'll_________an
exception.
A. set B. take C. have D. make
Question 16: A lot of people have ignored the warning of air pollution _________ health problems.
A. seriously causing B. is seriously causing C. seriously caused D. is seriously caused
Question 17: It turned out that we_________rushed to the airport as the plane was delayed by several hours.
A. hadn't B. should have C. needn't have D. mustn't
Question 18. If you are _________, you are capable of doing or deciding by yourself, rather than depending
on other people for help.
A. well-informed              B.  determined C.  self-reliant                   D.  reliable
Question 19: _________when we moved in, not September.
A. It wasn't June B. Wasn't June C. It was June D. When it was June
Question 20: He received a pat on the _________ from his boss from the new project that he had done.
A. back B. hand C. hair D. mind

VIII. Fill in the blank with ONLY ONE WORD.

Question 21: Because farmers had been informed about the bad effects of chemical fertilisers, they started
using them                                    on their farms.
Question 22. She studied for a                                    in engineering in a famous university.
Question 23: Children should be taught to be                                    for all of their behaviours and actions.
Question 24. Vietnam always desires to work with its partners on the basis of the                                   of
respect for independence, equality and mutual benefit.
Question 25: Sometimes, in order to get things done, we have to                                  the initiative.

IX. Give the correct form of the words in brackets to complete the sentences.
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Question 26. Studies have shown that our                                  of antibacterial ingredients has helped to
create new resistant bacteria. (USE)
Question 27. We will need new technologies to generate energy and use it in clean and safe ways, only from
fully                                 sources. (NEW)
Question 28. Many patients think                                  . They are never in the fear of death (OPTIMIST)
Question 29: Most doctors are                                  after they learn general medicine. (SPECIAL)
Question 30: This matter is very                                 . Don’t discuss it outside the office. (CONFIDENCE)

PART C - READING (5.0 points)

I. Read the following passage and circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to
each of the blanks. (2.0 points)
All relationships go through difficult times. In the past, when married couples had problems they usually
didn’t (1) _________. They had to either (2) _________ with each other or continue to live together in an
unhappy relationship. Getting divorced wasn’t an option for most people due to economic and social reasons.
Some people believe that this wasn’t such a bad thing. They say that relationships require hard work and (3)
_________. “If a relationship is going to last a lifetime, you have to keep working at it,” says Doreen, who is
celebrating her fiftieth wedding anniversary this year. “It isn’t all roses and romance. (4) _________perfect all of
the time. These days young people give up when there’s the (5)_________argument.” Experts agree that
communication is key. The most important thing is to (6) _________ talking. How many times have you heard
yourself say to (7) _________, “If only you’d listen!” or “I wish you (8)_________do that!” The truth is, the (9)
_________ couples talk, the better their relationship (10) _________ be.
Question 1: A. grow up B. split up C. chat up D. make up
Question 2: A. get on B. go on C. get back D. fall out
Question 3: A. agreement B. argument C. achivement D. commitment
Question 4: A. no one B. someone C. anyone D. everyone
Question 5: A. smallest B. slightest C. most violent D. most
Question 6: A. raise B. control C. stop D. keep
Question 7: A. anybody B. everyone C. somebody D. nobody
Question 8: A. wouldn’t B. couldn’t C. shouldn’t D. didn’t
Question 9: A. more B. fewer C. less D. least
Question 10: A. would B. could C. will D. can

II. Read the following passage and circle the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each
of the questions. (2.0 points)
The history of clinical nutrition, or the study of the relationship between health and how the body takes
in and utilizes food substances, can be divided into four distinct eras: the first began in the nineteenth
century and extended into the early twentieth century when it was recognized for the first time that food
contained constituents that were essential for human function and that different foods provided different
amounts of these essential agents. Near the end of this era, research studies demonstrated that rapid weight
loss was associated with nitrogen imbalance and could only be rectified by providing adequate dietary
protein associated with certain foods.
The second era was initiated in the early decades of the twentieth century and might be called "the
vitamin period." Vitamins came to be recognized in foods, and deficiency syndromes were described. As
vitamins became recognized as essential food constituents necessary for health, it became tempting to
suggest that every disease and condition for which there had been no previous effective treatment might be
responsive to vitamin therapy. At that point in time, medical schools started to become more interested in
having their curricula integrate nutritional concepts into the basic sciences. Much of the focus of this
education was on the recognition of deficiency symptoms. Herein lay the beginning of what ultimately
turned from ignorance to denial of the value of nutritional therapies in medicine. Reckless claims were
made for effects of vitamins that went far beyond what could actually be achieved from the use of them.
In the third era of nutritional history in the early 1950's to mid-1960's, vitamin therapy began to fall into
disrepute. Concomitant with this, nutrition education in medical schools also became less popular. It was
just a decade before this that many drug companies had found their vitamin sales skyrocketing and were
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quick to supply practicing physicians with generous samples of vitamins and literature extolling the virtue
of supplementation for a variety of health-related conditions. Expectations as to the success of vitamins in
disease control were exaggerated. As is known in retrospect, vitamin and mineral therapies are much less
effective when applied to health-crisis conditions than when applied to long-term problems of under
nutrition that lead to chronic health problems.
Question 1: What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. The stages of development of clinical nutrition as a field of study
B. The history of food preferences from the nineteenth century to the present
C. The effects of vitamins on the human body
D. Nutritional practices of the nineteenth century
Question 2: It can bo Inferred from the passage that which of the following discoveries was made during
the first era In the history of nutrition?
A. Certain foods wore found to be harmful to good health.
B. Vitamins were synthesized from foods.
C. Effective techniques of weight loss were determined.
D. Protein was recognized as an essential component of diet. thichtienganh.com
Question 3: The word "tempting" is closest in meaning to.
A. realistic B. necessary C. correct D.attractive
Question 4: it can be inferred from the passage that medical schools began to teach concepts of nutrition in
order to
A. encourage medical doctors to apply concepts of nutrition in the treatment of disease
B. support the creation of artificial vitamins
C. convince doctors to conduct experimental vitamin therapies on their patients
D. convince medical doctors to participate in research studies on nutrition
Question 5: The word "Reckless" is closest in meaning to?
A. recorded B. irresponsible C. informative D. urgent
Question 6: The word "them" refers to
A. effects B. vitamins C. claims D. therapies
Question 7: Why did vitamin therapy begin losing favor in the 1950's?
A. Medical schools stopped teaching nutritional concepts
B. Nutritional research was of poor quality
C. The public lost interest in vitamins
D. Claims for the effectiveness of vitamin therapy were seen to be exaggerated.
Question 8: The phrase "concomitant with" is closest in meaning to
A. in dispute with B. prior to C. in regard to D. in conjunction with
Question 9: The word "skyrocketing" is closest in meaning to
A. internationally popular B. increasing rapidly C. surprising D. acceptable
Question 10: The paragraph following the passage most probably discusses
A. Why nutrition education lost its appeal B. Problems associated with under - nutrition.
C. The fourth era of nutrition history D. How drug companies became successful

III. Choose the most suitable heading from the box for each paragraph below. There is ONE EXTRA
heading that you DO NOT need to use. Write the correct letter (A- G) next to each paragraph (2-6)
(1.0 point).

Example: Paragraph 1. B List of Headings

A The process of physical development
Paragraph 2. B Dealing with food
Paragraph 3. C Benificial activities
Paragraph 4. D Form of exertion
Paragraph 5. E Expecting a baby
Paragraph 6. F Energy as a key to life
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 G Reserves of fat
ENERGY REQUIREMENTS
As human being, we depend on energy in many ways.
1. … B ………………………………………
Eating requires energy for the ingestion and digestion of what we put in our mouths, and for the
absorption, transport, interconverstion, oxidation and deposition of nutrients. These metabolic processes
increase heat production and oxygen consumption, and are known by term such as dietary-induced
thermogenesis, specific dynamic action of food and thermic effect of feeding. The metabolic response to
nutrition increases total energy expenditure by about 10 per cent of the basal metabolic rate (BMR) over a
24-hour period in individual eating a mixed diet.
2. …………………………………………
This is the most variable and, after BMR, the second largest component of daily energy expenditure.
Humans perform obligatory and discretionary physical activities. Obligatory activities can seldom be
avoided within a given setting, and they are imposed on the individual by economic, cultural and societal
demands. The term “obligatory” is more comprehensive than the term “occupational” that was used in the
1985 report (WHO, 1985) because, in addition to occupational work, obligatory activities include daily
activities such as going to school, tending to the home and family and other demands made on children and
adults by their economic, social and cultural environment.
3. …………………………………………
Discretionary activities, although not socially or economically essential, are important for health, well-
being and a good quality of life in general. They include the regular practice of physical activity for fitness
and health; the performance of optional household tasks that may contribute to family comfort and well-
being; and the engagement in individually and socially desirable activities for personal enjoyment, social
interaction and community development.
4. …………………………………………
The energy cost of growth has two components: 1) the energy needed to synthesize growing tissues; and
2) the energy deposited in those tissues. The energy cost of growth is about 35 per cent of total energy
requirement during the first three months of age, falls rapidly to about 5 per cent at 12 months and about 3
per cent in the second year, remains at 1 to 2 per cent until mid-adolescence, and is negligible in the late
teens.
5. …………………………………………
During pregnancy, extra energy is needed for the growth of the foetus, placenta and various maternal
tissues, such as in the uterus, breasts and fat stores, as well as for changes in maternal metabolism and the
increase in maternal effort at rest and during physical activity.
6. …………………………………………
The energy cost of lactation has two components: 1) the energy content of this food for the baby; and 2)
the energy required in its production. Well-nourished lactating women can derive part of this additional
requirement from body fat stores accumulated during pregnancy.

PART D - WRITING (5.0 points)

I. Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it has the same meaning as the first
sentence, using the cues as the beginning of each sentence. (1.6 points)
1. You feel tired now because you didn't sleep very well last night.
→ Had............................................... .................................................. ..............
2. Their wedding will be held in a lovely church.
→ The church............................................ .................................................. ......
3. They couldn't find the manager anywhere .
→ The manager was............................................... .................................................. .........
4. His memory gradually failed as he grew old.
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→ The older ............................................... .................................................. ..............
5. The teacher advised him to study hard when the exam came nearer.
→ The teacher suggested ............................................... .............................................
6. Sue is too slow to understand what you might say.
→ So slow ............................................... .................................................. .................
7. We’ve decided to leave early tomorrow morning.
→ We are ............................................... .................................................. ...................
8. The Prime Minister didn’t intend to resign office.
→ The Prime Minister had ............................................... .............................................

II. Complete the second sentence so that it has a similar meaning to the first sentence, using the word
given. Do not change the word given. You must use between four and six words, including the word
given. (1.4 points)
1. They opened the window because they didn’t want the smoke to go in the kitchen. (SO THAT)
→ They opened the window ……………………………..………… go in the kitchen.
2. Jonah had obviously made an effort to put on smart clothes for the occasion. (UP)
→ Jonah had obviously made an effort ……………………………..………… for the occasion
3. We have sold many cars this month. (DEMAND)
→ There has been ……………………………..………… this month.
4. Come on Thursday or Friday. It’s all the same to me. (DIFFERENCE)
→ Come on Thursday or Friday. ……………………………..………… to me
5. I’d made up my mind, but at the last minute I lost my confidence. (FEET)
→ I’d made up my mind, but at the last minute ……………………………..………….
6. I find Harold’s behaviour quite incomprehensible. (LOSS)
→ I am ……………………………..………… Harold’s behaviour.
7. There is no point in your phoning Caroline – she’s away. (TIME)
→ It is ……………………………..………… Caroline – she’s away.

III. Write an essay. (2.0 points)

Nowadays, many students have part time jobs while they are at colleges, universities or even high
schools. Do you think this is a good idea?
You should write an essay from 200 to 220 words, using specific reasons and details to support your
opinion.

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