Telegram-@Material - Theka: Countdown Mock 03 (CLAT) 2023 English Language

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Countdown Mock 03 (CLAT) 2023
English Language
Directions: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
Passage – 1

With a huge unorganized sector to the tune of 90% of the work force and a 'youth dividend', that is the
predominance of the age group 15-59 years expected to culminate around the year 2030 (Niti Ayog,

Employment (Vision), 2020), the employment scenario in India invites serious deliberation by the

policy makers. Unorganized sector is made largely of home-based smaller family or community

business without any social security benefits, with meagre incomes and quality of life, marked by
limited access to institutional facilities and other amenities. The fast-growing workforce in India is
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additionally constrained by limited skilling and the quality of training deemed unfit for absorption in
skill-based industries.

Though approximately 7 million persons enter the labour force annually, the number of jobs created
has been inadequate. Since 1990-91, the new economic reforms were expected to gradually reduce

the dependence on agriculture and create more opportunities in other sectors. But unlike the transition

in the Asian economies, in which the manufacturing sector has played a bigger role was to switch

from low-productivity jobs to high-productivity jobs, in India, the role of the services sector in adding

jobs has been greater and due to several factors. The services sector has contributed 55.3% to India's

GVA in 2019-20 (Economic Survey, 2019-20). The female participation in the labour workforce has

declined, especially in rural areas. There is a need to focus on the labourintensive industries and skill

the workforce with right investments in the sector. In the last few years, tourism sector has been

adding significantly to the Indian economy. Globally, 44 countries depend on the Tourism industry for

over 15% of their total share of employment. In India, Tourism contributed 8% of the total employment
and nearly 6.8% to the GDP of India. 1 in 4 net new jobs in India came [1] Travel and Tourism over the

last five years. But the idea of adding or sourcing employment opportunities through the Tourism

industry has not received the required priority here as much as in many other countries with similar

potential. India is known for its varied diversity from natural resources to cultures and religions,

languages, foods, festivals, practices, arts and dances, musical traditions, crafts and skills across rural

and urban regions as well as its demographic dividend. Tourism being as a freestanding service that

thrives on experiences, the richness of traditions, heritage and their packaging and services can bring

competitive advantages. Depending on the stage of development of destinations and using varied

approaches, employment creation can be sourced by constructing newer demands in tourism

products, experiences and services in multiple ways, with lesser investment and with the available

semi-skilled workforce.
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Q 1. In the light of the passage, it can be inferred that:
a) The unorganized sector is predominantly dominated by people from the rural areas.
b) The unorganized sector is not financially rewarding.
c) Unorganized sectors all over the world are characterized by low wages.
d) The semi-skilled workforce in India is often exploited by employers.
Q 2. The author of the passage would most likely agree with which of the following
statements:
a) The tourism sector has the potential to generate employment opportunities.
b) The tourism sector can generate employment opportunities more than any other sector.
c) Jobs in the travel and tourism sector have increased exponentially over the past few years.
d) Mostly Asian countries depend on the tourism sector.
Q 3. As per the passage, why is the tourism potential of India huge?
a) Because of India's transport facilities.
b) Because Indian art and dance forms are considered to be the best in the world.
c) Because India has myriad cultures.
d) Because of the amiable political climate.
Q 4. Out of the following options, which one is a challenge faced by the workforce?
a) Lack of trade unions b) c) d) Lack of information

Lack of professionalism Lack of adequate skill
Q 5. Out of the following options, which one can appropriately fill the blank space marked
by [1]?
a) Of b) Off c) At d) From

Passage – 2

The Indian movie industry (including the regional language movie industries) produces more movies
than Hollywood
with around 1,500 of them arriving at the movie halls every year in the national
language of Hindi and various
regional languages. Being home to the second largest population in the
world, it also has one of the highest
footfalls in theatres. However, the Indian motion picture industry is
worth only $2 bn. in ticket sales. Furthermore,
unlike Hollywood that generates around 70% of its
revenues from global sales, Indian movies earn close to three
quarters of their revenue from the
domestic box office. The overseas revenue comes mainly from the Indian
diaspora in countries like
the US, the UK, the GCC countries, South East Asia, Australasia, continental Europe,
and some
pockets of North Africa. Since the turn of the decade, China has also emerged as an important market
for Hindi movies with dubbed/ subtitled films like Dangal and Secret Superstar collecting more than
$100 mn. at
the Chinese box office. Overall, Hindi movies account for around 20% of the films
produced and 43% of the box
office revenue generated by Indian films. Remaining numbers are made
up by the regional language films and
international (mainly Hollywood) releases. The overseas
revenue is also shared between Hindi movies and regional
language movies. Despite having a
population with strong emotional connect to movies and movie stars, the
movie industry in India lags
behind similar industries in other countries like US, China and Japan. The biggest
problem is the lack
of exhibition infrastructure. India has one of the smallest penetration of movie screens in the
world
with 6 screens per million people compared to 23 per million in China and 126 per million in US.
Exhibition,
especially in Tier 2 and Tier 3 cities is mainly restricted to single screen theatres that often
fail to offer a good movie
viewing experience to the patrons. This in turn reduces the overall capacity
yields and revenues per seat. Another
obstacle faced by Indian movies is the high level of
regionalization and linguistic polarization. Due to this disintegrated
nature, the average profits
generated by even the successful movies are on the lower side. Furthermore, the
industry faces a
complicated tax regime with taxes being levied by central, state and local governments. The
production budgets are also inflated by actors' remuneration, which at 40% of the budget is one of the
highest in
the world. Moreover, the lenient attitude towards movie piracy and the absence of stringent
enforcement
mechanisms for the protection of intellectual property reduce the ability of a movie to
maximize its revenue streams.
Finally, strict censorship norms hinder the producers' ability to take
their movies to a wider audience. Hence, it
becomes important for a Bollywood producer to
understand the major determinants of a movie's success at the
ticket window to improve the chances
of recouping his investment.
a) It is impossible to end movie piracy.
b) Piracy is a major problem in the film industry.

c) Piracy in the Indian film industry has ended.
d) Movie piracy has increased after the advent of OTT platforms.
Q 7. The author of the passage would most likely agree with which of the following
statements?
a) Single screen theatres are mostly found in big cities.
b) Single screen theatres are no longer frequented by people.
c) Movie viewers have become very conscious about the quality of films that are released in India.
d) The movie watching experience in a single screen theatre is not satisfactory.
Q 8. What is the author's perception regarding the taxation system imposed on the film
industry?
a) The film industry in India is taxed at multiple levels.
b) The film industry has suffered a lot after GST was levied.
c) The film industry in India promotes certain stereotypical character roles.
d) The film industry in India is often tarnished by nepotism and corruption.
Q 9. In the light of the passage, it can be understood that:
a) Stern censorship parameters have increased in the present day context.
b)
Stern censorship parameters have often resulted in the disruption of the screening of some quality
films.
c) Stern censorship parameters can prove to be a source of worry for the producer.
d) Stern censorship parameters often annoy the viewers of cinema.
Q 10. Out of the following options, which one is a synonym of the word 'stringent' as used
in the passage?
a) Extrapolating b) Exacting c) Extracting
d) Excruciating
Passage – 3
Human beings cannot live in isolation. But with the new and updated inventions and technologies, it is
seen
that unconsciously modern humans are proceeding towards isolation. Our society which used to
be
egalitarian is now becoming egocentric slowly and here will start the violation of other's rights.
These
violations may result in loss of property, life, peace, etc. Every human being should be aware of
his or her
basic rights. Education is universally considered as one of the powerful instruments to
inculcate human
rights values. In the English language, the term 'right' has two meanings: one is
moral and the other is
political. In the moral sense, 'right' is what is right to do from a moral
perspective and the 'right' is the right from the
legal perspective. The term 'human rights' is held by all
human beings irrespective of their caste, color,
language, creed, sex, religion, etc. Human rights are
universal. Human rights are earned by every human
being by birth. It is equal for everyone. Education
is an important instrument to promote and help to treat allhuman
beings with equal respect and
justice. National Educational Policy of India (1986) highlighted and
suggested different ways to
achieve equality with the help of the education system also recommends
redesigning the curriculum in
such a way which will help in removing the gender biasness and bringing
change in the status of the
women. National Council of Teacher Education (NCTE) developed the
Teacher Education Curriculum
in such a way so that the teachers themselves should first understand the
values of justice, equality
and secularism"-NPE (1986)The Constitution of India was drafted in 1949 which
came into force from
26thJanuary, 1950. It consists of 395 articles. It ensures social, economic and political
justice; equality
of status and opportunity; liberty of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship; unity and
integrity of
the nation among all the citizens of India.

Among all the agencies of bringing awareness among the masses about human rights, education is
the most powerful instrument in bringing the required social change and spreading the awareness
among the people. Education plays an important role in making children aware of human rights in a
more
effective way. On the occasion of Human Rights Day on 10th of December 2004, Mr. Koichiro
Matsuura, the
Director-General of UNESCO, defines "Human Rights Education is all about acquiring
not only knowledge but
also skills and the ability to apply them; it is about developing values, attitudes
and behavior that uphold
human rights but also about taking action to defend and promote them. It
involves about human rights through
the practice of human rights". The more people will know about
their own rights and the more they respect
others rights, the chances will be better for the human
beings to live together peacefully. When everyone
will be educated about human rights only then we
can prevent human rights violations and conflicts among
the people.
a) Human rights are parochial. b) Human rights are predisposed.
c) Human rights are partisan.
Q 12.
d) Human rights are comprehensive.
In the light of the passage, the author of the passage would most likely agree with
which of the following
statements?
a) Education can ensure a stable and formidable pedagogy in schools.
b) Education can improve civic amenities in the state.
c) Education can bring changes in the society.
d) Education can enlighten voters.
Q 13. As per the passage, the UNESCO believes:
a) Human rights violations cannot be stopped.
b) Human rights education fosters human rights.
c) Human rights should be promoted by the developed nations in the West.
d) Human rights should be conditional and not universal.
Q 14. As per the passage, the Constitution of India guarantees:
a) Equal opportunity. b) Right to university education.
c) Right to buy property. d) Right to access safe drinking water.
Q 15. Out of the following options, which one is true about human rights violation?
a) Racial attacks constitute the most heinous of human rights violation.
b) Human rights violations are often ignored by law enforcement agencies.

c) Human rights violation can result in loss of lives.
d) Human rights violations happen the most in the continents of Asia and Africa.

Passage – 4

Kudumbasree was born on May 17, 1998 in the state of Kerala with the objective of alleviating poverty
through
women empowerment. In the first phase, the goal is to change the three conditions for
women's
empowerment -economic empowerment, social empowerment and self-empowerment.
Kudumbasree, the
Kerala State Poverty Eradication Mission, was formed as a result of the
decentralization process of
'Janakiyasutranam', a people's participatory development model launched
in Kerala in 1996. Kudumbasree
has a three tier governance system to ensure better participation -
Neighborhood Groups (NHGs), Area
Development Societies(ADS) and Community Development
Societies(CDS), and all these are functioning
within the jurisdiction of each local bodies in Kerala. As
Kudumbasree enters its silver jubilee, there are
currently 302552 NHGs, 19854 ADSs and 1070 CDSs
in the state. At present the number of members in
Kudumbasree are 45,85,677. Starting as single
family membership, Kudumbasree reaches out to multiple
family members through "auxiliary" groups.

Social development requires the upliftment of women in all walks of life. The empowerment of women
is an
essential factor for the sustainable growth of the society. Women have been dominated by men
since
ancient times. Although Kerala was culturally superior, women were always behind men. None
of the
servicesof women were glorified. In many families female life was like slavery and in public
society women were
always behind. But Kudumbasree, a women's empowerment organization, has
given women social and
economic equality. For the empowerment , it is very essential that For the
empowerment ofwomen, it was
necessary to transform them into social beings and lead them to the
forefront of society. Economic and social
anarchy existed among women in Kerala centuries ago.
Kerala is a land of baffling contradictions. There was a
social system in which all the burdens of
society were concentrated only on women and they were
marginalised and kept within the household.
There was universal freedom for men and social exclusion for
women in general. To resolve this
problem, various schemes have been planned under the leadership of
various State Governments in
Kerala since the 1980s. Although various schemes were initiated as part of
various government and
non-government level discussions and concept formulations, Kudumbasree
announced in1997-98
was successful.

Kudumbasree is an innovative poverty alleviation and women empowerment program initiated by the
State
Government of Kerala. In Kerala, the launch of poverty alleviation programs through women
empowerment as
part of the decentralisation process in 1996 was discussed. The recommendation
for the event was made by
a three-member committee appointed by the state government to explore
such innovative ways. The
Government approved the recommendation of this Committee, which
included poverty alleviation for women's
empowerment. As a result, the Kudumbasree scheme was
announced in the 1997-98 state budget as part

of the State Poverty Mission. Among the programs in
Kerala for the above purposes, kudumbasree takes
many attempts to understand the social setup of
women in Kerala and also how it can be solved in nature and
scope and gave its contribution to
women's welfare and the financial empowerment of them . The
women's group "kudumbasree" took
the lead in nurturing them as a social force that gained social support. Through
Kudumbasree, several
schemes for women empowerment and poverty alleviation have been implemented in
Kerala.
a) Kudumbasree champions the cause of safe sanitation.
b) Kudumbasree highlights the challenges faced by the government education system in Kerala.
c) Kudumbasree could never become a successful project.
d) Kudumbasree champions the cause of women.
Q 17. What is the author's perception about women's life in Kerala?
a) Women lived an unsatisfactory life in Kerala. b) Women lived a satisfactory life in Kerala.
c) Women lived a life of liberation in Kerala. d) Female feticide is a problem in Kerala.
Q 18.
statements?
The author of the passage would most likely agree with which of the following
a) b)
Women in Kerala were socially recognized since Women in Kerala were hardly given freedom to
a long time. move around.
c) d) Women in Kerala were married early.
Women in Kerala have always enjoyed freedom.
Q 19. The passage describes Kudumbasree as a project that:
a) aims at protecting Malayali culture. b) aims at mitigating women empowerment.
c) aims at mitigating poverty. d) aims at promoting child literacy.
Q 20. Out of the following options, which one appropriately captures the central idea of the
passage?
a) Socialist schemes in Kerala b) Women empowerment and its effects
c) Gender disparity in Kerala d)

An analysis of the Kudumbasree scheme in
Kerala

Passage – 5

That singular smoky sparkle, at once a confusion and a transparency, which is the strange secret of
the Thames,
was changing more and more from its grey to its glittering extreme as the sun climbed to
the zenith over Westminster,
and two men crossed Westminster Bridge. One man was very tall and
the other very short; they might even have
been fantastically compared to the arrogant clock-tower of
Parliament and the humbler humped shoulders of the
Abbey, for the short man was in clerical dress.
The official description of the tall man was M. Hercule Flambeau,
private detective, and he was going
to his new offices in a new pile of flats facing the Abbey entrance. The official
description of the short
man was the Reverend J. Brown, coming to see the new offices of his friend. The building was
American in its sky-scraping altitude, and American also in the oiled elaboration of its machinery of
telephones
and lifts. But it was barely finished and still understaffed; only three tenants had moved in;
the office just above
Flambeau was occupied, as also was the office just below him; the two floors
above that and the three floors
below were entirely bare. But the first glance at the new tower of flats
caught something much more arresting.
Save for a few relics of scaffolding, the one glaring object
was erected outside the office just above Flambeau's. It
was an enormous gilt effigy of the human
eye, surrounded with rays of gold.

"What on earth is that?" asked Father Brown. "Oh, a new religion," said Flambeau, laughing; "one of
those new
religions that forgive your sins by saying you never had any. Rather like Christian Science,
I should think. The fact
is that a fellow calling himself Kalon has taken the flat just above me. He calls
himself the New Priest of Apollo, and
he worships the sun."

"Let him look out," said Father Brown. "The sun was the cruellest of all the gods. But what does that
monstrous
eye mean?""As I understand it, it is a theory of theirs, that a man can endure anything if his
mind is quite steady.
Their two great symbols are the sun and the open eye; for they say that if a man
were really healthy he could stare
at the sun."

"If a man were really healthy, he would not bother to stare at it."

"Well, that's all I can tell you about the new religion," went on Flambeau carelessly. "It claims, of
course, that it can
cure all physical diseases."

"Can it cure the one spiritual disease?"

"And what is the one spiritual disease?"

"Oh, thinking one is quite well.

Q 21. Which of the following cannot be inferred from the passage above?
a) The river was very patchy. It was clear in few areas, whereas dirty in other
b) The priest was not welcoming of the idea of the new religion
c) The new religion had a tough and rigid outlook
d) The area of Flambeau's offices was getting developed
Q 22. What is the author meaning by the term "American"?
a)
The author is using the word as a noun, which is indicating that the building and its properties were
owned by some American entity.
b) The author is using the word as an adjective, which is indicating that the building was very tall.
c)
The author is using the word as a noun, which is indicating that the machineries were brought in from
America.
d) The author is using the word as an adjective, which is indicating very nifty, voguish and lofty.
Q 23. Which of the following expressions is being expressed by the word "rather"?
a) It is indicating Flambeau's preference in a particular matter

b) It is indicating the expression "to a certain or significant extent or degree".
c) It is being used to suggest that the opposite of the previous statement is the case.
d) It is being used to express emphatic affirmation, agreement, or acceptance.
Q 24. Go through the following options and figure out which figure of speech is being used
in them. Choose the
option where the figure of speech used has not been used in the passage.
a) My friend foolishly forgot to take the first photo in France.

b) Joe's new ride was expensive.
c) The Brave Little Toaster
d) She wasn't unhappy with her new car.
Q 25. Which of the following can be inferred about the priest's thinking?
a)
No person can claim to be in the pink at all times and it is a fallacy to even think of this to be possible.
b) He is not much bothered or even in the know about pre-Christianity religions.
c) The priest was actually concerned about Kalon fearing his well-being.
d) He was perturbed with Flambeau for knowing so much about the new religion.

Passage – 6

Aeschylus was only the first of the great classic Greek dramatists. The generation that followed
brought several
other talented and powerful tragic playwrights. The most famous of these were
Sophocles and Euripides. Both
writers did much to expand the traditionally simple expectations of
characters in the play. Sophocles' play feature
incredibly strong-willed, modern characters who
struggle with serious moral concerns, and Euripides wrote some
of the most chilling psychological
dramas of classical Greece.

The comic theatre also had its hero. A generation younger than Sophocles and Euripides, the comic
playwright
Aristophanes is today regarded as the best of the classic comic playwrights. His sometimes
absurd and sometimes
elegant plays demonstrate great skill in mixing comedy with honest and
sincere ideas. Aristophanes' play certainly
contains many wild and vulgar jokes, yet they also discuss
serious concerns of his time, such as politics, art and
education. This literary revolution in the early
part of the fifth century was not limited to the stage. The world of
philosophy also experienced an
awakening. Skills such as oration, logic and rhetoric were polished, and the study
of mathematics and
the sciences was encouraged. Philosophers such as Socrates became famous for wandering
about
the city of Athens, engaging students and scholars in lively academic debates about morality and
politics.
Socrates' most famous pupil, Plato, wrote several books and dialogues in which he explains
the philosophy and
thoughts of his teacher and goes on to develop the idea further. His work, which
deals with a wide range of
theoretical concerns, such as politics.

Another very well-known philosopher of the time was Aristotle. Aristotle was, in his turn, a pupil of
Plato's, and is
best known for his numerous texts dealing with natural science. Instead in almost every
conceivable topic, Aristotle
left behind texts detailing his thoughts and questions on physics and
astronomy, as well as meteorology, sleep
patterns, raising animals and numerous other subjects. The
age of classic Greece drew to a close with the end of
the fourth century BC. Yet through its literature,
classical Greece still has an enormous effect on modern Western
thought and traditions. Almost all
western literature, from histories to romance novels, from thrillers to poetry, is
rooted in classical
Greek traditions. Many of the themes present in those ancient plays and poems are still popular
in
modern literature. And even those plays that deal with uniquely modern themes still owe much in the
way of
technique and style to the golden age of Greece.
Q 26. How did Euripides contribute to the development of tragic theatre?

i. He wrote chilling stories about strong-willed modern characters.

ii. He expanded the expectations of characters in plays.

iii. He wrote very disturbing plays.
a) Only i and ii b) Only ii c) Both ii and iii d) Only i
Q 27. Which of the following best describes the plays written by Aristophanes?

i. Funny and light-hearted, yet without purpose.

ii. Serious and intellectual, discussing culinary ideas of the day.

iii. Humorous while still putting across serious ideas.
a) Only i b) Only ii c) Only iii d) Both ii and iii
Q 28. Which of the following best describes the subjects that Aristotle wrote about?

a) Wildlife b) Water conservation

c) Magic d) All kinds of natural sciences and more

Q 29. According to the author, the hero of comic theatre is:

a) Aristophanes b) Aristotle c) Euripides d) Sophocles

Q 30. The most suitable title for the passage would be:

a) Literature of the Greeks b) Modern Theatre and Greek inspirations

c) The Great Greek Philosophers d) An Insight into the Theatre World

Current Affairs Including General Knowledge
Passage – 1

Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi participated in the first I2U2 Summit, along with Prime Minister of
Israel, [1]; President of the UAE, Sheikh Mohamed bin Zayed Al Nahyan and President of the USA,

Joseph R. Biden. The first Leaders' Summit of I2U2 was held virtually on the 14th of July 2022. The

I2U2 Grouping was conceptualised during the Foreign Ministers' meeting of the four countries, held on

the 18th of October 2021.

The I2U2 was conceived to encourage joint investments in six mutually identified areas such as water,
energy, health, transportation, space and food security. As reported by the MEA, "this unique grouping

of countries aims to harness the vibrancy of our societies and entrepreneurial spirit to tackle some of

the greatest challenges confronting our world, with a particular focus on joint investments and new

initiatives in water, energy, transportation, space, health, and food security."

All the respective leaders reaffirmed their support for the Abraham Accords and other peace
agreements. They welcomed the economic opportunities including the development of economic

cooperation in the Middle East and South Asia, and in particular for the advancement of sustainable

investment amongst the I2U2 partner countries.

Q 31. Who is the current Prime Minister of Israel whose name has been redacted with [1]

in the passage above?
a) Benjamin Netanyahu b) Isaac Herzog c) Naftali Bennett d) Yair Lapid

Q 32. Which of the following countries is not involved in the Abraham Accords?

a) Israel b) USA c) UAE d) Saudi Arabia

Q 33. The Abraham accords are named after Abraham to emphasize the shared origin of
belief between
___________and Islam, both of which are Abrahamic religions that strictly espouse
the monotheistic worship
of the God of Abraham.
a) Arabs b) Judaism c) Christians d) Parsis
Q 34. During the first I2U2 Summit, the United Arab Emirates (UAE) announced to invest
____________ billion in
India to develop Food Parks across the country.
a) USD 1 billion b) USD 2 billion c) USD 5 billion d) USD 10 billion
Q 35. During the first I2U2 Summit, the Grouping declared to support a "hybrid renewable
energy project"
in____________, consisting of 300 megawatts (MW) of wind and solar capacity.
a) Gujarat b) Rajasthan c) Andhra Pradesh d) Kerala
Passage – 2

The Central Consumer Protection authority (CCPA) under the Department of Consumer Affairs has
notified
'Guidelines for Prevention of Misleading Advertisements and Endorsements for Misleading
Advertisements, 2022'
with an objective to curb misleading advertisements and protect the
consumers, who may be exploited or affected
by such advertisements.

The guidelines seek to ensure that consumers are not being fooled with unsubstantiated claims,
exaggerated
promises, misinformation and false claims. Such advertisements violates various rights
of consumers such as
right to be informed, right to choose and right to be safeguarded against
potentially unsafe products and services.

The CCPA has been established under section 10 of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 for regulating
matters
relating to violation of the rights of the consumers, unfair trade practices and false or
misleading advertisements
which are prejudicial to the interests of public and consumers and to
promote, protect and enforce the rights of
consumers as a class.

In exercise of the powers conferred by section 18 of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, to CCPA, the
Guidelines
were notified Misleading advertisement has already been defined under section 2(28) of
the Consumer Protection
Act, 2019. The present guidelines define "bait advertisement", "surrogate
advertisement" and clearly provides
what constitutes as "free claim advertisements".
Q 36. The Central Consumer Protection authority (CCPA) is a____________.
a) Regulatory body b) Statutory body c) Constitutional body d) Executive body
Q 37. The Central Consumer Protection authority (CCPA) works under the administrative
control of
the_______________.
a) Ministry of Corporate Affairs b) Ministry of Cooperation
c) d) Ministry of Finance

Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public
Distribution
Q 38. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Central Consumer
Protection Authority?
a) To promote, protect and enforce the rights of consumers as a class.
b) To conduct investigations into violation of consumer rights and institute complaints/prosecution.
c)
To order the recall of unsafe goods and services, discontinuation of unfair trade practices and
misleading
advertisements.
d) All of the above
Q 39. As per the latest rules of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, National Commission
shall have jurisdiction to
entertain complaints where value of the goods or services paid as
consideration exceeds ___________
crore rupees.
a) 2 crore
Q 40.
b) 5 crore c) 8 crore
The Consumer Protection Act, 2019, also provides consumers the option of filing
d) 10 crore
complaints electronically.
To facilitate consumers in filing their complaint online, the Central
Government has set up the______________.
a) YUKTI Portal b) SWAYATT Portal c) E-Daakhil Portal d) SPARC Portal
Passage – 3

Sri Lanka's Parliament has chosen the six-time prime minister, [1], as the country's new president,
with the task of
leading the island nation through a period of unprecedented tumult. [1], who defeated
two other candidates, replaces
the discredited former president, Gotabaya Rajapaksa, who fled the
country after months of protests that have
unified the nation over the government's failures that led to
a collapse of Sri Lanka's economy. Yet, while this could
be a moment for the country to begin anew,
there is also the risk of an out-of-touch political class misreading the public mood - a mistake that
would propel Sri Lanka deeper into crisis and further away from any solution to its
economic woes. [1]
informed fellow members of Parliament that it was now time to heal the divisions. In reality, [1]
remains deeply unpopular on the Sri Lankan street, where he is seen as an ally of the Rajapaksas for
helping them
keep the government afloat. His appointment as president smacks of traditional political
deal-making rather than
reflecting on the sentiments of the surging ground-up democratic activism.
[1]'s party was wiped out in the 2020
polls, when he lost his own election. He has been chosen
president by Parliament - not by the people.
Q 41. Sri Lanka's Parliament has chosen [1] as the President of Sri Lanka on 21 July
2022, what is the name of the
President whose name has been redacted with [1] in the passage
above?
a) Mahinda Rajapaksa b) c) Maithripala Sirisena d)

Ranil Wickremesinghe Ratnasiri
Wickremanayake
Q 42. Who has been sworn in as the Prime Minister of Sri Lanka on 22 July 2022?
a) M. Jayaratne b) c) d)

Dinesh Gunawardena Chandrika Kumaratunga Dingiri Banda Wijetunga
Q 43. Sri Lanka is separated from the Indian subcontinent by the___________.
a) Gulf of Mannar b) Palk Strait c) Arabian Sea d) Both a and b
Q 44. The currency of Sri Lanka is_____________.
a) Sri Lankan Dollar b) Sri Lankan Rupee c) Sri Lankan Ruble d)
Sri Lankan Renimbini
Q 45. Which of the following is/are the reasons for the current crisis in Sri Lanka?
a)
The Easter bomb blasts of April 2019 in churches in Colombo resulting in 253 casualties,
consequently,
dropped the number of tourists sharply leading to a decline in foreign exchange
reserves.
b)
In 2021, all fertilizer imports were completely banned and it was declared that Sri Lanka would
become
a 100% organic farming nation overnight.
c)
The newly led government by Gotabaya Rajapaksa in 2019 promised lower tax rates and wide-
ranging
SoPs for farmers during their campaign.
d) All of the above
Passage – 4

The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) has sought another six-months to frame the rules of the
Citizenship (Amendment)
Act, 2019 (CAA), a legislation to fast-track the citizenship process of six
non-Muslim undocumented communities
from Pakistan, [1] and Afghanistan.

The Ministry has written to the subordinate committee on parliamentary legislation of both the Lok
Sabha and the
Rajya Sabha. Without the rules being framed, the Act cannot be implemented. The last
three-month extension
was sought on January 9 on the grounds that the construction of the rules
require more consultation and the delay
is on account of COVID-19 pandemic. A senior government
official confirmed that the request for an extension till
October 9 has been sent to the parliamentary
committee. This is the fifth extension sought by the government.
CAA has provision to grant citizenship to members of six minority communities from Pakistan,
Afghanistan and [1]
who entered India before December 31, 2014. The Ministry had earlier said that
the entire process will be online. It
exempts the members of the six communities from any criminal
case under Foreigners Act, 1946 and Passport
Act, 1920. The two Acts specify punishment for
entering the country illegally and staying here on expired visas and
permits.
Q 46. The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) has sought another six-months to frame the
rules of the Citizenship
(Amendment) Act, 2019 (CAA). CAA has provision to grant citizenship to
members of six minority communities
from Pakistan, Afghanistan and [1] who entered India before
December 31, 2014. Which of the following
countries has been redacted with [1] in the passage
above?
a) Myanmar b) Nepal c) Bangladesh d) Sri Lank
Q 47. Recently, the Supreme Court of India indicated that a religious or linguistic
community which is a minority in
a particular State can inherently claim protection and the right to
administer and run its own educational
institutions under Articles _______ and _______ of the
Constitution.
a) Articles 25 and 26 of the Constitution b) Articles 25 and 27 of the Constitution
c) Articles 26 and 28 of the Constitution d) Articles 29 and 30 of the Constitution
Q 48. Under the Article 350B of the Indian Constitution, there shall be a Special Officer for
linguistic minorities to be
appointed by the____________.
a) President of India b) Prime Minister of India
c) National Commission for Minorities d) Union Minister for Minorities
Q 49. The Union Government set up the National Commission for Minorities (NCM) under
the National Commission
for Minorities Act, 1992. Original notification of 1993 was for five religious
communities, later in 2014,
__________community was also added.
a) Jains b) Sikhs c) Buddhists d) Zoroastrians
Q 50. In December 2019, the Parliament passed the Citizenship (Amendment) Bill 2019
which received the
President's assent to become an Act. The Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019
seeks to amend
the________________.
a) Citizenship Act, 1950 b) c) Citizenship Act, 1955 d)

Citizenship Act, 1952 Citizenship Act, 1960
Passage – 5

National Strategy on Blockchain has been formulated by [1], Government of India with the vision to
create trusted
digital platforms through shared Blockchain infrastructure; promoting research and
development, innovation,
technology and application development; and facilitating state of the art,
transparent, secure and trusted digital
service delivery to citizens and businesses.

This strategy document lays out overall vision towards development and implementation strategies for
a [2] Platform
covering the technology stack, legal and regulatory framework, standards development,
collaboration, human
resource development and potential use cases. It is envisaged that this strategy
document would provide the
necessary guidance and support for realizing the vision and creating a
nationwide ecosystem for creating the [2]
Platform and development of relevant applications using this
platform in various domains.

The Minister also launched India's first indigenous Server [3] developed by Centre for Development of
Advanced
Computing (C-DAC) under National Supercomputing Mission (NSM) supported by MeiTY
and DST. This is a step
in direction towards achieving the goals of attaining self-reliance in
Supercomputing moving towards Government
of India National initiative of AatmanirbharBharat.

[3] Server, an outcome of NSM Phase-3 deliverable which aims at Design and Manufacturing of
Supercomputers
in India, is Secure, Reliable, Dual Socket based on current generation of Intel Xcon
scalable processor technology
and supports accelerated computing.
Q 51. National Strategy on Blockchain has been formulated by [1], which of the following
has been redacted with
[1] in the passage above?
a) Ministry of Science & Technology b)

Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology
c) Ministry of Information & Technology d) Ministry of Finance
Q 52. What is the name of the platform redacted with [2] in the passage above?
a) Cryptocurrency Blockchain Platform b) National Blockchain Platform
c) Bharat Blockchain Platform d) Indian Blockchain Platform
Q 53. What is the name of the India's first indigenous server '[3]' developed by Centre for
Development of Advanced
Computing (C-DAC) which has been redacted with [3] in the passage
above?
a) VIKRAM b) VIRAT c) RUDRA d) DURGA
Q 54. Blockchain is an innovative distributed ledger technology that was first introduced in
the design and
development of cryptocurrency 'Bitcoin' in 2009 by____________.
a) Satoshi Nakamoto b) Satish Chndra c) Michel Marsh d) Adam Back
Q 55. With reference to "Blockchain Technology", which of the following statements is/are
correct?
a) It is a public ledger that everyone can inspect, but which no single user controls.
b)
The structure and design of the blockchain is such that all the data in it are about cryptocurrency only.
c)
Applications that depend on basic features of blockchain can be developed without anybody's
permission.
d) Both a and c statements are correct
Passage – 6

Amid China's aggressive push to increase its Pacific sphere of influence, the US and its allies -
Australia, New
Zealand, Japan and the [1] - have launched a new initiative called '[2]' for "effective
and efficient cooperation" with
the region's small island nations.

The geostrategic competition in the region has intensified of late after China made the projected
scope of its
growing footprint clear by pushing for a sweeping, common cooperation agreement with
10 Pacific nations.

The [2] is a five-nation "informal mechanism" to support Pacific islands and to boost diplomatic,
economic ties in
the region. Announced on June 24, it speaks of enhancing "prosperity, resilience,
and security" in the Pacific
through closer cooperation. It simply means that through the PBP, these
counties - together and individually - will
direct more resources here to counter China's aggressive
outreach.

In a joint statement released to announce the initiative, the five member nations said that the forum
remains open
to cooperating with additional partners, adding that "at every stage, we will be led and
guided by the Pacific Islands.
We will seek Pacific guidance on the [2]'s selection of its lines of effort
and its flagship projects". The areas where
[2] aims to enhance cooperation include "climate crisis,
connectivity and transportation, maritime security and
protection, health, prosperity, and education".
Q 56. Which of the following countries has been redacted with [1] in the passage above?
a) Russia b) France c) United Kingdom d) India
Q 57. What is the name of the initiative launched by the US and its allies which has been
redacted with [2] in the
passage above?
a) b) c) d)

Partners in the Red Partners in the Blue Partners in the Green Partners in the White
Pacific Pacific Pacific Pacific
Q 58. The Pacific Islands Forum is the region's premier political and economic policy
organization. It was founded
in_____________.
a) 1951 b) 1961 c) 1971 d) 1981
Q 59. Before launching the [2], the __________and its partners started the Indo-Pacific
Economic Framework for
Prosperity (IPEF), a trade-boosting play in the region with 13 nations.
a) USA b) India c) Japan d) Australia
Q 60. Blue Economy concept was introduced by____________.
a) Gunter Pauli b) Stephen Paul c) Walter Munk d) Robert Ballard
Passage – 7

This year marks the fiftieth anniversary of the Simla Agreement which was expected to put the stamp
of legitimacy
on the post-Bangladesh arrangement in South Asia and hopefully inaugurate a new era
of cordial relations between
India and Pakistan. Unfortunately, despite the high hopes pinned in India
on it, the accord, signed on [1], did not live
up to its initial promise.

India had three major objectives at Shimla. First, it desired a lasting solution to the Jammu and
Kashmir issue or,
failing that, an agreement that would clearly declare it to be a bilateral issue, thus
constraining Pakistan from
involving third parties in discussions about the future of J&K.

Second, it hoped that the Agreement would allow for a new beginning in relations with Pakistan based
upon the
latter's acceptance of the clearly demonstrated post-Bangladesh balance of power in South
Asia that hugely
favoured India. Third, New Delhi wished to achieve both these objectives without
pushing Pakistan to the wall and
thereby encouraging the emergence of a military dominated
revanchist anti-India regime.
Q 61. Which of the following years has been redacted with [1] in the passage above?
a) May 2, 1972 b) June 2, 1972 c) July 2, 1972 d) March 2, 1972
Q 62. Who was the Prime Minister of India when Simla Agreement signed between India
and Pakistan?
a) Rajiv Gandhi b) Morarji Desai c) VP Singh d) Indira Gandhi
Q 63. Who among the following was the founding Father of Bangladesh?
a) Syed Nazrul Islam b) Tajuddin Ahmad c) d)

Sheikh Mujibur Rahma Muhammad Mansur Ali
Q 64. Which of the following treaties of India played an important role in the 1971
Bangladesh Liberation War?
a) The Indo-American Treaty of Peace, Friendship and Cooperation
b) The Indo-Soviet Treaty of Peace, Friendship and Cooperation
c) The Indo-Britain Treaty of Peace, Friendship and Cooperation

d) The Indo-France Treaty of Peace, Friendship and Cooperation

Q 65. The Pakistani Instrument of Surrender was a written agreement between India,

Pakistan, and the Provisional Government of Bangladesh that enabled the capitulation of
____________West Pakistani troops of the Armed Forces Eastern Command on 16 December 1971,
thereby ending the Bangladesh Liberation War and the Indo-Pakistani War of 1971 with the formal
establishment of the People's Republic of Bangladesh in erstwhile East Pakistan.
a) b) c) d)

43,000 Pakistani troops 53,000 Pakistani troops 73,000 Pakistani troops 93,000 Pakistani troops
Legal Aptitude
Directions for questions 66 to 105: You have been given some passages followed by questions
based on each passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from

the passage. Only the information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and

no external knowledge of law howsoever prominent is to be applied.

Passage – 1

The law relating to res ipsa loquitur is replete with conflict, confusion and doubt. There is division of
opinion as to the circumstances required for its application and still greater disagreement as to the

effect to be given. Does it merely lay the basis for a permissible inference of negligence by the jury or

does it raise a presumption of negligence, and if and where it raises a presumption, what weight is to

be given to it? It is not clear that where it is treated as a presumption, the court will direct a verdict for

the plaintiff in the absence of rebuttal evidence by the defendant, nor is it at all clear what quantity of

evidence will be required to prevent a directed verdict or how far the presumption survives the refusal

to direct a verdict for the plaintiff, that is, what effect the jury shall give it. Then, too, there is much

confusion with respect to the effect of pleading special acts of negligence.

The orthodox statement of res ipsa loquitur makes three requirements for its application. First, there
must be an injury caused by the operation of an appliance or instrumentality in the exclusive

possession and control of the defendant. Second, the appliance must have been such as ordinarily

would not produce injury unless carelessly constructed, inspected or used. Third, the injury must have

occurred without voluntary action on the part of the plaintiff. The basis of the presumption and that

which justifies the casting of the burden of proceeding with the production of evidence on the

defendant is said to be the fact that the evidence of the cause of the injury, whether culpable or

innocent, is ordinarily more accessible to the defendant than it is to the plaintiff

The first requirement, namely, that the injury for which the plaintiff seeks recovery must have arisen
from an
instrumentality in the exclusive possession and control of the defendant is uniformly made. A
res ipsa loquitur case
is frequently found where objects fall from places in possession of the
defendant and strike and injure the plaintiff.
It finds frequent application in the cases of injuries to
passengers resulting from collisions between cars belonging
to the same company. It has been
applied in more doubtful cases of collision between the car of the defendant in
which the plaintiff was
a passenger and a car not under the control and management of the defendant. It has been
applied
where a surgeon knocks out a tooth in removing tonsils' or where he left a needle" or a bandage-' in
the
patient's body. The doctrine is not invoked where there is divided responsibility or where the
accident is due in part
to the acts of a third party over whom the defendant had no control, or where
the injuring agency is under the
control and management of the plaintiff.' The mere fact that a third
person, an intermeddler in no way connected
with the defendant, tampered with the thing or made it
defective or dangerous does not defeat the application of the
rule.
Q 66. D was a post graduate medical student. Once he was asked to conduct an
operation. D successfully
completed the operation. Later it was discovered that D had left one of the
operation equipment inside the
patient's stomach. Will the principle of res ipsa loquitur apply in the
given case?
a) No, the doctrine of vicarious liability applies and the incharge doctor shall be held liable.
b) The principle of res ipsa loquitur shall apply to the given case.
c)
The requirements of res ipsa loquitur shall not be applicable in the given case as the required
conditions
are not met.
d) This is a case of medical negligence and the principle of res ipsa loquitur shall not apply.
Q 67. C really loved gardening and had made a wonderful garden out of pots on the 2nd
floor of her apartment. The
balcony where gardening was done faced towards the private property of
C. Once, one D was lurking inside
C's private property and a pot fell over his head and injured him. In
the given case, will the principle of Res
ipsa loquitur apply?
a)
The principle of res ipsa loquitur will not apply as the required conditions have not been met in the
given
case.
b) nullThe principle of res ipsa loquitur will apply as all the required conditions have been met.
c) The principle can apply to the decision of D.

d) The given case does not deal with the principle of res ipsa loquitur.
Q 68. Which of the following is not essential for the principle of res ipsa loquitur to be
applied?
a)
The injury for which the plaintiff seeks recovery must have arisen from an instrumentality in the
exclusive
possession and control of the defendant.
b)
The instrumentality should be of dangerous nature or should be capable of committing injury or harm
under normal circumstances.
c)
The appliance must have been such that ordinarilyit would not produce injury unless carelessly
constructed,
inspected or used.
d) The injury must have occurred without voluntary action on the part of the plaintiff.
Q 69. In which of the following places res ipsa loquitur cannot be applied?
a) When an object falls on a bypasser from a height.

b) Injuries to passengers resulting from collision between cars belonging to the same company.
c)
Collision between the car of the defendant in which the plaintiff was a passenger and a car not under
the
control and management of the defendant.
d) Defendant willfully entered a F1 race as a spectator.
Q 70. Which of the following statements is false in the light of the passage?
a)
The first requirement, namely, that the injury for which the plaintiff seeks recovery must have arisen
from
an instrumentality in the exclusive possession and control of the defendant.
b) The law relating to res ipsa loquitur is replete with conflict, confusion and doubt
c) There is much confusion with respect to the effect of pleading special acts of negligence.
d)
The doctrine is sometimes invoked where there is divided responsibility or where the accident is due
in
part to the acts of a third party.
based on each
passage. You are required to choose the most appropriate option which follows from
the passage. Only the
information given in the passage should be used for choosing the answer and
no external knowledge of law
howsoever prominent is to be applied.

Passage – 2

In order to shorten delay in disposal of cases, it is necessary that provisions parallel to section 80
CPC be
introduced for all kinds of civil suits and cases proposed to be filed by a litigant. The Supreme
Court has held in

Bihari Chowdhary v. State of Bihar that the object underlying section 80 CPC is to
ensure that before a suit is
instituted against the Government or a public officer, the Government or
the officer concerned is afforded an
opportunity to scrutinize the claim in respect of which the suit is
proposed to be filed and if it be found to be a just
claim, to take immediate action and thereby avoid
unnecessary litigation and save public time and money by
settling the claim without driving the
person, who has issued the notice, to institute the suit involving considerable
expenditure and delay.

At present, a litigant proposing to sue the State or a public officer has to give two months' notice in
writing and in
case of emergency can file the case with the permission of the Court. A similar provision
can be introduced for all
the other matters. When a person has to file a civil case, he can be required
to give two months' notice to the
affected party. Before he presents his case in the Court, he must
serve a copy of the plaint on the affected party
through registered post or recognized courier service
and should file an affidavit along with his plaint stating the
fact of service of notice along with a copy of
the plaint.

Similarly, when a litigant files any writ petition in a High Court or the Supreme Court he should be
required to give
at least four weeks' notice and also to serve a copy of the petition through registered
post or recognized courier
service on the opposite party. In such cases, when the notice and a copy of
the petition is served, he shall not be
required to take fresh steps again through the Court except for
the information of the date of hearing that may be
fixed by the Court. If this is done, the Court will get
the occasion to hear all the parties and will be able to decide the
case at the admission stage itself
except where the Court directs the parties to lead evidence. Moreover, the
presence of both the
parties will eliminate frivolous litigation.

Further, at present, against orders of acquittal passed by Magistrates (where the offence is cognizable
and nonbailable)
or by Sessions Courts, appeal in cases filed on police reports can be filed only at the
instance of the
District Magistrate or the State Government, as the case may be, vide sub-section (1)
of section 378 of Crpc. In
such matters, the aggrieved person or the informant cannot himself file an
appeal. However, he can prefer a
revision. If the revisional Court finds that the accused has been
wrongly acquitted, it cannot convict him in view of
sub-section (3) of section 401, but it has to remand
the case. It is a cumbersome process and involves wastage
of money and time. This provision also
needs a change and, in such matters, also, where the District Magistrate
or the State does not direct
the Public Prosecutor to prefer appeal against an order of acquittal, the aggrieved
person or the
informant should have the right to prefer appeal, though with the leave of the Appellate Court
Q 71. D had approached the district magistrate filing a case against B for sexually
assaulting his daughter. The
charges filed against B were non bailable and cognizable. However, the
district magistrate found C not guilty
for the said offense and acquitted him. Now D wants to file an
appeal in the high court. Decide.
a)
D can file an appeal in the high court under article 136 of the constitution, whichis a special leave
petition.
b) D cannot file an appeal but can approach for revision of the judgement.
c) D, himself cannot file an appeal or a revision according to section 378(1) of Crpc.
d) D can file an appeal only in the high court and cannot approach the supreme court for the same.
Q 72. B wants to file a complaint with the city municipality office. Which of the following is
the correct procedure for
filing the petition?
a) B should give a 2-month notice period and serve a plaint to the affected party and file an affidavit.
b) B should give a 1-month notice period and serve a plaint to the affected party and file an affidavit.
c) B can approach the court and seek permission from the court for an emergency hearing.
d)
B need to file a 2-month notice period and serve a plaint to the affected party and file an affidavit to
the
court and a copy to the plaintiff.
Q 73.
to be followed by A?
A want to file a writ petition in the high court. Which of the following procedures has
a)
A should give at least four weeks' notice and also serve a copy of the petition through registered post
or
recognized courier service to the opposite party.
b)
A should give a maximum of four weeks' notice and should serve a copy of the petition through
registered
post only to the opposite party.
c)
A should give a maximum of four weeks' notice and should serve a copy of the petitionthrough a
recognized
courier only to the opposite party.
d)
A should give 4 weeks' notice and the opposite party should collect the copy of the petition from the
said
court.
Q 74. Which of the following statements is correct in the light of the above given passage?
a)
When the notice and a copy of the petition is served for writ petition, the petitioner shall not be
required to
take fresh steps again through the Court.
b)
At present, a litigant proposing to sue the State or a public officer has to give two months' notice in
emergency situations.
c)
In order to shorten the delay in disposal of cases, it is necessary that provisions parallel to section 81
CPC be introduced for all kinds of civil suits.
d) If the revisional court finds that the accused has been wrongly acquitted, it can convict him.
Q 75. What did the court hold in the case of Bihari Chowdhary v. State of Bihar?
a) The object underlying section 80 of the code of civil procedure 1908 was explained.
b) The procedure of filing for a revision by an aggrieved party in case of nonbailable offense.
c)
The application of a writ petition can be taken up immediately in certain circumstances as the court
deemed it to be fit.
d)
The court explained the jurisprudence of application and maintenance of writ petitions in the supreme
court of India.
based on each

Passage – 3

The recent Supreme Court judgment Shayara Bano v. Union of India outlawing the practice of triple
talaq has taken
a first step towards ending personal law practices that are discriminatory towards
women but largely on the
premise that triple talaq is also not an essential practice of Islam suggesting
that bad in theology cannot be good
in law. The court has not delved into the supremacy of
fundamental rights in case of a conflict between the
personal law and fundamental rights and the
premise of Narasu Appa Mali has not been overturned.

Since battle lines are so firmly drawn on the issue of family law, it is fruitful to engage with complex
issues while
also keeping in view the limitations of law. While the commission is in a position to
suggest amendments to
various laws, many of the issues raised before the Commission were those of
implementation and not the language
of law itself.
The relatively easier procedure of divorce under Islamic law for men and women is also reflected in
the relatively
open attitudes towards remarriage of divorced and widowed women, a right that most
Hindu women achieved
through legislation. However, once the legislation was in place, Hindu law
evolved through a series of piecemeal
legislative interventions on recognition of women as
coparceners in 2005, recognition of diverse customs within
the Hindu Marriage Act (Madras
Amendment) 1967 incorporating priest-less marriages among many others.
Amendments to Christian
marriage and divorce laws in 2001, and Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act,1956 and
Guardians
and Wards Act, 1890, in 2010 are also examples of how once codified, personal laws can be opened
up
for further public debate and scrutiny. Thus, history shows that amendments to codify personal
laws is not only a
tried and tested way of bringing targeted social legislation but also of developing
jurisprudence on family laws.

Adultery remains a ground for divorce under various family law Acts. Under Christian law before the
2001 amendment
in the Divorce Act, 1869, for a woman to seek a decree of divorce on grounds of
adultery was insufficient until she
also included cruelty as a ground for divorce. However, in 2001 this
was amended and both men and women were
given the right to seek divorce on grounds of adultery
alone. Further, it also did away with the provision of
compensation for adultery finally acting on the
recommendations of the Law Commission of India 15th report, Law
relating to Marriage and Divorce
amongst Christians in India, (1960). This provision reduced women to chattels,
as adultery was
something that could be compensated for almost as a compensation or damages to property.

Under Muslim law adultery is not recognised as a ground for divorce unless it is committed with
women of evil
repute or leads an infamous life, which is included under cruelty. Later the Dissolution
of Muslim Marriage Act,
1939, also requires amendment to explicitly include adultery as a ground for
divorce for both spouses. Bigamy is
dealt with separately later in this chapter.

Q 76. Felix and Rosa had married in accordance with the Christian law in 2005. In the year
2007, Rosa got to know
Felix was having an extra-marital affair. She approached the court for divorce
on the ground of adultery. The
court seeks Rosa to show cruelty in order to give divorce for adultery.
Decide.
a) Rosa needs to show that her husband has committed cruelty along with adultery to seek divorce.
b)
Rosa need not show cruelty has been committed and commission of adultery is a good enough
ground
for divorce.
c) Adultery has been decriminalized and hence Rosa shall not be able to procure divorce.
d) None of the above.
Q 77. What are the examples of how once codified, personal laws can be opened up for
further public debates and
scrutiny?
a) The strict Muslim law accepting adultery as a ground for divorce.
b) Various legislations that brought a number of changes in personal laws.
c)
The personal laws accept the introduction of various rigid laws within their fold and manifest them to
their
community.
d) Personal laws being sidelined in an attempt to bring up a uniform civil code.
Q 78. According to the passage, whatdoes history show in case of dealing with personal
laws?
a) History shows that modifications to personal laws will lead to chaos and revolts.
b)
History has time and again shown that preserving personal laws go a long way in safeguarding
cultural
diversity in India.
c)
History has shown us that amendments to codify personal laws is not only a tried and tested way of
bringing targeted social legislation but also of developing jurisprudence on family laws.
d) History has considered personal laws as the root of strong family law jurisprudence in the country.
Q 79. Which of the following statements is false in the light of the passage?
a)
The 2001 amendment also did away with the provision of compensation for adultery finally acting on
the
recommendations of the Law Commission of India 15th report.
b)
Since battle lines are so firmly drawn on the issue of family law, it is fruitful to engage with complex
issues while also keeping in view the limitations of law.
c)
The Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939, also requires amendment to explicitly include adultery
as
a ground for divorce for both spouses
d)
The recent Supreme Court judgment, Shayara Bano v. Union of India upheld the practice of triple
talaq.
Q 80. What did the court not do in the case of Shayara Bano v. Union of India?
a) The court did not entertain the plea for Love Jihad in the case of Shayaro Bano.
b) The court did not accept the challenge of Muta Marriage in the case of Shayaro Bano.
c) The court did not overturn the Narasu Appa Mali premise on personal law.
based on each

Passage – 4

A tort suit enables the victim of a wrong to seek a remedy from the person who injured her. Unlike a
criminal case,
which is initiated and managed by the state, a tort suit is prosecuted by the victim or the
victim's estate (or
survivors). Moreover, a successful tort suit results in a judgment of liability, rather
than a sentence of punishment.
Such a judgment normally requires the defendant to compensate the
plaintiff financially. In principle, an award of
compensatory damages shifts all of the plaintiff's legally
cognizable costs to the defendant. On rare occasions, a
plaintiff may also be awarded punitive
damages, which go beyond what it necessary for compensation. In other
cases, a plaintiff may obtain
an injunction: a court order preventing the defendant from injuring her or from invading
her rights
(perhaps harmlessly). An example of the former would be awarding a plaintiff (or a class of plaintiffs)
an
injunction against a polluting manufacturer. An example of the latter would be awarding a plaintiff
an injunction
against a harmless trespass.

"Tort" means "wrong" and it is natural to think that wrongs are the domain of tort law. But tort law does
not concern
itself with all the wrongs that people do. Some wrongs are addressed by the criminal law,
not private law (some
are addressed by both). And not every wrong that falls within the province of
private law falls within tort law. A
breach of contract, for example, is not traditionally regarded as a tort.
More generally, tort law does not provide a
remedy for every wrong that a victim might suffer. Rather,
tort law offers relief for a canonical set of wrongs, or
torts. These include assault, battery, defamation,
and trespass, among many others.

Rather than focusing on categories of torts, it is more fruitful to begin by conceptualizing torts in terms
of the
elements that a plaintiff must prove in order to obtain a remedy. For example, a defendant
commits battery if she
acts, intending to cause harmful or offensive contact with the plaintiff, and such
contact in fact results from her act.
If a plaintiff meets the burden of establishing these elements, then
he or she has established a prima facie case for
battery. A defendant who commits a battery so
defined might nevertheless escape liability by asserting a defense.
For example, a defendant in a
battery action might avoid liability by showing that she acted in self-defense or that
the plaintiff
consented to the otherwise unlawful touching.

Many think of battery and trespass as the paradigmatic private wrongs and thus as paradigmatic torts.
Conceiving
of torts in terms of the paradigmatic case invites the thought that tort law proceeds by
identifying wrongs that share
some important normative characteristics with either trespass or battery-
for example, that a tort involves an
intention to disregard certain protected rights of others; and
perhaps that the fundamental rights protected by torts
are those pertaining to the security of person
and property. It also invites the thought that the aim or purpose of tort
law is to redress those wrongs.
In such a view, the core concepts of tort law appear to be "rights", "wrongs" and
"redress" and the
dual goals of tort theory are to identify the principle that connects the category of wrongs that
torts
addresses and to justify the distinctive mode(s) of redress for wrongs that tort law adopts. We will
explore
this approach to tort law in some detail in what follows.
Q 81. What can the court award the defendant in a successful tort suit?
a)
The court can award the defendant imprisonment for a said term or to pay compensation in a
successful
tort suit.
b)
The court can send the defendant to a remand house or ask him to undergo imprisonment in a
successful
tort suit.
c) The court asks the defendant to pay compensation in a successful tort suit.
d)
The court awards a decree in favour of the plaintiff and the defendant becomes a judgement debtor in
a
successful tort suit.
Q 82. According to the passage, what is the jurisdiction of tort laws?
a) Tort laws deal with all wrongs including private and public wrongs.
b)
Tort laws deal with all wrongs including those that are addressed by the criminal law, and private law.
c)
Tort law offers relief for a canonical set of wrongs, or torts which include battery, negligence,
defamation
etc.
d)
Tort laws offer remedy only to a set of wrongs that are defined and limited by the English courts as
torts
has evolved through precedents.
Q 83. What does the passage suggest regarding the establishment of a wrong by the
plaintiff under tort law?
a)
Plaintiffs need to prove that the defendant had committed the said act beyond reasonable doubt in
order
to attract compensation under torts.
b)
The passage provides that the plaintiff has the burden of establishing a prima facie case against the
defendant.
c)
A defendant in a battery action might avoid liability by showing that she acted in self-defense or that
the
plaintiff consented to the otherwise unlawful touching.
d)
The plaintiff needs to establish the jurisdiction of the court before proving prima facie case against the
defendant.
Q 84. What notion is created when torts is conceived in terms of the paradigmatic case?
a)
Analysis of the paradigmatic case leads to the conclusion that core concepts of tort law appear to be
"rights", "wrongs" and "redress".
b)
The dual goals of tort theory are to identify the principle that connects the category of wrongs that
torts
address and to justify the distinctive mode(s) of redress for wrongs that tort law adopts.
c)
The paradigmatic model of analysis of torts gives rise to a dogmatic approach which increases the
analytical and applicative powers of torts in varied legal methods.
d) Both (a) and (b).
Q 85. Which of the following statements is false in the light of the above given passage?
a)
A successful tort suit results in a judgment of liability, rather than a sentence of punishment and it
normally
requires the defendant to compensate the plaintiff financially.
b)
Many think of battery and trespass as the paradigmatic private wrongs and thus as paradigmatic torts.
c)
In the passage the author has focused on categories of torts, instead of focusing on conceptualizing
torts in terms of the elements that a plaintiff must prove in order to obtain a remedy.
d)
Not every wrong that falls within the province of private law falls within tort law and breach of contract
is
an example for the same.
based on each

Passage – 5

People sometimes misunderstand the nature of fault liability in tort because they misunderstand the
nature of
strict liability in tort. And they misunderstand the nature of strict liability in tort because their
inclination is to model
it on the notion of strict liability in the criminal law, with which many theorists
and laypersons alike are more familiar.
Strict liability in the criminal law is a form of responsibility
without culpability. If you are strictly liable for a criminal
offense, you are punishable for the offense
even if your conduct is not morally blameworthy. The standard way to
express this is to say that strict
liability in criminal law is not defeasible by the kind of excuse one would offer in
order to defeat an
attribution of culpability or blameworthy (e.g., duress).

If we conceived similarly of strict liability in tort, we would then understand fault liability, incorrectly, as
liability that
is defeasible by excuses that establish the absence of culpability, in other words, as
liability (only) for one's culpable
conduct. But you can be at fault in tort even if your conduct is not
morally blameworthy. Under a regime of fault
liability, you are liable for injuries you cause while failing
to comport yourself as a reasonable person would in the
circumstances. It won't get you off the hook
that you are not a reasonable person, or that could not come up to that
standard in this case. Nor will
it matter that your failure to come up to that standard is a failure for which you are
utterly blameless.
Fault liability is not defeasible by excuses that establish the absence of culpability.

This raises the question of how to distinguish fault liability from strict liability in tort law, since neither is
defeasible
by a showing of blamelessness. The difference between the two regimes of liability is that
only under fault can you
avoid liability if you comfort yourself as a reasonable person-in other words, if
you act reasonably or justifiablywhereas
you remain subject to strict liability even if you had sufficient
reason for what you did. Thus, fault liability,
but not strict liability, can be undermined by justification.

Some find it helpful to distinguish between strict liability and fault liability in terms of the content of the
underlying
legal duty. In the case of blasting-an activity traditionally governed by strict liability-the
blaster has a duty not-toinjure-
by-blasting. In the case of driving-an activity traditionally governed by
fault liability-the driver has a duty notto-
injure-by-driving-negligently. No matter how much care he
takes, the blaster fails to discharge his duty whenever
his blasting is causally connected in the right
way to another's injury or damage to someone's property. In contrast,
the driver fails to discharge his
duty only when he injures someone negligently.
Q 86. What is the major reason behind people misunderstanding the nature of fault liability
in torts?
a)
The nature of fault liability is misunderstood by people because they are inclined towards the idea of
strict
liability and try to swap the same with fault liability.
b)
The major reason behind misunderstanding fault liability lies in misunderstanding strict liability which
has
happened owing to a comparison with the strict liability of criminal law.
c)
Even though the strict liability in criminal law and torts are almost the same, the fault liability is entirely
a
new concept. People fail to distinguish the same.
d)
People fail to appreciate the midget difference between that of fault liability and strict liability and
analyze
both under the purview of criminal law.
Q 87. Binod wanted a 10 feet sculpture of himself over a hill near to his house. So, Binod
bought a huge stone and
placed it on the hill. He was searching for a suitable sculptor to take up the
job. Some miscreants took away

the mud and smaller stones that were supporting the stone bought
by Binod. This made the stone roll down
from the top of the hill destroying the adjacent house. Can
Binod be held liable under the principle of fault
liability?
a)
Binod cannot be held liable under the principle of fault liability as he was not morally blameworthy and
there was absence of culpability.
b) Binod can be held liable under the principle of strict liability in torts and not under fault liability.
c) Binod can be held liable under the principle of fault liability of torts irrespective of his culpability.
d) Binod should be held criminally liable and not be made answerable under the law of torts.
Q 88. A was responsible for the maintenance of roads inside Sudha colony in Patalnagar.
The colony had a
straight road where bikers often used to go over speed putting the local kids who
used to play around at risk.
A decided to put a hump and got it done overnight. He also put up a small
board suggesting hump ahead.
The next day one R, a biker who was travelling within the speed
restriction fell off the bike and injured his legs
as the hump was steep and bikers had to pass the
same very slowly. R was unaware about this overnight
hump development. Decide whether A can be
held liable under strict liability or fault liability under torts law.
a)
A can be held liable under both strict liability and fault liability principle of torts law as he both do not
have
the justification of blamelessness.
b) A can be held liable under fault liability only and not under strict liability of torts law.
c)
A cannot be held liable under both strict liability and fault liability as his action was not an error or a
wrongdoing in law.
d) A can be held liable under strict liability but not under fault liability principle of law of torts.
Q 89. How has the example given in the passage explained the subtlety between the
principle of strict liability and
fault liability?
a)
The passage has explained the subtlety by stating that the difference between the two principles lies
on
the verge of rational and reasonability.
b)
The passage has not provided any direct example to explain the difference between strict liability and
fault liability.
c)
The passage takes the example of a blaster and a driver to explain the difference between strict and
fault
liability.
d)
The passage takes the example of a blaster and a match box to explain the difference between strict
liability and fault liability.
Q 90. Which of the following statements is false in the light of the above-given passage?
a)
Distinction between strict liability and fault liability can also be made in terms of the content of the
underlying
legal duty.
b)
If you are strictly liable for a criminal offense, you are not punishable for the offense even if your
conduct
is not morally blameworthy.
c)
Under a regime of fault liability, you are liable for injuries you cause while failing to comport yourself as
a
reasonable person would in the circumstances.
based on each

Passage – 6

Euthanasia has branched into two forms based upon the method by which they are performed:

Passive Euthanasia - It is defined as hastening the death by removing the life support and letting the
death by
natural phenomenon. The above method is practiced where the chance of recovery of the
patient is uncertain and
is only done to allow the death naturally. This method thus involves omission
to perform the extraordinary acts like
removal of life support system, stopping food and water and
allowing natural death by dehydration or not allowing
CPR (cardio-pulmonary-resuscitation).

Active Euthanasia - It is an act done in mercy, to end the suffering or a painful and meaningless
existence. The
above method is done through administering some external source into the patient for
example, lethal injection
such as sodium pentothal to hasten the death.

India has seen a considerable debate on the subject. The opening note regarding euthanasia was
made by the
Law Commission of India's Report No. 42 in 1971, which for the first-time recommended
deletion of Section 309
of the Penal Code, 1860. Section 309 states "Whoever attempts to commit
suicide and does any act towards the
commission of such offence, shall be punished with simple
imprisonment for a term which may extend to one
year or with fine, or with both." Further, the
Supreme Court in Rathinam v. Union of India held that Section 309 IPC
is violative of Article 21 of the
Constitution of India. The Court termed the said section as cruel and irrational,
resulting in punishing a
person again, who has already suffered agony and would be undergoing ignominy because
of his
failure to commit suicide. Further, an act of suicide cannot be said to be against religion, morality or
public
policy, and an act of attempted suicide has no baneful effect on society, and that it does not
cause any harm to
others, because of which States' interference with the personal liberty of the
persons concerned is unwarranted.
However, the above judgment was overruled by a Constitution
Bench of the Supreme Court in Gian Kaur v. State
of Punjab, wherein it was held that "right to life" is
inherently inconsistent with the "right to die" as is "death" with
"life". In furtherance, the right to life,
which includes the right to live with human dignity, would mean the existence
of such a right up to the
natural end of life. It may further include "death with dignity" but such existence should not
be
confused with unnatural extinction of life curtailing natural span of life. In addition of the above, the
constitutionality
of Section 309 IPC, which makes "attempt to suicide" an offence, was upheld,
overruling the judgment in Rathinam
case. After about a decade, the Law Commission of India in
2006 came up with the 196th Report on terminally ill
patients, which recommended legalising 'passive
euthanasia' in a very strict and controlled mechanism. The
Report made it clear that euthanasia and
physician-assisted suicide shall remain illegal, and the Report only dealt
with the protection of the
patients in cases where the terminally ill patient is in a permanent vegetative state with no
chance of
recovery. In such a case, the patient voluntarily by oral or written request, can seek for the removal of
support system, thereby hastening his death, albeit subject to certain safeguards.
Q 91. R met with an accident and faced severe injuries. His skull was broken along with
several other bones.
There was extreme blood loss. R was suffering due to the state he was in. One
D, who was the senior
doctor at the hospital, decided to release R from his suffering and gave him a
lethal injection. It was later
revealed that R himself had pleaded with D to do the same. R however
survived the lethal injection and also
miraculously got better. Is R or D liable for any charges for their
actions?
a)
R shall be held liable under section 309 of the IPC and D shall also attract charges for helping him
with
the same.
b)
R shall not be held liable under section 309 as his action was not suicide and D shall not be liable as
he
did it under the express consent of R.
c) R shall be liable under section 309 of the IPC while D shall not be liable for any penal violations.
d) R shall not be held liable while D shall be held liable for attempt to commit murder.
Q 92. How did the Supreme court justify their proposition in the case of Gian Kaur v. State
of Punjab?
a) The supreme court stated that 'right to life' did not include 'right to die' in the case of Gian Kaur.
b)
The supreme court explained that 'right to life' includes 'right to life with human dignity' which means
till
the natural end of life and hence right to die was not included in the same.
c)
The supreme court laid down those individuals were not equipped with the authority of ending one's
state
because all the personal laws suggest that 'the almighty shall end this sacred life according to
his
wishes'.
d)
The supreme court analyzed how dignity was present until the very end of human life and hence
dignity
took a higher place than the right to die through various pronouncements.
Q 93. Mycall Boot-maker was a famous formula-1 car racer. Once boot-maker met with a
serious accident leading
to severe injuries to head which put him into a coma. After 10 years in coma
his condition improved and was
able to speak very bleakly, but was unable to move an inch. He spent
another 4 years like that. Once Bootmaker
made a written request to end his life as the doctors had
already suggested that there was no coming
back and he wanted to end his life. Is the said request
acceptable?
a)
No, Bootmaker's request is not accomodable as he does not have the right to die and is punishable
under section 309 of the IPC.
b)
Yes, Bootmaker's request is acceptable and is mentioned and discussed in law commission's report
number 196.
c)
Law commission's report number 196 only deals with terminally ill patients and in the given case
Bootmaker
is in a vegetative state and hence his accommodation cannot be accepted.
d)
No, Bootmaker's none of the Indian provisions allow a person to end his life willfully, it is a crime under
the
provisions of IPC.
Q 94. Has the law commission's report number 42 achieved its objective? (Here the object
means only the
proposition given in the passage)
a)
The law commission though its 42nd report able to criminalize attempt to suicide through section 309
of
the IPC 1860.
b)
The law commission's recommendation to delete the Section 309 of the Indian Penal Code was an
object that was not achieved.
c)
Law commission recommended the supreme court to suo moto take notice of Rathinam case as it
was
fundamentally violative of principles of natural justice.
d)
The law commission's object of over hauling the previous system of practice of Euthanasia was
successful
through the 42nd report.
Q 95. Which of the following statements is inconsistent with the idea provided in the
passage?
a) The 196th Report made it clear that euthanasia and physician-assisted suicide shall remain illegal,
b)
The 42nd Report only dealt with the protection of the patients in cases where the terminally ill patient
is in
a permanent vegetative state with no chance of recovery.
c)
Passive Euthanasia is defined as hastening the death by removing the life support and letting the
death
by natural phenomenon
d)
Active Euthanasia is an act done in mercy, to end the suffering or a painful and meaningless
existence.
based on each

Passage – 7

Celebrity Rights are a bundle of rights that insure to a person, by virtue of having created a distinct
"identity".
Personality Rights or Image Rights inextricably linked with Right to Publicity and Right to
Privacy may all be
together referred to as Celebrity Rights.

"Personality" can be defined as the combination of characteristics or qualities that form an individual's
distinctive
character. The bundle of rights emanating from such characteristics or features of an
individual are typically
termed as "Personality Rights". Right to Publicity is an individual's right to
commercially exploit her/his attributes.
Right to Privacy, in simple terms, is an individual's right to
regulate what's known to the world at large about him/
her and what is not.

Protection and enforcement of Celebrity Rights vis-à-vis sportspersons and athletes gained
momentum in Europe
at least a decade back. As of today, with the majority of the "famous" athletes
and sportspersons being active onfield
as well as off-field, the importance of diligently protecting and
enforcing Celebrity Rights has become

indispensable. Personality Rights can be said to broadly
comprise two types of rights - Personality Rights and
Right to Publicity thereof viz. commercial
exploitation, and Right to Privacy.

The Right to Publicity aspect finds basis in various statutes in India - the Trade Marks Act, 1999, the
Copyright Act,
1957, the Emblems and Names Prevention of Improper Use Act, 1950; and the Right
to Privacy is now a recognized
fundamental right in India

The Trade Marks Act, 1999- The definition of a mark includes names, initials, signatures, sounds etc.
All these
aspects belonging to an individual and used in commerce as a means to signify a source,
can thus be protected
as trade-marks, and their commercial exploitation be regulated. In the sporting
world, athletes and sports person
usually, either by themselves, or by collaborating with a sporting
brand, come up with their own "lines" and brands.
While starting a brand, some prefer retaining their
name in plain words, others go for an artistic logo. Some even
prefer using their signatures, or a
signature "move" / "pose".

The Copyright Act, 1957- Copyright Act defines "performers", which may give some basis for
enforcement vis-àvis
Celebrity Rights to athletes and sportspersons. Since Personality Rights are not
defined, they are not "exhaustive"
from the point of view of protection and enforcement. Thus, there
may be other aspects vested in an individual's
persona that may deserve copyright protection.

In the case of ICC Development (International) Ltd. v. Arvee Enterprises and Ors.[ 2003 (26) PTC 245
(Del)], a
Single Judge Bench (Surinder Kumar Aggarwal, J.) of the High Court of Delhi ("Court")
addressed an important
question and made it clear that Personality Rights do not vest in non-living
objects/corporations or other juristic
entities. The Court held "In my considered view, the non-living
entities are not entitled to the protection of publicity
rights in an event, for more than one reasons.
Firstly, the copyright law, trade-mark law, dilution law and unfair
competition law provide full protection
against all forms of appropriation of property to such legal entities…Secondly,
it would be against the
basic concept of "persona".
Q 96. Birat was a world class cricket player. Birat's sign was well-known and was
appreciated for its versatility.
One Rohit who held a ceramics business started selling ceramic items
with a sign closely identical to
Birat's sign. What would be your action as Birat's attorney?
a) Birat can file a suit only if it confirms that the sign used by Rohit is a copy of Birat's sign.
b)
Birat's sign is protected under trademarks act of 1999 and any infringement shall attract liability under
the
same.
c)
Birat's sign is protected under the Copyrights act of 1956 and any infringement shall attract liability
under
the same.
d)
Birat's sign is protected under his personality rights and the act of Rohit is in violation of personality
right
of Birat.
Q 97. What is the opinion of the author regarding the definition of performers given in the
copyright act?
a)
The passage suggests that since Personality Rights are not defined, they are not "exhaustive" from
the
point of view of enforcements and there may be other aspects vested in an individual's persona
that may
deserve copyright protection.
b)
The personality rights defined under the copyright are exhaustive and have been able to provide
protection
to large groups of individuals who might have to protect their copyrights.
c)
The definition of 'performers' in the copyright act is outdated and with the fast development of social
media, a new definition is very much required.
Q 98. What did the court pronounce in the case of ICC Development (International) Ltd?
a)
The court held that the non-living entities are not entitled to the protection of publicity rights in an
event.
b)
The court held that non -living entities can be entitled to the protection of publicity rights in an event.
c)
The court held that non-living entities can be entitled to protection of publicity in certain exceptional
circumstances.
d)
The court held that non-living entities can be entitled to protection of publicity only after due
consideration
of the social, economic, historical and ethical perspective of such a move.
Q 99. What is the major goal of the right to publicity according to the passage?
a) The major goal of right to publicity is the ability to get popular among the masses.
b) The major goal of right to publicity is the right to commercially exploit her/his attributes.
c) The major goal of right to publicity is to safeguard the privacy of a celebrity.

d) The major goal of right to publicity is to improve the commercial and market value of a celebrity.
Q 100. Which of the following statements is inconsistent with the idea discussed in her
passage?
a)
Copyright Act defines "performers", which may give some basis for enforcement vis-à-vis Celebrity
Rights to athletes and sportspersons
b) The Right to Publicity aspect finds basis in various statutes in India.
c)
Personality Rights can be said to broadly comprise two types of rights - Personality Rights and Right
to
Publicity
based on each

Passage – 8

The Joint Hindu family is a patriarchal body, and the head of the family is called Karta. Karta is the
senior most
male member of the family who acts as the representative of the family and acts on behalf
of the family. There is
a fiduciary relationship between the Karta and the other family members
because every family needs a head
member who can look after the welfare of minor members and
females in a Joint Hindu Family. The position of
Karta is unique in a joint Hindu family. Karta takes
care of the whole family and its property and the decision given
by the Karta is bound to be followed
by the members of Hindu Joint Family. No one is equal to Karta in a Hindu Joint
Family. The powers
and position of a Karta are wider than any of the members of the Hindu Joint Family. No one
can be
compared with Karta among the other members of the joint family. The senior most male member is
entitled to become a Karta and it is his right. Karta is always from the members of the family; no
outsiders or
strangers can become a Karta. If the senior most male member of the family is alive then
he will continue as Karta,
if he dies then the second senior most member of the family will take the
charge of Karta. Karta takes his position
by consent or agreement of all the coparceners.If the
coparceners agree, then a junior can also become a Karta
of the family. By making the agreement
with the coparceners, a junior male member can be a Karta of the family.
According to Dharmastra, if
there is an absence of the male member in a family then in that situation a female can
act as a Karta.
If in case male members are present but they are minors, at that time also, females can act as a
Karta.

Powers of Karta-

Power of management- Karta's power of management is absolute. No one can question the duties of
the Karta
like, he can manage or mismanage the property, family, business any way he likes. Karta
cannot deny the

maintenance and occupation of property to any member. Karta is not liable for the
positive failures.

Rights to Income or Remuneration and Expenditure- The income of the Joint Hindu family
property in a whole
must be given to the Karta. Then it is the responsibility of the Karta to allot the
funds to the members for fulfilment
of their needs. Karta controls the expenditure of the funds. The
scope of his power is only to spend such funds on
family purposes like management, maintenance,
marriage, education etc

Rights to Represent Joint Family- The Karta represents the family in legal, religious and social
matters. The
acts and decisions of the Karta are binding on the members. Karta can enter into any
transaction on behalf of the
family.

Right to compromise- Karta has the power to compromise the disputes relating to management or
family property.
He can compromise family debts, pending suits and other transactions. The
compromises made by the Karta,
can be challenged in court by heirs only on the ground of malafide.

Power to enter into contracts- The Karta can enter into contracts and where contracts are
enforceable against
the family. The contracts are binding on the members of the joint family.

Power of alienation- No one among the family members can alienate joint family property. But Karta
has the
power to alienate the property under three circumstances. 1) Legal necessity, 2) Benefit of
estate, 3) Indispensable
duties.
Q 101. There was a border dispute between a joint family property and a local property. In
the case of a joint family
who shall represent the property in the court?
a) b) Karta
Eldest son of the family with the permission of the c)
family. Eldest coparcener with the permission of Karta.
d) A member of the family appointed by court.
Q 102. D was the Karta of a joint family. Due to old age and health issues D faced
difficulties in continuing as Karta
of the family. D decided to hand the responsibility over to his eldest
son. Decide.
a) D cannot hand over the responsibility to his son, but he can ask his wife to represent him.
b) D cannot hand over the responsibility to his eldest son but to his siblings if any.
c)
D can hand over the responsibility to his eldest son with the permission and agreement of all the
coparceners.
d) D cannot hand over the responsibility of Karta to anyone else.
Q 103. E who was the Karta of a joint family entered into a contract as against the joint

family. He had not informed regarding this to any coparceners. E thought his decision was for the
welfare of the entire family. Decide.
a) E cannot enter into an agreement without informing other coparceners.

b) E has the power to enter into a contract on behalf of the joint family.

c)

E has the power to enter into a contract but before that he has to take a written consent from at least
one member.

d) E entering into a contract without the permission of coparceners shall be deemed as a fraud.

Q 104. Which of the following powers does a Karta not have?

a) Right to compromise b) Right to oust members

c) Rights to Represent Joint Family d)

Rights to Income or Remuneration and
Expenditure.
Q 105. Which of the following statements is false in light of the passage?

a) Karta has the power to compromise the disputes relating to management or family property.

b) The senior most male member is entitled to become a Karta and it is his right.

c) Karta's power of management is absolute. No one can question the duties of the Karta.

d) Karta can take 10 percent of the joint family property to himself.

Logical Reasoning
Directions for questions 106 to 135: Read the passages and answer the questions that follow.

Passage – 1

Union Home Minister Amit Shah's statement on making Hindi the language of communication for
people of non- Hindi speaking areas or States was absolutely unnecessary. As the chairman of the

Parliamentary Official Language Committee, he is duty-bound to promote the spread of the Hindi

language. But, the impression his speech generated at the 37th meeting of the panel in New Delhi last

week is that he wanted to impose the language. Calling for the use of an Indian language among

people who spoke languages other than Hindi, Mr. Shah said Hindi should be accepted as an

alternative to English and not to local languages. It is up to the people of any two non-Hindi speaking

areas or States to decide what their language of communication should be. If they are comfortable
with English, which is also a global language, the Centre has no business in advising them to

abandon English and

take to any other language or Hindi, as done in this case. Mr. Shah's
observations presuppose the position that
English is not an Indian language. What he seems to have
overlooked is that English has been recognised as an
Indian language as much as Tamil or Telugu or
Hindi have. This recognition is also due to the Sahitya Akademi, a
central institution working for
literary dialogue in the country. The Akademi, under the control of the Ministry of
Culture, has, among
others, been giving away annual awards for the best works of English, of course authored by
Indians.
Besides, the advantage that English gives to India has to be kept in mind. As pointed out by the
president
of the Karnataka Pradesh Congress Committee, D.K. Shivakumar, Bengaluru became
India's IT capital because
of English. It would be befitting for a person holding the office of Union
Home Minister to shed any aversion to
English, which has been a unifying force in a vast and diverse
society such as India.

Expectedly, Mr. Shah's statement has been condemned politically, especially by the non-BJP
Opposition parties.
Even the AIADMK, a party that has been friendly to the BJP, has issued a
statement through its coordinator and
former Chief Minister, O. Panneerselvam, who expressed his
disapproval of any move to "impose Hindi." But,
most significantly, it is Tamil Nadu Chief Minister M.K.
Stalin who rightly lashed out at Mr. Shah for seeking to create
a "single identity," which, Mr. Stalin has
pointed out, will not create unity. It is nobody's case that Indian languages,
let alone Hindi, should not
be nurtured and promoted. They all deserve the support of the state. Those in power
should also
follow up their words with substantive measures towards this direction. But, at the same time, no
room
should be given for any perception that the promotion drive will be at the cost of English. Respect for
multiculturalism and a pluralistic identity is a quality that the political class, particularly those in power,
should
imbibe. Mr. Shah would do very well if he demonstrates, through words and actions, that he
has that quality in
abundance.
Q 106. Which of the following statements cannot be inferred from the passage?
a) Hindi should be accepted as a substitute for English rather than regional languages.
b)
It is up to the people of any two non-Hindi speaking areas or States to pick what language they should
use
for communication.
c) English, like Tamil, Telugu, and Hindi, has been recognized as an Indian language.
d)
Respect for multiculturalism and pluralistic identity is a virtue that the political class, especially those in
positions of power, should emulate.
Q 107. Why does the author believe that Union Home Minister Amit Shah's statement was
absolutely unnecessary?
a)
Because, his address at the panel's 37th meeting in New Delhi last week gave the impression that he
wants to impose the language.
b)
Because, the Centre has no right to advise people to reject English in favor of any language, even
Hindi.
c) Because, Mr. Shah's remarks are based on the assumption that English is not an Indian language.
d)
Because, the political class, particularly those in power, should model respect for multiculturalism and
pluralistic identities.
Q 108. Which of the following options can be concluded from the statement, "It is up to the
people of any two non-
Hindi speaking areas or States to decide what their language of
communication should be. If they are
comfortable with English, which is also a global language, the
Centre has no business in advising them to
abandon English and take to any other language or Hindi,
as done in this case."
a)
More than often, it is the case that the people of two states jointly decide what language they want to
speak.
b)
If people are comfortable in any language, no one has the right to coerce them to shift to another
language.
c)
The centre is habitual in interfering with the general opinions of the people and imposing their
ideology
onto them.
d) English is the only global language and there is no harm in adopting it in lieu of Hindi.
Q 109. Which of the following describes the intention of the author behind writing this
passage?
a) To examine the flaws of the statement made by Amit Shah.
b) To showcase the general ideology of the government to impose their will.
c) To reflect the inherent and explicit incorrectness of the statement made by Amit Shah.
d) All of the above.
Q 110. What according to your understanding of the passage can be the main reason that
other political parties
have criticized BJP for Amit Shah's remarks?
a)
Because Amit Shah appears to be attempting to establish "one identity," which will not result in unity.
b)
Because, in their opinion, individuals in positions of authority should back up their statements with
concrete
actions in this regard.
c)
Because they believe there should be no basis for the impression that the promotion drive will be at
the
detriment of English.
d) Because they have expressed his disapproval of any move to "impose Hindi.

Passage – 2

Intimate partner violence (IPV) is a serious public health problem that leads to grave biological and
psychological
consequences for victims and families in diverse ways. This form of violence in society
is underreported by
victims for various reasons that could range from not wanting to be publicly
shamed to not wanting to report
someone they love. A troubling but consistent finding in the existing
research is that IPV tends to "run in the family."
Families are usually private, which makes it more
difficult for society to provide effective interventions for victims
of IPV when the perpetrator is their
husband or their wife. To create beneficial interventions for these victims, the
nature of the
intergenerational cycle of IPV must be understood.

The Social Learning Theory is usually used to explain "the cycle of intergenerational violence,
suggesting that
children typically model the aggressive behaviours of same-gender role models." The
aggressive behaviours
could either be intimate partner violence committed by the parents, which the
children witness, or child abuse
committed by the parent, which the children experience. In childhood
conditions where a parent is committing IPV,
the individual is more likely to model that behaviour,
especially in their disagreements with loved ones later in life.

The Social Learning Theory has received many criticisms about how it neglects to consider how
genetic factors
could play a role in intergenerational IPV. This gap in the theory can be pointed out by
the effect of witnessing
bidirectional IPV. Bidirectional IPV refers to the victim-offender overlap, which
is the finding that perpetrators of
aggressive behaviour are disproportionately likely to be also victims
of aggressive behaviour for IPV. On the one
hand, Social Learning Theory can argue that children
who witness bidirectional IPV will have increased risk for
combined perpetration and victimization of
IPV in the future. On the other hand, the genetic similarity of family
members could also contribute to
the increased risk.
Q 111. Which of the following is most supported by the author's argument?
a) IPV is an underrated and underreported crime

b) Most families have one member as the perpetrator or victim of IPV
c) The reasons for IPV are still unclear
d) Genetics have a direct impact on causation of IPV
Q 112. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

a) Most women are only victims and not perpetrators of IPV
b) IPV is directly caused by social factors and conditions of individuals
c) The familial backdrop of the activity makes it difficult to approach and solve the problems
d) Both (a) & (b)
Q 113. Which of the following, if true, would seriously undermine the author's argument?
a) Majority of people live in nuclear families today
b) Boys are influenced by their mothers and girls by their fathers
c) Both (a) & (b)

d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Q 114. The author's statement that "children who witness bidirectional IPV will have
increased risk for combined
perpetration and victimization of IPV in the future"-
a) Forms premise of the above passage b) Forms conclusion of the above passage
c) d) None of the above
Forms assumption of the author to the above
passage
Q 115. Consider the following instances:

1. A boy who has seen his father beat his mother in his childhood is moved by the pains of the latter
and
decides to never hit a woman ever in his life.

2. A girl sees her mother slapping her father repeatedly on the smallest of mistakes on the latter's
part. The
girl assumes this to be normal and carries out similar behaviour when she grows up.

3. A person has been beaten by his father and mother a lot in his childhood. When he grows up, he
does the
same to his wife and daughter.

Which of the following is correct?
a) 2 is an example of SLT (Social Learning Theory) and 3 is an example of bidirectional IPV
b) 1 and 2 are examples of SLT and 3 is an example of bidirectional IPV
c) 1 is an example of SLT and 2 and 3 are examples of bidirectional IPV
d) 2 and 3 both are examples of SLT and 1 is an example of bidirectional IPV

Passage – 3

The content of people's memories is greatly influenced by a collection of underlying personal beliefs,
social pressures,
biases and heuristics, and cultural assumptions. The aggregate effect of all these
influences working simultaneously

is the formation of a schema; a mental framework that organizes
information by their perceived relationships and
associations. This organizational process is implicit
and permeates all objects of our conscious experience. For
example, humans share a common
schema surrounding the concept of "dog," which works something like this:
animal, four legs, barks,
wags tail, has fur, etc. These characteristics have been displayed in most of our prior
interactions with
dogs, and therefore, help us to form a shared, concrete, and uncontroversial schema of what
"dog" is.
However, not all schemas are universally accepted, and in fact, schemas often have discrepancies
between individuals. A moment when this could occur, for example, is when a non-native is visiting a
new country
that has its own unique customs and social norms. In Japanese culture for instance, it is
extremely offensive to tip
waiters and waitresses. An American citizen (from a culture where tipping is
not only a nice thing to do but expected
behaviour visiting Japan could mistakenly tip a Japanese
waiter, and in the process, not only offend him, but violate
the waiter's schema of "proper restaurant
etiquette." Interestingly enough, both of the individuals mentioned may also have differing accounts of
how their exchange transpired. Not only would they probably remember the other
to be rude or
disrespectful, but their negative experience with the other could influence the accuracy in their
description of that memory.

This phenomenon is known as false memories, where a person's implicit associations or cultural
assumptions
prime the content of their memories, making them remember events that, in reality, never
occurred at all. In
addition, schemas not only influence memories, but future events as well.
Q 116. Which of the following assumptions have been made by the author?
a) People cannot access some parts of their memory
b) People's memory cannot be altered to include newer experiences
c) People fail to adapt to new circumstances
d) People will always believe that they and their own customs are correct
Q 117. Which of the following conclusions can be properly drawn from the statements
above?
a) Certain social elements are constant amongst all people
b) The past experiences that formulate our point of view colors our future experiences
c) Sometimes cultural differences lead to creation of false memories
d) All of the above
Q 118. Which of the following is most supported by the author's argument?
a) New experience is always understood and analysed in light of past experience
b) Some instances may be experienced differently by different people
c) Both (a) & (b)
d) Neither (a) nor (b)

Q 119. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
a) There exists a plethora of studies showing memory can be greatly altered
b) People with weak memory are culturally illiterate
c) The schemas depict the person's background and previous encounters
d) None of the above
Q 120. The author's statement that "not all schemas are universally accepted, and in fact,
schemas often have
discrepancies between individuals"-
a) Forms premise of the above passage b) Forms conclusion of the above passage
c) d) None of the above

Forms assumption of the author to the above
passage

Passage – 4

The experience of having children is something that many of us have in common. Despite having this
shared
experience, no two parents' approach to raising children is precisely the same. There are
many modern terms for
different types of parenting styles; perhaps you identify with "free-range
parenting" or "attachment parenting," or
maybe you like to think of yourself as a "tiger mom." Among
these new terms, the one that you are likely to hear the
most about is called "Helicopter Parenting."

The term Helicopter Parenting was coined in the 1990s and generally applied to parents who are
overly involved in
their children's lives, especially in academic and achievement-related activities.
Textbook Helicopter parents tend
to remove obstacles that their children face to encourage them to
succeed. Helicopter parents are generally welleducated,
well-resourced parents who are incredibly
well-intentioned, looking to protect their children from trouble
and provide them with as many
opportunities as possible.

Having involved parents is generally a good thing. In fact, helicopter parenting has been associated
with some
positive parenting behaviours, such as frequent advice-giving and providing children with
emotional support. But
constantly hovering can also come at a cost. As children get older, they seek
out more independence, and it can
be a challenge for any parent to relinquish control slowly. This is
especially difficult for helicopter parents, who tend
to claim a large amount of control over their
children's academic lives.

However, research suggests that inflexibility in maintaining the same level of control over children
regardless of
what's developmentally appropriate can be problematic. In fact, despite some of the
positives of helicopter parenting,

it has also been associated with adverse child outcomes, such as
higher levels of anxiety and depression, lower
ratings of psychological well-being, and a lack of
independence and ineffective coping skills.
Q 121. Which of the following would the author most likely to agree with, as per the
passage?
a)
Among the different types of parenting styles in the modern era, Helicopter Parenting is the most
common
and is followed by a majority.
b) Keeping children from failing promotes failure.
c) There are more disadvantages of Helicopter Parenting as compared to its advantages.
d) All (a), (b) and (c).
Q 122. Which of the following can be inferred from the given passage?
a) The concept underlying Helicopter Parenting was not present before the year 1990.
b) No two parents' approach to raising children is precisely the same.
c)
Despite the good intentions of most over involved parents, children of helicopter parents don't
necessarily
perform well in school.
d) A child of 15 years of age will seek out more independence than a child of 10 years of age.
Q 123. Which of the following can be the course of action for helicopter parents while
intervening with their children's
academics and achievement-related activities?
a)
They shouldn't get involved in their children's academic and achievement-related activities and let
them
choose paths and interests of their own.
b)
They should be flexible in their control over children and gradually provide autonomy as it helps
children
learn how to deal with challenges independently.
c)
They shouldn't allow their children to fail as failure acts as a deterrent in pursuing the activities of their
interest further.
d) All of the above.
Q 124. If permissive parents have contrary attributes compared to helicopter parents,
which of the following would
likely be true for them?
a) Permissive parents will be less involved with their children's everyday activities.
b) Permissive parents will be supportive, yet demanding.
c)
Permissive parents will be the most well-adjusted and the most likely to be independent and well-
socialized.
d)
The children of permissive parents turn out to have the best cognitive flexibility, which is one of the
predictors of academic achievement.
Q 125. Which of the following would form the premise for the statement, "A textbook
helicopter parent tends to
remove obstacles that their children face to encourage them to succeed"?
a) Obstacles demotivate children to proceed further and succeed.

b) Every fall presents an opportunity to correct those mistakes and learn from them.
c)
Helicopter parents assume that their children aren't mature enough to remove the obstacles on their
own.
d) Both (a) and (c).

Passage – 5

China may be the new driver for globalization and it is seeking to achieve this through the Belt and
Road Initiative
(BRI), also known as the 21st-century Silk Road. Formally announced in 2013, the BRI
brings together a number
of pre-existing as well as novel elements to provide a strong link between
China's domestic imperatives and its
global orientation. It has thus become a focal point for the
country's resources, institutions and ideas. The BRI is
a concept with Chinese features; it is
characterized by incrementalism, inductive thinking, and experimentation. It
is not a uniform project,
as different legs and sections of it differ from each other considerably - it includes a major
China-
Pakistan Economic Corridor, which has a notable developmental component, for instance, and buying
and
operating ports in other countries such as Greece. Today, China is not only the second-largest
economy (poised
to overtake the US in the near future), but also the engine of the world economy. It is
central to global economic
growth. It is thus expected that China will assume a more significant role in
shaping the future of the global
economy. And the BRI is one way it will do this. One of the main
concepts that define China's approach is production
capacity cooperation - best described as the
pooling together of resources to meet each other's needs. The goal
of this is to contribute to
strengthening trade routes and supply chains, and to ensure sustainable flows of goods
and services.

To describe this complex state-market nexus in China, researchers propose the purposefully self-
contradicting
term "state neoliberalism" as opposed to the Western-style "market neoliberalism". It
posits that the party-state
needs to be powerful and politically stable in order to be able to act
decisively in fine-tuning (both advancing and
reversing) market flows, the scope and intensity of
regulation, and to create exceptions.
India executed 194 developmental projects in 37 African countries; working to complete 77 more such
projects.
Even India is working towards providing the required infrastructure in other countries.
Q 126. Which of the following statements will the author deem the truest and which also
strengthens the passage?
a) Only the Chinese government is acting as a neoliberal state in the international sphere
b) The BRI is the latest project of China in their pursuit to reach to the top spot in the world
c) China is biased towards Pakistan and is favoring them by creating a specific section for them
Q 127. Which of the following, if true, weakens the author's argument?
a) China had initially planned to start the BRI initiative in 1990's
b) Other neighbouring countries will benefit much more from the BRI than China
c) The U.S. is trying its level best to not be bested by Chinese attempts
d) The BRI is set to finish off and get ready for commuting not before 2025
Q 128. Which of the following, if true, supports the author's conclusion the most?
a) The government in China is banking on the BRI to get re-elected in the country
b)
The indigenous population has been constantly protesting against the BRI initiative and with it their
mandatory relocation
c) The BRI is going to dramatically improve the trade of China with almost all countries
d) Greek traders are still unsure whether they wish to increase trade with China
Q 129. Which of the following conclusions can be properly drawn from the passage?
a)
The Chinese authorities are gradually moving away from a strict communist regime in certain areas in
a
restricted sense
b) Once the BRI is complete, China will automatically supersede the U.S.
c) Only Pakistan can stop China from growing any further
d) International trade will collapse if China fails to construct the BRI
Q 130. The statement "After completion of BRI, China will dominate the world trade routes"
is:
a) Probably True b) Definitely True c) Probably False d) Definitely False
Passage – 6

As students return to schools after the lifting of the pandemic-enforced curbs, it's increasingly
becoming evident
that classrooms will have to be re-imagined to address the disruption caused by the
public health emergency.
Survey after survey has confirmed the worst fears of educationists - the
switch to online classes in the past two
years has had negative impacts on children's ability to read,
comprehend texts and do simple sums. In the last
week of May, the National Achievement Survey
(NAS), shone a light on the worrying regression in the learning
capabilities of students across subjects
and grades. Now a series of reports in this paper shows that each child
returning to a Delhi
government school poses a unique challenge to the teacher - the students not only have
varying
levels of competencies and learning, but almost every one of them has been scarred differently by the
pandemic.

Most educational policy documents - including the New Education Policy 2020 - have talked of
student and teachercentric
approaches. However, the syllabus has continued to exercise a strong
hold on pedagogic practices. This
will have to change in the post-pandemic classroom. There are
indications that government school teachers in
Delhi are alive to the need for letting students recover
lost ground at their own pace. The teacher is doubling up as
a counsellor, even as a friend who is
sensitive to the needs of students requiring special attention. The improved
learning environment also
owes much to the Delhi government's initiative to strengthen the foundational skills of
children during
the summer vacations.

The Delhi story holds valuable lessons for educators and school administrators in the rest of the
country. They
would do well to learn lessons in classroom autonomy from Delhi government school
teachers. At the same time,
they must recognise that there cannot be a uniform template for recovery.
Q 131. What is the analogy drawn in the passage?
a) b) Schools and Healing Centres

Student centric approaches and teacher centric c) Teacher and Counsellor
approaches
d) Education and Classroom.
Q 132. Which of the following strengthens the passage?
a)
The classrooms must be well equipped when it comes to infrastructure so that learning offline is not
destroyed.
b) The pedagogic practices should have changed in the pre-pandemic session we encountered
c)

The pedagogic practices and the strict syllabus must change post the pandemic which we have
encountered
d) All of the above strengthen the passage.

Q 133. Which of the following weakens the passage the most?

a)

Apart from the learning skills, the foundational skills of the children should also be addressed and
improved.
b) COVID-19 has caused havoc in the educational system which will have to be repaired.

c)

The online medium improved the various skills of children such as to read and write. They had more
time in their hands to practice and hone these skills.

d) There has been a huge regression observed in the capabilities of the children.

Q 134. Which of the following can be an inference drawn from this passage?

a) The pandemic has left a same- deep impact on almost all of the students in the school.

b)

The scarring done by the pandemic proved to have a differential impact on each person in the country.
c) The scars left by the pandemic was different when it came to children studying in school

d) The pandemic almost left no one who was not impacted by it.

Q 135. What is the overall conclusion of the passage?

a)

The teacher is doubling up as a counsellor, even as a friend who is sensitive to the needs of students
requiring special attention.
b)

The learning environment must improve by improving the additional skills of the children and special
attention must be paid to those children who were left behind in the pandemic.
c)

The pedagogy must be changed immediately so that a new syllabus is devised which will address the
current needs of the children in this period.
d) Post pandemic- teaching and learning should improve.

Mathematics
Directions for questions 136 to 140: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given.
The total number of students that passed from college T is one-fourth of the total number of passed
students. The
total number of students that passed from college R is 800, which is one-fifth of the total
number of passed
students. The ratio of the total number of students that passed from colleges P and
S is 6 : 5 respectively. The total
number of boys and girls that passed from college Q were 480 and
400 respectively. The ratio of boys and girls
that passed from college T is 7 : 3 respectively. The
number of girls that passed from college S is 100 more than
the number of boys that passed from the
same college. The number of girls that passed from college P was 100
less than the number of girls
that passed from college T. The total number of boys that passed from all the
colleges was 2310.
Q 136. What is the percentage of girls that passed from all the colleges together?
a) 36% b) 49.1% c) 42.25% d) 45%
Q 137. What is the difference between the boys that passed from college P and college S?
a) 270 b) 250 c) 220 d) 320
Q 138. What is the average number of students that passed from colleges R, S and T?
a) 750 b) 720 c) 680 d) 800
Q 139. In which college is the percentage of boys that passed with respect to the total
number of students of the
college that passed the maximum?
a) Q b) S c) P d) T
Q 140. The number of boys that passed from college R is what percentage more or less
than the number of girls
that passed from the same college?
a) 18.18% b) 33.33% c) 28.42% d) 22.22%
Directions for questions 141 to 145: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given
below.

The Gramin Bank has a total of 8200 accounts, which are of five different types namely, Current
account, Savings
account, Kids account, Senior citizen account and Demat account. 40% of the total
number of accounts are
Current accounts whereas 25% are Savings accounts. Out of the remaining
accounts half the number are Demat
accounts, and Kids accounts and Senior citizen accounts are in
the ratio of 2 : 3 respectively.
Q 141. Find the difference between the total number of Savings accounts and Senior
citizen accounts at Gramin
Bank.
a) 1219 b) 1189 c) 1917 d) 1690
Directions for questions 146 to 150: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given
Q 142. The total number of Current accounts and Demat accounts together form what
percentage of total accounts
in the bank?
a) 37.5% b) 45% c) 52% d) 57.5%
Q 143. If 40% of Demat accounts and 10% of Savings accounts are non-operative. What
is the total number of
accounts that are operative in Gramin Bank?
a) 7421 b) 7324 c) 7525 d) 7123
Q 144. The number of Kids accounts is approximately what percent of the total number of
Savings accounts and
Current accounts together?
a) 8.75% b) 12.12% c) 10.77% d) 11.11%
Q 145. In the bank only 50% of Savings accounts and one-third of Senior Citizen accounts
have opted for Net
banking facility, then what is the total number of accounts having Net banking?
a) 1213 b) 1312 c) 1234 d) 1432
below.

There are five delivery boys - A, B, C, D and E - who work for Zumoto, an online app based food
delivery company.
The monthly salary received by these boys has a fixed part of Rs.22,000 plus
variable incentives based on their
ratings. The incentive is 200 times the final rating. The company
gives ratings to these boys based on the reviews
obtained from customers. The boys have been rated
on a scale of 1 to 5 based on four parameters - Fast delivery,
Minimal calling, Polite behavior and
Cleanliness.

All five persons received full ratings for Cleanliness. None of them got a rating of less than 2 on any
parameter. E
obtained a total rating of 12 in the remaining three parameters whereas D got half of that
in those three parameters.
B got full scores in all 4 parameters. A had a total rating of 16 with rating of
4 in Fast delivery and Polite behavior. C
had a total rating of 15 with rating of 3 in Fast delivery and
Minimal calling. E gets a rating of 5 in only one parameter.
Q 146. If the boys are ranked on the basis of their total ratings, then which of the following
represents their correct
sequence from highest to lowest ranks?
a) B > C > D b) E > A > B c) D > C > E d) E > B > A
Q 147. How many people get a total rating of 16 or more?
a) 2 b) 3 c) 1 d) 4
Q 148. What is the average salary of A, C and E?
a) Rs.23,400 b) Rs.25,000 c) Rs.26,400 d) Rs.25,200
Q 149. For which parameter was the average rating of the boys the lowest?
a) Minimal calling b) Fast delivery c) Cleanliness d) Polite behavior
Q 150. If the company gives an extra cash reward of Rs.1,500 to any person who gets a
perfect rating in all
parameters, then what is the total salary of the one who got a perfect rating?
a) Rs.27,900 b) Rs.27,500 c) Rs.25,500 d) Rs.26,000

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Countdown Mock 03 (CLAT) 2023

approaches, employment creation can be sourced by constructing newer demands in tourism

Q 1. In the light of the passage, it can be inferred that:

b) The unorganized sector is not financially rewarding.

d) The semi-skilled workforce in India is often exploited by employers.

a) The tourism sector has the potential to generate employment opportunities.

d) Mostly Asian countries depend on the tourism sector.

c) Because India has myriad cultures.

d) Because of the amiable political climate.

a) Lack of trade unions b) c) d) Lack of information

a) Of b) Off c) At d) From

a) It is impossible to end movie piracy.

b) Piracy is a major problem in the film industry.

d) Movie piracy has increased after the advent of OTT platforms.

a) Single screen theatres are mostly found in big cities.

b) Single screen theatres are no longer frequented by people.

d) The movie watching experience in a single screen theatre is not satisfactory.

a) The film industry in India is taxed at multiple levels.

c) The film industry in India promotes certain stereotypical character roles.

d) The film industry in India is often tarnished by nepotism and corruption.

Q 9. In the light of the passage, it can be understood that:

a) Stern censorship parameters have increased in the present day context.

d) Stern censorship parameters often annoy the viewers of cinema.

a) Human rights are parochial. b) Human rights are predisposed.

a) Education can ensure a stable and formidable pedagogy in schools.

b) Education can improve civic amenities in the state.

c) Education can bring changes in the society.

d) Education can enlighten voters.

Q 13. As per the passage, the UNESCO believes:

a) Human rights violations cannot be stopped.

b) Human rights education fosters human rights.

c) Human rights should be promoted by the developed nations in the West.

d) Human rights should be conditional and not universal.

Q 14. As per the passage, the Constitution of India guarantees:

a) Equal opportunity. b) Right to university education.

c) Right to buy property. d) Right to access safe drinking water.

a) Racial attacks constitute the most heinous of human rights violation.

b) Human rights violations are often ignored by law enforcement agencies.

c) Human rights violation can result in loss of lives.

announced in the 1997-98 state budget as part

a) Kudumbasree champions the cause of safe sanitation.

c) Kudumbasree could never become a successful project.

d) Kudumbasree champions the cause of women.

Q 17. What is the author's perception about women's life in Kerala?

c) Women lived a life of liberation in Kerala. d) Female feticide is a problem in Kerala.

Q 19. The passage describes Kudumbasree as a project that:

a) aims at protecting Malayali culture. b) aims at mitigating women empowerment.

c) aims at mitigating poverty. d) aims at promoting child literacy.

a) Socialist schemes in Kerala b) Women empowerment and its effects

c) Gender disparity in Kerala d)

"Can it cure the one spiritual disease?"

"And what is the one spiritual disease?"

"Oh, thinking one is quite well.

d) The area of Flambeau's offices was getting developed

Q 22. What is the author meaning by the term "American"?

a) It is indicating Flambeau's preference in a particular matter

d) It is being used to express emphatic affirmation, agreement, or acceptance.

a) My friend foolishly forgot to take the first photo in France.

c) The Brave Little Toaster

d) She wasn't unhappy with her new car.

i. He wrote chilling stories about strong-willed modern characters.

ii. He expanded the expectations of characters in plays.